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Copyright 1999 Advanced Physical Therapy Concepts, All rights reserved.

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1: Mrs. D. is status post left CVA. While ambulating, what would be the
best position for you to be in considering the possibility she may fall?
A. On her left side
B. Directly behind her
C. On her right side
D. In front of her

2: While transferring a patient from the wheelchair to the bed, which is

the best action to take to protect yourself?
A. Get the patient to stand and pivot
B. Keep the patient close to you
C. Keep your knees straight
D. Have the patient grab around your shoulders

3: You are asked to teach a patient who is status post low back
surgery how to get into bed. What is the most appropriate technique
for getting into bed?
A. Prone entry into bed
B. Supine entry into bed
C. Side-lying onto the elbow and shoulder then lift legs
D. By lifting both legs then going onto one elbow and shoulder

4: Manual cervical traction is being performed on a patient supine.

Which is the most safe and effective position for the therapist?
 A. Standing with an erect posture
B. Standing with slight flexion at the hips
C. Cervical traction should be done in a seated position
D. Standing with knees slightly flexed

5: A 300-pound obese man has finished his physical therapy session

and must return to bed due to fatigue. What is the most appropriate
way to transfer this person?
A. With the assistance required and an aide to assist
B. The patient uses a walker and the therapist assists as needed
C. With the use of a hoyer lift
D. Using a sliding board

6: The correct and efficient use of a transfer sliding board involves all
of the following techniques except?
A. The patient is going from a higher level to lower level
B. Hands must be free from being pinched
C. The board must be secured under the patient
D. The patient is going from a lower level to higher level

7: When transferring a patient from a bed to a wheelchair, which

action should not be done?
A. Starting from a crouched position
B. Moving the patient outside of his base of support
C. Feet shoulder-width apart
D. Crossing the legs during the transfer

8: When transferring a patient, which of the following movements can

lessen the effects of leverage the most?
A. Starting from a crouched position
B. Keeping the patient close to you
 C. Using another person's assistance
D. Keeping your spine in a neutral position

9: In which scenario is it not safe to use a moist hot pack?

A. When the patient has psoriasis on the affected area
B. If the patient is fair skinned
C. When the skin is dark and erythema is difficult to see
D. All conditions are safe for superficial heat

10: While performing lavage wound care, the physical therapist is

wearing gloves and a protective gown. What other item should the
therapist wear for self-protection?
A. Eye glasses
B. Booties
C. Hair net
D. A mask for nose and mouth

11: When working with multiple patients and going from room to
room, which is the best technique to reduce transmission of infection?
A. Handle the patient as little as possible
B. Wear gloves during treatments
C. Hand washing
D. Avoid touching the patient's skin

12: You leave Mr. G. alone in his room. He is safe to transfer to the
bathroom if he uses surface support to assist his balance. Which of the
following equipment should be moved away from the bed?
A. Rolling bedside meal tray
B. Bedside commode
C. Wheelchair
D. Front wheeled walker
13: Treatment for the patient with painful excessive lumbar lordosis
and painful extension should include what?
A. Stretching of hip flexors
B. Strengthening of hip flexors
C. Stretching the glutes
D. Stretching the hamstrings

14: Which cardiovascular exercise would be best for a recent knee

injury with medial joint line pain?
A. Ambulation on a treadmill
B. Riding a stationary bicycle
C. Stair stepper
D. Rowing machine

15: An exercise program for someone with a diagnosis of Multiple

Sclerosis should consist of what?
A. Emphasis on endurance
B. High weight and low repetitions
C. Multi-angle isokinetics
D. Multi-speed isokinetics

16: A 70-year-old man with osteoarthritis would benefit the best from
which exercise program?
A. Riding a bicycle
B. Walking on a treadmill
C. Aquatic aerobics
D. A light weight training program

17: A patient at risk for a pressure ulcer needs pressure relief. Which
of the following would not be recommended?
A. Pillow under leg to raise heel
B. Pillow between the knees or ankles
 C. Blow up donut ring
D. Keeping the body on a level surface

18: You are working with a seated patient who has high tone and
becomes hypertonic. What is the best position to place the patient in
to decrease tone?
A. Slightly forward flexed and rocked
B. Reclined and rocked
C. Transferred to a reclined bed
D. Transferred to bed supine and level

19: A person with right-sided low back pain and a posture leaning to
the left would like pain relief. The best position for pain relief would
be?
A. Sitting supported on his left
B. The Trendelenburg position
C. Side-lying on his left with a pillow under his side
D. Side-lying on his right with a pillow under his side

20: You are treating a stable patient in a hospital setting who requires
minimal assistance with transfers. Prior to transferring the patient out
of bed into a chair, preparation must include all of the following
except?
A. Adjust the bed height
B. Monitor vitals
C. Put a gait belt on the patient
D. Have appropriate foot wear on

21: A patient receiving physical therapy for low back pain over 3
weeks has shown little improvement. You need to decide whether to
discharge the patient or change the plan of care. What would influence
you to recommend discharging the patient?
A. Intermittent lower extremity radiculopathy
 B. Groin pain
C. Parasthesias over the lateral border of the foot
D. Non-organic signs

22: A patient has been seen for pain and parasthesias in his arm and
hand. He has been primarily stretching and strengthening his wrist and
forearm. What signs would suggest treating the neck?
A. Parasthesias on the tips of digits 2 through 5
B. A negative Tinel's sign
C. Positive Speed's test
D. C-5 spinous process is tender upon palpation

23: Ultrasound is being applied to the lateral epicondyle for pain and
stiffness. The patient complains of a burning sensation. What should
be done?
A. Change from continuous to pulsed
B. Increase the watts used
C. Change from a 1 mHz head to a 3 mHz head
D. Turn the machine off

24: You are ambulating a patient back to her room after physical
therapy in the gym and she complains of chest pain. What should you
do?
A. Walk her to her room for rest
B. Stop and rest
C. Give her nitroglycerin pills
D. Have the patient sit down and rest

25: Which of the following best describes the most ergonomically

appropriate computer monitor setup?
A. With the computer monitor to the side approximately 15 degrees
B. With the computer monitor directly in the line of sight
 C. With the computer monitor positioned for a downward gaze
D. With the computer monitor positioned for an upward gaze

26: A meat butcher complains that his wrist hurts while cutting meat.
What should be recommended about the meat cutting tools that are
used?
A. The tool should position the wrist in slight flexion
B. The tool should position the wrist in ulnar deviation
C. The tool should be in slight pronation
D. The tool should position the wrist in neutral pronation-supination

27: A person who works in a warehouse must lift a 75-pound box.

Which would be the best lifting technique?
A. Flexing forward at the hips and lift
B. Squat with one foot in front of the other and shoulder-width
apart
C. Squat with feet even and shoulder-width apart
D. Straight leg lift for maximal leverage

28: A mother is getting a toy out of the bottom of her child's playpen
on the floor. Which is the best technique to use?
A. Flex forward with waist on the bar for support
B. Use the golfer's lifting technique
C. Get into play pen, kneel and get object
D. Squat down and reach for object

29: To be ADA compliant, what would be the minimum width, in

inches, for continual wheelchair passage?
A. 48 inches
B. 36 inches
C. 60 inches
D. 32 inches
30: In order to be ADA compliant, what would be the required space in
a public building for a wheelchair to make a 180 degree turn?
A. 60 inches
B. 48 inches
C. 36 inches
D. 72 inches

31: Your geriatric patient is ready for discharge to home with a cane
as an assistive device. Prior to discharge, the patient's home is toured.
Which of the following recommendations would you offer to improve
the patient's safety?
A. Installation of a raised commode
B. Moving furniture that might be in the way
C. Removing throw rugs
D. Adding a ramp into the house

32: A ramp is needed for access into a home. To be ADA compliant,

the ramp must meet all of the following requirements except?
A. A width of 36 inches
B. Railings on one side
C. Railings on both sides
D. A slope of 1:12

33: What are the best standards for hand washing?

A. Always after handling a patient
B. Before and after wound care
C. When gloves are not used
D. From the elbows down to the hands

34: Microorganism transmission can occur with which of the following?

A. Turning a patient in bed
B. Exposure to blood
 C. Airborne nuclei from someone who has coughed
D. All of the above

35: Which of the following statements about disposal of medical

equipment is correct?
A. Always recap needles
B. Laundry should be sterilized
C. Cut tips of needles
D. Place needles in puncture resistant containers

36: What is the best method for hand washing?

A. After every patient interaction
B. Rinse from the digits to elbow
C. Rinse from the elbow to the digits
D. Use of antimicrobial soap

37: A 60-year-old female experiences a fainting spell while working in

the parallel bars. What should you do?
A. Administer CPR
B. Sit the patient down
C. Use smelling salts to arouse the patient
D. Tilt the patient into a reclined position

38: A patient with a spinal cord injury experiences a pounding

headache, sweating, and hypertension. What should be done first?
A. Remove any noxious stimuli
B. Apply a cold compress to the patient's neck and forehead
C. Administer atropine
D. Lay the patient down

39: A patient is experiencing pain in her arm from a very tight

automatic blood pressure cuff and has a bradycardic episode. What
should you do immediately?
A. Notify the nurse
B. Alert the cardiac crash team
C. Remove the blood pressure cuff
D. Deflate the blood pressure cuff

40: When taking someone's pulse, which of the following is not a

parameter that could be assessed?
A. Regularity
B. Strength of the pulse
C. Blood pressure high or low
D. Patency

41: You are walking in the park and see a man down on the ground.
What should you do first?
A. Call for help
B. Call 9-1-1
C. Check the person for consciousness
D. Position the person into a comfortable position

42: You are performing CPR on a patient in the hospital. When should
you stop performing CPR?
A. When the person stops breathing
B. When you get tired
C. When a nurse arrives to help
D. After 20 minutes have passed

43: While performing CPR, you notice the chest is not rising when
giving breaths. What should be done?
A. Re-tilt the head back farther and try again
B. Clear the airway
 C. Continue and wait for EMS to arrive
D. Perform abdominal thrusts and then recheck the airway

44: While giving CPR to an adult, the recommended ratio of chest

compressions to giving breaths is?
A. 15 to 3
B. 15 to 2
C. 10 to 3
D. 10 to 2

45: You arrive upon the scene where there is a person down on the
ground not breathing who has choked on some food. What should you
do?
A. Sit the person up and perform the Heimlich maneuver
B. Roll them onto their stomach and give them blows to their back
with your hand
C. Give the person abdominal thrusts with the heels of your hands
in the supine position
D. Roll them on their side and give them blows to their back with
your hand

46: One of your patients has fallen and injured her wrist and now
cannot move it. What should you do?
A. Immobilize the wrist
B. Test the passive range of motion for fracture
C. Palpate for a fracture
D. Fill out an incident report form

47: You are watching a high school football game and a player gets
hurt. He is on the ground with an injured cervical spine. You are the
only medical professional available and you go onto the field. What
should you do first?
A. Remove the athlete's helmet
 B. Place the spine in a neutral position
C. Check for a patent airway
D. Place the athlete onto a back board

48: A patient has stepped on a pin, which is stuck in her foot. What is
the best course of action?
A. Apply pressure to the skin to relieve pain while waiting for a
nurse
B. Remove the pin and apply pressure
C. Elevate patient's leg and wait for a doctor or EMS to arrive on
site
D. Remove the pin and sterilize the area with betadine

49: A 53-year-old woman who has been on a long course of cortisone

medication may be at risk for which of the following?
A. Increase collagen formation
B. Atrophy of tendons
C. Destructive forces of passive stretching
D. Gallbladder disease

50: Your patient is taking a calcium channel blocker for his heart
condition. What would be an expected adverse reaction to this drug?
A. Nausea
B. Dizziness
C. Hallucinations
D. Parasthesias

51: You are treating a patient with low back pain after a motor vehicle
accident. She was given a narcotic from the emergency room doctor.
She describes to you how the drugs affect her. Which of the following
would not be expected from her analgesics?
A. Vertigo
B. Drowsiness
 C. Nervousness
D. Increased alertness

52: A patient with congestive heart failure is receiving Digitalis, which

can have undesirable side effects if the toxicity level becomes too high.
How would you expect the patient to behave if this were true?
A. Confusion and hallucinations
B. Tremors
C. Euphoria
D. Insomnia

53: Which of the following is an exercise for passive range of motion of

the shoulder?
A. Supine using a wand with both hands
B. Use of an over-the-door pulley system
C. Inferior glides of the glenohumeral joint
D. Standing using a wand with both hands

54: Which type of exercise will produce the greatest strength gains?
A. Concentric
B. Isokinetic
C. High speed movements
D. Eccentric

55: Performing dumbbell lifts in the PNF D1 flexion pattern will

strengthen which group of muscles?
A. Glenohumeral flexion, external rotation, and abduction
B. Glenohumeral extension, external rotation, and adduction
C. Glenohumeral flexion, internal rotation, and abduction
D. Glenohumeral flexion, external rotation, and adduction

56: After what amount of time can resistive exercises be safely carried
out with someone who has had a surgical repair of the rotator cuff
tendon?
A. 2 weeks
B. 10 days
C. 8 weeks
D. 16 weeks

57: Electrical muscle stimulation may be helpful to all of the following

conditions except?
A. Someone showing muscle atrophy
B. Post surgical candidate to prevent venous thrombosis
C. Someone with epilepsy
D. Someone needing increased muscular control

58: Delivery of medicinal substances can be achieved transdermally by

electrical stimulation if what condition exists?
A. By either a negative or positive electrode
B. By the electrode with the opposite ion charge
C. By the electrode with the same ion charge
D. The medicinal substance can only be transmitted by
phonopheresis

59: TENS is theorized to be effective by stimulating:

A. C nerve fibers
B. Pacinnian Corpuscles
C. Contraction of the muscle cells
D. Trigger points

60: You are going to stimulate a muscle for part of a patient's

treatment. What parameter is required to stimulate the muscle instead
of the nerve?
A. Less intensity than nerves
B. Less rheobase than nerves
 C. Twice the rheobase
D. Smaller pulse duration than nerve does

61: A 12-year-old boy has just been removed from a cast after
sustaining a Colles' fracture. Which of the following modalities should
not be used?
A. Moist heat
B. Ultrasound
C. Diathermy
D. Ice packs

62: A contraindication for using diathermy would be?

A. The patient has metal implants
B. Scoliosis
C. Osteoarthritis with degenerative joint disease
D. Patient has just had abdominal surgery

63: Cryotherapy is not indicated for which condition?

A. Dark pigmented skin
B. Persons with Raynaud's disease
C. Fair pigmented skin
D. Acute ankle sprain

64: Mechanical cervical traction is contraindicated in which of the

following scenarios?
A. Vertebral artery compromise
B. Acute sprain or strain
C. Pregnancy
D. Cervical joint hypomobility

65: A patient who has hemiplegia and difficulty advancing the

hemiparetic foot is receiving mobility training. Which technique would
be most efficient to prepare for foot advancement?
A. Rocking from the left foot onto the right foot
B. Sitting hip flexion exercise
C. Standing hip flexion exercise
D. Practice of lower extremity circumduction

66: A patient who has just gone through a total hip replacement is
placed on partial weight bearing and uses a walker. Which statement is
true?
A. The percentage of weight to be born is 1 to 10 percent
B. The gait pattern is to move the involved extremity forward first
C. The patient should step as close to the cross bar as possible
D. The gait pattern is to move the uninvolved extremity forward
first

67: A woman with right lateral ankle sprain is using a cane. The
correct sequence is what?
A. Cane in right hand advanced simultaneously as the uninvolved
foot
B. Cane in left hand advanced simultaneously as the uninvolved
foot
C. Cane in right hand advanced simultaneously as the involved foot
D. Cane in left hand advanced simultaneously as the involved foot

68: What is the correct height adjustment of a straight cane?

A. To the level of the iliac crest and 40 degrees of elbow flexion
B. To the level of the hip trochanter and 20 degrees of elbow
flexion
C. To the level of the trochanter and no elbow flexion
D. To the level of the iliac crest and no elbow flexion