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Copyright 1999 Advanced Physical Therapy Concepts, All rights reserved.

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1: The best placement of sphygmomanometer to record blood

pressure is where?
A. Directly in line with the heart.
B. Any superficial artery that can be occluded.
C. Only in the upper extremity.
D. Either the upper or lower extremity.

2: The correct placement of the stethoscope for blood pressure

recording is where?
A. On the anterior aspect of the left elbow.
B. Beneath the cuff, medial aspect of the brachium.
C. Beneath the cuff over the antecubital artery.
D. Directly perpendicular to the heart.

3: An untrained middle age adult's blood pressure is measured after

exertion. Which of the following is not a normal response?
A. Slight rise of systole.
B. Decline of diastole 15 mm Hg.
C. Decline of diastole 10 mm Hg.
D. Rise in diastole of 10 mm Hg.

4: The correct method of recording blood pressure is which of the

following?
 A. The last Koratkoff sound is diastole.
B. The fourth Koratkoff sound is diastole.
C. The pressure of the cuff should reach 200 mm Hg.
D. Systole is the first strong Koratkoff sound.

5: Squeezing the gastrocnemius while quickly passively dorsiflexing

the ankle with the other hand is a positive test for a deep vein
thrombosis if the patient has calf pain. The correct name for this test
is?
A. Squeeze test
B. Hoffman's
C. Homan's
D. Thompson's

6: While performing the Allen test at the wrist a lack of sensation of

blood rushing into the thumb side of the hand indicates a lack of
patency of what?
A. Radial artery.
B. Radial vein.
C. Medial cubital artery.
D. Ulnar artery

7: A diabetic is being examined for peripheral vascular disease. The

pedal pulse should be found where?
A. Over the navicular.
B. Above the cuneiforms.
C. Above the cuboid.
D. Posterior to the medial malleolus.

8: An 82 year old women's heart rate is determined to be bradycardic.

Which of these statements would be true?
A. Heart rate is below 50 beats per minute.
B. Heart rate is below 90 beats per minute.
 C. Heart rate is above 90 beats per minute.
D. Heart rate is below 60 beats per minute.

9: A 45 year old man with shoulder pain has limited motion in a

capsular pattern. What would this pattern of limitation be?
A. Abduction then flexion then external rotation.
B. Abduction then external rotation then internal rotation.
C. External rotation then abduction then internal rotation.
D. Lateral rotation then medial rotation then abduction.

10: A 22 year old female after knee surgery now has a 7 degree
limitation of extension. Which movement will need to be assessed?
A. Femoral medial rotation.
B. Femoral anterior glide.
C. Femoral lateral rotation.
D. Tibial posterior glide

11: A positive anterior apprehension test of the shoulder indicates

which structure is most likely injured?
A. Labrum.
B. Supraspinatus.
C. Acromioclavicular joint.
D. Inferior glenohumeral ligament

12: Palpable pain inferior to the ASIS could be muscular. To confirm

this, which resisted movement would need to accompany this?
A. Hip abduction.
B. Trunk flexion.
C. Hip Flexion.
D. Hip adduction

13: A patient has a partial thickness burn with blistering and pain. To
what structure would the damage be assessed?
A. Dermis.
B. Epidermis.
C. Muscle.
D. Fat.

14: A 20 year old mechanic is burned. His right arm, hand, chest, and
abdomen are completely burned. What is the assessed percentage of
damage?
A. 15 percent.
B. 25 percent.
C. 35 percent.
D. 10 percent.

15: A 63 year old woman with an ulcer on her right tibia is classified as
arterial insufficient. Which of these are not associated with arterial
insufficiency?
A. Edema.
B. No excess pigmentation.
C. Pain is present.
D. Strong arterial pulses.

16: A wound was cultured and found to be infected. Which of the

following would be most likely associated?
A. Fistula.
B. Eschar sloughing.
C. No odor.
D. Budding granulation

17: Upon auscultation of the lungs, absent breath sounds may be

associated with which disease process?
A. Pneumothorax.
B. Plueral inflammation.
 C. Airway stenosis.
D. COPD.

18: Proper hand placement for assessment of diaphragmatic breathing

is what?
A. Supine just below nipple level.
B. Prone at the lower ribs.
C. Sitting with hands at the supraclavicular fossa.
D. Supine with hands resting on the abdomen above the umbilicus.

19: Palpation for tracheal shifts should be placed where?

A. suprasternal notch.
B. With both hands over supraclavicular fossas.
C. At the xiphoid process.
D. At the level of the cricoid cartilage.

20: The proper technique to assess lung density is which of the

following?
A. Cupped hand technique.
B. Auscultation with the bell of stethoscope.
C. Striking the middle finger on top of the other middle finger over
ribs.
D. Striking the middle finger on top of the other middle finger
between ribs.

21: When auscultating the heart the first sound, S1, corresponds to
which characteristic?
A. The end of diastole.
B. The closing of the mitral valves.
C. The closing of the pulmonary valves
D. The closing of the aortic valve
22: In the chart of a 45 year old woman it is noted that she has
ventricular gallops heard on auscultation. Which does this correspond
with?
A. Failure of the mitral valves closing.
B. Inflammation of the pericardium.
C. Congestive heart failure.
D. Regurgitation through the aortic valve.

23: Auscultation of the second heart sound, S2, corresponds with

which of the following?
A. Mitral valve closing.
B. Pulmonic valve closing.
C. Systole.
D. Pulmonic valves opening.

24: Auscultation of the mitral valves to determine a murmur should be

done where?
A. To the right of the xiphoid process.
B. To the left of the xiphoid process.
C. To the right of the sternomanubrial joint.
D. Mid sternum.

25: A 26 year old patient with foot and ankle pain is being fitted for
orthoses. What is the correct posting for a forefoot varus deformity?
A. Medial heel post.
B. Lateral heel post.
C. Medial forefoot post.
D. Lateral forefoot post.

26: A 33 year old runner with foot pain and abnormal supination
during gait has orthoses prescribed. Which of the following would be of
greatest value?
 A. One offering increased shock absorption.
B. A rigid orthoses with arch support.
C. Semirigid orthoses with medial posting.
D. Semirigid orthoses with fore foot support.

27: Mrs. F. has a below the knee prosthesis and is experiencing tissue
break down at the tibia. What must be changed on the prosthesis?
A. Increased space for stump.
B. Pressure relieving indentation.
C. Increase circumferential pressure.
D. Build up protrusion for patellar tendon.

28: Mr. L. has an above the knee prosthesis and is experiencing a

medial whip. What can be done to improve this?
A. Rotate socket medially.
B. Rotate socket laterally.
C. Improve hip flexor strength.
D. Increase lateral wall contact.

29: A positive Babinski test of a 54 year old male has which of the
following associated with it?
A. Abduction of toes.
B. Upper motor neuron disease.
C. Flexion of the big toe.
D. Lower motor neuron disease.

30: Normal abdominal reflexes are which of the following?

A. Umbilical movement towards the stroked area.
B. Umbilical movement away from the stroked area
C. Upper motor lesion.
D. Umbilical movement either away or towards the stroked side.
31: Mrs. S. has a flexor synergy prominence in her upper extremity.
Which of the movements would she most likely have difficulty
performing?
A. Shoulder abduction and elbow flexion.
B. Shoulder external rotation and wrist flexion.
C. Shoulder flexion and elbow flexion.
D. Shoulder extension and elbow flexion.

32: Mr. F. has a pattern of extension synergy. Which of the following

movements would he most likely be able to do?
A. Shoulder flexion and internal rotation.
B. Shoulder flexion and external rotation.
C. Elbow extension and supination.
D. Wrist pronation and finger flexion.

33: Peroneal nerve conduction velocities are normal above and below
the fibular head, but across the fibular head are slowed. What would
this indicate?
A. Neurapraxia
B. ALS.
C. Neurotmesis
D. Polyneuropathy.

34: Motor nerve conduction studies are to be performed on the median

nerve at the forearm. The stimulation is performed distally with the
cathode placed proximally. How should the recording electrodes be
placed and what type of stimulation is this?
A. Cathode proximal, orthodromic.
B. Cathode proximal, antidromic.
C. Anode proximal, antidromic.
D. Anode proximal, orthodromic
35: A motor nerve conduction test of the median nerve is performed
with the proximal latency 8 msec, the distal latency is 2 msec, and the
distance between stimulation points is 30 cm's. What is the conduction
velocity?
A. 30 m/sec
B. 50 m/sec
C. 37.5 m/sec
D. 35 m/sec

36: To correctly identify injury to the medial cord of the brachial

plexus, positive EMG findings must be most likely found in a muscle
innervated by which nerve?
A. Ulnar
B. Radial
C. Suprascapular
D. Musculocutaneous

37: Correct detection of a deep tendon reflex requires which of the

following?
A. Strong tap with reflex hammer on tendon.
B. Light, quick tap with reflex hammer on tendon.
C. One or two taps.
D. Four to six taps on the tendon.

38: A patient was found to have decerebrate rigidity. Which of the

findings would be expected?
A. Trunk and limbs in flexion.
B. Lower limbs in extension and upper limbs in flexion.
C. Trunk and limbs in extension.
D. Cogwheel rigidity.

39: A patient was found on the floor in a position where lower limbs
were extended and upper limbs were flexed. This would indicate what?
A. Decerebrate rigidity.
B. Decorticate rigidity.
C. Spinal shock
D. Cerebral shock.

40: A quick stretch reflex to the ankle in dorsiflexion of a paraplegic

might produce which findings?
A. Clasp-knife rigidity.
B. A flaccid response.
C. Cyclical spasms.
D. Cogwheel rigidity.

41: An infant at 4 months old is held tipped to the side. The head is
tipping towards the same side.
A. This is normal.
B. This shows immaturity.
C. This is an abnormal reflex.
D. This indicates poor motor control.

42: A normal full term 5 month old infant should not demonstrate
which of the following?
A. Symmetrical alignment of trunk.
B. Movement against gravity.
C. Symmetrical alignment of extremities.
D. Influence of the tonic labyrinthine reflex.

43: The proper test to be used for motor function in infants would be?
A. The Denver II
B. The Apgar score
C. Righting reflexes
D. Tinetti Assessment
44: Which of the following primitive reflexes would you expect to
disappear first?
A. Asymmetrical Tonic neck reflex (ATNR)
B. Tonic Labyrinthine reflex (TLR)
C. Symmetric Tonic Neck Reflex (STNR)
D. Positive Supporting

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