Analysis Apprach Source Strategy General Studies Pre Paper 2020 PDF

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ANALYSIS / APPROACH / SOURCE / STRATEGY: GENERAL STUDIES PRE 2020 PAPER
- TEAM VISION IAS
Observations on CSP 2020
• This year the paper appeared to be on the tougher side and the options framed were confusing.
• The static portions like History, Polity, Geography, Economics, etc. as expected were given due weightage.
• Questions in almost all the subjects ranged from easy to medium to difficult level. Few unconventional questions were also seen. This year many questions were
agriculture related which were asked from geography, environment and economics perspective.
• Few questions asked by UPSC, although inspired by current affairs, required overall general awareness. For instance the questions on Indian elephants, cyber
insurance, G-20, Siachen glacier, etc.
• Polity questions demanded deeper understanding of the Constitution and its provisions. The options in polity questions were close but very easy basic fundamental
questions like DPSP, Right to Equality, etc were asked from regular sources like Laxmikanth. Few Questions covering the governance aspect like Aadhar, Legal
Services, etc were also given weightage.
• In the History section, Ancient India questions were given more weightage unlike in the previous years, and their difficulty level was also high. Art & Culture and
Medieval Indian history also had tough questions. However, the modern history section was of moderate level difficulty overall.
• Environment questions unlike previous years did not focus on International climate initiatives and bodies. This year focus lay on environmental issues, application of
technology and related concepts like benzene pollution, steel slag, biochar, etc.
• Map reading and Atlas continues to play an important role in one's preparation in the Geography section. This year Geography included a mix of factual and
conceptual questions like major minerals, ocean mean temperature, jet streams etc.
• S&T questions were more on technology aspects than on basic science. Direct relation of S&T developments could be linked with current affairs like Visible light
communication, pronuclear transfer, Pneumococcal vaccine etc. However, few questions did seek to test deeper knowledge and clarity like germline gene therapy,
e-LISA, Carbon Nano Tubes etc.
• Overall weightage to Economics questions was increased this year. It ranged from basic, definition based questions, questions like demand deposit, WPI,
commercial paper, reserve tranche etc. to current affairs inspired questions like KCC, MSP. Statistics/trend based questions were this year as compared to last year.
• The Current Affairs based questions were not restricted to past one year news but gauged overall depth and comprehension of the topics.
• Overall, themes of the questions asked seemed relevant but required in-depth understanding and knowledge. Thus, we can say that UPSC expects the aspirants to
even read the fine print and prepare topics holistically.
1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
Recommendations
• Read Basic/standard books, follow one Good News Paper religiously and use the internet as extensively as possible.
• Have keen perception about things going around you. After reading newspaper always clarify key terms from internet. Try to refer to the official govt. websites
more.
• Read standard text books on static subjects and don’t ignore NCERTs. Never ignore any subject completely to increase attemptability in the paper.
• An appropriate strategy should be to avoid negative marking in tough questions and maximize your score by first finding the easy ones and completing them.
• Read questions carefully and use elimination technique wherever possible.
Nature of Question EM = Essential material like basic books etc.

F: Fundamental, Conventional and conceptual question which is easily available in commonly RM = Reference material
recommended books. If a current affairs source is mentioned then it indicates that you had one
more reason to prepare this. EN = Essential News/Current Affairs
FA: Fundamental Applied question is an analytical question which requires information + RR = Random Read like random website etc.
application of mind. E : Easy , M : Medium , D : Difficult
Answer to these questions are from commonly recommended books but not so obvious to
find.
CA: Current Affair question which can be answered almost completely using given source
alone.
CAA: Current Affair Applied question needs information from more than one source to answer
AND/OR application of mind (common sense and overall understanding) of aspirant. This is
why source for these questions may not be answering the question completely.
FCA: Fundamental + Current affair. This is a F or FA question supplemented with current affairs
or a current affairs question that needs background information for complete answer. Source
to these questions might not answer the questions in entirety.
U (Unconventional Question): Unconventional Question means the question that is distantly
related to syllabus provided by UPSC. It is neither present in even reference sources (in
addition to recommended books) nor prominently in news.

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QN Section Question Explanation v Source Motivation
w ure Type Current Affairs
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1 S&T When reference to carbon D Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are D CAA https://www. RR ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: The use of
nanotubes, consider the cylindrical large molecules ncbi.nlm.nih.g TEST 2988 technologies based
following statements: consisting of a hexagonal ov/pmc/articl In the field of on Carbon Nanotubes
1. They can be used as arrangement of hybridized carbon es/PMC48132 nanotechnology, carbon is gaining ground and
carriers of drugs and atoms, which may by formed by 64/ nanotubes (CNT) are that's why it is often
antigens in the human body. rolling up a single sheet of gaining importance. In in the news.
2. They can be made into graphene (single-walled carbon https://techno this context, which of the
artificial blood capillaries for nanotubes, SWCNTs) or by rolling logy.nasa.gov/ following statements are
correct?
an injured part of human up multiple sheets of graphene patent/TOP2-
1. They are cylindrical
body. (multiwalled carbon nanotubes, 104
molecules that consist of
3. They can be used in MWCNTs). Hence structurally,
rolled-up sheets of
biochemical sensors. carbon nanotubes (CNTs) can be https://www. carbon atoms.
4. Carbon nanotubes are viewed as wrapped from ncbi.nlm.nih.g 2. They can be used in
biodegradable. graphene sheets. ov/pmc/articl drug delivery and
Which of the statements Carbon nanotubes were once es/PMC41142 cleaning up of oil spills.
given above are correct? considered to be resistant to 41/ 3. They have extremely
(a) 1 and 2 only chemical damage due to their high density and low
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only rigid and perfect chemical https://nanos chemical stability.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only structure, which rendered them calereslett.spr Select the correct answer
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ingeropen.co using the code given
immune to biodegradation.
m/articles/10. below.
However, enzymes like peroxidase
1186/s11671- (a) 1 and 2 only
were found to play an important
018-2689-9 (b) 2 and 3 only
role in the process of (c) 1 and 3 only
biodegradation of carbon (d) 1, 2 and 3
nanotubes. Hence option 4 is https://ir.uiow
a.edu/cgi/vie EXPLANATION
correct. Carbon nanotubes (CNTs)
wcontent.cgi?
NASA has demonstrated the use are cylindrical molecules
article=5488&
of carbon nanotube arrays as that consist of rolled-up
context=etd
biosensors. Hence option 3 is sheets of single-layer
correct. carbon atoms (graphene).
They can be single-walled
Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are (SWCNT) with a diameter
characterized by unique chemical of less than 1 nanometer
and biological properties. CNTs (nm) or multi-walled
have a large surface area that (MWCNT), consisting of
allows them to attach a wide several concentrically
range of biological substances. In interlinked nanotubes,
addition, CNTs are able to with diameters reaching
penetrate through cell more than 100 nm. Their
membranes, capillaries, and length can reach several
accumulated in cells and tissues. micrometers or even
millimeters.
It is expected that enabling CNTs also have unique
technology would facilitate the thermal and mechanical
making of nanodevices using properties that make
these blood-compatible them intriguing for the
nanomaterials as building blocks development of new
for biomedical applications such materials:
as artificial implants, including their thermal
structural tissue replacements, conductivity is better
that is, artificial blood vessels, or than that of the diamond.
functional devices such as drug they are very light-weight
delivery matrixes. Hence – their density is one-
sixth of that of steel just
statements 1 and 2 are correct.
like graphite, they are
highly chemically stable
and resist virtually any
chemical impact unless
they are simultaneously
exposed to high
temperatures and
oxygen.
their hollow interior can
be filled with various
nanomaterials,
separating and shielding
them from the
surrounding
environment - a property
that is extremely useful
for nanomedicine
applications like drug
delivery.
CNTs find an incredible
range of applications in
electronics, materials

science, energy
management, chemical
processing, and many
other fields.
Carbon nanotubes are
being developed to clean
up oil spills. Researchers
have found that adding
boron atoms during the
growth of carbon
nanotubes causes the
nanotubes to grow into a
sponge-like material that
can absorb many times
its weight in oil.
2 S&T Consider the following D Drone technology has been used D CAA https://www.i RR The Ministry of Civil
activities: by defense organizations for quite sro.gov.in/app Aviation has
1. Spraying pesticides on a some time. However, the benefits lications-of- published the draft
crop field of this technology extends well unmanned- Unmanned Aircraft
2. Inspecting the craters of beyond just these sectors e.g. aerial-vehicle- System Rules, 2020,
active volcanoes emergency response, uav-based- in a bid to frame
3. Collecting breath samples humanitarian relief, healthcare, remote- regulations around
from spouting whales for disease control, weather sensing-ne- drone usage
DNA analysis. forecasting etc. Recently, region
At the present level of Australian scientists used drones
technology, which of the (that flew 200 metres above the https://www.s
above activities can be blowholes of whales) to collect ciencedaily.co
successfully carried out by the mucus of whales from their m/releases/20
using drones? water sprays to examine their 20/05/200525
(a) 1 and 2 only health.The whale spray collected 115649.htm
(b) 2 and 3 only by a drone contains DNA,
(c) 1 and 3 only proteins, lipids and types of https://www.f
(d) 1, 2 and 3 bacteria. Hence option 3 is irstpost.com/t
correct. ech/science/r
Drones have also been used to esearchers-
study the craters of active are-now-
volcanoes to know about their using-drones-
recent activities, a place which to-collect-
human beings cannot directly whale-mucus-
access. Hence option 2 is correct. to-track-their-
Recently, the use of drones to health-
spray pesticides (in Telengana) 6024571.html
was in the news. It is considered
illegal in India. But in the US it is
legally practised in many states.
Hence option 1 is correct.
Hence option (d) is the correct
answer.
3 S&T The experiment will employ D The experimental research on M CA https://www.t EN Gravitational Waves
a trio of spacecraft flying in black holes using gravitational hehindu.com/ and associated
formation in the shape of an waves expanded following the sci- developments are
equilateral triangle that has second detection of gravitational tech/science/S always in the news.
sides one million kilometers waves by the LIGO detector. After pace- After LISA pathfinder,
long, with lasers shining the success of the LISA Pathfinder antennae-to- eLISA is next in the
between the craft." The experiment, the evolved Laser probe- line.
experiment in question Interferometer Space Antenna gravitational-
refers to (eLISA) project is a plan of setting waves/article1
(a) Voyager-2 into space three spacecraft, a 4433813.ece
(b) New Horizons mother and two daughter
(c) LISA Pathfinder spacecraft, which will fly in a https://ui.ads
(d) Evolved LISA triangular formation, trailing the abs.harvard.e
earth in its orbit around the sun at du/abs/2013H
a distance of over 50 million km. EAD...1330201
Each arm of the imaginary D/abstract
triangle, from the mother to each
daughter spacecraft, will measure
about a million km. Inside these
spacecraft will float “freely falling”
test masses – cubes with sides
measuring abut 46 mm. Laser
interferometers will accurately
measure changes in the distance
between these cubes. If they
should be affected by a
gravitational wave, the minute
changes in this distance are
measure by the interferometer.
Hence option (d) is the correct
answer.

4 S&T Consider the following D Germline gene therapy targets the M CAA https://world RM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: Gene Therapy and
statements: reproductive cells, meaning any health.net/ne TEST 2970 Mitochondrial
1. Genetic changes can be changes made to the DNA will be ws/human- With reference to Gene Replacement Therapy
introduced in the cells that passed on to the next generation. embryos- Therapy, consider the have been in the
produce eggs or sperms of a Consequently, the practice has gentically- following statements: news.
prospective parent. dramatically divided opinion. altered- 1. It involves the delivery https://www.deccanc
2. A person's genome can be Germline gene therapy is when unintended- of a normal gene into the hronicle.com/lifestyle
edited before birth at the DNA is transferred into the cells consequences individual to compensate /health-and-
for the non-functional
early embryonic stage. that produce reproductive cells, / wellbeing/030817/for
gene.
3. Human induced eggs or sperm, in the body. Hence https://www. -first-time-disease-
2. It allows correction of a
pluripotent stem cells can be statement 1 is correct. ncbi.nlm.nih.g edited-out-of-genes-
gene defect that has
injected into the embryo of a Although germline gene therapy is ov/pmc/articl been diagnosed in an in-human-
pig. illegal, embryonic genetic editing es/PMC68139 embryo. embryo.html
Which of the statements is different from that and is 42/ Which of the statements
given above is/are correct? possible to make genome changes given above is/are
(a) 1 only to eliminate the vertical trasfer http://sitn.hm correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (through inheritance) of certain s.harvard.edu/ (a) 1 only
(c) 2 only diseases and medical conditions. flash/2019/ge (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Hence statement 2 is correct. netic-editing- (c) Both 1 and 2
Human-animal chimeras are human- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
animals bearing human cells and embryos- EXPLANATION:
organs. They offer insights into united-states- Gene therapy is a
early human development and ignites- collection of methods
disease onset and provide a debate/#:~:te that allows correction of
realistic drug-testing platform. xt=However% a gene defect that has
Researchers have experimented 2C%20germ% been diagnosed in a
by injecting several different 20cells%20an child/embryo. Here genes
are inserted into a
forms of human stem cells into pig d%20embryos
person’s cells and tissues
embryos to see which cell-type ,allowing%20s
to treat a disease.
would survive best. The cells that cientists%20to
Correction of a genetic
survived longest and showed the %20direct%20 defect involves delivery
most potential to continue to evolution.&te of a normal gene into the
develop were intermediate xt=Certain%20 individual or embryo to
human pluripotent stem cells. genetic%20de take over the function of
Hence statement 3 is correct. fects%20that and compensate for the
%20cause,cur non-functional gene.
ed%20with%2 The first clinical gene
0embryonic% therapy was given in
20gene%20edi 1990 to a 4-year old girl
ting. with adenosine

deaminase (ADA)
https://www.s deficiency. This enzyme is
ciencedaily.co crucial for the immune
m/releases/20 system to function. The
17/01/170126 disorder is caused due to
132536.htm#: the deletion of the gene
~:text=The%2 for adenosine deaminase.
0researchers% In some children ADA
deficiency can be cured
20injected%2
by bone marrow
0several%20di
transplantation; in others
fferent,interm
it can be treated by
ediate%22%2 enzyme replacement
0human%20pl therapy, in which
uripotent%20s functional ADA is given to
tem%20cells. the patient by injection.
But the problem with
both of these approaches
that they are not
completely curative. As a
first step towards gene
therapy, lymphocytes
from the blood of the
patient are grown in a
culture outside the body.
A functional ADA cDNA
(using a retroviral vector)
is then introduced into
these lymphocytes, which
are subsequently
returned to the patient.
However, as these cells
are not immortal, the
patient requires periodic
infusion of such
genetically engineered
lymphocytes. However, if
the gene isolate from
marrow cells producing
ADA is introduced into
cells at early embryonic
stages, it could be a

permanent cure.
Hence, both the
statements are correct.
5 S&T What is the importance of B A conjugate vaccine is a type of D CA https://www.t EN In July, 2020 Drug
using Pneumococcal vaccine which combines a weak hehindu.com/ Controller General of
Conjugate Vaccines in India? antigen with a strong antigen as a sci- India (DCGI) has
1. These vaccines are carrier so that the immune system tech/health/fi given approval to the
effective against pneumonia has a stronger response to the rst- first fully
as well as meningitis and weak antigen. indigenous- indigenously
sepsis. A Pneumococcal Conjugate vaccine-for- developed
2. Dependence on antibiotics Vaccine (PCV) is a pneumococcal infant- Pneumococcal
that are not effective against vaccine which gives prevention pneumonia- Polysaccharide
drug resistant bacteria can against pneumococcal diseases, approved/arti Conjugate Vaccine.
be reduced. that are infections caused by cle32095084.e This vaccine has been
3. These vaccines have no bacteria called Streptococcus ce developed by M/s.
side effects and cause no pneumoniae, or pneumococcus. Serum Institute of
allergic reactions. Pneumococcal infections can https://www.s India Pvt. Ltd, Pune.
Select the correct answer range from ear and sinus ciencedirect.c Serum Institute first
using the code given below: infections to pneumonia and om/science/ar obtained the
(a) 1 only bloodstream infections. A ticle/pii/S1201 approval of DCGI to
(b) 1 and 2 only pneumococcal vaccine is also 97121930397 conduct Phase I,
(c) 3 only commonly called pneumonia 2#:~:text=Whi Phase II and Phase III
(d) 1, 2 and 3 vaccine and can prevent le%20vaccines clinical trials of
septicaemia (a kind of blood %20are%20no Pneumococcal
poisoning, also called sepsis) and t%20intended, Polysaccharide
meningitis. Hence statement 1 is reducing%20a Conjugate Vaccine in
correct. ntibiotic%20us India. These trials
While vaccines are not intended e%20and%20 have since been
to replace antibiotics, they can misuse. concluded within the
contribute to reduce AMR country. The said
(Antimicrobial Resistance or drug https://ourwo Company has also
resistance) by preventing rldindata.org/ conducted these
(resistant) bacterial diseases and vaccines- clinical trials in
their transmission, and by antibiotic- another country i.e.
reducing antibiotic use and dependence Gambia.
misuse. PCVs for pneumococcos
can potentially reduce the
dependence on antibiotics by
nearly 50 fifty percent per year.
Hence statement 2 is correct.

Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines
can have side effects ranging from
fever, loss of appetite to
headache, fussiness. Hence
statement 3 is not correct.
6 CURRENT In India, the term "Public Key A Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a E CA https://www. RR Digital security
AFFAIRS Infrastructure is used in the technology for authenticating pki.network/in infrastructure in
context of users and devices in the digital dia/Faq/ news.
(a) Digital security world. The basic idea is to have Difference between
infrastructure one or more trusted parties Digital signature and
(b) Food security digitally sign documents certifying Digital Signature
infrastructure that a particular cryptographic key Certificate has
(c) Health care and education belongs to a particular user or already been asked
infrastructure device. Hence option (a) is the by UPSC.
(d) Telecommunication and correct answer.
transportation infrastructure
7 GENERAL Which of the following C The most important difference M F https://ncert. EM
SCIENCE statements are correct between a plant cell and an nic.in/ncerts/l
regarding the general animal cell is that the former has /iesc105.pdf
difference between plant a cell wall. A cell wall gives Class 9th
and animal cells? mechanical support to a plant cell. NCERT
1. Plant cells have cellulose Animal cells do not have cell walls.
cell walls whilst animal cells Plants have both a cell wall that is
do not. made up of cell membrane
2. Plant cells do not have (plasma membrane) and cellulose.
plasma membrane unlike The cell wall is, a rigid membrane
animal cells which do. matrix found on the surface of all
3. Mature plant cell has one plant cells whose primary role is
large vacuole whilst animal to protect the cell and its content.
cell has many small vacuoles. Hence statement 1 is correct and
Select the correct answer statement 2 is not correct.
using the code given below: Plant cells have a large central
(a) 1 and 2 only vacuole that can occupy up to
(b) 2 and 3 only 90% of the cell’s volume. Animal
(c) 1 and 3 only cells may have many small
(d) 1, 2 and 3 vacuoles, a lot smaller than the
plant cell. Hence statement 3 is
correct.

8 ENVIRONME Which of the following are D Sources of exposure to benzene M FA https://indian RR Benzene pollution
NT the reasons/factors for Human exposure to benzene has express.com/a increased during the
exposure to benzene been associated with a range of rticle/cities/m lockdown in cities.
pollution? acute and long-term adverse health umbai/lockdo
1. Automobile exhaust effects and diseases, including wn-impact-
2. Tobacco smoke cancer and aplastic anaemia. Active sharp-drop-in-
3. Wood burning and passive exposure to tobacco nitrogen-
4. Using varnished wooden smoke is also a significant source of dioxide-
exposure. Benzene is highly volatile,
furniture benzene/
and most exposure is through
5. Using products made of
inhalation. Natural sources of
polyurethane https://www.
benzene include volcanoes and
Select the correct answer forest fires. Benzene is also a who.int/ipcs/f
using the code given below: natural part of crude oil, gasoline, eatures/benze
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only and cigarette smoke. ne.pdf
(b) 2 and 4 only Industrial processes
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only As benzene occurs naturally in
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 crude petroleum at levels up to 4
g/l, human activities using
petroleum lead to exposure. These
activities include processing of
petroleum products, coking of coal,
production of toluene, xylene and
other aromatic compounds, and
use in industrial and consumer
products, as a chemical
intermediate and as a component
of petrol (gasoline) and heating
oils. The presence of benzene in
petrol and as a widely used
industrial solvent can result in
significant occupational exposure
and widespread emissions to the
environment. Automobile exhaust
accounts for the largest source of
benzene in the general
environment.
Wood finishes can contain and emit
various chemicals. For example,
paints and some wood treatments
can contain formaldehyde, acetone,
toluene or butanol. Wood dyes can

contain: nonane, decane, undecane,
dimethyloctane, dimethylnonane,
trimethylnonane, trimethylbenzene.
During fires, polyurethane foams
burn rapidly and produce dense
smoke, toxic gases and intense
heat. Carbon monoxide is most
common, but smoke also contains
benzene, toluene, nitrogen oxides
and hydrogen cyanide.
9 ECONOMICS If another global financial A If a global financial crisis happens M FA https://www.f EN Global Financial
crisis happens in the near in the future, lesser exposure to ocus- Crisis; the ripple
future, which of the the foreign financial markets is economics.co effect; considered to
following action/policies are likely to give some immunity to m/blog/the- be a negative
most likely to give some India. next-financial- landmark in the
immunity to India? Option 1 is correct: Short-term crisis-how- world -polico-
1. Not depending on short- borrowings would lead to the when-it-will- economic history.
term foreign borrowings burden of paying back the debt, happen-
2. Opening up to more and could result in stressful according-to-
foreign banks conditions for the borrowing 26-experts
3. Maintaining full capital economy/ India.
account convertibility Option 2 is not correct: Opening https://www.
Select the correct answer up to more foreign banks would weforum.org/
using the code given below: lead to an enhanced exposure to agenda/2019/
(a) 1 only the global economy, and hence an 01/what-can-
(b) 1 and 2 only increased risk. we-do-to-
(c) 3 only Option 3 is not correct: Currency prevent-
(d) 1, 2 and 3 convertibility refers to a situation another-
in which a currency can be global-
converted into a foreign currency, financial-
and vice-versa at the prevailing crisis/
exchange rate without any
government intervention. In India,
we cannot completely convert
rupees to dollars- There are
restrictions to the same.
Now, capital account
convertibility is the freedom to
convert domestic currency into a
foreign currency, and vice-versa

wrt capital account transactions
of the Balance of Payments
accounts. It could also be the
freedom to convert domestic
financial assets (like rupees) /
liabilities into foreign assets /
liabilities and vice-versa. It is
more risky, as the foreign
investors can withdraw all their
money at once which called
capital flight.
Risks associated with full capital
account convertability:
• It increases the vulnerability of
the domestic economy to external
economic shocks. Hence the
economy becomes unstable- For
example, during the American
recession- countries that were
more connected were affected
more.
• Flight of capital- i.e. the
withdrawal of huge foreign
exchange within a short period of
time. If full convertibility is not
there, the RBI can check the
complete withdrawal of funds.
(This flight of capital happened in
the South East Asian crisis of
1997. For these Asian tigers- the
fastest growing economies of the
world- the current account was in
a deficit, but there was significant
inflow in their capital accounts.
However, as interest rates in
America increased, people
withdrew their money and foreign
exchange began to deplete. The
people began to fear that they
would not be able to take their
money out. Out of this fear,
everybody started to withdraw
their investments- FDI was also
withdrawn and the recession set
in- they collapsed in one go!)
• It increases volatility in the
domestic financial markets
• The capital Account is potentially
more volatile than the current
account- People cannot start
consuming double/ triple/ four
times the previous amount. But
investment in shares accumulates,
and the entire money can be
immediately withdrawn.
10 ECONOMICS If you withdraw Rs. 1,00,000 D There are 4 concepts of money E FA NCERT EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
in cash from your Demand supply: M1, M2, M3 and M4 TEST 2969
Deposit Account at your 1) M1 = C + DD + OD In the context of the
bank, the immediate effect C- Is the currency held by the money supply in an
on aggregate money supply public. (Public money means that economy, High Powered
in the economy will be money which is held by everybody Money includes
(a) to reduce it by Rs. other than the government and (a) Interbank deposits,
1,00,000 the banks. It includes companies, which a commercial
(b) to increase it by Rs. general organisations, bank holds in other
1,00,000 households. It does not include commercial banks.
(c) to increase it by more inter-bank or government (b) deposits of the
than Rs. 1,00,000 deposits in banks) Government of India
(d) to leave it unchanged DD- Means net demand deposits and commercial banks
with banks. ‘Net’ here indicates held with RBI.
the deposits of only the public in (c) currency in
banks. circulation with the
OD- Means other deposits.These public and vault cash of
are the deposits with the RBI, held commercial banks.
by certain individuals and (d) Both (b) and (c).
institutions
• Individuals - like the former
governors of the RBI
• institutions- like IMF deposits
2) M3 = M1 + TD = C + DD + OD +
TD (Broad money)

'TD' means time deposits
M3 shows the total purchasing
power in the economy. Therefore,
when we say money supply in
general, it means M3. So,
normally, in newspapers etc.
when the word money supply is
used, it means M3 (Sometimes,
M1 is also used- meaning 100%
liquid money- but overall PP is
shown by M3)
Now, in the given case, while the
'DD' component will fall by Rs.
1,00,000, the 'C' component will
increase by Rs. 1,00,000, thereby,
leaving the money supply
unchanged. Hence option (d) is
the correct answer.
11 Art & Culture With reference to the C The Fourth Noble Truth, the Noble M F Al Basham : RM ABHYAAS TEST 1, 3000:
cultural history of India, Eightfold Path, gives what the Wonder That He is known as the holder
which one of the following is Buddhist pilgrim (or practitioner) Was India Ch- of compassion of all
the correct description of the has to practice, and the path Religion: cults, Buddhas. Often
term paramitas? which he has to follow, to achieve doctrines and portrayed with a lotus in
(a) The earliest Enlightenment and realize metaphysics his hand, he is the one
Dharmashastra texts written Nibbana. There is a parallel path Upinder Singh who is full of love and
in aphoristic (sutra) style which consists of perfecting 8th sympathy. His doctrines
are generally found in the
(b) Philosophical schools that certain qualities, which leads the impression(20
“Lotus Sutra”. His
did not accept the authority pilgrim to becoming a Samma 16) pages 440-
painting in the Ajanta
of Vedas Sambuddha, a self Enlightened 441
caves is one of the
(c) Perfections whose Universal Buddha. The qualities marvelous features of the
attainment led to the are called the Paramis caves.
Bodhisattva path (perfections) in the Southern Which bodhisattva is
(d) Powerful merchant guilds traditions and the Paramitas in being talked about in the
of early Medieval South India the Eastern and Northern above passage?
traditions. The elements of the (a) Ksitigarbha
Noble Path and the Paramis are (b) Manjusri
similar. (c) Avalokitesvara
The ten Paramis are: (d) Vajrapani
Generosity - giving help and
benefit to other living beings
Morality - live an ethical life EXPLANATION:
Renunciation - renounce worldly According to the older
pleasures conceptions, the Buddha
Wisdom - achieve a right wrought many deeds of
understanding of life and the kindness and mercy in a
world long series of
Energy - persistent effort and not transmigrations as a
being discouraged by failures Bodhisattva. The Jataka
stories show that
Patience - patiently accept life’s
Bodhisattvas can be
ups and downs
incarnated as men, or
Truthfulness - honesty and
even as animals; but the
truthfulness in all things more advanced
Determination - unwavering Bodhisattvas, who have
determination to progress on the the greatest power for
path good, must be divine
Loving-kindness - show beings in the heavens.
benevolence and compassion to Bodhisattvas existing at
all things present in the universe
Equanimity - develop a perfect are working continuously
mental equilibrium. for the welfare of all
The ten Paramitas of the Eastern things living.
and Northern traditions are; Another important
Generosity Bodhisattva is Manjusri,
Morality whose special activity is
Patience to stimulate the
Energy understanding, and who
Meditation is depicted with a naked
sword in one hand, to
Wisdom
destroy error and
Skillful means
falsehood, and a book in
Resolution
the other, describing the
Power ten paramitas, or great
Knowledge spiritual perfections,
Despite slight differences in the which are the cardinal
wording, the two sets of qualities virtues developed by
are similar. Bodhisattvas.
12 MODERN In the context of Indian B Dr. Rakhmabai Bhikaji was a D F PLASSEY TO RM
INDIA history, the Rakhmabai case pioneer in the field of medicine PARTITION by
of 1884 revolved around and women’s rights in the 19th Shekhar
1. women's right to gain century. Her efforts to be granted Bandopadhya
education the right to choose was y: Ch - Early
2. age of consent instrumental in raising the age of Nationalism
3. restitution of conjugal consent for women in 1891. She https://shodh
rights went on to study in the London ganga.inflibne
Select the correct answer school of Medicine for Women in t.ac.in/bitstre
using the code given below: 1889. When she came back to am/10603/16
(a) 1 and 2 only India to work in a hospital in 1894, 4670/10/10_c
(b) 2 and 3 only she became India’s first practicing hapter%205.p
(c) 1 and 3 only lady doctor. df
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Rakhmabai got married at 11-
years of age to the 19-year old
Dadaji Bhikaji. As was convention
at the time, she stayed at her
parents house, this was the time
she spent in educating herself
under the guidance of her
stepfather.
When Rakhmabai was still in
school, her husband, Dadaji,
insisted that Rakhmabai come and
live with him in his house.
Rakhmabai, not one to blindly
follow convention, refused.
Dadaji soon filed a petition in the
court of law. Early in 1884, one of
India’s most influential and
publicized trials began.
Rukhmabai asked ‘freedom’ from
her nonconsensual marriage,
seeking a legal divorce. Her stand
gave rise to a nation-wide debate
over infant and non-consensual
marriage. The legal and social
controversies provoked by the
case revolved round notions of
colonial law, marriage and
conjugality, and the prospect of
state intervention. For the first
time, the social orthodoxy, which
had so far resisted state
intervention in ‘family’ and
‘religion’, appealed to colonial law
to discipline the disobedient wife.
Behramji Malabari and Pandita
Ramabai came to her defense and
formed the Rakhmabai Defense
Committee. The case spanned 4
years until Dadaji was
“compensated” in 1888, outside
of court.
13 MODERN Indigo cultivation in India B Indigo, the blue dye, was extracted M F Our Past-III, EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
INDIA declined by the beginning of from plants in ancient times, some Ncert class - TEST 2968
the 20th century because of 5000-6000 years ago (3000-4000 8th,chapter:R With reference to
(a) peasant resistance to the BCE), both in the Old (Asia, Africa ULING THE Champaran Satyagraha,
oppressive conduct of and Europe) and New (Americas) COUNTRYSIDE consider the following
planters Worlds. It got its name Indigo, , Page.no. 36- statements:
(b) its unprofitability in the because it reached Europe from 37 1. The movement was
world market because of Indus Valley, India and later from Pg 293 AND led by Mahatma Gandhi
other parts of India by the
new inventions 294 FROM along with Rajendra
Portuguese and other European
(c) national leaders' PLASSEY TO Prasad, Narhari Parikh,
sailors. It was commercially
opposition to the cultivation PARTITION by and J.B Kripalani.
encouraged and traded by the
of indigo British, firstly by the cultivation of Sekhar 2. The satyagraha ended
(d) Government control over indigo plant and production of the Bandyopadhy when planters agreed to
the planters dye in South Carolina, USA in aya. refund all of the money
mid18th century, which was then a Bipin Chandra: they had taken illegally
British colony. However, this CH: Gandhiji's from the peasants.
stopped after the British colonies in Early Career Which of the
USA gained their freedom after and Activism; statements given above
American Revolutionary War (1775- Pg: 178-179 is/are correct?
1783). It was then that British East EXPLANATION:
India Company (BEIC) started its Champaran Satyagraha
production in Bengal and part of the took place in 1917
current Bihar states of India and under the leadership of
continued it until the second Mahatma Gandhi. It was
decade of 20th century. The the first civil
Company looked for ways to disobedience action in
expand the area under indigo the history of Indian
cultivation in India. From the last
National Movement.
decades of the eighteenth century,
The story of Champaran
indigo cultivation in Bengal rapidly
begins in the early
expanded. Only about 30% of indigo
imported to Britain in 1788 was nineteenth century
from India. This figure went up to when European planters
95% by 1810. had involved the
Commercial agents and officials of cultivators in
the Company began investing in agreements that forced
indigo production to increase their them to cultivate indigo
profit. Many Company officials even on 3/20th (not all) of
left their jobs to look after their their holdings (known as
indigo business. Many people from the tinkathia system).
Scotland and England came to India
Towards the end of the
and became planters; to grab the
nineteenth century,
opportunity. The Company and
German synthetic dyes
banks were giving loans for indigo
cultivation at that time. forced indigo out of the
Thus, indigo crop has been market and the
associated with and created quite a European planters of
bit of history. Faced by high prices Champaran, keen to
charged by the British traders for release the cultivators
indigo dye, German chemists had from the obligation of
already started their search for cultivating indigo, tried
making synthetic indigo and Adolf to turn their necessity to
Baeyer succeeded in synthesizing it their advantage by
in 1882. This was followed by securing enhancements
research by other German chemists, in rent and other illegal
namely, Johannes Pfleger and Karl dues as a price for the
Heumann in the first decade of 20th release.
century. The synthetic dye was
much cheaper and blew the final
blow to the natural plant produced
indigo dye and indigo crop became
a part of history. Now most of the
indigo dye used world-over is made
synthetically.
14 MODERN Wellesley established the D Fort William College was E F 12th Old EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
INDIA Fort William College at established on 18 August 1800 by NCERT : Bipin TEST 2975
Calcutta because Lord Richard Wellesley (d. 1837), Chandra : With reference to the
(a) he was asked by the Governor General of Bengal, in Modern development of civil
Board of Directors at London order to provide instruction in the Indian History services during British
to do so vernacular languages of India to Spectrum - Ch rule in India, consider the
(b) he wanted to revive the civil and military officials of 10 - following statements:
1. Cornwallis was the first
interest in oriental learning the East India Company. It was Development
to bring into existence
in India named after King William III of of Education
and organise the civil
(c) he wanted to provide England. The purposes were multi Pg 291
William Carey and his folded: fostering of Indian Spectrum; Ch: services.
associates with employment languages and making the British Brief Notes on 2. Wellesley established
(d) he wanted to train British officials to be familiar with the Some Aspects the College of Fort
civilians for administrative local languages, etc. so that their of British Rule; William at Calcutta for
purpose in India administrative work would page- 577-578 the education of young
become easier as it involved recruits to the Civil
interaction with the Indian Service.
natives. 3. Lytton introduced the
Statutory Civil Service
with covenanted posts.
Which of the statements
given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
15 MODERN With reference to the history D Munda Rebellion is one of the E F Civil EM PT 365 Supplementary
INDIA of India, "Ulgulan" or the prominent 19th century tribal Rebellions and 2020 Page number 51
Great Tumult is the rebellions in the subcontinent. Tribal "7.1. TRIBAL FREEDOM
description of which of the Birsa Munda led this movement in Uprising, Bipin FIGHTERS"
following events? the region south of Ranchi in Chandra - ABHYAAS TEST 2-3001
(a) The Revolt of 1857 1899-1900. the ulgulan, meaning India's Consider the following
(b) The Mappila Rebellion of 'Great Tumult', sought to establish struggle for pairs:
1921 Munda Raj and independence. independence Tribal Movement Leader
1. Ramosi Uprising
(c) The Indigo Revolt of 1859 The Mundas traditionally enjoyed , Chapter 2.
Chittur Singh
– 60 a preferential rent rate as the
2. Ulgulan Revolt Sidhu
(d) Birsa Munda's Revolt of khuntkattidar or the original
and Kanhu
1899-1900 clearer of the forest. But in course 3. Khond Uprising Chakra
of the 19th century they had seen Bisoi
this khuntkatti land system being Which of the pairs given
eroded by the jagirdars and above is/are correctly
thikadars coming as merchants matched?
and moneylenders. ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
The government attempted to TEST 2968
redress the grievances of the Consider the following
Mundas through the survey and passage:
settlement operations of 1902-10. The Ulgulan occurred
The Chhotanagpur Tenancy Act of during 1899-1900. It
1908 provided some recognition began as a religious
to their khuntkatti rights and movement and soon

banned beth begari. acquired an agrarian and
Chhotanagpur tribals won a political connotation. The
degree of legal protection for leader of the movement
their land rights. encouraged the killing of
Jagirdars and Rajas and
declared that Satyug
would be established in
place of the present-day
Kalyug.
Which of the following is
being referred to in the
above passage?
(a) Santhal rebellion
(b) Munda rebellion
(c) Tana Bhagat
movement
(d) Chuar Rebellion
16 ANCIENT With reference to the C Paṇini (4th century BCE or “6th to M F NCERT Class 6 EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
INDIA scholars/litterateurs of 5th century BCE”) was an ancient History-Our TEST 3222
ancient India, consider the Sanskrit grammarian, and a past-1, page. Consider the following
following statements: revered scholar in ancient India. no.116- statements with
1. Panini is associated with Considered the father of 117(NEW reference to
Pushyamitra Shunga. linguistics, Paṇini likely lived in the EMPIRES AND Chandragupta
2. Amarasimha is associated northwest Indian subcontinent KINGDOMS, Vikramaditya:
with Harshavardhana. during the Mahajanapada era. chapter-11) 1. The iron pillar
3. Kalidasa is associated with Hence statement 1 is not correct. inscription at Mehrauli
Chandra Gupta-II. He is said to have been born in sheds light on the
Which of the statements Shalatula of ancient Gandhara, a extent of his empire.
given above is/are correct? small town at the junction of the 2. The great Sanskrit
(a) 1 and 2 only Indus and Kabul rivers, Pakistan. poet and playwright
(b) 2 and 3 only Pāṇini is known for his text Kalidasa was present in
(c) 3 only Ashtadhyayi, a sutra-style treatise his court.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 on Sanskrit grammar,3,959 3. The Chinese Buddhist
“verses” or rules on linguistics pilgrim Fa Hien visited
syntax and semantics “eight India during his reign.
chapters” which is the Which of the
foundational text of the statements given above
Vyākaraṇa branch of the Vedanga. is/are correct?
Ashtadhyayi is admired for its (a) 1 only
simplicity and its rigorous and (b) 2 and 3 only
consistent use of meta language. (c) 1 and 3 only
Sutras are like mathematical (d) 1, 2 and 3
formulae. So, a lot of information ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
can be given using a few words. TEST 2989
And since Panini uses sutras, the Which of the following
Ashtadhyayi is crisp. Panini also statements is not
lays down rules to resolve correct regarding the
conflicts between sutras. development of
Ashtadhyayi is augmented with literature during the
ancillary texts such as Sivasutras Gupta age?
(special order of phonemes); (a) During this period
dhatupatha (list of verbal roots); secular literature works
ganapatha (various sets of nouns) were produced.
and linganusaasana (system for (b) The primary themes
deciding the gender). of literature during this
Pushyamitra Sunga (185 BC TO period were poetry and
151 BC): Pushyamitra Shunga was romantic comedies.
the founder and first ruler of the (c) Abhijnashakuntalam
Shunga Empire in East India. He work of Kalidas was
was a follower of Hinduism. written during this
Pushyamitra was originally a period.
Senapati "General" of the Maurya (d) No puranic literature
Empire. In 185 BCE he developed during this
assassinated the last Mauryan period.
Emperor, Brihadratha Maurya, EXPLANATION:
during an army review, and The Gupta period was
proclaimed himself emperor. considered one of the
Chandragupta II, also called finest period for the
Vikramaditya, powerful emperor growth and
(reigned c. 380–c. 415 ce) of development of
northern India. He was the son of literature. This period
Samudra Gupta and grandson of saw remarkable growth
Chandragupta I. During his reign, in the production of
art, architecture, and sculpture secular as well as
flourished, and the cultural religious literature. On
development of ancient India the secular side, this
reached its climax. Chandragupta- period saw the
II was known for his deep interest production of several
in art and culture and nine gems plays and poems
or Navratna adorned his court. written by famous
authors including
The group comprised of Bhasa, Shudraka, and
Kalidasa Kalidasa. The themes of
Vetala Bhatta literature during this
Varahamihira period were poetry,
Vararuchi drama, and romantic
Amarasimha comedies.
Dhanvantari The Mrichchhakatika or
kshapanak the little clay cart, which
Shanku was written by
Ghatakarpura Shudraka, deals with the
love affair of poor
Kalidasa brahmana with the
Kalidasa was a famous Sanskrit beautiful daughter of a
writer and poet in the court of courtesan and is
Chandragupta II considered as one of the
(Vikramaditya). best work in ancient
Kalidasa was the author of three drama.
famous plays. Kalidas has written the
Abhijnanasakuntalam :tells the best works in poetry,
story of King Dushyanta and drama as well as in
Shakuntala prose. His kavyas such
Malavikagnimitram-tells the story as Meghaduta,
love of King Agnimitra with Raghuvamsa, and
Malavika Kumarasambhava, and
Raghuvamsa (“Raghu Dynasty “) dramas such as
and Abhijnashakuntalam
Kumarasambhava are the best literary
Amarasimha: works of this time.
Amarasimha was one of the nine The important work
Gems in the court of Vikramaditya complied during this
of Gupta era. period was Amarakosha
He is notably known for his by Amarasimha. It
famous Sanskrit thesaurus developed an ornate
Amarakosha. style of Sanskrit which
It is also known as was different from the
Namalinganushasana. old simple Sanskrit.
From this period
onwards we find a
greater emphasis on
verses than on prose.
17 S&T In the context of recent D A pronucleus (plural: pronuclei) is D CA https://www.s EN April 2019 Monthly In April 2019 , a team
advances in human the nucleus of a sperm or an egg ciencedirect.c Current Affairs Page of Greek and Spanish
reproductive technology. cell during the process of om/science/ar 59;7.5. 3-PARENT doctors has produced
"Pronuclear Transfer" is used fertilization. Pronuclear Transfer ticle/pii/S2212 BABY" a baby from three
for is used in mitochondrial transfer 06611630034 ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: people using
(a) fertilization of egg in vitro techniques. Pronuclear transfer is 5#:~:text=This TEST 3221 maternal spindle
by the donor sperm the transfer of pronuclei from one %20technique Consider the following transfer technique (a
(b) genetic modification of zygote to another. This technique %20first%20re statements with respect method of
sperm producing cells first requires fertilisation of quires%20ferti to genetic makeup in Mitochondrial
(c) development of stem healthy donated egg (provided by lisation,the%2 human beings: Replacement
cells into functional embryos the mitochondrial donor) with 0intending%2 1. Mitochondrial DNA in Therapy).
(d) prevention of the intending male parent sperm. 0male%20par a child is inherited
mitochondrial diseases in Simultaneously, the intending ent%20sperm. exclusively from father
offspring mother's affected oocytes (an &text=Therap whereas Nuclear DNA is
immature egg cell) are fertilised eutic%20pron inherited exclusively
with the intending father's sperm. uclear%20tran from mother.
Both sets of fertilised oocytes sfer%20involv 2. In a three parent
(that of the mother and the es%20the,into baby, child's DNA has an
donor) are allowed to develop to %20the%20en equal proportion of DNA
the early zygote stage where the ucleated%20h from each parent.
pronuclei are visible. Using ealthy%20zyg Which of the
micromanipulation equipment, otes. statements given above
the pronuclei of zygotes formed is/are correct?
from donated oocytes are
removed within a karyoplast (A ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
cellular nucleus together with a TEST 2994
plasma membrane containing a Consider the following
small amount of cytoplasm) and statements:
discarded. Therapeutic pronuclear 1. Mitochondria and
transfer involves the movement nucleus are the two
of two pronuclei from the organelles in the human
affected zygotes (also in the form cell which contain DNA.
of a karyoplast), into the 2. In Mitochondrial
enucleated (without a nucleus) Replacement Therapy
healthy zygotes. The resulting (MRT), fertilization of
zygotes contain nuclear DNA from the cell takes place only
each of the intending parents and after the transfer of a
a donor's mtDNA. Hence option nucleus from mother
(d) is the correct answer. cell to donor cell

Which of the
statements given above
is/are correct?
EXPLANATION:
In Mitochondrial
Replacement Therapy
(MRT) the nucleus of
the mother cell is
transferred to the donor
cell. The fertilization of
the cell can take place
before or after the
transfer. This will help
remove the mutated/
defective mitochondria
of the mother and will
replace it by the healthy
one of the donor.
This technique has run
into troubled waters
because of genes
coming from 3 parents
which might later lead
to paternity law suit or
demand in the property.
Also, some orthodox
religious factions are
opposing such move as
it is considered against
the laws of nature. Also,
the future effects of this
procedure can’t be
predicted. Testing on
animals has been
completed but the
clinical trials on humans
have not been given a
green flag.
Three-parent baby is a
human offspring
produced from the
genetic material of one
man and two women
through the use of
assisted reproductive
technologies,
specifically
mitochondrial
manipulation (or
replacement)
technologies and three-
person in vitro
fertilization (IVF).
18 S&T With the print state of D Artificial Intelligence (AI) refers to E CAA https://www. EN AI is frequently in
development, Artificial the simulation of human newgenapps.c news.
Intelligence can effectively intelligence in machines that are om/blog/ai-
do which of the following? programmed to think like humans uses-
1. Bring down electricity and mimic their actions. Artificial applications-
consumption in industrial Intelligence has various applications of-artificial-
units in today's society. in multiple intelligence-
2. Create meaningful short industries, such as Healthcare, ml-business/
entertainment, finance, education,
stories and songs
etc. AI has been used in disease
3. Disease diagnosis https://emerj.
diagnosis, creating songs like 'I am
4. Text-to-Speech Conversion com/ai-sector-
AI' and 'Daddy's Car' and creating
5. Wireless transmission of short stories and fictions. AI has overviews/arti
electrical energy been used in Text-to-speech ficial-
Select the correct answer conversion, e.g. Cerewave AI. intelligence-
using the code given below: Artificial Intelligence has also found for-energy-
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only use in power industry, e.g. efficiency-
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only Machine-learning assisted power and-
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only transfer (based on AI) using renewable-
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 magnetic resonance and AI used for energy/
energy efficiency. Hence all the
options are correct.
19 S&T With reference to Visible C The signals in the 380-780 nm M CAA https://www.t EN Li-fi technology has
Light Communication (VLC) wavelength interval of the hehindubusin been in the news
technology, which of the electromagnetic spectrum are the essline.com/n
following statements are light signals that can be detected ews/science/li
correct? by the human eye. It is possible to fi-technology-
1. VLC uses electromagnetic achieve illumination and data to-monitor-
spectrum wavelengths 375 transfer simultaneously by means covid-19-
to 780 nm of LEDs that is the prominent patients/articl
2. VLC is known as long- lighting equipment lately. By this e31287574.ec
range optical wireless way, both interior lighting of a e
communication. room and data transfer will be
3. VLC can transmit large achieved without the need of an https://lightin
amounts of data faster than additional communication system. gcontrolsassoc
Bluetooth This technology is given the name iation.org/201
4. VLC has no of Visual Light Communication. 5/05/20/visibl
electromagnetic interference Hence statement 1 is correct. e-light-
Select the correct answer Technological advances allow to communicatio
using the code given below: modulate the light at higher n-finds-its-
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only frequencies, allowing richer applications/
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only information. Light can be
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only transmitted across a free space https://www.r
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only (e.g., lasers communicating esearchgate.n
between two buildings) or across et/figure/Com
a medium (e.g., fiber optics). parison-of-
With the advent of LED, a new the-
idea in VLC is to use general characteristics
lighting to communicate with -of-NFC-BLE-
users in a space as a replacement and-VLC-a
or supplement to Wi-Fi. While
traditional light sources present
practical limitations, LED lighting
can be modulated at very high
frequencies, with a cycle as short
as nanoseconds. This concept,
called Li-Fi, could be a solution to
RF bandwidth limitations as the
visible light spectrum is 10,000
larger than the radio spectrum. As
a bonus, VLC doesn’t cause
electromagnetic interference.
The light can transmit information
either directly or reflected from a
surface. It can do so while
dimmed. However, light cannot
penetrate obstacles such as walls.
Thus for wireless communication
purposes VLC cannot be used for
long-distances. Hence statement
2 is not correct.
While Bluetooth transmits data at
the rate of 300kbps (kilobytes per
second), VLC can transmit data in
the range between mbps-gbps
(megabytes per second to
gigabytes per second). Hence
statement 3 is correct.
20 S&T With reference to D Blockchain technology is a D F https://www.t EN PT 365 2020 S&T Page
"Blockchain Technology" structure that stores transactional hehindu.com/ 22 ""3.2. BLOCKCHAIN
consider the following records, also known as the block, sci- TECHNOLOGY"
statements: of the public in several tech/technolo ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
1. It is a public ledger that databases, known as the “chain,” gy/what-are- TEST 2986
everyone we inspect, but in a network connected through the- Which of the following
which no single user controls peer-to-peer nodes. Typically, this advantages- statements is/are
2. The structure and design storage is referred to as a ‘digital blockchain- correct with reference
of blockchain is such that all ledger.’ In simpler words, the offers/article2 to Blockchain
the data in it are about digital ledger is like a Google 8621496.ece technology?
crypto currency only. spreadsheet shared among 1. The immutability of
3. Applications that depend numerous computers in a the blockchain is critical
on basic features of network, in which, the for the preservation of
blockchain can be developed transactional records are stored the integrity of the data.
without anybody's based on actual purchases. The 2. Bitcoin developed
permission. fascinating angle is that anybody using blockchain
Which of the statements can see the data, but they cannot technology has been
given above is/are correct? corrupt it. Hence statement 1 is accepted as legal tender
(a) 1 only correct. in India from the
(b) 1 and 2 only The words “block” stands for financial year 2018-19.
(c) 2 only digital information and “chain” Select the correct
(d) 1 and 3 only stands for public database. answer using the code
Specifically, they have three parts: given below.
Blocks store information about (a) 1 only
transactions like the date, time, (b) 2 only
and dollar amount of your most (c) Both 1 and 2
recent purchase from any online (d) Neither 1 nor 2
site that works on a blockchain
principle.
Blocks store information about
who is participating in
transactions. Instead of using your
actual name, your purchase is
recorded without any identifying
information using a unique
“digital signature,” sort of like a
username.
Blocks store information that
distinguishes them from other
blocks. Even though the details of
your new transaction would look
nearly identical to your earlier
purchase, we can still tell the
blocks apart because of their
unique codes. Hence statement 2
is not correct.
Blockchains can be both
permissioned and non-
permissioned (permissionless).
Public blockchain, typically
permissionless as well, is the type
associated with Bitcoin (the
application depends on the basic
features), where access and
validation are open to
participants, achieving high
degree of decentralization. In
private permissioned blockchain a
trusted entity controls the
validation and writing of data
permissions. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
21 POLITY & A Parliamentary System of B The Constitution of India has E F NCERT: Indian EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
GOVERNANC Government is one in which opted for the British Constitution TEST 2963
E (a) all political parties in the Parliamentary form of At Work, Ch 4 Which of the following
Parliament are represented Government. It is based on the Pg 83 are the characteristics of
in the Government principle of cooperation and Laxmikanth: parliamentary form of
(b) the Government is coordination between the Indian Polity the government of India?
responsible to the legislative and executive organs. 1. The sovereignty of the

Parliament and can be The features of the Parliamentary Indian Parliament
removed by it government in India are: 2. Presence of nominal
(c) the Government is Presence of nominal and real and real executives
elected by the people and executives 3. Collective
can be removed by them Majority party rule responsibility of the
(d) the Government is Collective responsibility of the executive to the
chosen by the Parliament but executive to the legislature legislature
cannot be removed by it Membership of the ministers in Select the correct answer
using the code given
before completion of a fixed the legislature
below.
term Leadership of the Prime Minister
(a) 1 and 3 only
or the Chief Minister
(b) 2 only
Dissolution of the lower house (c) 2 and 3 only
(Lok Sabha or Assembly) (d) 1, 2 and 3
22 POLITY & Which part of the A A welfare state is a concept of E F Lamikanth: EM ABHYAAS TEST 3: 3002
GOVERNANC Constitution of India declares government where the state Indian Polity In the context of polity,
E the ideal of Welfare State? plays a key role in the protection which of the following
(a) Directive Principles of and promotion of the economic is/are considered as the
State Policy and social well-being of its essential characteristics
(b) Fundamental Rights citizens. It is based on the of a welfare state?
(c) Preamble principles of equality of 1. Equality of opportunity
(d) Seventh Schedule opportunity, equitable 2. Minimum interference
in economic activities of
distribution of wealth, and public
people
responsibility for those unable to
3. Public responsibility for
avail themselves of the minimal
deprived sections of
provisions for a good life. The society
Directive Principles of State 4. Equitable distribution
Policy embody the concept of a of wealth
‘welfare state’. Select the correct answer
A fundamental feature of the using code given below.
welfare state is social insurance, a (a) 1 and 4 only
provision common to most (b) 2 and 3 only
advanced industrialized countries (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(National Social Assistance (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Programme). The welfare state EXPLANATION:
also usually includes public A welfare state is a
provision of basic education, concept of government
health services, and housing etc. where the state plays a
Under this system, the welfare of key role in the protection
its citizens is the responsibility of and promotion of the
the state. India is a welfare state. economic and social well-

The fact that the Preamble of the being of its citizens. It is
Constitution itself envisages India based on the principles of
to be a ‘socialist’ state bears equality of opportunity,
enough evidence for this. equitable distribution of
wealth, and public
responsibility for those
unable to avail
themselves of the
minimal provisions for a
good life.
The Directive Principles
of State Policy embody
the concept of a ‘welfare
state’.
23 POLITY & Consider the following B Statement 1 is not correct: In the E F Lamikanth: EM All INDIA TEST SERIES:
GOVERNANC statements: Kesavananda Bharati case, the Indian Polity ADDITIONAL TEST 3222
E 1. The Constitution of India Supreme Court laid down a new In the context of Indian
defines its structure in terms doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ Polity, which of the
of federalism, secularism, (or ‘basic features’) of the following are followed
fundamental rights and Constitution. It ruled that the in India?
democracy. constituent power of Parliament 1. Doctrine of the Basic
2. The Constitution of India under Article 368 does not enable Structure of the
provides for 'Judicial review' it to alter the ‘basic structure’ of Constitution
to safeguard the citizens' the Constitution. From the various 2. Cabinet form of
liberties and to preserve the judgements, features like Government
ideals on which the Independent Judiciary, 3. Complete separation
Constitution is based. Secularism, Rule of law, Free and of legislature and
Which of the statements fair elections, The principle of executive
given above is are correct? Separation of Powers, Select the correct
(a) 1 only Parliamentary system, The answer using the code
(b) 2 only "essence" of other Fundamental given below.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Rights in Part III, The Sovereign, (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Democratic, Republican structure (b) 2 and 3 only
etc. emerged as the part of Basic (c) 1 and 2 only
Structure. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement 2 is correct: Judiciary is EXPLANATION:
entrusted with the task of In the Kesavananda
protecting rights of individuals. Bharati case, the
The Constitution provides two Supreme Court laid
ways in which the Supreme Court down a new doctrine of
can remedy the violation of rights. the ‘basic structure’ (or
± First it can restore fundamental ‘basic features’) of the
rights by issuing writs of Habeas Constitution. It ruled
Corpus; mandamus etc. (article that the constituent
32). The High Courts also have the power of Parliament
power to issue such writs (article under Article 368 does
226). not enable it to alter the
± Secondly, the Supreme Court ‘basic structure’ of the
can declare the concerned law as Constitution. From the
unconstitutional and therefore various judgements,
non-operational (article 13). features like
Together these two provisions of Independent Judiciary,
the Constitution establish the Secularism, Rule of law,
Supreme Court as the protector Free and fair elections,
of fundamental rights of the Parliamentary system
citizen on the one hand and etc. emerged as the
interpreter of Constitution on the part of Basic Structure.
other. The second of the two
ways mentioned above involves ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
judicial review. TEST 2964
The term judicial review is With reference to
nowhere mentioned in the power of Judicial
Constitution. However, the fact review, consider the
that India has a written following statements:
constitution and the Supreme 1. It is an element of the
Court can strike down a law that basic structure of the
goes against fundamental rights, Constitution of India.
implicitly gives the Supreme 2. The phrase 'judicial
Court the power of judicial review' has nowhere
review. been mentioned in the
Constitution
3. It is available to the
Supreme Court and not
to the High Courts.
Which of the
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
In India, the
Constitution itself
confers the power of
judicial review on the
judiciary (both the
Supreme Court as well
as High Courts).
24 POLITY & One common agreement A The similarity and dissimilarity M FA https://shodh RR
GOVERNANC between Gandhism and between Gandhism and Marxism ganga.inflibne
E Marxism is are as under: t.ac.in/bitstre
(a) the final goal of a (1) Conception of Ideal State: am/10603/89
stateless society There is a great similarity between 197/6/06chap
(b) class struggle Mahatma Gandhi and Kart Marx. ter%202.pdf
(c) abolition of private However, while the final aim of
property both them it the establishments https://www.
(d) economic determinism of a stateless and classless politicalscienc
society, their means for achieving enotes.com/ar
this aim are different. Mahatma ticles/similarit
Gandhi wanted to achieve this y-dissimilarity-
end through non-violent means gandhism-
but Marx wanted to achieve it marxism/402
through violent means.
(2) Capitalism: Though both
Mahatma Gandhi and Karl Marx
were opposed to capitalism and
exploitation, yet they propagated
different means to remove
capitalism not by violent means
but through economic
decentralization, by encouraging
cottage industries, and by making
the capitalist trustees.
(3) Spiritualism vs. Materialism:
Mahatma Gandhi was decisively a
spiritualist. On every aspect of his
life there was a deep impact of
religion. He was saint and a
staunch believer in God. He did
not attach any importance to
materialism and luxuries of life.
He said that man should have
minimum needs. He did not
attach any importance to politics
devoid of religion.
Karl Marx considered religion as
opium for the workers, because in
his view religion made man a
fatalist and it did not allow
discontentment to arise in the
workers against capitalism. The
result was that they lacked
organisation and enthusiasm
needed for a revolution.
(4) Ends and Means: Mahatma
Gandhi was not in favour of using
violent means for achieving a
good end. Therefore, he adopted
non-violent means for the
achievement of India’s freedom
and criticised revolutionaries who
wanted to adopt all types of
means, including the violent ones,
for the achievement of India’s
freedom. Marxists do not believe
in non-violence. They believe that
capitalism cannot be abolished
trough parliamentary means and
socialist revolution is not possible
without the use of violence.
(5) Class War: Marxists have a
deep faith in class struggle.
Mahatma Gandhi said that class-
struggle brought ruin to the
country and it made the
production of goods fall
considerably. All propertied
persons were not bad. There was
an urgent need to change their
minds.
(6) Investment of Capital: With
regard to the investment of
capital the views of Marx and
Gandhiji are different. Marxists
say that there should be
socialisation of the means of
production. First of all they want
to transfer to it the control of all
the industries. Mahatma Gandhi
allows the investment of private
capital but not exploitation
through it. He wants to make the
capitalists trustees of the national
wealth. In case the capitalists do
not agree to become the trustees,
he is ready to give the power to
the state to control the industries
of the capitalists by using
minimum force. He is also not in
favour of snatching land from the
landlords by force. He is ready to
accept their private ownership on
land, while Marx is not ready to
allow private ownership on land.
Gandhi is also in favour of co-
operative farming, while the
Marxists are in favour of collective
farming, in which there is a great
control of the state.
(7) Democracy vs. Dictatorship:
Gandhiji had a firm faith in
democracy, but he considered the
Western democracy as
incomplete. He said that there
should be decentralisation of
power. The Panchayats in the
village should be given more
powers and the villages should be
given complete autonomy. He was
the supporter of welfare state and
hated dictatorship or autocracy.
The Marxists believe in the
Dictatorship of the proletariat.
They want to give maximum
powers to the workers.
25 POLITY & In the context of India, which D While the heads of government E F NCERT: Indian EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
GOVERNANC one of the following is the and their ministers, saddled with Constitution TEST 2964
E characteristic appropriate for the overall responsibility of At Work; Ch 4: In the context of polity,
bureaucracy? government policy, are together Executive who among the
(a) An agency for widening known as the political executive following can be termed
the scope of parliamentary having a shorter term of office(In as the 'Permanent
democracy India, it is generally for 5 years); Executive '?
(b) An agency for those responsible for the day to (a) Council of Ministers
strengthening the structure day administration are called the (b) Cabinet
of federalism permanent executive, i.e. the (c) President
(c) An agency for facilitating Bureaucracy. (d) Bureaucracy
political stability and Hence option (d) is the correct ANSWER D
economic growth answer. EXPLANATION:
(d) An Agency for the While the heads of
implementation of public government and their
policy ministers, saddled with
the overall responsibility
of government policy,
are together known as
the political executive
having a shorter term of
office(In India, it is
generally for 5 years);
those responsible for
the day to day
administration are
called the permanent
executive, i.e. the
Bureaucracy.

26 POLITY & The Preamble to the D The Preamble of the Indian E F LAXMIKANTH: EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
GOVERNANC Constitution of India, is Constitution serves as a brief INDIAN TEST 2997
E (a) part of the Constitution introductory statement of the POLITY Consider the following
but has no legal effect Constitution that sets out the statements about the
(b) not a part of the guiding purpose, principles, and Preamble:
Constitution and has no legal philosophy of the Indian 1. The preamble is an
effect either Constitution. It is the thinking and integral part of the
(c) a part of the Constitution soul of Constitution makers and Constitution.
and has the same legal effect the Constituent Assembly. The 2. The objectives set up
as any other part preamble is based on the by the Preamble forms a
(d) a part of the Constitution Objectives which were drafted part of the basic
but has no legal effect and moved in the Constituent structure of the Indian
independently of other parts Assembly by Jawaharlal Nehru on Constitution.
13 December 1946. The Supreme 3. No law can be struck
Court of India originally stated in down for being violative
the Berubari Case (1960) of the Preamble only.
presidential reference that the Which of the
preamble is not an integral part of statements given above
the Indian constitution, and is/are correct?
therefore it is not enforceable in a (a) 1 and 3 only
court of law. However, the same (b) 1 and 2 only
court, in the 1973 Kesavananda (c) 2 and 3 only
case, overruled earlier decisions (d) 1, 2 and 3
and recognized that the preamble EXPLANATION:
may be used to interpret The Supreme Court of
ambiguous areas of the India originally stated in
constitution where differing the Berubari Case
interpretations present (1960) presidential
themselves. The Supreme Court in reference that the
the Kesavananda case reiterated preamble is not an
that the objectives given in the integral part of the
Preamble form a part of the Basic Indian constitution, and
Structure of the Indian therefore it is not
Constitution. In the 1995 case of enforceable in a court of
Union Government vs LIC of India, law. However, the same
the Supreme Court once again court, in the 1973
held that the Preamble is an Kesavananda case,
integral part of the Constitution. overruled earlier
The Preamble is not a legally decisions and
binding document. No law can be recognized that the
struck down if it is found to preamble may be used
violate the Preamble only. But its to interpret ambiguous
importance lies in the following. areas of the constitution
It has been held in many where differing
decisions of the Supreme Court interpretations present
that when a constitutional themselves.
provision is interpreted, the The Preamble, of
cardinal rule is to look to the course, is not a legally
Preamble as the guiding star and binding document. No
the Directive Principles of State law can be struck down
policy as the book of if it is found to violate
interpretation. the Preamble only.
For example, the keyword

contained in the Preamble e.g.
'secular' is substantiated under
Part III of the Indian Constitution,
which is a basic feature as per the
judgements of the Supreme
Court. If a law is made, it is taken
care of that the 'secular' character
of the polity is not violated. Even
though 'secular' character of
the polity is mentioned in the
Preamble, such a law would be
considered violative of the (Right
to Freedom of Religion)
Fundamental Rights and not the
Preamble. Thus Preamble has no
legal effect independent of the
Fundamental Rights in this case.
The Preamble may not be an
essential part of the ordinary
statute, nor it has any legal effect
independent of other parts, but it
is an essential part of
Constitutional Law. Hence option
(d) is the correct answer.

27 ECONOMICS "Gold Tranche" (Reserve D A reserve tranche is a portion of E F https://www.r EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
Tranche) refers to the required quota of currency bi.org.in/script TEST 2988
(a) a loan system of the each member country must s/PublicationR In the context of the
World Bank provide to the International eportDetails.a economy, what do you
(b) one of the operations of a Monetary Fund (IMF) that can be spx?ID=389 understand by the
Central Bank utilized for its own purposes Reserve tranche
(c) a credit system granted without a service fee or economic https://www.i position?
by WTO to its members reform conditions. mf.org/extern (a) It is the foreign
(d) a credit system granted The IMF is funded through its al/pubs/ft/bo currency amounts that
by IMF to its members members and their quota p/2018/pdf/Cl a member country may
contributions. The reserve arification021 draw from the IMF
tranche is basically an emergency 8.pdf without agreeing to
account that IMF members can conditions.
access at any time without (b) It refers to cash and
agreeing to conditions or paying a other reserve assets
service fee. held by a central bank
The reserve tranches that that are primarily
countries hold with the IMF are available to balance
considered their facilities of first payments of the
resort, meaning they will tap into country.
the reserve tranche at a short (c) It denotes the
notice before seeking a formal deposits that banks
credit tranche. must keep with
The reserve tranche represents monetary authority as a
the member’s unconditional reserve.
drawing right on the IMF, created (d) It refers to reserves
by the foreign exchange portion of the Central
of the quota subscription, plus government held by the
increase (decrease) through the Reserve Bank of India as
IMF’s sale (repurchase) of the a banker to
member’s currency to meet the government.
demand for use of IMF resources
by other members in need of
balance of payments financing.

28 POLITY & With reference to the D DPSPs, contained in Part IV E F Lamikanth: EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
GOVERNANC provisions contained in Part (Article 36–51) of the Constitution Indian Polity TEST 2964
E IV of the Constitution of of India, are not enforceable by Which of the following
limit(s) the Sovereignty of
India, which of the following any court, but the principles laid
the Indian Parliament?
statements is/are correct? down there in are considered in
1. Written nature of the
1. They shall be enforceable the governance of the Constitution
by courts. country, making it the duty of the 2. Federal system of
2. They shall not be State to apply these principles in government
enforceable by any court making laws to establish a just 3. System of judicial review
3. The principles laid down in society. Hence statements 2 and 4. Directive Principles of
this part are to influence the 3 are correct and statement 1 is State Policy
making of laws by the State. not correct. Select the correct answer
using the code given
Select the correct answer
below.
using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1only (b) 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only (c) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 only EXPLANATION:
The Directive Principles of
State Policy (DPSP) are the
guidelines or principles laid
down by the Constitution
and are fundamental in
governance of the country.
These lay down that the
State shall strive to
promote welfare of people
by securing and protecting
as effectively as it may a
social order in which
justice - social, economic
and political, shall inform
all institutions of national
life. However, these
principles are non-
justiciable in nature which
means they are not
enforceable by the courts
for their violation.
justiceable. Hence, they
don't limit the sovereignty
of the Indian Parliament.

29 POLITY & Consider the following D Constitution does not mention D FA http://legislati EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
GOVERNANC statements: eligibility as a condition to be ve.gov.in/sites ADDITIONAL TEST 3222
E 1. According to the made a minister in a State. /default/files/ Consider the following
Constitution of India a Qualifications a person should 04_representa statements in the
person who is eligible to vote possess to become eligible for tion%20of%20 context of office of Chief
can be made a minister in a appointment as a minister are: the%20people Minister (CM):
State for six months even if • He should be a citizen of India. %20act%2C%2 1. Constitution does not
he/she is not a member of • He should be above 25 years of 01951.pdf provide any specific
the Legislature of that State age procedure for selection
2. According to the • He should not hold any office of and appointment of CM.
Representation of People profit under the government of 2. Constitution requires
Act, 1951, a person India that a person must
convicted of a criminal • If he is not a member of prove his majority in
offence and sentenced to Parliament, then he should be Legislative assembly
imprisonment for five years elected to the Lok Sabha or the before his/her
is permanently disqualified Rajya Sabha within six months appointment as CM.
from contesting an election after his appointment as a 3. A person who is not a
even after his release from minister. member of the state
prison Section 8 in The Representation legislature can also be
Which of the statements of the People Act, 1951: A person appointed as CM for 6
given above is are correct? convicted of any offence and months.
(a) 1 only sentenced to imprisonment for Which of the
(b) 2 only not less than two years [other statements given above
(c) Both 1 and 2 than any offence referred to in are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 sub-section (1) or sub-section (2)] (a) 1 and 2 only
shall be disqualified from the date (b) 2 and 3 only
of such conviction and shall (c) 1 and 3 only
continue to be disqualified for a (d) 1, 2 and 3
further period of six years since EXPLANATION:
his release. The governor may first
appoint him as the Chief
Minister and then ask
him to prove his
majority in the
legislative assembly
within a reasonable
period. A person who is
not a member of the
state legislature can be
appointed as Chief
Minister for six months,
within which time, he
should be elected to
the state legislature,
failing which he ceases
to be the Chief
Minister.
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
TEST 2988
As per the
Representation of
People Act (1951), a
person shall not be
qualified for contesting
in the elections to the
Parliament in which of
the following cases?
1. He is convicted for
any offense resulting in
imprisonment for two
or more years.
2. He is detained under
preventive detention
law.
3. He is punished for
preaching and practicing
social crimes such as
untouchability.
Select the correct
answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
30 POLITY & Consider the following C Article 85(1) of the Constitution E F Laxmikanth: EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
GOVERNANC statements: empowers the President to Ch-Parliament TEST 2989
E 1. The President of India can summon each House of Consider the following
summon a session of the Parliament to meet at such time https://indian statements with
Parliament at such place as and place as he thinks fit, but six express.com/a reference to the
he/she thinks it. months shall not intervene rticle/explaine presiding officers of the
2. The Constitution of India between its last sitting in one d/parliament- houses of the
provides for three sessions of Session and the date appointed winter- Parliament:
the Parliament in a year, but for its first sitting in the next session-delay- 1. The presiding officers
it is not mandatory to Session. In other words, the congress- summon their
conduct all three sessions. Parliament should meet at least november- respective houses from
3. There is no minimum twice a year. Hence statement 1 december- time to time.
number of days that the is correct and statement 2 is not assembly- 2. The Chairman of the
Parliament is required to correct. elections- Rajya Sabha and the
meet in a year. There is no minimum number of 4951659/ Speaker of the Lok
Which of the statements days that Parliament is required Sabha are the Leaders
given above is/are correct? to meet in a year. Hence of their respective
(a) 1 only statement 3 is correct. houses.
(b) 2 only 3. The Chairman of the
(c) 1 and 3 only Rajya Sabha is the ex-
(d) 2 and 3 only officio chairman of the
Indian Parliamentary
Group.
Which of the
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Summoning: The
President of India from
time to time summons
each House of
Parliament to meet.
But, the maximum gap
between two sessions
of Parliament cannot be
more than six months.
In other words, the
Parliament should meet
at least twice a year.

31 POLITY & Consider the following B Metadata or meta base is a set of M CA https://www.f EN
GOVERNANC statements: data that describes and gives inancialexpres
E 1. Aadhaar metadata cannot information about other data. s.com/aadhaa
be stored for more than “Authentication records are not r-
three months. to be kept beyond a period of six card/aadhaar-
2. State cannot enter into months, as stipulated in authentication
any contract with private Regulation 27(1) of the -data-cant-be-
corporations for sharing of Authentication Regulations. As retained-
Aadhaar data. per SC Judgement, retaining beyond-6-
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for authentication data of citizens months-says-
obtaining insurance who have enrolled for Aadhaar supreme-
products. beyond six months was court/132806
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for “impermissible. Hence statement 6/
getting benefits funded out 1 is not correct.
of the Consolidated Fund of Supreme Court has struck down https://econo
India. the Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act mictimes.india
Which of the statements which allowed sharing of data times.com/ne
given above is/are correct? with private entities.The ws/economy/
(a) 1 and 4 only judgement means that private policy/govern
(b) 2 and 4 only bodies like telecom companies, e- ment-may-
(c) 3 only commerce firms cannot ask for bring-legal-
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only biometriric and other data from backing-for-
consumers for their services. private-
Hence statement 2 is correct. companies-to-
Insurance regulator IRDAI has use-
advised insurers not to aadhaar/articl
mandatorily seek Aadhaar and eshow/65973
PAN/Form 60 from customers, 597.cms
existing or new, for KYC (Know
Your Customer) purpose. It, https://www.t
however, allowed insurers to hehindu.com/
accept Aadhaar card as one of the news/cities/H
documents for establishing yderabad/aad
identity, address of the customer haar-not-
subject to certain conditions that mandatory-to-
presumably are being stipulated buy-
to guard against misuse of the insurance-
information. The insurers can policy/article2
accept Aadhaar as one of the 6123273.ece
documents for KYC, only when the
same is offered voluntarily by the https://pib.go
proposer/policy-holder. Hence v.in/Pressrele
statement 3 is not correct. aseshare.aspx
As per section 7 of the Aadhaar ?PRID=154127
(Targeted Delivery of Financial 4#:~:text=As%
and Other Subsidies, Benefits and 20per%20secti
Services) Act, 2016, any on%207%20of
individual who is desirous of ,furnish%20pr
availing any subsidy, benefit or oof%20of%20
service for which the expenditure possession%2
is incurred from the Consolidated 0of
Fund of India, shall require to
furnish proof of possession of
Aadhaar number or undergo
Aadhaar based authentication. In
case the individual does not have
Aadhaar, he/she shall make an
application for enrolment and the
individual shall be offered
alternate and viable means of
identification for delivery of the
subsidy, benefit or service. Hence
32 POLITY & Rajya Sabha has equal B The powers and status of the E F Laxmikanth: EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
GOVERNANC powers with Lok Sabha in Rajya Sabha are equal to that of Ch-Parliament TEST 2964
E (a) the matter of creating the Lok Sabha in the following The powers of the Rajya
new All India Services matters: Sabha are equal to that
(b) amending the Introduction and passage of of the Lok Sabha for
Constitution ordinary bills. which of the following
(c) the removal of the Introduction and passage of matter(s)?
government Constitutional amendment bills. 1. Introduction and
(d) making cut motions Introduction and passage of passage of
financial bills involving Constitutional
expenditure from the Amendment Bills
Consolidated Fund of India. 2. Election of the Vice-
Election and impeachment of the President
president. 3. Approval of
Election of the Vice-President. proclamation of all
The Vice-President is elected by three types of
an electoral college consisting of emergencies
members of both Houses of Select the correct
Parliament, in accordance with answer using the code
the system of proportional given below.
representation by means of the (a) 1 only
single transferable vote and the (b) 1 and 3 only
voting in such election is by secret (c) 2 only
ballot. The Electoral College to (d) 1, 2 and 3
elect a person to the office of the EXPLANATION:
Vice-President consists of all The powers and status
members of both Houses of of the Rajya Sabha are
Parliament. equal to that of the Lok
However, Rajya Sabha alone can Sabha in the following
initiate the removal of the vice- matters:
president. He is removed by a Introduction and
resolution passed by the Rajya passage of ordinary bills.
Sabha by a special majority and
agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a Introduction and
simple majority. passage of
Making recommendation to the Constitutional
President for the removal of Chief amendment bills.
Justice and judges of Supreme Introduction and
Court and high courts, chief passage of financial bills
election commissioner and involving expenditure
comptroller and auditor general. from the Consolidated
Approval of ordinances issued by Fund of India.
the President. Election and
Approval of proclamation of all impeachment of the
three types of emergencies by the president.
President. Election of the Vice-
Selection of ministers including President.
the Prime Minister. Under the
Constitution, the ministers
including the Prime Minister can
be members of either House.
However, irrespective of their
membership, they are responsible
only to the Lok Sabha.
Consideration of the reports of
the constitutional bodies like
Finance Commission, Union Public
Service Commission, comptroller
and auditor general, etc.
Enlargement of the jurisdiction of
the Supreme Court and the Union
Public Service Commission.
33 POLITY & With reference to the funds D Statement 1 is correct: Members D CA https://mplad EN "PT 365 Government Frequently in news
GOVERNANC under Members of of Parliament Local Area s.gov.in/MPLA Schemes page number wrt unspent MPLADS
E Parliament Local Area Development Scheme is for DS/UploadedF 149" funds
Development Scheme development works and creation iles/MPLADSG
(MPLADS), which of the of durable community assets. The uidelines2016
following statements are emphasis is on creation of English_638.p
correct? durable community assets based df
1. MPLADS funds must be on locally felt needs in the arenas
used to create durable sets of roads, electricity, drinking https://econo
like physical infrastructure water, health and education etc. mictimes.india
for health, education, etc The recommendations of the times.com/ne
2. A specified portion of each works are made by the Members ws/politics-
MP fund must benefit SC/ST of Parliament for the betterment and-
populations of the community. These works nation/high-
3. MPLADS funds are are executed by District court-seeks-
sanctioned on yearly basis Authorities in accordance with the info-from-
and the unused funds cannot respective State Government’s centre-on-
be carried forward to the financial, technical and release-
next year. administrative rules. utilisation-of-
4. The district authority must The scheme was announced in funds-under-
inspect at least 10% of all 1993. Initially the MPLADS was mplads/article
work under implementation under the control of the Ministry show/775939
every year. of Rural Development. The 93.cms
Select the correct answer MPLAD Scheme was transferred
using the code given below: to the Ministry of Statistics and https://www.t
(a) 1 and 2 only Programme Implementation in hehindu.com/
(b) 3 and 4 only October 1994. opinion/editor
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only The annual MPLADS fund ial/for-better-
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only entitlement per MP constituency use-the-
is Rs. 5 crores. hindu-
Lok Sabha Members can editorial-on-
recommend works within their mplads-
Constituencies. Elected Members funds/article3
of Rajya Sabha can recommend 1293067.ece
works within the State of Election.
Nominated Members of both the https://www.i
Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha can ndiatoday.in/e
recommend works anywhere in lections/lok-
the country. Hence statement 2 is sabha-
not correct. 2019/story/lo
Statement 2 is correct: M.Ps are k-sabha-mps-
to recommend every year, works report-card-
costing at least 15 per cent of the mplad-funds-
MPLADS entitlement for the year unspent-
for areas inhabited by Scheduled amount-
Caste population and 7.5 per cent 1487490-
for areas inhabited by S.T. 2019-03-29
population. In other words, out of
an amount of Rs.5 crores, a M.P.
shall recommend for areas
inhabited by S.C. population,
Rs.75 lacs and Rs.37.5 lacs for
areas inhabited by S.T.
population. In case there is
insufficient tribal population in
the area of Lok Sabha Member,
they may recommend this
amount for the creation of
community assets in tribal areas
outside of their constituency but
within their State of election. In
case a State does not have S.T.
inhabited areas, this amount may
be utilized in S.C. inhabited areas
and vice-versa. It shall be the
responsibility of the district
authority to enforce the provision
of the guideline. In order to
facilitate implementation of this
guideline, it will be responsibility
of the district authority keeping in
view the extant provisions of
State and Central Government’s
to declare areas eligible for
utilization for funds meant for the
benefit of SC & ST population.
Statement 3 is not correct: An
important aspect of the MPLAD
Scheme is that funds released
under this scheme are non-
lapsable i.e. if the money is not
utilised, it gets carried to the next
year.
Statement 4 is correct: The
District Authority would be
responsible for overall
coordination and supervision of
the works under the scheme at
the district level and inspect at
least 10% of the works under
implementation every year.
34 POLITY & Which one of the following D Right to Equality (Article 14-18) E F Lamikanth: EM
GOVERNANC categories of Fundamental protects the citizens against any Indian Polity -
E Rights incorporate discrimination by the State on the Ch:
protection against basis of religion, caste, race, sex, or Fundamental
untouchability as a form of place of birth. Rights
discrimination? Article 14 says that all citizens enjoy NCERT: Indian
(a) Right against Exploitation equal privileges and opportunities. Constitution
(b) Right to Freedom Article 15 provides that the State At Work; Ch 2:
shall not discriminate against any
(c) Right to Constitutional RIGHTS IN THE
citizen on grounds only of religion,
Remedies INDIAN
race, caste, sex or place of birth.
(d) Right to Equality CONSTITUTIO
Article 16 says that no citizen can be
discriminated against or be N
ineligible for any employment or
office under the State on grounds of
only religion, race, caste, sex,
descent, place of birth or residence.
Article 17 abolishes
‘untouchability’ and forbids its
practise in any form.
Article 18 abolish all titles national
or foreign which create artificial
distinctions in social status amongst
the people.

35 POLITY & In India, separation of B Directive Principles of State Policy E F LAXMIKANTH: EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
GOVERNANC judiciary from the executive can be classified into three broad Indian Polity TEST 2963
E is enjoined by categories, viz, socialistic, Consider the following
(a) the Preamble of the Gandhian and liberal–intellectual. pairs:
Constitution Socialistic Principles: These Directive Principle of
(b) a Directive Principle of principles reflect the ideology of State Policy : Based on
State Policy socialism. They lay down the the ideology
(c) the Seventh Schedule framework of a democratic 1. To promote cottage
(d) the conventional practice socialist state, aim at providing industries on an
social and economic justice, and individual or co-
set the path towards welfare operation basis in rural
state. areas : Gandhian
Gandhian Principles: These 2. To prohibit the
principles are based on Gandhian consumption of
ideology. They represent the intoxicating drinks and
programme of reconstruction drugs which are
enunciated by Gandhi during the injurious to health :
national movement. In order to Liberalism
fulfil the dreams of Gandhi, some 3. To secure for all
of his ideas were included as citizens a uniform civil
Directive Principles. code throughout the
Liberal–Intellectual Principles: country : Socialism
The principles included in this Which of the pairs given
category represent the ideology above is/are correctly
of liberalism. They direct the matched?
state: (a) 1 only
To secure for all citizens a uniform (b) 1 and 2 only
civil code throughout the country (c) 2 and 3 only
(Article 44). (d) 1, 2 and 3
To provide early childhood care EXPLANATION:
and education for all children until The Constitution does
they complete the age of six years not contain any
(Article 45). classification of
To organise agriculture and Directive Principles.
animal husbandry on modern and However, on the basis
scientific lines (Article 48). of their content and
To protect and improve the direction, they can be
environment and to safeguard classified into three
forests and wild life (Article 48 A). broad categories, viz,
To protect monuments, places socialistic, Gandhian and
and objects of artistic or historic liberal–intellectual.
interest which are declared to be Liberal–Intellectual
of national importance (Article Principles: The
49). principles included in
To separate the judiciary from this category represent
the executive in the public the ideology of
services of the State (Article 50). liberalism. They direct
To promote international peace the state:
and security and maintain just and To secure for all citizens
honourable relations between a uniform civil code
nations; to foster respect for throughout the country
international law and treaty (Article 44).
obligations, and to encourage To provide early
settlement of international childhood care and
disputes by arbitration (Article education for all
51). children until they
complete the age of six
years (Article 45).
To organise agriculture
and animal husbandry
on modern and
scientific lines (Article
48).
To protect and improve
the environment and to
safeguard forests and
wild life (Article 48 A).
To protect monuments,
places and objects of
artistic or historic
interest which are
declared to be of
national importance
(Article 49).
To separate the
judiciary from the
executive in the public
services of the State
(Article 50).
To promote
international peace and
security and maintain
just and honourable
relations between
nations; to foster
respect for international
law and treaty
obligations, and to
encourage settlement of
international disputes
by arbitration (Article
51).
36 POLITY & Along with the Budget, the D Fiscal Responsibility and Budget E F https://www. EN ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: To test the general
GOVERNANC Finance Minister also places Management (FRBM) became an business- TEST 2969 awareness. In news
E other documents before the Act in 2003. The objective of the standard.com/ Which of the following esp during Budget
Parliament which include Act is to ensure inter-generational about/what- fiscal policy statements passage.
"The Macro Economic equity in fiscal management, long is-macro- are required to be laid
Framework Statement'. The run macroeconomic stability, economic- before the Parliament
aforesaid document is better coordination between framework- under the Fiscal
presented because this is fiscal and monetary policy, and statement Responsibility and
mandated by transparency in fiscal operation of Budget Management
(a) Long standing the Government. Act, 2003 (FRBMA)?
parliamentary convention 1. Medium-term Fiscal
(b) Article 112 and Article It requires for the presentation of Policy
110(1) of the Constitution of the following documents before 2. Fiscal Policy Strategy
India the Parliament - the Medium 3. Outcome Budget
(c) Article 113 of the Term Expenditure Framework 4. Medium-term
Constitution of India Statement (MTEF), Medium-Term Expenditure Framework
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Fiscal Policy Statement, Fiscal Select the correct
Responsibility and Budget Policy Strategy Statement and answer using the code
Management Act, 2003 Macroeconomic Framework given below.
Statement. (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Fiscal Responsibility and
Budget Management
(FRBM) became an Act
in 2003. The objective of
the Act is to ensure
inter-generational
equity in fiscal
management, long run
macroeconomic
stability, better
coordination between
fiscal and monetary
policy, and transparency
in fiscal operation of the
Government.
It requires for the
presentation of the
following documents
before the Parliament -
the Medium Term
Expenditure Framework
Statement (MTEF),
Medium-Term Fiscal
Policy Statement, Fiscal
Policy Strategy
Statement and
Macroeconomic
Framework Statement.
37 POLITY & A constitutional government D Constitutionalism has a variety of E F http://www.le RR ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: UPSC has asked on
GOVERNANC by definition is a meanings. Most generally, it is "a galservicesindi TEST 2989 constitutional
E (a) government by legislature complex of ideas, attitudes, and a.com/article/ Which of the following government in
(b) popular government patterns of behavior elaborating 1699/Constitu reflects previous years.
(c) multi-party government the principle that the authority of tionalism.html Constitutionalism in the
(d) limited government government derives from and is Indian polity?
limited by a body of fundamental (a) The provision of
law". Constitutionalism’ means division of power
limited government or limitation between the Centre and
on government. It is the the states
antithesis of arbitrary powers. (b) The provision of
Constitutionalism recognizes the Integrated Judiciary
need for a government with (c) The fundamental
powers but at the same time rights of the citizens are
insists that limitation be placed on protected.
those powers. The antithesis of (d) The fact that the
constitutionalism is despotism. A President of India is the
government that goes beyond its nominal head of the
limits loses its authority and state
legitimacy. EXPLANATION:
Constitutionalism could be seen Constitutionalism has a
as constituting the following variety of meanings.
elements: Most generally, it is "a
complex of ideas,
government according to the attitudes, and patterns
constitution; of behavior elaborating
separation of power; the principle that the
sovereignty of the people and authority of government
democratic government; derives from and is
constitutional review; limited by a body of
independent judiciary; fundamental law".
Constitutionalism’
limited government subject to a means limited
bill of individual rights; government or
controlling the police; limitation on
civilian control of the military; and government. It is the
no state power, or very limited antithesis of arbitrary
and strictly circumscribed state powers.
power, to suspend the operation Constitutionalism
of some parts of, or the entire, recognizes the need for
constitution. a government with
powers but at the same
time insists that
limitation be placed on
those powers. The
antithesis of
constitutionalism is
despotism. A
government that goes
beyond its limits loses
its authority and
legitimacy.
38 POLITY & Other than the Fundamental D The Universal Declaration of D FA https://legalaf RM
GOVERNANC Rights, which of the Human Rights was adopted by the fairs.gov.in/sit
E following parts of the UN General Assembly in 1948. es/default/file
Constitution of India This declaration represents the s/chapter%20
reflect/reflects the principles first international expression of 3.pdf
and provisions of the human rights to which all human
Universal Declaration of beings are entitled. It is described
Human Rights (1948)? as the “International Magna
1. Preamble Carta”.
2. Directive Principles of The Constitution of India has a
State Policy rich content of human rights. The
3. Fundamental Duties Preamble, the Fundamental
Select the correct answer Rights and the Directive
using the code given below: Principles of State Policy reflect
(a) 1 and 2 only the principles and provisions of
(b) 2 only the Universal Declaration of
(c) 1 and 3 only Human Rights (1948).
(d) 1, 2 and 3 The four ideals of the Preamble
are aimed at the promotion of
human rights. They are as under:
Justice in social, economic and
political spheres
Liberty of thought, expression,
belief, faith and worship
Equality of status and opportunity
Fraternity assuring the dignity of
the individual
The Fundamental Rights under
Part-III of the Constitution
contain an elaborate list of civil
and political rights divided into
six categories:
Right to equality
Right to freedom
Right against exploitation
Right to freedom of religion
Cultural and educational right
Right to constitutional remedies
The Directive Principles of State
Policy in Part-IV of the
Constitution comprise economic,
social and cultural rights.
Article 26 of The Universal
Declaration of Human Rights:
Everyone has the right to
education. Education shall be
free, at least in the elementary
and fundamental stages.
Elementary education shall be
compulsory. Technical and
professional education shall be
made generally available and
higher education shall be equally
accessible to all on the basis of
merit.
Education shall be directed to the
full development of the human
personality and to the
strengthening of respect for
human rights and fundamental
freedoms. It shall promote
understanding, tolerance and
friendship among all nations,
racial or religious groups, and
shall further the activities of the
United Nations for the
maintenance of peace.
Parents have a prior right to
choose the kind of education that
shall be given to their children.
All this is reflected in the
Fundamental Duty Article 51-A(k)
"Who is a parent or guardian to
provide opportunities for
education to his child or, as the
case may be, ward between the
age of six and fourteen years."
Hence all the options are correct.
39 POLITY & In India, Legal Services A As per the Legal Services D F https://nalsa.g RM
GOVERNANC Authorities provide free legal Authorities Act, 1987, following ov.in/services/
E services to which of the are entitled to free legal services: legal-
following type of citizens? A member of a Scheduled Caste or aid/eligibility
1. Person with an annual Scheduled Tribe;
income of less than Rs. A victim of trafficking in human
1,00,000 beings or begar as referred to in
2. Transgender with an Article 23 of the Constitution;
annual income of less than A woman is entitled for free legal
Rs. 2,00,000 aid irrespective of her income or
3. Member of Other financial status;
Backward Classes (OBC) with Child is eligible for free legal aid till
an annual income of less the age of majority i.e. 18 years;
than Rs. 3,00,000 A mentally ill or otherwise
4. All Senior Citizens differently abled person;
Select the correct answer A person under circumstances of
using the code given below: undeserved want such as being a
(a) 1 and 2 only victim of a mass disaster, ethnic
(b) 3 and 4 only violence, caste atrocity, flood,
(c) 2 and 3 only drought, earthquake or industrial
(d) 1 and 4 only disaster; or
An industrial workman; or
a person in receipt of annual
income less than the amount
mentioned in the following
schedule (or any other higher
amount as may be prescribed by
the State Government), if the
case is before a Court other than
the Supreme Court, and less than
Rs 5 Lakh, if the case is before the
Supreme Court.
The Income Ceiling Limit
prescribed u/S 12(h) of the Act for
availing free legal services in
different States.
Senior Citizen - Senior citizens’
eligibility for free legal aid
depends on the Rules framed by
the respective State
Governments in this regard.
Hence option 4 is not correct.
o Low income (Annual income less
than Rs. 1,00,000
o Transgender (Annual income
less than Rs. 2 Lac) in Delhi

40 CURRENT Consider the following pairs C Alma Ata Declaration: The E CA https://www.t EN PT 365 2020 Social Page
AFFAIRS International Declaration of Alma-Ata was heclimategrou number 29 ""4.6. WHO
agreement/set-up Subject adopted at the International p.org/project/ INDIA COUNTRY
1. Alma-Ata Declaration - Conference on Primary Health under2- COOPERATION
Healthcare of the people Care, Almaty, Kazakhstan, 6–12 coalition STRATEGY (CCS)"& Page
2. Hague Convention - September 1978. It expressed the number 8 1.8.
Biological and chemical need for urgent action by all https://www. ADOPTION IN INDIA
weapons governments, all health and hcch.net/en/i ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
3. Talanoa Dialogue - Global development workers, and the nstruments/co TEST 2986
climate change world community to protect and nventions/full- Consider the following
4. Under2 Coalition - Child promote the health of all people. text/?cid=24 statements regarding
rights Hence pair 1 is correctly the Hague Convention
Which of the pairs given matched. on the Civil Aspects of
above is/are correctly Hague Convention: The Hague International Child
matched? Convention on the Civil Aspects of Abduction:
(a) 1 and 2 only International Child Abduction or 1. The convention seeks
(b) 4 only Hague Abduction Convention is a to return children
(c) 1 and 3 only multilateral treaty developed by abducted or retained
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only the Hague Conference on Private overseas by a parent to
International Law that provides an their country of habitual
expeditious method to return a residence.
child internationally abducted by 2. The convention
a parent from one member applies to the child, up
country to another. Hence pair 2 to the age of 18 years.
is not correctly matched. 3. All the members of
The Talanoa Dialogue is a process the United Nations are
designed to help countries the party to the Hague
implement and enhance their Convention.
Nationally Determined Which of the
Contributions by 2020. The statements given above
Dialogue was mandated by the is/are correct?
Parties to the United Nations (a) 1 and 2 only
Framework Convention for (b) 1, 2 and 3
Climate Change to take stock of (c) 1 only
the collective global efforts to (d) 2 and 3 only
reduce the emissions of
greenhouse gases, in line with the
goals of the Paris Agreement.
Hence pair 3 is correctly
matched.
The Under2 Coalition is a global
community of state and regional
governments committed to
ambitious climate action in line
with the Paris Agreement. The
coalition brings together more
than 220 governments who
represent over 1.3 billion people
and 43% of the global economy.
Signatories commit to keeping
global temperature rises to well
below 2°C with efforts to reach
1.5°C. Hence pair 4 is not
correctly matched.
41 MODERN With reference to the history B Aurang – A Persian term for a D F https://ncert. RR
INDIA of India, consider the warehouse –a place where goods nic.in/ncerts/l
following pairs: are collected before being sold; /hess201.pdf
1. Aurang - In-charge of also refers to a workshop. Hence OUR PAST-III,
treasury of the State pair 1 is not correctly matched Page. No. 85,
2. Banian -Indian agent of Banian: In the 18th and 19th chapter-
the East India Company centuries, European merchants WEAVERS,
3. Mirasidar - Designated opened and deepened trade IRON
revenue payer to the State routes throughout Asia, Africa, SMELTERS
Which of the pairs given and Latin America. However, in AND FACTORY
above is/are correctly these markets they faced OWNERS
matched? considerable challenges due to Shekhar
(a) 1 and 2 only linguistic and cultural barriers. Bandopadhya
(b) 2 and 3 only This led to difficulties in ya
(c) 3 only integrating into indigenous
(d) 1, 2 and 3 commercial and political systems,
which restricted their operations.
The use of intermediaries with
expertise of the local markets
and languages rapidly
proliferated. In South-East Asia,
this was known as the
‘comprador’ system, whilst in the
Anglo-Indian trade individuals
carrying out these functions were
known as ‘banians’. These
intermediaries fulfilled various
internal and external roles for
trading companies including,
managing treasury functions,
securing credit, and acting as
brokers in the local markets. A
contemporary described the
banian as an individual, “By
whom the English gentlemen in
general conduct all their
business. He is interpreter, head
book-keeper, head secretary,
head broker, the supplier of cash
and cash-keeper, and in general
also secret-keeper. Hence pair 2
is correctly matched.
Mirasidars: Under the ryotwari
settlement system, the
government recognized
mirasidars as the sole proprietors
of land, dismissing tenants' rights
completely. Only in villages where
no mirasidar system existed were
those villagers holding permanent
occupancy rights recognized as
landholders responsible for the
payment of land revenue.
According to Elphinstone
(Governor of Bombay), the two
important features of the
Maratha government were:
1. the existence of village
communities as units of local
administration
2. the existence of mirasi tenure
Mirasdars were hereditary
peasant proprietors who
cultivated their own fields and
paid land tax at fixed rates to the
state. The Mirasdar belonged to
the village and could not be
dispossessed of it so long as he
continued to pay the rent. He
could sell and transfer his fields
and had the right to sit in the
village council. All the land which
did not belong to the Mirasdar
belonged to government or those
to whom government assigned it.
His lands were measured out and
classified, and the standard
demand on them fixed. If,
however, the rains failed, if the
village suffered from war or
pestilence or if a family calamity
intervened, he could seek
remission.
42 ART & With reference to the B The division of the Buddhist D F AL BASHAM: RM
CULTURE religious history of India, community in India in the first three WONDER
consider the following centuries following the death of the THAT WAS
statements: Buddha in c. 483 BC. INDIA
1. Sthaviravadins belong to The first division in the Buddhist https://www.
Mahayana Buddhism. community occurred as a result of ancient.eu/M
2. Lokottaravadin sect was the second council, said to have ahasanghika/
an offshoot of Mahasanghika been held 100 years after the
Buddha’s death, at Vaisali (Bihar
sect of Buddhism.
state) this Council was called to
3. The deification of Buddha
condemn certain practices of some
by Mahasanghikas fostered
monks which were contrary to the
the Mahayana Buddhism. Vinaya or Monk’s Code of conduct.,
Which of the statements when the Acariyavadins (followers
given above is/are Correct? of the traditional teaching) split
(a) 1 and 2 only away from the Sthaviravadins
(b) 2 and 3 only (followers of the Way of the Elders)
(c) 3 only and formed their own school,
(d) 1, 2 and 3 known as the Mahasanghikas.
These Sthaviravadins followed a
realist line, stating that all
phenomena exist and are unstable
compounds of elements. They
taught that it is necessary for all

humans to strive for Arahantship or
release from the constant round of
rebirth (Samsara). They taught that
Buddhas are men - pure and simple,
rejecting any notion of their being
transcendental. The other group,
which were in the majority, were
known as the Mahasanghikas.
Like the Sthaviravadins, they
accepted the fundamental doctrines
as taught by the Buddha, such as:
the Four Noble Truths, the Noble
Eightfold Path etc but they differed
in believing that Buddhas are
supramundane and transcendental.
They also believed that the original
nature of the mind is pure and that
it is contaminated when it is stained
by passions and defilements. It was
from the Mahasanghikas that the
Mahayana was to evolve. Hence
They differed or came to differ
significantly from the Sthaviravada
in how they understood the nature
of the Buddha, and they are the first
to attribute divinity to him and
represent him in anthropomorphic
form in statuary, setting a
precedent which has continued to
the present day. Hence statement 3
is correct.
Further subdivisions of the
Mahasanghikas over the next seven
centuries included sect of
Lokottarvadin whose philosophy
was based on the concept of
Lokottara Buddha or Supernatural
Buddha., the Ekavyavaharikas, and
the Kaukkutikas. Hence statement 2
is correct.

43 MODERN Which of the following A India was a major player in the M F Bipin EN ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
INDIA statements correctly explain world export market for textiles in Chandra's TEST 2968
the impact of Industrial the early 18th century, but by the India's Which of the following
Revolution on India during middle of the 19th century it had Struggle for was/were the
the first half of the lost all of its export market and Independence outcome(s) of economic
nineteenth century? much of its domestic market. Ch: Economic policies of British?
(a) Indian handicrafts were At the beginning of Industrial Critique of 1. Growth of Urban
ruined. revolution cotton industries Nationalism handicrafts industry
(b) Machines were developed in England, industrial 2. Development of
introduced in the Indian groups began worrying about Plantation industries
textile industry in large imports from other countries. 3. Ruin of Old zamindars
numbers. They pressurised the government and rise of new class of
(c) Railway lines were laid in to impose import duties on cotton landlords
many parts of the country textiles so that Manchester goods Select the correct
(d) Heavy duties were could sell in Britain without facing answer using code given
imposed on the imports of any competition from outside. At below.
British manufactures the same time industrialists (a) 2 only
persuaded the East India (b) 2 and 3 only
Company to sell British (c) 1 and 3 only
manufactures in Indian markets as (d) 1 and 2 only
well. Exports of British cotton EXPLANATION:
goods increased dramatically in British rule in India
the early nineteenth century. caused a transformation
Cotton weavers in India thus of India’s economy into
faced two problems at the same a colonial economy, i.e.,
time: their export market the structure and
collapsed, and the local market operation of Indian
shrank, being glutted with economy were
Manchester imports. Produced by determined by the
machines at lower costs, the interests of the British
imported cotton goods were so economy.
cheap that weavers could not Deindustrialisation -
easily compete with them. By the Ruin of Artisans and
1850s, reports from most Handicraftsmen:
weaving regions of India narrated Cheap and machine-
stories of decline and desolation. made imports flooded
Hence option (a) is correct the Indian market after
answer. the Charter Act of 1813
allowing one-way free
trade for the British
citizens. On the other
hand, Indian products
found it more and more
difficult to penetrate
the European markets.
Another feature of
deindustrialisation was
the decline of many
cities and a process of
ruralisation of India.
Many artisans, faced
with diminishing returns
and repressive policies
(in Bengal, during the
Company’s rule, artisans
were paid low wages
and forced to sell their
products at low prices),
abandoned their
professions, moved to
villages and took to
agriculture.
Impoverishment of
Peasantry: The peasant
turned out to be the
ultimate sufferer under
the triple burden of the
Government, zamindar
and money-lender. His
hardship increased at
the time of famine and
scarcity. This was as
much true for the
zamindari areas as for
areas under Ryotwari
and Mahalwari systems.
The peasant became
landless.
Ruin of Old Zamindars
and Rise of New
Landlordism: The
heaviness of land
revenue under
Permanent Settlement
Act and rigid law of
collection, under which
zamindari estates were
ruthlessly sold in case of
delay in payment of
revenue, worked havoc
for the first few years.
By 1815 nearly half of
the landed property of
Bengal was transferred
from the old zamindars
who had traditions of
showing cosideration
for the tenants.
Commercialisation of
Agriculture: Apart from
machine based
industries, the 19th
century also witnessed
the growth of plantation
industries such as
indigo, tea and coffee.
The commercialisation
trend reached the
highest level of
development in the
plantation sector, i.e., in
tea, coffee, rubber,
indigo, etc., which was
mostly owned by
Europeans and the
produce was for sale in
a wider market.

44 MEDIEVAL Consider the following C The Gurjara Pratihara dynasty D F NCERT class- EM PT 365 2020 Extended
INDIA events in the history of India: was founded by Nagabhatta I in 7th-OUR Study material page
1. Rise of Pratiharas under the region of Malwa in the 8th PASTS – number 115 ;7.3.2.
King Bhoja century AD. He belonged to a II,NEW KINGS GURJARA-PRATIHARAS"
2 Establishment of Pallava Rajput clan. Gurjara-Pratihara AND & PT 365 2020 Culture
power under dynasty ruled much of Northern KINGDOMS. page number 24; 7.3.
Mahendravarman-I India from the mid-8th to the 11th pg.16-21. MAMALLAPURAM"
3. Establishment of Chola century. The Pratiharas, derived ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
power by Purantaka their name from the Sanskrit TEST 2967
4. Pala dynasty founded by meaning doorkeeper, are seen as Who among the
Gopala a tribal group or a clan of the following rulers was
What is the correct Gurjaras. The greatest ruler of the given the titles of
chronological order of the Pratihara dynasty was Mihir Bhoja Vichitrachitta,
above events, starting from (836–885 CE). He recovered Chitrakarapuli and
the earliest time? Kannauj (Kanyakubja) by 836 A.D, Chaityakari?
(a) 2-1-4-3 and it remained the capital of the (a) Mangalesha of
(b) 3-1-4-2 Pratiharas for almost a century. Chalukya Dynansty
(c) 2-4-1-3 The Pallavas were a powerful (b) Krishna Deva Raya of
(d) 3-4-1-2 ancient dynasty that ruled a huge Vijaynagara kingdom
part of Southern India, including (c) Mahendravarma I of
present day Tamil Nadu, between Pallava Dynasty
the 6th and 9th centuries AD, with (d) Kanishka I of Kushan
Kanchipuram as their capital. The Dynasty
Pallavas reached their zenith EXPLANATION:
during the reign of Mahendravarman I: He
Mahendravarman I (c. 600–630), a was a Pallava King who
contemporary of Harsha and succeeded Simhavishnu
Pulakeshin II. and reigned for c. 600–
Mahendravarman I 630.
He was a Pallava King who He was a great patron of
succeeded Simhavishnu and art and architecture and
reigned for c. 600–630. He was a is known for introducing
great patron of art and a new style to Dravidian
architecture and is known for architecture, which is
introducing a new style to sometimes referred to
Dravidian architecture, which is as “Mahendra style.”
sometimes referred to as He built temples at
“Mahendra style.” He built Panamalai,
temples at Panamalai, Mandagapattu and
Mandagapattu and Kanchipuram. Kanchipuram. The
The inscription at Mandagapattu inscription at
mentions Mahendravarman I with Mandagapattu
numerous titles such as: mentions
Vichitrachitta (curious-minded) Mahendravarman I with
Chitrakarapuli (tiger among numerous titles such as:
artists) Chaityakari (temple Vichitrachitta (curious-
builder). minded) Chitrakarapuli
The Cholas became prominent in (tiger among artists)
the ninth century and established ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
an empire comprising the major TEST 3222
portion of South India. Their Consider the following
capital was Tanjore. The Chola pairs:
ruler Parantaka succeeded his Dynasty Founder
father Aditya I(Aditya I or Aditya 1. Gurjara Pratihara
Chola, the son of Vijayalaya Chola, Nagabhatta I
is the second ruler of the 2. Pala dynasty
Medieval Cholas) on the throne in Dharmapala
907 and ruled for forty-eight 3. Rashtrakuta dynasty
years. Soon after his accession, as Dantidurga
early as 910, he invaded the Which of the pairs given
Pandyan country and assumed the above is/are correctly
title Maduraikonda (‘ Capturer of matched?
Madura’). (a) 1 only
The Pala Empire was an imperial (b) 2 and 3 only
power during the post-classical (c) 1 and 3 only
period (8th and 9th century AD) (d) 1, 2 and 3
which originated in the Bengal EXPLANATION:
region. The empire was founded The Gurjara Pratihara
with the election of Gopala as the dynasty was founded
emperor of Gauda in 750 CE. by Nagabhatta I in the
Hence correct sequence is 2-4-1- region of Malwa in the
3. 8th century AD. He
belonged to a Rajput
clan. Later one of his
successors, Vatsaraja
extended his rule over
to a large part of North
India and made Kannauj
in western Uttara
Pradesh his capital. One
of the important kings
of this dynasty was
Mihira Bhoja (ninth
century).
In eastern India, Pala
dynasty was founded
by Gopala (8th century
AD). The son and
grandson of Gopala, viz;
Dharmapala and
Devapala greatly
extended the power and
prestige of the Pala
dynasty. Though their
expansion towards west
was checked by the
Pratiharas, the Palas
continued to rule over
Bihar and Bengal for
nearly four centuries
with a small break. The
Pala kings were the
followers of Buddhism.
Dharmapala is known to
have founded the
famous Vikramashila
university near
Bhagalpur in Bihar. Like
Nalanda university, it
attracted students from
all parts of India and
also from Tibet.
45 MEDIEVAL Which of the following C In India, instruments of credit M F NCERT, EM
INDIA phrases defines the nature of have been in use since time Accountancy
the Hundi' generally referred immemorial and are popularly Chapter: bill
to in the sources of the post- known as Hundies. of exchange,
Harsha period? The movement of goods during Page.no. 279-
(a) An advisory issued by the Medieval period was facilitated by 280.
king to his subordinates the growth of a financial system https://www.r
(b) A diary to be maintained which permitted easy transfer of bi.org.in/script
for daily accounts money from one part of the s/ms_hundies.
(c) A bill of exchange country to another. aspx
(d) An order from the feudal This was done through the use of
lord to his subordinates Hundis. The Hundis was a letter
of credit payable after a period of
time at a discount.
46 MODERN With reference to the book A Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar (1869- D F A History of RR 150th birth
INDIA "Desher Kather" written by 1912) a close associate of Sri Modern India- anniversary of
Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar Aurobindo. A Marathi Brahmin Ishita Sakharam Ganesh
during the freedom struggle, who had settled in Bengal, Banerjee- Deuskar in 2019.
consider the following Sakharam was born in Deoghar. Dube. Page.
statement : He published a book entitled no. 233.
1. It warned against the Desher Katha describing in
Colonial States hypnotic exhaustive detail the British
conquest of the mind. commercial and industrial
2. It inspired the exploitation of India. This book
performance of swadeshi had an immense repercussion in
street plays and folk songs. Bengal, captured the mind of
3. The use of desh' by young Bengal and assisted more
Deuskar was in the specific than anything else in the
context of the region of preparation of the Swadeshi
Bengal. movement. Published first in June
Which of the statements 1904, Desher Katha sold ten
given above are curt? thousand copies in four editions
(a) 1 and 2 only within the year. The fifth edition
(b) 2 and 3 only came out in 1905. The
(c) 1 and 3 only government of Bengal banned the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 book in 1910 and confiscated all
the copies.
Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar
popularized the ideas of Naoroji
and Ranade and promoted
swadeshi in a popular idiom. His
text, titled Desher Katha (Story of
the Nation/Country), written in
1904, warned against the colonial
state’s ‘hypnotic conquest of the
mind'. By the time Desher Katha
was banned by the colonial state
in 1910, it had sold over 15,000
copies, inspired swadeshi street
plays and folk songs, and had
become a mandatory text for an
entire generation of swadeshi
activists. It is remarkable that in
spite of this general growth of
‘national’ and regional awakening
and ‘national’ consciousness,
there was no word in Bengali for
‘nation’, a fact noted by
Rabindranath. Tagore would
become an outspoken critique of
nationalism, arguing that ‘India
had never had a real sense of
nationalism’ and it would do India
‘no good to compete with
Western civilization in its own
field’ . Earlier, he had described
nationalism as a bhougalik
apadevata, a geographical demon,
towards the exorcism of which he
had dedicated his Visva-Bharati.
Deuskar used desh to mean
nation. The overlap of place of
origin and nation, as well as jati
(literally birth, family or caste)
and nationality inflected
understandings of the
nation/country in distinct ways.
Moreover, the constant overlap
and conflation of Bengal and
India, and Bengalis and Indians in
the use of desh and jati, added
further twists to notions of
nationalism.
It is worth quoting part of an article
“Amader Desher Katha” [About our
Country], that appeared in the
children’s periodical Prakriti
[Nature] in 1907:

Though we constantly reiterate
the phrase ‘our country’ do we
have any exact idea of the actual
constituents of that territory? . .
What are the boundaries of our
land? . . . Steering clear of political
debates, let us see what Mother
Nature has to say in this regard . .
. her fingers point to a huge
expanse - far greater than Bengal -
as our nation. Following her
directions we recognize the
glorious Bharatbarsha as our
majestic land. With walls of the
highest mountains and the
deepest caverns of the seas,
Nature has carved out the
contours of Bharat and made it
distinct from the rest of the world
. . . this great expanse called
Bharatbarsha is our nation.
47 MODERN The Gandhi-Irwin Pact B 5 March 1931, the Gandhi-Irwin M F NCERT EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
INDIA included which of the Pact was signed by Gandhiji on Themes in TEST 2968
following? behalf of the Congress and by Indian History Consider the following
1 Invitation to Congress to Lord Irwin on behalf of the part-III(Class- statements regarding
participate in the Round Government. 12th)-, Gandhi-Irwin Pact:
Table Conference The pact placed the Congress on Chapter- 1. It included the
2. Withdrawal of Ordinances an equal footing with the Mahatma immediate release of all
promulgated in connection Government. The terms of the Gandhi and political prisoners.
with the Civil Disobedience agreement included immediate the Nationalist 2. As per the pact, the
Movement release of all political prisoners Movement government recognized
3. Acceptance of Gandhiji's not convicted of violence; Civil the right to peaceful
suggestion for enquiry into remission of all fines not yet Disobedience and non-aggressive
police excesses. collected; and Beyond. picketing.
4. Release of only those return of all lands not yet sold to Page. 360 Which of the
prisoners who were not third parties; The Making of statements given above
charged with violence lenient treatment to those the National is/are correct?
Select the correct answer government servants who had Movement: (a) 1 only
using the code given below: resigned; 1870s - (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only right to make salt in coastal 1947:Chapter (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only villages for personal consumption 11 of Our (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 3 only (not for sale); Pasts-3, Social EXPLANATION:
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only right to peaceful and non- Science On 5 March 1931 in the
aggressive picketing. textbook for Gandhi-Irwin Pact,
withdrawal of emergency class 08 which was variously
ordinances. described as a ‘truce’
The viceroy, however, turned and a ‘provisional
down two of Gandhi's demands: settlement.’ The Pact
(i) public inquiry into police was signed by Gandhiji
excesses, and on behalf of the
(ii) commutation of Bhagat Singh Congress and by Lord
and his comrades' death sentence Irwin on behalf of the
to life sentence. Government.
Gandhi on behalf of the Congress The terms of the
agreed: agreement included the
(i) to suspend the civil immediate release of
disobedience movement. only the political
(ii) to participate in the next prisoners who are not
Round Table Conference. convicted for violence,
the remission of all fines
not yet collected, the
return of confiscated
lands not yet sold to
third parties, and
lenient treatment for
those government
employees who had
resigned.
Statement 2 is correct:
The Government also
conceded the right to
make salt for
consumption to villages
along the coast and also
the right to peaceful
and non-aggressive
picketing. The Congress
demand for a public
inquiry into police
excesses was not
accepted, but Gandhiji’s
insistent request for an
inquiry was recorded in
the agreement. The
Congress, on its part,
agreed to discontinue
the Civil Disobedience
Movement.
48 MODERN The Vital-Vidhvansak, the A Gopal Baba Walangkar, also D F https://shodh RR
INDIA first monthly journal to have known as Gopal Krishna, (ca. ganga.inflibne
the untouchable people as 1840-1900) is an early example of t.ac.in/bitstre
its target audience was an activist working to release the am/10603/14
published by untouchable people of India from 0701/7/07_ch
(a) Gopal Baba Walangkar their historic socio-economic apter%201.pd
(b) Jyotiba Phule oppression, and is generally f
(c) Mohandas Karamchand considered to be the pioneer of
Gandhi that movement. He developed a https://en.wik
(d) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar racial theory to explain the ipedia.org/wik
oppression and also published the i/Gopal_Baba
first journal targeted at the _Walangkar
untouchable people.
Walangkar claimed that "high-caste
people from the south were
'Australian–Semitic non-Aryans' and
African negroes, that Chitpavan
Brahmans were 'Barbary Jews', and
that the high-caste Marathas'
forebears were 'Turks'".
In 1888, Walangkar began
publishing the monthly journal
titled Vital-Vidhvansak (Destroyer
of Brahmanical or Ceremonial
Pollution), which was the first to
have the untouchable people as
its target audience.
49 ANCIENT With reference to the history A Gupta Economy: The agricultural D F Upinder Singh: EM
INDIA of India, the terms crops constituted the main A history of
"kulyavapa" and resources which the society Ancient and
"dronavapa" denote produced and the major part of Early Medieval
(a) measurement of land the revenue of the state came India

(b) coins of different from the agriculture.
monetary value Various types of land are
(c) classification of urban mentioned in the inscriptions;
land land under cultivation was usually
(d) religious rituals called Kshetra, Khila was the
uncultivable land, Aprahata was
the jungle or forest land, Gopata
Sarah was the pasture land and
Vasti was the habitable land.
Different land measures were
known in different regions such as
Nivartana, Kulyavapa and
Dronavapa. In the inscriptions of
Bengal terms like Kulyavapa and
Dronavapa are used. It is not
possible to classify the regions
precisely according to the crops
grown, but all the major
categories of crops – cereals like
barley, wheat and paddy,
different varieties of pulses,
grams and vegetables as well as
cash crops like cotton and
sugarcane – were known long
before the Gupta period and
continued to be cultivated.
50 ANCIENT Who among the following A Major Rock Edict XII of Ashoka: D F NCERT class- EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
INDIA rulers advised his subjects Beloved-of-the-Gods, King 6th, Our Past- TEST 2974
through this inscription? Piyadasi, honors both ascetics and 1, Page.No.- Consider the following
"Whosoever praises his the householders of all religions, 73, chapter: statements about
religious sect or blames and he honors them with gifts and ASHOKA, THE Mauryan King Ashoka:
other sects out of excessive honors of various kinds. EMPEROR 1. Ashoka Dhamma’s
devotion to his own sect, But Beloved-of-the-Gods, King WHO GAVE primary objective was to
with the view of glorifying his Piyadasi, does not value gifts and UP WAR attract and convert
own sect, he rather injures honors as much as he values this - people to the Buddhist
his own sect very severely." - that there should be growth in religion.
(a) Ashoka the essentials of all religions. 2. King Ashoka
(b) Samudragupta Growth in essentials can be done appointed the special
(c) Harshavardhana in different ways, but all of them officials for the peaceful
(d) Krishnadeva Raya have as their root restraint in functioning of the
speech, that is, not praising one's principles of Dhamma.
own religion, or condemning the Which of the
religion of others without good statements given above
cause. And if there is cause for is/are correct?
criticism, it should be done in a (a) 1 only
mild way. But it is better to honor (b) 2 only
other religions for this reason. By (c) Both 1 and 2
so doing, one's own religion (d) Neither 1 nor 2
benefits, and so do other EXPLANATION:
religions, while doing otherwise Ashoka is considered as
harms one's own religion and the one of the greatest
religions of others. Whoever kings in Indian history.
praises his own religion, due to He is praised so much
excessive devotion, and for his policy of
condemns others with the Dhamma. According to
thought "Let me glorify my own some of scholars Ashoka
religion," only harms his own was a follower of
religion. Buddhism and through
Therefore contact (between Dhamma he tried to
religions) is good.[24] One should propagate the principles
listen to and respect the doctrines of Buddhism. But this
professed by others. Beloved-of- does not seem to be
the-Gods, King Piyadasi, desires true as Dhamma had
that all should be well-learned in nothing to do with the
the good doctrines of other propagation of
religions. Buddhism.
It was a code of conduct
or ideal social behaviour
common to all religions
of the world, which he
appealed to his subjects
to follow. Although
Ashoka himself believed
in Buddhism, he never
discriminated against
other faiths or religions.
Twelfth rock edict is
specially important
since it says “the king
Piyadassi, the beloved
of the gods, respected
all sects whether
ascetics or
householders, and he
honours them with gifts
and honours of various
kinds…let an alien sect
also be respected on
every occasion.” It
shows clearly that
neither Dhamma was
Buddhism nor Ashoka
was trying to convert
people to Buddhism.
51 ENVIRONME What are the advantages of C Fertigation has some specific M FCA https://www.t RR Articles related to
NT fertigation in agriculture? advantages over broadcast and hehindu.com/ fertigation are
1. Controlling the alkalinity band fertilization: sci- frequently seen in
of irrigation water is (1) A frequent supply of nutrients tech/agricultu the news.
possible. reduces fluctuation of nutrient re/active-
2. Efficient application of concentration in soil. research-
Rock Phosphate and all other (2) There is efficient utilization work-in-
phosphatic fertilizers is and precise application of organic-
possible. nutrients according to the fertigation/art
3. Increased availability of nutritional requirements of the icle4268032.e
nutrients to plants is crop. ce
possible. (3) Fertilizers are applied
4. Reduction in the leaching throughout the irrigated soil https://www.i
of chemical nutrients is volume and are readily available ndiaagronet.c
possible. to plants. om/indiaagro
Select the correct answer (4) Nutrients can be applied to the net/manuers_
using the code given below: soil when soil or crop conditions fertilizers/cont
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only would otherwise prohibit entry ents/phosphat
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only into the field with conventional ic_fertilisers.h
(c) 1,3 and 4 only equipment. tm
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only The pH of the irrigation water is of
great importance, as it affects many
chemical reactions. In fertigation,
the reasons for adjusting the pH to
an optimal range are: 1. To allow
optimal uptake of nutrients,

especially micronutrients; 2. To
keep the irrigation system free from
clogging. Alkalinity of a fertigation
system can be controlled by adding
Acid. The injection of acid to the
irrigation water should be, as much
as possible, uniform and
continuous, throughout the entire
duration of the irrigation.
Drip fertigation increases water and
nitrogen use efficiency. Drip
fertigation reduced dissolved
inorganic and organic N leaching by
90%..
Soluble fertilizers like urea, potash
and a wide variety of fertilizer
mixtures available in the market
could be well mixed with irrigation
water, filtered and then passed
through the irrigation unit.
Rock Phosphate and some other
mineral fertilizers containing
phosphorus are insoluble in water
as well as in citric acid. They are
suitable in strongly acid soils or
organic soils. These fertilizers are
given in green manured fields. The
phosphorus is very slowly released
by microbes at action and remains
in soil for long time. Hence option
(c) is the correct answer.
52 GEOGRAPHY Consider the following D Bentonite is essentially a highly D FCA http://ismenvis. RM District Mineral
minerals: plastic clay containing not less nic.in/Database Foundations are
1. Bentonite than 85% clay mineral, /Indian_Mineral frequently seen in
s_Yearbook_20
2. Chromite montmorillonite. It gets its name news. It was also
17_Vol-
3. Kyanite from the place where its presence recently reported
III_16186.aspx
4. Sillimanite and usages were first discovered, https://indianex that of the total
In India, which of the above Fort Benton, America. As per press.com/articl welfare funds
is/are officially designated as Govt. of India Notification S.O. e/business/utili collected, only 17 per
major minerals? 423(E) dated 10th February 2015 se-funds-with- cent were spent till
(a) 1 and 2 only Bentonite has been declared as district-mineral- 2017-end.
foundations-
(b) 4 only 'Minor Mineral'. properly-
(c) 1 and 3 only Chromite (Cr) is the single centre-tells-
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only commercially viable ore of states-5188890/
https://indianex
chromium which is chemically
press.com/articl
known as iron chromium oxide (Fe
e/india/mining-
Cr2O4). affected-areas-
Kyanite, Sillimanite and andalusite of-12-top-
are unhydrous aluminosilicate mineral-rich-
minerals that have the same states-of-total-
chemical formula Al2O3 but differ welfare-funds-
in crystal structure and physical collected-only-
properties. 17-spent-till-
2017-end-
5027963/
53 GEOGRAPHY With reference to Ocean B Ocean heat content (OHC) and D U https://www.t EN Recently, scientists
Mean Temperature (OMT), Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT) hehindu.com/ from Pune’s Indian
which of the following are important climatic parameters sci- Institute of Tropical
statements is/are correct? required for atmospheric and tech/science/ Meteorology (IITM)
1. OMT is measured up to a oceanic studies like cyclone and ocean-mean- found that ocean
depth of 26°C isotherm monsoon predictions and ocean temperature- mean temperature
which is 129 meters in the heat transport estimations. Sea can-better- (OMT) that has better
south-western Indian Ocean surface temperature (SST) is predict- ability to predict
during January–March. routinely used for predicting indian- monsoons than the
2. OMT collected during whether the total amount of summer- sea surface
January–March can be used rainfall that India receives during monsoon/arti temperature.
in assessing whether the the monsoon season will be less cle24842963.e
amount of rainfall in or more than the long-term mean ce
monsoon will be less or more of 887.5 mm. Now, scientists from
than a certain long-term Pune’s Indian Institute of Tropical
mean. Meteorology (IITM) find that
Select the correct using the ocean mean temperature (OMT)
code given below: that has better ability to predict
(a) 1 only this than the sea surface
(b) 2 only temperature. Compared with SST
(c) Both 1 and 2 which has 60% success rate of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 predicting the Indian summer
monsoon, OMT has 80% success
rate. Hence statement 2 is
correct.

The SST is restricted to a few
millimetres of the top ocean layer
and is largely influenced by strong
winds, evaporation, or thick
clouds. In contrast, OMT, which is
measured up to a depth of 26
degree C isotherm, is more stable
and consistent, and the spatial
spread is also less. The 26 degree
C isotherm is seen at depths
varying from 50–100 metres.
During January–March, the mean
26 degree C isotherm depth in the
Southwestern Indian Ocean is 59
metres. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
54 ECONOMICS With reference to chemical B The Government of India D CAA https://pib.go EN
fertilizers in India, consider subsidizes fertilizers to ensure v.in/PressRele
the following statements: that fertilizers are easily available asePage.aspx?
1. At present, the retail price to farmers and the county PRID=1580828
of chemical fertilizers is remains self-sufficient in
market-driven and not agriculture. The same has been https://www.
administered by the achieved largely by controlling the aiche.org/reso
Government. price of fertilizer and the amount urces/publicat
2. Ammonia, which is an of production ions/cep/2016
input of urea, is produced For example, as per the New Urea /september/in
from natural gas. Policy of 2015, the government troduction-
3. Sulphur, which is a raw fixes the market price of urea. ammonia-
material for phosphoric acid Also, there is a fixed subsidy production
fertilizer, is a by-product of component as well.
oil refineries. Similarly, for Phosphorous and https://www.i
Which of the statements Potassium, as per the Nutrient cfa.org.in/asse
given above is/are correct? Based Subsidy Scheme of 2010, ts/doc/reports
(a) 1 only subsidy is provided based on /Indian_Fertili
(b) 2 and 3 only nutrient content per kg of zer_Market.p
(c) 2 only fertilizer. Hence statement 1 is df
(d) 1, 2 and 3 not correct.
Fertilizer production uses 1.2% of https://econo
the world’s total energy out of mictimes.india
which 90% is used for ammonia times.com/ind
production, which is a key ustry/indl-
ingredient in the production of goods/svs/che
nitrogen fertilizers. Ammonia can m-/-
be produced from natural gas. fertilisers/ferti
Hence statement 2 is correct liser-prices-
Sulfur is a major by-product of oil may-rise-5-26-
refining and gas processing. Most per-
crude oil grades contain some cent/articlesh
sulfur, most of which must be ow/66000270.
removed during the refining cms
process to meet strict sulfur
content limits in refined products. https://www.li
Industries, for instance, the vemint.com/
Mathura oil refinery, have been
responsible for producing https://ncert.
pollutants like sulphur dioxide and nic.in/textboo
nitrogen dioxide. Also, Sulphur is k/pdf/hesc118
used in phosphoric acid fertilizer .pdf
(There is a process known as 'The
Wet Process' for producing the
same). Hence statement 3 is
correct.
55 ENVIRONME With reference to India's C Desert National Park, Rajasthan, M FCA https://whc.u RM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: Desert National Park,
NT Desert National Park, which India, is situated in the west nesco.org/en/ TEST 2994 Rajasthan is a part of
of the following statements Indian state of Rajasthan near the tentativelists/ Consider the following UNESCO's tentative
are correct? towns of Jaisalmer and Barmer. 5448/#:~:text statements about the list. A Tentative List is
1. It is spread over two This is one of the largest national =The%20Dese Great Indian Bustard an inventory of those
districts. parks, covering an area of 3162 rt%20National (GIB) species in India: properties which
2. There is no human km². The Desert National Park is %20Park%20( 1. It is one of the each State Party
habitation inside the Park. an excellent example of the DNP,Barmer% heaviest flying birds in intends to consider
3. It is one of the natural ecosystem of the Thar Desert. The 20district%20 the world. for nomination.
habitats of Great Indian Desert National Park (DNP) covers of%20Rajasth 2. It is categorised as
Bustard. an area of 3162 km² of which an%20State critically endangered by
Select the correct answer 1900 km² is in Jaisalmer district the IUCN Red List.
using the code given below: and remaining 1262 km² is in 3. The largest
(a) 1 and 2 only Barmer district of Rajasthan State. concentration of GIBs
(b) 2 and 3 only Hence statement 1 is correct. could be found in the
(c) 1 and 3 only The Thar desert is the most thickly state of Gujarat.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 populated desert in the world 4. There exist a national
with an average density of 83 programme for the
persons/km² (compared to 7km² conservation of the
of other deserts) (Baqri and GIBs.
Kankane 2001). However, the Which of the
human population within the DNP statements given above
is low (4-5 persons per km²). are correct?
There are 73 villages and also (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
settlements or Dhanis existing (b) 2 and 4 only
within the Park. These (c) 1 and 3 only
communities have inhabited this (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
area for hundreds of years and EXPLANATION:
with their rich culture and In 2012 the Indian
tradition they are an integral part government launched
of this ecosystem. Hence Project Bustard, a national
conservation program to
protect the great Indian
The DNP is the most important
bustard, along with the
site for the long-term survival of Bengal florican
the Globally Threatened Great (Houbaropsis bengalensis),
Indian Bustard and other endemic the lesser florican
fauna and flora. Other birds of (Sypheotides indicus), and
significance include the their habitats from further
endangered Oriental White- declines. The program was
backed vulture Gyps bengalensis modeled after Project
Tiger, a massive national
and Long-billed Gyps indicus,
effort initiated in the early
Stoliczka's Bushchat Saxicola
1970s to protect the tigers
macrorhyncha, Green Munia of India and their habitat.
Amandava formosa MacQueen's A conservation centre has
or Houbara Bustard Chlamydotis been set up at Desert
maqueeni. Eleven bird species National Park in Jaisalmer.
representative of Biome-13 have
been identified by BirdLife
International. Hence statement 3
is correct.
56 GEOGRAPHY Siachen Glacier is situated to D The Nubra Valley acts as the E F Standard Atlas EM Indo-China relations
the gateway to the strategically and border areas
(a) East of Aksai Chin important Siachen Glacier and have been frequently
(b) East of Leh Karakoram Pass. The Karakoram seen in the news.
(c) North of Gilgit Pass in the northwest side
(d) North of Nubra Valley connects the valley with Xinjiang,
China. The area was once part of
ancient Himalayan trade path, the
Silk Route that connected China to
Middle East. Hence option (d) is
the correct answer.
The Nubra River is a river in the
Nubra Valley of Ladakh in India. It
is a tributary of the Shyok River (a
part of the Indus River system)
and originates from the Siachen
Glacier, the second-longest non-
polar glacier in the world.
57 ART & With reference to the history A Vidhisha is an ancient city in D U https://vidisha RR
CULTURE of India, consider the Madhya Pradesh state in India. It .nic.in/en/abo
following pairs: is also the administrative capital ut-district/
Famous Place Present State of the district with the same https://junaga
1. Bhilsa : Madhya Pradesh name. It was known as Besnagar dh.nic.in/touri
2. Dwarasamudra : in ancient times. Vidhisha city was st-
Maharashtra known as Bhelsa during the place/girnar/
3. Girinagar : Gujarat Medieval period.
4. Sthanesvara : Uttar Heliodorus Pillar It is a 20 feet https://www.
Pradesh and 7 inches tall stone column, deccanherald.
Which of the pairs given believed to be erected by the com/sunday-
above are correctly Greek ambassador of King herald/twin-
matched? Antialcidas, the Indo-Greek King treasures-
(a) 1 and 3 only of ancient times. It is located on nagalapura-
(b) 1 and 4 only the northern banks of River Vais. 720961.html
(c) 2 and 3 only The inscriptions on this stone
(d) 2 and 4 only pillar tells us that it was built to
pay homage to Lord Vishnu.
Emperor Ashoka the Great of
Maurya Dynasty, served as the
governor of Vidisha during his
father’s regime.
Shunga dynasty was established
by Pushyamitra Shunga, after the
fall of the Maurya Empire. Its
capital was Pataliputra, but later
emperors such as Bhagabhadra
also held court at Besnagar
(modern Vidisha) in eastern
Malwa.
The Hoysala empire ruled a large
part of modern day Karnataka
and parts of Andhra Pradesh and
Tamil Nadu from the 10th to the
14th century. Hoysalas had their
capital at Dwarasamudra, the
modern Halebidu in Belur Taluk.
Girinar is one of the most ancient
22th jain Tirthankar lord
Neminath prabhu kshetras in
India. Lord Neminath performed
penance and salvation at the top
of the hill. People have to climb
10,000 (ten thousand) steps to
have lord neminath paduka
darshan.[1]
The group temples of Jainism are
situated on the Mount Girnar
situated near Junagadh in
Junagadh district, Gujarat, India.
There temples are sacred to the
Digambara and the Svetambara
branches of Jainism. Girnar, also
known as Girinagar ('city-on-the-
hill') or Revatak Parvata, is a
group of mountains in the
Junagadh District of Gujarat,
India.
Thanesar (sometimes called
Thaneswar and, archaically,
Sthanishvara) is a historic town and
an important Hindu pilgrimage
centre on the banks of the
Saraswati River in the state of
Haryana in northern India.
Prabhakarvardhana was a ruler of
Thanesar in the early seventh-
century CE and was succeeded by
his sons, Rajyavardhana and
Harshavardhana.

58 ENVIRONME Consider the following B To effectively regulate the M FCA https://scienc RM Atal Bhujal Yojana, a
NT statements: groundwater extraction, the e.thewire.in/e groundwater
1. 36% of India's districts are Centre, following the NGT’s nvironment/in management scheme
classified as "overexploited" directions, has divided areas with dia- was launched in
or "critical" by the Central declining water tables in three groundwater- December 2019.
Ground Water Authority categories: Overexploited, extraction-
(CGWA). Critical, Semi-critical. Areas with replenishment
2. CGWA was formed under an extraction rate of 70-100% of -ngt-cgwa-
the Environment (Protection) groundwater recharge. Two industrial-
Act. hundred and fifty six of our growth-
3. India has the largest area approximately 700 districts have sustainability/
under groundwater irrigation groundwater levels which are
in the world. “critical” or “over-exploited” as https://indian
Which of the statements per the latest data from the express.com/a
given above is/are correct? Central Ground Water Board rticle/opinion/
(a) 1 only (2017). (Approx 36%) columns/the-
(b) 2 and 3 only Statement 2 is correct: Central respect-she-
(c) 2 only Ground Water Authority (CGWA) deserves-
(d) 1 and 3 only was constituted under sub-section water-crisis-
(3) of Section 3 of the 6236859/
Environment (Protection) Act,
1986 for the purposes of https://niti.go
regulation and control of ground v.in/sites/defa
water development and ult/files/2019-
management in the country. 08/CWMI-2.0-
Statement 3 is correct: At 39 latest.pdf
million hectares (67% of its total
irrigation), India has the world's https://niti.go
largest groundwater well v.in/planningc
equipped irrigation system (China ommission.go
with 19 mha is second, USA with v.in/docs/repo
17 mha is third). India, Pakistan, rts/genrep/re
and Bangladesh are, respectively, p_grndwat.pd
the first, fourth and sixth largest f
users of groundwater globally.
India pumps more than the US
and China combined - the second
and third-largest users,
respectively.

59 GEOGRAPHY Consider the following C Statement 1 is not correct: Jet M F Physical EM
statements: streams occur in both the Geography
1. Jet streams occur in the Northern and Southern Class XI NCERT
Northern Hemisphere only. Hemispheres. The actual
2. Only some cyclones appearance of jet streams result http://www.i
develop an eye. from the complex interaction mdsikkim.gov.
3. The temperature inside between many variables - such as in/cyclonefaq.
the eye of a cyclone is nearly the location of high and low pdf
10°C lesser than that of the pressure systems, warm and cold
surroundings. air, and seasonal changes.
Which of the statements Statement 2 is correct: The
given above is/are correct? hurricane's center is a relatively
(a) 1 only calm, generally clear area of
(b) 2 and 3 only sinking air and light winds that
(c) 2 only usually do not exceed 15 mph (24
(d) 1 and 3 only km/h) and is typically 20-40 miles
(32-64 km) across. An eye will
usually develop when the
maximum sustained wind speeds
go above 74 mph (119 km/h) and
is the calmest part of the storm.
Statement 3 is not correct: The
eye is the region of lowest surface
pressure and warmest
temperatures aloft - the eye
temperature may be 10°C warmer
or more at an altitude of 12 km
than the surrounding
environment, but only 0-2°C
warmer at the surface in the
tropical cyclone.
60 ENVIRONME Among the following Tiger C Option (c) is the correct answer: M CAA https://www.t EN ‘Status of Tigers, Co-
NT Reserves, which one has the Critical 'tiger' habitats (CTHs), also hehindu.com/ predators, Prey and
largest area under "Critical known as core areas of tiger news/national their Habitat, 2018’
Tiger Habitat"? reserves—are identified under the /nearly-3000- report was released
(a) Corbett Wild Life Protection Act (WLPA), tigers-in-india- recently.
(b) Ranthambore 1972 based on scientific evidence finds-
(c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam that "such areas are required to census/article
(d) Sunderbans be kept as inviolate for the 28744392.ece
purpose of tiger conservation,
without affecting the rights of the https://www.
Scheduled Tribes or such other hindustantime
forest dwellers". The notification s.com/india-
of CTH is done by the state news/tiger-
government in consultation with estimation-
the expert committee constituted report-
for the purpose. provides-
Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger glimpse-of-
Reserve is the largest tiger reserve hope-for-
in India . The reserve spreads over human-
five districts, Kurnool District, animal-co-
Prakasam District, Guntur District, existence/stor
Nalgonda District and y-
Mahbubnagar district. The total Ej8dYMZLO4z
area of the tiger reserve is 3,728 XO7S3qEjYNI.
km2 (1,439 sq mi). html
61 ENVIRONME If a particular plant species is A Option (a) is the correct answer: E F THE WILD LIFE EN Frequently seen in
NT placed under Schedule VI of There are six schedules under the (PROTECTION) news. It is also the
The Wildlife Protection Act, Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The ACT, 1972 only schedule which
1972, what is the specified endemic plants in http://legislati includes plants under
implication? Schedule VI are prohibited from ve.gov.in/sites the Wildlife
(a) a license is required to cultivation and planting. The /default/files/ Protection Act, 1972.
cultivate that plant. hunting to the Enforcement A1972-
(b) Such a plant cannot be authorities have the power to 53_0.pdf
cultivated under any compound offences under this
circumstances. Schedule (i.e. they impose fines
(c) It is a Genetically on the offenders).
Modified crop plant. The wildlife Protection Act defines
(d) Such a plant is invasive "specified plant" as any plant
and harmful to the specified in Schedule VI.
ecosystem. It further states that "Cultivation
of specified plants without license
prohibited. - (1) no person shall
cultivate a specified plant except
under, and in accordance with a
license granted by the Chief
Wildlife Warden or any other
officer authorized by the State
Government in this behalf; 2)
Every license granted under this
section shall specify the area in
which and the conditions, if any,
subject to which the licensee shall
cultivate a specified plant."
62 ANCIENT With reference to the period A Indian examples of Ancient D F OLD NCERT- RR Buddha statue
INDIA of Gupta dynasty in ancient submerged Port Towns: Medieval unveiled at
India, the towns Ghantasala, In India evidences of ship building, India-Satish Ghantasala village in
Kadura and Chaul were well port and warehouses installations chandra page NOV-2019
known as are datable to Harappan culture. no. 93- Cyclone Nisarga:
(a) ports handling foreign The important Harappan and late chapter:The Central team set to
trade Harappan ports were Lothal, Bahmani survey losses in
(b) capitals of powerful Lakhabawal, Kindarkhera, Kuntasi, Kingdom — Its Chaul, Diveagar and
kingdoms Megham, Prabhasa, Todio, Amra. Expansion Kashid in Raigad
(c) places of exquisite stone The excavations of these sites and
art and architecture have yielded antiquities of Disintegration
(d) important Buddhist Bahrain island, Persian gulf, Egypt
pilgrimage centres and Mesopotmia cities. https://www.t
The same maritime traditions hehindu.com/
continued even during the life news/national
time of Buddha, the Mauryas, the /andhra-
Gupta and in later period. During pradesh/budd
historical period India had trade ha-statue-
and cultural contacts with Egypt, unveiled-at-
Rome, Greeks, Arabs, China and ghantasala-
all most all Southeast Asian village/article
countries. through these ports. 29957226.ece
The ports on the west coast were
Barygaya, Suppara, Calliena, https://www.
Semylla, Mandagore, Palaepatme, nodc.noaa.gov
Malizigara, Aurranobbas, /archive/arc00
Byzantine, Naura, Tyndis, Muziris 01/9900162/2
and Nelcynda and the ports on .2/data/0-
the east coast were Tamralipti, data/jgofscd/h
Charitrapur, Paluru, Dantapur, tdocs/marinea
Kalingapatnam, Pithunda, rc/ancientwre
Sopatma, Ghantasala, Poduca, ck.html
Puhar, Korkai and Camara.
Merchants thronging sea-port
towns like Mamallapuram, Puhar,
and Korkai; or busy customs
officials, and those engaged in
loading and unloading vessels in
the harbor. The wealth of the
Roman Empire reached India
through the ports of Kalyan,
Chaul, Broach, and Cambay in
Western India.
Tamralipti was an important port
in Bengal. It carried on trade with
China, Lanka, Java and Sumatra.
In the Andhra region, the ports
were Kadura and Ghantasala,
Kaveripattanam (Puhar) and
Tondail were the ports of the
Pandya region. The ports of
Kottayam and Muziris were on the
Malabar coast. There was a great
maritime trade between India and
Southeast Asia and China.
63 ENVIRONME What is/are the advantage/ D Statement 1 is correct: Zero-till M CAA https://www.t EN To tackle the problem
NT advantages of zero tillage in farming is a way of growing wheat hehindubusin of stubble burning
agriculture? crops without tillage or disturbing essline.com/e Happy Seeders were
1. Sowing of wheat is the soil in harvested fields. Happy conomy/agri- frequently seen in
possible without burning the Seeder is one of the unique business/cons the news. Also, Direct
residue of previous crop. techniques which is used for ervation- seeded rice (DSR)
2. Without the need for sowing seed without any burning agriculture- technique is also
nursery of rice saplings, of Crop residue. key-to-better- frequently discussed
direct planting of paddy Statement 2 is correct: Direct income- in newspapers.
seeds in the wet soil is seeded rice (DSR) has received environment-
possible. much attention because of its low- protection-
3. Carbon sequestration in input demand. It involves sowing study/article3
the soil is possible. pre-germinated seed into a puddled 1364196.ece
Select the correct answer soil surface (wet seeding), standing https://indian
using the code given below: water (water seeding) or dry express.com/a
(a) 1 and 2 only seeding into a prepared seedbed rticle/explaine
(dry seeding).
(b) 2 and 3 only d/explained-
Statement 3 is correct: Adopting
(c) 3 only using-happy-
no-tillage in agro-ecosystems has
(d) 1, 2 and 3 seeder-and-
been widely recommended as a
means of enhancing carbon (C) how-it-affects-
sequestration in soils. wheat-yield-
6017640/
https://www.t
hehindu.com/
news/national
/other-
states/punjab-
farmers-to-go-
for-direct-
seeding-of-
rice/article316
10222.ece
64 ENVIRONME According to India's National A Option (a) is the correct answer: M CAA https://www.t EN "PT 365 2020 National Policy on
NT Policy on Biofuels, which of Under the National Policy on hehindubusin SUPPLEMENTARY page Biofuels was
the following can be used as Biofuels ‘bioethanol’ is defined as essline.com/e number 33 ""NATIONAL extensively covered
raw materials for the ethanol produced from biomass conomy/polic POLICY ON in news as it was
production of biofuels? such as sugar containing y/cabinet- BIOFUELS- 2018" recently approved by
1. Cassava materials, like sugar cane, sugar approves- ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: the Union Cabinet.
2. Damaged wheat grains beet, sweet sorghum etc.; starch national- TEST 2973
3. Groundnut seeds containing materials such as corn, biofuel- With reference to the
4. Horse grams cassava, rotten potatoes, algae policy/article2 National Policy on
5. Rotten potatoes etc.; and, cellulosic materials such 3903816.ece#: Biofuels-2018, consider
6. Sugar beet as bagasse, wood waste, ~:text=The%2 the following
Select the correct answer agricultural and forestry residues 0Cabinet%20o statements:
using the code given below: or other renewable resources like n%20Wednes 1. It allows the use of
(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only industrial waste. day%20appro surplus food grains for
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only For Ethanol Production the ved,to%20be the production of
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only following raw materials may be %20mixed%20 ethanol for blending
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 potentially used: B-Molasses, in%20petrol. with petrol.
Sugarcane juice, biomass in form 2. A Biofuel Steering
of grasses, agriculture residues http://petrole Committee is headed by
(Rice straw, cotton stalk, corn um.nic.in/nati the Prime Minister to
cobs, saw dust, bagasse etc.) , onal-policy- oversee the
sugar containing materials like biofuel-2018-0 implementation of the
sugar beet, sweet sorghum, etc. National Policy on
and starch containing materials Biofuels-2018.
such as corn, cassava, rotten Which of the
potatoes etc., Damaged food statements given above
grains like wheat, broken rice etc. is/are correct?
which are unfit for human (a) 1 only
consumption, Food grains during (b) 2 only
surplus phase. Algal feedstock and (c) Both 1 and 2
cultivation of sea weeds can also (D) Neither 1 nor 2
be a potential feedstock for EXPLANATION:
ethanol production. The Policy expands the
For Biodiesel Production: Non- scope of raw material
edible Oilseeds, Used Cooking Oil for ethanol production
(UCO), Animal tallow, Acid Oil, by allowing the use of
Algal feedstock etc. Sugarcane Juice, Sugar
For Advanced Biofuels: Biomass, containing materials like
MSW, Industrial waste, Plastic Sugar Beet, Sweet
waste etc. Sorghum, Starch
containing materials like
Corn, Cassava,
Damaged food grains
like wheat, broken rice,
Rotten Potatoes, unfit
for human consumption
for ethanol production
65 ENVIRONME Which one of the following A The social cost of carbon (SCC) is M CAA https://www.t EN Recently, researchers
NT statements best describes an estimate, in dollars, of the hehindu.com/ have developed a
the term 'Social Cost of economic damages that would sci- data set quantifying
Carbon'? result from emitting one tech/energy- what the social cost
It is a measure, in monetary additional ton of greenhouse and- of carbon will be for
value, of the gases into the atmosphere. The environment/ nearly 200 countries.
(a) long-term damage done SCC puts the effects of climate co2-
by a tonne of CO2 emissions change into economic terms to emissions-
in a given year. help policymakers and other cost-india-
(b) requirement of fossil decisionmakers understand the 210-billion-
fuels for a country to provide economic impacts of decisions every-year-
goods and services to its that would increase or decrease study/article2
citizens, based on the emissions. 5057550.ece
burning of those fuels. The country-level SCC for the
(c) efforts put in by a climate India alone is estimated to be
refugee to adapt to live in a about $86 per tonne of CO2. At
new place. current emission levels, the Indian
(d) contribution of an economy loses $210 billion
individual person to the annually.
carbon footprint on the Hence option (a) is the correct
planet Earth. answer.

66 GEOGRAPHY With reference to pulse A Statement 1 is correct: Many D CAA https://www.f RM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: Pulses production is
production in India, consider crops are cultivated in both kharif inancialexpres TEST 2969 frequently discussed
the following statements: and rabi seasons. Though pulses s.com/econo With reference to pulses in the news.
1. Black gram can be are grown in both Kharif and Rabi my/kharif- production in India,
cultivated as both kharif and seasons, Rabi pulses contribute 2019-after- consider the following
rabi crop. more than 60 percent of the total crisis-of-2015- statements:
2. Green-gram alone production. Black gram can be 16-another- 1. India is the world’s
accounts for nearly half of cultivated as both kharif and rabi pulses-deficit- largest producer as well
pulse production. crop. It is consumed in variety of looms/177641 as consumer of pulses.
3. In the last three decades, ways accross the North to Southin 0/ 2. Pulses are grown both
while the production of preparation of differnent regular in Kharif and Rabi
kharif pulses has increased and popular dishes like vada, idli, http://dpd.go seasons.
the production of rabi pulses dosa etc. During kharif, it is v.in/Reterospe 3. All pulses are covered
has decreased. cultivated throughout the cts%20and%2 under the Minimum
Which of the statements country. It is best suited to rice 0Prospects%2 Support Prices regime.
given above is/are correct? fallows during rabi in southern 02017.pdf Which of the
(a) 1 only and south-eastern parts of India. statements given above
(b) 2 and 3 only Statement 2 is not correct: Bengal is/are correct?
(c) 2 only Gram (Desi Chick Pea / Desi (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Chana), Pigeon Peas (Arhar / Toor (b) 2 and 3 only
/ Red Gram), Green Beans (Moong (c) 1 and 3 only
Beans), Chick Peas (Kabuli Chana), (d) 1, 2 and 3
Black Matpe (Urad / Mah / Black
Gram), Red Kidney Beans (Rajma),
Black Eyed Peas (Lobiya), Lentils
(Masoor), White Peas (Matar) are
major pulses grown and
consumed in India. Gram
(Chickpeas) is the most dominant
pulse having a share of around 40
per cent in the total production
followed by Tur/Arhar at 15 to 20
per cent and Urad/Black Matpe
and Moong at around 8-10 per
cent each.
Statement 3 is not correct: The
country’s pulses production stood
at 234 lakh tonne in the 2018-19
crop year, down from the record
level of 254 lakh tonne in 2017-
18. The production of pulses for
both Rabi and Kharif seasons has
increased in the last three
decades. Production of Kharif
pulses in 2000-01 was 44.48 lakh
tonnes which increased to 55.30
lakh tonnes by 2016-17. The
production of Rabu pulses has
also increased from 66.27 lakh
tonnes in 2000-01 to 108.18 lakh
tonnes in 2015-16.
67 GEOGRAPHY "The crop is subtropical in A Option (a) is the correct answer: E F G C Leong EM
nature. A hard frost is Cotton is grown on a variety of soils
injurious to it. It requires at across the world. Deep, fertile soil
least 210 frost-free days and with adequate humus and high
50 to 100 centimeters of water holding capacity and good
rainfall for its growth. A light internal drainage is best suited for
well-drained soil capable of growing cotton. Cotton can be
retaining moisture is ideally grown in places wherever, at least
180-200 frost free days are
suited for the cultivation of
available. Optimum temperature for
the crop." Which one of the
germination 20-300C. Germination
following is that crop?
will be delayed if the temperature is
(a) Cotton <180C.
(b) Jute The climatic conditions in the
(c) Sugarcane cotton growing regions of India
(d) Tea show considerable variations. High
temperature of about 45 degree
celcius during sowing and seeding
emergence and low temperature
accompanied by occasional frost
coinciding with the picking period
and moderate rainfall ranging from
300-700 mm are the features of the
north zone. In the Southern and
Central zones, the climate is equal.
68 S&T With reference to solar D Solar water pumps are a relatively D F https://www.t EN Govt to provide 2.75
water pumps, consider the new concept in mechanics. A solar hehindu.com/ million solar pumps
following statements: water pump system is commonly news/cities/ch to farmers under
1. Solar power can be used seen in residential and ennai/tamil- KUSUM scheme
for running surface pumps commercial uses, as well as for nadu-relaxes- Under the Rs 48,000

and not for submersible irrigation of agricultural land. rule-for-solar- crore scheme, 1.75
pumps. Through solar panels, the pump powered- million solar pumps
2. Solar power can be used can eliminate the cost of energy pump- will be installed
for running centrifugal and provide a more feasible scheme/articl where the grid has
pumps and not the ones with option that uses energy from the e32127002.ec not reached and 1
piston. sun (and not fuel-burning e million solar pumps
Which of the statements mechanisms) for pumping water. https://solarm where the grid is
given above is/are correct? Classification and types of solar agazine.com/s available
(a) 1 only pumps olar-water-
(b) 2 only When it comes to stand-alone pumps/
(c) Both 1 and 2 solar pumping systems, the main https://www.li
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 types include rotating and positive vemint.com/b
displacement pumps. Centrifugal udget/news/b
pumps are the common choice for udget2020-
rotation and are designed for kusum-solar-
fixed head applications. Their power-pumps-
output increases in proportion to scheme-to-be-
their speed of rotation. A positive expanded-
displacement (PD) pump moves a 11580537446
fluid by repeatedly enclosing a 121.html
fixed volume and moving it
mechanically through the system.
The pumping action is cyclic and
can be driven by pistons, screws,
gears, rollers, diaphragms or
vanes. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
Additionally, pumps are also
classified as submersible and
surface pumps, based on their
placement (underwater and
above the waterline). Hence
69 S&T With reference to the C Sugarcane is commercially D F https://www.t RR Sustainable
current trends in the planted using setts (cuttings hehindubusin sugarcane initiative in
cultivation of sugarcane in which can develop roots) at the essline.com/e the news
India, consider the following rate of 6-8 tonnes per hectare, conomy/agri-
statements: amounting to around 10 per cent business/bud-
1. A substantial saving in of the total production. This large chip-
seed material is made when mass of planting material creates technology-
'bud chip settlings' are raised logistical challenges in catching-on-
in a nursery and transplanted transportation and storage of among-
in the main field. seed cane. The tissue culture sugarcane-
2. When direct planting of technique, owing to its farmers/articl
seeds is done, the cumbersome outfit and physical e30502981.ec
germination percentage is limitation, is turning out to be e
better with single-budded uneconomical. To reduce the
setts as compared to setts mass and improve the quality of http://www.a
with many buds. seed cane would be to plant gsri.com/imag
3. If bad weather conditions excised axillary buds of canestalk, es/documents
prevail when seeds are popularly known as budchips. /symposium_
directly planted, single- These bud chips are less bulky, 1/Pdf%20files
budded seeds have better easily transportable and more %20of%20PPT
survival as compared to large economical seed material. A bud s/Technical%2
setts. chip nursery can be raised in mini- 0Session%20I/
4. Sugarcane can be plot near experimental field. Bud%20chip%
cultivated using settlings Nutrients are sprayed with PGR 20nurseries_II
prepared from tissue culture. (plant growth regulator) solution SR.pdf
Which of the statements at 3rd week. Healthy settlings
given above is/are correct? were transplanted in well https://www.r
(a) 1 and 2 only prepared field after 4-5 weeks esearchgate.n
(b) 3 only with row spacing of 90 cm and 30 et/publication
(c) 1 and 4 only cm between the two settling /333445991_
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only (small setts). Hence statement 1 Germinated_si
is correct. ngle-
Various research and experiment bud_setts_in_
shows that, germination pots_a_way_t
percentage of 3 bud sets is higher o_improve_ec
than the setts having more or less ological_resili
than three buds. Germination ence_at_plant
percentage of single bud sett is ing
very low because of moisture loss
from other cut end. Also if whole https://www.r
can stalk is planted without giving esearchgate.n
any cut, still germination et/publication
percentage remain low as only /322976767_S
top end will get germinate. Hence UGARCANE_P
statement 2 is not correct. LANTING_TEC
Various researches found that HNIQUES_A_R
large setts seeds have better EVIEW#:~:text
survival as compared to single- =The%20resea
budded seeds when seeds are rchers%20fou
directly planted in prevailing bad nd%20that%2
weather conditions. Hence 0the,if%20pro
statement 3 is not correct. tected%20wit
Planting is the most important h%20chemical
and labour intensive operation in %20treatment
sugarcane cultivation. To rapidly
produce and supply disease-free
seed cane of existing commercial
varieties Tissue culture is an
exciting new way which uses
meristem to clone the mother
plant. Cane and sugar yield of
tissue culture plants similar to
conventionally propagated plants.
70 ENVIRONME In the context of India, which D Option (d) is the correct answer: M CAA https://www.t EN Vertical Farming is
NT of the following is/are Crop diversification refers to the hehindu.com/ frequently seen in
considered to be practice(s) addition of new crops or cropping sci- the news.
of eco-friendly agriculture? systems to agricultural production tech/agricultu
1. Crop diversification on a particular farm taking into re/vertical-
2. Legume intensification account the different returns from farming-
3. Tensiometer use value- added crops with explained/arti
4. Vertical farming complementary marketing cle30522508.e
Select the correct answer opportunities. ce
using the code given below: Legume Intensification: Legumes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only fix the atmospheric nitrogen, https://www.t
(b) 3 only release in the soil high-quality hehindu.com/
(c) 4 only organic matter and facilitate soil sci-
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 nutrients' circulation and water tech/agricultu
retention. Based on these re/vertical-
multiple functions, legume crops farming-
have high potential for explained/arti
conservation agriculture, being cle30522508.e
functional either as growing crop ce
or as crop residue.
Tensiometer Use: A tensiometer
in soil science is a measuring
instrument used to determine the
matric water potential in the
vadose zone. When the water
pressure in the tensiometer is
determined to be in equilibrium
with the water pressure in the
soil, the tensiometer gauge
reading represents the matric
potential of the soil. Such
tensiometers are used in irrigation
scheduling to help farmers and
other irrigation managers to
determine when to water.
Vertical farming is the practice of
growing crops in vertically stacked
layers. It often incorporates
controlled-environment
agriculture, which aims to
optimize plant growth, and
soilless farming techniques such
as hydroponics, aquaponics, and
aeroponics. In vertical farming,
crops are grown indoors, under
artificial conditions of light and
temperature. Japan has been one
of the early pioneers in vertical
farming. It holds the largest share
in the global vertical farming
market.
71 ECONOMICS In India, which of the C Public Investment here refers to M FA https://www. RR
following can be considered the creation of either physical downtoearth.
as public investment in infrastructure or intangible org.in/news/a
agriculture? capital. Hence in this context, griculture/priv
1. Fixing Minimum Support investment is understood as ate-and-
Price for agricultural produce either infrastructure-related government-
of all crops. capital as given in options 2 and 6 who-is-
2. Computerization of or social capital as given in option investing-
Primary Agricultural Credit 3. Subsidies and loan waivers are how-much-
Societies not investments. Hence option 1 on-
3. Social Capital is not correct (There is scope for agriculture--
development elimination here). Hence option 65296
4. Free electricity supply to (c) is the correct answer.
farmers Similarly, option 4 (subisdy) and 5
5. Waiver of agricultural are not correct.
loans by the banking system
6. Setting up of cold storage
facilities by the
governments.
Select the correct answer
using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 3 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
72 ECONOMICS What is the importance of A The interest coverage ratio is a debt D FA https://www.i RM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
the term "Interest Coverage ratio and profitability ratio used to nvestopedia.c TEST 2994
Ratio" of a firm in India? determine how easily a company om/terms/i/in Which of the following
1. It helps in understanding can pay interest on its outstanding terestcoverag statements with
the present risk of a firm that debt. A higher coverage ratio is eratio.asp reference to ‘interest
a bank is going to given loan better, although the ideal ratio may coverage ratio’ is/are
to. vary by industry. https://www.t correct?
2. It helps in evaluating the Hence statement 3 is not correct. hehindubusin 1. It helps determine
emerging risk of a firm that a The Interest coverage ratio is also essline.com/e how easily a company
bank is going to give loan to. called “times interest earned.” conomy/slow can pay interest on its
3. The higher a borrowing Lenders, investors, and creditors down-blues- outstanding debt.
firm's level of Interest often use this formula to corporates- 2. In India, nearly 40
Coverage Ratio, the worse is determine a company's riskiness unable-to- percent of corporate
its ability to service its debt. relative to its current debt or for foot-the-cost- debt is owned by
Select the correct answer future borrowing. of- companies with an
using the code given below. The interest coverage ratio is used finance/article interest coverage ratio
(a) 1 and 2 only to see how well a firm can pay the 29320194.ece less than 1.5
(b) 2 only interest on outstanding debt. Select the correct
(c) 1 and 3 only Also called the times-interest- answer using the code
(d) 1, 2 and 3 earned ratio, this ratio is used by given below.
creditors and prospective lenders (a) 1 only
to assess the risk of lending (b) 2 only
capital to a firm. (c) Both 1 and 2
Hence statements 1 and 2 are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct.

73 ECONOMICS Which of the following D Option 1 is correct: MSP results in D F, https://www. RR
factors/policies were a diversion of stocks from the CAA deccanherald.
affecting the price of rice in open market, thus, driving up the com/business/
India in the recent past? price for the ultimate consumers. business-
1. Minimum Support Price Further, MSP prevents the prices news/rice-
2. Government's trading from going down (directly). Price prices-hit-18-
3. Government's stockpiling will not go below the MSP- The months-peak-
4. Consumer subsidies farmer can sell the produce to the as-
Select the correct answer government at the MSP. It will coronavirus-
using the code given below. also prevent the price from going strains-export-
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only up (indirectly)- The price will logistics-
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only shoot up only when the 885765.html
(c) 2 and 3 only production is less, but if the
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 production will increase, then the https://halshs.
prices will not be too high. archives-
Option 2 is correct: Though ouvertes.fr/ha
factors like climatic shocks lshs-
determine rice production and 02275376/doc
prices in the short run, the future ument
scenario of rice prices must be
based on long-term projections of
rice demand and supply. Trading
results in an increased demand in
the international markets, which
affects the price of rice in India.
Option 3 is correct: Low stock
levels constrain the ability to
buffer the price rise resulting from
other factors.
Option 4 is correct: Subsidies
lower the prices for the ultimate
consumer.
Hence all the given factors affect/
have affected the price of rice in
the country.
74 CURRENT Consider the following B Bilateral trade between India and D CA https://diplom EN Comprehensive
AFFAIRS statements: Sri Lanka has increased by atist.com/202 Economic Partnership
1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka around 9 times between 2000-01 0/03/03/india- Agreement
trade has consistently and 2018-19. Total trade between sri-lanka- negotiations between
increased in the last decade. the two countries was US$ 6.2 trade- India and Sri Lanka
2. "Textile and textile billion in 2018-19, out of which relations/
articles" constitute an India’s exports to Sri Lanka were
important item of trade US$ 4.7 billion and imports were https://econo
between India and US$ 1.5 billion. Although India has mictimes.india
Bangladesh. always had a trade surplus with times.com/ne
3. In the last five years, Nepal Sri Lanka, the gas has widened ws/economy/f
has been the largest trading since 2008-09. In 2012-13 and oreign-
partner of India in South 2016-17 the trade slumped, thus trade/india-
Asia. disturbing the steady increase in plans-to-
Which of the statements the graph. Hence statement 1 is enhance-
given above is/are correct? not correct. trade-with-
(a) 1 and 2 only Bangladesh is India’s biggest trade bangladesh/ar
(b) 2 only partner in South Asia. Bilateral ticleshow/768
(c) 3 only trade between India and 81534.cms
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Bangladesh has grown steadily
over the last decade. India’s
exports to Bangladesh in FY 2018-
19 stood at $9.21 billion and
imports during the same period
was at $1.04 billion. Hence
According to the World Bank,
India exports $2.25 billion-worth
textile and clothing products to
Bangladesh. In turn, it imports
$336 million-worth textile and
clothing products from Dhaka.
75 CURRENT In which one of the following A The G20 (or Group of Twenty) is E CA https://www. EN PT 365 2020 IR page 28 G20 is frequently
AFFAIRS groups are all the four an international forum for the dfat.gov.au/tr "8.5. G-7" seen in news
countries members of G20? governments and central bank ade/organisati
(a) Argentina, Mexico, South governors from 19 countries and ons/g20/Page
Africa and Turkey the European Union (EU). It was s/g20#:~:text=
(b) Australia, Canada, founded in 1999 with the aim to The%20memb
Malaysia and New Zealand discuss policy pertaining to the ers%20of%20t
(c) Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia promotion of international he%20G20,Sta
and Vietnam financial stability. tes%2C%20an
(d) Indonesia, Japan, The members of the G20 are: d%20the%20E
Singapore and South Korea. Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, uropean%20U
China, France, Germany, India, nion.
Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of
Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia,
South Africa, Turkey, United
Kingdom, United States, and the
European Union. Hence option (a)
is the correct answer.
76 ECONOMICS Under the Kisan Credit Card B Kisan Credit Card Scheme (KCC) M CAA https://rbidoc EN PT 365 2020 Govt KCC is often seen in
scheme, short-term credit • It is a type of loan given to s.rbi.org.in/rd Schemes Page 18 "1.12. the news
support is given to farmers farmers ocs/content/p KISAN CREDIT CARD
for which of the following • The scheme was introduced in dfs/CRB51005 (KCC)"
purposes? 1998 12AN.pdf ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
1. Working capital for • It is not a credit card for TEST 2989
maintenance of farm assets farmers. Hence statements 2 and https://sbi.co.i Consider the following
2. Purchase of combine 5 are not correct. n/web/agri- statements with respect
harvesters, tractors and mini • It is like an overdraft scheme for rural/agricultu to the Kisan Credit Card
trucks. farmers- One can overdraw upto re- scheme:
3. Consumption a limit. And interest has to be paid banking/crop- 1. Under the scheme,
requirements of farm on the amount so overdrawn. loan/kisan- farmers can avail of
households • Also, the limit of overdraft is credit-card interest-free loans up to
4. Post-harvest expense fixed on the basis of the value of Rs. 1 lakh.
5. Construction of family land, though the value of crop 2. The KCC card can be
house and setting up of may also be considered. obtained at Regional
village cold storage facility. The Features of This Scheme Rural Banks and Co-
Select the correct answer • Farmers need money before operative banks only.
using the code given below: sowing. For example, to buy 3. Investment credit for
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only seeds, fertilisers etc. both farming and allied
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only • In this scheme, they have to pay activities can be
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only back the loan amount/ overdraft obtained under the
(d) 1, 2, 3 4 and 5 after the harvest. Kisan Credit Card
• Also, interest charged is Scheme.
concessional- 4,5,6%- But if they Which of the
fail to payback post the harvest, statements given above
then the interest charged is/are correct?
increases to 13-14%- The subsidy (a) 3 only
component is, thus, removed. (b) 2 and 3 only
• The scheme has been very (c) 1 and 2 only
successful- More than 10 crore (d) None
KCCs have already been issued.
• Commercial, cooperative,
Regional Rural Banks- All types of

banks isssue KCCs
• Also, the loans given to farmers
through KCC are counted in
Priority Sector Lending- It is a
means of giving loans to farmers.
• It is very helful and beneficial for
farmers, as in order to increase
agricultural production, the
farmers need to buy various
inputs such as seeds, fertilisers
etc. This not only leads to an
increase in farmers’ income but
also in an increase in agricultural
production
Objectives/Purpose
Kisan Credit Card Scheme aims at
providing adequate and timely
credit support from the banking
system under a single window to
the farmers for their cultivation &
other needs as indicated below:
a. To meet the short term credit
requirements for cultivation of
crops
b. Post harvest expenses
c. Produce Marketing loan
d. Consumption requirements of
farmer household
e. Working capital for
maintenance of farm assets and
activities allied to agriculture, like
dairy animals, inland fishery etc.
f. Investment credit requirement
for agriculture and allied activities
like pump sets, sprayers, dairy
animals etc.
Hence statements 1, 3 and 4 are
correct.
Hence option (b) is the correct
answer.
77 ECONOMICS Consider the following A Inflation can be described as the E F https://www.li EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
statements: general rise in the price of goods vemint.com/ TEST 2969
1. The weightage of food in and services in an economy over Consider the following
Consumer Price Index (CPI) is time. It is calculated by tracking https://www.r statements with respect
higher than that in the increase in prices of bi.org.in/script to Consumer Price
Wholesale Price Index (WPI). essentials. s/BS_ViewBull Index:
2. The WPI does not capture The Methods To Calculate etin.aspx 1. It computes price
changes in the prices of Inflation changes in both goods
services, which CPI does. CPI https://www.r and services.
3. Reserve Bank of India has • The primary index that tracks bi.org.in/script 2. It is computed by the
now adopted WPI as its key the change in retail prices of s/BS_ViewBull Office of Economic
measure of inflation and to essential goods and services etin.aspx?Id=1 Advisor (OEA),
decide on changing the key consumed by Indian households is 8903 Department of
policy rates. the Consumer Price Index or CPI. Industrial Policy and
Which of the statements It shows the impact of inflation on https://www.r Promotion.
given above is/are correct? people bi.org.in/script 3. It is taken as measure
(a) 1 and 2 only • It is always used for Dearness s/BS_ViewBull of inflation while
(b) 2 only Allowance. Now, it is also being etin.aspx?Id=1 formulating monetary
(c) 3 only used for monetary policy 9796 policy by RBI.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 formulation. https://www.f Which of the
• Since 2010, based on the inancialexpres statements given above
Rangarajan Committee;s report, s.com/what- are correct?
CPI (URBAN), CPI (RURAL), CPI is/wholesale- (a) 1 and 2 only
(COMBINED) and CFPI- food indice price-index- (b) 2 and 3 only
are calculated therein wpi- (c) 1 and 3 only
• It covers both goods and meaning/1627 (d) 1, 2 and 3
services 729/ ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
• 200 Goods and services are TEST 2983
taken- It is a selected basket of Consider the following
goods and services. The statements regarding
weightage of food in the CPI is the Wholesale Price
close to 50% (The weightage for Index (WPI) in India:
food is lower in WPI). Hence 1. It is released by the
statement 1 is correct Central Statistics Office
WPI of the Ministry of
• While retail inflation looks at the Statistics and Program
price at which the consumer buys Implementation.
the product, WPI is measured 2. The direction of
based on prices at the wholesale movement of the
level. WPI measures the changes Consumer Price Index is
in the prices of goods sold and invariably linked with
traded in bulk by wholesale the direction of
businesses to other businesses. It movement of the
reflects the inflation in the Wholesale Price Index.
economy in general/ general level Which of the
of inflation or price level in the statements given above
economy. is/are correct?
• Another difference between the (a) 1 only
two indices is that the wholesale (b) 2 only
market is only for goods, you (c) Both 1 and 2
cannot buy services on a (d) Neither 1 nor 2
wholesale basis. So WPI does not Explanation:
include services, whereas the Wholesale Price Index
retail price index does. WPI, unlike (WPI) measures the
the Consumer Price Index (CPI), average change in the
only tracks the prices of goods prices of commodities
purchased by consumers. Hence for bulk sale at the level
statement 2 is correct of early stage of
• 697 goods are taken:-Primary transactions. The index
goods, Fuel and power and basket of the WPI
Manufacturing goods, the latter covers commodities
being given the maximum falling under the three
weightage (64.23%) major groups namely
• Wholesale prices are considered Primary Articles, Fuel
• Base year= 2012 and Power and
Based on the suggestions of the Manufactured products.
Urjit Patel committee, monetary The prices tracked are
policy (MP) in India is to be ex-factory price for
formulated in reference to the CPI manufactured products,
(instead of WPI) based inflation. mandi price for
(The suggestion was accepted in agricultural
2014 itself.) The reason is that: commodities and ex-
i) CPI shows the impact on the mines prices for
people- WPI indicates the minerals. Weights given
wholesale price, whereas CPI to each commodity
shows the retail price i.e. the price covered in the WPI
at which people make purchases basket is based on the
from retail market. WPI does not value of production
show the impact of inflation on adjusted for net
the people. Any policy shud imports. WPI basket
consider the impact on the people does not cover services.
ii) WPI does not account for the In India, WPI is also
price in services known as the headline
iii) It is an international best inflation rate. In India,
practice- most of the countries Office of Economic
have shifted to CPI Advisor (OEA),
Hence statement 3 is not correct. Department for
Promotion of Industry
and Internal Trade
(DPIIT), Ministry of
Commerce and Industry
calculates the WPI.
Hence statement 1 is
not correct.
While the direction of
the Consumer Price
Index is often in sync
with the direction of
WPI, there may be a
divergence as well. The
reasons for the
divergence between the
two indices can also be
partly attributed to the
difference in the weight
of the food group in the
two baskets. CPI Food
group has a weight of
39.1 per cent as
compared to the
combined weight of
24.4 per cent (Food
articles and
Manufactured Food
products) in WPI
basket. The CPI basket
consists of services like
housing, education,
medical care, recreation
etc. which are not part
of WPI basket. A
significant proportion of
WPI item basket
represents
manufacturing inputs
and intermediate goods
like minerals, basic
metals, machinery etc.
whose prices are
influenced by global
factors but these are
not directly consumed
by the households and
are not part of the CPI
item basket. Thus even
significant price
movements in items
included in WPI basket
need not necessarily
translate into
movements in CPI in the
short run. Hence
statement 2 is not
correct.
78 GEOGRAPHY Consider the following pairs: C Pair 1 is not correctly matched: D FA Standard EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
River Flows into Originating in the icy headwaters Reference TEST 2978
1. Mekong : Andaman Sea of the Tibetan highlands, the Atlas Consider the following
2. Thames : Irish Sea Mekong River flows through the countries:
3. Volga : Caspian Sea steep canyons of China, known as 1. China
4. Zambezi : Indian Ocean the upper basin, through lower 2. Myanmar
Which of the pairs given basin countries Myanmar, Laos, 3. Thailand
above is/are correctly Thailand, and Cambodia, before 4. Laos
matched? fanning across an expansive delta 5. Malaysia
(a) 1 and 2 only in Vietnam and emptying into the "River Mekong" passes
(b) 3 only South China Sea. through which of the
(c) 3 and 4 only Pair 2 is not correctly matched: given countries?
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only The River Thames is the longest (a) 4 and 5 only
river in England, flowing 215 miles (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
from the Cotswolds to the North (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Sea. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Pair 3 is correctly matched: The ALSO COVERED IN TEST
Volga is the longest river in 2966
Europe, and its catchment area is Consider the following
almost entirely inside Russia. It pairs:
belongs to the closed basin of the Inland Waterways
Caspian Sea, being the longest Continent located in
river to flow into a closed basin. 1. Rhine waterways
Pair 4 is correctly matched: The Europe
Zambezi is the fourth-longest river 2. Great Lakes-St.
in Africa, the longest east-flowing Lawrence seaway North
river in Africa and the largest America
flowing into the Indian Ocean 3. Volga waterway
from Africa. Australia
Which of the pairs given
above is/are correctly
matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
79 ECONOMICS Consider the following D Based on the recommendations of E FA Economic EM
statements: the Commission for Agricultural Survey 2017-
1. In the case of all cereals, Costs and Prices (CACP), the 18 and 2015-
pulses and oil-seeds, the Department of Agriculture and 16
procurement at Minimum Cooperation, Ministry Of https://www.i
Support Price (MSP) is Agriculture And Farmers' Welfare, ndiabudget.go
unlimited in any State/UT of declares Minimum Support Prices v.in/budget20
India. (MSP) for 22 mandated crops, and 19-
2. In the case of cereals and Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) 20/economics
pulses, the MSP is fixed in for Sugarcane. urvey/doc/vol
any State/UT at a level to [Cereals (7) - paddy, wheat, 2chapter/echa
which the market price will barley, jowar, bajra, maize and p07_vol2.pdf
never rise. ragi https://www.i
Which of the statements Pulses (5) - gram, arhar/tur, ndiabudget.go
given above is/are correct? moong, urad and lentil v.in/budget20
(a) 1 only Oilseeds (8) - groundnut, 16-
(b) 2 only rapeseed/mustard, toria, 2017/es2015-
(c) Both 1 and 2 soyabean, sunflower seed, 16/echapvol1-
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 sesamum, safflower seed and 04.pdf
nigerseed
Raw cotton, Raw jute, Copra].
The idea behind MSP is to give
guaranteed price and assured
market to the farmers and protect
them from the price fluctuations
and market imperfections.
CACP considers various factors
such as the cost of cultivation and
production, productivity of crops,
and market prices for the
determination of MSPs. MSP fixed
for each crop is uniform for the
entire country. However, there is
no instance of MSP being fixed in
any State/UT at a level to which
the market price will never rise.
Hence statement 2 is not correct.
While the government announces
MSP for 23 crops, effective MSP-
linked procurement occurs mainly
for wheat, rice and cotton. The
procurement is also limited to a
few states. Due to limitations on
the procurement side (both crop-
wise and state-wise) and even
after having an open-ended
procurement at MSP, all farmers
do not receive benefits of an
increase in MSP. Hence statement
1 is not correct.
80 ECONOMICS With reference to the Indian C 1. Commercial Paper (CP) is an M F https://m.rbi. RM ABHYAAS TEST 1, 3000
economy, consider the unsecured money market org.in/Scripts/ Treasury bills (T-bills)
following statements: instrument issued in the form of a FAQView.aspx are often referred to as
1. 'Commercial Paper' is a promissory note. It can be issued ?Id=25 Zero Coupon securities.
short-term unsecured for maturities between a Why?
promissory note. minimum of 7 days and a https://www.r (a) They have zero
2. 'Certificate of Deposit' is a maximum of up to one year from bi.org.in/Scrip default risk as they are
long-term instrument issued the date of issue (short-term). ts/BS_ViewMa issued by the
by the Reserve Bank of India Hence statement 1 is correct. sCirculardetail Government.
to a corporation. 2. Certificate of Deposit (CD) is a s.aspx?id=988 (b) They pay no interest
3. 'Call Money' is a short- negotiable money market 2#:~:text=Cert and are issued at a
term finance used for instrument and is issued in ificate%20of% discount.
interbank transactions. dematerialised form against funds 20Deposit%20 (c) Inflation has zero
4. 'Zero-Coupon Bonds are deposited at a bank or other (CD)%20is,for effect on T-bills as they
the interest bearing short- eligible financial institution for a %20a%20speci are indexed to inflation
term bond issued by the specified time period. Issued by fied%20time% rates.
Scheduled Commercial Banks the Federal Deposit Insurance 20period. (d) Returns on T-bills are
to corporations. Corporation (FDIC) and regulated paid regularly with
Which of the statements by the Reserve Bank of India, the https://www.r almost zero defaults
given above is/are correct? CD is a promissory note, the bi.org.in/Scrip before the maturity
(a) 1 and 2 only interest on which is paid by the ts/BS_ViewMa period.
(b) 4 only financial institution. Hence sCirculardetail
(c) 1 and 3 only statement 2 is incorrect. s.aspx?id=895 ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only 3. Call money rate is the rate at 8 TEST 2989
which short term funds are Which of the following
borrowed and lent in the money https://www.r statements is/are
market among banks on a day-to- bi.org.in/script correct regarding Call
day basis. Banks resort to this s/Notification money market?
type of loan to fill the asset User.aspx?Id= 1. Under the call money
liability mismatch, comply with 651&Mode=0 market, funds are
the statutory CRR and SLR transacted on an
requirements and to meet the overnight basis.
sudden demand of funds. Hence 2. RBI decides the
statement 3 is correct. interest rates in the call
4. Bonds are a type of debt money markets.
instrument. Zero Coupon Bonds Select the correct
are issued at a discount and answer using the code
redeemed at par. No interest given below.
payment is made on such bonds (a) 1 only
at periodic intervals before (b) 2 only
maturity. Hence statement 4 is (c) Both 1 and 2
incorrect. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
81 ECONOMICS With reference to Foreign B Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is E F https://www.r RM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
Direct Investment in India, the investment by a non-resident bi.org.in/script TEST 2984
which one of the following is entity/person resident outside s/FAQView.as Consider the following
considered its major India in the capital of an Indian px?Id=26 statements with respect
characteristic? company under Foreign Exchange to foreign investments
(a) It is the investment Management (Transfer or Issue of https://www.i in India:
through capital instruments Security by a Person Resident nvestopedia.c 1. FII increases capital
essentially in a listed Outside India) Regulations, 2017. om/terms/f/fd availability in general,
company. The investment is done through i.asp whereas FDI simply
(b) It is a largely non-debt capital instruments in (1) an targets specific
creating capital flow. unlisted Indian company; or (2) enterprises.
(c) It is the investment which 10% or more of the post issue 2. FII helps bring better
involves debt-servicing. paid-up equity capital on a fully management skills and
(d) It is the investment made diluted basis of a listed Indian technology, while FDI
by foreign institutional company. Hence, option a is only brings in the
investors in the Government incorrect. The investment can be capital.
Securities. made in equities or equity linked 3. As per Foreign
instruments or debt instruments Exchange Management
issued by the company. Thus, FDI Regulations, FDI is not
isn’t directly associated with allowed in startups.
government securities, and hence Which of the
option (d) is incorrect. statements given above
Generally, FDI takes place when is/are correct?
an investor establishes foreign (a) 1 only
business operations or acquires (b) 1 and 2 only
foreign business assets, including (c) 2 and 3 only
establishing ownership or (d) 1 and 3 only
controlling interest in a foreign
company (investments linked with
equities), transfer of technology.
This means they aren’t just
bringing money with them, but
also knowledge, skills and
technology. Debt servicing is the
regular repayment of interest and
principal on a debt for a particular
period. Thus, option c is incorrect.
A non-debt creating capital flow
is the one where there is no direct
repayment obligation for the
residents. FDI is largely a non-debt
creating capital flow, and
therefore option (b) is correct.
82 ECONOMICS With reference to the D 1. Merchandise trade deficit is the M FA Economic EM Economic Survey
international trade of India largest component of India’s Survey 2019- Summary 2020 Volume
at present, which of the current account deficit. As per 20 2 page 35 Chapter 3
following statements is/are RBI’s data, India’s Merchandise https://www.i External sector
correct? exports during April-August 2019- ndiabudget.go
1. India's merchandise 2020 was USD 133.14 billion, as v.in/economic
exports are less than its compared to USD 210.39 billion of survey/doc/vo
merchandise imports. imports during the same period. l2chapter/ech
2. India's imports of iron and Hence statement 1 is correct. ap03_vol2.pdf
steel, chemicals, fertilisers 2. Commodity-wise composition
and machinery have of imports between 2011-12 and
decreased in recent years. 2018-19 shows that imports of
3. India's exports of services iron and steel, organic chemicals,
are more than its imports of industrial machinery have
services. registered positive growth rates
4. India suffers from an as % of share in imports. Hence
overall trade/current statement 2 is incorrect.
account deficit. 3. India’s net services (service
Select the correct answer exports - service imports) has
using the code given below: been in surplus. India’s Service
(a) 1 and 2 only exports during April-August 2019-
(b) 2 and 4 only 2020 was USD 67.24 billion, as
(c) 3 only compared to USD 39.25 billion of
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only imports during the same period.
4. Current Account Deficit (CAD)
or trade deficit is the shortfall
between exports and imports. As
per Economic Survey 2019-20,
India’s CAD was 2.1% in 2018-19,
and 1.5% of GDP in H1 of 2019-20.
Therefore, the correct answer is
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only.
83 CURRENT The term 'West Texas A West Texas Intermediate (WTI) E CA https://www.i EN PT 365 Updated Material
AFFAIRS Intermediate', sometimes crude oil is a specific grade of nvestopedia.c (March-May 2020)
found in news, refers to a crude oil and one of the main om/terms/w/ Negative oil prices (3.3.2)
grade of three benchmarks in oil pricing, wti.asp ABHYAAS TEST 2 3001
(a) Crude oil along with Brent and Dubai Crude. The terms Western Texas
(b) Bullion WTI is known as a light sweet oil Intermediate (WTI) and
(c) Rare earth elements because it contains 0.24% sulfur Western Canada Select
(WCS) are frequently
(d) Uranium and has a low density, making it
mentioned in the news.
"light." Hence option (a) is the
They are:
correct answer.
(a) grades of crude oil.
(b) places of frequent
origin of temperate
cyclones.
(c) export standards of
meat.
(d) commercial fishing
grounds.
84 ECONOMICS In the context of the Indian D Non-financial debt consists of M F https://www.s RR
economy, non-financial debt credit instruments issued by apling.com/66
includes which of the governmental entities, 37532/nonfin
following? households and businesses that ancial-debt
1. Housing loans owed by are not included in the financial
households sector. (The financial sector
2. Amounts outstanding on comprises commercial banks,
credit cards insurance companies, non-
3. Treasury bills banking financial companies, co-
Select the correct answer operatives, pension funds, mutual
using the code given below: funds and other smaller financial
(a) 1 only entities). Non-financial debt
(b) 1 and 2 only includes household or commercial
(c) 3 only loans, Treasury bills and credit
(d) 1, 2 and 3 card balances. They share most of
the same characteristics with
financial debt, except the issuers
are non-financial. Hence correct
answer is option (d).
85 CURRENT In India, why are some B The nuclear reactors in India are E CAA https://www.i EN IAEA has always been
AFFAIRS nuclear reactors kept under placed under IAEA safeguards aea.org/newsc in the news both wrt
"IAEA Safeguards" while only if they are fuelled by enter/news/in Iran and India.
others are not? uranium procured from abroad. dia-
(a) Some use uranium and There are at present 22 safeguards-
others use thorium operational reactors, of which 14 agreement-
(b) Some use imported are under the International signed
uranium and others use Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
domestic supplies. safeguards as these use imported https://www.
(c) Some are operated by fuel. India currently imports business-
foreign enterprises and uranium from Russia, Kazakhstan standard.com/
others are operated by and Canada. Plans are also afoot article/pti-
domestic enterprises to procure the fuel from stories/new-
(d) Some are State-owned Uzbekistan and Australia. By reactors-
and others are privately- placing the reactors under the under-iaea-

owned IAEA safeguards, India gives the safeguards-
international nuclear energy decision-will-
watchdog access to them. This be-based-on-
step was taken by the country in source-of-
2014 to demonstrate that its uranium-says-
nuclear energy programme was official-
for peaceful purposes. It was a 11902100050
necessary step under the Indo-US 0_1.html
nuclear deal. Hence option (b) is
the correct answer.
86 ECONOMICS With reference to Trade- C Under the Agreement on Trade- E F https://www. RM TRIMS often seen in
Related Investment Related Investment Measures of wto.org/englis the news
Measures (TRIMS), which of the World Trade Organization h/tratop_e/in
the following statements (WTO), (TRIMs Agreement), WTO vest_e/trims_
is/are correct? members have agreed not to e.htm
1. Quantitative restrictions apply certain investment
on imports by foreign measures related to trade in
investors are prohibited. goods that restrict or distort
2. They apply to investment trade. (TRIMs Agreement is a
measures related to trade in multilateral agreement on trade
both goods and services. in goods, and not services). Hence
3. They are not concerned statement 2 is not correct.
with the regulation of The TRIMs Agreement prohibits
foreign investment. certain measures that violate the
Select the correct answer national treatment (Article III) and
using the code given below: quantitative restrictions
(a) 1 and 2 only requirements (Article XI) of the
(b) 2 only General Agreement on Tariffs and
(c) 1 and 3 only Trade (GATT) 1994. The list of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 TRIMs agreed to be inconsistent
with these articles includes
measures which require:
- particular levels of local
procurement by an enterprise
(“local content requirements”),
- restrict the volume or value of
imports such an enterprise can
purchase,
- use to an amount related to the
level of products it exports (“trade
balancing requirements”).
TRIMs Agreement stipulates that
certain measures adopted by
Governments to regulate FDI can
cause trade-restrictive and
distorting effects. However, the
agreement is only concerned with
the trade effects of investment
measures. It is not intended to
deal with the regulation of
investment as such and does not
impact directly on WTO members’
ability to regulate and place
conditions upon the entry and
establishment of foreign
investment. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
87 ECONOMICS If the RBI decides to adopt an B Expansionist/expansionary E F NCERT Class EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
expansionist monetary monetary policy is when the XII: TEST 2989
policy, which of the following central bank of a country Introductory Which of the following
would it not do? increases money supply to Macroeconom could increase the
1. Cut and optimise the stimulate the economy. ics (Money money supply in the
Statutory Liquidity Ratio The tools used by the RBI to and Banking) economy?
2. Increase the Marginal control money supply in the 1. Waving off the cash
Standing Facility Rate economy can be quantitative or reserve ratio (CRR)
3. Cut the Bank Rate and qualitative. Quantitative tools requirement on housing
Repo Rate control the extent of money and MSME loans.
Select the correct answer supply by changing the Cash 2. RBI performing long-
using the code given below: Reserve Ratio (CRR), or Statutory term repo operations
(a) 1 and 2 only Liquidity Ratio (SLR), or bank rate (LTRO).
(b) 2 only or Liquidity Adjustment Facility 3. RBI issuing securities
(c) 1 and 3 only (LAF) that includes Marginal under Market
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Standing Facility (MSF). Stabilization Scheme
If RBI changes reserve ratios, this (MSS).
would lead to changes in lending Select the correct
by the banks which, in turn, would answer using the code
impact the deposits and hence, given below.
the money supply. (a) 1 only
1. SLR is the ratio of liquid assets (b) 1 and 2 only
to the demand and time liabilities (c) 2 and 3 only
(NDTL). RBI increases SLR to (d) 1, 2 and 3
reduce bank credit during the
time of inflation. Similarly, it
reduces SLR during the time of
recession to increase bank credit.
Therefore, cutting and optimising
SLR is something the RBI would
do under its expansionist
monetary policy.
2. MSF is an emergency window
available to scheduled banks to
borrow from RBI on an overnight
basis by pledging government
securities. Increase the MSF rate
of interest will make borrowing
costly, and thus is something that
the RBI would not do as part of its
expansionist monetary policy.
3. The rate of interest charged by
RBI on loans extended to
commercial banks is called Bank
Rate. Repo rate is the rate at
which the RBI lends to commercial
banks by purchasing securities.
Lower bank rates and repo rates
would reduce the cost of
borrowing, and thus will increase
liquidity in the economy. Cutting
bank rate and repo rate is
something the RBI would do
under its expansionist monetary
policy.
Therefore, correct option is (b) 2
only

88 ECONOMICS With reference to the Indian B In NITI Aayog’s paper “Changing D CAA NITI Aayog’s RR
economy after the 1991 Structure of Rural Economy of India paper “
economic liberalization, Implications for Employment and Changing
consider the following Growth 2017”, following Structure of
statements: observations were made: Rural
1. Worker productivity (rs. 1. The absolute level of income per Economy of
per worker at 2004-05 worker i.e. worker productivity has India
prices) increased in urban increased for both rural and urban Implications
areas. For rural areas it was Rs.
areas while it decreased in for
37273 in 2004-05 and Rs. 101755 in
rural areas. Employment
2011-12, while for urban areas it
2. The percentage share of and Growth
was Rs. 120419 in 2004-05 and Rs.
rural areas in the workforce 282515 in 2011-12. Hence 2017
steadily increased. statement 1 is incorrect.
3. In rural areas, the growth 2. As per 2011 Census, 68.8% of https://niti.go
in non-farm economy India’s population and 72.4% of v.in/writeread
increased. workforce resided in rural areas. data/files/doc
4. The growth rate in rural However, steady transition to ument_public
employment decreased urbanization over the years has led ation/Rural_E
Which of the statements to a decline in the rural share in the conomy_DP_fi
given above is/are correct? workforce, from 77.8% in 1993-94 nal.pdf
(a) 1 and 2 only to 70.9% in 2011-12. Hence
(b) 3 and 4 only statement 2 is incorrect.
(c) 3 only 3. About two third of rural income is
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only now generated in non-agricultural
activities. Non-farm economy has
increased in rural areas. The share
of agriculture in rural economy has
decreased from 57% in 1993-94 to
39% in 2011-12. Hence statement 3
is correct.
4. After 2004-05, the rural areas
have witnessed negative growth in
employment inspite of high growth
in output. The growth rate of rural
employment was 1.45% during
1994-2005, which fell to -0.28%
between 2005-12. Hence statement
4 is correct.

89 ECONOMICS Consider the following B District Central Co-operative M FA https://www.r RM
statements: Banks (DCCBs) are a type of rural bi.org.in/script
1. In terms of short-term co-operatives, along with State s/Publications
credit delivery to the Co-operative Banks (StCBs) and View.aspx?Id=
agriculture sector, District Primary Agricultural Credit 19366
Central Cooperative Banks Societies (PACS). Short-term co-
(DCCBs) deliver more credit operatives are arranged in a
in comparison to Scheduled three-tier structure in most of the
Commercial Banks and states, with StCBs at the apex
Regional Rural Banks. level, DCCBs at the intermediate
2. One of the most important level and PACS at the grassroots
functions of DCCBs is to level.
provide funds to the Primary 1. Although the focus of rural
Agriculture Credit Societies. cooperative lending is agriculture,
Which of the statements the share in credit flow to
given above is/are correct? agriculture of rural cooperatives is
(a) 1 only only 12.1%, as compared to 76%
(b) 2 only of Scheduled Commercial Banks
(c) Both 1 and 2 (SCBs), and 11.9% of Regional
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Rural Banks. Hence statement 1 is
incorrect.
2. DCCBs mobilise deposits from
the public and provide credit to
the public and PACS. Hence
90 CURRENT In India, under cyber B Cyber Insurance is designed to D CA https://www.t RR Indian banks and
AFFAIRS insurance for individuals, guard businesses from the hehindubusine financial services
which of the following potential effects of cyber-attacks. ssline.com/por companies are
benefits are generally It helps an organisation mitigate tfolio/personal boosting their cyber
covered, in addition to risk exposure by ofsetting costs, -finance/cyber- insurance cover as
payment for the funds and after a cyber-attack/breach has insurance- businesses have
other benefits? happened. To simplify, cyber what-are-the- become increasingly
1. Cost of restoration of the Insurance is designed to cover the options/article reliant on digital
31386501.ece
computer system in case of fees, expenses and legal costs technologies. The
https://www.t
malware disrupting access to associated with cyber breaches Covid-19 crisis, has
hehindubusine
one's computer that occur after an organisation forced companies to
ssline.com/mo
2. Cost of a new computer if has been hacked or from theft or ney-and- work from home, has
some miscreant wilfully loss of client/employee banking/dema increased the already
damages it, if proved so information. In India, cyber nd-for-cyber- elevated risk of cyber
3. Cost of hiring a specialized insurance covers (generally) the security- attacks. Two large
consultant to minimize the following: insurance-set- Indian banks recently
loss in case of cyber Identity theft to- disclosed that they
extortion. Cyber-bullying and cyber-stalking rise/article313 have cyber insurance
4. Cost of defence in the Cyber extortion 47877.ece cover of $100 million
Court of Law if any third Malware intrusion https://www.d or nearly Rs 750
party files a suit Financial loss due to unauthorized sci.in/ucch/res crore.
Select the correct answer and fraudulent use of bank ource/downloa
using the code given below: account, credit card and mobile d-
attachment/13
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only wallets
/Cyber%20Insu
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only Legal expenses arising out of any
rance%20in%2
(c) 2 and 3 only covered risk
0India
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Social Media Cover https://www.c
Phishing Cover oalitioninc.com
E-mail Spoofing /blog/10-costs-
Media Liability Claims Cover your-cyber-
Cyber Extortion Cover insurance-
Privacy Breach and Data Breach policy-may-
by Third Party. Hence only not-cover-
options 1, 3 and 4 are correct. unless-its-with-
coalition
91 ART & With reference to the B The word Parivrajaka means D F History of RR
CULTURE cultural history of India, "roaming ascetic". A wandering Early India:
consider the following pairs: religious mendicant. Although From the
1. Parivrajaka Renunciant this term occurs in the early Origins to AD
and Wanderer Brahmanic tradition of the 1300-Romila
2. Shramana : Priest with a Upaniṣads, it is also applicable to Thapar,Page.
high status Buddhist and Jain monks, as well no.
3. Upasaka : Lay follower of as to Hindu saṃnyāsins. The Pāli 62,172,294.
Buddhism equivalent is paribbājaka.
Which of the pairs given Vedic Brahmanism - drawing its
above are correctly identity from the Vedic corpus -
matched? was a religious form associated
(a) 1 and 2 only with socially dominant groups,
(b) 1 and 3 only supporting practices and beliefs
(c) 2 and 3 only that could be seen as an
(d) 1, 2 and 3 orthodoxy, there have been
movements that have distanced
themselves in various ways from
Vedic Brahmanism. The Shramana
group - Buddhism, Jainism and
various 'heterodox' sects - is one
such well-established group.
shramanas did not regard the
brahmans as being of the highest
status. The shramanas included a
variety of ascetics, as well as the
monks and lay followers of
various sects - Buddhist, Jaina,
Ajivika and others.
Monks renounced social
obligations to take on an
alternative life when they joined
the Order. They lived as equal
members of the Order, denying
caste distinctions. But they lived
in monasteries near villages and
towns so that they could draw on
the support of the lay community,
namely, those who were
Buddhists or Jainas but were not
initiated into renunciatory groups.
Lay followers were referred to as
upasaka and upasika.
92 ENVIRONME With reference to Indian A Statement 1 is correct: The Indian D U https://www. RR A tragic case of a
NT elephants, consider the elephant is one of three extant elephantvoice young pregnant
following statements: recognised subspecies of the s.org/elephant elephant in Kerala
1. The leader of an elephant Asian elephant and native to -sense-a- who had eaten a fruit
group is a female. mainland Asia. The oldest female sociality- with firecrackers
2. The maximum gestation in an elephant herd is always the 4/elephants- inside was reported
period can be 22 months. leader. are-long- entensively in the
3. An elephant can normally Statement 2 is correct: Elephants lived.html news.
go on calving till the age of have the longest gestation period of
40 years only. all mammals. The average gestation https://www.
4. Among the States in India, period of an elephant is about 640 ncbi.nlm.nih.g
the highest elephant to 660 days, or roughly 95 weeks. ov/pmc/articl
population is in Kerala. Statement 3 is not correct: Female es/PMC41440
Which of the statements elephants live for 60 to 70 years, 32/#:~:text=lo
given above is/are correct? but only have about four offspring ng%2Dlived%2
throughout their lifetime. Fertility
(a) 1 and 2 only 0species.-
decreases after age 50 in elephants,
(b) 2 and 4 only ,Results,the%2
(c) 3 only but the pattern differed from a total 0age%20of%2
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only loss of fertility in menopausal 065%20years.
women with many elephants
continuing to reproduce at least
until the age of 65 years. Therefore
it is not till the age of 40 years only.
Statement 4 is not correct: South
India had the highest number of
wild elephants - 14,612. Among the
south Indian states, Karnataka leads
the table with 6,049 elephants
followed by Kerala.
93 GEOGRAPHY Which of the following C Option 1 is correct: Nagarhole M CAA Standard RM OPEN TEST 2999 Papikonda National
Protected Areas are located National Park, also known as Rajiv Reference " The Park lies in the Park was in the news.
in Cauvery basin? Gandhi National Park, is a wildlife Atlas River Godavari basin.
1. Nagarhole National park reserve in the South Indian state The floral variety of the
2. Papikonda National Park of Karnataka. Nagarhole National https://www. Park is mainly Eastern
3. Sathyamagalam Tiger Park is in the Cauvery Basin. newindianexp Ghats vegetation. The
Reserve Option 2 is not correct: ress.com/stat area consists of dry
4. Wayanand Wildlife Papikonda National Park is located es/andhra- deciduous tropical
Sanctuary near Rajamahendravaram in the pradesh/2019 forests. It is recognized
Select the correct answer Papi Hills in East Godavari and /dec/25/129- as an Important Bird
using the code given below: West Godavari districts of Andhra species-of- and Biodiversity Area by
(a) 1 and 2 only Pradesh, and covers an area of butterfly- BirdLife International.
(b) 3 and 4 only 1,012.86 km2 (391.07 sq mi). It is recorded-in- The Polavaram irrigation
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only an Important Bird and Biodiversity papikonda- project once completed
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Area and home to some national-park- will submerge parts of
endangered species of flora and 2080722.html the national park."
fauna. River Godavari flows Which of the following
through Papikonda National Park. National parks is
Option 3 is correct: described in the above
Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is passage?
a protected area and tiger reserve (a) Papikonda National
in the Eastern Ghats in the Erode Park
District of the Indian state of (b) Sri Venkateswara
Tamil Nadu. It is located at the National Park
confluence of two distinct (c) Mrugavani National
geographical regions of bio Park
diversity landscape; Western Ghat (d) Indravati National
and Eastern Ghat. Park
Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve,
the Gateway to Eastern Ghats, is a
significant ecosystem and a
wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri
Biosphere Reserve between the
Western Ghats and the rest of the
Eastern Ghats and a genetic link
between the five other protected
areas which it adjoins, including
the Billigiriranga Swamy Temple
Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau,
Mudumalai National Park,
Bandipur National Park and the
Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary.
Option 4 is correct: The Wayanad
Wildlife Sanctuary is an animal
sanctuary in Wayanad, Kerala,
India. Kabini river (a tributary of
Cauvery river) flows through the
sanctuary.
94 ENVIRONME With reference to India's A The Sri Lanka frogmouth, Sri Lankan E F https://www.t RM State of India's Bird
NT biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth or Ceylon frogmouth is a hehindu.com/l 2020 was released in
frogmouth, Coppersmith small frogmouth (The frogmouths ife-and- this year.
barbet, Gray-chinned minivet are a group of nocturnal birds) style/coimbat
and White-throated redstart found in the Western Ghats of ores-
are south India and Sri Lanka. mohammed-
(a) Birds The coppersmith barbet, also called saleem-and-
(b) Primates crimson-breasted barbet and team-spot-
coppersmith, is an Asian barbet
(c) Reptiles some-rare-
with crimson forehead and throat,
(d) Amphibians birds-on-their-
known for its metronomic call that
great-indian-
sounds similar to a coppersmith
striking metal with a hammer. It is a bird-
resident bird in the Indian expedition-
subcontinent and parts of Southeast across-south-
Asia. india/article30
The grey-chinned minivet is a 387704.ece
species of bird in the family
Campephagidae. It is found from
the Himalayas to China, Taiwan and
Southeast Asia.
The white-throated redstart is a

species of bird in the family
Muscicapidae. It is found in Nepal,
Bhutan, central China and far
northern areas of Myanmar and
Northeast India. Its natural habitat
is temperate forests. Hence option
(a) is the correct answer.
95 ENVIRONME Which one of the following A Barasingha also known as swamp M CAA https://www.do EM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: It was recently seen
NT protected areas is well- deer is one of the largest species of wntoearth.org.i Test 2991 in the news.
known for the conservation deer found in India, known for its n/news/wildlife If you want to see
distinctive character of twelve tined -
of a sub-species of the Indian Barasingha (swamp
stags. Today, Swamp deer or biodiversity/nea
swamp deer (Barasingha) deer) in their natural
Barasingha only found in the Kanha r-extinct-hard-
that thrives well on hard ground-swamp- habitat, which one of
ground and is exclusively National Park of Madhya Pradesh, the following is the best
deer-see-
Kaziranga and Manas National Parks
graminivorous? revival-in- national park to visit?
of Assam and large population in
(a) Kanha National Park kanha-69603 (a) Gir National Park
Dudhwa National Park of Uttar
(b) Manas National Park (b) Pin Valley National
Pradesh.
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Park
Kanha Tiger Reserve has a
Sanctuary significant population of Bengal (c) Keibul Lamjao
(d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife tiger, Indian wild dog and National Park
Sanctuary barasingha deer in India. The park is (d) Kanha National Park
the reintroduction site of
barasingha and first tiger reserve in
India to introduce Barasingha as
officially mascot.
There are three subspecies of
swamp deer found in the Indian
Subcontinent. The western swamp
deer (Rucervus duvaucelii) found in
Nepal, southern swamp deer
(Rucervus duvaucelii branderi)
found in central and north India and
eastern swamp deer (Rucervus
duvaucelii ranjitsinhi) found in the
Kaziranga and Dudhwa National
Parks. The southern swamp deer
has hard hooves and is adapted to
hard ground. The other two
subspecies are adapted to swampy
areas. Hence the correct answer is
option (a).

96 ENVIRONME Steel slag can be the material D Option 1 is correct: Steel slag, a by- D CAA https://www.f RR Applications of steel
NT for which of the following? product of steel making, is inancialexpres slag were often seen
1. Construction of base road produced during the separation of s.com/industr in the news.
2. Improvement of the molten steel from impurities in y/nitin-
agricultural soil steel-making furnaces. One of the gadkari-
3. Production of cement ingredients of asphalt is steel slag, a warns-
Select the correct answer by-product of the steel and iron cement-
using the code given below: production processes. Asphalt roads companies-
are made of a mixture of
(a) 1 and 2 only asks-
aggregates, binders and fillers. The
(b) 2 and 3 only construction-
aggregates are typically iron and/or
(c) 1 and 3 only firms-to-cut-
steel slag, sand, gravel or crushed
(d) 1, 2 and 3 rock, and they are bound together costs-but-not-
with asphalt itself, which is a quality/20799
bitumen. 19/
Option 2 is correct: Steel slags can
be used in several activities, such as
construction and paving, and also in https://www.f
the agricultural sector due to its inancialexpres
ability to correct soil acidity, as it s.com/market
contains some nutrients for the /commodities
plants and also as silicate fertilizer /steel-slag-
that is capable of providing silicon may-now-be-
to the plants. used-as-
Option 3 is correct: Steel slag, fertiliser-for-
another waste from Iron & Steel soil/1115559/
Industry, has shown potential for
use as a raw mix component up to
10% in the manufacture of cement
clinker. Steel slag can also replace
granulated blast furnace slag up to
10% in the manufacture of Portland
Slag Cement. Steel slag has been
used successfully to treat acidic
water discharges from abandoned
mines.
97 ENVIRONME Which of the following are A Musk deer is a small compact deer M FCA https://forest. EM
NT the most likely places to find belonging to the family Cervidae. A uk.gov.in/pag
the musk deer in its natural solitary shy animal, the musk deer es/view/160-
habitat? lives in mountainous regions from gangotri-
1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary Siberia to the Himalayas. national-park
2. Gangotri National Park Askot Musk Deer Sanctuary is

3. Kishanpur Wildlife located 54 km from Pithoragarh
Sanctuary near the town of Askot in
4. Manas National Park Uttarakhand. As the name suggests,
Select the correct answer the sanctuary has been set up
using the code given below: primarily for the conservation of
(a) 1 and 2 only musk deer and its natural habitat.
(b) 2 and 3 only Gangotri National Park is a national
(c) 3 and 4 only park in Uttarkashi District of
Uttarakhand in India. Various rare
(d) 1 and 4 only
and endangered species like bharal
or blue sheep, black bear, brown
bear, Himalayan Monal, Himalayan
Snowcock, Himalayan Thar, musk
deer and Snow leopard are found in
the park.
The Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary is
a part of the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve
near Mailani in Uttar Pradesh, India.
It covers an area of 227 km2 (88 sq
mi) and was founded in 1972. The
tiger, chital, hog deer, wild boars,
otters, and many more animals find
themselves a home here.
Manas National Park or Manas
Wildlife Sanctuary is a national
park, UNESCO Natural World
Heritage site, a Project Tiger
reserve, an elephant reserve and a
biosphere reserve in Assam, India.
Located in the Himalayan foothills,
it is contiguous with the Royal
Manas National Park in Bhutan.
98 ENVIRONME In rural road construction, A The use of waste materials in the D CAA https://pib.go RR PT 365 2020 Govt
NT the use of which of the road construction industry is v.in/PressRele Schemes page number
following is preferred for gradually gaining significance in seDetail.aspx? 130 "38.2. PRADHAN
ensuring environmental India, considering disposal and PRID=1558920 MANTRI GRAM SADAK
sustainability or to reduce environmental problems and the YOJANA"
carbon footprint? gradual depletion of natural https://www.t
1. Copper slag resources. Byproducts, such as hehindu.com/
2. Cold mix asphalt biomass ash, coal ash, red mud news/national
technology and copper slag, generated in /tamil-
3. Geotextiles large volumes, could have nadu/research
4. Hot mix asphalt applications in the construction of ers-
technology roads, buildings and bridges. collaborate-
5. Portland cement Option 1 is correct: The use of to-use-
Select the correct answer copper slag in cement and industrial-agri-
using the code given below: concrete provides potential byproducts/ar
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only environmental as well as ticle32748554
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only economic benefits for all related .ece
(c) 4 and 5 only industries, particularly in areas
(d) 1 and 5 only where a considerable amount of https://www.
copper slag is produced. nbmcw.com/t
Option 2 is correct and Option 4 ech-
is not correct: Cold asphalt mix is articles/roads-
produced by mixing unheated and-
mineral aggregate with either pavements/36
emulsified bitumen or foamed 143-cold-
bitumen. Unlike hot mix asphalt asphalt-mixes-
(HMA), cold asphalt mix does not for-indian-
require any heating of aggregate highways-
which makes it economical and environment-
relatively pollution-free (no friendly-
objectionable fumes or odours). technology.ht
Production of cold asphalt mix ml#:~:text=Un
does not require high investment like%20hot%2
in equipment, which makes it 0mix%20asph
economical. It is also suitable for alt%20(HMA,e
use in remote areas. Cold asphalt quipment%2C
mixes can be used both for initial %20which%20
construction (100% virgin mixes) makes%20it%
and for recycling of asphalt 20economical.
pavements.
Option 3 is correct: Geotextiles are https://link.sp
mostly used in road construction, ringer.com/art
especially to fill gaps between the icle/10.1007/s
roads to improve soil structure. 10163-014-
Geotextile makes poor soil more 0254-x
beneficial for use and then easy to
build in difficult places also. It helps
to prevent the erosion of soil but
allows the water to drain off.
Option 5 is not correct: roducing
the portland cement that binds
concrete together is energy
intensive and emits enormous
amounts of carbon dioxide (CO 2) as
well as numerous other pollutants.
99 ENVIRONME Consider the following D Statement 1 is correct: Coal itself E FCA https://econo EM PT Environment 2020 The environment
NT statements: isn't a particularly toxic material. mictimes.india page number 19 "2.1.7. ministry had recently
1. Coal ash contains arsenic, But after it's burned, what times.com/ind SCIENTIFIC DISPOSAL decided that it will no
lead and mercury. remains in the ash includes lead, ustry/energy/ AND UTILIZATION OF longer regulate the
2. Coal-fired power plants mercury, cadmium, chromium, power/therma FLY ASH" ash-content of coal
release sulphur dioxide and arsenic, and selenium, all in levels l-power- ALSO COVERED IN ALL used by thermal
oxides of nitrogen into the that may threaten human health. plants- INDIA TEST SERIES: power plants.
environment. Statement 2 is correct: Thermal allowed-to- TESTS 3223/3330
3. High ash content is power plants produce large use-coal-with- Consider the following
observed in Indian coal. amounts of nitrogen oxides and high-ash- statements:
Which of the statements sulfur dioxide—the pollutants that content/articl 1. Emissions from
given above is/are correct? cause acid rain—when they burn eshow/76004 thermal power plants
(a) 1 only fossil fuels, especially coal, to 154.cms?from and industries are the
(b) 2 and 3 only produce energy. =mdr single largest source of
(c) 3 only Statement 3 is correct: India's Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
(d) 1, 2 and 3 domestic coal reserves have a emissions in India.
high ash content—up to 40 to 45 2. Flue Gas
percent. Desulfurization (FGD)
system is used to reduce
SO2 emissions from
thermal power plants.
Which of the
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ALSO COVERED IN
OPEN TEST 3002
Consider the following
statements:
1. Fly-ash is recovered
as a by-product from
burning of coal in
thermal power plants.

2. In order to reduce the
ash content, washing of
coal supplied to thermal
power plants has been
made mandatory in
India.
Which of the
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
100 ENVIRONME What is the use of biochar in D Statement 1 is correct: As the use D FCA https://www. RR ALL INDIA TEST SERIES: Articles related to
NT farming? of soilless, hydroponic growing dpi.nsw.gov.a TEST 3222 applications of
1. Biochar can be used as a methods becomes more prevalent u/content/arc Consider the following Biochar are
part of the growing medium among crop producers, hive/agricultur statements with respect frequently seen in
in vertical farming. researchers are looking for new e-today- to biochar: the news.
2. When biochar is a part of materials that can help growers stories/ag- 1. It is a carbon-rich
the growing medium, it save money, produce healthy today- porous solid produced by
promotes the growth of plants, and contribute to archives/june- the pyrolysis process.
2. It can sequester carbon
nitrogen-fixing sustainable practices. biochar, a 2010/biochar-
in a stable form
microorganisms. charcoal-like material produced boosts-
preventing CO2 from
3. When biochar is a part of by heating biomass in the absence nitrogen-
organic matter from
the growing medium, it of oxygen, can help "close the fixation--- leaking into the
enables the growing medium loop" when used as a substrate study atmosphere.
to retain water for longer for soilless, hydroponic tomato Which of the
time. production. "This method could statements given above
Which of the statements provide growers with a cost- is/are correct?
given above is/are correct? effective and environmentally (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only responsible green-waste disposal (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only method, and supplement (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only substrate, fertilizer, and energy (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 requirements. EXPLANATION:
Statement 2 is correct: Biochar A research team from IIT
has the potential to boost the Kharagpur has adapted a
natural ability of legumes to fix process called Hydro
nitrogen to the soil. Adding Thermal Carbonization
biochar to soil not only provides a (HTC) for the Indian
way to sequester carbon, but also conditions which can

has many soil health benefits effectively manage mixed
which will help farmers adapt to Municipal Solid Waste
climate change and increase (MSW) with high
productivity. In addition to moisture content.
supporting the life of nitrogen- Through the process
fixing microorganisms, biochar most of the mixed MSW
can also decrease soil N2O can be converted into
emission, and increase nitrogen biofuel, soil amendment
and absorbents.
use efficiency and nitrogen
Hydrothermal
retention in the soil
Carbonization (HTC) is a
Statement 3 is correct: Because of
chemical process for the
its porous nature, biochar can conversion of organic
improve your soil's water compounds to structured
retention and water holding carbons. It can be used to
capacity – defined as the amount make a wide variety of
of water that a soil can hold for its nanostructured carbons,
crops – so that your plants will simple production of
have more water available to brown coal substitute,
them for a longer period of time. synthesis gas, liquid
petroleum precursors
and humus from biomass
with release of energy.
The current waste
burning processes
adopted from the
developed nations are
primarily focused on
treating drier waste
content. These processes
require high energy input
to combust municipal
solid waste generated in
India which has high
moisture content due to
tropical weather, open
collection systems and
mixed waste.
The Hydrothermal
Carbonization (HTC)
process allows the
treatment of wet biomass

without the need for a
drying pretreatment,
which is necessary for
traditional thermochemical
processes (combustion, air
gasification, pyrolysis). The
process novelty lies in the
use of water for the
reaction thus the moisture
in the MSW gets used
during the recycling
process without requiring
any removal of moisture
from segregated wet waste
or high energy intake.
Once the organic waste is
entered into the process,
the output generated are
all usable including the
water which can either
be reused in the process
or can be converted to
biogas or methane
through anaerobic
digestion.
The biofuel (biochar)
generated as the
recovered output is
comparable to lignite coal
thus significantly
addressing the fossil fuel
depletion issue and
helping curb air pollution
issues. The product can
further be used as an
absorbent to manage soil
contamination. This could
significantly help
brownfield sites or
contaminated industrial
sites or landfills.

TOPIC
Topic No. of Questions
Polity & Governance 18
Environment 18
Geography 8
General Science & S&T 12
Economy 18
Ancient India 4
Medieval India 2
Art & Culture 4
Modern India 9
Current Affairs 7

DIFFICULTY
Difficulty Number of Questions
Difficult - D 36
Medium - M 32
Easy - E 32
NATURE
Nature Number of Questions
FCA – Fundamental and Current Affair 7
F – Fundamental 47
CA – Current Affair 11
CAA – Current Affair Applied 20
FA – Fundamental Applied 12
U - Unconventional 3

SOURCE TYPE
Source Type Number of Questions
EN 24
RR 24
RM 16
EM 34
Grand Total 100

SECTIONWISE DIFFICULTY
TOPIC DIFFICULT MEDIUM EASY
Modern India 4 3 2
Medieval India 1 1 0
Art and Culture 3 1 0
Ancient India 3 1 0
Current Affairs 2 0 5
Geography 4 2 2
Economy 4 7 7
Environment 4 11 3
General Science 7 4 1
and Science and
Technology
Polity & 4 2 12
Governance
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Nature of Question EM = Essential material like basic books etc.

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For example, the keyword

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Topic No. of Questions

Polity & Governance 18

General Science & S&T 12

Art & Culture 4

139 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Nature Number of Questions

FCA – Fundamental and Current Affair 7

CAA – Current Affair Applied 20

140 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Source Type Number of Questions

Grand Total 100

141 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

TOPIC DIFFICULT MEDIUM EASY

Art and Culture 3 1 0

Copyright © by Vision IAS

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