NIFT

SAMPLE PAPER
 BACHELOR OF DESIGN (B.DES)

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR GAT

Note: These questions are illustrative. The pattern, scope, arrangement,

variety, difficulty level, etc in the actual question paper may vary.
Directions (Questions 1-2): Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined
word in the sentence.
1. Don't take hasty decisions.
(1) tardy (2) quick (3) prompt (4) dull-witted

2. The Police prevents crime.

(1) obstructs (2) restricts (3) interrupts (4) stops

Directions (Questions 3-4): Choose the word which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the
underlined word in the sentence.
3. Honesty attracts me the most.
(1) affects (2) withstand (3) repels (4) entice

4. The principal rejected the application.

(1) allowed (2) reviewed (3) accepted (4) refused

Directions (Question 5): Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the underlined
idiom/phrase in the sentence.
5. Peter was put in cold storage in the party.
(1) punished (2) ignored (3) jail (4) attended

Directions (Questions 6-10): Study the passages below and answer the questions that follow each
passage.
Passage-I
Arrogance backed by ignorance and false pride can lead to avoidable complications and unpleasant
situations in life. Unfortunately the collective Indian psychology is not to readily accept our
shortcomings but rather to counter-attack when these are mentioned. We, therefore, easily take
offence at any criticism whether it is from our own people or from outsiders, regardless of whether it
is constructive or otherwise. There is no doubt that we have inherited a unique culture and many
things about our country are outstanding. But how long shall we continue to delude ourselves and do

Sample-BD 1
nothing to change and improve? This excessively defensive attitude is counterproductive and
equivalent to self deception. Sixty seven years as a free and democratic country should be enough
time to develop a mature response to criticism.

6. According to the paragraph, when it comes to criticism, most Indians are

(1) thick skinned. (2) thin skinned.
(3) not much bothered about it. (4) ignorant about it.

7. As per the paragraph, Indian culture is

(1) not worth remembering and cherishing. (2) nothing to be proud of.
(3) peculiar and excellent. (4) None of these

8. Our attitude to reject all kinds of criticism is

(1) needed for the country in the long run. (2) not at all desirable.
(3) a positive induration for the nation. (4) something we should feel great about.

Passage-II
Nobody has done a great favour by bringing to the fore, the issue of inequality. It is indeed sad that
the leaders who are talking of inclusive growth are yet to bring out an accurate estimate of inequality
by putting together information on income distribution. But what is of greater concern is that instead
of improving people's ability to earn more income, governments at the Centre and states give more
priority to stop-gap solutions like reservation and subsidies. The best way to reduce inequalities is not
by raising taxes which hurt investments but by improving people's access to quality health and
education. However, political parties ignore this and focus on divisive issues that favour particular
segments or pitch one section of people against another. It is high time political parties focused more
on raising people's income rather than doling out subsidies that make people dependent on the
bureaucracy and political class.

9. We notice that our politicians and bureaucrats often bring out such policies which make
(1) people extremely satisfied and happy.
(2) people more prosperous.
(3) people more dependent on them.
(4) barely any changes in the lives of the people.

10. According to the paragraph, to remove inequalities in the society, the government should
(1) increase reservations. (2) decrease subsidies.
(3) increase subsidies considerably. (4) not take any actions presently.

11. Three years ago, A was thrice as old as B. Five years later, A will be twice as old as B. The
difference in their present ages is
(1) 12 years. (2) 18 years. (3) 16 years. (4) 14 years.
Sample-BD 2
12. Sum of ages of Shekhar and his wife is 63 years. After three years, their ages are in the ratio
12:11. What is the present age of Shekhar’s wife?
(1) 30 years (2) 31 years (3) 32 years (4) 33 years

13. A total of 72 toffees cannot be divided in which of the following ratio?

(1) 2:4 (2) 2:5 (3) 2:7 (4) 1:2

14. Two numbers are in the ratio 4:3. If the difference between their squares is 63, then the greater
number is ________.
(1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 12

15. If a profit of 17% is made on a bicycle of 700 with 50 as overhead charges. Then selling
price is
(1) 899.50 (2) 877.00 (3) 877.50 (4) 899.00

Directions (Questions 16-17): In each of these questions, find out the relationship between the first
two words and choose the word from the given alternatives, which bears the same relationship to the
third word, as the first two bear.
16. Anaemia : Blood : : Anarchy : '?'
(1) Lawlessness (2) Government (3) Monarchy (4) Disorder

17. Cattle : Herd : : Sheep : '?'

(1) Flock (2) Swarm (3) Shoal (4) Mob

18. Complete the series by replacing the '?'

1, 6, 15, '?', 45, 66, 91
(1) 25 (2) 26 (3) 27 (4) 28

Directions (Questions 19-20): Find the odd one out.

19. (1) BCD (2) KMN (3) QRS (4) GHI

20. (1) AUgPZ (2) MXiDV (3) KFeCO (4) YGLhT

21. ‘Ekaya’, the traditional handloom Banarasi saris brand is associated with
(1) Palak Shah. (2) Manish Arora.
(3) Rohit Bal. (4) Sabyasachi Mukherjee.

Sample-BD 3
22. ‘Pond’s’ men face wash is being promoted by popular Indian filmstar.
(1) Varun Dhawan. (2) Shah Rukh Khan. (3) Hrithik Roshan. (4) John Abraham.

23. ‘Cherokee’, the global fashion lifestyle brand belongs to

(1) The USA. (2) The UK. (3) Singapore. (4) India.

24. ‘Alrosa’, one of the largest rough diamond supplying companies globally belongs to
(1) South Africa. (2) Brazil. (3) Egypt. (4) Russia.

25. Who among the following fashion designers has won the prestigious Padma Shri award on
India’s 65th Republic Day?
(1) Sabyasachi Mukherjee (2) Wendell Rodricks
(3) Tarun Tahiliani (4) None of these

Sample-BD 4
 BACHELOR OF TECHNOLOGY (BFTECH)

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR GAT

Note: These questions are illustrative. The pattern, scope, arrangement,

variety, difficulty level, etc in the actual question paper may vary.

Directions: Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in the
sentence.
1. He listened to my request with indifference.
(1) caution (2) displeasure (3) concern (4) disinterest

Directions: Choose the word which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word in
the sentence.
2. Hydra is biologically believed to be immortal.
(1) undying (2) perishable (3) ancient (4) eternal

Direction: Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase in the
sentence.
3. His innings is a feather in his cap.
(1) fantastic (2) beautiful (3) superior (4) glorious

4. Freedom and equality are the _________ rights of every human being.
(1) inalienable (2) inscrutable (3) incalculable (4) institutional

Directions : Choose the option that is the plural form of the given word.

5. Wish
(1) Wishes (2) Wish (3) Wishies (4) Wishs

Directions (Questions 6-10): Study the passages below and answer the questions that follow each
passage.
Passage-I
We have come a long way since the acronym ‘BRIC’ was coined in 2001. Emerging markets are now
an integral part of the world map and this elite group of nations has firmly positioned itself as an
important catalyst driving global growth. However, these economies too are vulnerable to global
hitches, as was evident in 2011 when most emerging markets, including India, China, and Brazil
witnessed a drop of over 18% even as developed economies like the US registered a growth of 5%
against all odds. The first three weeks of the New Year have caught everyone off guard with
Sample-BT 1
emerging markets racing ahead of their developed counterparts. From being one of the worst
performers in 2011, India has rallied by more than 9.5% followed by Brazil (7%) and China (6.9%).
While such a momentum may not be sustainable over a longer horizon, no one can ignore the fact that
the combined population of China, India, Brazil and Indonesia amounting to 3 billion or 43% of the
global population will drive consumption demand in these markets for decades to come. Secondly,
these countries do not have to face certain critical issues that the developed world has to address. One
of the critical challenges for developed economies relate to entitlement issues, as they struggle to take
care of their citizens’ needs pertaining to health care and unemployment. While analysing growth
trends in these economies, it is important to understand the difference in terms of the nature of the
growth. Emerging markets are moving along a natural growth trajectory, driven by several factors as
mentioned above, whereas developed markets are being forced to induce growth through various
stimulus measures amid a scenario of peaking unemployment and near-nadir consumer confidence
levels. This induced growth in a way also helps the cause of emerging markets since most of these
economies derive a substantial portion of their GDP from exports.

6. It can be inferred from the passage that “BRIC” is a/an

(1) grouping of the world’s topmost economies.
(2) grouping of the world’s emerging economies.
(3) economic term that was tossed out of use in the year 2001.
(4) None of these

7. According to the author of the passage, emerging economies of the world

A are going to increase their impact on the global economy in times to come.
B are having roller-coaster rides as far as their economies are concerned.
C are not committed to providing healthcare and employment opportunities to their citizens to
the extent that the leading economies of the world are.
(1) A only (2) A & B (3) A & C (4) A, B & C

8. Which of the following factors equally affect both the developed and developing economies, as
specifically implied in the passage?
A Recession.
B Unemployment.
C Natural growth tendency of the economy.
(1) A & B (2) A only (3) A & C (4) A, B & C

Passage-II
The revolutionary changes in the role of women that we have experienced in India during the past
few decades aren't the sapling of any seed sown by any political party. Rather it is the result of the
courage that women themselves have mustered in facing up to male chauvinists. The women who
once dared not pronounce their husbands name may now refuse to change their surname after
marriage. The transition has not been just of attire, but of attitude. The Indian woman has realized
that the only way to live and survive is to 'start living'. They respect themselves. Laws to protect
women have always been there. But it is the strength of women that has renewed and giving them
Sample-BT 2
more traction. It's a pity that almost half of our society, constituted by the fairer sex, is still almost
completely ignored by the political parties. Politicians who continue to ignore women should brace
themselves to face the brunt of NOTA in future elections.

9. As per the paragraph, amount of attention paid by political parties to women is

(1) quite adequate. (2) fairly substantial.
(3) not at all sufficient. (4) just about adequate.

10. Women of today have become

(1) much less confident of themselves. (2) timed and pessimistic.
(3) quite confident and bold. (4) more confused and withdrawn.

11. If twice the age of daughter is added to three times the age of mother, the sum is 120 and if
twice the mother’s age is added to three times the daughter’s age, then the sum is 90. The age of
mother is
(1) 30 years. (2) 36 years. (3) 41 years. (4) 42 years.

12. Mukesh told his grand-daughter Sailee that five years earlier, he was seven times as old as she
was. After 15 years, he will be thrice as old as she will be. Find the sum of their present ages.
(1) 70 (2) 75 (3) 90 (4) 100

13. What is the value of A:B:C, if A:B = 2:3 and B:C = 4:5?
(1) 8:12:15 (2) 2:3:4 (3) 2:3:5 (4) 4:6:11

14. A certain sum of money is divided among A, B and C so that for each rupee A has, B has 65
paise and C has 35 paise. If B’s share is 1300, then total sum of money is
(1) 7000 (2) 6000 (3) 5000 (4) 4000

15. If cost price of 24 articles is equal to the selling price of 16 articles, then the profit/loss
percentage is
(1) 40% loss (2) 50% profit (3) 45% loss (4) 33.33% profit

Directions (Questions 16-17): Study the Information below to answer these questions.
A. Seven students Pradeep, Qadir, Rohit, Sushant, Tushar, Uday and Vikas write a test series.
B. Either Rohit or Sushant scores highest in each test.
C. Pradeep always scores less than Vikas.
D. Qadir always scores less than Pradeep.
E. Each time either Rohit scores the highest and Tushar gets the least.
F. Each time Sushant scores the highest, either Uday or Qadir scores the least.
G. Each student scores marks different from each other.

Sample-BT 3
16. In a particular test, if Sushant is ranked second, which of the following can be true?
(1) Uday gets more than Vikas (2) Vikas is ranked fifth
(3) Tushar gets more than Qadir (4) Pradeep is ranked 3rd

17. In a particular test, if Sushant is ranked sixth and Qadir is ranked fifth, which of the following
can be true?
(1) Vikas is ranked first or fourth (2) Rohit is ranked second or third
(3) Pradeep is ranked second or fifth (4) Uday is ranked third or fourth

Directions (Question 18): In this queston, there is some relationship between the two terms to the
left of :: and the same relationship exhibits between the two terms of its right. A term is missing on
the right side, choose the missing term (‘?’) among the four alternatives given.

18. Rustle : Leaves : : Sing : ‘?’

(1) Whistle (2) Bullets (3) Kettles (4) Birds

Directions (Questions 19-20): Each of these questions has statements followed by two conclusions I
and II. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statements.
Mark the answer as
(1) if conclusion I follows.
(2) if conclusion II follows.
(3) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(4) if both conclusions I and II follow.

19. Statement : Space has no gravitational pull. It has no atmosphere.

Conclusions:
I. Gravity is due to atmospheric pressure.
II. It is not difficult to breathe in space.

20. Statement : Computer literates have good reasoning ability. Seema can understand the
puzzle quickly.
Conclusions:
I. Seema is computer literate.
II. Seema has good reasoning ability.

21. ‘Morellato’, the popular international female luxury wrist watch is endorsed by
(1) Aishwarya Rai. (2) Preity Zinta. (3) Anushka Sharma. (4) Kareena Kapoor.

Sample-BT 4
22. ‘EVARA’ is a popular ___________ jewellery brand.
(1) silver (2) diamond (3) platinum (4) gold

23. ‘Zara’, the international fashion brand belong to

(1) Germany. (2) Australia. (3) Spain. (4) India.

24. ‘Cherokee’, the global fashion lifestyle brand tied up with which one of the following Indian
companies?
(1) Aditya Birla Group (2) Arvind Mills (3) Reliance Retail (4) ITC Group

25. ______ covers the entire gamut of women’s prêt-a porter from western to fusion to Indian
silhouettes. Churidar-kurtas, tunics and saris form the matrix of the Indian designs.
(1) Jamdani (2) Taika (3) Dastar (4) Mufti

Directions (Questions 26-30): Read the following cases and answer the questions given at the end of
each case on the basis of information provided.

Case-I
Swiss watch brand Tag Heuer plans to tweak its collections and improve instore services as it bets on
enhancing customer experience to power the next phase of growth in India, a top executive said. “The
brand is doing well here and has a great platform to go forward. As the next step, we want to do some
qualitative work, The focus will be on customer experience,” said General Manager at Tag Heuer
India. The brand, owned by French luxury conglomerate LVMH, is currently one of the top three in
the Swiss watches category in terms of revenue and recall value in the country, GM said. He said Tag
Heuer will focus on having the right collections and being at the right retail shops rather than chasing
numbers mindlessly. “We want to get into the finer details of selling a luxury watch to the Indian
consumer. The numbers (sales) are being met, what is missing is the brand experience,” said GM.
26. Tag Heuer is currently focusing on
(1) quantity sales. (2) customer service. (3) both (1) and (2) (4) None of these

27. As per the case, Tag Heuer has

(1) low brand value. (2) high brand name in the market.
(3) to improve availability of its products. (4) tremendous pressure to improve sales.

28. Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) Tag Heuer plans to give better experience to its customers.
(2) Before further expansion in India, Tag Heuer wants to improve its services in its existing
stores.
(3) Tag Hauer feels that current sales are just not adequate.
(4) None of these

Sample-BT 5
 Case-II
Maruti Suzuki is planning to introduce a new compact multi-utility vehicle that would help it log
volumes in the fiercely competitive compact car space, once been its forte, but now being threatened
by bigger rivals like Hyundai, Honda and Toyota. This all-new compact MUV, code-named YJC, is
being conceived especially for India, and will be placed under the flagship Ertiga. Maruti is trying to
create a new niche segment that will bridge the gap between hatchbacks and crossover vehicles in
terms of size and seating capacity. A company spokesperson, however, refused to confirm the
developments. “As a company policy, we do not comment on future products.” Currently, under
development stage, YJC would be sold in India and may be shipped to South East Asia, just like the
Ertiga. The company has floated proposals to its vendors and suppliers for designing and sourcing
components of the car. Maruti Suzuki, which is likely to introduce the car in the festive season of
2016, is targeting around 80,000 units in the first year, said a person close to the development.
“Maruti plans to develop a new product, which is a niche area until now as there are no premium
wagons in the country. It is expected to be a premium product thats likely to be placed over its
popular WagonR and is expected to deliver higher volumes for the company trying to regain its turf
in the compact car segment. It has also floated request for quotations from its suppliers,” the same
person added. According to sources in the industry, Maruti is trying to create a new niche segment to
drive volumes like it has accomplished with its automated manual transmission, a new technology
that turns regular manual cars into convenient clutch-less automatic vehicles at an affordable price.
The AMT, introduced in the Celerio hatchback, has been a hit with a large chunk of Indian customers
who prefer it over regular manual cars with just a 10% premium. Trying to emulate its success,
Maruti Suzuki’s R&D teams are working with their Japanese counterparts to develop a new segment
that would be spacious, but will have the ease of a regular compact car.
29. In the recent past, Maruti had launched a vehicle with automated manual transmission which
has been
(1) a failure. (2) quite popular with customers.
(3) only partially successful. (4) subsequently withdrawn by the company.

30. Maruti is planning to launch a new vehicle in 2016, which will be a

(1) premium hatchback. (2) compact MUV.
(3) premium Wagon. (4) All these

Directions (Questions 31-35): Each of these questions has a statement based on the preceding
passage. Evaluate each statement and mark answer as
(1) if the statement is a Major Objective in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the
decision maker.
(2) if the statement is a Major Factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem,
specifically mentioned in the passage, which fundamentally affects and/or determines the
decision.
(3) if the statement is a Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing
on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
(4) if the statement is a Major Assumption in making the decision: a projection or supposition
arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factor and alternative.

Sample-BT 6
 Passage
UltraTech Cement has signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) to buy two cement plants of
Jaiprakash Associates in Madhya Pradesh, a deal that will help consolidate its position as India’s
biggest cement-maker. For Delhi-based Jaypee Group, the deal is part of an ongoing exercise to
reduce debt, which stood at 65,000 crore as on March 31, 2014, and would shrink to close to
44,000 crore if this deal is consummated. The Aditya Birla Group firm will sign a definitive
agreement after completing a due diligence process that will start shortly. A late evening press release
from the company put the total enterprise valuation of the transaction, including debt, at 5,400
crore. The company’s board approved the acquisition recently. “The deal will help us scale up our
presence in eastern and central UP and eastern and central MP. We have a marginal presence in these
markets which is roughly growing at 8-9%," said MD, UltraTech Cement. The acquisition will help
the company ramp up capacity by 5 million tonnes to 68 million tonnes. Further, surplus clinker
capacity (clinker is a key input for cement) at the two units will enable Ultra-Tech to boost capacity
by 2 million tonnes, said the press release. The plants are located at Satna in Madhya Pradesh. In the
near term, it will have a financial impact as UltraTech will have to pay higher interest on the debt
accrued through the deal, said analyst at brokerage Elara Capital. “But if you take a view of FY18 or
later, the deal will be highly accretive as the region is expected to see minimal capacity addition.”
"Utilisation levels of cement plants in FY18 are expected to rise to 90% from the present 85%,
throwing up more profits,” said Elara Capital’s. The acquisition, if concluded, would mean that the
company’s plans to boost capacity to 71 million tonnes by 2016 will be achieved ahead of schedule.
UltraTech had acquired the Gujarat units of Jaiprakash Associates, with a total capacity of 4.8 million
tonnes, last year. It has earmarked 7,000 crore to expand capacities over the next three years.

31. The deal is part of an ongoing exercise to reduce debt.

32. The acquisition will help the company ramp up capacity by 5 million tonnes.
33. Surplus clinker capacity at the two units will enable UltraTech to boost capacity by 2 million
tonnes.
34. In the near term, it will have a financial impact as UltraTech will have to pay higher interest.
35. The company's plans to boost capacity to 71 million tonnes by 2016 will be achieved ahead of
schedule.

Sample-BT 7
 Sample Questions
Bachelor of Fashion Design (B.Des)
(GAT)
(Note: These questions are illustrative. The pattern, scope, arrangement, variety, difficulty level, etc
in the actual question paper may vary.)

Directions (Questions 1-25): Study the passages below to answer the questions that follow each
passage.
Passage-I
Teaching, more than most other professions, has been transformed during the last hundred years from
a small, highly skilled profession concerned with a minority of the population, to a large and
important branch of public service. The profession has a great and honourable tradition, extending
from the dawn of history until recent times, but any teacher in the modern world who allows himself
to be inspired by the ideals of his predecessors is likely to be made sharply aware that it is not his
function to teach what he thinks, but to instil such beliefs and prejudices as are thought useful by his
employers.
1. In ancient times, the teaching profession was
(1) reserved for the upper class. (2) reserved for a privileged few.
(3) open to all. (4) limited to a highly skilled minority.

2. What has transformed teaching into an important branch of public service is

(1) teaching skills. (2) technical developments.
(3) utilitarian philosophy. (4) the demand of the employing industry.

3. In modern times, a successful teacher is primarily supposed to

(1) impart knowledge.
(2) impart new and latest skills.
(3) toe the lines preferred by those in authority.
(4) instil values he cherishes the most.

4. The modern teacher is not able to follow the ideals of his predecessors because
(1) of tremendous advancements in professional skills.
(2) of social and financial constraints.
(3) the students are not serious about studies.
(4) the modern teacher has more interest in politics than in academic activity.

5. The author seems to

(1) be against the current trend in the teaching profession.
(2) approve the recent developments in the mode of teaching.
(3) be a traditionalist in his views.
(4) consider education as a part of public service.

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 Passage-II
The manager of a well-known firm was interviewing applicants for the post of a night watchman he
had advertised. He was very hard to please and always found something wrong with each man—one
had long hair, another small eyes, a third was too thin and another too tall. Among the applicants
interviewed by the manager for the post was one Ram Kishan. He watched all this as he sat in the
verandah patiently waiting for his turn to be interviewed. He resolved to be prepared for anything.
When his turn came, all went well. The manager found nothing wrong with his appearance, size or
constitution. He was so handsome, tall and strong that the manager was really pleased to see such a
well-built young man. “Is your health sound?”, said the manager at last. “No sir”, replied Ram
Kishan, “not quite. I suffer from one serious complaint.” “What’s that?” asked the manager sharply.
‘Sleeplessness’ came the prompt reply. The manager was so pleased with the answer of the young
man that without questioning him further, he appointed him.
6. The manager always found something wrong with each man. This shows that he
(1) was not interested in selecting anyone for the job.
(2) wanted a flawless person for the job.
(3) wanted the applicants to prove themselves fit for the job.
(4) had a habit of finding faults with others.

7. The manager rejected all other applicants for want of __________.

(1) good looks (2) vigilance (3) good health (4) wisdom

8. Which of the following is incorrect?

(1) Ram Kishan was ill and badly needed a job for his treatment.
(2) The manager did his job quite responsibly and dedicatedly.
(3) The other applicants were really not suited for the job.
(4) Ram Kishan didn’t suffer from any ailment.

9. Why did Ram Kishan say that he suffered from sleeplessness?

(1) To test whether the manager could fail him.
(2) To prove that he knew well what his job required.
(3) To show that he was honest and truthful.
(4) To be frank and not to conceal anything.

10. The manager recruited Ram Kishan for the welfare of __________.
(1) his own (2) Ram Kishan (3) his firm (4) the other applicants

Passage-III
During their last year at school, a teacher gave his students a questionnaire about Life Skills. One
conscientious student had breezed through the questions until he read the last one: “What is the first
name of the woman who cleans at your floor in the school?’’ Surely this was some kind of joke. He
had seen the cleaner several times. She was tall, dark-haired and in her 50s, but how would he know
her name? He handed in his paper, leaving the last question blank. Just before the class ended, the
student asked if the last question was important. “Absolutely”, said the teacher. “In your career, you
will meet many people. All are significant. They deserve your attention and care, even if all you do is
learn their name, smile and say ‘hello’”. That afternoon, the student found the cleaner. “I wanted to
thank you for the work you do”, he said. “May I ask your name?”
  2 
11. The teacher gave the students this questionnaire “during their last year at school” because it
tests skills that
(1) will be learned after school ends. (2) were taught in the final year of school.
(3) are learned throughout all schooling. (4) universities and colleges will require.

12. The student in the passage was surprised by the last question because he assumed that
(1) learning is only academic. (2) the woman was not a cleaner.
(3) there would be multiple choices. (4) he would know the cleaner’s name.

13. The contents of the passage shows that the student

(1) put the theory into practice. (2) had difficulty finding the cleaner.
(3) misunderstood the teacher’s point. (4) wants to complete the questionnaire.

14. The student in the passage learned the importance of __________.

(1) tactics (2) humility (3) politeness (4) lateral thinking

15. The teacher put the question about the cleaner on the questionnaire for the benefit of
(1) the cleaner. (2) the whole class.
(3) this particular student. (4) the teacher himself /herself.

Passage-IV
There was once a poor man who earned just a bare living for himself and his family. All day long he
sang and passed time cheerfully, while his rich neighbours were busy and anxious about their riches
and never sang. They wondered at the poor man’s joy and even complained that with his singing, he
would not let them sleep. One of them, a very wealthy man said, “I will stop him being so cheerful
and singing all the time.” He went to the poor man’s house while he was away and threw a bag of
money into his room. When the poor man came home, he was very happy at first and cheerfully hid
the bag of money. Soon, however, he began to fear it might be stolen or he might be accused of
having stolen it, and he ceased to be cheerful and to sing. After a time, the rich man asked him, what
made him so thin and sad. At first he did not dare to say but when the rich man told him that he knew
his secret, he cried out, ‘Take back your money, then I shall be happy and free from care and shall
sing as I used to”. Saying so, he flung the treasure at the rich man.
16. What kept the wealthy man ‘anxious’?
(1) Greed and insecurity (2) Pride and jealousy
(3) Fear and frustration (4) Sleeplessness

17. The poor man was happy all day long because
(1) he had no money. (2) of his carefree attitude.
(3) he had nothing to lose. (4) he could support his family well.

18. The wealthy man complained that the poor man’s singing did not let him sleep. What do you
think kept him awake?
(1) Noise of the song (2) Jealousy for the poor man
(3) Fear of losing his money (4) Worries about the future

  3 
19. ‘At first he did not dare to say …..' Why didn’t the poor man ‘dare to say’?
He feared that
(1) his family might overhear him.
(2) the rich man would mock at him.
(3) the rich man might steal his money.
(4) he would have to return the rich man’s money.

20. The poor man returned the money to the rich man to restore his __________.
(1) happiness (2) contentment (3) honesty (4) generosity

Passage-V
We all know what posters are. In these modern days of advertising, there is scarcely a road along
which we travel without passing one or other examples of the poster adviser’s activity. These posters
vary in type from illuminated, electric signs with their flashing, alternating lights, to the small
hand-painted effusions which advertise local concerts in the village halls. Before we attempt a
detailed study of the methods by which poster hoardings are filled with eye-catching designs, let us
examine one or two basic principles which would apply to any well-planned poster campaign. In the
place we must appreciate that our poster will be read, in most cases, by a mobile public. It differs
from the press advertisements in that it is not carried into the home or office and read at leisure. It
remains in one place, and its message, therefore, must be capable of being assimilated by the reader
who is passing, often in a hurry, with other and more important business in his mind. Again, unlike
the press advertisement, the poster cannot carry a long and detailed message: the man in the street has
not sufficient time to read it in these days of haste and bustle.
21. The tone of the passage is essentially __________.
(1) critical (2) analytical (3) formal (4) objective

22. A poster need not be __________.

(1) concise (2) attractive (3) colourful (4) illustrated

23. The most striking feature of a poster is that it

(1) does not give the details of the message.
(2) conveys the message to a large section of people.
(3) entertains and also informs people.
(4) beautifies the place where it is put up.

24. Which of the following is most likely to make a poster deliver its purpose well?
(1) Large size (2) Use of fancy letters
(3) Colourful picture (4) Catchy slogan

25. The press advertisement is better than a poster in which of the following contexts?
(1) It reaches far and wide.
(2) It is a cheaper mode of communicating the message.
(3) It does not require illustrations or eye-catching pictures.
(4) The reader can assimilate the details as per his ease and convenience.

  4 
Directions (Questions 26-30) : Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined
word.
26. This is a lucrative business.
(1) questionable (2) challenging (3) dangerous (4) profitable

27. He gave a fictitious address.

(1) unknown (2) correct (3) fake (4) detailed

28. Lunatics generally have queer ideas.

(1) strange (2) good (3) complex (4) confusing

29. He felt incensed at the way he was treated.

(1) insulted (2) hurt (3) angry (4) tortured

30. The drought in several parts of the city this year led to the onset of various diseases.
(1) outbreak (2) attack (3) assault (4) recession

Directions (Questions 31-35) : Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the underlined
word.
31. I have vague memories of my childhood.
(1) clear (2) profound (3) sufficient (4) pleasant

32. The rainfall was plentiful in this part during the last season.
(1) scanty (2) small (3) rare (4) handful

33. The criminal was detained by the police.

(1) threatened (2) dismissed (3) protected (4) released

34. Mr Rao is a frail young man.

(1) cheerful (2) happy (3) feeble (4) strong

35. That was an exquisite piece of art which won the admiration of one and all.
(1) ugly (2) cheap (3) old (4) common

Directions (Questions 36-40) : In each of these questions, out of the given group of words, choose
the correctly spelt word.
36. (1) Examplary (2) Exemplary (3) Examplery (4) Exemplery

37. (1) Aforstation (2) Aforestation (3) Afforstation (4) Afforestation

  5 
38. (1) Greivance (2) Grievance (3) Griveance (4) Grieveance

39. (1) Legendry (2) Legendery (3) Legendary (4) Legandery

40. (1) Predecessor (2) Predeccesor (3) Predicesor (4) Predecesor

Directions (Questions 41-45) : Choose the option that exhibits correct meaning of the italicized
phrasal verbs in the following sentences.
41. He always runs down his brother only because the latter is poor.
(1) quarrels with (2) disagrees with (3) threatens (4) disparages

42. Rohit is not cut out for this kind of work.

(1) trained (2) acquainted (3) suitable (4) physically fit

43. The father was taken aback by his son's rude behaviour.
(1) surprised (2) hurt (3) annoyed (4) affected

44. At my friend's tea party, I fell in with a strange fellow.

(1) had a quarrel with (2) met accidentally
(3) had an argument with (4) made friends with

45. The servant needs to be told off.

(1) punished (2) scolded (3) praised (4) dismissed

Directions (Questions 46-50) : Fill in the blank.

46. The new education policy provides a useful _________ for the planners to remove illiteracy.
(1) break-in (2) breakaway (3) break up (4) breakthrough

47. He had to wait until his sister's train arrived _________ to take her to his house.
(1) as much as (2) as if (3) so much so (4) so as

48. We are now confident __________ winning the match.

(1) to (2) in (3) of (4) towards

49. This sort of situation will not be allowed to last ___________ long.
(1) until (2) up (3) till (4) for

50. The inspector of excise has to conduct regular checks and ___________ to visit the unit at least
once a day.
(1) is required (2) requires (3) is requiring (4) required

  6 
Directions (Questions 51-53): Complete the series by replacing '?'

51. AB, EDC, FGHI, '?', OPQRST,

(1) JKLMN (2) JMKNL (3) NMLKJ (4) NMKLJ

52. 3, 11, 23, 39, 59, '?'

(1) 63 (2) 73 (3) 83 (4) 93

53. 9472, 8563, 7654, ‘?’

(1) 5473 (2) 6745 (3) 7754 (4) 3675

Directions (Questions 54-56) : Study the following information to answer these questions.
(i) In a family of 6 persons, there are two couples.
(ii) The lawyer is the head of the family and has only two sons – Mukesh and Rakesh both
teachers.
(iii) Mrs. Reena and her mother-in-law both are lawyers.
(iv) Mukesh's wife is a Doctor and they have a son, Ajay.

54. Which of the following is definitely a couple?

(1) Lawyer-Teacher (2) Doctor-Lawyer (3) Teacher-Teacher (4) None of these

55. What is the profession of Rakesh's wife?

(1) Teacher (2) Doctor (3) Lawyer (4) None of these

56. How many male members are there in the family?

(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) None of these

Directions (Questions 57-58): Find the odd one out.

57. 41, 43, 47, 53, 61, 71, 73, 81

(1) 61 (2) 71 (3) 73 (4) 81

58. 835, 734, 642, 751, 853, 981, 532

(1) 751 (2) 853 (3) 981 (4) 532

  7 
Directions (Questions 59-61): Each of these questions has two statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Mark answer as
(1) if only conclusion I follows
(2) if only conclusion II follows
(3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
(4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

59. Statements : All hands are limbs. All limbs are fingers. Some fingers are thumbs.
Conclusions : I. Some thumbs being limbs is a possibility.
II. All hands are fingers.

60. Statements : All teams are participants. All members are teams. No member is a captain.
Conclusions : I. Atleast some participants are members.
II. All teams being captains is a possibility.

61. Statements : Some slopes are mountains. No mountain is a river. Some rivers are ponds.
Conclusions : I. All ponds being mountains is a possibility.
II. All slopes being rivers is a possibility.
 
62. Two railway tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost 177. Three
tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost 173. The fare for city B from
city A will be _________.
(1) 25 (2) 27 (3) 30 (4) 33

63. R is sister of M. M is brother of H. D is mother of K. K is brother of M. How is R related to D?

(1) Daughter (2) Mother (3) Sister (4) Data inadequate

64. If Neena says, "Anita's father Raman is the only son of my father-in-law Mahipal," then how is
Bindu, who is the sister of Anita, related to Mahipal?
(1) Niece (2) Daughter (3) Cousin (4) None of these

65. If in the number 38564927, first all the even digits are arranged in ascending order and then all
the odd digits are arranged in ascending order, which digit will be fourth from the right end?
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 6

  8 
66. 55% of a number is more than one-third of that number by 52. What is two-fifth of that
number?
(1) 96 (2) 240 (3) 144 (4) 142

67. One-fifth of a number is equal to 5/8th of another number. If 35 is added to the first number, it
becomes four times of the second number. Find the second number.
(1) 39 (2) 70 (3) 40 (4) 25

68. What least number would be subtracted from 427398 so that the remaining number is divisible
by 15?
(1) 13 (2) 3 (3) 16 (4) 11

69. Find the sum of the first 50 natural numbers.

(1) 1275 (2) 1025 (3) 1235 (4) 1205

70. How many integers from 1 to 100 exist such that each is divisible by 6 and also has 6 as a digit.
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 8

71. Three numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 6. Sum of the greatest and the smallest numbers is equal to
the sum of the middle number and 16. Find the smallest number.
(1) 12 (2) 20 (3) 24 (4) 16

72. Thrice a number diminished by 2 is 19. Find the number.

(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 4 (4) 6

2 2
73. of 1 of 75% of 540 = ?
3 5
(1) 378 (2) 456 (3) 252 (4) 332

74. One litre of water is evaporated from 6 litres of a solution containing 5% salt. Find the
percentage of salt in the remaining solution.
(1) 5% (2) 7% (3) 9% (4) 6%

75. Ram deposited 10,000 in a bank. After 2 years he withdraws 4,000 and at the end of 5
years he receives an amount of 7,520. Find the rate of simple interest.
(1) 6% (2) 7% (3) 4% (4) 5%

76. A man crosses a stationary train in 12 minutes. The same train crosses a man in 54 seconds.
What was the respective ratio between the speed of the train and the man?
(1) 40 : 7 (2) 400 : 3
(3) 40 : 3 (4) Cannot be determined

  9 
77. If 15.9273 – x = 11.0049, then the value of x is _________.
(1) 26.9322 (2) 4.9224 (3) 0.49224 (4) 4.9324

78. A drum of water is 3/5th full; when 38 litres are drawn from it, it is just 1/8th full. Find the total
capacity of the drum in litres.
(1) 48 litres (2) 84 litres (3) 80 litres (4) 118 litres

79. A student X passes his examination with 618 marks, having scored 3% above the minimum. If
another student Y had scored 852 marks, by what % would his score have been above the
minimum?
(1) 58% (2) 5.8% (3) 42% (4) 4.2%

3 1
80. is what part of ?
48 12
1 3 1 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 4 3 3

81. 9,000 is lent out in two parts at the rate of 5% SI and 7% SI. The simple interest on the whole
sum at the end of 2 years is 954. Find the sum that is lent out at 5% rate of interest.
(1) 7,650 (2) 1,350 (3) 7,000 (4) 6,600

3420 ?
82.  7
19 0.01
35 63 18
(1) (2) (3) (4) None of these
9 5 7

83. (17)2 + (23)2 = ?

(1) 718 (2) 818 (3) 988 (4) 828

84. On dividing 7865321 by a certain number, the quotient is 33612 and the remainder is 113. Find
the divisor.
(1) 243 (2) 234 (3) 423 (4) 432

85. A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 10, 15 and 18 days respectively. In how many days
would all of them complete the same work working together?
1 1
(1) 14 days (2) 7 days (3) 4 days (4) None of these
3 2

  10 
86. Popular Indian film star Amitabh Bachchan is associated with which one of the following
jewellery brands?
(1) Amrapali Jewels (2) Kalyan Jewellers
(3) Tribhovandas Bhimji Zaveri (4) PC Jewellers

87. ‘AJIO.COM’, the online clothing, accessories and footwear brand belongs to _________.
(1) Reliance (2) Lifestyle
(3) Aditya Birla Group (4) Bharti Retail

88. ‘inayat’, the designer jewellery collection is from the house of _________.
(1) Malabar Jewllers (2) Tanishq
(3) Nakshatra (4) PC Jewellers

89. Which one of the following sports lifestyle clothing line is launched by cricketer Yuvraj Singh?
(1) True Blue (2) SKULT
(3) YWC Fashion (4) SEVEN

90. Indian Cricketer Virat Kohli endorses which one of the following Indian clothing brand?
(1) Manyavar (2) Fashion by Big Bazaar
(3) Pantaloons (4) None of these

91. In which of the following places world’s first Bollywood themed park is opened?
(1) London (2) Singapore
(3) Hong Kong (4) Dubai

92. Who among the following is the brand ambassador of Arunachal Pradesh tourism?
(1) John Abraham (2) Randeep Hooda
(3) Neil Nitin Mukesh (4) Irrfan Khan

93. Currently, Kiran Bedi is the Lt Governor of _________.

(1) Lakshadweep (2) Daman and Diu
(3) Puducherry (4) None of these

  11 
94. Donald Trump has been elected as the______ president of the United States of America.
(1) 43rd (2) 44th
(3) 45th (4) 46th

95. 2018 Asian Games will be held in which country?

(1) China (2) Indonesia
(3) Japan (4) Sri Lanka

96. In which year was New Delhi inaugurated as the capital of India?
(1) 1911 (2) 1921
(3) 1931 (4) 1941

97. _________ city in Tamilnadu is also called the textile city.

(1) Tirunelveli (2) Tanjore
(3) Coimbatore (4) Nagapattinam

98. ‘Pattachitra’ refers to the classical paintings of which one of the following states?
(1) Tamil Nadu (2) Bihar
(3) West Bengal (4) Odisha

99. Who among the following Indians has been crowned with Mr. World 2016 title?
(1) Advay Ramesh (2) Neeraj Chopra
(3) Rohit Khandelwal (4) Vijender Singh

100. Which of the following cities will host the Olympic games in 2020?
(1) Shanghai (2) New York
(3) Tokyo (4) Melbourne

  12 
 Sample Questions
Bachelor of Fashion Technology (B.F.Tech)
(GAT)
(Note: These questions are illustrative. The pattern, scope, arrangement, variety, difficulty level, etc
in the actual question paper may vary.)

Directions (Questions 1-4) : In each of these questions, choose the alternative which can replace the
underlined word printed in bold without changing the meaning of the sentence.

1. I tried to persuade him to change his mind, but he remained adamant.

(1) fixed (2) stubborn (3) aggressive (4) defensive

2. A feeling of brotherhood should be nurtured in the masses.

(1) brought out (2) brought up (3) admired (4) encouraged

3. The courage shown by the soldiers at this moment of crisis is exemplary.

(1) admirable (2) clear (3) elementary (4) suitable

4. The novel was so interesting that I was oblivious of my surroundings.

(1) indifferent (2) watchful (3) aware (4) unmindful

Directions (Questions 5-8) : Fill in the blank.

5. We are now confident ____________ winning the match.

(1) to (2) in (3) of (4) into

6. This sort of situation will not be allowed to last _________ long.

(1) until (2) up (3) till (4) for

7. The inspector of excise has to conduct regular checks and __________ to visit the unit at least
once a day.
(1) is required (2) requires (3) is requiring (4) required

8. He used to pray everyday, believing that as long as he __________ so, he would be safe.
(1) doing (2) does (3) did (4) will do

  1 
Directions (Questions 9-12) : In each of these questions, choose the alternative which is closest to
the opposite in meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.
9. The committee set about making provisional arrangements for the annual conference.
(1) unconditional (2) abiding (3) permanent (4) lasting

10. The priest would not allow anyone to desecrate the sanctity of the temple.
(1) sanctify (2) profane (3) intensify (4) violate

11. I think you should undertake this job; it would really be a profitable venture for you.
(1) accept (2) give up (3) conceal (4) retrieve

12. I think it would be better if this paragraph is eliminated.

(1) added (2) improved (3) deleted (4) shortened

Directions (Questions 13-14) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative that can be
substituted for the given words /sentence.
13. An associate in an office or institution
(1) Companion (2) Ally (3) Colleague (4) Accomplice

14. A book or paper written in hand

(1) Handwritten (2) Manuscript (3) Edition (4) Draft

Directions (Questions 15-17) : In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression /proverb
has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of
the given idiom/proverb.
15. To read between the lines
(1) To concentrate (2) To read carefully
(3) To suspect (4) To grasp the hidden meaning

16. To flog a dead horse

(1) To act in a foolish way (2) To waste one’s efforts
(3) To revive interest in an old subject (4) To revive old memories

17. To pay one back in the same coin

(1) To provoke a person to quarrel
(2) To offer another polite attention
(3) To retaliate
(4) To give a word of encouragement or praise to another

  2 
Directions (Questions 18-19) : In each of the questions below, only one among the given alternatives
is correctly spelt. Find out the word with correct spelling.

18. (1) Necessary (2) Necesarry (3) Necesary (4) Neccessary

19. (1) Benefeted (2) Benifited (3) Benefitted (4) Benifitted

Directions (Questions 20-21) : In each of these questions, choose the wrongly spelt word.

20. (1) Designation (2) Acquaintence (3) Controversy (4) Burglar

21. (1) Breakage (2) Brevity (3) Breathless (4) Briliance

Directions (Questions 22-23) : From amongst the options given below each word, choose the
appropriate singular form.

22. Socks
(1) Socks (2) Sock (3) Socke (4) None of these

23. Teeth
(1) Teeth (2) Toothe (3) Tooth (4) None of these

Directions (Questions 24-25) : From amongst the options given below each word, choose the
appropriate plural form.

24. Ox
(1) Oxes (2) Oxen (3) Herd (4) None of these

25. Fish
(1) Fishes (2) Fishy (3) Fish (4) None of these

  3 
Directions (Questions 26-45): Study the passages below and answer the questions that follow each
passage.
Passage–I
The weeks following demonetisation have been accompanied by growing intrusiveness of the state.
Big government seems to be back with a vengeance. But India's earlier experiment in this area led to
an inspector raj and created opportunities for corruption to flourish. It must not be repeated. A
legitimate expectation of demonetisation was that it would leave trails which could be used to bring
tax evaders to book. This was in line with a series of steps taken over the last decade to create an
audit trail in myriad areas to allow tax authorities to mine data. This is a sound way of widening the
tax net. In addition to tax authorities, agencies such as the Financial Intelligence Unit processed
information related to suspicious financial transactions. India was switching to a more sophisticated
way of enforcing tax rules. It is important that government now builds upon a decade's work. Threats
of tax raids and allowing bureaucrats to exercise excessive power will be counterproductive. The
return of an inspector raj will have a chilling effect on economic activity. It will only prolong the
ongoing economic disruption. Government must send the right message to all economic agents.
Legitimate economic activity ought to be encouraged and needless impediments removed. Exhorting
people to use digital modes of payment is not enough. Different arms of the government should make
better use of technology to do their work.
26. Government can perform better by
(1) imposing more rules and laws. (2) using police force.
(3) utilizing more technology. (4) None of these

27. Consequent to demonetisation, it was expected that

(1) law and order situation would improve.
(2) people who avoid paying tax would be caught.
(3) people would pay more tax.
(4) it would have not much of impact on tax-collections.

28. After demonetisation, it has been seen that

(1) government has increased interference in lives of people.
(2) government has stopped interference with people's lives.
(3) it has made no difference in people's lives.
(4) None of these

29. In the recent past, we have taken steps to

(1) avoid enforcing strict tax laws. (2) make more people pay taxes.
(3) stop people from paying taxes. (4) None of these

30. Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) Legal economy activities must be given a boost.
(2) Demonetisation done earlier had decreased inspector raj.
(3) Using cashless transaction will not resolve all problems.
(4) None of these

  4 
 Passage–II
Are you a shopaholic? Do thoughts of death haunt you? A study has found that thoughts of mortality
can trigger your buying impulse as it makes you feel better about yourself. Researchers in Canada
found that the habits of spendthrifts do not change after contemplating their own mortality.
Compulsive shoppers, on the other hand, go out and buy more. The team wanted to test this
assumption with anti-consumers – people who resist consumption out of a desire to live simply and
with over-consumers – folks who shop till they drop, no matter the season. The researchers did two
experiments with 508 participants who were asked to answer questionnaires identifying their
tendency to resist consumption. They were then randomly assigned to one of two groups – one in the
'death thoughts' group, where participants were asked to describe what they would feel if they were
dying. In the control group, participants were asked to report what they would feel if they were
submitted to a painful dental procedure. They found that anti-consumers seem to care less about
consumption than over-consumers. Afterwards, participants indicated their inclination to purchase a
series of products. By comparing participants in each condition, researchers were able to identify
individual tendencies to increase or reduce consumption due to thoughts of death. They found that in
consumers inclined to over-consume, thinking about death made them even more likely to buy.

31. Compulsive shoppers and spend thrifts have _________ shopping habits.
(1) same (2) similar (3) different (4) no

32. According to research, compulsive shoppers are inclined to buy __________ than others.
(1) more (2) much less (3) less (4) considerably less

33. Buying impulse in shopaholics is triggered due to

(1) prosperity. (2) thoughts of mortality.
(3) unknown reasons. (4) None of these

34. Research was conducted engaging __________ participants.

(1) very few (2) hardly any
(3) adequate number of (4) no

35. Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) It is assumed that people who think about death, consume less.
(2) Research has shown that anti-consumers usually care less about consumption comparing
with over-consumers.
(3) During the research, participants were divided into two groups.
(4) All these

  5 
 Passage–III
A leading Indian industrialist in a recent article on ways to strengthen India’s economy has drawn
attention to the problems of inflation and industrial sickness among other things. One of the main
reasons for industrial sickness in our country has been the fact that business and industrial managers
have not been able to look beyond the immediate future. They have been too preoccupied with their
attempts to report favourable results for the current year — higher profits and larger dividends to the
shareholders. The planning horizon has hardly ever exceeded five years. Investments have been
inadequate for new plants and towards diversification and expansions. Modernisation and asset
creation has seriously lagged behind. In business, growth is needed for survival; one has to grow if
one does not want to be wiped out. This is particularly true today with liberalisation of imports and
increasing competition. Moreover, growth and higher productivity create employment; and higher
employment creates larger markets both for industrial and consumer products. It was Henry Ford who
brought home the need for the creation of a larger and a more stable middle class, that is, a larger
number of people who can afford more and more of goods and services. Even after seventy years of
independence our industrialists have not been able to shed the petty shopkeeper’s mentality and our
highly educated management has tagged along merrily and without concern.
36. Which of the following short-comings of Indian industrialists has been highlighted by the
author ?
(1) They invest an unreasonably high amount on diversification and expansion.
(2) They are more concerned for immediate net gains than for developmental activities.
(3) They are reluctant to maintain the shopkeeper mentality.
(4) They are less concerned for payment of dividends to shareholders.

37. The leading industrialist attributes industrial sickness mainly to

(1) lacunae in five-year plans.
(2) preoccupations of managers with matters unrelated to business.
(3) higher profits and larger dividends to shareholders.
(4) lack of foresight among managers.

38. Why did Henry Ford stress the need for a more stable middle class ?
(1) They are mostly service oriented.
(2) They do not have shopkeeper mentality.
(3) They can afford to buy more goods and services.
(4) They are most unstable.

39. ‘The planning horizon has hardly ever exceeded five years’ implies
(1) planning should not be for a period of less than five years.
(2) the planning process is very time consuming.
(3) five-year period is too short for successful implementation of plans.
(4) planning should take care of all probable ups and downs in the next five-year period.

  6 
40. In order to improve the condition of Indian industries, the industrialist should do all of the
following except
(1) giving up the narrow mentality which very small shopkeepers generally have.
(2) striving to earn long term profits.
(3) encouraging competition from industrialists within the country and from abroad.
(4) resorting to long-term planning for industrial growth and expansion in diverse fields.

Passage–IV
Most of us use the products of science — railways, aeroplanes, electricity, wireless and thousands of
others — without thinking how they came into existence. We take them for granted, as if we were
entitled to them as a matter of right. We are very proud of the fact that we live in an advanced age and
are ourselves very advanced. Now, there is no doubt that our age is very different from previous ages
and I think it is perfectly correct to say that it is far more advanced. But it is a different thing from
saying that we, as individuals or groups, are more advanced. It would be the height of absurdity to say
that because an engine driver can run an engine and Plato or Socrates could not, the engine driver is
more advanced than, or is superior to, Plato or Socrates. But it would be perfectly correct to say that
the engine itself is a more advanced method of locomotion than Plato’s chariot was.
41. Which one of the following statements is true ?
(1) An engine driver is cleverer than Plato or Socrates.
(2) Plato or Socrates are in no way inferior to the engine driver.
(3) Plato and Socrates surpassed the engine driver in every respect.
(4) The engine driver cannot be compared to Plato or Socrates.

42. In this passage, the author mentions Plato and Socrates to emphasise that
(1) they were men of great scholarship.
(2) people as individuals in the modern age are not more advanced than their predecessors.
(3) the engine is a better mode of locomotion than Plato’s chariot.
(4) Plato and Socrates had greater respect for learning.

43. According to the author, the present age is far more advanced than
(1) all the previous ages in some respects.
(2) the age of Plato and Socrates in some respects.
(3) some of the previous ages in all respects.
(4) all the previous ages in all respects.

44. Many of us make use of machines

(1) with very little knowledge of their mechanism
(2) without any knowledge of their historical significance
(3) with full knowledge of their genesis
(4) unknowingly and foolishly

45. What is the meaning of ‘absurdity’ as used in the passage ?

(1) Anonymous (2) Arrogant (3) Ridiculous (4) None of these

  7 
46. A building contractor employs 20 males, 15 females and 5 child workers. To a male worker he
pays 25 per day, to a female worker 20 per day and to a child worker 8 per day. What is
the average wage per day paid by the contractor?
(1) 21 (2) 22 (3) 20 (4) 18

47. A tells B, "if you give me 400 then I shall have 5/4 times as much as you have." B tells A, "if
you give me 200, then I shall have three and half times as much as you have." How much
does B have?
(1) 1,200 (2) 900 (3) 800 (4) 1,600

48. Instead of walking along two adjacent sides of a rectangular field, a boy took a short cut along
the diagonal and saved a distance equal to half the longer side. Then the ratio of the shorter side
to the longer side is ___________.
(1) 1/2 (2) 2/3 (3) 1/4 (4) 3/4

49. After covering five-eighth of my journey, I find that I have travelled 60 km. How much journey
is left?
(1) 35 km (2) 40 km (3) 44 km (4) 36 km

50. A man spends 1/3 of his income on food, of the rest 1/4 on house rent and 1/5 on cloth. He still
has 1,760 left with him. Find his income.
(1) 4,500 (2) 4,800 (3) 3,500 (4) 4,750

51. The average weight of 30 students in a class is 60 kg. When 20 new students are admitted, the
average weight is reduced by 2 kg. Find the average weight of the new students.
(1) 55 kg (2) 50 kg (3) 65 kg (4) 52 kg

52. A number gets reduced to its one-third when 48 is subtracted from it. What is two-third of that
number?
(1) 22 (2) 76 (3) 36 (4) 48

53. Which of the following numbers should be added to 11158 to make it exactly divisible by 77?
(1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 7

54. Find the sum of all natural numbers between 100 and 175.
(1) 10450 (2) 10175 (3) 10170 (4) 10435

55. Sum of two numbers is 60 and their difference is 12. Find their product.
(1) 864 (2) 852 (3) 824 (4) 836

56. If 2/7 of a number increased by 25 gives 45, find the number.

(1) 81 (2) 63 (3) 72 (4) 70

  8 
57. The sum of two numbers is 85 and their difference is 9. What is the difference of their squares?
(1) 765 (2) 845 (3) 565 (4) 645

58. Piyush takes a loan of 10,000. After 1 year, he takes another loan of 10,000 at double the
rate of interest. If he has to pay interest at simple rate of interest & settles the loan by paying
23,600 at the end of two years, what is the initial rate of interest he has to pay?
(1) 8% (2) 9% (3) 10% (4) 11%

59. Naresh puts 10,000 at interest compounded annually for 2 years. Had he invested it at 1%
more rate of interest compounded annually, he would have earned 209 more. What is the
interest rate?
(1) 7% (2) 6% (3) 5% (4) 4%

60. Out of total income, a family spends 30% on house rent. It spends 50% of house rent on ration.
Of the balance it spends 30% on education. What percentage of total income is left?
(1) 16.5% (2) 1.65% (3) 3.85% (4) 38.5%

61. If a shopkeeper sells a table at 10% profit and another table at 5% loss, what is his net
percentage of loss or gain?
1 1
(1) 2 % loss (2) 2 % gain (3) 5% gain (4) 5% loss
2 2

62. A Can contains liquids L1 and L2 in the ratio 11:13. Draw 24 litres of mixture from this Can and
refill it by liquid L2. If the Can has now L1 & L2 in the ratio 2:3, how much quantity of L1 was
in the Can initially?
2 3 1 5
(1) 14 ltr (2) 86 ltr (3) 187 ltr (4) 55 ltr
7 7 7 7

63. Three partners A, B, C shared their profit in the ratio 4:5:6. If A partnered for 10 months, B
partnered for 15 months and C partnered for 16 months, what is the ratio of their investments?
(1) 6:7:9 (2) 27:20:15 (3) 48:40:45 (4) 40:75:96

64. A invested 5000 for 24 months, B invested 6000 for 18 months and C invested 8000
for 12 months. A charged 10% of profit for his expertise of business. If 25000 was the profit
after two years, what is the B's share in profit?
(1) 8500 (2) 8333.33 (3) 9000 (4) 7500

65. Pipes A & B can separately fill a tank in 75 minutes and 90 minutes respectively. Pipe C can
empty the same tank in 3 hours. All the three pipes are opened simultaneously. After half an
hour, pipes A & B are stopped while pipe C continues its work. How long will pipe C take now
to empty the tank?
(1) 102 min (2) 132 min (3) 123 min (4) 140 min

  9 
66. A runs 10% slower than B and reaches the destination 25 meter behind B. What is the distance
they were to run?
(1) 250 m (2) 275 m (3) 300 m (4) 225 m

67. 16 persons can do a work in 10 days working 9 hours a day. In how many days can 12 persons
do this work while working 8 hours a day?
(1) 10 days (2) 18 days (3) 12 days (4) 15 days

68. A park is 25 meter long and 21 m wide. A 2 m wide path is to be laid in the middle of the park
parallel to length and breadth. What is the cost of laying the path if it costs 20 per sqm.
(1) 1760 (2) 1840 (3) 1880 (4) 5480

69. A hall is 5 m long 4 m wide and 3 m high. What is the cost of white washing its walls and roof
at a rate 25/m2 and laying of marble floor at a rate 175/m2?
(1) 4675 (2) 7000 (3) 5350 (4) 8350

70. In order to show that 7 is irrational by method of contradiction we assume that _________.
(1) 7 is not irrational (2) 7 is real
(3) 7 is not irrational (4) 7 is not rational

71. The distance between the parallel lines 4x – 3y + 5 = 0 and 4x – 3y – 2 = 0 is ________.

7 21 2
(1) (2) (3) (4) 5
5 5 5

72. n3 – 7n + 3 is divisible by k for all natural numbers n. Then k is _______.

(1) –3 (2) 13 (3) 7 (4) 3

73. Which of the following is not a statement?

(1) There are 35 days in a month (2) x is a natural number
(3) The product of (–2) and 5 is –10 (4) All integers are rational numbers

74. The area of a triangle with vertices (0, 0), (3, 3) and (–3, 3) is _________.
(1) 9 (2) –9 (3) 3 (4) 6

75. In a linear programming problem, the number of minimum (or maximum) points attained by an
objective function can be ________.
(1) 2 (2) more than 1 (3) only 1 (4) only 2

  10 
Directions (Questions 76-79): Complete the series by replacing ‘?’
76. HSJ, IRL, JQN, ‘?’
(1) KPR (2) KPP (3) PKP (4) KOP

77. 2, 4, 7, 14, 17, 34, ‘?’

(1) 37 (2) 39 (3) 68 (4) 70

78. 2, 4, 12, 48, 240, ‘?’

(1) 960 (2) 1440 (3) 1080 (4) 1920

79. 71, 76, 69, 74, 67, 72, ‘?’

(1) 77 (2) 80 (3) 65 (4) 76

80. If in a certain language SURVIVE is coded as 9182723 and MONSOON is coded as 6549554,
how is RUMOUR coded in that language ?
(1) 518618 (2) 581618 (3) 865118 (4) 816518

81. A and B start walking from point O. A covers a distance of 300 m in north direction and B
covers a distance of 400 m towards West. How far are they now from each other ?
(1) 700 m (2) 500 m (3) 50 m (4) None of these

82. Aisha, who is Mohan’s daughter, says to Reena, “Your mother Riya is younger sister of my
father, who is third child of Sanjay”. How is Sanjay related to Reena ?
(1) Uncle (2) Father (3) Grandfather (4) Father-in-law

83. How many 7’s not immediately preceded by 4 but immediately followed by 2 are there in the
following series ?
34728729471357299772514723
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

84. In a row of boys, Anand is eleventh from the left and Deepak is fifteenth from the right. When
Anand and Deepak interchange their positions Anand will be fifth from the left. Which of the
following will be Deepak’s position from the right after rearrangement ?
(1) Seventh (2) Seventeenth (3) Eleventh (4) None of these

85. If in a certain language code ‘nee tim see’ means ‘how are you’, ‘ble nee see’ means ‘where are
you’, then what is the code for ‘where’?
(1) see (2) tim (3) nee (4) ble

86. Shiva walks 10 km towards North and then turns right. After walking 3 km, he again turns right
and walks 7 km. Now he turns left and walks 1 km. How far is he from the starting point ?
(1) 10 km (2) 7 km (3) 20 km (4) 5 km

  11 
Directions (Questions 87-90) : In each of these questions, a statement is followed by two arguments
numbered I and II. Mark answer as
(1) if only argument I is strong.
(2) if only argument II is strong.
(3) if both the arguments are strong.
(4) if neither argument I nor II is strong.
87. Statement : Has the Medical Science really lengthened the span of life ?
Argument I : Yes, the new drugs have been able to combat the diseases and increases the
span of life.
Argument II : No, the eternal truth that every person’s days are numbered cannot be denied.

88. Statement : Should mass media be fully controlled by the government ?

Argument I : Yes, the contradictory news only confuses the people.
Argument II : No, its credibility will be doubtful if it confuses people.

89. Statement : Should sales tax be abolished ?

Argument I : Yes, it will eliminate an important sources of corruption.
Argument II : Yes, it will bring the prices of commodities down and, hence consumers will
be benefited.

90. Statement : Computer based technology is very fruitful for industrial development in India.
Argument I : Yes, accuracy, fast production and fineness are possible through computer
technology.
Argument II : No, it will increase unemployment in the country.

91. Which combination figure best represents the relationship between mosquitoes, ants and
insects?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

92. Which of the following combinations of circles best represents athletes, sprinters and marathon
runners ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

  12 
93. Which of the following combinations of figures best represents males, dogs and pets ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

94. T is the son of P. S is the son of Q. T is married to R. R is Q’s daughter. How is S related to T?
(1) Brother (2) Uncle (3) Father-in-law (4) Brother-in-law

Directions (Questions 95-96) : Study the following information to answer these questions.
In a class, 30% of the students gave their names to participate in the NSS and 75% to participate
in the NCC. Three students participate in neither of these two and six students wanted to
participate in both.
95. What percentage of student wants to participate only in the NSS ?
(1) 30% (2) 25% (3) 15% (4) 20%

96. What percentage of students wants to participate in only one programme - either NSS or NCC ?
(1) 85% (2) 90% (3) 75% (4) 20%

Directions (Questions 97-100) : Each of these questions has an assertion (A) and reason (R). Mark
answer as
(1) if both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) if both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) if (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) if (A) is false but (R) is true.
97. Assertion (A) : Devaluation of a currency may promote export.
Reason (R) : Price of the country’s products in the international market may fall due to
devaluation.

98. Assertion (A) : Fiscal deficit is greater than budgetary deficit.

Reason (R) : Fiscal deficit is the borrowing from the Reserve Bank of India plus other
liabilities of the government to meet its expenditure.

99. Assertion (A) : According to statistics, more female children are born each year than male
children in India.
Reason (R) : In India, the death rate of a male child is higher than that of the female
child.

100. Assertion (A) : Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting Bt gene.
Reason (R) : The Bt gene is derived from a bacterium.

  13 
101. The Election Commission of India was set up in the year______.
(1) 1948 (2) 1949 (3) 1950 (4) 1951

102. India signed the famous ‘Panchsheel Treaty’ on peaceful coexistence with
(1) Nepal. (2) China. (3) Pakistan. (4) Bangladesh.

103. Which one of the following places in Kashmir Valley is also known by the name ‘The Meadow
of Gold’?
(1) Gulmarg (2) Pahalgam (3) Sonamarg (4) Yusmarg

104. Which city in Karnataka is also known as its cultural capital and is famous for its various
temples, palaces, forts and old churches?
(1) Bangalore (2) Mysore (3) Hubli (4) Shimoga

105. Which state is known for its renowned Maheshwari and Chanderi saris?
(1) Karnataka (2) Madhya Pradesh (3) Tamil Nadu (4) Rajasthan

106. Which fort in Rajasthan is a blend of Hindu and Mughal architecture constructed by Raja Man
Singh in 1592?
(1) Chittorgarh Fort (2) Ranthambhore Fort (3) Amber fort (4) Jaisalmer Fort

107. Who among the following has constructed the famous ‘Shree Shirdi Sai Mandir’ in holy town
of Shirdi, Maharashtra?
(1) Shri Balaji Vasant (2) Shreemant Gopalrao
(3) Baba Murlidhar (4) None of these

108. ‘YOUR STYLE. YOUR STORE.’ is the tag line of which of the following retail chains?
(1) Lifestyle (2) Pantaloons (3) Landmark (4) Shoppers Stop

109. The popular fabric and apparel brand J. Hampstead belongs to____________.
(1) Raymond Group (2) Aditya Birla Group
(3) Dinesh Suiting (4) Siyaram Silk Mills.

110. Which one of the following personalities is the brand ambassador of popular brand HP personal
computers?
(1) Priyanka Kapoor (2) Deepika Padukone
(3) Anushka Sharma (4) Kangana Ranaut

111. ‘Mia’, the workwear jewellery is from the house of _________.

(1) Joyalukkas Jewellers (2) Malabar Jewellers
(3) Kalyan Jewellers (4) Tanishq

112. Which one of the following clothing brands was the title sponsor of the Mr. India 2016 held in
November 2016?
(1) Peter England (2) Van Heusen (3) Park Avenue (4) Louis Philippe

  14 
113. ‘Agile’, is the sports lifestyle brand from the house of_________.
(1) Shoppers Stop (2) Reliance Trend (3) Lifestyle (4) Pantaloons

114. ‘Yepme’ a popular fashion and sportswear brand belongs to______.

(1) China (2) USA (3) UK (4) India

115. Which one of the following clothing brands is not owned or marketed by Raymond Group?
(1) ColorPlus (2) Arrow (3) Park Avenue (4) Parx

116. Who has been appointed as the 44th Chief Justice of India?
(1) R M Lodha (2) H L Dattu (3) T S Thakur (4) J S Khehar

117. Which of the following retail stores belongs to Aditya Birla Retail Group?
(1) Big Bazaar (2) Croma (3) Hypercity (4) More

118. Who has become the Prime Minister of Britain in July 2016?
(1) Theresa May (2) David Cameron (3) Boris Johnson (4) None of these

119. Daikin is considered world's number one air conditioning company from __________.
(1) China (2) South Korea (3) Japan (4) Indonesia

120. Who won the Wimbledon Women’s Singles tennis title 2016?
(1) Angelique Kerber (2) Serena Williams
(3) Venus Williams (4) Garbine Muguruza

121. Which of the following is the bank established by BRICS group of countries?
(1) New Strategic Bank (2) World Development Bank
(3) Fortune Development Bank (4) New Development Bank

122. Who among the following is the CEO of 'Google'?

(1) Sunder Pichai (2) Satya Nadella (3) Chuck Robbins (4) Mark Zuckerberg

123. Shimon Peres who passed away in September 2016 was the former Prime Minister, President
and most eminent elder statesman of _________.
(1) Egypt (2) Israel (3) Jordan (4) Turkey

124. Anirban Lohiri is a well known Indian player of ____________.

(1) Chess (2) Golf (3) Cricket (4) Billiards

125. Brazil won the gold medal in men’s football finals in the Rio 2016 Olympics by defeating
which country?
(1) Argentina (2) Germany (3) Spain (4) Mexico

  15 
Directions (Questions 126-137): Read the following caselets and answer the questions given at the
end of each caselet on the basis of information provided.

Caselet-I
The Dabba Food Factory is a set up engaged in serving and home delivering vegetarian meals
including breakfast, lunch and dinner. It has got 32 outlets in and around Delhi and is known for
reasonably priced, well cooked and clean food. It has also got tiffin supply system. Most of its outlets
being in the vicinity of educational institutions such as university, it caters to about 4000 students on
a regular basis. Its turnover at present is approximately 6 crore per annum. Very recently, it has got
an offer from an international chain - LpTune - for franchise tie up at a license fee of 4 crore per
annum. With LpTune brand name, it will be able to cater to the corporate clients too for their regular
tiffin requirements and it will be able to charge a price premium of almost 10%. A recent survey
indicated that its student population is likely to shift to another similar set up the moment the Dabba
Food Factory becomes a franchise of LpTune.
126. The assumption made by students in shifting to another supplier on Dabba Food Factory tying
up with LpTune is that
(1) the food will become costly. (2) it will no more serve homecooked food.
(3) the quality will suffer. (4) None of these

127. Financially, the Dabba Food Factory on tying up with LpTune will
(1) be better off. (2) be worse off.
(3) Nothing can be said (4) None of these

128. The Dabba Food Factory food post-tie up with LpTune will
(1) be as costly as it is at present.
(2) become more costly as compared to present.
(3) be lesser costly as compared to present.
(4) None of these

129. At present, the major share of the Dabba Food Factory's customers comes from
(1) households. (2) corporates. (3) students. (4) None of these

Caselet-II
Established in the 1980s, CavinKare has been immensely successful in tapping the rural and
semi-urban markets and is widely recognized as a pioneer of sachet marketing and mass marketing in
rural areas. In 1983, CavinKare launched Chik Shampoo in 10 ml packs. It later launched the product
in 50 paise sachets, especially for the rural markets. In 1992, Chik Shampoo became the numero uno
shampoo brand in South India. Where MNCs sold products in fancy bottles and to big stores,
CavinKare concentrated on small retail shops in rural markets. In 1999, CavinKare began to work on
its plans of having a national presence. The market share of Chik Shampoo grew from 5.6% in 2005

  16 
to 23% in 2010. In 2011, Chik Shampoo was a 100 crore brand and emerged as Number One
brand of rural India, and 65% of its sales were generated in rural India. The company logged sales of
700 crore in 2015 and has set an ambitious sales target of 5,000 crore by 2020.
130. CavinKare is a
(1) national presence company. (2) MNC
(3) regional company. (4) None of these

131. Most of the MNCs have been selling their shampoo products in
(1) urban big stores. (2) urban small stores.
(3) rural areas. (4) None of these

132. 65% of the revenues of the CavinKare in 2011 came from

(1) urban markets. (2) rural markets of South India.
(3) rural markets of India. (4) None of these

133. If CavinKare's revenues have been doubling since 2015, what will be its revenue in 2020?
(1) 5,000 crore (2) 5,200 crore
(3) 5,600 crore (4) None of these

Caselet-III
Raj Mal Jewellers is a leading jewellery firm in Hyderabad and they have a reputation of producing
the best quality gold jewellery in Hyderabad. With one of their sons Sumeet having completed his
MBA from a ranked management school, they have embarked upon renovation of the firm. With the
gold rates sky rocketing, they decided to buy gold in bulk as an investment. At 28,000 per 10 gm,
they bought gold worth 270 crore and again as the rates went up, they bought gold worth 396
crore at 32,000 per 10 gm. The international market crashed and they had to sell the entire gold at
29,000 per 10 gm to repay the interest free friendly loan.
134. Raj Mal Jewellers bought gold assuming that
(1) the market rate will keep going up in future too.
(2) Sumeet will be able to come up with an innovative scheme.
(3) the demand for jewellery will go up.
(4) None of these

135. Raj Mal Jewellers sold off the gold assuming that the
(1) market rate will keep going up in future too.
(2) market rate may further go down.
(3) demand for jewellery will go down.
(4) None of these

  17 
136. As a buying and selling decision, Raj Mal Jewellers
(1) gain from the deal. (2) lose in the deal.
(3) Nothing can be said about the deal. (4) None of these

137. The buying and selling decision of Raj Mal Jewellers was a/an
(1) part of the renovation plan.
(2) part of the routine business process.
(3) international gold market driven decision.
(4) None of these

Directions (Questions 138-150): In each of these questions a passage is followed by several

inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide
upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer as
(1) if the inference is 'definitely true' i.e., it directly follows from the facts given in the passage;
(2) if the inference is 'probably true' though not definitely true in the light of the facts given;
(3) if you think the inference is 'probably false' though not definitely false in the light of the
facts given; and
(4) if you think the inference is 'definitely false' i.e., it contradicts the given facts.
Passage-I
Economic liberalization and globalization have put pressures on Indian industry, particularly on the
service sector, to offer quality products and services at low costs and with high speed. Organizations
have to compete with unequal partners from abroad. It is well recognized that developing countries
like India are already behind other countries technologically. In many areas, although some of them,
particularly India, boast of huge scientific and technical manpower. In addition to this, if an
entrepreneur or industrialist has to spend a lot of his time, money and energy in dealing with
unpredictable services and in negotiating with the local bureaucracy, it can have a significant
dampening effect on business.
138. Indian service industry was more comfortable before economic liberalization.

139. India at present is to some extent at par with the developed countries in terms of technological
development.

140. Foreign companies are more equipped than domestic companies to provide quality service in
good time.

141. No other developing country except India claims that it has highly trained technical manpower.

  18 
 Passage-II
It is generally accepted that if the monsoon is poor in any given year, it will have a significantly
negative impact on the lives of millions. Some lives, such as those of the farmers, are affected
directly because of poor crop yield; others are affected indirectly as the economic growth slows
down. Similarly, the years with good monsoon bring smile and prosperity to the lives of many. For
instance, India recorded a sharp jump in its rate of growth after years of good performance in the
recent years. This unfortunate cycle affects the lives of millions of poor and hapless. But it need not
be this way. In the jargon of financial economics, monsoon risk is a diversifiable risk. In other words,
it is an insurance risk. Though one might wonder who will provide the insurance against poor
monsoons if everyone is adversely affected by poor monsoon? The answer is – the international
investor.
142. Majority of the people outside India are not affected by the poor monsoon in India.

143. Monsoons in India have been good only in the alternate years during the past few years.

144. There has been considerable growth in India's economy during the recent years.

145. Scanty monsoon adversely affects the lives of only the poor people in India.

146. All over the world, diversifiable risks are always covered by the insurance companies.

Passage-III
One of the greatest advantages a company has over its competitors is a system of distribution and
product support, i.e., the dealer network. Dealers play a vital role in helping a company build and
maintain close relationships with customers and gain insights into how they can improve their
products and services to fulfill customer needs. And a company can achieve customer loyalty through
dealer loyalty. Therefore, it must make efforts to build their competence, for more effective
performance. Dealers who are long established members of a company can get close to customers,
but to tap the full potential of such dealers, a company must forge extremely close ties with them and
integrate them into its critical business systems. When treated this way dealers can serve as a source
of market intelligence, as proxies for customers, as consultants and the dealers. Although these
investments take the usual form of money, it also includes softer aspects such as training and
development.
147. The customers are more forthright in giving their feedback about a product or a service to the
dealers than to the staff of the company or a surveyor.

148. Trusted dealers are the direct link between the company and the customers.

149. Developing a network of dealers is more useful while launching a new product or service.

150. The company should insist dealer loyalty to the extent that the dealer will not sell similar
products of any other company.

  19 
Question No. 1 (Marks: 30)

Draw a detailed scene depicting any ONE of the following.

i. A traffic crossing as viewed from inside a car
ii. A community festival celebration
iii. A street play

Scene chosen: _____________________________________________________________________

Question No. 2 (Marks: 30)

Based on ONE of the following themes, design and colour a print for a T-shirt.
i. 'Music is the Soul of Life'
ii. 'Save the Future of Wildlife'
iii. 'Dignity for the Aged'
Write in about 50 words explaining the concept.
Theme chosen: ____________________________________________________________________

Concept:
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
Question No. 3 (Marks: 40)
Choose any ONE pair of opposites and depict them through pictorial representation in the boxes
given below.
i. Crispy and soggy
ii. Cluttered and uncluttered
iii. Balanced and unbalanced
Write the caption under each box.
Option chosen: ___________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________
 SITUATION TEST SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. The duration of the test is TWO hours.

2. The test is to design ONE three dimensional (3D) model.
3. You are provided with a packet containing design materials. Check the completeness of the materials
immediately on receipt.
4. The materials permitted to be used in the design are:
a) Items listed in Para 3 above.
b) Items permitted to be brought by the candidate for the test as listed in the Admit Card.
5. Make optimum use of the permitted materials.
6. Neither any additional material will be provided nor used.
7. Use of colour pencils and marker pens is not allowed.
8. For write up, an Answer Sheet is provided separately. No extra sheet will be given.
9. Put your signature on the Answer Sheet in the space provided only. Entering personal particulars/any
identification mark elsewhere on the Answer Sheet or on the design will lead to cancellation of
candidature.
10. Candidate has to leave the Model, Answer Sheet, this Question Paper and the leftover Para 3 materials
on the table after the test.

QUESTION:
Choose any ONE of the following options to make a three dimensional (3D) model:
1. An indoor play area for kindergarten children
2. A flower vase with form and texture inspired by the theme 'Storm'
3. A vegetable cart to be operated by a differently-abled person

Write down the option chosen by you on the Answer Sheet. Explain the concept relating it to your created
model in about 100 words.
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QUESTION:
Choose any ONE of the following options to make a three dimensional (3D) model:
1. A local eatery (dhaba) on a highway reflecting the local culture
2. A badge for delegates for a conference on 'Saving the Environment for 22nd Century'
3. A handbag for a doctor who is also the mother of a young child

Write down the option chosen by you on the Answer Sheet. Explain the concept relating it to your created
model in about 100 words.
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QUESTION:
Choose any ONE of the following options to make a three dimensional (3D) model:
1. A kitchen reflecting the lifestyle of a family
2. A wind-chime for a sailor's home
3. A park bench for senior citizens inspired by nature

Write down the option chosen by you on the Answer Sheet. Explain the concept relating it to your created
model in about 100 words.
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Evaluation Criteria:
1. Originality of concept.
2. Skills demonstrated through the creative use of material.
3. Neatness of final model.
4. Write-up of the concept explaining the model.