Orthognathic and Reconstructive Surgery

1. A patient with class II div I malocclusion is

operated for genioplasty his anterior teeth after

the operation would be:

A. In edge to edge bite

B. Without any change

C. Having normal overjet of 2 mm

D. Having no overbite

2. Jumping genioplasty is a term which connotes:

A. Movement of chin posteriorly

B. Double step genioplasty

C. Single step advancement

D. Advancement after set back of mandibular

body

3. In a patient with class III facial profile one

would think of which type of genioplasty (G)?

A. Reduction G

B. Advancement G

C. Straightening G

D. Rotational G

4. Sagittal split osteotomy is a procedure carried

out for:

A. Mandibular deformities

B. Maxillary deformities

C. Deformities in which occlusion is not involved

D. Condylar repositioning

5. Sagittal split osteotomy was first advocated by:

A. Obwegesser

B. Dal pont
C. Wundrer

D. Moose

6. A patient reported with class III skeletal deformity

the ideal choice would be:

A. Inverted L osteotomy

B. Segmental osteotomy

C. Reverse sagittal split osteotomy

D. Sagittal split osteotomy

7. The basic advantage of sagittal split osteotomy

is/are:

A. It is carried out intraorally as well as extraorally

B. No bone grafting is required when defect is

less than 8 mm

C. There are no chances of paraesthesia

D. All of the above

8. Apertognathia is a condition in which there is:

A. Retrogenia

B. Maxillary hypoplasia

C. Open bite deformity

D. Maxillary and mandibular prognathism only

9. During genioplasty there are chances of injuring:

A. Inferior alveolar nerve

B. Marginal mandibular nerve

C. Mental nerve

D. Lingual nerve

10. Wassmund and Wunderer procedures are:

A. Mandibular segmental osteotomies

B. Maxillary segmental osteotomies

C. Maxillary subapical osteotomies

D. Multiple subapical osteotomy procedures ot

maxilla and mandible respectively