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ეროვნული სასწავლო ოლიმპიადა PDF
ეროვნული სასწავლო ოლიმპიადა PDF
TASK 1 LISTENING
You are going to listen to a text about the costs of an university education in Britain. For
questions 1-10 choose the best answer A, B or C.
You now have thirty seconds to look through the task. You will hear the recording twice.
TASK 2 READING
Read the text and fill the gaps with the appropriate words. Insert only ONE word in each gap.
One of the most important Irish writers of (0) the nineteenth century, Oscar Wilde was ____________ (1) in
Dublin, Ireland, in 1854. His father was a doctor and his mother was ____________ (2) writer and translator.
He went to Dublin and Oxford Universities, where ____________ (3) was an unusually clever student.
At Oxford Oscar Wilde won an important prize but he was even more famous ____________ (4) his unusual
personal style. ____________ (5) long hair, bright clothes, amusing conversation and ideas ____________
(6) art and literature won him enemies. Oscar Wilde’s first book of poems appeared in 1881 but
____________ (7) did not bring him much money. He went on a tour to the United States, where he
____________ (8) talks on art and society. In 1884 Wilde married Constance Lloyd, ____________ (9) they
decided to live in London. Constance later gave birth to two sons, Cyril and Vyvyan.
Oscar Wilde began to work seriously at his writing in 1887, beginning ____________ (10) a story, The
Canterville Ghost. He wrote many other stories, among ____________ (11) The Picture of Dorian Gray
(1892). ____________ (12) also wrote plays about fashionable society, including Lady Windermere’s Fan
(1892), A Woman of No Importance (1893) and An Ideal Husband (1895). Most popular of all was The
Importance of Being Ernest, which many people think is ____________ (13) of the funniest plays written in
English. Wilde also ____________ (14) a play in French, Salome (1893), which takes the story of King
Herod’s daughter from the Bible.
But in 1895 everything changed and Oscar Wilde’s success in public life ____________ (15) over. For some
personal reasons Oscar Wilde was ____________ (16) to prison for two years. After this, many of his friends
turned their ____________ (17) on him and nobody was willing to put on his plays.
Wilde suffered terribly during his time ____________ (18) prison. He became ill and his confidence, both
____________ (19) a person and an artist, was destroyed. At first he was not allowed to do any writing
____________ (20) later he produced a long poem called The Ballad of Reading Gaol. It describes the crime
of a poor soldier and the cruelty of life in prison. ____________ (21) the poem appeared in 1898, it was a
best-seller.
In 1897, when his term was over and Wilde ____________ (22) out of prison, he was a broken man. He
wanted to go back to his wife but she refused to have him, although she ____________ (23) him some money
to live on. It was impossible for him ____________ (24) live in England, so he lived for a time in northern
France. A few loyal friends visited him ____________ (25).
Wilde ____________ (26) the last years of his life in Paris, living in cheap hotels and asking his friends for
money. During the years after leaving prison, he produced no literary work. He died in November 1900, at
the ____________ (27) of forty-six.
Today Oscar Wilde is ____________ (28) for his writings and for his daring ideas. As a thinker, he believed
strongly____________ (29) the value of beauty, in life as well as in art, although The Picture of Dorian Gray
shows the dangers of such beliefs. Wilde is admired for his imaginative stories, plays ____________ (30)
humorous sayings, which both shocked and entertained people.
Task 3 WRITING
Read the beginning of the story and finish it using your imagination and fantasy.
It was late and time to go to bed. I switched off the lights and, suddenly heard the noise coming
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KEY/grades 8-10
Task 1: 1. A 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.C 6.C 7.A 8.B 9.A 10. C
II turi
gisurvebT warmatebas!
3. If you had your money in savings account, you …… ten per cent interest.
A. will get B. would get C. got D. have got
6. A lion escaped from the zoo yesterday but it …… a few hours later.
A. will be caught B. were caught C. was caught D. caught
7. Bob hasn’t found his keys yet, he can’t remember where he …… them.
A. had left B. left C. will leave D. leaves
11. Look at that boy! He is chasing the cat so fast, he…… down.
A. fall B. is going to fall C. has fallen D. fell
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12. We’ve decided to visit our grandparents at Easter, so we are …… our holiday.
A. looking after B. looking up to C. looking at D. looking forward to
13. We are going to take our friend to the airport to see her …..
A. through B. into C. off D. out
16. He didn’t know the words and had to …… the definitions in the dictionary.
A. look up B. look about C. look around D. look through
17. I missed the train because my taxi …… of petrol on the way to the station.
A. ran after B. ran out C. ran off D. ran away
20. Tom and Steve are good friends. They …… each other for ten years.
A. have known B. have been knowing C. known D. knew
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TASK 2
Read the text and fill the gaps (1-10) with the words given below. Use each word only once.
Four words are extra.
Mark the corresponding letter (A-N) on the answer sheet. Do not copy the words from the
text on the answer sheet.
According to legend, 5 000 years ago the Chinese Emperor Shen Nung, ordered everyone in
China to boil water……….. (1) avoid disease. One day, he was going to drink some water, when
some leaves fell………… (2) a tree into it. Shen Nung tried the brown liquid……….. (3) found
it extremely refreshing. And so,……… (4) was the start of tea.
By the 9th century AD, tea had spread to Japan-the place……... (5) it became very popular,
especially…..….. (6) Buddhist monks. In the 17th century, ‘tea mania’ arrived in Europe and
then in America. Nowadays, tea is a common drink in many countries. China, India and Kenya
are the largest tea producers and the Japanese still take part in the rather long and complicated
tea ceremony.
According to another legend around 800 BC, a farmer in the mountains………. (7) Ethiopia
noticed his goats eating some bright red berries and then running …….... (8) happily. He tasted
them and immediately felt less tired. Soon, Ethiopian monks were using the berries in a drink to
keep themselves awake during nightly prayers.
Later……….. (9) drink spread to Arabia and was taken to Turkey and finally to Europe. In the
17th century, coffee was a very popular drink for Europeans. At one time, there were three
thousand coffee houses ………. (10) London. Now, four hundred billion cups of coffee are
drunk every day.
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TASK 3
Read the text and fill the gaps (1-10) with the words given below. Use each word only once.
Four words are extra.
Mark the corresponding letter (A-N) on the answer sheet. Do not copy the words from the
text on the answer sheet.
Skateboarding is both an action sport and a form of transportation. Today, there are about 20
million skateboarders ………… (1) the world. It has………… (2) about thirty years for this
leisure activity to ………… (3) so popular. There were actually a few ‘home-made’ skateboards
in the 1960s, but it wasn’t until 1970 that things really………… (4) to happen, in the Pacific
Ocean Park, Los Angeles, California.
No one really knows who made the first skateboard. One group of people called the ’Z-boys’
was responsible for the………… (5) of skateboarding. The ’Z-boys’ were (6) …………surfers
and decided to………… (7) their skills to dry land. In the early 1970s there was very little rain in
California and many people had to leave their swimming pools empty. Those smooth, concrete
spaces were excellent skateboarding ………… (8) for the ’Z-boys’ who soon became famous
locally for using the skateboard in new and exciting………… (9). People were ………… (10) at
what the ’Z-boys’ could do and immediately wanted to try skateboarding for themselves.
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TASK 4
Read the beginning of the sentences (1-10) and match an appropriate ending (A-L) to each
of them. Two endings are extra. Write your answers in the answer sheet.
1. My job involves a lot of traveling, A. so the roads will be crowded with traffic.
2. All our sales staff are trained B. you’ll spoil your appetite.
3. He made a good impression at the interview C. unless they have other plans.
4. It’s a holiday weekend D. so I’m away from home for weeks.
5. Passengers are reminded that E. to talk to difficult customers.
6. I stopped someone in the street F. so they offered him a job straightaway.
7. If you hadn’t acted so quickly G. so they want to interview him again.
8. Don’t eat snacks between meals, H. to ask for directions.
9. If putting salt in my tea is your idea I. there could have been a serious accident.
10. They can come with us J. then I don’t envy you.
K. then I don’t find it very funny.
L. smoking is not permitted on the aircraft.
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TASK 5
Match questions (1-10) to the appropriate answers (A-L). Two answers are extra. Write
your answers in the answer sheet.
7
ეროვნული სასწავლო ოლიმპიადა
inglisur ენაში
X-XII კლასი
II turi
gisurvebT warmatebas!
Read the sentences and circle the right choice. Write the answers in the answer sheet.
1. We ………. in the same house for twelve years before we decided to move.
A. have been living B. have lived C. had been living D. lived
6. I don’t know how long Ted…….. on this project, but it seems like weeks.
A. had been working B. is working C. was working D. has been working
7. She regrets ……. so much money on her new shoes. They are too tight.
A. spending B. will spend C. spend D. have spent
8. With the help of a new teacher Dato ……. a very good student.
A. has been becoming B. have become C. is becoming D. going to become
10. I……… my friend tonight, so I’ll tell him about the news.
A. see B. am seeing C. will see D. seen
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12. The teacher went …….. my homework to check for mistakes.
A. through B. after C. on D. round
13. There’s a great need ……. extra water in the countries where there is very little rain.
A. on B. about C. for D. off
17. Ernest Hemingway ……… the Nobel Prize for his writing.
A. was awarded B. was awarding C. awarded D. award
20. On their anniversary tomorrow, Nina and George ……… for 25 years.
A. will be married B. will have been married C. will marry D. have been married
21. We are waiting for his first book …….. in the States.
A. to publish B. publishing C. to be published D. publish
23. Nobody knew where Mum …….. the front door key.
A. had put B. is putting C. has put D. had been put
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TASK 2
Read the text and fill the gaps (1-12) with the words given below. Use each word only once.
Four words are extra.
Mark the corresponding letter (A-P) on the answer sheet. Do not copy the words from the
text on the answer sheet.
Rainbows
We all know that rainbows occur………. (1) it is raining and it is sunny at the same time. These
weather conditions can cause white light to split ……… (2) its full spectrum of coloured light.
There are seven colours in the spectrum: red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo………. (3)
violet.
But how is exactly a rainbow formed? Interestingly, the location of the rainbow totally depends
on the position of the person ………. (4) can see it, and on the position of the sun relative
………. (5) that person. If the sun is shining toward your eyes, you will never see a rainbow. The
sun needs to be behind you ………. (6) you will never be able to see a rainbow and the sun at the
same time. What happens is this: light from the sun enters the raindrops, and because
the amount of the rain water is different ………. (7) the amount of the air, the sunlight bends
slightly. When the light bends, it splits into several different coloured lights ………. (8) different
colours of light change directions at slightly different angles.
When we see this reflected light,………. (9) reason that we see each colour separately is that
they bend back out of the raindrop at slightly different angles, so we see all red light at an angle
of 42 degrees between us and the sun and the other colours at angles ………. (10) 40 and 42
degrees. So that’s the science! But there are legends and myths surrounding rainbows as well.
One legend says ………. (11) there is a pot of gold at the end of the rainbow. It is impossible to
find the end of a rainbow, though, so this gold will always be………. (12) of our reach!
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TASK 3
Read the text and fill the gaps (1-12) with the words given below. Use each word only once.
Four words are extra.
Mark the corresponding letter (A-P) on the answer sheet. Do not copy the words from the
text on the answer sheet.
Where in London can you watch fantastic live music, buy homemade cakes and milk a cow all
on the same day? It’s at the Lambeth Country Show. It is an…..……..… (1) mixture between a
traditional country show, and an urban music …..……..… (2). Lambeth, in South London, is a
…..……..… (3) mixed and highly populated area, but during the Lambeth Country Show the
…..……..… (4) place feels just like a large village, where you can meet up with friends, have a
picnic, listen to live music, try …..……..… (5) foods and drinks which are anything from
Caribbean cuisine to Mexican tacos and also try all the traditional English foods and drinks that
are …..……..… (6) in by farmers from around the South of England.
In English villages, the festival is usually an …..……..… (7) event where local people can
…..……..… (8) their fresh vegetables, jam, cakes and other things. Usually, the products on
display are judged by a panel of local people and the best vegetables, fruit, pickles and other
…..……..… (9) are awarded prizes. There are also traditional country …..……..… (10) such as
sheep dog displays, horse riding, flower and vegetable competitions, a tug-of-war, where two
teams of people …..……..… (11) to see who can pull the rope the hardest. So the Lambeth
Country show is like a village festival on a London scale. It is no exaggeration to say that this
show is the highlight of Britain’s social calendar. If you are in London…..…..…. (12) year at the
time of the Lambeth Country Show, come along!
5
TASK 4
Read the dialogue and fill in the spaces (1-5) with the sentences given (A-H). There are
three extra sentences. Write your answers in the answer sheet.
- Hi Nina. What are you doing walking on the beach? Shouldn’t you be at school?
- Oh, I’ve left school. I’m going to college next month. …………… (1).
- Really? Well, you know I’ve worked as a chef for the last three years and I work at the
Grand Hotel now. In fact I’m head chef there, so you need to talk to me if you want to
know what the job is really like.
- ……………… (2). I’d like to work in a hotel like the Grand. I’m sure it’s really exciting
and you get to meet all kinds of rich and famous people.
- Actually no. Chefs have to spend their time in the kitchen. Rich and famous don’t go there.
- But you get lots of time off, don’t you? ……………… (3).
- Yes, but it’s my day off today. I needn’t think about the hotel kitchen today.
- Well, normally then, what’s it like? You don’t have to work all day, do you?
- I have a break in the afternoon but I need to get up early. …………… (4). Then I have to
stay until all the food is cooked and served in the morning. It’s late by then.
- ……………… (5). How many days off do you get?
- At least here I have two days off every week. Listen I must go now. You must come to the
hotel one day, I can show you the kitchen and you can see what we do.
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TASK 5
Read the text. Then read the sentences (1-8) which follow and circle the right choice (A-D).
Write your answers in the answer sheet.
Britain at the beginning of the 1960s was a slightly depressing grey place, still trying to recover
from the effects of World War II, which had only finished a decade and a half earlier. The
Swinging Sixties had started and for a while Britain became the fashion and music centre of the
world. The Beatles went on to become the most famous group in the world and had lots of hit
records, but split up in 1970. McCartney and Ringo Star, still play music. Paul McCartney
performed a favourite Beatles song “Hey Jude” at the opening ceremony of the London 2012
Olympics.
Bands like The Beatles, The Rolling Stones, The Kinks and The Who became famous all over
the world. Their long hair, laid back attitude, and their apparent disrespect for authority and
tradition shocked and worried many of the older generation, but the younger people loved this
new sense of freedom. The generation gap was perhaps wider than it had ever been before.
But the 1960s wasn’t just about pop music - the world was changing fast in lots of ways. In the
USA the civil rights movement kept moving faster as the black American minority demanded
equal rights. In October 1962 while protests and rioting were taking place, James Meredith, the
first black student to attend the all white University of Mississippi, was escorted on to the
university campus by US marshals. It was a real historic moment.
The 60s was also the age of the car. New motorways were opening up all over the country and in
the beginning, there were no speed limits. More people tasted the freedom of the car and
thousands of them abandoned old-fashioned train travel. Famously Dr. Beeching, the chairman
of British Railways responded by cutting off large parts of the railway network.
It’s all a long time ago now but some people still argue whether the changes that came in the
1960s were good or bad. But one thing is certainly true - Britain became a freer and more
tolerant place, and surely that must be good! The 1960s changed attitudes. Britain became a
more liberal and less restricted society. People at all social levels had more money to spend and
more time to enjoy it. The 1960s ended on a note of optimism for a better, fairer and brighter
future.
5. In the USA James Meredith was the first black student who
A. was accepted at all white university.
B. was taking part in riots.
C. was accompanied to a demonstration.
D. was very popular.
8
keys/ 2012/13 10/12dudu
Task 1: 1.C 2.B 3.A 4.D 5. A 6.D 7.A 8.C 9.A 10.B 11.B 12.A
13.C 14.B 15.D 16.B 17.A 18.D 19.D 20.B 21.C 22.C 23.A
9
O olimpiadis meore turis pasuxebi inglisur enaSi
2012-2013
GRADE 8-9
Task 1: 1.B 2.C 3.B 4.B 5.D 6.C 7.B 8.A 9.D 10.A 11.B 12.D 13.C 14. D
15. B 16. A 17. B 18.C 19.C 20. A
Task 2: 1. K 2. D 3. A 4. H 5. M 6. B 7. F 8.C 9.J 10. E
Task 3: 1.B 2.K 3.C 4.J 5.D 6.F 7.L 8.H 9.N 10.A
Task 4: 1.D 2.E 3.F 4.A 5.L 6.H 7.I 8.B 9.K 10.C
Task 5: 1. G 2. A 3. J 4. I 5. B 6.K 7. L 8. C 9. D 10. F.
GRADE 10-12
Task 1: 1.C 2.B 3.A 4.D 5. A 6.D 7.A 8.C 9.A 10.B 11.B 12.A 13.C 14.B
15.D 16.B 17.A 18.D 19.D 20.B 21.C 22.C 23.A
Task2: 1.N 2. I 3. B 4. O 5.M 6. K 7.F 8.D 9.L 10. E 11.C 12. J
Task 3: 1. A 2. I 3. D 4. P 5. M 6. C 7. B 8.G 9.N 10. H 11. F 12. K
Task4: 1.E 2. G 3.C 4.B 5.A
Task 5: 1.C 2. D 3.B 4.A 5.A 6.B 7.C 8.C
ეროვნული სასწავლო ოლიმპიადა
ინგლისურ ენაში
III turi
VIII-IX კლასეbi
gisurvebT warmatebas!
1
TASK 1 LISTENING
You are going to listen to a text about TV addicts. For questions 1-10 choose the best answer
A, B or C.
You now have thirty seconds to look through the task. You will hear the recording twice.
1. Cath does not consider herself a TV addict but she loves watching
A. sports.
B. shows.
C. series.
2
8. TV sets in those days had
A. similar design as today.
B. doors on the front.
C. curtains on the screen.
10. How many hours a week on average does a person in the UK watch television?
A. 3 hours
B. 13 hours
C. 30 hours
TASK 2 READING
Read the text and fill the gaps with the appropriate words. Insert only ONE word in each gap.
Marco Polo was an (0) Italian traveller, merchant and explorer ____________ (1) spent many years in Asia
and was____________ (2) first to introduce Europeans to Central Asia and China. Although the exact time
and place of his ____________ (3) is not known, it is generally accepted that he was ____________ (4) in
Venice in 1254. Marco’s father Niccolò was a merchant and he and his brother Maffeo set ____________ (5)
on a trading voyage to Asia before Marco ____________ (6) born. They ____________(7) several years in
China and were the first Europeans to meet the Emperor of China. The Emperor asked them to
____________ (8) his ambassadors to help him communicate with the Pope*.
While Marco’s father and uncle were travelling and trading in Asia, his mother died and he was raised by an
aunt and uncle ____________ (9) gave him a good education. In 1269, Marco’s father returned to Venice and
met his son for the first ___________(10). In 1271, Marco’s father and uncle set off again on
___________(11) trading voyage to Asia, with the intention of meeting the Chinese Emperor Khublai Khan
again. This time they took with ____________ (12) a seventeen-year-old Marco.
The Polos went by ship to the Mediterranean coast of Turkey ____________(13) then overland the rest of the
trip. They took the southern branch of the Silk Road; along this ____________(14) merchants from China
regularly brought silk ____________(15) Europe. The road runs north of ____________(16) Himalayas, and
3
across the Gobi desert in Mongolia and the whole journey ____________(17) the Polos nearly four years. In
China ____________ (18) Polos met Khublai Khan once again; the emperor received ____________(19)
warmly in his palace. In the 13th century, Cathay, as China was then called, was an unknown land full of
romance for most Europeans. Marco who had a gift ____________ (20) languages became a civil servant and
a travelling diplomat for Khublai Khan, who sent him on many foreign missions. In____________ (21) way
Marco Polo was able to visit India, Burma, Sri Lanka and many other countries of Asia.
After 17 years the Polos decided it was time to return home. Their journey was mainly by sea and
____________ (22) passed Singapore and Sri Lanka before entering the Persian Gulf*. They arrived in
Venice in 1295 carrying with them many riches and treasures from the East. The Polos had
____________(23) away from home for 24 years and had travelled almost 24,140 kilometres. They arrived in
Venice to find that their city was____________ (24) war with Genoa, and Marco Polo was taken prisoner.
While in____________ (25) Marco Polo dictated a detailed story of his travels to his cellmate. This set of
stories, entitled The Travels of Marco Polo, is a description of the almost unknown Mongol Empire and
depicts the Polos’ journeys through Asia, giving Europeans the first comprehensive look into the Far East,
including China, India and Japan. Many readers thought that the things Marco Polo wrote in his book were
not real – that he had invented____________ (26). But later people realized that ____________ (27)
‘unbelievable’ stories were indeed true. The influence of Marco Polo on geographical exploration was
enormous. After almost two centuries, Marco Polo’s stories inspired Christopher Columbus and influenced
____________ (28) decision to look for a western route to China and Japan.
Marco Polo ____________ (29) the last 30 years of his life as a wealthy and well-known Venetian merchant.
He never left Venice again but ____________ (30) financed other expeditions. In 1300 he got married and he
and his wife had three daughters. He died in 1324 and was buried in the Italian town of San Lorenzo.
4
Task 3 WRITING
Read the beginning of the story and finish it using your imagination and fantasy.
Write between 150-180 words. Write your answer on the answer sheet.
When Nick came home mother told him that a postman had brought a box for him. The box was
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ეროვნული სასწავლო ოლიმპიადა
ინგლისურ ენაში
III turi
X- XII კლასეbi
gisurvebT warmatebas!
1
TASK 1 LISTENING
You are going to listen to a text about the skies at night. For questions 1-10 choose the best answer
A, B or C.
You now have thirty seconds to look through the task. You will hear the recording twice.
5. How does Callum feel about a special status that the sky above the UK has?
A. Callum feels happy.
B. Callum feels surprised.
C. Callum feels indifferent.
6. Light monitors showed that Exmoor National Park was one of the darkest places
A. in Europe.
B. in London.
C. in the UK .
7. Why is it against the law to switch on the lights in the Sky Reserve?
2
8. When it is dark in a city one can see
A. 200 stars.
B. 2,500 stars.
C. millions of stars.
TASK 2 READING
Read the text and fill the gaps with the appropriate words. Insert only ONE word in each gap.
Creative genius
The computer industry has lost a visionary and creative genius, and the world has lost an amazing human
being.’ These words and (0) many others flooded the Internet space when the world learnt ____________ (1)
the death of Steve Jobs.
Steve Jobs was ____________ (2) American businessman and a co-founder of Apple Incorporation, one of
the oldest computer companies in the ____________ (3). He was well-known ____________ (4) his
contribution to the development of the personal computing industry which started in the late 1970s. Although
Jobs never graduated from university, he was the person ____________ (5) created one of the first
commercially successful personal computers. Steve Jobs emphasized the importance of design and
understood the role ____________ (6) aesthetics play in the computer business, and he contributed greatly
____________ (7) the development of computer products which are ____________ (8) functional and
elegant.
Steve Jobs was ____________ (9) in San Francisco on February 24, 1955. His biological father came
____________ (10) Syria, but he was adopted and raised by an American family. Steve grew _________ (11)
in the apricot orchards of the state of California, an area which later ____________ (12) known as Silicon
Valley and ____________ (13) today represents the centre of the American computer industry. Steve was a
student at Cupertino High School but he often attended after-school lectures at the Hewlett-Packard Company
3
and was soon ____________ (14) a job there. In 1976, along ____________ (15) Steve Wozniak, an
electronics hacker with ____________ (16) he had been friends for several years, and with funding from the
multimillionaire A.C.Markkula, Jobs founded Apple Incorporation. On January 24, 1984, Steve Jobs
introduced the Macintosh computer to an audience of Apple’s shareholders ____________ (17) their annual
meeting.
Steve Jobs stayed Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Apple Inc. ____________ (18) his death in 2011. Apple
Inc. is an organization, ____________ (19) produces its award-winning Macintosh computers. Under his
guidance the company continued to ____________ (20) sales significantly with the introduction of the iMac,
iPhone and other new products. Attractive designs and powerful branding make Apple Inc. extremely
popular.
In recent years, the company has introduced several new products. With the introduction of the iPod portable
music player and iTunes digital music software*, the company’s contribution ____________ (21) music
distribution has increased dramatically. Apple is leading the digital* music revolution, having ________ (22)
almost 200 million iPods and over 6 billion songs from its iTunes online store. Steve Jobs also co-founded
Pixar Animation Studios, responsible ____________ (23) creating eight of the most successful and well-
loved animated films _________ (24) all time including, among others, Toy Story and A Bug’s Life. Pixar has
won 20 Academy Awards and its films have earned ____________ (25) than 4 billion dollars. In 2006 Pixar
merged ____________ (26) the Walt Disney Company and Jobs became a member of Disney’s board of
directors.
Steve Jobs was a devoted Beatles fan and he once ____________ (27): ‘My model for business is the Beatles.
They ____________ (28) four guys that kept each other’s negative tendencies in check; they balanced each
other. And the total was greater than the parts. Great things in business are not done by ____________ (29)
person, they are done by a team of people.’ Steve Jobs and Steve Wozniac were awarded the National Medal
of Technology from President Ronald Reagan in 1985 and a Jefferson Public Service Award for ‘Greatest
Public Service by an Individual 35 Years or Under’. More recently, in 2007, Steve Jobs was named the most
powerful businessman of the year ____________ (30) Fortune magazine. Steve Job’s death is irreparable loss
for the computer community.
4
Task 3 WRITING
Read the beginning of the story and finish it using your imagination and fantasy.
Write between 150-180 words. Write your answer on the answer sheet.
It was a cold winter evening. I was sitting in front of the fireplace and reading a book on unusual things
and events. Suddenly I heard a strange voice coming from the chimney. ____________________
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5
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6
ინგლისური ენაში ეროვნული სასწავლო ოლიმპიდის მე-3 ტურის პასუხები
Task 1: 1.C 2.B 3.A 4.A 5.C 6.A 7.C 8.B 9.A 10.C
Task 2: 1. who 2. the 3. birth 4. Born 5.off 6. was 7. spent 8. become/be 9 who 10.time
11. another/a 12. them 13. and 14. road 15.to 16. the 17. took 18.the 19. them 20. for
21. this/the 22. they 23. been/stayed 24. at 25.prison/jail 26. them/everything 27. these
/those/his 28. his/the 29. spent 30. he
Task 1: 1.C 2.A 3.B 4.C 5.B 6.C 7.B 8. A 9.B 10.C
Task 2: 1. about 2. an 3. world 4. for 5. who 6. which/that/the 7. to 8. both 9. born 10. from
11. up 12. became/was 13. which 14. given/offered 15. with 16. whom 17. at 18. until /till
19. which/that 20. increase 21. to 22. sold 23. for 24. of 25. More 26. with
27. said/noted/mentioned 28. were 29. one/a 30. by
erovnuli saswavlo olimpiada inglisur enaSi
IX klasi, II turi
pasuxebi gadaitaneT testis bolos moTavsebul pasuxebis furcelze
Task 1
• Read the sentences and circle the right choice.
• Mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet.
3. We ...... in this city for one year and are already familiar with the local traditions.
A. have lived B. will live C. lived D. had lived
4. We had no idea that the price of the ticket ….. the cost of the lunch.
A. will not include B. did not include C. not included D. not include
5. I met Nino and Nick in the airport a few weeks ago. We had a nice chat while we
...... for our flights.
A. waited B. wait C. were waiting D. had been waiting
6. We had a wonderful holiday on the Mediterranean this year, but I don't think we ...... there again
next year.
A. go B. will go C. went D. have gone
7. In Britain all kinds of sports are popular. For example, tennis competitions ...... by thousands
of people.
A. are being watched B. were watched C. was watched D. are watched
9. The doctor tells me that if I want to be healthier, I …….. less sugar and fat.
A. would eat B. will eat C. should eat D. shall eat
13. There are no seats in that café. This year school graduates ……. a party there.
A. have B. had C. would have D. are having
1
14. If you are good at the interview, most probably they ……. you the job you applied for.
A. give B. gave C. will give D. would give
16. David reminded me not to forget my passport, if I ……. to enter the UN office.
A. want B. wanted C. have wanted D. had wanted
17. You are all wet. If I …. you, I would go home right away.
A. am B. were C. have been D had been
18. If you didn’t drive so carelessly all the time, your car ….. in a better shape.
A. would have been B. is C. would be D. be
20. Though we have been friends for a few months only, I have such a feeling as if I ……. him
all my life.
A. know B. knew C. will have known D. have known
Task 2
• Read the text and fill the gaps with the words given. Use each word only once. Four words
are extra.
• Mark the corresponding letter (A-N) on the answer sheet.
2
Task 3
• Read the text and fill the gaps with the words given. Use each word only once.
Four words are extra.
• Mark the corresponding letter (A-N) on the answer sheet.
Potato Chips
Potato chips are favourite ……. (1) in the United States. Where do potato chips come from? In 1853, a
native American, whose …… (2) was George Crum made the first potato chips. Crum was a chef in an
……… (3) restaurant in Saratoga Springs, New York. One day, a …….. (4) did not like the French fries
because they were too thick. So Crum made them thinner. The customer still did not like them and
Crum ………. (5) mad. He decided to make the customer angry. So he cut the potatoes very, very thin.
This time the customer ……. (6) them. Other people wanted Crum’s ………. (7) chips. There were lots
of customers. …… (8), there was a new food on the menu called Saratoga Chips. Soon Crum opened
his own restaurant.
It took a long time to make potato chips. People……… (9) the potatoes by hand. Then, in 1920, the
automatic potato peeler changed everything. Potato chips were not a special dish. Potato chips were a
popular snack food, but only in the North. A salesman named Herman Lay wanted to sell potato chips
in the South. He sold potato chips in bags. His business grew. Today …...... (10) eat a lot of potato
chips. Americans spend ten and a half million dollars on potato chips every year.
3
Task 4
• Read the text. Then read the sentences which follow and find the correct answer.
• Mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet.
Halloween is an important public holiday in the USA celebrated on October 31. On that day Americans
decorate their homes with lights and jack-o’-lanterns: pumpkins with frightening faces and candles
inside. The shops sell more candy than on any other holiday.
The holiday dates back to the Druids who lived in Great Britain 2000 years ago. The Druids said that
their chief God named Saman would tell the spirits of dead people to visit the Earth on the 31st of
October, the last day of the year according to their calendar. To keep the evil spirits away from people,
the Druids told their people to sacrifice an animal on Druid altars. This old custom grew and changed
over the centuries. To help their children keep away from evil spirits, parents would dress up their
children as ghosts and other figures that looked like evil spirits, trying to frighten away real spirits! For
the same purposes, farmers used to light big fires in their fields and the farm workers and their families
would walk around the fields singing old songs and hymns. And also, some parents would send their
children out to collect food from friends and neighbours.
Great care was taken not to leave farm animals in the fields. The animals would all be locked up safely
in their stables and over each of the stable doors the special tree leaves would be hung. It was believed
that witches and evil would not go anywhere near that plant.
In more recent times, Halloween has become a time for parties not only for children but also for their
parents. On the holiday children dress up as witches and play all kinds of special Halloween games such
as “ducking for the apple”, which is trying to catch an apple from a bowl of water with your teeth. A
very popular Halloween game is called “Trick or Treat”, when children run down each street knocking
on the doors crying loudly “Trick or Treat!”, and most people have some sweets ready to give them.
Those who do not give sweets to the children can have their windows covered in soap. Or the children
may just knock on the door and run away. But these days children seldom play tricks on people.
Halloween is often a contest to choose the best costume. After the games there is often a big supper
with plenty of pumpkin pie, cakes and a lot of other delicious things to eat.
2. Halloween, as a holiday,
A. has not changed over time.
B. has changed over time.
C. has become less celebrated.
D. has become less popular.
4
3. On Halloween farmers lit fires in their fields in order
A. to attract good spirits.
B. to frighten wild animals.
C. to attract people’s attention.
D. to keep the evil spirits away.
5
Task 5
• Read the text and fill in the gaps with the right word: A, B, C or D.
• Mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet.
I love classical music although I do not play the piano myself. I have many composers whom I like but
still my …. (1) composer is Mozart, whom I consider to be one of the best composers in the world.
I am … (2) enough to have a cousin who is a very gifted pianist. As a …. (3) musician, she strongly
believes that … (4) ability is mostly something one learns, not a … (5) feature that one is born with.
She thinks that successful and hard-working students can improve their musical ability enormously.
I feel really … (6) when I hear my cousin perform and the response that she gets from her audience
at the end of a … (7). Both the public and … (8) agree that she is one of the country’s most talented
artists. The huge amount of money my cousin earns gives her … (9) to do almost anything she likes,
which I, as a humble … (10), cannot compete with.
6
Task 6
• Read five texts below in which five people are describing their rooms. Then match the
headings (A-J) with the texts (1-5). There are five extra headings, which you do not need
to use.
• Mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet.
A. The room full of toys F. The room that needed a lot of repair
B. Special invitation needed G. The garage and the kitchen
C. The garden – the best place H. Sharing a room is not fun
D. My room – a place for getting together I. The room for drawing
E. The room on the last floor J. The guest room
A room of one’s own
1___.‘When we came to view the house, the thing that really charmed me was that it was spacious and
full of light thanks to a lot of windows around. In addition, there was this marvellous room at the top of
the house with a window overlooking the garden. The room might look a bit untidy at first glance, but I
know exactly where everything is. I’ve got a spacious work space along the wall and a couple of
shelves holding my favourite books, CDs and DVDs. My computer and the printer are also in this
corner. It’s a comfortable place both for working and relaxing.’
2___.‘Our house is always busy. We have four children and they’re always in and out with their friends
and my husband runs his business from home. I needed a place where I could be by myself. We had this
cellar under the house, and it was dark and uninviting. And I thought that I could make it into my space.
I had to work hard to make the place livable: the floor was re-laid and the walls painted. The biggest
luxury was the sofa. It’s really cosy and relaxing. I can stretch out and close my eyes or curl up and
read a book. This is my private space. No one is ever allowed in.’
3___.‘Our house is unusual because it was built to our own design. The bedrooms are on the ground
floor and the living space is on the first floor. I found I couldn’t really relax upstairs - the sitting room is
just too big and official. So I looked around the house and found this area under the stairs which has
good lighting because of the windows but still feels comfortable and intimate. I moved in my stereo and
the TV and when I want to be alone, I retreat to my ‘den’, put my feet up and listen to music. It’s
important to me to have this personal space - somewhere where no one comes unless they’re specially
invited.’
4___.‘My room is both my relaxing space and my working space, which in some ways is not ideal.
There isn’t much room for hanging pictures but I’ve got some photos of people I admire. I don’t have a
coffee-maker up here, but I’ve got a lovely brass table where I can put coffee that I make downstairs.
I’ve got lots of the teddy bears and cuddly toys that I had when I was young. They cut down the sense
of isolation you get when you spend lots of time working on your own.’
5___.‘My family and I live in a nice spacious house in the suburbs of London. We have an open
swimming pool and, thus, often have swimming pool parties here. My friends love coming to our place
because we can have fun both indoors and outdoors. But because my family is large I shared a room
with my elder sister for many years and I was not allowed to do many things. Now she got married and
the room is all mine. No one tells me not to put this poster up or not to put these things there. I can
make the place even cosier but at the moment I enjoy being alone in the room which some time before
was meant for two people.’
7
Task 7
• In the dialogue given below some sentences are missing. Fill in the dialogue with the
sentences given below (A-H). Three sentences are extra.
• Mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet.
- …………………. (4)
- A very good idea! And later, after the meal, we can go to the cinema.
- ………………… (5)
8
Keys for the Olympiad tests in English
Grade 9
Task 1 1.D 2.B 3.A 4.B 5.C 6.B 7.D 8.B 9.C 10.A 11.C
12.B
13.D 14.C 15.D 16.B 17.B 18.C 19.B 20.D
Task 6 1.E 2. F 3. B 4. A 5. H
9
erovnuli saswavlo olimpiada inglisur enaSi
X-XII klasi, II turi
pasuxebi gadaitaneT testis bolos moTavsebul pasuxebis furcelze
Task 1
• Read the sentences and circle the right choice.
• Mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet.
1. John came to the UK in 2000. Next year he ....... there for 11 years.
A. will be B. would be C. will have been D. would have been
2. You have won a million! Oh, my God! My life ......, if I won this sum of money.
A. change B. will change C. would change D changed
3. If I...... a big garden around my house, I would keep many domestic animals.
A. have B. has C. will have D. had
4. We believe that in ten years’ time the doctors ..... a cure against cancer.
A. will find B. will have found C. find D. found
5. John .... this computer programme for a few weeks only and considers himself an IT expert.
A. uses B. is using C. had used D. has been using
6. Although this website ...... a lot of popularity for some years, I don’t think it will remain as popular
in future.
A. enjoys B. enjoyed C. has enjoyed D. had enjoyed
7. We .....our literature class, when the principal came in and asked us to leave the school building
immediately.
A. have B. had C. were having D. have had
8. The manager asked Ann if ....... this information for her project.
A. could she use B. can she use C. she use D. she could use
11. We won’t be able to use David’s computer ..... we know the password.
A. and B. when C. whether D. unless
13. I ..... have my lunch at home and watch TV than freeze outdoors eating hamburgers.
A. would better B. would rather C. had better D. had rather
1
15. Most of the people are keen ..... to Europe.
A. on travelling B. to travel C. at travelling D. for travel
17. The old saying says that the sooner you do things, ……. it is.
A. good B. the best C. the better D. good
Task 2
• Read the text and fill the gaps with the words given. Use each word only once. Four
words are extra.
• Mark the corresponding letter (A-N) on the answer sheet.
Tropical storms
Tropical storms develop over oceans in the summer. In different parts of the world they are called
cyclones, hurricanes, typhoons and (1) …… some parts willy-willies. Tropical storms are particularly
dangerous (2)……… they reach land because of the heavy rain, high winds and rises in the sea level.
Katrina became (3) ……… fourth hurricane of the season on 25 August 2005. It reached the land later
that day at 18.30 (4) ………. Hollandale Beach and Aventura, towns on the coast of Florida.
Katrina went out to sea and came (5)…….. to land again at 06.10 on 29 August with winds of 235km/h.
It went north at (6) ……… speed of 20 km/h and many seaside communities were damaged (7) ……….
the strong winds. The storm was so large that it created a rise in sea level, (8) ……. affected the entire
Mississippi Gulf Coast. The 10 metre rise which was recorded at Biloxi, Mississippi is the highest ever
seen in America. This rise in sea level and waves made a gap in the flood defences which protected New
Orleans, which was built on ground (9) ……… sea level and most of the city was flooded. As a result,
hurricane Katrina will be remembered as the most destructive natural disaster in the history of the United
States. 1,302 people died and damage cost more (10) …… 130 billion dollars.
2
Task 3
• Read the text and fill the gaps with the words given. Use each word only once. Four words
are extra.
• Mark the corresponding letter (A-N) on the answer sheet.
Many of the things we do, ……. (1) on receiving information from other people. …… (2)
a train, making a phone call and going to the cinema all involve …… (3) which is stored,
processed and communicated. In the past this information ………. (4) to be kept on paper in
the form of, for example, books, newspapers and timetables. Now more and more information is
stored in computers. Computers play an important role in our …… (5) lives. Consider the use of
computers in …… (6) shops and offices. Big shops, especially chain stores with branches all
over the country, have to …… (7) with very large amount of information. They have to make
sure there are …… (8) goods on the shelves for customers to buy. They need to be able to re-order
before stocks run out, to decide which things are selling well and so on. All the processes
are performed …… (9) and efficiently by computers. A lot of office work in the past involved
putting information on paper. Once it had been dealt with by people, the paper was put away
for future reference. This style of working was not ……. (10) easy or fast. A computerized system is
much more efficient.
3
Task 4
• Read the text. Then read the sentences which follow and find the correct answer.
• Mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet.
Sending Christmas cards is a very popular tradition in the USA as well as in many European countries.
At Christmas times post offices become jammed with Christmas cards which people send to their friends
and families all over the world wishing them Merry Christmas and a Happy New Year. But probably very
few of them know how this tradition started.
In the middle of the 19th century Henry Cole was a well-known museum director and a very popular man
in London. Every year he sent short notes to his friends at Christmas, wishing them a happy holiday
season. But in 1843 Henry Cole had no time for letter writing so he asked an artist John Horsley to design
a card with a printed message that would substitute his annual greeting. His request eventually started a
billion-dollar industry and added a tradition to the holiday season. He invented the Christmas card with
three pictures and one message which read Merry Christmas and a Happy New Year to You. Cole decided
to sell his card in a shop, and thousands of copies were placed on sale. By 1960 the tradition of sending
Christmas cards started.
Louis Prang, a German lithographer who settled in Boston, US, popularized the Christmas card in
America. He started a business of beautifully made Christmas cards, which dominated the market for
nearly 20 years. Today Americans send about four billion cards every Christmas. Ninety-five percent of
families send from 60 to 70 cards at Christmas, for which they pay an average of 20 cents each. For years,
landscapes have been the most popular design on Christmas cards, followed by holiday symbols such as
bells, wreaths, candles, also religious themes and, finally, Santa Claus. Not all Christmas cards are
professionally made. Some people sent out photographs of the baby, the new puppy or the retirement
home under the palms. Last year one family sent a card showing the husband and wife with their
progressively more expensive automobiles during their 20 years of marriage.
The growing paper shortage and rising postal rates affected the Christmas-card industry within the next
few years. The cards changed into smaller ones and to simple postal cards without envelopes.
Occasionally, Christmas cards have messages that have double meanings. But they are very rare. Since
the days when Henry Cole was too busy to write his annual greeting, the messages remain, with few
exceptions, specific, traditional and hopeful. The most popular phrases in holiday cards are Merry
Christmas and Peace on Earth.
4
3. Cole asked John Horsley to design a card because he
A. himself didn’t have this talent.
B. didn’t have time for this.
C. wanted to start a new business.
D. wanted John Horsley to become rich.
5. Louis Prang
A. was German who lived in the USA.
B. was American who lived in Germany.
C. was original American.
D. never changed his place of living.
8. Apart from some traditional things, a Christmas card may have a photo of
A. a family member only.
B. a beloved pet only.
C. a child only.
D. anything a sender wishes to.
5
Task 5
• Read the text and fill in the gaps with the right word (A,B,C or D).
• Mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet.
Studying abroad
As it is known, the most effective way of learning a language is by living in the country concerned, but
one should think ..… (1) before going abroad. Although some …...(2) arrange visits for children as
young as ten, the …. (3) of them won’t be ready to stay away from home and deal with ….. (4)
differences until they are in their teens. Even then they will need a basic …..(5) of the language and some
experience of foreign travel. Exchange visits are a good way for teenagers to …... (6) their language
skills. It is a good idea for them to exchange ..…. (7) before the visits. Host families should not feel any
…... (8) to provide an extensive program of …... (9). It is more important to make the guests feel
welcome. Travel can ….. (10) the mind, and exchange visits give young people experience of a different
way of life as well as a different language.
6
Task 6
• Read five small texts below in which five people are talking about the assistance from career
advisers. Then match the headings (A-J) with the texts (1-5). There are five extra headings,
which you do not need to use.
• Mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet.
Career advice
1___. Getting good advice about your future career is very important when you are still young. But
what I received at school when I was a high-school student was a ten-minute interview about a
career in banking or insurance. I was not interested in either of them. After university I remembered
how unhappy I was with the advice I was given at school about my future career and decided to
become a career adviser myself.
2____. I don’t understand how a complete stranger can help you choose your career when you are
so young. I believe it’s completely useless. In those days I had no idea what I wanted to do. I was
interested in films and music, but I did not know how to follow this career. After I left school, I did
not apply to any university and started going to clubs regularly. Only then did I realize that singing
was my vocation.
3____. I wanted to do engineering but I studied at a little rural school in Wales. If I’d been living in
Manchester, maybe they would have known better what to advise me as my future career. But even
at Cambridge University where later I studied engineering, hardly anyone gave you the right
advice. You had to learn on your mistakes. I guess it’s always different when the advice comes
from the people who are directly involved in this or that profession and know all in and outs of the
profession.
4.____. I went to a grammar school that was very sports-oriented, but the teachers always advised
us to concentrate on good exam results first. It was good advice. 70 percent of the graduates of our
school successfully applied to various universities. I also became a university student, but
unfortunately I didn’t finish my course because Leicester Football Club offered me a contract in the
middle of it.
5____. There was no careers advice whatsoever in my school. Maybe some students did have a
teacher talk to them, but there were no lessons or anything formal. I always knew I wanted to do
something like acting or being in front of a camera but had never got any useful information about
how to become an actress. However, it was my headmistress who noticed my talent and told me
that I should go on stage.
7
Task 7
• In the dialogue given below some sentences are missing. Fill in the dialogue with the
sentences given below (A-H). Three sentences are extra.
• Mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet.
- Look, let’s sort out a few details for Peter’s leaving party, shall we?
- …… …………… (1)
- In a couple of week’s time, the 27th. Now, have you booked the restaurant, Sally?
- No. Oh, I thought you were going to! Oh, dear, I am sorry! Which one did we decide on?
- We decided on a café called The Light. You know the one in Sharden Street. I hope they can
fit us in.
- …………………. (2)
- Fifteen, all at one big table. We’ll want to book the table from about 7:30, I think.
- OK . Oh, it’ll be sad saying goodbye to Peter, won’t it? ………………….. (3)
- Ten years. It’s a long time! But we’ll give him a good farewell! And the restaurant will arrange
something special!
- ……………………… (4)
- Good idea. And after the meal we can go to a night club perhaps, for a bit of dancing.
- …… ………………….. (5)
8
Keys for the Olympiad tests in English
Grade 12
Task 1 1.C 2.C 3.D 4.B 5.D 6.C 7. C 8. D 9.D 10. A 11.D 12.B
13.B
14.C 15.A 16.B 17.C 18.D 19.A 20.C
Task 3 1. B 2.D 3.H 4.M 5.F 6.A 7.C 8.E 9.K 10. I
Task 4 1.A 2.D 3.B 4.D 5.A 6.B 7. C 8.D 9.A 10.C
Task 6 1. C 2. D 3. E 4.A 5. J
9
Test in Deutsch
Olympiade, IX Klasse
pasuxebi gadaitaneT testis bolos moTavsebul pasuxebis furcelze
Aufgabe 1.
y Markieren Sie die richtige Antwort (A, B. C oder D).
y Übertragen Sie Ihre Antworten auf den Antwortbogen auf der letzten Seite
1. Hans und Monika zeigen __________ Gästen das Haus.
A. ihrem B. ihrer C. ihren D. seiner
2. Morgen fahre ich _________meiner Familie.
A. bei B. nach C. zu D. an
3. Es ist schade,________ich nicht mitfahren kann.
A. dass B. wann C. als D. während
4. Im Winter sind die Nächte __________ als im Sommer.
A. lang B. länger C. längsten D. langer
5. _________wen ärgert sich die Mutter?
A. Auf B. An C. Über D. Um
Aufgabe 2
y Ergänzen Sie die Lücken (1-10) in dem folgenden Text. Verwenden Sie die vor dem Text
angegebenen Wörter (A-N). Achten Sie darauf, dass vier Wörter zuviel sind.
y Die Wörter dürfen nur einmal eingesetzt werden.
y Übertragen Sie Ihre Antworten auf den Antwortbogen auf der letzten Seite
Lieber Peter,
danke (1)______ deine schnelle Antwort auf meinen letzten Brief! Ich freue mich sehr (2)_______ dein
Interesse an einer gemeinsamen Reise nach Georgien!
Ich denke, dass wir uns bald für unser genaueres Reiseziel entscheiden (3)_______. Ich würde gern ins
Gebirge reisen, da ich großes Interesse (4)______ hätte, mehrere Tage zu wandern und in verschiedenen
Hütten zu übernachten.
Ich möchte möglichst bald den Termin (5)_______ das Ziel unserer Reise festlegen, (6)_______ wir
Flugkarten schon jetzt reservieren können. Sonst bekommen wir vielleicht gar (7)_______ Platz mehr! Wenn
du nicht ins Gebirge möchtest, dann können wir ans Meer fahren, das Meer und der Strand sollen dort
wunderschön (8)_______. Was hältst du davon?
Mir wäre ein Termin Ende Juni am liebsten, weil es da noch nicht so heiß (9)_______ und noch weniger
Menschen unterwegs sind. Ich hoffe, dass auch du Ende Juni Zeit (10)_______ . Bitte schreibe mir bald, was
du von meinen Vorschlägen hältst, damit wir alles früh genug organisieren können!
Beste Grüße
Dein Nikolaus
2
Aufgabe 3
y Ergänzen Sie die Lücken (1-10) in dem folgenden Text. Verwenden Sie die vor dem Text
angegebenen Wörter (A-N). Achten Sie darauf, dass vier Wörter zuviel sind.
y Die Wörter dürfen nur einmal eingesetzt werden.
y Übertragen Sie Ihre Antworten auf den Antwortbogen auf der letzten Seite.
Eine alleinerziehende Mutter von drei Kindern gewann im Lotto 2 Millionen Euro. Die (1)_____sollte
eigentlich sehr zufrieden sein und am Anfang waren alle tatsächlich glücklich darüber. Aber (2)______
kündigte die Frau an, ihren Gewinn aus dem Lotto zurückzugeben. Alle wollten den Grund wissen. Nun
(3)______ sich folgendes heraus: Zufällig war die (4)_______ über ihren Gewinn mit vollem Namen und mit
Adresse an die Öffentlichkeit geraten. (5)_____ kam die Familie nicht mehr zur Ruhe: Telefonanrufe,
Spendeanrufe, Finanzberater, alte und neue (6)______. Zweimal wurde in die Wohnung (7)______, und was
noch schlimmer war – auch die Kinder wurden beinahe täglich von (8)_____ gestört, die ihre
„Exklusivstory“ haben wollten. Mit dem Gewinn der Millionen war der Frieden ausgezogen. (9)______ gab
die Frau nun auf. Ihre Ruhe sei (10)_____ viel teurer, erwiderte sie den neugierigen Journalisten.
3
Aufgabe 4
y Kreuzen Sie das richtige Wort (A, B, C oder D) an.
y Übertragen Sie Ihre Antworten auf den Antwortbogen auf der letzten Seite
Die alten Griechen hatten großen Einfluss auf spätere Kulturen, auch auf unsere. Sie lebten gar nicht alle in
einem großen Land wie es heute zum Beispiel in Ländern wie Frankreich oder Deutschland der Fall ist,
sondern in vielen kleinen Ländern. Das Zentrum jedes Landes bildete die so genannte "Polis" - das war eine
Art Stadtstaat.
Diese Stadtstaaten hatten oft Streitigkeiten miteinander, es wurden auch nicht selten Kriege geführt. Aber sie
hatten auch sehr viel gemeinsam, denn sie sprachen dieselbe Sprache, benutzten dieselbe Schrift und sie
beteten zu den gleichen Göttern.
Am Anfang hatten alle Stadtstaaten der Griechen noch Könige, es herrschte also eine Monarchie (das ist die
Herrschaft eines Einzelnen). Aber nach und nach setzte sich in allen Königreichen mit Ausnahme von Sparta
die Demokratie durch. In Sparta regierten immer die Könige. Das Wort "Demokratie" bedeutet soviel wie
"Herrschaft des Volkes".
Im alten Griechenland waren nur alle freien Männer wahlberechtigt. Sklaven und Frauen hatten kein
Wahlrecht. Das ändert aber nichts daran, dass das Staatssystem der Demokratie eine Erfindung der alten
Griechen war, die sich bis heute weiterentwickelt und in vielen Ländern der Erde durchgesetzt hat.
Aber die Demokratie ist bei weitem nicht die einzige Erfindung, für die die alten Griechen berühmt sind. Die
Griechen waren zum Beispiel die Begründer der Theaterkunst und natürlich der Olympischen Spiele.
Ebenfalls wichtig und einflussreich war die Schrift der Griechen. Sie war tatsächlich die erste Schrift, die
man so schreiben konnte, wie man sie sprach. Andere Völker nahmen sich die griechische Schrift zum
Vorbild, wie zum Beispiel die Römer. Sie wandelten die Buchstaben ab, aber das Prinzip blieb dasselbe. In
der Wissenschaft, zum Beispiel in der Mathematik, werden heute noch oft griechische Buchstaben verwendet.
In Griechenland gab es zahlreiche Philosophen, Wissenschaftler und Dichter, die auch heute gelesen und
bewundert werden.
Natürlich war nicht jeder Grieche ein einflussreicher Wissenschaftler oder Philosoph. Die meisten Menschen
in Griechenland waren "einfache Leute". Sie lebten in einfachen Holzhäusern. Das ist auch der Grund, warum
von den damaligen Wohnhäusern heute nichts mehr übrig ist. Einige der mächtigen Tempel haben allerdings
bis heute überdauert, obwohl sie schon über 2.000 Jahre alt sind. Die griechischen Tempel wurden aus
massivem Stein gebaut und können deshalb noch heute bestaunt werden .
Die Ernährung im alten Griechenland war im Allgemeinen ziemlich karg. Viele Lebensmittel waren in
Europa überhaupt nicht bekannt. Reis, Mais, Kartoffeln, Tomaten - das alles gab es im alten Griechenland
noch nicht. Die meisten Griechen ernährten sich von Brot oder Brei, von Bohnen sowie Früchten und
Milchprodukten. Die wohlhabenden Griechen konnten es sich leisten, auch regelmäßig Fleisch, Fisch oder
Gemüse zu essen.
4
3.Was wird im Text über Theater gesagt?
A) Im alten Griechenland gab es keine Theater
B) Römer waren die Begründer der Theaterkunst
C) Griechische Schauspieler werden bis heute bewundert
D) Theaterkunst entstand im alten Griechenland
5
Aufgabe 5
y Kreuzen Sie das richtige Wort (A, B, C oder D) an.
y Übertragen Sie Ihre Antworten auf den Antwortbogen auf der letzten Seite
Liebe Marie,
viele Grüße (1)_____ Bremen!. Wir haben gestern einen Schulausflug gemacht und einen botanischen Park
besucht. Ich habe (2)___ gar nicht gewusst, dass es mitten (3)_____ Deutschland einen tropischen Wald
gibt. In einem etwa 18 Meter (4)______ Glashaus wächst ein richtiger Dschungel mit über 1500
verschiedenen Pflanzen. Es ist da sehr (5)_____ und feucht - gerade das richtige Klima für die exotischen
Pflanzen und Tiere. Unser Lehrer hat auch Aufgaben verteilt. Ich musste einen Vogel (6)_____ und ihn
beschreiben. Das war gar nicht so (7)_____, weil er immer wieder weggeflogen ist . Meine Freundin hat eine
seltene Pflanze genauer (8)_____ . Ihre Ergebnisse hat sie uns später auch präsentiert. Also, das war wirklich
Klasse! Und es gibt da (9)_____ Wasserfälle. Wenn du mal (10)_____ Deutschland kommst, musst du
diesen Park unbedingt besuchen.
Alles Liebe
deine Gabi
6
Aufgabe 6
y Lesen Sie zuerst die Texte 1 bis 5 und dann die Überschriften A bis J.
y Entscheiden Sie dann, welcher Text zu welcher Überschrift passt.
y Sie können jeden Text und jede Überschrift nur einmal verwenden.
y Fünf Überschriften sind zu viel.
y Übertragen Sie Ihre Antworten auf den Antwortbogen auf der letzten Seite
Schüler antworten auf die Frage: Wer ist stärker - Mensch oder Natur?
1. Das ist ja gerade das Problem: Viele Menschen denken, sie sind stärker als die Natur und verändern alles
nach ihrem Geschmack. Das ist leider nicht mehr anzuhalten. Dass die Menschen angefangen haben, die
Umwelt zu zerstören, das finde ich einfach bescheuert. Viele Pflanzen und Tierarten sind ja schon
ausgestorben. Ich denke, dass wir schon soweit sind, dass die Welt schon vollständig aus den Rudern
gelaufen ist und niemand in der Lage ist, diesen Prozess rückgängig zu machen.
2. Gute Frage. Manche irren sich, dass der Mensch stärker ist als die Natur. Das stimmt aber nicht. Die Natur
kann viel mehr. Sie kann Winde wehen lassen, das kann kein Mensch. Sie kann Wasser strömen lassen, so
wie kein anderer. Sie lässt Pflanzen wachsen, und Blumen blühen. Sie ist weise, und zestört sich nicht selbst,
egal was der Mensch tut.
3. Andauernd hört man doch die Schlagworte in den Nachrichten: Ölkatastrophe im Golf von Mexiko, zuviel
CO² in der Luft usw. Diese Naturkatastrophen sind eigentlich nicht Naturkatastrophen sondern
Menschenkatastrophen, da sie von Menschen verursacht sind. Die Menschen haben aber gelernt, dass sie
diese Katastrophen auch vermeiden sollen, jetzt müssen wir lernen, wie man den Schaden wieder gut macht.
Das gibt Hoffnung.
4. Die Zukunft liegt in Weltraumforschung. Ich denke, dass die Menschheit bald die Erde verläßt und andere,
vielleicht sogar, bessere Planeten findet. Das ist wie die Landwirtschaft, wir werden immer wieder neue
Flächen bearbeiten und die Alten werden sich inzwischen regenerieren. Die Natur kann sich selbst helfen. So
werden wir immer genug Platz zum Leben haben.
5. Ich denke, dass die Frage nicht ganz korrekt ist. Der Mensch ist ein Teil der Natur und alles was er macht
gehört der Natur. Wenn der Mensch stark ist, dann ist auch die Natur stark. In vielen Zoos werden seltene
Tierarten gerettet, man kümmert sich um Flora und Fauna. Ich denke, dass es keine Gründe für die Panik
gibt. Einige Fehler machen ja kein Bild der Menschheit aus.
Unsere Journalistin Frau Weber spricht Menschen auf der Strasse an. Ihr Gesprächspartner ist heute Herr
Müller. Es geht um die Arbeit und die Familie.
8
Olympiade Klasse IX
Lösungen :
Aufgabe 1
1.C; 2.C; 3.A; 4.B; 5.C; 6.D; 7.C; 8.A; 9.B; 10.A;
11.D; 12.B; 13.C; 14.A; 15.A; 16.C; 17.B; 18.B; 19.D; 20.D;
Aufgabe 2
1. D; 2. F; 3. N; 4. H; 5. L; 6. A; 7. K; 8.C; 9. J; 10. E;
Aufgabe 3
Aufgabe 4
1. B; 2. C; 3.D; 4.B; 5.A; 6.D; 7. D; 8. D; 9 .B; 10 .D;
Aufgabe 5
1. C; 2. D; 3. A; 4. C; 5. C; 6. A; 7. D; 8. A; 9.B; 10. D;
Aufgabe 6
1. B; 2.I; 3. G; 4. F; 5. D;
Aufgabe 7.
1. D; 2. F; 3. A; 4. G; 5. C;
9
Test in Deutsch
Olympiade, X-XII Klasse
pasuxebi gadaitaneT testis bolos moTavsebul pasuxebis furcelze
Aufgabe 1.
y Markieren Sie die richtige Antwort (A, B. C oder D).
y Übertragen Sie Ihre Antworten auf den Antwortbogen auf der letzten Seite
1. Meine Tochter spielt in __________ Freizeit Tennis.
A. ihrem B. ihrer C. ihr D. seiner
2. Herr Klaus berichtet _________seinen letzten Urlaub.
A. um B. über C. an D. auf
4. Ich fahre gern ans Meer, aber noch ___________ ins Gebirge.
A. gern B. liebsten C. lieber D. lieb
5. Denkt er oft an die Prüfung? Ja, er muss immer __________ denken.
A. darauf B. daran C. darüber D. damit
6. Der Dieb __________ gestern von der Polizei gefaßt.
A. werden B. wurden C. wird D. wurde
7. Dresden ist nicht so groß _______ Berlin.
A. wie B. als C. wenn D. wo
8. Er fährt ein teures Auto, __________er sagt, dass er kein Geld hat.
A. dass B. obwohl C. als D. oder
Aufgabe 2
y Ergänzen Sie die Lücken (1-10) in dem folgenden Text. Verwenden Sie die vor dem Text
angegebenen Wörter (A-N). Achten Sie darauf, dass vier Wörter zuviel sind.
y Die Wörter dürfen nur einmal eingesetzt werden.
y Übertragen Sie Ihre Antworten auf den Antwortbogen auf der letzten Seite
ich habe Ihre Anzeige in der Berliner Post vom 12. April gelesen. Die Arbeit interessiert mich sehr und
___(1)___ würde ich gerne mehr darüber wissen. Ich bin 17 Jahre alt und lerne in der letzten Klasse. Da
unser Schuljahr ___(2)___ Mai endet, könnte ich am 1. Juli schon in Berlin ___(3)___ . Meine Eltern sind
damit einverstanden.
Ich habe zwei jüngere Schwestern von 11 und 13 Jahren, ___(4)___ ich bei den Hausaufgaben helfen muss.
Ich würde gern ein Jahr in Frankfurt bleiben, bis ich mit dem Studium an der Uni beginne. ___(5)___ der Zeit
in Berlin würde ich gern einige Abendkurse besuchen. Bitte schreiben Sie mir, ___(6)___ ich für einen
solchen Kurs frei bekommen kann. Ich hätte auch gern gewusst, wie mein Tagesplan aussieht und ___(7)___
ich machen muss.
Ich schicke Ihnen mit diesem Brief ein Foto von mir, ___(8)___ Sie wissen, wie ich aussehe. Natürlich kann
ich auch ___(9)___ Berlin kommen, ___(10)___ mich vorzustellen. Ich würde mich freuen, wenn ich von
Ihnen eine Antwort bekomme.
Wir, Europäer, sind eine mobile Gesellschaft und das Auto ist das beste (1)_____ für individuelle
Mobilität. Jeder einzelne von uns ist bereit, große Teile seines Einkommens fürs (2)______ auszugeben. Und
die (3)_____ ist unser Wirtschaftsfaktor Nummer eins. Mehr als 870000 Menschen arbeiten hier. Wir wollen
und können gar nicht ohne Auto leben: In Deutschland gibt es 70 Millionen (4)___.
Das ist heute. Doch wie sieht die Zukunft aus? Der (5)_____ Feind des Autos ist das Auto selbst.
Das Automobil befriedigt den (6)_____ nach individueller Mobilität so perfekt, dass niemand darauf
(7)____ will. Deshalb gibt es Probleme mit den Auswirkungen auf die Natur, mit der Sicherheit und sogar
mit der Mobilität selbst. Zum Beispiel (8)____ jeder deutsche Autofahrer im Durchschnitt pro Jahr drei
(9)____ im Stau. Aber mit Aussteigen löst man nicht (10)____, denn Verbote und Beschränkungen sind
nicht nur das Ende der Mobilität, sondern auch das Ende unserer Kreativität.
3
Aufgabe 4
y Kreuzen Sie das richtige Wort (A, B, C oder D) an.
y Übertragen Sie Ihre Antworten auf den Antwortbogen auf der letzten Seite
Wir verbringen einen großen Teil unseres Lebens im Schlaf. Ausreichend Schlaf ist sehr wichtig für unser
körperliches und seelisches Befinden.
Eine genaue Stundenzahl, wie viel Schlaf ein Mensch braucht, gibt es nicht. Vielmehr zählt die Qualität des
Schlafens. Manch einer ist schon nach fünf Stunden fit, ein anderer benötigt mindestens neun Stunden, um
erholt aus dem Bett zu kommen. Außerdem stimmt es nicht, dass man umso weniger Schlaf braucht, je älter
man wird. Es erscheint so, da ältere Menschen nachts oft weniger schlafen - das holen sie allerdings tagsüber
nach.
Säuglinge hingegen schlafen tatsächlich besonders viel - bis zu 20 Stunden täglich. Normalerweise schlafen
die erwachsenen Menschen 7 – 8 Stunden. Für uns alle gilt allerdings: Schlaf ist lebensnotwendig. Leiden
wir unter anhaltenden Schlafstörungen, hat das erhebliche Folgen: Wir sind körperlich wenig leistungsfähig,
wir sind reizbar und unausgeglichen. Schlafen ist also nicht nur für unseren Körper wichtig, sondern auch für
unser seelisches Befinden. Schlaf gilt als „die beste Medizin“.
Im Schlaf gibt es viele verschiedene Schlafphasen. Die erste Hälfte des Schlafs ist für uns die wichtigste.
Wenn wir in dieser Zeit oft gestört werden, sind wir danach nicht richtig ausgeruht. Allgemein ist der Schlaf
weniger erholsam, wenn wir durch Licht oder Geräusche gestört werden. Deshalb ist es weniger entspannend,
tagsüber zu schlafen. Dabei träumen wir auch deutlich mehr, weil wir uns seltener im Tiefschlaf befinden.
Im Tiefschlaf sinkt die Körpertemperatur und alle Funktionen werden auf das Minimum heruntergefahren.
Der Körper ist beinahe wie gelähmt, in diesem Zustand wären wir kaum in der Lage, ein Bein, einen Arm
oder einen Finger zu bewegen. In dieser Phase des Schlafens erholen wir uns am besten.
Die Schlafphasen wechseln sich nachts mehrmals ab. Die meisten Tiefschlafphasen erlebt man allerdings in
der ersten Hälfte der Nacht. Hat man es bis zur ersten Tiefschlafphase geschafft, ist auch die Traumphase
nicht mehr weit. Der Körper wechselt nun zu einem leichten Schlaf, und wir beginnen zu träumen.
Viele Menschen können sich nur an Träume in schwarz-weiß erinnern. Andere glauben, ausschließlich bunt
zu träumen. Manche Menschen träumen sowohl in Farbe als auch schwarz-weiß. Laut Traumforschern und
Psychologen sollen Frauen viel häufiger farbig träumen als Männer. Was die Ursachen dafür sind, weiß man
nicht mit Sicherheit. Einige Forscher vermuten, dass farbige Träume mit einem emotionaleren und
intensiveren Gefühlsleben zusammenhängen.
Nicht nur Frauen und Männer, sondern auch Kinder und Erwachsene träumen auf unterschiedliche Art. Im
Kindesalter kommt es häufiger zu Albträumen, und oft sind die Träume fantastischer und weniger real.
Kinder erinnern sich auch öfter an ihre Träume.
4
3. Der Mensch erholt sich am besten
A) wenn er Geräusche hört
B) wenn er am Tage schläft
C) in der Tiefschlafphase
D) in der Traumphase
7. Die Kinder
A) haben völlig reale Träume
B) vergessen oft ihre Träume
C) erinnern sich oft an ihre Träume
D) haben nur farbige Träume
5
Aufgabe 5
y Kreuzen Sie das richtige Wort (A, B, C oder D) an.
y Übertragen Sie Ihre Antworten auf den Antwortbogen auf der letzten Seite
Liebe Anne,
danke für deinen langen Brief, ich habe mich wirklich sehr ___(1)___ gefreut. Und ___(2)___ Glückwunsch
zu deinem neuen Job. Da hast du wirklich Glück gehabt, dass du diese Stelle als Sekretärin ___(3)___ hast.
Ich arbeite jetzt in ___(4)___ Fitnessstudio. Das gefällt mir, ___(5)___ es nicht mein Traumjob ist. Du weißt
ja, dass ich Sport ___(6)___ habe und eigentlich Sportlehrerin werden wollte. Aber leider ist es nicht einfach,
eine Stelle an einer Schule zu ___(7)___. Vielleicht klappt es ja später einmal.
Ein Vorteil bei meiner Arbeit ist, dass ich ganz gut ___(8)___. Außerdem brauche ich natürlich nichts zu
bezahlen, ___(9)___ ich selbst trainiren möchte.
Jetzt muss ich aber leider gehen. ___(10)___ Mal erzähle ich dir mehr.
Alles Liebe
deine Marie
6
Aufgabe 6
y Lesen Sie zuerst die Texte 1 bis 5 und dann die Überschriften A bis J.
y Entscheiden Sie dann, welcher Text zu welcher Überschrift passt.
y Sie können jeden Text und jede Überschrift nur einmal verwenden.
y Fünf Überschriften sind zuviel.
y Übertragen Sie Ihre Antworten auf den Antwortbogen auf der letzten Seite
Schüler antworten auf die Frage: Sind wir Menschen von Natur aus eher gut oder böse?
1. Man kann das ja nicht so schwarz-weiss sehen. Wir Menschen sind eher grau, wenn ihr versteht was ich
meine? Ich glaube, dass fast alle Menschen nur gute Absichten haben, und dass es nur an der Umsetzung
manchmal scheitert. Ich denke, dass Außerirdische uns nicht als böse sondern als dumm und rücksichtslos
bezeichnen würden, weil wir so nachlässig mit unserem Planeten und mit uns selbst umgehen.
2. Also: ich denke, wenn ein Mensch geboren wird, ist er schon "gut" oder "böse". In der weiteren
Entwicklung spielen die Gene des Menschen eine größere Rolle, als der Einfluß der Erziehung oder der
Kultur allgemein. Wir, mein Nachbar und ich, lernen in einer Schule. Seine Eltern verhalten sich grob und
unfreundlich. Und ich muss sagen, dass es kein Wunder ist, dass das Sozialverhalten des Sohnes auch nicht
ideal ist. So wie im Sprichwort: der Apfel fällt nicht weit vom Stamm.
3. Wir Menschen werden durch Erziehung geprägt und das ist in mancher Hinsicht gut oder schlecht. Wenn
man z.B. als Kind stets geschlagen wurde, kann man als Erwachsener schon mal böse sein. Aber wer ist
daran dann schuldig? Ich bin überzeugt – die Eltern. Weil die Eltern das ja so weiter gegeben haben. Sie
haben ihre Kinder auch so erzogen... Ich habe Glück mit meinen Eltern und hoffe, dass ich gut bin.
4. Ich glaube, man ist von Natur aus gut! Die meisten Leute werden böse, weil ihnen in ihrem Leben etwas
Schlechtes passiert ist, z.B. ein Todesfall von einem Familienmitglied oder ein hartes Leben. Viele böse
Leute wollen sich einfach an der Menschheit rächen und darum machen sie schlechte Sachen. Ich denke, dass
solche Leute Probleme haben, sich wieder in die Gesellschaft zu integrieren. Sie fühlen sich als ob man sie
vom Bort geschmissen hätte.
5. Der Mensch ist von Natur aus „Mensch“, und Mensch zu sein heißt ein Tier zu sein. Wenn das stimmt,
dann sind wir von der Natur her eher böse. Tiere sind egoistisch und agressiv, wie auch die Menschen. Ich
weiß, dass viele mit mir nicht einverstanden werden, aber versuchen wir etwas selbskritischer zu sein. Das ist
nur Kultur und Erziehung, die uns zwingen, sich gut zu benehmen, einanader etwas zu schenken, Gutes zu
tun, aber im Herzen sind wir doch anders.
7
Aufgabe 7.
y Lesen Sie den Dialog.
y Ergänzen Sie die Lücken (1-5) mit den Sätzen (A-H).
y Drei Sätze sind zuviel.
y Übertragen Sie Ihre Antworten auf den Antwortbogen auf der letzten Seite
8
Olympiade Klasse XII
Lösungen :
Aufgabe 1
1.B; 2.B; 3.C; 4.C; 5.B; 6.D; 7.A; 8.B; 9.D; 10.A;
11.D; 12.B; 13.C; 14.B; 15.A; 16.D; 17.B; 18.A; 19.C; 20.A;
Aufgabe 2
1. I; 2. G; 3. H; 4. F; 5. C; 6. N; 7. A; 8.D; 9. K; 10. M;
Aufgabe 3
1.E; 2. N; 3. B; 4. C; 5. I; 6. F; 7. M, 8. L; 9. K 10.A;
Aufgabe 4
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. D 7.C 8.A 9.C 10. B
Aufgabe 5
1. C; 2.B; 3.A; 4A; 5.D; 6. A; 7.B; 8. B; 9. D; 10.D;
Aufgabe 6
1. F; 2.D; 3. A; 4. H; 5. I;
Aufgabe 7.
1. F; 2. D; 3. H; 4. A; 5. B;
9
ეროვნული სასწავლო ოლიმპიადა ფრანგულ ენაში
IX კლასი II ტური
პასუხები გადაიტანეთ ტესტის ბოლოს მოთავსებულ პასუხების ფურცელზე
Exercice 1
Lisez les phrases suivantes et complétez- les avec les mots correspondants choisis parmi les quatre
versions données. Mettez les réponses dans la grille des réponses.
Tout le monde connaît Astérix, le héros d’Uderzo et Goscinny _________ (1) les aventures ont
toujours beaucoup de succès. Parmi les aventures d’Astérix, il y en a une très intéressante et très drôle
_________ (2) permet de connaître un peu les villes françaises et leurs spécialités. L’album s’appelle le tour
de Gaule d’Astérix.
Astérix et ses amis découvrent un jour que les Romains ont construit un mur autour du village
__________ (3) les empêcher de passer. Les villageois parient alors aux Romains qu’ils peuvent quand même
aller _________ (4) ils veulent, en Gaule. Ils envoient Astérix et son ami Obélix faire le tour de la Gaule. Pour
prouver aux Romains qu’ils ont bien fait le tour de Gaule, ils doivent ramener quelques spécialités de toutes
les villes _________ (5) ils traversent.
Ils partent de leur village de Bretagne et vont d’abord __________ (6) Rouen où ils prennent un
bateau pour aller à Paris en remontant la Seine. À Paris, ils achètent du jambon puis ils continuent leur chemin
et de cette manière ils traversent toutes les villes de la France et en ramènent les spécialités régionales.
Les Romains essaient de les empêcher, __________ (7) ils n'y arrivent pas. À la fin de l’histoire, en
rentrant __________ (8) eux Astérix et Obélix n’oublient pas ___________ (9) offrir aux Romains la
spécialité de leur village, une bonne châtaigne ___________ (10) tout ce qu'ils ont ramené de leur voyage.
Exercice 3
Lyon est une ________ (1) qui a 2000 ans d’histoire. Son riche patrimoine ________ (2) montre les
différentes époques et raconte son histoire. Grâce à son patrimoine très riche, Lyon a été inscrit au Patrimoine
mondial de l'humanité.
La ville de Lyon est située dans la vallée du Rhône. Il est très ________ (3) d’aller à Lyon si on vient
de Paris. Vous pouvez ________ (4) le TGV, il faut 2h, vous pouvez aussi y aller en avion, cela prend une
heure.
A Lyon, vous trouverez de ________ (5) musées qui proposent des animations pour tout le monde :
des visites à thèmes, des conférences, des contes, des ateliers. Et pour que tout le monde en profite, la plupart
de grands musées lyonnais sont accessibles aux handicapés et le Musée de Beaux-arts propose des visites
spéciales pour les gens qui ont des difficultés pour ________ (6) ou pour voir.
Vous aimerez vous promener dans la ville où chaque ________ (7) a gardé de petits coins de nature
avec de nombreux parcs, des jardins, des places aux ________ (8) rafraîchissantes, des espaces verts et les
quais du Rhône et de la Saône où vous pourrez louer un « Velov » pour faire une petite promenade à vélo.
Les ________ (9) de football pourront voir des matchs magnifiques avec Olympique lyonnais, c’est le
nom du club de football de Lyon. Et si vous n’aimez pas le foot, vous pourrez toujours goûter à la ________
(10) locale qui est célèbre dans le monde entier.
Exercice 4
Lisez le texte ci-dessous. Parmi les 4 versions suivantes (A,B,C,D) trouvez celle qui correspond à
chacune des questions. Mettez les réponses dans la grille des réponses.
Jean-Paul Belmondo
Jean-Paul Belmondo est né le 9 avril 1933 à Neuilly-sur-Seine d’un père sculpteur réputé d’origine
italienne, et d’une mère artiste peintre. C’est lors d’une période de convalescence en Auvergne, que Jean-Paul
Belmondo, âgé de 16 ans, décide de devenir acteur.
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Ce passionné de sport, va dès lors intégrer les cours de Raymond Girard , qui l’aide à préparer son
admission en 1951 au concours du Conservatoire d’art dramatique. Il aura pour mentor, dans cette prestigieuse
institution, Pierre Dux . Mais il n’y fera pas long feu, le jeune homme peu enclin à la discipline sera renvoyé
au bout de quatre ans. Il y rencontrera quand même Jean Rochefort. Il fait ses vrais débuts sur les planches
avec Médée de Jean Anouilh au Théâtre de l’Atelier, dans la mise en scène d' André Barsacq .
A seulement 20 ans il épouse Elodie Constantin, une danseuse. Son premier enfant, Patricia
Belmondo, naîtra en 1958, année où Jean-Paul fait ses débuts au cinéma en interprétant un petit rôle dans Sois
belle et tais-toi . Dans la salle où il a auditionné pour le rôle, il rencontre un certain Alain Delon , encore
inconnu, qui sera lui-même engagé. Ce sera leur premier film ensemble.
Jean-Paul Belmondo a 25 ans quand il joue avec Bourvil, Arletty, Danielle Darrieux et Roger Hanin dans « Un
drôle de dimanche » de Marc Allégret sorti en 1958.
Il enchaînera, entre autres, avec Les tricheurs . C'est lors de ce tournage que Jean-Paul Belmondo fait
la rencontre d'un jeune cinéaste, Jean-Luc Godard . Rencontre prodigieuse, Jean-Luc Godard lui offrira, en
effet, son ticket pour le succès en lui proposant son premier grand rôle dans l’inoubliable A bout de souffle (les
Américains en feront d’ailleurs un remake en 1983 avec Richard Gere en tête d’affiche). Contre toute attente,
le film provoque une véritable déferlante à sa sortie en 1960, et est érigé en symbole de la Nouvelle Vague du
Cinéma.
Accaparé par le septième art, Bébel délaissera le théâtre à partir de 1959, et n’y reviendra que presque
trente ans après, en 1989, avec la pièce Kean de Jean-Paul Sartre, mise en scène par Robert Hossein au
Théâtre Marigny.
L'acteur est une véritable tête brûlée. C'est un véritable cascadeur connu pour s’être toujours opposé
au fait de se faire doubler dans ses scènes d’action à haute voltige, et le hasard fait que c'est sur les planches
que Belmondo, fait un malaise cardiaque lors de la représentation de « Frederick ou le Boulevard du Crime »,
en 1999.
Exercice 5
Lisez les phrases suivantes et complétez- les avec les mots correspondants choisis parmi les quatre
versions données. Mettez les réponses dans la grille des réponses.
1. Mon cousin cherche un ………………… à Batoumi parce qu’il veut vivre au bord de la mer.
2. Dans les grandes villes, il est ………………….. de fumer dans des lieux publics.
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6. J’ai acheté des ……………………… parce que je veux être très élégante pour votre dîner.
8. Elle a ……………….. de lire cette œuvre avant d’aller voir ce film, ça l’aidera à le comprendre.
9. J’ai envie d’un …………………… pour trouver des informations sur Internet.
10. Le problème était assez difficile mais ……………….. ton aide j’ai trouvé la meilleure solution.
Exercice 6
Parmi les dix affirmations données (A-J) choisissez celles qui correspondent aux 5 témoignages.
Attention ! il y a une affirmation correspondante pour chaque témoignage.
Mettez les réponses dans la grille des réponses.
Que regardez-vous à la télé et pourquoi ?
1. Si je regarde la télé, c’est plutôt pour voir des films. Je suis une fan de séries télé, et notamment de la série
« La génération de chips » qui aborde des sujets qui touchent les jeunes. Il n’y a aucune censure. Les jeunes
parlent un langage familier comme les jeunes d’aujourd’hui.
Ce qui est le plus énervant c’est la coupure pub au milieu des films. Les pubs sont tellement longues qu’à leur
fin je ne sais plus ni ce que je regarde ni de quoi parle-t-on.
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2. Moi, je regarde la télé pour les journaux télévisés. Mais irrégulièrement, par manque de temps plus que par
manque d’intérêt. Alors souvent je suis obligé d’écouter les infos à la radio en voiture chaque matin. Les
journaux ce n’est pas pratique! Ils me font les mains noires et puis vous savez combien d’arbre on tue et
combien on produit de déchets avec tous ces papelards ? Et puis, ça coûte assez cher !
3. En ce qui me concerne, j’aime regarder les matchs de foot. Je les regarde avec mes copains. On achète de la
bière, de la pizza, on s’installe devant l’écran et on se prépare pour voir un spectacle. Oui, pour moi un bon
match est un spectacle, ça me fait un grand plaisir. Deux équipes sont là pour gagner, se battre. Je ne
comprends pas ceux qui regardent « reality-shows » ou des trucs dans ce genre où on nous trompe, on nous
prend pour des imbéciles.
4. La télévision, j’ai envie de dire quotidienne, telle qu’on la voit tous les jours modifie notre comportement.
On est dépendant, on vit au rythme de la télévision, elle nous montre régulièrement des guerres, elle nous a
habitués à voir plein d’horreurs et ça ne nous étonne plus.
Quant aux adolescents qui regardent beaucoup la télévision pensent que le monde est plus violent et se sentent
plus agressés que ceux qui la regardent moins.
5. Quand j’étais petite je regardais beaucoup la télévision, beaucoup plus qu’aujourd’hui. Je trouve que chez
nous les émissions de jeunesse ont plus de qualité, que celles faites pour mon âge, c’est plus limité quoi. Donc
on fait une sélection plus importante, on est peut-être un peu plus sévère vis-à-vis du programme. Maintenant
je regarde pour vivre une belle histoire en regardant un film. Mes petits-fils ne la regardent jamais car ils
préfèrent passer les soirées devant l’écran de leur ordinateur. Ce n’est plus étonnant, car d’après l’enquête
menée par l’IPSOS la consommation télévisuelle des 8 à 12 ans a baissé de près de moitié en quinze ans.
Complétez le dialogue ci-dessous avec les 5 phrases qui manquent. Vous trouverez les phrases
nécessaires dans la liste qui suit le dialogue avec trois phrases intruses.
Mettez les réponses dans la grille des réponses.
Marie – Imagine-toi, que mes copines ne parlent que de la mode, malgré l’âge qu’elles ont, mais moi
j’aimerais plutôt avoir un nouveau bijou qu’un nouveau vêtement.
Anne – Pour moi aussi, la mode c’est important, parce que ça permet de changer. Moi aussi, j’ai 50 ans
mais je ne peux pas me passer de la mode. Deux fois par an je vais chez Zara ou chez Benetton pour
renouveler mes toilettes. Moi, mes vêtements, je les achète moi-même à Saint-Germain des Prés.
1.__________
Marie- Moi, je n’ai jamais acheté un vêtement toute seule, parce que je ne m’y connais pas du tout et il
faut que je sois accompagnée pour ne pas acheter quelque chose de terrible. 2. __________
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Anne – Et qu’est-ce que tu achètes surtout?
Marie – J’achète surtout un tailleur ou un pantalon. Quotidiennement, je suis toujours en pantalon et en
mocassins…
Anne – 3.__________. Je ne me sens pas bien dans ma peau: je trouve que ça ne me va pas. Les robes
longues qui tombent jusqu’aux pieds, oui, ça va, mais pas les robes courtes.
Marie –Grâce à ma sœur, moi, je n’ai que deux blouses mais beaucoup de sweat-shirts. Ce sont souvent
des marques parce que c’est des cadeaux. 4.__________
Anne – Tu as raison, pour moi, les marques, c’est pour se distinguer, pour être différente des autres. Tu
ne penses pas que les tailleurs Chanel sont les meilleurs ? J’en ai un, tout neuf que je porterai à l’anniversaire
de Louise. Mais il me faut un collier en perles pour porter avec.
Marie – 5.__________ . Tu sais très bien que je suis plutôt amatrice de bijoux.
მე-9 კლასი
Exercice 1
1 – C ; 2 – D ; 3 – B ; 4 – B ; 5 – D ; 6 – B ; 7 – A ; 8 – C ; 9 – D ; 10 – B ; 11 – D ; 12 – B ; 13 – C ; 14 – C ;
15 – B ; 16 – C; 17 – D; 18 – A; 19 – C; 20 – B
Exercice 2
1 – G; 2 – D; 3 – M; 4 – B; 5 – J; 6 – H; 7 – A; 8 – F; 9 – L; 10 – K
Exercice 3
1 – E; 2 – L; 3 – F; 4 – B; 5 – I; 6 – A; 7 – N; 8 – C; 9 – K; 10 – H
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Exercice 4
1 – C; 2 – B; 3 – C; 4 – A; 5 – C; 6 – B; 7 – A; 8 – A; 9 – C; 10 – A
Exercice 5
1 – A; 2 – D; 3 – C; 4 – C; 5 – A; 6 – D; 7 – B; 8 – B; 9 – D; 10 – C
Exercice 6
1 – D; 2 – G; 3 – A; 4 – J; 5 – B
Exercice 7
1 – E; 2 – D; 3 – C; 4 – G; 5 – A
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ეროვნული სასწავლო ოლიმპიადა ფრანგულ ენაში
X-XII კლასი II ტური
პასუხები გადაიტანეთ ტესტის ბოლოს მოთავსებულ პასუხების ფურცელზე
Exercice 1
Lisez les phrases suivantes et complétez- les avec les mots correspondants choisis parmi les quatre
versions données. Mettez les réponses dans la grille des réponses.
1. Si notre équipe _________ le match hier, nous aurions eu le grand prix.
A. gagne B. avait gagné C. gagnaient D. a gagné
2. Ce matin maman a acheté du pain, du beurre et un paquet ________ bonbons.
A. des B. du C. de la D. de
3. Le groupe _________ garçons a remporté le concours.
A. le B. de C. les D. des
4. Hier j'ai lu des journaux _____________
A. internationales B. international C. internationaux D. internationals
5. Les footballeurs __________ ont gagné la coupe d'Europe en 2004
A. grecs B. Grèce C. grecques D. grecque
6. Le professeur a convoqué les parents d'élèves et il s'est adressé à __________
A. elles B. les C. eux D. leur
7. Votre voiture est économique mais ___________ consomme beaucoup d'essences.
A. ma B. le mien C. mon D. la mienne
8. Sophie a des problèmes, je pense qu'il faut ___________ aider.
A. lui B. l' C. les D. elle
9. J'ai beaucoup de travail, il faut que je m' ___________ occupe
A. il B. en C. y D. l'
10. J'ai vu tous les deux clips, mais j'ai préféré _________ Michel a tourné
A. celui B. celui que C. celui qui D. celui de
11. Hier j'ai vu le film __________ mes amis m'ont parlé.
A. celui B. qui C. dont D. que
12. Il est sorti dans la rue au moment _________ la pluie a commencé.
A. que B. où C. dont D. qui
13. __________ est prêt pour l'anniversaire de Nicolas.
A. Tout B. Tous C. Toute D. Toutes
14. Jean a lu le texte mais il n'a __________ compris.
A. aucun B. tout C. rien D. plus
15. Les amies se sont __________ au téléphone.
A. parlés B. parlée C. parlé D. parlées
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16. Cette robe a été __________ par un couturier étranger.
A. fit B. faite C. faites D. fais
17. Ce chien est très docile, n'_________ pas peur
A. avoir B. as C. aies D. ai
18. Les touristes ont déclaré qu'ils _________ l'année prochaine en Géorgie
A. reviennent B. reviendraient C. reviendront D. sont revenus
19. Il faut aider ________ Paul, il a des problèmes
A. à B. de C. --------- D. pour
20. Charles chante bien, mais Georges chante __________
A. mieux B. plus bien C. meilleur D. plus bon
Exercice 2
A) que E) de I) et M) pourtant
B) dont F) avec J) si N) sur
C) dans G) par K) à
D) en H) qui L) mais
Construit en 1862 _______ (1) le jeune architecte Charles Garnier dans le style Second Empire. Il a
été achevé en 1875 aux premiers jours de la Troisième République. C'était alors le plus grand opéra au
monde. Il est intéressant de noter que cet édifice massif a été construit _______ (2) une rivière souterraine. Le
style second empire était le premier en matière d'architecture d'opéra en particulier grâce _______ (3) l'Opéra
Garnier devenu une référence en ce domaine.
Le théâtre est richement décoré. Le grand escalier, _______ (4) les dix premières marches forment
une cage d'escalier pompeuse, débouche sur le grand foyer _______ (5) ouvre sur les loges aux moulures
fleuries. A l'extérieur comme à l'intérieur le jeu de la pierre blanche et des marbres colorés _______ (6) les
bronzes dorés des statues souligne la majesté des proportions. Les nouvelles fresques du plafond aux couleurs
vives ont été conçues et réalisées par Marc Chagall ________ (7) 1964. Au milieu est suspendu un immense
chandelier de cristal de six tonnes.
L'Opéra est une académie de musique et de danse ainsi qu'un lieu d'enchantement imprégné de la
passion qui anime les arts lyriques depuis leur origine. Des compositeurs _______ (8) chorégraphes de génie,
grands instrumentistes, chanteurs et danseurs y ont donné le meilleur d'eux-mêmes dans un éventail de
registres allant du désespoir au sublime. C'est ainsi que les plus spectaculaires intrigues d'un monde
romantique se nouaient et se dénouaient sur scène, _______ (9) les loges d'artiste ou de spectateur et dans les
ailes de ce palais mythologique. Il n'est pas facile d'obtenir des billets pour une représentation, _______ (10)
en aucun cas ne manquez pas de goûter à l'ambiance d'or et de velours rouge du bâtiment lui-même.
2
Exercice 3
Le Stade de France ________ (1) depuis 1998 les grandes manifestations sportives dans trois
disciplines principales: le football, le rugby et l'athlétisme.
La tenue en France d'un événement de portée planétaire - la dernière Coupe du Monde de football du siècle a
permis la construction de ce grand ________ (2).
Conçu par les architectes Macary Zubléna Regembal Costantini, construit et exploité ________ (3)
30 ans par le Consortium Bouygues, l'ouvrage n'est pas un stade classique. Sa capacité de 80 000 places
assises et couvertes l'équivalent de la ________ (4) de la ville d'Avignon, son niveau de confort très supérieur
à celui d'autres équipements existants et la qualité de ses installations inégalées en France en font un
équipement exceptionnel pour des manifestations hors du commun.
Le Stade de France est non seulement le Stade où ________ (5) les équipes de France de football et
de rugby mais également la plus grande salle de spectacles en ________ (6) air de France. Au total, 1 750
000 ________ (7) sont attendus chaque année pour une quarantaine d'événements.
Le toit, qui pèse l'équivalent d'une Tour Eiffel et demie (14.000 tonnes), est suspendu à 40 mètres de
________ (8). C'est l'une des caractéristiques architecturales majeures du Stade de France. Autres aspects
remarquables: les 18 escaliers monumentaux, en forme de proue de bateau, et les gradins mobiles. La
tribune basse, d'une capacité de 25 000 places, recule en effet de 15 mètres pour transformer le Stade de
France en un stade________ (9). Il s'agit d'un véritable défi technique, une telle flexibilité n'ayant jamais été
réalisée à pareille échelle.
Le coût total de réalisation du Stade de France s'élève à 2,6 milliards de francs. L'ouvrage a été
achevé le 30 novembre 1997 et mis en service le 28 janvier 1998 à l' ________ (10) d'un match de football
inaugural (France‐Espagne).
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Exercice 4
Lisez le texte ci-dessous. Parmi les 4 versions suivantes (A,B,C,D) trouvez celle qui correspond à
chacune des questions. Mettez les réponses dans la grille des réponses.
J'ai cru pendant longtemps que je me foutais de la France. J'avais tendance à défendre l'idée
qu'exprime John Lennon cette célébrité de Liverpool au début de sa chanson Imagine : « Imagine there is no
countries. » Pas de pays, pas de frontières, une utopie planétariste. Je continue de penser, comme Jacques
Attali ou Edgar Morin, qu'il faut une gouvernance mondiale. Mais en vieillissant, disons quand j'ai eu
quarante ans, l'âge auquel tout homme cesse de regarder seulement devant lui, je me suis demandé : qui suis-
je vraiment, d'où viens-je, n'ai-je pas un passé, une famille, un frère, des grands-parents. Et quand on se
retourne, on se rend compte qu'on vient bien de quelque part.
Je voyage beaucoup, et c'est quand je suis à l'étranger que je me sens le plus français. Je crois
d'ailleurs que je suis un bon défenseur de la France. Je défends sa nonchalance, son esprit, cette espèce de
légèreté, de frivolité, d'élégance, ce goût du luxe et de la bonne bouffe. Mais quand je suis en France, je passe
mon temps à critiquer la France, et, ça aussi, c'est très français.
J'aime bien Marie Ndiaye, dont j'ai fait la connaissance l'an dernier à New York. Mais je ne suis pas
tout à fait d'accord avec ce qu'elle a dit : « Je n'aime pas la France de Sarkozy, donc je vais m'installer à
Berlin. » Justement, si on n'aime pas la France de Sarkozy, il faut rester. J'aurais plein de raisons de quitter la
France, pour payer moins d'impôts par exemple, mais j'ai envie d'y rester. J'aime la façon de vivre en France
et surtout à Paris, une forme de douceur, un art de la conversation, un goût pour s'habiller, qu'on ne trouve
nulle part ailleurs, sinon peut-être en Italie. J'ai envie d'écrire des phrases dans cette langue, de lire des livres
en français.
Mais Marie Ndiaye a raison sur un point : la France est en train de devenir un État policier. On était
un pays détendu, maintenant l'ambiance est au flicage. Ça ne nous va pas. Ça n'est pas nous. Nous avions une
façon un peu chic, paresseuse, littéraire, de vivre. Ne la perdons pas. Dans la devise qui est au fronton des
mairies, c'est le mot “ liberté ” qui figure en premier, et le mot “ sécurité ” n'y figure pas. Cette manière
poétique de vivre disparaîtra si on a un policier derrière le dos qui contrôle nos moindres faits et gestes.
Bientôt, on ira en garde à vue parce qu'on mange du foie gras sous prétexte que ça fait du mal aux canards !
Si le canard avait gagné dans la hiérarchie des espèces, ça se saurait. Comme ça n'est pas lui qui a gagné,
l'être humain le mange. On a développé une science subtile pour cuire son foie gras à moitié, pour
l'assaisonner d'armagnac. C'est un sommet de raffinement et on veut nous faire croire que c'est le comble de
la barbarie. Qui a écrit Les Fleurs du mal, un canard ou un homme ? Aucun canard n'ayant jamais écrit de
chef-d'œuvre, je considère qu'on peut se permettre de les manger.
Frédéric Beigbeder.
1. A l’âge mûr Frédéric Beigbeder est
A. le sympathisant de Lennon
B. partisan des idées de Jacques Attali
C. amateur de son pays natal
D. le défenseur des démarches de Sarkozy
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Exercice 5
Lisez les phrases suivantes et complétez- les avec les mots correspondants choisis parmi les quatre
versions données. Mettez les réponses dans la grille des réponses.
1. D’après le cinéaste François Truffaut, c’est parce qu’on a fait un certain nombre de bêtises, dans sa
jeunesse, qu’on devient ……………………..
3. Camille Claudel a fait preuve très tôt de …………………. artistiques et a obtenu, de sa famille, le droit de
venir étudier à Paris.
5. Ma copine sait qu’elle chante…………………, c’est pourquoi elle refuse de faire partie de la chorale de
l’université.
7. Nous avons attendu nos amis pendant une demi-heure sur le ……………….. , mais le train avait du retard.
8. Nicolas n’est pas du tout …………….., il regarde la télé du matin au soir au lieu de faire ses devoirs.
9. Ce journaliste fait une ………………….. sur la vie criminelle dans les grandes villes.
10. Après mon dernier trajet, j’étais si crevé que je n’avais aucune ……………… .
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Exercice 6
Parmi les dix affirmations données (A-J) choisissez celles qui correspondent aux 5 témoignages.
Attention ! Il y a une affirmation correspondante pour chaque témoignage.
Mettez les réponses dans la grille des réponses.
Enfants uniques
1. Etre enfant unique signifie souvent qu’on est forcément incapable de tenir compte de l’autre et de partager.
Certes, il existe des enfants uniques qui se sentent en décalage avec des amis de leur âge et n’arrivent pas à
faire partie d’une bande. Apprendre à instaurer des relations équilibrées n’est pas facile pour eux. On peut les
aider en leur montrant que, même au sein de la famille, chacun a besoin de donner et de recevoir. L’échange
est nécessaire pour des relations satisfaisantes. Et quand il y a divergence, chacun doit céder un peu pour
trouver un accord qui satisfasse partiellement des autres.
2. Si on croit certaines études, les enfants uniques réussissent mieux que les enfants qui sont membres d’une
famille de trois enfants ou plus, mais pas mieux que ceux qui ont un frère ou une sœur. On peut supposer
qu’une grande partie des enfants uniques sont bons élèves. Normal, au fond, puisqu’ils bénéficient de
l’attention exclusive de leurs parents et que ceux-ci s’investissent souvent à fond dans leur rôle d’éducateurs.
Sans compter qu’à grandir dans le monde d’adultes, les enfants uniques acquièrent vite un vocabulaire
élaboré. « Ils tiennent des conversations de grands, ont l’habitude d’analyser, d’argumenter et d’être pris au
sérieux », témoigne une institutrice en primaire.
3. N’entend-on pas encore souvent « Ah ! bien sûr, c’est un enfant unique » pour expliquer l’égoïsme ou
l’arrogance d’un petit ? Comme s’il n’était pas un enfant comme les autres et que grandir sans frère ni sœur
modifie forcément la construction de la personnalité. On entend souvent que les enfants uniques sont
insupportables, égocentriques, accaparent toute l’attention de leurs parents.
4. Comme tous les enfants, il ne demande sûrement pas mieux que de vous faire plaisir. Mais trop peut-être,
au point de renoncer à ses propres désirs. En voulant éviter la désapprobation parentale, il risque de sacrifier
son authenticité. Ne lui imposez donc pas systématiquement votre opinion (en le reprenant d’un « c’est
idiot » chaque fois qu’il exprime un avis différent du vôtre, par exemple). Il aime le sport et pas vous ? Tant
mieux, ce sont ces différences qui vont vous enrichir mutuellement.
5. Au centre de toutes les attentions, l’enfant unique est souvent surprotégé. Les parents s’intéressent
toujours : où va-t-il, avec qui, pourquoi ? « Dès que j’arrivais chez des copains ou que je sortais d’une séance
du cinéma, je devais téléphoner à ma mère et affronter les railleries des amis qui me trouvaient trop couvée,
se souvient Anne-Laure. Mes parents redoutaient toujours qu’il m’arrive quelque chose. J’ai, aujourd’hui, 28
ans et ma mère continue de m’appeler tous les jours. Je n’ose toujours pas lui dire de me laisser enfin en
paix. »
A. Cette personne dit que selon l’opinion générale l’enfant unique est trop gâté
B. Cette personne affirme que l’enfant unique est un enfant divin sous contrôle
C. Cette personne trouve que l’enfant unique a du mal à se faire des copains
D. Cette personne pense qu’il faut protéger l’enfant unique de tous les pièges
E. Cette personne considère que l’enfant unique n’aime pas la compétition
F. D’après cette personne l’enfant unique est avantagé sur le plan scolaire
G. Pour cette personne l’enfant unique a ses atouts
H. Selon cette personne l’enfant unique est stressé à l’arrivée d’un petit frère ou d’une petite sœur
I. Cette personne pense qu’il faut aider l’enfant unique à être lui-même
7
J. Cette personne dit que l’enfant unique connaît de petites déceptions du quotidien
Exercice 7
Complétez le dialogue ci-dessous avec les 5 phrases qui manquent. Vous trouverez les phrases
nécessaires dans la liste qui suit le dialogue avec trois phrases intruses.
Mettez les réponses dans la grille des réponses.
8
მე-10-12 კლასი
Exercice 1
1 – B ; 2 – D ; 3 – B ; 4 – C ; 5 – A ; 6 – C ; 7 – D ; 8 – B ; 9 – B ; 10 – B ; 11 – C ; 12 – B ; 13 – A ; 14 – C ;
15 – C ; 16 – B; 17 – C; 18 – B; 19 – C; 20 – A
Exercice 2
1 – G; 2 – N; 3 – K; 4 – B; 5 – H; 6 – F; 7 – D; 8 – I; 9 – C; 10 – L
Exercice 3
1 – I; 2 – E; 3 – L; 4 – A; 5 – N; 6 – C; 7 – J; 8 – F; 9 – K; 10 – G
Exercice 4
1 – C; 2 – C; 3 – C; 4 – D; 5 – D; 6 – A; 7 – B; 8 – C; 9 – B; 10 – A
Exercice 5
1 – B; 2 – D; 3 – B; 4 – B; 5 – B; 6 – C; 7 – D; 8 – A; 9 – D; 10 – C
Exercice 6
1 – C; 2 – F; 3 – A; 4 – I; 5 – B
Exercice 7
1 – E; 2 – D; 3 – F; 4 – B; 5 – H
9
ეროვნული სასწავლო ოლიმპიადა რუსულ ენაში
IX კლასი, II ტური
პასუხები გადაიტანეთ ტესტის ბოლოს მოთავსებულ პასუხების ფურცელზე
Задание 1
А. за Б. без В. для Г. в
1
А. не проверять Б. не проверить В. не проверяйте Г. не проверите
Задание 2
А. на З. ради
Б. в течение И. из
В. для К. от
Г. перед Л. ко
Д. из-под М. об
Е. над Н. с
Ж. в О. у
2
Кто (1)____ нас не увлекался в детстве рассказами про этого добродушного зверя, кто не
смеялся от души (2)____ недогадливостью и неловкостью медведя?
При первом взгляде на него кажется, что видишь (3)____ собой самое неуклюжее животное.
Однако такое заключение было бы крайне ошибочным. Несмотря на кажущуюся неловкость, медведь
отлично бегает, превосходно взбирается (4)____гору, недурно плавает. Прибавим (5)___ всему этому
необыкновенную остроту обоняния и слуха, и поймём, что медведь является (6)____человека
довольно опасным противником. Он был бы еще опаснее, если бы был кровожадным и хитрым. К
счастью, (7)____ основе медвежьего характера лежит любовь к покою.
Миролюбие медведя объясняется его питанием. Целыми месяцами он довольствуется
растительной пищей, но больше всего любит мёд, (8)____ которого ему приходится переносить
большие страдания: ужаленный пчёлами он ревёт (9)____боли, катается по земле. Однако полученные
уроки никогда не отбивают (10)____ него охоты к любимому лакомству.
Задание 3
3
Задание 4
• Прочитайте текст.
• Продолжите данные после текста предложения (1-10), используя один из четырех
вариантов ответов.
Генрих Шлиман родился 6 января 1822 года в небольшом немецком городке Нойбуков. Когда
Генриху исполнилось 8 лет, отец подарил ему книгу «Всемирная история для детей», в которой
мальчик впервые прочитал рассказ о легендарном городе Трое, воспетом древнегреческим поэтом
Гомером в поэме «Илиада». Генрих был поражён прочитанным. Он решил во что бы то ни стало
разыскать место, где некогда находилась Троя, и доказать, что все события, описанные в «Илиаде»,
происходили на самом деле. Путь к этой цели оказался долгим и тернистым, а от биографии Шлимана
захватывает дух, как от самого крутого детектива.
С 14 лет, в связи с финансовыми сложностями семьи, Генрих оставил школу и пошёл работать в
бакалейную лавку, где он трудился с утра до ночи. Через пять лет Шлиман решил наняться юнгой на
корабль, уходивший в Венесуэлу. Корабль попал в жесточайший шторм и затонул, а чудом
оставшийся в живых Генрих несколько дней провёл в госпитале Амстердама.
Генрих остался в Голландии. По рекомендации друга семьи он начал работать служащим в
компании по продаже чая и оливкового масла. Применяя необычный, им самим созданный метод,
Генрих за два года овладел английским, французским, голландским, испанским, португальским,
итальянским языками. После того, как Генрих изучил и русский, руководство компании в целях
расширения сферы деятельности командировало его в Россию. Здесь он женился, а через некоторое
время завёл и собственное дело. Вскоре ему удалось заработать очень много денег. Разбогатев,
Шлиман оставляет коммерцию и полностью посвящает себя науке. Сорокапятилетний миллионер
начинает изучать филологию и археологию в Сорбонне. Шлиман выдвигает теорию, согласно которой
древняя Троя расположена внутри холма Гиссарлык на территории нынешней Турции. Обоснование
этой теории принесло ему докторскую степень.
1870 год оказался для Шлимана переломным и вместе с тем счастливым. Женившись вторично на
прекрасной гречанке, он вместе с ней отправляется на поиски гомеровской Трои. На протяжении трех
лет супруги, не зная ни сна, ни отдыха, занимались раскопками холма Гиссарлык. Но поиски были
тщетными. Пятнадцатого июня 1873-го года решено было сделать последнюю попытку отыскать
исчезнувший город. Именно в этот счастливый день Шлиман нашел наконец то, что увенчало его
упорную работу, то, что привело в восторг весь мир - он отыскал золото Трои.
В том, что произошло с сокровищами дальше, много запутанного и таинственного. Согласно
договору с властями Турции, которые не догадывались об истинной стоимости найденного,
сокровища Трои за символическую плату приобрела Германия. Уже после Второй мировой войны они
оказались в Москве, где их и сегодня можно увидеть в Музее изобразительных искусств имени
Пушкина. Споры о том, кому должно принадлежать «золото Трои», продолжаются до сих пор.
2. Генрих
А. решил разыскать сокровища легендарной Трои.
Б. поверил в реальность существования Трои.
В. решил во что бы то ни стало прочитать «Илиаду» в оригинале.
Г. мечтал когда-нибудь восстановить Трою.
4
3. На детектив походила
А. история жизни Шлимана.
Б. легенда о Трое.
В. «Всемирная история для детей».
Г. история, описанная в «Илиаде».
5. В Амстердаме Генрих
А. выгодно продал чай и оливковое масло.
Б. добился командирования в Россию.
В. получил рекомендацию руководства компании.
Г. подлечился.
9. Власти Турции
А. заключили со Шлиманом тайный договор.
Б. безвозмездно передали клад Германии.
В. не имели представления о цене находки.
Г. в течение трёх лет скрывали содержимое холма Гиссарлык.
5
Задание 5
• В данных ниже предложениях (1-10) пропущены слова.
• Из предложенных вариантов ответов (А, Б, В, Г) выберите правильный.
.
6. – Что у тебя в карманах? Чем ты их .......
А. забил Б. отбил В. набил Г. добил
6
Задание 6
• Прочитайте тексты (1-5).
• Подберите к каждому из них соответствующее утверждение, выбрав его из перечня
(А-К). Учтите, что 5 утверждений – лишние.
2. Акула - самая большая хищная рыба. Она всегда голодна, поэтому готова проглотить все, что
встречает на своём пути. Чего только не находили в желудке этого чудовища! Здесь были и почтовые
посылки, и драгоценности с затопленных судов, и разнообразная домашняя утварь, и одежда, и
пишущие машинки, и даже… ключ к японскому шифру! Трофей в виде акулы с шифром в брюхе
очень помог американцам в боях на Тихом океане во время Второй мировой войны.
4. Жираф не только самое высокое, но и очень крупное млекопитающее; больше жирафа только кит,
слон, бегемот и носорог. Зрение у жирафа острее, чем у многих других обитателей огромной
малонаселённой африканской саванны. На первый взгляд нескладные, жирафы прекрасно чувствуют
себя в саванне: далеко видят и хорошо слышат. У жирафа не только уникальная шея, но и длинный –
до шестидесяти сантиметров – язык. А вот голоса жирафа никто еще не слышал.
5. Лиса – любимая героиня русских народных сказок. И, как настоящая героиня, она красива, изящна,
сообразительна и умна. Лиса имеет прекрасное зрение и чутье. Она - настоящая плутовка. Недаром в
народе говорят, характеризуя чью-то находчивость и изворотливость, «хитрый, как лиса». Лиса умеет
ловко уходить от преследования, изменяя следы. Охотники смотрят на лисьи следы в лесу и ломают
голову - то ли собака здесь пробежала, то ли заяц проскакал.
Задание 7
8
9-ый класс
Задание 1.
1.В 2.Г 3.В 4.Г 5.Г 6.В 7.Б 8.В 9.Б 10.А 11. А 12.Б 13. Б 14.В 15.А 16.А
17.Б 18.В 19.В 20.А
Задание 2.
1.И 2.Е 3.Г 4.А 5.Л 6.В 7.Ж 8.З 9.К 10.О
Задание3.
1.О 2.И 3.Г 4.Д 5.Е 6.З 7.В 8.А 9.Н 10.Л
Задание4.
1.Г 2.Б 3.А 4.В 5.Г 6.А 7.А 8.Г 9.В 10.Б
Задание 5.
1.В 2.В 3.Г 4.Г 5.А 6.В 7.Г 8.Б 9.А 10.Б
Задание 6.
1.И 2.В 3.Ж 4.Е 5.Г
Задание 7.
1.В 2.Е 3.Д 4.Г 5.А
9
ეროვნული სასწავლო ოლიმპიადა რუსულ ენაში
XII კლასი, II ტური
პასუხები გადაიტანეთ ტესტის ბოლოს მოთავსებულ პასუხების ფურცელზე
Задание 1
А. в Б. от В. до Г. на
А. на Б. за В. в Г. в течение
В. к нескольким педагогам Г. о нескольких педагогах
Задание 2
• В данном тексте пропущено 10 слов. Прочитайте текст и вместо прочерков вставьте
подходящие по смыслу предлоги, союзы или союзные слова (А-О). Каждое слово
можно использовать только один раз.
• Учтите, что 4 слова лишние.
А. из З. что
Б. над И. как
В. куда К. после
Г. по Л. на
2
Д. так как М. когда
Е. в течение Н. и
Ж. про О. от
Полуостров Афон находится (1)___ юге Греции. Его покрытые пышной тропической зеленью
скалы поднимаются (2)___ лазурных вод Эгейского моря. На полуострове, (3)___ пускают только
мужчин по специальному разрешению, нет деревень и городов, есть только древние мужские
монастыри православных христиан. Основное занятие здесь - молитва, длительность ночного
богослужения - 12 часов. Когда говорят, (4)___ другого такого места на земле нет, забывают (5)___
Валаам.
Остров Валаам находится на Ладожском озере. Это озеро - крупнейшее в Европе, и, (6)___
плывешь по нему летом, отличий от Эгейского моря не заметишь. Зимой озеро покрывается льдом.
(7)___ этому льду во время Второй мировой войны машины везли продукты в осажденный
Ленинград. Берега Валаама такие же крутые и скалистые, (8)___ берега Афона, и так же поросли
растительностью, только северной.
История основания монастыря не сохранилась, (9)___ за многие века соседи – шведы более 80
раз разоряли монастырь. Но здешние монахи никогда не брали в руки оружия. (10)___ каждого
разорения, молитвой и трудом они возвращали монастырю былую красоту и славу.
Задание 3
3
Задание 4
• Прочитайте текст. Продолжите данные после текста предложения (1-10), используя один
из четырех вариантов ответов.
1. Наполеон
А. недооценил полководческий дар Багратиона.
Б. часто интересовался действиями своих противников.
В. сравнивал Багратиона с орлом.
Г. был нелестного мнения о русских командирах.
А. не все из командиров хорошо владели русским языком.
Б. проблема изучения русского языка существовала и в XIX веке.
В. Багратион не был лишён чувства юмора.
Г. Багратион был уверен в том, что военное руководство защищает интересы России.
3. По мнению Багратиона,
А. командиры обязаны воспитывать в подчинённых смелость.
Б. солдаты должны стремиться к победе любой ценой.
В. начальство обязано заботиться о своих подчинённых.
Г. солдаты должны уважать своих командиров.
5. Поступок горцев
А. чуть было не прервал военную карьеру Багратиона.
Б. говорит об их бескорыстии.
В. указывает на то, как значимы для них были личные взаимоотношения.
Г. способствовал продвижению Багратиона по служебной лестнице.
6. После военной кампании 1805 года Багратион
А. был признан национальным героем Франции.
Б. был повышен в звании.
В. был удостоен звания героя России.
Г. стал чаще давать балы.
7. По воле императора
А. соединились судьбы двух разных людей.
Б. в честь Багратиона в светских салонах давались званые обеды.
В. во всех домах висели портреты великого полководца.
Г. Багратион был удостоен звания генерала.
8. Екатерина Скавронская
А. с радостью пошла под венец.
Б. вдохновила художников на создание знаменитых портретов.
В. была знакома с великими людьми.
Г. увлеклась немецким поэтом.
9. В 1812 году
А. погиб Багратион.
Б. Екатерина собрала информацию о Наполеоне.
В. Екатерина приняла решение не возвращаться в Россию.
Г. Екатерина вышла замуж во второй раз.
10. Екатерина
А. до конца своих дней носила фамилию Багратион.
Б. была похоронена рядом с мужем.
В. умерла в 45-летнем возрасте.
Г. не расставалась с портретом своего прославленного мужа.
5
Задание 5
• В данном ниже тексте (1-10) пропущены слова.
• Из предложенных вариантов ответов (А, Б, В, Г) выберите правильный.
История культуры застолий (1)___ в глубь тысячелетий. Ещё в Древнем Египте фараонам (2)____
разные блюда в изысканной посуде.
Особая культура застолий была у древних греков: знатные греки ели лёжа, сидя ели лишь
простолюдины. Блюда знати сервировали на трапезах - маленьких столиках, которые во время
пиршества приставляли к ложу. После еды мужчины (3)____на вечеринке, которую называли
симпозиумом. Участники симпозиума (4)____ по кругу большую чашу с вином. Римские патриции
тоже ели лёжа. Еду им подавали в посуде из позолоченного серебра, а напитки - в прекрасных
стеклянных бокалах. Патриции даже пользовались салфетками, правда, несколько (5)___ - это были
длинные волосы мальчиков - именно о них (6)____ руки. Постепенно культура застолий обогащалась,
и вот уже стали (7)____тарелки из олова, серебра, фарфора. В России тарелкой длительное время
(8)____ большие ломти хлеба - на них клали куски мяса, рыбы... Затем эти «хлебные тарелки»
съедали, а в богатых домах раздавались нищим.
О существовании вилки российская знать узнала благодаря Петру I, который (10)___ вилкой во
время трапезы.
6
Задание 6
• Прочитайте тексты (1-5).
• Подберите к каждому из них заголовок, выбрав его из перечня (А-К).
Учтите: 5 заголовков – лишние.
1. С древних времен известны случаи, когда животные помогали человеку в его ратных делах.
Например, во время войны с Египтом персы выпустили перед колоннами воинов огромное
количество кошек. Кроме того, персы держали кошек в руках. Египтяне, поклонявшиеся кошке
как божественному животному, бежали, не приняв боя, так как считали, что лучше проиграть
битву, чем ранить или убить это "святое" животное.
2. Одна из самых ярких страниц во всемирной истории войн связана с боевыми слонами,
которые наносили большой урон врагу. Но вот парадокс! Бывали случаи, когда слоны
становились невольной причиной поражения собственной армии. Так, бирманский царь
выставил против врагов огромную армию, главной мощью которой были слоны. Однако в
отряде противника сражались профессионалы, знавшие слабые места боевых слонов. Свои
стрелы они направили в незащищённые ноги слонов. От боли слоны взбесились, повернули
назад и бросились на собственных воинов, топча всё на своём пути.
3. Кошки давно известны своими удивительными способностями. Так, во время Второй мировой
войны английские военные заметили: кошки чувствуют приближение вражеских
бомбардировщиков намного раньше радаров. Шерсть у животных вставала дыбом, они шипели
и неслись прямиком в бомбоубежище. В Англии даже была учреждена медаль «Мы тоже
служим Родине», которая вручалась отличившимся кошкам.
4. На окраине Парижа есть музей. Он открыт в честь голубей, отличившихся при обороне
столицы Франции. Среди его необычных экспонатов – останки голубя по кличке Храбрый,
который во время войны доставил важное донесение, пролетев сквозь едкий дым отравляющих
газов. Выполнив приказ, птица возвратилась и скончалась в родной голубятне на руках солдат.
За этот подвиг Храбрый был удостоен высшей военной награды страны - Ордена почётного
легиона.
5. Животные не всегда подчиняются воле человека. Так, полным провалом закончилась
попытка американских военных инструкторов обучить морских львов находить в морских
глубинах вражеские мины. Тренировки прошли блестяще. Но как только морских львов
выпустили «на дело» в открытое море, они тут же «удрали». Провалом закончилась и другая
попытка - использовать дельфинов в качестве «живых торпед». Когда один из дельфинов
взорвался во время эксперимента, остальные, с громким криком сбившись в кучу,
отказались выполнять приказы инструктора и стали вести себя крайне агрессивно.
В. По вкусу морским «царям зверей» дела земные Г. Вся наша сила – в ногах!
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Задание 7
З. Не стоит беспокоиться.
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12-ый класс
Задание1
1.Б 2.А 3.В 4. В 5.Б 6.Б 7.А 8.Г 9.В 10.Б 11.Б 12.Б 13.Г 14.А 15.Г 16.Б 17.Г 18.В
19.Г 20.В
Задание2.
1.Л 2.А 3.В 4.З 5.Ж 6.М 7.Г 8.И 9.Д 10.К
Задание3.
1.О 2.К 3.Л 4.И 5.З 6.Е 7.А 8.Г 9.Д 10.В
Задание 4.
1.Г 2.В 3.В 4.Г 5.В 6.Б 7.А 8.В 9.А 10.А
Задание 5.
1.А 2.В 3.Г 4.В 5.Б 6.Б 7.А 8.Г 9.А 10.В
Задание 6.
1.Д 2.И 3.А 4.Ж 5.Е
Задание 7.
1.Д 2.Г 3.Ж 4.Е 5.А
9
ეროვნული სასწავლო ოლიმპიადა
ინგლისურ ენაში
X-XII კლასი
II ტური
გისურვებთ წარმატებას!
Read the sentences and mark the correct choice. Write the answers in the answer sheet.
1. My grandma ………. this dress for ten years before she decided to buy a new one.
A. has been wearing B. has worn C. had been wearing D. wore
2. Our neighbours’ baby is crying all the time. He needs ………. every four hours.
A. having fed B. to feed C. feed D. to be fed
4. On our way to the village we ran ………. petrol. We had to walk for an hour.
A. across B. out of C. off D. away with
6. Tom ………. my portrait for a week only, but it seems like months.
A. had been painting B. is painting C. was painting D. has been painting
7. Sarah will never forget ………. over the snowy mountains. It was a fantastic view.
A. flying B. will fly C. fly D. have flown
8. I haven’t seen Nino for ages and now after so many years she ………. a beautiful girl.
A. has been turning into B. has turned into C. is turning into D. going to turn into
9. When I was tidying the attic I came ………. my mum’s old cookery books.
A. out B. on C. for D. across
10. All of the staff members have been informed that we ………. a staff meeting next
Monday.
A. had B. are having C. would have D. were having
11. I insist ………. seeing the manager. The service in this hotel is terrible.
A. on B. up C. down D. out
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12. Tina’s handwriting is so bad that I can’t make ………. what she has written.
A. through B. after C. on D. out
13. There are no trains at the railway station because all the workers are ………. strike.
A. in B. on C. for D. away
15. Leonardo da Vinci is considered ………. the best artist of all time.
A. be B. being C. have been D. to be
16. When I left home, I realized that I ……. any idea where to go.
A. wouldn’t have B. didn’t have C. hadn’t D. doesn’t have
17. All the children ………. nice presents for taking part in the competition.
A. were given B. was given C. gave D. give
18. When we arrived from our holidays our house ………. .There was a mess everywhere.
A. was burgled B. had been burgled C. has burgled D. has been burgled
20. By the end of the month I ………. for this bank for 25 years.
A. will be working B. will have been working C. will work D. have been worked
21.We are waiting for our house ………. but the workers haven’t turned up.
A. to repaint B. repainted C. to be repainted D. repaint
23. Nobody knew where the kidnappers ………. the Smiths’ baby.
A. had hidden B. are hiding C. have hidden D. had been hidden
3
TASK 2
Read the text and fill the gaps (1-12) with the words given below. Use each word only once.
Four words are extra.
Mark the corresponding letter (A-P) on the answer sheet. Do not copy the words from the
text on the answer sheet.
Biorhythms
At the beginning of this century medical scientists made a surprising discovery: that we are built
not just of flesh and blood ……….. (1) also of time. They discovered that we all have an internal
“body clock”………. (2) regulates the rise and fall of our body energies, making us different
………. (3) one day to the other.
The idea of an internal “body clock” should not be surprising, as the lives of most living things
are regulated by the 24-hour night-and-day cycle. The most obvious feature of this cycle is
……….. (4) way we feel tired and fall asleep at night and become awake ………… (5) the day.
If the 24-hour rhythm is interrupted, most people feel unpleasant side effects. As well ………..
(6) the daily rhythm of sleeping and waking we also have other rhythms which last longer than
one day and which influence wide areas of our lives.
Most of ……….. (7) would agree that we feel well on some days and not so well on others.
Scientists have found out the following three biorhythmic cycles: physical, emotional and
intellectual. Each cycle lasts about 28 days and each is divided ………… (8) a high energy
period and a low energy period of equal length. During the low energy period we are less
resistant to illness and get tired more easily. The low period puts energy into our “batteries”
……….. (9) the next high period. During the high energy period of a physical biorhythm we are
more resistant to illness, better coordinated and more energetic.
The “critical” ……….. (10) the weakest time is the time of change from the high energy period
………….. (11) the low energy period, or vice versa. This “critical” time usually lasts one day.
On the critical day of a physical biorhythm, there is a greater chance ……… (12) an accident
and illness. Human experience is always individual and we each have our own biorhythmic
experiences.
4
TASK 3
Read the text and fill the gaps (1-12) with the words given below. Use each word only once.
Four words are extra.
Mark the corresponding letter (A-P) on the answer sheet. Do not copy the words from the
text on the answer sheet.
Virtual Reality
Not long ago computers were considered an amazing ………. (1). Today they form part of our
everyday lives. The ………. (2) thing today is Virtual Reality. A Virtual Reality system can
transport the user to exotic locations such as a beach in Hawaii or the inside of the human body.
The Virtual Reality system is still in the early………. (3) of its development. At the moment it is
necessary to put a large helmet on your head to see the simulated ………. (4) and you have to
wear a special glove on your hand in ………. (5) to manipulate the objects you see there. Lenses
and two miniature display screens inside the ………. (6) create the illusion that the screen
………. (7) you from every side. You can “look behind” computer-generated objects, pick them
up and examine them, walk around and see things from a different angle.
Already today Virtual Reality is used in medicine. In hospitals, surgeons could plan operations
by first “travelling” through the ………. (8), heart or lungs without damaging the body. It is also
used in police ………. (9) schools. In schools pupils could explore the Great Pyramid or study
molecules from the inside. Developers of Virtual Reality say its potential is very………. (10).
The word which comes very close to describing Virtual Reality is “simulator”. Virtual Reality
technology ………. (11) the flight simulators that are used to train pilots. But of course there are
………. (12) as well as benefits. In the wrong hands Virtual Reality can be used for power
fantasies and pornography.
5
TASK 4
Read the dialogue and fill in the spaces (1-5) with the sentences given (A-H). There are
three extra sentences. Write your answers in the answer sheet.
6
TASK 5
Read the text. Then read the sentences (1-8) which follow and circle the right choice (A-D).
Write your answers in the answer sheet.
The other day I came across an interesting article, which said that in 1954, American President
Eisenhower met with alien visitors. According to the article the President was on a planned
meeting in Palm Springs, California, when he suddenly disappeared from the meeting. This fact
did not stay unnoticed from the inquisitive journalists who demanded an explanation. The
explanation was not given immediately which caused further spreading of the rumours. The
media suspected that the President was either very ill, or worse, had died.
In order to stop these rumours from spreading, Press Secretary James Haggerty invited the
journalists to a press conference, and told them that Eisenhower had suffered from a broken
tooth while eating a chicken dinner, and was treated by a local dentist. Sounds reasonable, right?
But, later in 1979 it was discovered that the dentist’s wife knew nothing of this visit. The
rumours gained new strength, and continue even to this day.
The journalists went further and examined Eisenhower’s health documents kept at the
Eisenhower Library. The documents said nothing about the dental treatment as if he had for the
month of February, 1954. Furthermore, many ‘thank you’ notes were sent out to those who
assisted in the President’s visit to California including florists, those who offered to play golf
with Eisenhower, people who met his plane, and the minister who attended the Sunday church
service with the President. However, no dentist was mentioned.
This ongoing rumour has been lately discussed on Larry W. Bryant’s blog site. Bryant is a well
known columnist for UFO ⃰ Magazine. Bryant raised this issue again after a man who called
himself ‘Bob’ called the radio programme ‘Coast to Coast AM’ and told its journalist George
Noory that he had an old 16mm black and white film which showed Eisenhower and eccentric
inventor and billionaire, Howard Hughes. The two men were shown inspecting remains of a
crashed flying saucer, along with its alien crew.
Of course, all we have here is one man’s testimony. And a disturbing fact is that during the radio
broadcast, George Noory told the man that he would talk to him off the air. What the two
discussed or what additional details Noory obtained from this conversation is not known. While
on the air, the unknown man told the audience that he was military, and his job was monitoring
satellite cameras. When the man was asked how he got the film, he stated that his parents gave it
to him. The man added that he had watched some of the film, and what he had seen ‘scared him
to death’. This is all very interesting, and if the entire story could be proven, it would certainly
shock the world.
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2. Because of the President’s unexpected disappearance, the journalists
A. started an investigation.
B. thought he went to another state.
C. initiated a special programme.
D. started questioning doctors.
5. A man called Bob contacted the radio programme to tell the people that
A. he had seen the President at the dentist’s office.
B. he had an old but a very special black and white film.
C. the billionaire Howard Hughes was his relative.
D. he had the photo with the President and aliens on it.
8. Which of the following would be the best title for the article?
A. Aliens’ invasion
B. The press conference
C. The truth or the myth?
D. The curious journalists
8
School Olympiad in English Grades 10-12
TASK 1 LISTENING
You are going to listen to a text about creative industries. For questions 1-10 choose the best answer
A, B or C.
You now have thirty seconds to look through the task. You will hear the recording twice.
3. The people, whom the reporter has invited for an interview, work in the
A. film industry.
B. television industry.
C. radio industry.
To the reporter’s question: “What’s it like working in a creative industry here in the UK?”
To the reporter’s question: “And where do you hope to be in about, say, ten years?
TASK 2 READING
Read the text and fill the gaps with the appropriate words. Insert only ONE word in each gap.
Charles Dickens is one (0) of the greatest writers in the English language. Dickens enjoyed a wider popularity
and fame ____________ (1) any previous author of that century did, and he remains popular, having
____________ (2) responsible for some of English literature’s most iconic novels ____________ (3)
characters. Charles Dickens was born near Portsmouth in the south of England on 7th February in 1812.
____________ (4) father, John Dickens, worked in an office ____________ (5) a clerk.
Charles Dickens’ father was not clever ____________ (6) managing money. John Dickens did not
____________ (7) much money and soon the family could not ____________ (8) his debts. Mrs. Dickens,
Charles and his brothers and sisters went to live in the prison with Charles’ father. At this time, Charles
Dickens was twelve ____________ (9) old. He was ____________ (10) to work in a factory. He had to
work many hours ____________ (11) day sticking labels ____________ (12) the bottles. The
pay____________ (13) low, the work was very hard and Dickens was very unhappy. Charles Dickens never
forgot ____________ (14) happened to him at that time.
In 1827, ____________ (15) he was fifteen years old, Dickens went to work in an office as a clerk.
____________ (16) work was not well-paid, ____________ (17) Charles made some good friends there.
In 1833, Dickens started writing. That year, his first article was ____________ (18) in the Old Monthly
Magazine. Charles Dickens became very famous and very rich. He wrote some____________ (19) the most
well-known and popular stories in English literature. Dickens knew ____________ (20) the poor people lived
in England and many of his stories were____________ (21) poor people. He was angry at the way children
____________ (22) treated. They were beaten and made to work in dirty and dangerous jobs with little food
or shelter. Because of his stories, people were made to see how children and poor people lived in England in
the nineteenth century.
Dickens wrote a big number of books, articles and short stories. He owned and edited magazines
____________ (23) published short stories and poetry. He also travelled in Europe and the United States.
Thousands of people came to hear him talk and to hear him read some extracts ____________ (24) his
books.
Oliver Twist, the story____________ (25) a poor boy without a family, was published in 1838.
____________ (26) well-known books by Dickens are: A Christmas Carol (1843), Bleak House (1853),
A T ale of Two Cities (1859), Great Expectations (1861) and Our Mutual Friend (1864).
Charles Dickens ____________ (27) ill from working too _____________ (28) and died on 9th June 1870
near Gravesend in the south of England. He was 58 years old. Dickens was _____________ (29) in the
famous church, Westminster Abbey, in London. Dickens’ work has been highly praised ____________ (30)
its realism and unique personalities.
Task 3 WRITING
Read the beginning of the story and finish it using your imagination and fantasy.
It was a hot summer day. I was sitting in a café and drinking cold apple juice. Suddenly I saw
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Key / grades 10-12
Task 1: 1.B 2.C 3.A 4.A 5.B 6.C 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.B