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 Test Booklet Code A

Stage-II

NTSE TEST SERIES

National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
for
Stage-1 Qualified Students
Mental Ability and Scholastic Aptitude Test

TEST PAPER-13
 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

Time : 3 Hours
TEST-13 M.M. : 200

Complete Syllabus Test

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :

1. There are 200 questions in this test. All are compulsory.

2. The question paper consists of two sections (Section-A : Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Section-B :
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT))
3. Section A (MAT) contains 50 questions and Section B (SAT) contains 150 questions in two parts.
(Part-I : Language Test : 50 questions and Part-II : Aptitude Test : divided into three sections. Section-I is
having 40 questions of Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology), Section-II is having 20 questions from
Mathematics and Section-III is having 40 questions of Social Science.
4. Use only a ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.
5. The mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
6. Darken only one circle for each question.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on the Answer sheet.
8. Each question carries 1 mark. There is 0.333 marks negative marking for every wrong answer.

Section A : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

Choose the correct answer :

Directions (Q1 to Q3) : In each series one term is 5. War : Death : : Smoke : _____
wrong. Find out the wrong term.
(1) Burning
1. 6, 7, 9, 13, 26, 37, 69
(2) Pollution
(1) 7 (2) 26
(3) 69 (4) 37 (3) Fire
2. 1, 3, 10, 36, 152, 760, 4632 (4) Cigarette
(1) 3 (2) 36
Directions (Q6 to Q8) : In the following questions find
(3) 4632 (4) 760 one that does not belong to that group.
3. 157.5, 45, 15, 6, 3, 2, 1 6. (1) Repair (2) Mend
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Trouble (4) Correct
(3) 6 (4) 157.5
7. (1) Employed (2) Trained
4. In a certain code 'TEAMWORK' is written as
'NBFUJQNV' and 'SOME' is written as 'PTDL'. How (3) Hired (4) Commissioned
is 'PERSON' written in that code?
8. (1) Heart (2) Lung
(1) QDOOPT (2) SFQMNR
(3) QDOMNR (4) SFQOPT (3) Kidney (4) Eye

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Mental Ability Test NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A)

9. A is son of B while B and C are sisters to one 17. Which of the following cars is carrying people to
another, E is the mother of C. If D is the son of E, Chandigarh?
which of the following statements is correct? (1) Y (2) X
(1) E is brother of B (3) Either X or Y (4) Data inadequate
(2) D is cousin of A Directions (Q18 to Q20) : These questions are based
(3) B and D are sisters on the given diagram in which, the circle stands for
honest, the hexagon stands for politicians, the triangle
(4) D is the maternal uncle of A
stands for the rural and the rectangle stands for the
Directions (Q10 to Q12) : Complete the following series. popular.
10. __cb__aca__bba__ac__bacac
Rural
(1) abccb (2) ababa 5
Honest
(3) bcbca (4) cbaca 3
11. __ab__caa__bbcaa__b__caaa 2 7
(1) cabab (2) abaab Politicians 4 1 6

(3) bccaa (4) baaba 9

12 11 8
12. a__bbc__aab__cca__bbcc Popular
(1) bacb (2) acba
(3) abba (4) caba
18. Non-rural, dishonest and non-popular politicians are
13. A walks 4 m north. He turns to his right and covers indicated by the region
a distance of 12 m and now he turns to his left (1) 9 (2) 12
and covers a distance of 12 m. Find the distance
between his starting point and end point. (3) 8 (4) 10
19. Rural politicians who are neither honest nor popular
(1) 18.5 m (2) 21.5 m
are indicated by the region
(3) 20 m (4) 23 m
(1) 5 (2) 2
14. What was the day of the week on 12 Jan, 1979?
(3) 3 (4) 6
(1) Thursday (2) Friday
20. Rural honest person who are neither popular nor
(3) Saturday (4) Sunday politician are indicated by region
Directions (Q15 to Q17) : A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H (1) 9 (2) 6
are eight friends travelling in three different cars, viz X, (3) 2 (4) 4
Y and Z with at least two in one car to three different
21. If D = 4 and COVER = 63, then BASIS = ?
places, viz Delhi, Chandigarh and Agra.
(1) 49 (2) 50
There is at least one female member in each car. D is
travelling with G to Delhi but not in car Y. A is travelling (3) 54 (4) 55
with only H in car Z but not to Chandigarh. C is not 22. The water image of 29G679483JL is
travelling with either D or E. F and D are studying in the (1) (2)
same only girls college. H, B and G are studying in the
(3) (4)
same only boys college.
23. Find the missing number.
15. Which of the following represents group of
females?
13 4 165
(1) F, C, A (2) F, G
3 2 7
(3) D, C, A (4) Data inadequate
16. In which of the following cars is C travelling? ? 11 14
(1) X (2) Y (1) 25 (2) 7
(3) Z (4) Either X or Y (3) 5 (4) 2

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A) Mental Ability Test

24. Complete the figure matrix. Answer figure

(1) (2) (3) (4)

28. If the following cube is turned twice to the right,
which will be hidden numbers?

?
5
3
2
4 1

(1) (2) 6
(1) 1, 2, 5 (2) 2, 3, 5
(3) 3, 4, 6 (4) 1, 2, 6
29. In the morning a man started walking positioning
(3) (4)
his back towards the sun. After sometime, he
turned left, then turned right and then towards the
Directions (Q25 to Q27) : Given below are the two sets left again. In which direction is he going now?
of figure, problem figure and answer figure marked (1),
(2), (3) and (4) which figure would be the next in the (1) North (2) East
series of problem figure? (3) West (4) South
25. Problem figure Directions (Q.30 to Q.32) : A cube painted blue on all
the faces is cut into 125 cubes of equal size. Now
answer the following questions.
30. How many cubes are not painted on any face?

Answer figure (1) 27 (2) 16

(3) 8 (4) 54
31. How many cubes are painted on one face?
(1) 8 (2) 54
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) 16 (4) 36
26. Problem figure
32. How many cubes are painted on two faces?
(1) 8 (2) 54
(3) 16 (4) 36

Answer figure 33. A train consists of 12 bogies, each bogie is 15 m

long. The train crosses a telegraph post in 18 sec.
Due to some problem, two bogies were detached.
Now, the train will cross the telegraph post in
(1) 20 sec. (2) 12 sec.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) 18 sec. (4) 15 sec.
27. Problem figure
34. What percent is 3% of 5%?
(1) 60% (2) 30%
U (3) 40% (4) 6%

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Mental Ability Test NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A)

35. A watch, which gains 5 seconds in every 3 minutes Answer figure

is set right at 6 am. What is the true time in the
afternoon of the same day when the watch
indicated 3 pm? (1) (2)
(1) 3 : 30 pm
(2) 3 pm
(3) 2 : 45 pm (3) (4)

(4) 3 : 15 pm
39. If '–' means '×', '+' means '', '×' means '+' and ''
Directions (Q.36 to Q.38) : The following questions means '–', then 9  12 + 3 × 7 – 2 = ?
contain a set of three figures X, Y and Z showing
sequence of folding of piece of paper. Figure (Z) shows (1) 19 (2) 2
the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. (3) –3 (4) 17
These three figures are followed by four answer figures
from which you have to choose a figure which would 40. How many pairs of letters are there in the word
most closely resemble the unfolded form of figure (Z). "DONATE" which have as many letters between
them as they have in the English alphabets?
36. Problem figure
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
41. Find the odd one among the following.
X Y Z (1) AFD (2) MON
Answer figure
(3) LUX (4) KTL
42. Which of the following Venn diagrams best
(1) (2) represents the group of country state and city?

(3) (4)
(1) (2)

37. Problem figure

(3) (4)

Answer figure 43. Find the total number of triangle and quadrilateral
in the following figure.

(1) (2)

(1) 15 (2) 19
(3) (4)
(3) 21 (4) 22

38. Problem figure 44. If the time in a clock which is running 15 minutes
slow, is 7 hours 15 minutes in the mirror, then the
actual time is
(1) 4 h 40 mins (2) 4 h 45 mins
X Y Z (3) 5 h (4) 4 h 30 mins

(4)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A) Mental Ability Test / Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)
45. In which of the following answer figures the position
of the dot satisfies the same conditions as in the
problem figure?
Problem figure :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
46. If it is possible to form a meaningful word with the
first, second, fifth, sixth and eighth letters of the
word 'ATMOSPHERE', which letter will be the
second in that word? If more than one such words
can be formed, give "M" as the answer.
(1) S (2) P
(3) A (4) M
Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)
(Part-I : Language Test)
Directions (Q51 to Q60) : Read the given passages
carefully and answer the following questions by choosing
the most suitable option.
A. In this age, when people's involvement in day-to-
day matters is mounting, it is the electronic
system that offers a potential service infrastructure
which could, with careful programming, probably
take care of a very large element of what we
describe as mechanical, procedural governance
without all the distortions, corruptions and
harassments which constitute the daily misery of
the average citizens. Of course, the electronic
system will only behave to the extent that they are
properly programmed, but this is not a difficult job
today.
(5)
Directions (Q.47 to Q.49) : Answer these questions
referring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given
below :
2PJ@8LB1VQ6GW9KCD35FR7AY4
47. Three of the following four are similar in relation to
their positions in the above sequence and hence
form a group. Which one does not belong to that
group?
(1) QK5 (2) L6D

(3) PL 
(4) 1G
48. P@L is to Y75 in the same way as 1 is to
(1) R (2) 5D
(3) 5 (4) F3
49. Which of the following indicates the total number
of symbols, letters and numbers respectively,
which get eliminated from the sequence when every
second element of the sequence from your left is
dropped from the sequence?
(1) 5, 8, 2 (2) 6, 9, 1
(3) 5, 8, 1 (4) 5, 9, 1
50. If 'pen' is table, 'table' is 'fan', 'fan' is 'chair' and
'chair' is 'roof', on which of the following a person
sit?
(1) Fan (2) Chair
(3) Roof (4) Table
Once we move our minds beyond the use of
electronic revolution for business efficiency and
higher profit abilities and apply it to the task of
reducing the routine repetitive activities of
governance, we will conserve time and energy for
more important and creative tasks. We can rather
say that electronic revaluation can make far better
and more effective handling of real everyday
problems, in addition to providing the basic service
of computerized information banks. Even in less
developed conditions, the potential of the electronic
network to take over a great deal of what is called
bureaucratic 'paper work' has been vividly
demonstrated. Licensing system involving endless
form-filling in endless copies; tax matters which
Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)
baffle millions of citizens, particularly those who
have nothing to hide; election systems which
require massive supervisory mobilization of
referendums based on mini-scale samples which
seldom reflect the reality at the social base. At all
these points, the electronic advantage is seen and
recognized. However, we must proceed further.
It is not a difficult task to foresee a situation where
the citizen with his personalized computer entry
card, his 'number', is able to enter the electronic
network for a variety of needs now serviced by
regiments of officials, high and low. In fact, it is
already happening in a lot of countries. From
simple needs, we will move to a more complex
servicing, and ultimately into creativity or what is
called 'artificial intelligence'.
51. Which of the following is the limitation of the
electronic system?
(1) It will act only as the way it is programmed
(2) It needs trained personnel to operate
(3) It is a very costly technology
(4) All of these
52. What is meant by 'artificial intelligence' in the
passage?
(1) Ability to think
(2) Intelligence of computer
(3) Intelligence of human brain
(4) Providing information
53. Which of the following is the basic service provided
by the electronic system?
(1) Taking care of routine activities
(2) Defending the administrative structure
(3) Reducing the repetitive activities
(4) Providing store of information
54. The author's main objective seems to be
(1) To make a strong case for the electronic
system
(2) To visualize the future use of computer
(3) To point out pitfalls in the administrative system
(4) All of these
(6)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A)
55. In his presentation the author seems to be
(1) Pessimistic (2) Optimistic
(3) Worried (4) Critical
B. Keshav Singh has sold red onions at a market in
South Delhi every day for the past half-century.
Perched on an upturned crate, wrapped tight
against the chill air, he offers pyaz, a staple for
much Indian cooking, for 60 rupees a kilo, the
most he can remember. Business is brisk but most
customers pick up only a small handful of onions.
That is just as well-wholesale supplies are tight, he
says, and the quality is poor.
As India’s economy grows by some 9% a year,
food prices are soaring. In late December the
commerce ministry judged that food inflation had
reached 18.3%, with pricey vegetables mostly to
blame. Officials have made some attempts to
temper the rise in the past month-scrapping import
taxes for onions, banning their export and ordering
low-priced sales at government-run shops. But
there is no quick fix.
Heavy rain in the west of India brought a rotten
harvest. Vegetables from farther afield-including
apolitically sensitive delivery from a neighbouring
country-are costly to move on India’s crowded,
potholed roads. Few refrigerated lorries and poor
logistics mean that much of each harvest is
wasted. Newspapers allege hoarders are cashing
in.
The biggest problems are structural. Food
producers, hampered by land restrictions, archaic
retail networks and bad infrastructure, fail to meet
extra demand from consumers. It was estimated in
October that a 39% rise in income per person in
the previous five years might have created an extra
220 million regular consumers of milk, eggs, meat
and fish. Supplies have not kept up with this
potential demand.
The broader inflation rate may be a less eye-
watering problem than what the onions suggest.
The central bank has lifted interest rates steadily
in the past year and is expected to do so again
later this month. Headline inflation fell to 7.5% in
November, down by just over a percentage point
from October, though it is still above the central
bank's forecast of 5.5% for March.
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)

56. The usage of the phrase 'cashing in' in the passage 61. No sooner had they / met than /
can possibly mean
(1) (2)
(1) Buffering they were engaged. / No Error
(2) Bailing out (3) (4)
(3) Profiting 62. Everyone going on a / school trip to Vienna /
(4) Paying (1) (2)

57. Which of the following is most similar in meaning must bring their passport. / No Error
to the word ‘tight’ as used in the passage? (3) (4)
(1) Firm 63. Even though she is over seventy, /
(2) Limited (1)

(3) Tense she still enjoyed gardening and spending time /

(4) Taut (2)

58. Which of the following is possibly the most at the nursery tending to plants. / No Error
appropriate title for the passage? (3) (4)
(1) Food Inflation in India 64. The personnel of this / company is more /

(2) Food Imports in India (1) (2)

(3) Food Deficit Worldwide efficient than that company. / No Error

(3) (4)
(4) Of Onions and Vendors
65. It has been quite some time /
59. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to
the word ‘archaic’ as used in the passage? (1)

(1) Ancient since I last found myself /

(2)
(2) Modern
at the Victoria Terminus station. / No Error
(3) Straightforward
(3) (4)
(4) Simple
Directions (Q66 to Q68) : Five parts of a paragraph are
60. What can be said about the sale of onions at given. You are provided with the beginning (S1) and the
present as given in the passage? ending (S5) of this paragraph and other parts are
(1) People are buying more onions than they used jumbled up. Choose the correct order of the jumbled
to parts (P, Q and R) to create a meaningful and logical
paragraph.
(2) The sale of onions has picked up and is
unprecedented 66. S1 : You would have seen him every time you
board the bus.
(3) People are not buying as much as they used
to S2 : ______________________

(4) Vegetable vendors are unwilling to sell onions S3 : ______________________

Directions (Q61 to Q65) : The following sentences have
been divided into parts and each part is labelled as (1),
(2) and (3), respectively. Identify which part is
unacceptable in Standard English Usage. If there is no
mistake in any part, mark (4).
S4 : ______________________
S5 : He plays advocate, stopping passengers from
playing music loudly and irritating co-
passengers or settling disputes of vegetable
vendors.

(7)
Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A)

P : Even if you miss him there's hardly a chance Directions (Q69 & Q70) : The first sentence of each
he will miss you! paragraph is missing. Choose the most appropriate
option to complete the paragraph.
Q : Yes, we are talking about the conductor in a
bus. Have you ever imagined what it is to be 69. A : ___________________________________.
one? B : Firstly, it is not essential for you to have
R : His bag clinking with coins and his hands literary vocabulary in order to excel in
creative writing.
full of tickets.
C : And more importantly, weaving creative
Choose the correct option.
expressions depends upon creative imagery.
(1) RQP The visualization of thought, through simple
(2) QRP images improves your expression in writing.
(1) Creative writing is not a job of a man in the
(3) QPR
street
(4) PRQ
(2) Weaving expressions creatively is not a joke
67. S1 : One should not restrict one's knowledge to
(3) There are few things that you should know
books only
about creative writing
S2 : _________________________
(4) Creative writing entails few key responsibilities
S3 : _________________________
70. A : ___________________________________.
S4 : _________________________
B : Some Chinese travellers settled in Myanmar;
S5 : This expansion is necessary for a person's some went further west into India. There in
growth as a whole individual the hilly region of the northeast, they found
P : A complete mental, physical and emotional a homeland that they named Mizoram or the
grooming "Land of Highlanders".

Q : To allow the horizons of one’s knowledge to C : They couldn't have imagined a more exotic
expand place than this tiny piece of land! The new
settlers hoped for a prosperous and peaceful
R : In order to grow holistically one requires life.
Choose the correct option. (1) The exotic history of Myanmar is all due to
(1) RPQ Chinese nomads
(2) PQR (2) Hundreds of years ago, few settlers moved to
Myanmar in search of food and livelihood
(3) RQP
(3) Southern India came to the aid of Chinese
(4) QRP
travellers
68. S1 : Whatever happened last summer
(4) Many hundreds of years ago, large groups of
S2 : _________________________ people from China moved south to find new
S3 : _________________________ homes

S4 : _________________________ Directions (Q71 to Q75) : Fill in the blanks with the

most appropriate option.
S5 : Nothing could have been more cathartic
71. Many have been crying foul over the entry of
P : We not only lost all our friends
organized retail stores ________ concern over their
Q : Changed our lives completely impact on small store owners.
R : But also our childhood home (1) having expressed
Choose the correct option. (2) that expressed
(1) PQR (2) QPR (3) expressing
(3) RQP (4) PRQ (4) to express

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)

72. Biofuels are made from plant sources and for repairing such damage and reducing energy
________ available in abundance and can be 79
consumption energy-efficiency
reproduced on a massive scale, they form an
energy source that is potentially unlimited. measures at various sectors of our country. A legal
framework is thus now available for promoting
(1) since these sources are energy efficiency in all sectors of the economy.
(2) as the source is This framework is 80 the Energy
(3) since this source Conservation Act, 2001, the success of which
greatly depends on the people who take the lead
(4) as the sources are
in supporting this programme.
73. Unemployment is popularly believed to be
76. (1) led
________ which measures the economic condition
of a nation. (2) has led

(1) statistics (3) had been leading

(2) an index (4) have lead

(3) a norm 77. (1) emission of

(4) the section (2) emitting

74. The concept of job in the twentieth century (3) emitted
________ often equated with toil.
(4) emitting of
(1) is
78. (1) needs
(2) has been
(2) reasons
(3) was
(3) causes
(4) have been
(4) potential
75. The age of your body can seem to be quite an
obstacle on the road ________ long-held thinking 79. (1) for adopting
habits. (2) with adopting
(1) to alternate (3) by adopting
(2) for changed (4) in adoption of
(3) that changes 80. (1) all but
(4) to changing (2) quite the
Directions (Q76 to Q80) : Fill in the blanks with the
(3) noted
most appropriate option to complete the passage.
(4) nothing but
The increasing preference for commercial energy
Directions (Q81 to Q84) : Identify the odd one out.
76 to a sharp increase in the demand for
electricity and fossil fuels. This use of fossil fuels 81. (1) Severe (2) Acute

has resulted in 77 a huge quantity of (3) Pressing (4) Demanding

carbon dioxide causing serious environmental 82. (1) Surpassed (2) Outshone
damage. There is still a considerable 78 (3) Excessive (4) Outperform

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A)

83. (1) Stubbornly (2) Formally 92. Add insult to injury

(3) Adamantly (4) Rigidly (1) To intentionally insult someone

84. (1) Plunge (2) Decline (2) To remember old scars
(3) Plummet (4) Fall (3) To make things intolerable
Directions (Q85 to Q87) : Choose the most appropriate (4) To worsen an already unfavourable situation
antonym of the given capitalized word.
93. The rank and file
85. FLOURISHING
(1) The administrative section
(1) Drooping (2) Declining
(2) The ordinary members of a group, not the
(3) Fluctuating (4) Lacking leaders
86. INSURGENCY (3) The leaders of a group, not the ordinary
members
(1) Combat (2) Rebellion
(4) The extra staff
(3) Compliance (4) Dedicate
94. Best thing since sliced bread
87. EXACERBATE
(1) A worthy comeback
(1) Improving (2) Deteriorate

(3) Provide (4) Comfort (2) The best in the industry

Directions (Q88 & Q89) : Identify the most appropriate (3) A good invention or innovation
one word substitution for the given definition. (4) A case well presented
88. That which cannot be won over Directions (Q95 to Q97) : Identify the misspelled word.
(1) Invincible (2) Infallible 95. (1) Beneficiary (2) Emissary
(3) Inveterate (4) Inconceivable (3) Commitment (4) Renderring
89. The habit if sleep-walking 96. (1) Exclusivity (2) Compliment
(1) Evangelist (2) Ameliorate (3) Emmitted (4) Preference
(3) Somnambulism (4) Insomniac 97. (1) Appropriate (2) Anihilation
Directions (Q90 to Q94) : Identify the most appropriate (3) Rendezvous (4) Prejudiced
meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
Directions (Q98 to Q100) : Identify the synonym of the
90. A utopian scheme given capitalized word.
(1) An illusion 98. INCENDIARY
(2) A scheming idea (1) Fringe (2) Rising
(3) An unrealistic good plan (3) Anguish (4) Inflammatory
(4) A clever coup 99. CALLOUS
91. A hot potato (1) Elegant (2) Insensitive
(1) Immensely popular (3) Peaceful (4) Adamant
(2) A current, disputed topic/issue 100. INVEIGLE
(3) A reason for concern (1) Entice (2) Reprimand
(4) A lazy person (3) Togetherness (4) Dramatize

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-II : Aptitude Test)

SECTION-I

101. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate ‘a’ for 106. Water waves are
some time after which it decelerates at constant rate
(1) Transverse only
‘b’ to come to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, the
maximum velocity acquired by the car is given by (2) Both longitudinal and transverse

⎛ a2  b2 ⎞ (3) Longitudinal only

⎛ ab ⎞
(1) ⎜⎜ ab ⎟⎟ t (2) ⎜ ⎟t (4) Neither longitudinal nor transverse
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ab ⎠
107. If in a circuit, total power dissipation is 120 W,
⎛ ab ⎞ ⎛ ab ⎞ then the value of R is
(3) ⎜ ⎟t (4) ⎜ ⎟t
⎝ ab ⎠ ⎝a–b ⎠ R
102. In the arrangement shown, the pulleys are fixed and
ideal, the strings are light, m1 > m2 and S is a
spring balance which itself is massless. The reading
of S is (Take g as acceleration due to gravity) 2
S
12 V
(1) 6  (2) 12 
m2 m1 (3) 2  (4) 3 
108. In the given circuit the potential difference across
1 3  is
(1) (m1 + m2) g (2) (m1  m2 ) g
2
6
4m1m2 g 2m1m2 g A 2 D
(3) m1  m2 (4) m1  m2
2A
103. If the change in the value of g at a height h above 3
the surface of the earth is the same as at a depth
x below it, when both x and h are much smaller C
B 4
than the radius of the earth. Then
(1) 2 V (2) 4 V
(1) x = h (2) x = 2h
(3) 6 V (4) 10 V
h 109. A regular loop carrying a current i is situated near
(3) x  (4) x = h2
2 a long straight wire such that the wire is parallel to
one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of
104. A raft of wood (density 600 kg/m3) of mass 120 kg the loop. If a steady current I is established in the
floats in water. How much extra mass can be put wire as shown in the figure, the loop will
on the raft to make it just fully immersed?
i
(1) 80 kg (2) 120 kg
I
(3) 200 kg (4) 40 kg
105. A body falling from a height of 10 m rebounds from
a hard floor. It loses 20% of its initial energy during (1) Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire
the impact. How high will it rebound? (2) Move away from the wire
(1) 10 m (2) 20 m (3) Remain stationary
(3) 8 m (4) 18 m (4) Move towards the wire

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A)

110. The material used as control rods in a nuclear ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are
reactor is (1) Solid and liquid (2) Solid and solid
(1) Cadmium (2) Liquid sodium (3) Gas and liquid (4) Gas and solid
(3) Uranium (4) Graphite 117. The order of bond dissociation enthalpy is
111. A fish looking up through the water sees the (1) HCl > HF > HBr > HI
outside world contained in a circular horizon. If the
(2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
4 (3) HI > HCl > HBr > HF
refractive index of water is and the fish is 12 cm
3
(4) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
below the surface. What is the radius of the circle?
118. Consider the following :
(1) 12 × 3 × 5 cm (2) 12 × 3 × 7 cm Statement-I : Oxidising agents get reduced in a
chemical reaction.
123 5 Statement-II : Gain of electron(s) by an element
(3) cm (4) 12 cm
7 3 is called reduction.

112. A long sightedness person has a minimum Choose the correct option.
distance of distinct vision of 50 cm. He wants to (1) Both the statements are correct
reduce it to 25 cm. He should use a (2) Both the statements are incorrect
(1) Concave lens of focal length 50 cm (3) Only statement-I is correct
(2) Convex lens of focal length 50 cm (4) Only statement-II is correct
(3) Concave lens of focal length 25 cm 119. The substance injected by sting of wasps can be
(4) Convex lens of focal length 25 cm treated by neutralising it with
113. 100 g ice at 0°C is mixed with 10 g steam at (1) Milk of magnesia (2) Slaked lime
100°C. Find the final temperature of the mixture (3) Vinegar (4) Soap
[Take latent heat of fusion = 80 cal/g, latent heat
120. An element P with atomic number 13 combines
of vaporisation = 540 cal/g. Specific heat capacity
with another element Q with atomic number 8 to
of water = 1 cal/gK, Specific heat capacity of ice
form a compound having molecular formula
= 0.5 cal/gK.]
(1) PQ (2) P2Q3
(1) 0°C (2) 20°C
(3) P3Q (4) P4Q3
(3) 40°C (4) 50°C
121. Which of the given isoelectronic species has
114. A solution of NaOH contains 0.04 g of NaOH per maximum size?
litre. Its pH is
(1) Mg2+ (2) Al3+
(1) 10 (2) 9
(3) Ne (4) F–
(3) 11 (4) 12
122. Consider the given set of reactions
115. The shape of SF4 is LiAlH4 Hot & conc.
X [H]   Y 
H SO , 443K
 CH2 =CH2
2 4
(1) Tetrahedral
Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(2) See-saw
(1) CH3COOH, CH3CHO (2) CH3CHO, C2H5OH
(3) Square planar
(3) CH3COOH, C2H5OH (4) CH3CHO, CH3COOH
(4) Square pyramidal
123. 20 g of glucose is dissolved in 30 g water.
116. Type of Dispersed Dispersion Calculate the amount of water needed to prepare
colloid phase medium 100 g of 20% aqueous solution from the given
Gel Liquid Solid solution.
Aerosol A Gas (1) 50 g (2) 40 g
Sol Solid B (3) 20 g (4) 80 g

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

124. The number of electrons in 0.28 g of dinitrogen is (1) (i) - R, (ii) - P, (iii) - P, (iv) - Q, (v) - R
(1) 6.4 × 1023 (2) 14 × 1019 (vi) - Q, (vii) - R
(3) 8.4 × 1022 (4) 1.72 × 1025 (2) (i) - P, (ii) - R, (iii) - Q, (iv) - R, (v) - P
125. An element ‘X’ has Z electrons and (Z + 3) (vi) - Q, (vii) - P
neutrons. The mass number of ‘X’ is (3) (i) - Q, (ii) - Q, (iii) - R, (iv) - P, (v) - P
(1) 2Z + 3 (2) 2Z + 5 (vi) - P, (vii) - R
(3) Z + 3 (4) Z + 2 (4) (i) - R, (ii) - Q, (iii) - Q, (iv) - P, (v) - R
126. Carbon dioxide gas can be stored in the solid form (vi) - P, (vii) - Q
under 131. Which of the following fishes has a skeleton made
(1) High temperature and high pressure up of cartilage only?
(2) Low temperature and high pressure (1) Mystus (2) Anabas
(3) Low temperature and low pressure (3) Exocoetus (4) Trygon
(4) High temperature and low pressure 132. Which of the following are holocrine glands?
127. Select the correct group of hybrid varieties of (1) Salivary glands
pulses. (2) Sweat glands
(1) Sharbati Sonora, Shakti and Navjot (3) Sebaceous glands
(2) Vikram, Kaushal and Paras (4) Mammary glands
(3) Manak, Pusa 84 and K850 133. Edward's syndrome is caused due to an extra
(4) Kranti, Pusa 240 and Arun chromosome number

128. All of the following are examples of analogous (1) 18 (2) 13

organs, except (3) 5 (4) 22
(1) Eyes of Octopus and mammals 134. Which of the following is produced by natural killer
(2) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of cells that causes cytolysis of microbes entering in
Cucurbita the body?

(3) Sweet potato and potato (1) Heparin (2) Perforin

(4) Sting of bee and scorpion (3) Histamine (4) Cytokinin

129. Which of the following induces nodule formation in 135. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
the roots of leguminous plants? (1) Each semilunar valve is made up of two cusps
(1) Abscisic acid (2) Indole acetic acid (2) Open circulatory system is found in prawns,
(3) Metasystox (4) Thiodon mussels, cockroaches, etc.

130. Match the following columns and select the correct (3) In humans a single heart beat lasts for about
option. 0.8 seconds

Column-I Column-II (4) Blood flows twice through the human heart to
complete its circulation
(i) Red Sindhi (P) Exotic breeds
136. The function of the cell organelle, which is mainly
(ii) Jersey (Q) Cross breeds found in animal cells and whose function is same
(iii) Brown Swiss (R) Indigenous breeds as the polar caps of plant cells, is to help in
(iv) Frieswal (1) Protein synthesis
(v) Sahiwal (2) Transport of materials
(vi) Karan Swiss (3) Cell division
(vii) Gir (4) Keeping the cell clean

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A)

137. A pea plant having green and constricted pods 139. Which of the following enzymes digests proteins in
(Ggff) is crossed with a pea plant having green and acidic medium?
inflated pods (GgFf). Which of the following
(1) Trypsin
genotypes will not appear in their progeny?
(2) Rennin
(1) GGFf (2) ggFf
(3) Pepsin
(3) GgFF (4) ggff
(4) Peptidase
138. Which of the following diseases are caused by
Treponema pallidum and human papillomavirus, 140. During meiosis the synaptonemal complex is
respectively? formed in
(1) Genital herpes and Genital warts (1) Leptotene
(2) Syphilis and Genital warts (2) Zygotene
(3) Gonorrhoea and Chlamydiasis (3) Diplotene
(4) Chlamydiasis and Syphilis (4) Diakinesis

SECTION-II
141. 570 + 770 is divisible by D C
(1) 13 (2) 14
(3) 74 (4) 11

3n – 5
142. Product of all integers 'n' for which is also
n 1
an integer is A B
(1) 1000 cm2 (2) 500 cm2
(1) –2 (2) –729
(3) 900 cm2 (4) 3600 cm2
(3) 729 (4) –27
147. In given figure, O is the centre of circle and PT is
143. If ,  are roots of equation x2 + x + 1 = 0, then a tangent such that the length of tangent PT is
the value of 450 + 450 + ()450 is 16 cm and OP = 20 cm, then the radius of the
(1) 3 (2) 20 circle will be
(3) 9 (4) –11 T
144. If a, b, c, d be in AP such that the first two terms
are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial P
B O A
x2 – 2px + q, and the last two terms are the roots
s–q
of x2 – 2rx + s = 0, then can be equal to
r –p (1) 8 cm (2) 6 cm
(1) p + r (2) 1 (3) 12 cm (4) 14 cm
(3) 2 (4) –1 148. In the given figure, if O is the centre of the circle
and OBC is an isosceles triangle such that
145. px + 2y = 10
OB = BC, then the ratio of angle BCD to AOD
3x – 2y = 0 is
If above system of equation has integral solution, A
B
then the total number of factors of p3 will be
(1) 4 (2) 8 D C
O
(3) 2 (4) 16
146. If perimeter of following parallelogram whose one (1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 1
side is 10 cm, is 60 cm, then the sum of the
squares of the diagonals is equal to (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 3

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

149. D is the mid-point of AB, such that AE : EC = 156. If the mean of the variates x1, x2, …, xn is x , then
2 : 1 and EF = 8 cm, then length of BE is equal the mean of xi + 6i, (1  i  n) is
to
(1) x  n (2) x  6  n  1
A
(3) x  6n (4) x  3n  3
D E 157. Area of the triangle formed by lines y = m1x + c1,
y = m2x + c2 and x = 0 is
F
B C 1  c1 – c2 
2

(1) 16 cm (2) 24 cm (1) 2 m – m square units

2 1

(3) 64 cm (4) 32 cm
1  c1  c2 
2

x y z (2) 2 m  m square units

150. If   and x + 3y + 6z = 15, then which of 1 2
2 3 5
the following option is correct?
1 m1 – m2
30 75 (3) 2 c – c square units
(1) x  (2) y  2 1
41 41
45 45 1 c12  c22 – 2c1c2
(3) z  (4) x  square units
41 41 (4) 2 2
m2  m12  2m1m2
151. Value of 12 – 22 + 32 – 42 + …… – 10082 + 10092
158. Distance between the circumcenter and the
is equal to
centroid of a ABC is, where A(0, 0), B(9, 0) and
(1) 4, 55, 095 (2) 5, 09, 545 C(0, 6)
(3) 10, 09, 010 (4) 10, 19, 090 (1) 4 units
(2) 17 units
y 3  3y
341
152. If
2
 , then y is equal to
3y  1 91 (3) 15 units
7 13 13
(1) (2) (4) units
9 11 2
(3) 15 (4) 11 159. If sin = 5 sin( + 2), then tan( +) is equal to

 5 3
tan     
1
153. If tan 1  and tan 2  , then 3(1 + 2) (1) (2) – tan 
 1 2  1 2 2
will be
3 5
(3) – tan      (4) – tan   –  
(1) 45° (2) 135° 2 2
(3) 225° (4) 145° 160. If a right circular cone is divided by a plane parallel
to its base in two equal parts having same volume
⎛q⎞ then the ratio of the height of the original cone to
154. If p3–x q5x = px+5 q3x, then the value of x log ⎜ ⎟ is
⎝p⎠ the new smaller cone is
(1) log q (2) log p
h1
(3) log x (4) 1
h
155. If the perimeter of a triangle is 14 units, then the
number of distinct triangles with sides in integers
will be
1

(1) 4 (2) 24 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 2 3 : 1

(3) 18 (4) 6 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 2 :1

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A)

SECTION-III

161. The members of which estate enjoyed certain 168. Cockade was a
privileges by birth in the French society? (1) Skirt (2) Pant
(1) First estate (3) Cap (4) Socks
(2) Second estate 169. In 1815, representatives of the European powers
(3) Third estate who had collectively defeated Napolean met at
(4) First estate and Second estate Vienna
(1) To impose new taxes so as to increase
162. Assertion (A) : Strikes took place frequently in the
revenue
textile industry during 1896-1897, and in the metal
industry during 1902 in Europe. (2) To allow France to expand in future
Reason (R) : Workers united to stop work when (3) To draw up a settlement for Europe
they disagreed with employers about dismissals or (4) To establish conservatism and monarchy rule
work conditions.
170. Assertion (A) : Bernard suggested that there were
(1) A is true but R is false no barriers to economic growth in Vietnam.
(2) A is false but R is true Reason (R) : Vietnam had high population level
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct and low agricultural productivity.
explanation of A (1) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (2) A is false but R is true
explanation of A (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
163. Livre, a unit of currency discontinued in 1794 in explanation of A
(1) Germany (2) France (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) Britain (4) Japan explanation of A

164. Which of the following is the supreme commander 171. Gandhiji decided to launch a nationwide
of Armed forces? Satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act in

(1) The Prime Minister (2) The President (1) 1917 (2) 1919

(3) The Defence Minister (4) Chief Justice of India (3) 1920 (4) 1926
172. Ahmedabad is located in Gujarat on the banks of
165. Gujjar Bakarwals are a pastoralist community of
(1) Narmada River
(1) Gujarat (2) Maharashtra
(2) Tapi River
(3) Rajasthan (4) Jammu & Kashmir
(3) Sabarmati River
166. Cyrus McCormick invented the _______ in 1831.
(4) Krishna River
(1) Reaper (2) Walking plough
173. Assertion (A) : The first successful mechanized
(3) Disk ploughs (4) Tractors
textile mill was established in Mumbai in 1854.
167. Assertion (A) : Lord Dalhousie devised a policy
Reason (R) : The warm moist climate, a port,
that came to be known as the Doctrine of Lapse.
availability of raw material and skilled labour
Reason (R) : Awadh was annexed simply by with resulted in rapid expansion of the industry in the
the help of this policy. region.
(1) A is true but R is false (1) A is true but R is false
(2) A is false but R is true (2) A is false but R is true
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A explanation of A

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

174. Bombay was a group of _______ islands under (1) A is true but R is false
Portuguese control. (2) A is false but R is true
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(3) Seven (4) Eight explanation of A
175. Match the items of Column-I with the items of (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Column-II and choose the correct alternatives. explanation of A
Column-I Column-II 181. Which of them is not a Kharif crop?
(Authors) (Novels) (1) Groundnut (2) Soyabean
a. Samuel Richardson (i) Tom Jones (3) Bajra (4) Barley
b. Henry Fielding (ii) Pamela 182. Which of the following is the largest producer of
groundnut in India?
c. Charles Dicken (iii) Criminal
(1) Gujarat (2) Andhra Pradesh
d. Emile Zolas (iv) Pickwick Papers
(3) Tamil Nadu (4) Maharashtra
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
183. Assertion (A) : Copper is mainly used in electrical
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
cables, electronics and chemical industries.
176. Assertion (A) : Forests and wildlife are renewable Reason (R) : Copper is malleable, ductile and
resources. good conductor.
Reason (R) : Non-renewable resources take very (1) A is true but R is false
few years in their formation.
(2) A is false but R is true
(1) A is true but R is false
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(2) A is false but R is true explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 184. Maruti Udyog Limited is a type of
explanation of A
(1) Public sector industry
177. The Indian Wildlife Protection Act was implemented (2) Private sector industry
in
(3) Joint sector industry
(1) 1962 (2) 1972
(4) Cooperative sector industry
(3) 1977 (4) 1959
185. Assertion (A) : The first train steamed off from
178. The forests and wastelands belonging to Mumbai to Thane in 1853.
government, private individuals and communities
Reason (R) : Indian Railways is the largest public
are called
sector undertaking in the country.
(1) Reserved forests
(1) A is true but R is false
(2) Protected forests
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) Unclassed forests
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(4) Both (1) & (2) explanation of A
179. Which of the following is the first hydro-electric (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
power station in India? explanation of A
(1) Srisailam (2) Shivana Samudra 186. The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri
(3) Dehar (4) Bhakra is known as the

180. Assertion (A) : Jute is also known as ‘Golden (1) National Waterway No. 1
Fibre’. (2) National Waterway No. 2
Reason (R) : China is the leading producer of (3) National Waterway No. 3
Jute. (4) National Waterway No. 4

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A)

187. Ninety percent of the world population occupies 194. Literacy rate among women in India as per the
only _______ percent of the land area. census of 2011 is
(1) Ten (2) Twenty (1) 46% (2) 65%
(3) Thirty (4) Forty (3) 62% (4) 76%
188. Assertion (A) : Parent rock determines the colour, 195. Which of the following facts is incorrect about
texture, mineral content and permeability of soil. Parliament of a country?
Reason (R) : Flora, fauna and micro-organisms (1) Parliament is the final authority for making
affect the rate of humus formation. laws in the country
(1) A is true but R is false (2) Parliament has the power to grant pardon,
reprieve or remit of punishment or commute
(2) A is false but R is true
death sentences
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(3) Parliament exercise financial control over
explanation of A
government
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(4) Parliament can seek information about any
explanation of A
matter
189. The largest producer of bauxite in the world is
196. World development report is published by
(1) Australia (2) Africa
(1) NABARD (2) World Bank
(3) Antarctica (4) South America
(3) UNESCO (4) UNCTAD
190. Viticulture is
197. Life expectancy at birth in India for 2016 is,
(1) Cultivation of vegetables and flowers on a
(1) 60.8 (2) 61.8
commercial scale
(3) 62.8 (4) 67.6
(2) Cultivation of grapes
198. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005
(3) Rearing of silkworms (NREGA 2005) guarantees
(4) Breeding of fish (1) 50 days of employment in a year
191. In 1956, an act was passed in Sri Lanka to (2) 100 days employment in a year
recognise _______ as the only official language.
(3) 159 days employment in a year
(1) Tamil (2) Sinhala
(4) 200 days employment in a year
(3) English (4) Telugu
199. China provides the advantage of
192. Usually, a federation has
(1) Being close to the markets in Europe
(1) Two levels of government
(2) Being a cheap manufacturing location
(2) Three levels of government
(3) Having highly skilled engineers
(3) Four levels of government
(4) Having large number of English speaking
(4) Five levels of government youth
193. In Sri Lanka, which of the following differences 200. The total length of India from east to west direction
existed? is
(1) Linguistic (2) Religious (1) 3214 km (2) 2933 km
(3) Regionalism (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) 1722 km (4) 1436 km

  

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 Test Booklet Code A

Stage-II

NTSE TEST SERIES

National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
for
Stage-1 Qualified Students
Mental Ability and Scholastic Aptitude Test

TEST PAPER-13
ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS
 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

Time : 3 Hours
TEST-13 M.M. : 200

ANSWERS
1. (2) 41. (4) 81. (4) 121. (4) 161. (4)
2. (4) 42. (3) 82. (3) 122. (3) 162. (4)
3. (1) 43. (3) 83. (2) 123. (1) 163. (2)
4. (2) 44. (3) 84. (2) 124. (3) 164. (2)
5. (2) 45. (3) 85. (2) 125. (1) 165. (4)
6. (3) 46. (3) 86. (3) 126. (2) 166. (1)
7. (2) 47. (3) 87. (4) 127. (3) 167. (3)
8. (4) 48. (4) 88. (1) 128. (2) 168. (3)
9. (4) 49. (4) 89. (3) 129. (2) 169. (3)
10. (1) 50. (3) 90. (3) 130. (1) 170. (2)
11. (2) 51. (1) 91. (2) 131. (4) 171. (2)
12. (2) 52. (2) 92. (4) 132. (3) 172. (3)
13. (3) 53. (4) 93. (2) 133. (1) 173. (4)
14. (2) 54. (1) 94. (3) 134. (2) 174. (3)
15. (4) 55. (2) 95. (4) 135. (1) 175. (2)
16. (2) 56. (3) 96. (3) 136. (3) 176. (1)
17. (1) 57. (2) 97. (2) 137. (3) 177. (2)
18. (2) 58. (1) 98. (4) 138. (2) 178. (3)
19. (3) 59. (2) 99. (2) 139. (3) 179. (2)
20. (2) 60. (3) 100. (1) 140. (2) 180. (1)
21. (2) 61. (4) 101. (2) 141. (3) 181. (4)
22. (4) 62. (3) 102. (4) 142. (4) 182. (1)
23. (3) 63. (2) 103. (2) 143. (1) 183. (4)
24. (1) 64. (3) 104. (1) 144. (1) 184. (3)
25. (1) 65. (1) 105. (3) 145. (1) 185. (3)
26. (3) 66. (4) 106. (2) 146. (1) 186. (2)
27. (4) 67. (1) 107. (4) 147. (3) 187. (3)
28. (2) 68. (2) 108. (1) 148. (1) 188. (3)
29. (4) 69. (3) 109. (4) 149. (4) 189. (1)
30. (1) 70. (4) 110. (1) 150. (1) 190. (2)
31. (2) 71. (3) 111. (3) 151. (2) 191. (2)
32. (4) 72. (1) 112. (2) 152. (4) 192. (1)
33. (4) 73. (2) 113. (1) 153. (2) 193. (4)
34. (1) 74. (3) 114. (3) 154. (2) 194. (2)
35. (4) 75. (4) 115. (2) 155. (1) 195. (2)
36. (2) 76. (2) 116. (1) 156. (4) 196. (2)
37. (3) 77. (1) 117. (4) 157. (1) 197. (4)
38. (3) 78. (4) 118. (1) 158. (4) 198. (2)
39. (1) 79. (3) 119. (3) 159. (2) 199. (2)
40. (3) 80. (4) 120. (2) 160. (2) 200. (2)

(1)
 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

TEST-13

ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS

Section A : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

1. Answer (2)
2. Answer (4)
3. Answer (1)
4. Answer (2)
5. Answer (2)
6. Answer (3)
7. Answer (2)
8. Answer (4)
9. Answer (4)
10. Answer (1)
11. Answer (2)
12. Answer (2)
13. Answer (3)
14. Answer (2)
Number of odd days in (1600 + 300) years = 0 + 1 = 1
78 years = (19 leap years + 59 ordinary years)
= (38 + 59) odd days = 97 odd days
= 6 odd days
12 days of January have 5 odd days
 total odd days = 1 + 6 + 5 = 5 odd days
 Desired day as Friday.
15. Answer (4)
16. Answer (2)
17. Answer (1)
Solution for Q. 15 to Q. 17
X (Delhi) Y (Chandigarh) Z (Agra)
C A
G F H
E B H


(2)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

18. Answer (2)

19. Answer (3)
20. Answer (2)
21. Answer (2)
22. Answer (4)
23. Answer (3)
24. Answer (1)
25. Answer (1)
26. Answer (3)
27. Answer (4)
28. Answer (2)
29. Answer (4)
30. Answer (1)
31. Answer (2)
32. Answer (4)
33. Answer (4)
34. Answer (1)
35. Answer (4)
36. Answer (2)
37. Answer (3)
38. Answer (3)
39. Answer (1)
40. Answer (3)
41. Answer (4)
All except KTL, there is a vowel and two consonants.
42. Answer (3)
43. Answer (3)
44. Answer (3)
45. Answer (3)
46. Answer (3)
47. Answer (3)
48. Answer (4)
49. Answer (4)
50. Answer (3)

  

(3)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A)

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-I : Language Test)

51. Answer (1)

52. Answer (2)
53. Answer (4)
54. Answer (1)
55. Answer (2)
56. Answer (3)
57. Answer (2)
58. Answer (1)
59. Answer (2)
60. Answer (3)
61. Answer (4)
62. Answer (3)
Pronoun error - ‘his/her’ is required in place of ‘their’.
63. Answer (2)
Tense error - ‘enjoys’ is the correct form.
64. Answer (3)
Comparison error - ‘personnel’ of one company has to be compared with the personnel of the other company.
So the last part of the sentence should either use a comparative pronoun or the noun ‘personnel’ again.
65. Answer (1)
Tense error - ‘had been’ should be used in place of ‘has been’.
66. Answer (4)
67. Answer (1)
68. Answer (2)
69. Answer (3)
70. Answer (4)
71. Answer (3)
72. Answer (1)
73. Answer (2)
74. Answer (3)
75. Answer (4)
76. Answer (2)
77. Answer (1)
78. Answer (4)
79. Answer (3)
80. Answer (4)

(4)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

81. Answer (4)

The other three are synonymous.
82. Answer (3)
The other three are synonymous.
83. Answer (2)
The other three are synonymous.
84. Answer (2)
The other three are synonymous.
85. Answer (2)
86. Answer (3)
87. Answer (4)
88. Answer (1)
89. Answer (3)
90. Answer (3)
91. Answer (2)
92. Answer (4)
93. Answer (2)
94. Answer (3)
95. Answer (4)
Rendering
96. Answer (3)
Emitted
97. Answer (2)
Annihilation
98. Answer (4)
99. Answer (2)
100. Answer (1)

  

(5)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A)

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-II : Aptitude Test)

SECTION-I

101. Answer (2)

Using v = u + at, we get

v
t1 
a
For retarded motion

v
0 = v – bt2 or t2 
b

v v
Total time t = t1 + t2 = 
a b

⎡a  b ⎤ ⎛ ab ⎞
v ⎢ ⎥ or v  ⎜
⎣ ab ⎦ ⎟t
⎝ ab ⎠
102. Answer (4)

Tension in string will be T T

2m1m2
T g
m1  m2

2m1m2
 Reading of spring balance will be g
m1  m2

103. Answer (2)

At a height above the earth’s surface

⎡ 2h ⎤
g h  g ⎢1– ⎥ …(i)
⎣ R⎦
At depth

⎡ d⎤
g d  g ⎢1– ⎥
⎣ R⎦

⎡ x⎤
or g d  g ⎢1– ⎥ …(ii)
⎣ R⎦
Comparing equation (i) and (ii), we get

⎡ 2h ⎤ ⎡ x⎤
g ⎢1– ⎥  g ⎢1 ⎥
⎣ R⎦ ⎣ R⎦
2h x
 or x  2h
R R

(6)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

104. Answer (1)

m 120 1
Volume of raft (v) =   m3
 600 5

We know that
vg = (m + 120) g

1
1000   m  120
5

m = 80 kg
105. Answer (3)
H = 10 m H h
h=?
According to conservation of energy
0.80 × mgH = mgh
h=8m
106. Answer (2)
107. Answer (4)

v2
P
Rnet

1 1 1 2R
  
Rnet R 2 2R

2R
 Rnet 
2R

P × Rnet = v2

2R
120   1212
2R
20R = 24 + 12R
8R = 24

24
R 3
8

108. Answer (1)

∵ Resistance in arm AD & BC is same
 Equal current will flow
 Potential drop across BC = 4 V
Hence, potential across 3  is 2 V.
109. Answer (4)
110. Answer (1)

(7)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A)

111. Answer (3)

Applying Snell's law
Air
4
 sini  1  sin90 r
3 Water
i
12 cm n = 4/3
3
sin i  i
4

3 3
tani  
2
(4) –(3) 2 7

r 3
tani  
12 7

12 3
 r cm
7

112. Answer (2)

u = –25 cm
v = –50 cm

1 1 1
 –
f v u

1 1 1
– 
f 50 25

1 –1 2 1
 
f 50 50

f = 50 cm
∵ Focal length is positive, so he should use convex lens
113. Answer (1)
Maximum heat which steam can release while to convert to water is 5400 cal. And heat required by the ice
to change its phase is 8000 cal. So the final temperature will be 0°C.
114. Answer (3)

0.04 g/L
Concentration of NaOH =
40 g/ mol

= 10–3 mol/L
pOH = –log[OH] = – log (10–3)
=3
pH + pOH = pKw
pH + 3 = 14
pH = 11
115. Answer (2)
116. Answer (1)

(8)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

117. Answer (4)

118. Answer (1)
119. Answer (3)
120. Answer (2)
121. Answer (4)
122. Answer (3)
123. Answer (1)
20 g 20
=
 30 + 20 + x  g 100
100 = 50 + x
x = 50 g
124. Answer (3)

0.28 g
n = 28 g/mol  0.01 mole

N2 contains 14 e–
Number of electrons in 0.01 mole N2 = 0.01 × 6.022 × 1023 × 14
= 0.84 × 1023
= 8.4 × 1022 e–
125. Answer (1)
126. Answer (2)
127. Answer (3)
Manak, Pusa 240, Pusa 84 and K850 are HYVs of pulses.
128. Answer (2)
Organs which are similar in function but differ in origin are called analogous organs.
129. Answer (2)
Indole acetic acid is a natural auxin.
130. Answer (1)
131. Answer (4)
Trygon belongs to class chondrichthyes.
132. Answer (3)
In holocrine glands, an entire cell, when filled with secretory products, disintegrates and is discharged as a
part of secretion.
133. Answer (1)
134. Answer (2)
Natural killer cells are a type of lymphocytes which are present in spleen, lymph nodes and red bone marrow.
135. Answer (1)
136. Answer (3)
Polar caps in plants perform the same function as that of centrioles in animals.

(9)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A)

137. Answer (3)

Parents - Ggff × GgFf
Gametes - Gf, gf × GF, Gf, gF, gf
Progeny: GF Gf gF gf
Gf GGFf GGff GgFf Ggff

gf GgFf Ggff ggFf ggff

138. Answer (2)

139. Answer (3)
140. Answer (2)
During terminalization, chiasmata shift towards the ends of the chromosomes.

SECTION-II

141. Answer (3)

570 + 770 = (52)35 + (72)35
= (25)35 + (49)35
an + bn is divisible by a + b, when n is odd
So, (25)35 + (49)35 is divisible by 25 + 49 = 74
142. Answer (4)

3n – 5 8
 3– is an integer
n 1 n 1
8
It is possible when 3 – is a perfect square
n 1
which is possible for n = – 9 or 3
So, product is – 27.
143. Answer (1)
x2 + x + 1 = 0

1  3i
 x
2
1  3i
  
2
1  3i
  2 where  is cube roots of unity (
2
 450 + 450 + ()450
=1+1+1=3 [∵ 3 = 1]
144. Answer (1)
∵ a, b are zeroes of x2 – 2px + q, so
a + b = 2p
ab = q

(10)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions
Also, c, d are roots of x2 – 2rx + s = 0, so
c + d = 2r
cd = s
∵ a, b, c, d are in AP
So, b – a = d – c
 (b – a)2 = (d – c)2
 (b + a)2 – 4ab = (d + c)2 – 4cd
 4p2 – 4q = 4r2 – 4s
 s – q = r2 – p2

s–q
 r p
r –p
145. Answer (1)
px + 2y = 10 …(i)
3x – 2y = 0 …(ii)
On adding equation (i) and (ii), we get,

10
x
p3
3 15
and y  x
2 p3
x and y will be integer if p + 3 divide both 10 and 15 and it is possible for p = 2
So, p3 = 8
146. Answer (1)
Perimeter = 60 cm
2(10 + l ) = 60 cm
So, l = 20 cm
Now, we know sum of the squares of the diagonals of a parallelogram is equal to the sum of the square of
its sides.
So, sum of the squares of diagonals = (10)2 + (10)2 + (20)2 + (20)2 = 1000 cm2
147. Answer (3)
Let x be the radius of circle.
We know, T
PA × PB = PT2
 (20 – x) × (20 + x) = (16)2 B P
O A
 400 – x2 = 256
 x2 = 400 – 256

 x  144
 x = 12 cm

(11)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A)
148. Answer (1)
∵ OBC is isosceles, so BOC = BCO = 2 (Let)

Now, ABO is exterior angle of BOC

So, ABO = 2 + 2 = 22 A
B
Now, OA = OB = radius of the circle
1 2 2
D C
So, ABO = OAB = 22 O
Now, AOD is exterior angle of OAC

So, AOD = ACO + CAO

= 22 + 2

= 32
Hence, BCD : AOD = 2 = 32 = 1 : 3

149. Answer (4)

If we draw a line parallel to BE from point D which intersect AC at M, then from converse of mid-point theorem
In ABE, M will be the mid-point of AE.
A
1
So, DM  BE
M
2
D E
1 1
Now, in ADC, FE  DM  BE
2 4 F
B C
So, BE = 4FE = 32 cm

150. Answer (1)

x y z
   t (Let)
2 3 5
x = 2t, y = 3t, z = 5t

Now, x + 3y + 6z = 15

 2t + 9t + 30t = 15

15
 t
41

30 45 75
So, x  ,y ,z
41 41 41
151. Answer (2)

12 – 22 + 32 – 42 + …… – 10082 + 10092

= 12 + (32 – 22) + (52 – 42) + (72 – 62) + …… + (10092 – 10082)

= 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + …… + 1008 + 1009

1009  1010
=
2
= 509545

(12)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

152. Answer (4)

y 3  3y 341
Given, 2

3y  1 91
Applying componendo and dividendo

y 3  3y  3y 2  1 341  91
 
3
y  3y – 3y – 1 2 341  91
1
y  1 ⎛ 216 ⎞ 3
 ⎜ ⎟
y  1 ⎝ 125 ⎠
3
⎛ y  1⎞ 432 216
 ⎜ ⎟  
⎝ y – 1⎠ 250 125
y 1 6
 
y –1 5
 5y + 5 = 6y – 6
 y = 11
153. Answer (2)
tan 1  tan 2
tan  1  2  
1– tan 1.tan 2
 1

  1 2  1
=  1
1– .
  1 2  1
2 2  2  1
= 1
2 2  2  1
So, 1 + 2 = 45°
 3(1 + 2) = 135°
154. Answer (2)
p3–xq5x = px+5q3x

p3– x q3x
 
p x 5 q5x
 p–2(x + 1) = q–2x
 p–2x.p–2 = q–2x
2x
⎛q⎞
 ⎜ ⎟  p2
⎝p⎠
x
⎛q⎞
 ⎜ ⎟ p
⎝p⎠
x
⎛q⎞
 log ⎜ ⎟  log p
⎝p⎠
⎛q⎞
 x log ⎜ ⎟  log p
⎝p⎠

(13)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A)

155. Answer (1)

If the sides of the triangle are x, y and z then x + y > z
Given, x + y + z = 14
So, the sides of the triangle can be (4, 4, 6), (5, 5, 4), (6, 5, 3) and (6, 6, 2)
So, 4 triangles are possible.
156. Answer (4)

x1  x2    xn
Given x 
n

x1  6  1  x2  6  2  x3  6  3    xn  6  n
Now, New mean =
n

x1  x2   xn 6 1  2  3    n 
= 
n n

6n  n  1
New mean = x 
2 n

= x  3n  3

157. Answer (1)

Y
x=0 y = m2x + c2
y = m1x + c1
N
P
Q (0, c1)

R(0, c2)
X' O X

Y'
Solving equation y = m1x + c1 and y = m2x + c2

c1 – c2
x
m2 – m1

which is x coordinate of P
If PN is perpendicular from point P to Y-axis then length of perpendicular will be same as X-coordinate of P

1
So, Area of PQR   base  height
2
1 c – c 
=  c1 – c2  1 2
2 m2 – m1

1  c1 – c2 
2

= 2 m –m
2 1

(14)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

158. Answer (4)

(0, 6) C

(0, 0)
X' X
A B (9, 0)

Y'
⎛009 060⎞
Centroid  ⎜ , ⎟
⎝ 3 3 ⎠
 (3, 2)
∵ Given triangle is right angled at A, so its circumcenter will be mid-point of hypotenuse BC

09 60⎞
So, Circumcentre  ⎛⎜ ,
⎝ 2 2 ⎟⎠

⎛9 ⎞
 ⎜ , 3⎟
⎝2 ⎠
2
⎛9 ⎞ 13
⎜ 2 – 3 ⎟  3 – 2  2
2
So, Distance between the circumcentre and the centroid of the triangle =
⎝ ⎠
159. Answer (2)
We have
sin  = 5 sin( + 2)
sin    2  1
 
sin  5
sin    2   sin  1 5
 
sin    2  – sin  1– 5

2sin      cos  6
 
2sin .cos      4

3
 tan        tan 
2
160. Answer (2)
Volume of smaller cone = Volume of frustum
1 2
3
1

r1 h1   r 2  r12  rr1  h – h1 
3

A

 1
r 2
 r12 
 rr1  h – h1 
(Dividing both side by r12h1)
h1
r12 h1 r1 E h
D
⎧⎛ r ⎞2 ⎛ r ⎞ ⎫ ⎛ h – h1 ⎞ r
 1  ⎪⎨⎜ ⎟  1  ⎜ ⎟ ⎪⎬ ⎜ ⎟ C
⎪⎩⎝ r1 ⎠ ⎝ r1 ⎠ ⎪⎭ ⎝ h1 ⎠ B

(15)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A)
2
⎪⎧⎛ h ⎞ ⎛ h ⎞ ⎪⎫ ⎛ h ⎞
 1  ⎨⎜ ⎟  1  ⎜ ⎟ ⎬ ⎜ – 1⎟
h
⎪⎩⎝ 1 ⎠ h h
⎝ 1 ⎠ ⎪⎭ ⎝ 1 ⎠
3
⎛h⎞
 1  ⎜ ⎟ – 1
3

⎝ h1 ⎠
3
⎛h⎞
 ⎜ ⎟ 2
⎝ h1 ⎠
1
h
  23 : 1
h1

SECTION-III
161. Answer (4)
162. Answer (4)
163. Answer (2)
164. Answer (2)
165. Answer (4)
166. Answer (1)
167. Answer (3)
168. Answer (3)
169. Answer (3)
170. Answer (2)
171. Answer (2)
172. Answer (3)
173. Answer (4)
174. Answer (3)
175. Answer (2)
176. Answer (1)
177. Answer (2)
178. Answer (3)
179. Answer (2)
180. Answer (1)
181. Answer (4)
182. Answer (1)
183. Answer (4)
184. Answer (3)
185. Answer (3)
186. Answer (2)
187. Answer (3)
188. Answer (3)
189. Answer (1)

(16)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-13 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

190. Answer (2)

191. Answer (2)
192. Answer (1)
193. Answer (4)
194. Answer (2)
195. Answer (2)
196. Answer (2)
197. Answer (4)
198. Answer (2)
199. Answer (2)
200. Answer (2)

  

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