IMT Assignments For All Subjects PDF

IMT Assignments For All Subjects
MKTC 522
Subgroups of people or markets having similar product needs
market
market place
market segment
market firm
Systematic evaluation of objectives strategies structure and performance is called
marketing audit
annual audit
accounting audit
external audit
The foundation of any marketing plan is the firms
objectives
mission statement
swot
market
form of distribution aimed at covering selective markets
exclusive distribution
integrated distribution
selective distribution
intensive distribution
gauging the extent to which marketing objectives have been achieved in a particular period
implementation
evaluation
opportunity
success
constant preference of one brand over others is
brand equity
global brand
brand identity
brand loyalty
governs all corporate bodies
foreign trade development act
environment protection act
companies act 1956
MRTP
unprocessed extractive or agriculture products are called
components
resources
capital
raw materials
process of dividing markets into identifiable groups is called
market
market segmentation
market service
market data
someone’s recommendation for new restaurant is called
internal stimuli
external stimuli
regenerate
future markets
refers to value of company and brand names
brand equity
global brand
brand loyalty
brand identity
aggressive advertisements and price discounts to customers is called
market mix
market planning
market penetration
market place
researcher selects sample based on personal judgement
judgement sampling
convience sampling
systemic sample
cluster sample
marketing of goods and services to organisations is
consumer marketing
service marketing
business marketing
consumer protection
business customers who consider numerous bids before selection
optimizers
initiators
target
position
increased standards of living are a function of increased
musule power
bargaining power
purchasing power
horse power
people in a business house involved in purchase decision
buying centre
business house
business place
business service
Delivering a product of management in an orientation
place
social
production
product
business mission statements stated narrowly suffer from
marketing myopia
marketing mix
target market
market plan
persons or firms providing goods and services to organisations are called
sellers
suppliers
buyers
purchasers
facilate the exchange of ownership between sellers and buyers
retailers
merchants
agents
whole sellers
individualized attention to customers is
tangible
assurance
empathy
research
provides a frame work for seeking environmental clearance
competition act
companies act
patents act
environment protection act
concrete symbol of the service offering
tangible cue
information source
post purchase message
position
a characteristic that can be assessed after use
credence quality
experience quality
no quality
search quality
one that cannot be copied by the competition
divest
Experience Curve
competitive advantage
evaluation
marketing several products wider same brand is
brand equity
private brand
brand loyalty
family brand
decision amount of time and effort buyers invest in evaluation of purchase
concept
intervention
motives
involvement
Demand forecasting helps in the
no markets
future markets
past markets
present markets
the person who first suggests making a purchase
initiators
purchasers
buyers
deciders
IMTC 632
Set – 1
SOP Stands For
Standard Operating Program
Standard Operating Procedure.
Standard Operations Procedure
Standard Operating Policy
ISO 14001 is a Set of standards adopted by thousands of firms worldwide to certify that they are
Conducting 'Green' business practices
Observing all environmental laws
Conducting business in an environment friendly manner
Doing eco-friendly business
In “Dialectical Enquiry” Approach Requires
One Proposal With Two Assumptions
Two Proposals With Different Assumptions
One Proposal With Different Assumptions
Many Proposals With Different Assumptions

Which Industry Force Might Cause Propitious Niche To Disappear
Buyers
Government
Substitutes
Suppliers
An Entry Barrier is
An Obstruction That Makes It Difficult For A Company To Enter An Industry
Physical Barrier
Entry Fee Is High.
Initial Investment Is High
The 3rd Phase Of Evolvement Of Strategic Management Was
Financial Planning
Externally Oriented Strategic Planning
Forecast Based Planning
Long Term Planning
Conglomerate Structure Is Appropriate For
MNCs
Multiple Product Firm
Firm With Many Divisions
Large Firm With Many Product Lines In Several Unrelated Industries
Follow The Leader' Is A Strategy To
Follow The Rival
Imitate The Leader
Follow The Market Leader
Avoid
Virtual Meetings Have Enabled Firms To
Cut Travel Budget
Increase Speed
Reduce Staff
Save Time
In Hyper competition Can Competitive Advantage Be Sustained?
In Few Cases
Yes
May Be
Whistle-blowing refers to policies that require employees to
Report defects in product
Unethical violations
Report workplace romance
Report indiscipline
What Is Hyper competition
Competition In High Investment Industry
Competition In FMCG Industry
An Industry In Which Uncertainty Of Environment Makes Competitive Advantage Only Temporary
Cut-Throat Competition
A Multidomestic Industry is a Collection of Domestic Industries Like
Automobiles
TVS
Tyres
Retailing & Insurance

In Rumelt's Consonance criteria for evaluating strategies there is need for
Matching various objectives
Examining external & internal factors
Examining set of trends as well individual trends
Matching various strategies
Porter's Two Generic Competitive Strategies are of
Acquisition & Merger
Product & Differentiation
Cost & Differentiation
Cost & Diversification
Corporate Strategy Deals With Three Key Issues
Product, Price & Promotion
Business, Functions & Sales
Direction, Portfolio & Parenting
Portfolio, Market & Distribution
The Sixth Force In Porter 's Model Is
Buyers
Suppliers
Variety of Stakeholders Group
Competitors
Who is COO?
Chief Operations Officer.
Chief Operating Officer
Chief Operating Office
Central Operating Officer

Ethical Responsibility Means
Should Do
Might Do
Have To Do.
Must Do
Who Are Corporate Stakeholders
Anybody Who Is Affected By The Achievement Of Objectives Of The Firm
Shareholders
Unions
Employees
Constant dollars are dollars adjusted for
Adjusted for consumer price index
Adjusted for inflation
Euros
Rupees
TQM is an operational philosophy that stresses commitment to
Customer Satisfaction through Six-Sigma Program
Customer Satisfaction with Continuous Improvement
Customer Satisfaction with Quality Control
Customer Satisfaction with Quality Circles Teams
Timing Tactics Means
Duration Of Strategy
When To Implement Strategy
Starting Time Of New Strategy
Time To End Old Strategy

Strategic Management Is That Set Of Managerial Decisions & Actions By Which A Firm
That Determines Long term Performance of a Firm
Appoints New CEO
Makes Future Plans
Makes Profit.
The index of sustainable growth indicates how much of the growth rate of sales can be sustained by
Net cash
Debt
Assets
Internally generated funds
Number Of Stages In Corporate Development Are
Competitive Scope Is Of Two Types
Broad & Slim
Wide & Narrow
Small & Large
Broad & Narrow
In financial analysis adjusting for inflation is
on case to case basis
Insignificant factor
Depends on state of economy
Significant factor
A Tactic Is A
Action Plan
Short Term Strategy
Specific Operating Plan Detailing How A Strategy Is To Be Put Into Action.
How To Deal With Actual Problems
Common-size statements are income statements & balance sheets in which the dollar figures have been
converted into
A common denominator
Rupees
Percentages
Ratios
Set – 2
Network Structure Is Sometimes Called
Modular Structure
Virtual Organisation
Ce11ular Structure
Matrix Organisation
In Hyper competition Can Competitive Advantage Be Sustained?
May Be
Yes
In Few Cases
Competency Is
Cross Functional Integration & Coordination Of Capabilities
Integration Of Activities
Collection Of Activities That A Firm Do Exceedingly Well.
Ability To Work Efficiently
The GDP is used worldwide to measure total output of a firm
From within a country's borders
From one SBU
From all its units worldwide
From within a continent
Slow-Cycle Resources Are Those Which Are
Value , Rareness, imitability, Organisation
Value , Rareness, Imitability, Organisation
Liquidation Means
Liquidity Ratios
Selling Of A Firm
Cash Liquidity
Piecemeal Sale of the Firm's entire Asset
In Rumelt 's Consonance criteria for evaluating strategies there is need for
Examining set of trends as well individual trends
Examining external & internal factors
Matching various objectives
Matching various strategies
Marketing Mix Variables Are
Product, Place, Price, Priority
Product, Place, Promotion, Price

Money, Material, Men, Machine
Product, Price, Promotion, Profit
Constant dollars are dollars adjusted for
Adjusted for inflation
Adjusted for consumer price index
Euros
Rupees
First Mover Generally Focusses On
R&D
Price
Promotion
Packaging
What Is Performance?
Actual Outcome
Ability to Work
Way A Firm Works.
Set of Activities
Conglomerate Structure Is Appropriate For
MNCs
Large Firm With Many Product Lines In Several Unrelated Industries
Multiple Product Firm
Finn With Many Divisions
A bribe is defined as
Coercing some body for some undue favour
A gift bestowed to influence a recipient's conduct

Gifting valuables for some undue favour
Offering money for some undue favour
Virtual Teams Are
Real Teams With Virtual Abilities
Groups Of Employees Using Video Conferencing
Groups Of Geographically Dispersed Coworkers Assembled Through Telecommunications & Information

Technology
Artificially Intelligent Teams
TQM is an operational philosophy that stresses commitment to
Customer Satisfaction with Quality Control
Customer Satisfaction through Six-Sigma Program
Customer Satisfaction with Continuous Improvement
Customer Satisfaction with Quality Circles Teams
Demographic trends are which part of Societal Environment
Economic
Technological
Political
Sociocultural
An Entry Barrier Is
Entry Fee Is High.
Initial Investment Is High
An Obstruction That Makes It Difficult For A Company To Enter An Industry
Physical Barrier
A firm following a Concentration Strategy would like a CEO to be
Cautious Profit Planner
Dynamic Industry Expert

Analytical Portfolio Manager
Professional Liquidator
A Tactic Is A
Action Plan
Short Term Strategy
How To Deal With Actual Problems
Specific Operating Plan Detailing How A Strategy Is To Be Put Into Action.
Rumelt 's Feasibility criteria for evaluating strategies means
Without overburdening resources
Within its capabilities
Neither over tax resources nor create unsolvable sub problems
Not judging on past performance
The 3rd Phase Of Evolvement Of Strategic Management Was
Externally Oriented Strategic Planning
Financial Planning
Forecast Based Planning
Long Term Planning
In “Dialectical Enquiry” Approach Requires
One Proposal With Two Assumptions
Two Proposals With Different Assumptions
One Proposal With Different Assumptions
Many Proposals With Different Assumptions
In Altman 's bankruptcy formula a score of 1.5 indicates that the firm is
Moving towards healthy firm
Moving towards profit making

Moving no where
Moving towards bankruptcy
Corporate Strategy Deals With Three Key Issues
Product, Price & Promotion
Business, Functions & Sales
Direction, Portfolio & Parenting
Portfolio, Market & Distribution
Business ethics can be defined as principles of conduct within firms that guide
Decision making & behavior
Decision making & profit
Vision & mission
Strategy & tactics
Guerrilla Warfare Tactic Means
Hide & Attack
Hit & Hide
Hit & Run
Bypass Attack
The Average Size Of The Board Is
9 to 12
5 to 8
10 to 16
3 to 5
Reengineering Is The
Radical Redesign Of Its Business Processes
Renewing Technology
Radical Redesign Of Its Structure
Transfer Of Technology
MBO is a Firm- Wide approach of linking
Individual objectives with individual behaviour
Organisational objectives with functional behaviour
Organisational objectives with organisational behaviour
Organisational objectives with individual behaviour
According to Porter, A Corporation Is Most Concerned With
Competitors
Suppliers
Buyers
Intensity Of Competition.
OPMC 632
Set – 1
Difficult performance management conversations focus on three main objectives. Choose the item that
does not belong.
To protect the employees’ rights
To correct performance, not to punish the performer
To project manpower needs for the coming year
To protect you and the organization
Which of the following is an example of a key performance indicator:
Day's cash on hand
All of the above
Operating income
Lead time to fill customer orders
Which of the following product promotional activities would probably help make the supply chain more
efficient?
An "everyday" low price strategy where prices are not dependent on quantity delivered with a specific
order
Special packaging for a specific event that occurs one time each year
All of the above
Price promotions that expire on a specific date
A company that can offer on-site repair in only 1 or 2 hours is an example of a company that is
competing on competitive dimension.
Process quality
Delivery speed
Delivery reliability
Flexibility
A breakeven point indicates which of the following:
The point where we are most efficient
The point where cost is minimized
The point where we are indifferent between two options
The point where profit is maximized
A clear hierarchy of objectives in the project definition would NOT normally contain:
Success criteria
Control mechanisms
An End result
The purpose
All of the following statements concerning the characteristics of aggregate planning for services is true
except
most services cannot be inventoried
labor is the most constraining resource
capacity is easy to predict
demand is difficult to predict
Supply-chain strategy concepts are applicable to what types of companies?
Restaurants
Service
All of the above
Airlines
The operating system that runs their assembly lines all the time
Handle the products in batch mode
Continuous-Flow operations system
Each team experts process the products
Job production
Income protection programmes include:
medical insurance
all of the above.
pension plans.
social security.
The activities of the operations managers include
Laying out the production facility
Choosing a process for producing the company’s goods or services
Selecting a production site
All of the above
Which of the following statement is NOT true about Class A,B and C items?
Class A items are those 20% of high usage items, which generally account for 80% of total usage value.
Class B items typically account for 40% of total value and 30% of the items.
Pareto's law states that typically 20% of stocked items account for 80% of value.
Class C items usually comprise 50% of total items, but only I 0% of the total value.
A national distribution centre for soft drinks is most likely to use which form of inventory?
Buffet inventory
Cycle inventory
Pipeline inventory
Anticipation inventory
Which of the following statements is not true about operations strategy?
Operations strategy is concerned with setting broad policies and plans for using the resources of the
firm to best support the firm's long-term competitive strategy.
Operations strategy involves a long-term process that must foster inevitable change.
An operations strategy involves decisions that relate to the design of a product and the infrastructure
needed to support the product.
Operations strategy can be viewed as part of planning process that coordinates operational goals with
those of the larger organization .
The type of processing structure that is used for producing discrete products at higher volume is:
Job Shop
Project
Batch
Assembly Line
Which one is a continuous process of identifying, measuring and developing performance in

organisations by linking each individual’s performance and objectives to the organisation’s overall
mission and goals.
Reward system
Strategic planning
Performance management
Performance appraisal
Operations Managers
Do the financial planning for the company
Make sure that products are produced efficiently, that products and services are marketed to maximize
sales, and that the company is earning profit
Are responsible for developing the IT operations of the company
Are responsible for marketing the products
Projects with high levels of complexity are likely to be especially difficult to define and set realistic
objectives for.
False
True
The Critical Path is an activity (or series of activities) that if delayed will delay the whole project.
True
False
The term "assurance " in operations strategy reflects
Confidence
Illustrations
Ambience
Advantage
Which of the following is not an alternative identified in the service-system design matrix?
Face-to-face loose specs
Phone contact
Mail contact
All of the above are identified
Projects are usually in high-volume, low-variety operations.
True
False
An operating system consists of
The processes and activities associated with HR
The processes and activities needed to operate the equipment’s
The processes and activities needed to market the products
The processes and activities needed to produce goods or services
The type of processing structure that is used to produce gasoline, chemicals, and steel is:
Job Shop
Project
Assembly Line
Continuous Flow
Who developed the value Matrix
Treacy
Martinez & Bititci
Porter
Deming
Which of the following aggregate planning techniques guarantees an optimal solution?
management coefficients model
trial and error with a spreadsheet
linear programming
search decision rule
Which of the following costs decrease as the order size is increased?
Obsolescence costs
Working capital costs
Storage costs
Price discount costs
Which Quality Guru advocated that senior management is responsible for 94% of quality problems?
Juran
Deming
lshikawa
Crosby
An example of a business/industry that uses batch flow process structure is:
Automobile assembly
French restaurant
Commercial printer
Heavy equipment
Which one refers to service encounters whose specifications must be developed through some
interaction between the customer and the server.
Mail contact
Phone contact
Face-to-Face total customization
Face-to-face tight specs
Set – 2
The Critical Path is an activity (or series of activities) that if delayed will delay the whole project.
False
True
Which of the following is beyond the operations strategy
Papers
Technology
Process
Core Competence
Testing is an example of:
Appraisal costs
Prevention costs
External failure costs
Internal failure costs
The operating system that runs their assembly lines all the time
Handle the products in batch mode
Each team experts process the products
Job production
Continuous-Flow operations system
Which Quality Guru advocated that senior management is responsible for 94% of quality problems?
Deming
Juran
lshikawa
Crosby
A Gantt chart is used to show a project timeline diagrammatically .
True
False
The major decision variables in equipment selection are:
Manufacturer
Both A and B
Labor requirements
Flexibility
Which of the following statement is NOT true about Class A,B and C items?
Class A items are those 20% of high usage items, which generally account for 80% of total usage value.
Class B items typically account for 40% of total value and 30% of the items.
Pareto's law states that typically 20% of stocked items account for 80% of value.
Class C items usually comprise 50% of total items, but only I 0% of the total value.
The ability to master new technologies, design and introduce new products is an example of.
Systems-based capabilities
Process-based capabilities
Coordination based capabilities
Organization-based capabilities
The item in the list below that is not a major competitive dimension that forms the competitive position
of a company is:
cost
delivery speed
product quality and reliability
coping with changes in supply
A company that can offer on-site repair in only 1 or 2 hours is an example of a company that is
competing on _____ competitive dimension.
Flexibility
Delivery reliability
Process quality
Delivery speed
The main argument against the just-in-time approach lies in the very conditions it seeks to promote,
namely the insulation of stages in the process.
True
False
An operating system consists of
The processes and activities needed to market the products
The processes and activities needed to operate the equipment’s
The processes and activities needed to produce goods or services
The processes and activities associated with HR
When a company seeks to match the benefits of a successful competitor position while maintaining its
existing competitive position is called:
Fair competitive response
Strategic fitting
Straddling
Activity-system mapping
The term "assurance " in operations strategy reflects
Confidence
Illustrations
Advantage
Ambience
Which of the following product promotional activities would probably help make the supply chain more
efficient?
An "everyday" low price strategy where prices are not dependent on quantity delivered with a specific
order
All of the above
Price promotions that expire on a specific date
Special packaging for a specific event that occurs one time each year
Which of the following is not an alternative identified in the service-system design matrix?
Phone contact
Face-to-face loose specs
Mail contact
All of the above are identified
Which one refers to service encounters whose specifications must be developed through some
interaction between the customer and the server.
Phone contact
Face-to-face tight specs
Face-to-Face total customization
Mail contact
Income protection programmes include:
medical insurance
all of the above.
social security.
pension plans.
Operations Managers
Do the financial planning for the company
Are responsible for marketing the products
Make sure that products are produced efficiently, that products and services are marketed to maximize
sales, and that the company is earning profit
Are responsible for developing the IT operations of the company
All of the following statements concerning the characteristics of aggregate planning for services is true
except
capacity is easy to predict
most services cannot be inventoried
labor is the most constraining resource
demand is difficult to predict
A critical path network diagram does NOT:
Calculate earned value.
Identify the particularly important activities.
Calculate the duration of the whole project
Help determine the amount of float
What is the purpose of Operations Strategy
Take Time advantage
Competitive advantage
Paper advantage
None of the above
Which of the following is not an element of a good service guarantee?

Ensures the firm makes a profit
Unconditional
Easy to understand and communicate
Painless to invoke
The best process flow structure to use for making automobiles is?
Batch shop
Job shop
Assembly line
Group technology cell
Inventory used to compensate for the uncertainties inherent in supply and demand is known as:
Pipeline inventory
Cycle inventory
Buffer inventory
De-coupling inventory occurs because one or more stages in the process cannot supply all the items it
produces simultaneously.
True
False
Supply-chain strategy concepts are applicable to what types of companies?
Service
All of the above
Airlines
Restaurants
Inventory used to compensate for differences in the timing of supply and demand is known as:
Buffer inventory
Cycle inventory
Pipeline inventory
SPC tools commonly used for continuous improvement efforts include:
All of the above
Cause and effect diagrams
Process flow chart
Pareto analysis
OPMC 641 (2019)
Set – 1
Warranty cost includes following cost head(s):
Product cost
All of the above
Process Cost
People Cost
Which of the following is a reason that single sourcing is considered bad/risky?
Larger orders make quantity discounts more likely

The buyer’s required ordering quantities very low
The limited capacity of one supplier
Decreases the item to item quality variability of items purchased
The economic functions of distribution centers include
Consolidation
Break bulk
All of these
Stockpiling
The following is a term that refers to error-or mistake proofing
Kaizen
Lean layouts
Poka-yoke
Muda
Which of the following is an obstacle to successful process integration?
Lack of supply chain visibility
Passive integration
Collaborative inventory management
Cloud-based supply chain management
The Quick Response program, developed in 19080s was an offshoot of the following supply chain
concept:
Just-in-Time
Cross Docking
Efficient consumer response
Six Sigma
Lean thinking is a philosophy incorporating tool which seeks to economically optimize:
Human Resources
Assets
Productivity
All of these
_____ is a method by which lean principles are applied in the examination of business processes.
Small batch scheduling
Value Stream Analysis
Lean Supply Chain
JIT
The following are all examples of lean warehousing capabilities except
Reduced lot sizes and shipping quantities
decreased assembly operations
Greater emphasis on crossdocking
Increased automation
Implementing e-Procurement system has several advantages except
Cost Savings
Benefits to the supplier
None of these
Accuracy
Which of the following are among the MOST important elements of the lean production philosophy?
Fully automated assembly lines and a large supplier base
Quality inspections and a standardized product line
Large inventories and quality inspections
Waste reduction and continuous improvement
_____ is defined as the assurance policy applied to all customers where the purchased goods or services
are (or shall be) as specified and, if not, they will be repaired
None of these
Insurance
Warranty
Guarantee
Which of the key supply chain business processes refers to meeting customer requirements by
synchronizing the firm’s marketing, production and distribution plans?
Customer demand organization process
Customer relationship management process
Supply chain synchronization process
Order fulfillment process
Which of the following is NOT consistent with the lean philosophy?
Positioning WIP inventories near each processing center
Increasing batch size to take advantage of economies of scale
Cross-training employees to increase processing flexibility
Developing a culture of continuous improvement within the organization
Which of the following would be a good reason to outsource(buy) versus making?
No competent supplier presently produces the needed item
To have more direct control over the design and production of an end item
To utilize existing capacity within a company's own firm
A firm lacks the technology or expertise to product an item
Which of the following is the contributor of bullwhip effect?
rationing
smaller order sizes
EDLP
VMI
Which of the following is not considered as the merit of VMI?
Visibility of buyer's Point of Sale
Increased logistics service level
Lower stock out rates
Switching cost is under control
Which of the following statement is TRUE of many large firms today?
All of these
They are trying to create alliances or strategic partnerships with suppliers
They are paying closer attention to what their direct customers really think of the goods and services
bought
They are selling off business units to focus more on core capabilities
Which of the following can be classified as a 3PL?
A company that offers customs clearing services
All of these
A company that offers warehousing services
A company that offers transportation services
Performance measurements generally _____
Help identify new customer requirements
assist in pricing of products
Help to eliminate non-value creating activities and identify new customer requirements
Help to eliminate non-value creating activities
The primary goals of purchasing include all except
Improve the quality of finished goods produced
secure materials at the lowest cost

maximize customer satisfaction
ensure the highest quality raw materials are purchased
Which of the following is an advantage of a centralized purchasing department?
Better knowledge of unit requirements
More frequent shipments
Closer contact between buyer and user
Quantity Discounts
Distribution provides following utilities to consumers?
Place
Possession
All of these
Time
The success of effective and efficient distribution system relies on integration of
Material
Money
None of these
Efforts
_____ Means doing the right things to create the most benefit for the company
Efficiency
Productivity
Value
Effectiveness
Which of the following modes of cargo transport can be characterized as being the most inexpensive
and very slow, yet good for transporting very heavy goods a long distance?
Rail Carriers
Air carriers
Motor Carriers
Water Carriers
Which one out of the following is NOT considered as key supply chain business processes?
Returns Management
Process Integration
Customer Service Management
The supply chain strategy as cost leadership is a differentiation strategy with following characteristics
Fast and service driven
lean
Agile
All of these
Which is clubbed under secondary activities of the Porter’s value chain?
Procurement
Outbound logistics
Operations
Inbound logistics
A warehouse receipt does not have the following
Market value of goods
Declared shelf life of goods
Tax liabilities
Receipt number
Set – 2
Which out of the following steps is not included in RFID implementation?
Distribution center
Supplier Selection
Material management
Manufacturing
Economic Value Added stands for
operating profits after taxes - cost of capital
operating profits after taxes + cost of capital
operating profits after taxes/cost of capital
None of these
Which out of the following is a practice aimed at purchasing products that meet environmental
objectives
Green Marketing
All of these
Green Sales
Green Procurement
The service contract management is successful if
lots of surprises
expected business benefits are low
None of these
supplier is cooperative
Which of the following is not an assumption of the EOQ model?
Lead time is known and constant
Production and use can occur simultaneously
Quantity discounts are not possible
Demand is known, constant and independent
The supply chain strategy as cost leadership is a differentiation strategy with following characteristics
Agile
Fast and service driven
Lean
All of these
Which of the following is not a classification of Value Added service?
Quality
Problem Solving
Sales Support
Information
Which is clubbed under secondary activities of the Porter’s value chain?
Procurement
Outbound logistics
Inbound logistics
Operations
Which one out of the following is NOT considered as key supply chain business processes?
Process Integration
Customer Service Management
Returns Management

Which of the following modes of cargo transport can be characterized as being the most inexpensive
and very slow, yet good for transporting very heavy goods a long distance?
Rail Carriers
Air carriers
Water Carriers
Motor Carriers
The primary transformation function provided by Hospital can be described as
Storage
Physical
Location
Physiological
Which of the following is not considered as the merit of VMI?
Lower stock out rates
Switching cost is under control
Visibility of buyer's Point of Sale
Increased logistics service level
The following are all examples of lean warehousing capabilities except
Increased automation
decreased assembly operations
Greater emphasis on crossdocking
Reduced lot sizes and shipping quantities
Warranty cost includes following cost head(s):

Process Cost
Product cost
All of the above
People Cost
Implementing e-Procurement system has several advantages except
Benefits to the supplier
Cost Savings
Accuracy
None of these
Value added services give ______ advantages to the organizations
unexpected shifts in consumer demand
Changing retailer requirements
Agility to respond to special orders
All of these
Every service contract's starting stage is
Approval
Authoring
Request
Negotiation
In push supply chain
a manufacturer initiates manufacturing only after it has received an order
a manufacturer forecasts demand and produces product and makes them available to customers
either a manufacturer initiates manufacturing only after it has received an order or forecasts demand
and produces product and makes them available to customers
None of these
Which of the following are among the MOST important elements of the lean production philosophy?
Fully automated assembly lines and a large supplier base
Waste reduction and continuous improvement
Large inventories and quality inspections
Quality inspections and a standardized product line
____ is to coordinate and integrate supply, operations and logistics activities among the focal firm and
its key supply chain trading partners
Supply chain management
Supply chin Integration
None of these
Supply Chain Linkages
If an item is ordered at its EOQ, the annual carrying cost should be
slightly less that the annual ordering cost
equal to the ordering cost
the square root of the annual ordering cost
twice the annual purchase prices
Which of the following would be a good reason to outsource(buy) versus making?
To utilize existing capacity within a company's own firm
No competent supplier presently produces the needed item
A firm lacks the technology or expertise to product an item
To have more direct control over the design and production of an end item
Which of the following is a reverse logistics activity
Recycling products and components
Developing a collaborative relationship with your supplier
Managing the quality of products
Delivering finished goods to your customer

_____ is defined as the assurance policy applied to all customers where the purchased goods or services
are (or shall be) as specified and, if not, they will be repaired
None of these
Insurance
Warranty
Guarantee
Which of the following is not a part of the order cycle?
Order entry
Order cross checking
Order allocation and picking
Order shipment and delivery
A warehouse receipt does not have the following
Tax liabilities
Declared shlf life of goods
Receipt number
Market value of goods
Lean production emphasizes all of the following except:
Synchronization of material flows
large batch sizes
Reduction of waste
Continuous improvement
______ Means doing the right things to create the most benefit for the company
Effectiveness
Efficiency
Productivity
Value
Which of the following is the reason that small value purchases are handled differently?
To give the buyer additional supplier choices
To control unnecessary administrative cost
To have better tracking of material usage
To obtain a higher quality product
The primary goals of purchasing include all except
maximize customer satisfaction
ensure the highest quality raw materials are purchased
secure materials at the lowest cost
Improve the quality of finished goods produced

OPMC 601
Set – 1
A _____________________ is a form of product that consists of activities, benefits, or satisfactions

offered for sale that are essentially intangible and do not result in the ownership of anything
need
Demand
physical object
services
The following does not represent a service market situation
A fund rising Charity Show for the members of an NGO
A stall distributing Tirumala prasadam in a mandir
A bank run dispensary in its staff quarters
A Meditation Camp of a religious Organization conducted for its members
As per service-quality model, the capacity to complete the promised service accurately and dependably
is
Assurance
Responsiveness
Reliability
Empathy
Increasing customer expectations of what an organization can deliver
Can result in poor perceptions of overall service quality

None of the above
NO change
Can result in improved perceptions of overall service quality
The quality of a service depends on who provides it, as well as when, where, and how it is provided. This
is an example of which characteristic of services
variability
intangibility
inseparability
perishability
In Banking Services Market can be segmented on the basis of
a & b both
Density
Customers
neither a nor b
Successful service companies focus their attention on both their customers and their employees. They
understand ______. which links service firm profits with employee and customer satisfaction
interactive marketing
internal marketing
service-profit chains
service differentiation
Which of the following is a combination of different service elements, including products
Communications mix
Service mix
Marketing mix
Product mix
Service firms can increase quality control by

Making investment in good hiring
All of the above
Standardize the service performance process
Monitor customer satisfaction
A Brand name is
Its legal version is trademark
A Symbol or a design for the purpose of identification
It is given legal protection
all the above
Anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use, or consumption that might
satisfy a want or need is called a(n)
Idea
Demand-based pricing
Services
Product
Which of the following is not one of the distinct characteristics of service
Perishability
Tangibility
Inseparability
Intangibility
It is difficult to measure the morale of the sales team directly because
It is a tangible state
Employees hide the truth
It is an intangible state
all the above
If a company has a hybrid offer, then its offer may be described as being one where there is
a tangible good with accompanying services
an equal amount of goods and services
a service with accompanying minor goods
a clone service package
A __________ is any performance or act one party can provide to another that is essentially intangible
and doesn't provides ownership of anything
None of the above
Product
Both a & b
Service
The five determinants of service quality in order of importance are
Reliability, Responsiveness, Assurance, Empathy, Tangibles
All of above are false
Responsiveness, Reliability, Assurance, Empathy, Tangibles
Tangibles, empathy, assurance, responsiveness, reliability
_____ can be cultivated
Peak demand
Nonpeak demand
Normal demand
None of the above
Dog walking, tax advice, and counselling are examples of what
Combination
Product with some services
Pure service
Pure product
A_____ is a name, term, sign, symbol or design, or a combination of these, that identifies the maker or
seller of a product or service
logo
sponsorship
product feature
brand
Services are manufactured and consumed simultaneously; they cannot be stored either prior to or after
the service encounter . This is referred to as
Inseparability
Lack of ownership
Perishability
Intangibility
This is an organization's systematic attempt to correct a service failure and to retain a customer's
goodwill
Service processes
Service recovery
Service encounter
Service failure
The fact that services cannot be stored for later use or sale is evidence of their
inseparability
variability
perishability
intangibility
As per the service quality model, researchers figure out ____ determinants of service quality
3
5
Select name of the country having maximum percent of GDP attributed to services
China
india
Germany
United States
The perceived fairness of the level of economic advantages derived from service usage in relationships
to the economic costs is
Payment debt
None of the above
Payment equity
Payment profits
Standardized and customized flow of activities, simple and complex number of steps and customer
involvement by which a service is delivered is called??..
Place Mix
Physical Evidence Mix
People Mix
Process Mix
As per service-quality model, the willingness to assist customers and offer prompt service is
Empathy
Assurance
Responsiveness
Reliability
These types of services try to shape attitudes or behaviour. In order to achieve this, these services have
to be oriented to people’s minds, This is referred to as
Mental stimulus processing
Possession processing
Information processing
People processing
_____ are those characteristics that buyer evaluate the characteristics after the purchase
Search qualities
Credence qualities
Experience qualities
None of the above
The use of sales literature and brochures to give signs about the quality and positioning of the service is
an example of
Products
People
Processes
Physical evidence
Set – 2
Which of the following is not an element of physical evidence?
Employee dress
Equipment
Employee Training
Facility design
A Brand name is
Its legal version is trademark

A Symbol or a design for the purpose of identification
It is given legal protection
all the above
As per service-quality model. The system of individualized and caring attention to customers is
Empathy
Responsiveness
Assurance
Reliability
Which of the following would not be one of the three major groups of industrial products and services
computer software for PCs
materials and parts
supplies and services
capital items
As per service-quality model, the courtesy and knowledge of employees and their ability to instill
confidence and trust is
Empathy
Responsiveness
Assurance
Reliability
The service-quality model identifies _____ gaps that results in Unsuccessful delivery
When links between service personnel and service process break down, this is referred to as
Failures in delivery system

Failure in response to customer requests
Service failure
Failure through employee actions
Which of the following is an event that occurs when a customer's expectations of a service encounter
are not met
Service failure
Service encounter
Servicescape
Service mix
It is difficult to measure the morale of the sales team directly because
It is an intangible state
all the above
Employees hide the truth
It is a tangible state
Airplane travel can be categorized wider
Pure Services
Tangible good with accompanying services
Major Service with accompanying minor goods and services
Pure tangible good
The service provided at restaurant is an example of
Hybrid
Pure tangible good
Major Service with accompanying minor goods and services
Tangible good with accompanying services
Once a train pulls out of a station, an Aeroplan takes off or a film starts, those seats are lost and can
never be sold. This is referred to as
Variability
Intangibility
Inseparability
Perishability
Low early-evening movie prices is an example of
Differential pricing
Qualitative pricing
None of the above
Same pricing
Select name of the country having maximum percent of GDP attributed to services
Germany
China
India
United States
The quality of a service depends on who provides it, as well as when, where, and how it is provided. This
is an example of which characteristic of services
perishability
intangibility
inseparability
variability
Dog walking, tax advice, and counselling are examples of what
Combination
Product with some services
Pure service
Pure product
Which of the following is a combination of different service elements, including products

Communications mix
Service mix
Marketing mix
Product mix
The seat in a theatre, train, plane or ferry is rented on a temporary basis in exchange for a fee. The
terms associated with the rental of the seat determine the time and use or experience to which the seat
can be put. However, the seat remains the property of the theatre owner, rail operator, airline or Ferry
Company. This is referred to as
Variability
Inseparability
Lack of ownership
Tangibility
There are in total ____ categories of service mix
Four
None of these
five
six
Promotion in Services means
passing an examination
selling the services in specific areas
elevation from one grade to another
selling the services through various means
The perceived fairness of the level of economic advantages derived from service usage in relationships
to the economic costs is
Payment equity
Payment debt
None of the above

Payment profits
This is a characteristic of a service, namely that they do not have physical attributes and so therefore
cannot be perceived by the senses - cannot be tasted, seen, touched, smelt or possessed
Inseparability
Perishability
Variability
Intangibility
Which of the following is not a tangible dominant
Investment Management
Detergents
Soft drinks
Automobiles
When there is little or no personal contact between customer and service provider, this is classified as
Intense-contact service
Low-contact service
Medium-contact service
High-contact service
The fact that services are sold, produced, and consumed at the same time refers to which of the
following service characteristics
intangibility
variability
perishability
inseparability
Successful service companies focus their attention on both their customers and their employees. They
understand ______. which links service firm profits with employee and customer satisfaction
interactive marketing
internal marketing
service-profit chains
service differentiation
By lowering prices to attract customers during quieter times and raising prices when demand is at its
highest, demand can be levelled and marginal revenues increased This is an example of
Service-based pricing
Demand-based pricing
Differential pricing
Intangible pricing
The fact that services cannot be stored for later use or sale is evidence of their
inseparability
variability
perishability
intangibility
Standardized and customized flow of activities, simple and complex number of steps and customer
involvement by which a service is delivered is called??..
Place Mix
Physical Evidence Mix
People Mix
Process Mix
At customer service interface, company intends to manage a relationship with a customer through
Technology
Both a and b
People
None of the above

QTMC 522 (2019)
Set – 1
The variance of a population is known to be 400. At 95% confidence, the margin of error will be
92 or less
4 or less
2 or less
29 or less
The p-value
is the same as the Z statistic
is a distance
is a probability
measures the number of standard deviations from the mean
In a cumulative relative frequency distribution, the last class will have a cumulative relative frequency
equal to
zero
the total number of elements in the data set
one
100
In hypothesis testing if the null hypothesis is rejected,
the sample size has been too small
the alternative hypothesis is true
the data must have been accumulated incorrectly
no conclusions can be drawn from the test
In hypothesis testing, the tentative assumption about the population parameter is
either the null or the alternative
None of these alternatives is correct.
the alternative hypothesis
the null hypothesis
In determining the sample size necessary to estimate a population proportion, which of the following
information is not needed?
the maximum margin of error that can be tolerated
a preliminary estimate of the true population proportion P
the confidence level required
the mean of the population
For which of the following values of P is the value of P(I - P) maximized?
P = 0.99
P = 0.50
P = 0.01
P = 0.90
A 95% confidence interval for a population mean is determined to be 100 to 120. If the confidence
coefficient is reduced to 0.90, the interval for µ
becomes 0.1
does not change
becomes wider
becomes narrower
In a random sample of 100 observations, P = 0.2. The 95.44% confidence interval for P is
120 to 0.280
134 to 0.266
164 to 0.236
122 to 0.278
In general, higher confidence levels provide
narrower confidence intervals
a smaller standard error
wider confidence intervals
unbiased estimates
The level of significance in hypothesis testing is the probability of
rejecting a true null hypothesis
accepting a true null hypothesis
accepting a false null hypothesis
As the number of degrees of freedom for a t distribution increases, the difference between the t
distribution and the standard normal distribution
becomes larger
becomes smaller
None of the above answers is correct.

stays the same
In constructing a frequency distribution, as the number of classes are decreased, the class width
remains unchanged
decreases
can increase or decrease depending on the data values
increases
A tabular method that can be used to summarize the data on two variables simultaneously is called:
an o give
crosstabulation
a histogram
simultaneous equations
The absolute value of the difference between the point estimate and the population parameter it
estimates is the
precision
error of confidence
sampling error
standard error
If we change a 95% confidence interval estimate to a 99% confidence interval estimate, we can expect
the size of the confidence interval to increase
the size of the confidence interval to decrease
the size of the confidence interval to remain the same
the sample size to increase
A cumulative relative frequency distribution shows
the percentage of data items with values less than or equal to the upper limit of each class
the percentage of data items with values less than or equal to the lower limit of each class
the proportion of data items with values less than or equal to the lower limit of each class
the proportion of data items with values less than or equal to the upper limit of each class
The t value with a 95% confidence and 24 degrees of freedom is
069
064
492
711
The sum of frequencies for all classes will always equal
the number of classes
the number of elements in a data set
a value between 0 and 1
A researcher is gathering data from four geographical areas designated: South = 1; North = 2; East = 3;
Vest = 4. The designated geographical regions represent
either quantitative or qualitative data
label data
quantitative data
qualitative data
In a cumulative percent frequency distribution, the last class will have a cumulative percent frequency
equal to
100
the total number of elements in the data set
one
The ability of an interval estimate to contain the value of the population parameter is described by the
degrees of freedom
confidence level
precise value of thepopulation mean m
If several frequency distributions are constructed from the same data set, the distribution with the
widest class width will have the
none of these
most classes
fewest classes
same number of classes as the other distributions since all are constructed from the same data
An estimate of a population parameter that provides an interval of values believed to contain the value
of the parameter is known as the
interval estimate
confidence level
population estimate
parameter value
The sum of the relative frequencies for all classes will always equal
any value larger than one
the sample size
one
A frequency distribution is a tabular summary of data showing the
percentage of items in several classes
fraction of items in several classes
number of items in several classes
relative percentage of items in several classes
In order to estimate the average time spent on the computer terminals per student at a local university,
data were collected for a sample of 81 business students over a one week period Assume the population
standard deviation is 1.2 hours. The standard error of the mean is
16
133
014
Whenever the population standard deviation is unknown and the population has a normal or near-
normal distribution, which distribution is used in developing an interval estimation?
z distribution
standard distribution
beta distribution
t distribution
Fifteen percent of the students in a school of Business Administration are majoring in Economics, 20% in
Finance, 35% in Management, and 30% in Accounting. The graphical device(s) which can be used to
present these data is (are)
only a pie chart
a line graph
both a bar graph and a pie chart
only a bar graph
The confidence associated with an interval estimate is called the
significance
confidence level
precision
degree of association
Set – 2
A histogram is said to be skewed to the left if it has a

longer tail to the right
shorter tail to the right
longer tail to the left
shorter tail to the left
A cumulative relative frequency distribution shows
The proportion of data items with values less than or equal to the upper limit of each class
the proportion of data items with values less than or equal to the lower limit of each class
the percentage of data items with values less than or equal to the upper limit of each class
the percentage of data items with values less than or equal to the lower limit of each class
A researcher is gathering data from four geographical areas designated :South = I; North = 2; East = 3;
West = 4. The designated geographical regions represent
either quantitative or qualitative data
qualitative data
quantitative data
label data
A frequency distribution is a tabular summary of data showing the
fraction of items in several classes
relative percentage of items in several classes
percentage of items in several classes
number of items in several classes
When the level of confidence increases, the confidence interval
stays the same
becomes narrower
becomes wider
cannot tell from the information given
The most common graphical presentation of quantitative data is a

relative frequency
pie chart
bar graph
histogram
A frequency distribution is
a tabular summary of a set of data showing the frequency of items in each of several nonoverlapping
classes
a tabular summary of a set of data showing the relative frequency
a graphical device for presenting qualitative data
a graphical form of representing data
The confidence associated with an interval estimate is called the
significance
confidence level
precision
degree of association
The p-value
measures the number of standard deviations from the mean
is the same as the Z statistic
is a distance
is a probability
In constructing a frequency distribution, as the number of classes are decreased, the class width
can increase or decrease depending on the data values
remains unchanged
decreases
increases
We are interested in conducting a study in order to determine what percentage of voters of a state
would vote for the incumbent governor. What is the minimum size sample needed to estimate the
population proportion with a margin of error of 0.05 or less at 95% confidence?
100
200
196
58
In a random sample of 100 observations, P = 0.2. The 95.44% confidence interval for P is
120 to 0.280
134 to 0.266
122 to 0.278
164 to 0.236
An estimate of a population parameter that provides an interval of values believed to contain the value
of the parameter is known as the
confidence level
population estimate
interval estimate
parameter value
The difference between the point estimate, such as the sample mean, and the value of the population
parameter it estimates, such as the population mean, is known as the
confidence level
interval estimate
parameter estimate
sampling error
Whenever using the t distribution in estimation, we must assume that
the sampling distribution is approximately normal
the finite population correction factor is necessary

the population is approximately normal
the sample size is at least 30
The difference between the lower class limits of adjacent classes provides the
class midpoint
class width
class limits
number of classes
If a hypothesis is rejected at the 5% level of significance, it
Will never be tested at the 1%level
may be rejected or not rejected at the 1% level
will always be accepted at the 1% level
will always be rejected at the 1% level
For which of the following values of P is the value of P(I - P) maximized?
P = 0.01
P = 0.99
P = 0.50
P = 0.90
A probability statement about the sampling error is known as the
precision
confidence
interval
error
In general, higher confidence levels provide
a smaller standard error
wider confidence intervals

unbiased estimates
narrower confidence intervals
In hypothesis testing if the null hypothesis is rejected,
the sample size has been too small
no conclusions can be drawn from the test
the data must have been accumulated incorrectly
the alternative hypothesis is true
Qualitative data can be graphically represented by using a(n)
bar graph
frequency polygon
histogram
o give
The t value with a 95% confidence and 24 degrees of freedom is
711
069
492
064
A 95% confidence interval for a population mean is determined to be 100 to 120. If the confidence
coefficient is reduced to 0.90, the interval for µ
becomes 0.1
becomes wider
does not change
becomes narrower
An interval estimate is a range of values used to estimate
a sample statistic
a population parameter
the shape of the population's distribution
the sampling distribution
After computing a confidence interval, the user believes the results are meaningless because the width
of the interval is too large. Which one of the following is the best recommendation?
Discard the current data and try a different sample.
Increase the level of confidence for the interval.
Reduce the population variance.
Increase the sample size.
In hypothesis testing, the tentative assumption about the population parameter is
the null hypothesis
the alternative hypothesis
either the null or the alternative
A situation in which conclusions based upon aggregated cross tabulation are different from
unaggregated crosstabulation is known as
Simpson's rule
wrong crosstabulation
Simpson's paradox
aggregated crosstabulation
The sum of the relative frequencies for all classes will always equal
any value larger than one
the sample size
one
As the sample size increases, the sampling error
increases
decreases
stays the same
ITSC 525
Set – 1 (2019)
In its simplest form, a system consists of all the following except
A group of cooperative users
A set of interrelated components
A clearly defined boundary
A common set of objectives
A(n) _____________ is a Web-based interface and integration of MIS, DSS, EIS, and other technologies
that gives all intranet users and selected extranet users access to a variety of internal and external
business applications and services.
enterprise Resource System
enterprise Information Portal
executive Information System
collaborative Information System
Which of the following is a competitive strategy?
New entries into the market
Innovation
Bargaining power
Substitutes
Which one of the following should be used to answer the question, "What would happen to sales if we
cut advertising by 25 percent?"
Goal-seeking
Optimization
Sensitivity
What-if
Decision support in business is changing, driven by all of the following except:
Changing corporate spending patterns

Rapid developments in end user computing and networking
Internet and Web technologies
Web-enabled business applications
The information products from an MIS take all the following forms except
scheduled reports.
exception reports.
push reports.
pull reports.
Many companies are using GIS technology along with global positioning system devices to do all of the
following except:
Map customer traffic patterns within each store
Choose new retail store locations
Optimize distribution routes
Analyze the demographics of their target audiences
Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the form dimension of information?
Information is based on past, present, or future time periods.
Information is arranged in a predetermined sequence.
All the information needed is provided.
The information can have a broad or narrow scope, or an internal or external focus.
Decision support systems use _____ to support the making of semi-structured business decisions.
Analytical models
specialized databases
a decision maker's own insights and judgments
All of the choices are correct.
The rapid development of microcomputer processing power, application software packages, and
telecommunications networks gave birth to the phenomenon of ______ .
manufacturer-to-public direct sales
MIS departments
End user computing
electronic monitoring
Decisions made at the tactical management level tend to be more:
Structured
Semi-structured
Unstructured
Self-structured
Using a decision support system involves all of the following types of analytical modeling activities
except____ analysis.
sensitivity
exception
what-if
goal-seeking
Instead of focusing on the information processing requirements of business functions, enterprise

software focuses on supporting integrated clusters of ______ involved in the operations of a business.
application software
business processes
customer relationships
all of the choices are correct.
_______ is an example of an unstructured, operational management decision.
Cash management
Program control
Product planning
Capital budgeting
A strategic information system can be any kind of information system that uses information technology
to help an organization ____________ .
gain a competitive advantage
reduce a competitive disadvantage
meet strategic enterprise objectives
all of the choices are correct
_____ is defined as the use of the Internet and other networks and information technologies to support
electronic commerce, enterprise communication and collaboration, and Web-enabled business
processes, both within a networked enterprise and with customers and business partners.
Electronic business
Enterprise collaboration
Cross-functional system management
Deciding what product lines to develop over the next five years is an example of a(n)____ decision.
Structured
Semi-structured
Unstructured
open-ended
Which of the following is one of the most common and useful types of data mining for marketing?
Goal seeking analysis
Market basket analysis
Optimization analysis
Sensitivity analysis
All the following are competitive strategies except
Innovation
Cost leadership
Alliances
Becoming a low-cost producer of products and services in an industry is an example of a(n):
Cost leadership strategy
Differentiation strategy
Innovation strategy
Growth strategy
Internal enterprise information portal applications typically include access to all of the following except:
E-mail and project websites
Human resource Web self- service
Internet news services
Corporate database
Which of the following is a competitive force in the marketplace?
Cost leadership
Competition
Differentiation
Alliances
All of the following can be used to counter competitive forces in the marketplace except:
Alliances
Growth
Innovation
Bargaining
A weekly sales report is a typical example of a(n) _____ report.
periodic scheduled
exception
demand
action
____ is an example of a structured, tactical management decision
Program control
Employee performance appraisal
Credit management
Company reorganization
How do information systems aid in decision making?
Information systems help companies determine investments.
Information systems help companies determine which products to sell or discontinue.
Information systems can be used to gain competitive advantage.
The expanding role of information systems from the 1950s to the present, in sequential order, are:
Management reporting, decision support, electronic business and commerce, data processing, strategic
and end user support
Data processing, management reporting, strategic and end user support, electronic business and
commerce, decision support
Data processing, management reporting, decision support, strategic and end user support, electronic
business and commerce
Electronic business and commerce, management reporting, data processing, strategic and end user
support, decision support
A(n) _______ strategy is a competitive strategy by which a firm develops unique products or services
from those of its competitors, or makes radical business changes that may alter the fundamental nature
of the industry.
alliance
growth
differentiation
innovation
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the operational level of management?
Composed of a board of directors and an executive committee of the CEO and top executives who
develop overall organizational goals, strategies, policies, and objectives as part of a strategic planning
process
Composed of self-directed teams and middle managers, who develop short-and medium-range plans,
schedules, and budgets
Composed of self-directed teams or supervisory managers who develop short-range plans, according to
procedures and within the budgets and schedules established for the teams and other workgroups of
the organization
None of the choices are correct.
A(n) _____ strategy is a competitive strategy by which a firm seeks to become a low-cost producer of
products and services in the industry.
low cost leadership
differentiation
innovation
alliance
Set – 2
Dell, Wal-Mart, and Amazon are a few of the companies using ____ DSS models to stimulate and
optimize supply chain flow and reduce inventory levels.
pricing
product and service quality
financial performance
supply chain
Investments in information technology that build valuable new relationships allow a firm to:
Lock in the supplier
Lock in the customer
Lock out competition
All the above
_____ analysis is a more complex form of goal-seeking where the goal is to find the best value for a
target variable given certain constraints.
What-if
Sensitivity
Market basket
Optimization
All of the following are attributes of intelligent behavior that AI attempts to duplicate except:
Reasoning and learning
Emotion
Problem solving
Responding quickly and successfully to new situations
All of the following are competitive forces in the marketplace except
Alliances
Competition
Substitutes
Bargaining
Artificial intelligence is a science and technology based on:
Computer science
Biology and psychology
Linguistics and mathematics

All of the choices are correct
____ is an example of an unstructured, operational management decision.
Cash management
Program control
Product planning
Capital budgeting
The expanding role of information systems from the 1950s to the present, in sequential order, are:
Management reporting, decision support, electronic business and commerce, data processing, strategic
and end user support
Data processing, management reporting, strategic and end user support, electronic business and
commerce, decision support
Data processing, management reporting, decision support, strategic and end user support, electronic
business and commerce
Electronic business and commerce, management reporting, data processing, strategic and end user
support, decision support
All the following are competitive strategies except
Innovation
Cost leadership
Alliances
Many companies are using GIS technology along with global positioning system devices to do all of the
following except:
Map customer traffic patterns within each store
Choose new retail store locations
Optimize distribution routes
Analyze the demographics of their target audiences

A major freight company has several thousand drivers. A report containing information about only those
company drivers who have not taken a mandatory defensive driving course is an example of a(n) _____
report.
periodic scheduled
exception
demand
action
A firm can survive and succeed in the long nm if it successfully develops strategies to confront the _____
that shape the structure of competition in its industry.
technological innovations
competitive business processes
competitive forces
competitive strategies
Which of the following is an example of an unstructured data source?
ERP database
CRM database
Other databases
E-mail
A weekly sales report is a typical example of a(n) ___ report.
periodic scheduled
exception
demand
action
Deciding what products lines to develop over the next five years is an example of a(n) ____ decision.
Structured
Semi-structured
Unstructured
Open-ended
_____ is an example of a structured, tactical management decision.
Program control
Employee performance appraisal
Credit management
Company reorganization
Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the form dimension of information?
Information is based on past, present, or future time periods.
Information is arranged in a predetermined sequence.
All the information needed is provided.
The information can have a broad or narrow scope, or an internal or external focus.
With ___ , data about sales offices can be rolled up to the district level, and district-level data can be
rolled up to provide a regional-level perspective.
consolidation
drill-down
filtration
slicing and dicing
AI applications can be grouped wider all of the following areas except:
Cognitive science
Robotics
Natural interfaces
Linguistics
A(n) _____ strategy is a competitive strategy by which a firm significantly expands its capacity to
produce goods and services, expanding and diversifying in the market
alliance
growth
differentiation
innovation
By targeting customers who are already known to be likely buyers, the effectiveness of a given
marketing effort is significantly increased-if the marketing takes the form of ______
in-store displays
catalogs
a direct offer
The form of the marketing does not matter.
Networked enterprises view _____ systems as a strategic way to use IT to decentralize information
resources.
Electronic business
enterprise collaboration
How do information systems aid in decision making?
Information systems help companies determine investments.
Information systems help companies determine which products to sell or discontinue.
Information systems can be used to gain competitive advantage.
The type of information required by decision makers in a company is directly related to the level of
management decision making and the amount of ____ in the decision situations they face.
financial risk
structure
variable information
urgency
All the following are examples of an information system, except
A paper-based accounting ledger

A cash register
A group of marbles in a box
A paper-based accounting ledger
Becoming a low-cost producer of products and services in an industry is an example of a(n):
Cost leadership strategy
Differentiation strategy
Innovation strategy
Growth strategy
______ is defined as the use of the Internet and other networks and information technologies to
support electronic commerce, enterprise communication and collaboration, and Web-enabled business
processes, both within a networked enterprise and with customers and business partners.
Electronic business
Enterprise collaboration
Decisions made at the tactical management level tend to be more:
Structured
Semi-structured
Unstructured
Self-structured
According to the text, most retail stores today use computer -based information systems to support
business processes and operations. This support falls broadly into the categories of.
Business decisions and strategies for competitive advantage.
Operations and support strategies.
Business decisions and operations.
Strategic business decisions and tactical business decisions.
Which of the following is a competitive force in the marketplace?

Cost leadership
Competition
Differentiation
Alliances
HRMC 523
Set – 1
The first discipline to take the modem corporation as the unit of analysis and emphasize the design,
implementation, and coordination of various administrative and organization systems was:
anthropology
psychology
management
sociology
Employee loyalty toward the organization is a significant factor in:
job displacement
employee turnover
continuance commitment
affective commitment
Individuals who make external attributions will be more likely to
develop feelings of incompetence which may lead to depression
provide a supporting environment for followers
rarely quit because they do not feel responsible
achieve higher levels of performance
The motivation theory that holds that employee motivation is determined by the belief that a valued
outcome will result from effort is called:
goal-setting theory
equity theory
two-factor theory
expectancy theory
A technique that is valuable in its ability to generate a number of independent judgments without the
requirement of a face-to-face meeting is:
the nominal group technique
brainstorming
dialectical inquiry
the Delphi technique
The JDI measures:
employee absenteeism
attitude specificity
job satisfaction
job performance
Which of the following is considered a key benefit of diversity?
less thinking that is considered critical
less time in making decisions
flexibility and adaptation
cohesiveness
Attribution theory helps to______ behavior in organizations
observe
explain causes of
specify correct or appropriate
measure
As a member of a study group, you feel that others are making minimal contributions. In this situation
you are LEAST likely to:
reduce your contribution
increase your participation and contribution
withdraw from the group
praise the inputs of others
If a manager asks an employee to purchase a gift for his wife, the employee would think this request:
falls within his zone of indifference
falls outside his zone of indifference
should be based on the manager's authority base
is in conflict with the employee’s value system
The dynamic process through which the emotions are transferred from one person to another is called
none of these
Emotional Quotient
emotional adaptability
emotional contagion
According to the Protestant ethic, a person should work hard because hard work and prosperity would
lead to a place in heaven. The organizational scholar who advanced the Protestant Ethic notion was:
Adam Smith
John Calvin
Sigmund Freud
Max Weber
Modern management practices such as employee management recognition programs, flexible benefit
packages, and stock ownership plans emphasize:
psychodynamic theory
intrinsic motivation
external incentives
internal needs
The primacy effect is also known as:
selective perception
first-impression error
a stereotype
self-fulfilling prophecy
Values reflected in the way individuals actually behave are called:
enacted values
behavioral values
observable values
enduring values
The fit perspective is useful in explaining:

why managers make better decisions
long-term performance
how firms can adapt to environmental change
short-term performance
The web like structures that contract some or all of their operating functions to other organisations and
then coordinate their activities through managers and other employees at their headquarters are called
Circle Organisation
Networked Organisation
Traditional Organisation
According to the group development model, which of the following set of issues need to be addressed
as part of a group's authority issues?
expected group outcomes, who is in charge, and management of power and influence
who is in charge, management of power and influence, and security
expected group outcomes, who is in charge, and who has the right to tell whom to do what
who is in charge, management of power and influence, and who has the right to tell whom to do what
In research on styles of conflict management, the ____ style was least effective.
collaborating
avoiding
competing
compromising
The impoverished manager is one who:
emphasizes efficient production.
exerts just enough effort to avoid being fired.
creates a happy, comfortable work environment.
maintains the status quo.

The set of authority and task relations among group members is known as:
cohesiveness
mutual acceptance
control and sanctions
status structure
Crude comments or sexual jokes and behaviors that disparage someone's sex or convey hostility is
considered which type of sexual harassment?
sexual coercion
sexual abuse
exploitation
gender harassment
Emotional intelligence (EI) relates to the ability to manage
conflict
Intelligence Quotient
conceptual skills
technical skills
The Leadership and Strategy Council (LSC) is a feature of
Circle Organisation
Traditional Organisation
Networked Organisation
The establishment of new attitudes, values, and behaviors as the new status quo is consistent with what
stage in Lewin's change model?
change
moving
unfreezing
refreezing
An ethical theory that emphasizes the nature and characteristics of an act is:
consequence-based
cultural based
motive-based
rule-based
Which of the following is a characteristic of quality teams?
They emphasize the generation of ideas.
They provide advice to managers who still retain decision-making authority.
They operate in parallel fashion to the organization's structure.
They make data-based decisions about improving product and service quality.
Which of the following statements is most correct?
Locus of control has little to do with ethical behavior.
Persons with an internal locus of control make more ethical decisions than others.
Other people control persons who are strong on internal locus of control.
Individuals with an internal locus of control are more likely to exhibit uncontrollable behavior.
Group polarization results in:
group members driving decisions toward consensus
group members moving from extreme attitudes toward more moderate attitudes
the tendency for group discussion to produce shifts toward more extreme attitudes among members
the tendency for group members who were initially more cautious to become significantly less cautious
The study of individual behavior and group dynamics in organizational settings describes the content of
study in:
organization theory
organization design
organizational behavior
organizational development
Set – 2
A "wild turkey' in the top management team is:
one who increases the homogeneity within the executive group
a member of the executive team that retards the executive teams performance
someone who is uncontrollable
a devil's advocate who challenges the thinking of the CEO and other top executives
Which of the following is a characteristic of quality teams?
They operate in parallel fashion to the organization's structure.
They emphasize the generation of ideas.
They provide advice to managers who still retain decision-making authority.
They make data-based decisions about improving product and service quality
Which of the following is considered a key benefit of diversity?
cohesiveness
less time in making decisions
less thinking that is considered critical
flexibility and adaptation
According to the MBTI a successful top executive is likely to be a/an:
extrovert, sensor, thinker, and judger
introvert, sensor, thinker, and perceiver
introvert, intuitor, feeler, and perceiver
extrovert, intuitor, feeler, and judger
Which of the following conditions would LEAST encourage political activity?
uncertainty
performance appraisal process
abundant resources
unclear goals
The conflict that develops when a role behavior clashes with individual values is called:
intrarole
interrole
interpersonal
person-role
The set of authority and task relations among group members is known as:
status structure
control and sanctions
mutual acceptance
cohesiveness
Increasing workforce diversity is likely to reduce ___ as a barrier to social perception.
stereotyping
the primacy effect
Denise and Teresa are two students in a course on organizational behavior . Denise outperforms Teresa
on the first exam in OB, and Teresa convinces herself that Denise is not really a good person to compare
herself to because Denise is a psychology major and Teresa is majoring in accounting . Which of the
following is the best explanation for Teresa's reaction?
Teresa probably has an inflated generalized belief of her capabilities.
Teresa's high self-esteem is protecting her from this unfavorable comparison.
Teresa has an external locus of control.
Teresa is a low self-monitor.
The dynamic process through which the emotions are transferred from one person to another is called
none of these
emotional adaptability
emotional contagion
Emotional Quotient
The type of organizational commitment that is based on an individual's perceived obligation to remain in
an organization is called:
affective commitment
attitudinal commitment
normative commitment
intentional commitment
At what stage of group development is the leader 's role primarily one of recognition of the group's
achievements?
performing
forming
norming
storming
The primacy effect is also known as:
a stereotype
self-fulfilling prophecy
The close linkage of ____ to performance wider expectancy theory is crucial for enhancing motivation.
instrumentality
likelihood
valence
need satisfaction
The two sets of social benefits available to team or group members includes:
recognition and integrated involvement
psychological intimacy and recognition
psychological intimacy and integrated involvement
integrated involvement and achievement
A transnational organization is one where:
a prevalent ethnic viewpoint begins to be held strongly in the consciousness of managers
the global viewpoint supersedes national issues
the global and national interests are linked in an overriding perspective
an organization's nationality is held strongly in the consciousness of managers even though the
organization competes on a global scale
In the case of repeated failure wider expectancy theory, an employee may:
greatly increase input
increase effort when the likelihood of reward has dropped
raise outcome valence
reduce effort
If a manager asks an employee to purchase a gift for his wife, the employee would think this request:
falls outside his zone of indifference
should be based on the manager's authority base
is in conflict with the employee’s value system
falls within his zone of indifference
Authentic leaders are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
benevolence
optimism
resilience
high levels of hope

According to the Protestant ethic, a person should work hard because hard work and prosperity would
lead to a place in heaven. The organizational scholar who advanced the Protestant Ethic notion was:
Max Weber
Sigmund Freud
John Calvin
Adam Smith
Instrumental values includes
honesty
all of these
ambition
self sufficiency
The development of group cohesiveness is negatively influenced by:
external pressure
prestige of the group
group size when there are only five to eight members
internal competition
Upper echelon theory argues that:
wild turkeys will have a detrimental effect on organizational performance
turnover at the top becomes a vicious cycle
characteristics of the top management team can predict organizational characteristics
executive turnover will usually result in declining organizational performance
Group polarization results in:
group members moving from extreme attitudes toward more moderate attitudes
the tendency for group discussion to produce shifts toward more extreme attitudes among members
the tendency for group members who were initially more cautious to become significantly less cautious
group members driving decisions toward consensus

A key understanding to the relationship between hygiene and motivation factors is:
they are additive
they are positively related
they are interdependent
they are independent
The importance and value placed on a reward in expectancy theory is known as:
instrumentality
need satisfaction
likelihood
valence
Corporations and business enterprises tend to subscribe to:
rule-based ethics
consequential ethics
cultural relativism
universal moralism
An ethical theory that emphasizes the nature and characteristics of an act is:
motive-based
rule-based
cultural based
consequence-based
Equity theory is a/an:
need approach to motivation
process approach to motivation
external approach to motivation
content motivation model

The belief that performance is connected to rewards is known as:
probability or likelihood
expectancy
valence
instrumentality
FINC 521
Set – 1 (2019)
Why depreciation has to be added back in the calculation of cash-flow as it is a ___ ?
manufacturing expense
Cash expense
Non-cash expense
non-operating expense
Dividend payment linked to profits left-out after meeting the expansion needs is based on ____
theory/policy?
Signaling Theory
Residual payout policy
Stable Dividend policy
Constant pay-out policy
Brexit, Greece Crises, Chinese Crises, Sub-Prime Crises are the examples of which of the following?
Systematic Risk
Unsystematic Risk
Total Risk
Specific Risk
The cash flows forecasted at the end of projection period for capital budgeting decisions are known
as___?
Initial Cash Flows
Operating Cash Flows

Terminal Cash Flows
Regular Cash Flows
The underlying assumption in IRR method is that all the intermittent cashflows are reinvested at.
Cut-off rate
required rate of return
cost of capital
IRR
If the credit period is increased for the customers of the company, operating cycle will___
reduce
increase
remain same
unaffected
Calculate the expected return with the help of following data: p=.3 r=30%, p=.4 r= 16%, p=.3 r=8%
18
35
Cost of preference share is ___
Preference Dividend Rate
Pref Dividend/Pref. share market price
Both of the above
None of the above
The internal rate of return generated by an fixed income investment, if held till maturity is known as
Current Yield
YTM
Yield Curve
Coupon rate
Current year dividend of Sun Ltd is Rs 5 per share. Expected growth rate is 8% and market capitalization
rate is 10%. Calculate the intrinsic value of stock?
54
270
Market interest rate is 9%. A bond with 10% coupon will sell ____ par value?
Above
Below
at
None of the above
Which of the following is the spontaneous source of financing the working capital requirements?
Commercial Paper
Accounts Payable
Bank Finance
All of the above
Which of the following is ultimate objective of financial management?
Profit maximization
Shareholder's wealth maximization
Leverage Minimization
Funding maximization
Sheela needs Rs 500000 at the end of 5 years. How much amount she should invest right now @ 10%.
Present Value of 1 Rs at 10% for 5 years is .6209
100000
155225
310450
400000
In case of capital budgeting decisions, the projects in which choice of one automatically excludes the
another are known as ___ ?
Dependent Projects
Independent Projects
Mutually Exclusive Projects
Mutually Inclusive Projects
For a firm, weight of equity & debt is 0.6 & 0.4 respectively and cost of equity is 15%, Cost of debt is 9%,
tax rate is 30%. Calculate the WACC for the firm?
126
1152
12
084
Moon Ltd invests Rs 800000 in a paper manufacturing plant This is expected to generate Rs 150000
every year for next seven years. Cost of capital for the project is 10%. PVAF for 7 years at 10% is 5.3349.
Calculate the NPV of the project?
800000
800235
235
-235
Growth of the company can be expected to be higher when ______ is high?
pay-out ratio
distribution ratio
dividend rate
retention ratio
If business risk of a company goes up than price of stock will.____ ?
decrease
increase
remain same
fluctuate
Which of the following instrument is riskiest?
Shares
Preference Shares
Debentures
Fixed Deposit
As per Bird in hand theory, high dividend pay-out is. _____ to low pay-out?
Preferred
not preferred
irrelevant for investor
None of the above
1/ 10,30 credit term means?
1% discount
1% discount
1% discount for payment within 10 days
1% discount for payment within 30 days
Which of the following AAA debentures will have highest price if YTM is ___?
07
08
075
085
Increased financial leverage gives rise to ____ volatile EPS?
more
less
non
None of the above
Calculate the standard deviation with the help of following data: p=.3 r=30%, p=.4 r= l6%, p=.3 r=8%
76
92
21
64
Cost of debt is. ____ ?
Coupon rate
YTM (I-tax rate)
YTM
YTM/Bond Price
Discounted payback period is considered an improvement over payback period because it considers.
____ ?
All cash-flows
Time Value of Money
Easy to understand
All of the above
If credit sales is 100000, credit period is 30 days, calculate the average receivables?
8219
8333
3333
3288
The risk which can be reduced by diversification is known as ____ ?
Systematic Risk
Unsystematic Risk
Total Risk
Market Risk
A stock's average return in last 3 years were 12% and Standard deviation is 8%. Calculate the coefficient
of variation?
33
67
Set – 2
A company replaces an old machinery with salvage value of Rs I 00000 replaced by a machinery costing
Rs 500000. The relevant cash flows for evaluation of this project is ___ ?
100000
500000
400000
600000
In India, dividend is ____ in the hands of investors?
Taxable
not-taxable
Heavily taxable
None of the above

Calculate the standard deviation with the help of following data: p=.3 r=30%, p=.4 r= l6%, p=.3 r=8%
76
92
21
64
Which of the following evaluation techniques for long-term investment decisions doesn't consider the
time value of money?
NPV
IRR
Pay-Back Period
Profitability Index
Calculate the expected return with the help of following data: p=.3 r=30%, p=.4 r= 16%, p=.3 r=8%
18
35
As per liquidity premium theory, interest rates on long term bonds will be than short term bonds?
Lower
Same
Higher
Fluctuating
Increase in the frequency of compounding results into _______ maturity value.
Higher
Lower
Same
Fluctuating
If the cost of capital of a project goes up then NPV will
decrease
increase
remain same
fluctuate
Shyam deposits Rs 5000 every year for next 3 years at 6% semiannual compounding . Calculate the
future value if investment? Future value annuity factor at 3% for 3years and 6 years is 3.0909 & 6.4684
respectively and at 6% for 3years and 6 years is 3.1836 & 6.9753 respectively.
16171
15918
25
Discounted payback period is considered an improvement over payback period because it considers.
All cash-flows
Time Value of Money
Easy to understand
All of the above
For a firm, weight of equity & debt is 0.6 & 0.4 respectively and cost of equity is 15%, Cost of debt is 9%,
tax rate is 30%. Calculate the WACC for the firm?
126
1152
12
084
As per :MM proposition without taxes, value of firm is ____ by changing the capital structure?
affected
not affected
increases
decreases
Which of the following method is considered the best evaluation techniques for Long-term investment
decisions?
NPV
IRR
Pay-Back Period
Profitability Index
If proportion of debt is increased in capital structure, overall cost of capital will ____?
Decrease
increase
remain same
fluctuate
The risk which can be reduced by diversification is known as_____ ?
Systematic Risk
Unsystematic Risk
Total Risk
Market Risk
If business risk of a company goes up than price of stock will.
decrease
increase
remain same
fluctuate
Moon Ltd invests Rs 800000 in a paper manufacturing plant This is expected to generate Rs 150000
every year for next seven years. Cost of capital for the project is 10%. PVAF for 7 years at 10% is 5.3349.
Calculate the NPV of the project?
800000
800235
235
-235
In ABC classification of inventory, maximum attention has to be paid on _____ items?
A category
B category
C category
All of them
The internal rate of return generated by an fixed income investment, if held till maturity is known as
Current Yield
YTM
Yield Curve
Coupon rate
Dividend declared at 12% means that this % age will be applied on _____ ?
Issue Price
Market Price
Face Value
Profits
When interest rates on long term bonds are higher than short term bonds, yield curve will be. ____ ?
upward slopping
downward slopping
flat
none of the above
Dividend payment linked to profits left-out after meeting the expansion needs is based on ___
theory/policy?
Signaling Theory
Residual payout policy

Stable Dividend policy
Constant pay-out policy
Sheela needs Rs 100000 at the end of each year in the next 5 years. How much amount she should
invest now @ 10%. Present Value of annuity factor at 10% for 5 years is 3.7908
28
500000
100000
379080
The cashflows invested in a project at t=O period is known as_________.
Initial Cash Flows
Operating Cash Flows
Terminal Cash Flows
Regular Cash Flows
If growth rate of expected earnings goes up than price of stock will_____ .
decrease
increase
remain same
fluctuate
In case of share buy-back, number of outstanding share will_____.
reduce
increase
remain same
unaffected
A stock's average return in last 3 years were 12% and Standard deviation is 8%. Calculate the coefficient
of variation?
5
33
67
_____ method tells the period in which original investment in a project will be recovered.
NPV
IRR
Pay-Back Period
Profitability Index
After the 2 for 1 share split number of shares will_____?
remain same
reduce
be half
double
If credit sales is 100000, credit period is 30 days, calculate the average receivables?
8219
8333
3333
3288
FINC512
PART-1
1.Which of the following is an operating item?
Interest paid
salmy paid
share capital issued
2 . Accounting Standards are issued by which of the following entity, in India?
ICAI
SEBI
RBI
IFRS
3 . A business has paid the rent for the period Jan-March 2016 in June'2016, in which year financial
statements this rent expenses will be recorded?
2015
2016
2017
All of the above

4 . Both assets and owner's equity would be increased by __________________
capital brought in
Purchase of an asset on credit.
Payment of creditors.
Proprietors drawings.
5 . Who approves the financial statements of a company?
Auditors
Shareholders
Management
Board of Directors
6 . Which of the following can be categorized as discretionary Expense
Purchase
Salary
Repair & Maintenance
R&D Expense
7 . The Share Capital of a company is Rs 10 Cr divided in 10 Lac number of shares. Calculate the face
value of share
Rs 100
Rs 1000
Rs10
Rs1
8 . Which of the following statement shows the financial position of a business entity as on date?
Income Statement
Balance Sheet
Trial Balance
Cash Flow Statement
9 . Which of the following self-generated intangible asset can be recorded in books of account?
Goodwill
Technical Know-How
Software
All of the Above
10 . If manufacturing expenses are Rs 20000, interest expenses Rs 4000, cash sales is Rs 30000. Increase
in inventory and debtors is Rs 5000 and Rs 7000 respectively. While increase in accounts payable is
9000. Calculate the cash flow from operations?
Rs 9000
Rs 3000
Rs 7000
Rs 12000
11 . Proceeds on the sale of fixed assets will be shown in which part of the cash flow statement, if
indirect method is followed?
Operating Cash Flow
Financing Cash Flow
Investing Cash Flow
None of the above
12 . XYZ Ltd paid Salaries of Rs 200000 in the month of March'2016. Journalize the transaction.
Cash A/c Debited to Salary
Salary A/c Debited to Cash
Employees A/c Debited to Cash
Employees A/c Debited to Salary
13 . Security Premium Reserve is an example of ________________
Revenue Reserve
Capital Reserve
Reserve Capital
Revaluation Reserve
14 . Which of the following can be categorized as Revenue?
Sale of goods
Sale of Old Furniture
Dividend Received
All of the above
15 . In which of the following books, separate account is maintained for each item?
Ledger
Accounting Equation
Trial Balance
Journal
16 . Credit sales for the year is Rs 100000 and closing debtors are Rs10000. Calculate the collection
period of the firms?
10 days
5 days
39 days
None of the above
17 . Capital contributed by owners is recorded as liability as per which of the following concept?
Monetary Unit
Economic Entity
Going Concern
Dual Aspect
18 . ABC Ltd Purchased Machinery on 1st October 2017 at cost price of Rs 5 Lacs. There is no salvage
value and estimated useful life of Machinery is 5 years. How much depreciation should be charged for
Year 2017-18?
1 Lac
Zero
50000
None of these
19 . A new firm commenced business on 1st January 20016 and purchased goods costing Rs. 90,000
during the year. A sum of Rs. 6,000 was spent on freight inwards. At the end of the year the cost of
goods still unsold was Rs. 12,000. Sales during the year Rs.1,20,000. What is the gross profit earned by
the firm?
Rs 36000
Rs 30000
Rs 42000
Rs 38000
20 . Loss on the sale of Fixed Assets will be shown in which part of the cash flow statement, if indirect
method is followed?
Operating Cash Flow
Financing Cash Flow
Investing Cash Flow
None of the above
21 . Which of the following is liquidity ratio?
Debt to Equity Ratio
Return on Investment
Total Asset Turnover Ratio
Current Ratio
22 . In which of the following books, transactions are first time recorded?
Ledger
Accounting Equation
Trial Balance
Journal
23 . Operating expenses of Moon Ltd are Rs 18000, Interest expenses Rs 5000, Tax paid Rs 4000. If Sales
is Rs 35000 then calculate the Net Profit Margin?
2285
7714
51
0 0.0657
24 . Purchase of machinery against issue of shares will be shown in which part of the cash flow
statement?
Operating Cash Flow
Financing Cash Flow
Investing Cash Flow
None of the above
25 . A credit sale of goods to Mohan should be debited to
Sales account
Mohan account
Goods account
Purchase account
26 . Which of the following is an financing item?

Interest paid
Salary paid
Dividend received
Share capital issued
27 . While preparing cash flow statements, the repayments of a loan during the year should be included
under the heading of
Operating Cash Flow
Financing Cash Flow
Investing Cash Flow
None of the above
28 . The balance of cash account indicates______________
Net income for the period
Net loss for the period
Net cash on hand
Net worth of the business
29 . Which of the following statement shows the Net Profit/Loss earned by a business entity?
Income Statement
Balance Sheet
Trial Balance
Cash Flow Statement
30 . Every accounting transaction must at least affect -_________accounts?
One
Two
Three
Four
Part - 2
Q1
While preparing cash flow statements. The repayments of a loan during the year should included under
the heading of
Operating cash flow
Financing cash flow

Investing cash flow
None of the above
Q2
Which of the following is basic accounting equation?
Capital – liabilities = assets
Assets + liabilities = capital
Assets + capital = liabilities
Liabilities + capital = assets
Q3
Operating expenses of Moon Ltd are Rs 18000, Interest expenses Rs 5000, Tax paid Rs 4000. If Sales is Rs
35000 then calculate the Net Profit Margin?
2285
7714
51
0 0.0657
Q4
Decline in the value of intangible assets in a given year is known as____
Depreciation
Amortization
Depletion
All of the above
Q5
Which of the following self-generated intangible asset can be recorded in books of account?
Goodwill
Technical Know-How
Software
All of the Above

Q6
Which of the following is an Operating item?
Interest paid
Salary paid
Dividend received
Q7
A business has paid rent for the period Jan-march 2016 in June 2016, in which year financial statements
this rent expenses will be recorded?
2015
2016
2017
All of the above

Q8
Which of the following is a financing item?
Interest paid
Salary paid
Dividend received
Q9
On 1st April 2017 P Ltd sells 100000 shares of dabur India Ltd to Q Ltd at Rs 400 per share (market price
on that day) with an agreement to repurchase the same at Rs 412 per share on 31 Dec 2017. How the
transaction should be presented in financial statements of P Ltd
Sale of investment
Sale of shares
Borrowings
Investment
Q10
Which of the following can be categorised as Discretionary Expenses
Purchase
Salary
Repair and maintenance
R&D Expense
Q11
If total liabilities decreased by rs20000 and stockholders’ equity increase by rs5,000 during of time, then
total assets must change by what amount and direction during the same time period?
Rs 15000 increase
Es 15000 decrease
Rs 25000 increase
Rs 25000 decrease
Q12
A credit sale of goods to Mohan should be debited to
Sales account
Mohan account
Goods account
Purchase account
Q13
A credit sale of goods to Mohan should be credited to
Sales account
Mohan account
Goods account
Purchase account
Q14
There was a fire in M Ltd Godown. It resulted into loss of Rs 5 Cr goods however the insurance company
accepted the claim of Rs 4.5 Cr only. This will result in _____ in equity by Rs____.
ANS…
Increase,4.5 Cr
Decrease, 0.5 Cr
Increase, 0.5 Cr
Decrease, 5 Cr
Q15
In which of the following statement, final balances of all the accounts are prepared in the form of list ?
Ledger
Accounting Equation
Trial Balance
Journal
Q16
Which of the following is a Current Assets ?
Furniture
Computers
Debtor
Car
Q17
In which of the following firm structure compliance cost is maximum
Sole proprietorship
Ltd liability partnership
Pvt ltd company
Public ltd company

Q18
The share capital of a company is Rs 10Cr divided in 10 lac number of shares. Calculate the face value of
share
Rs 100
Rs 1000
Rs 10
Rs 1
Q19
In which of the following books, transactions are first time recorded?
Ledger
Accounting Equation
Trial Balance
Journal
Q20
Advance from Customers is an example of
Asset
Liability
Income
Expense
Q21
Accounting Standards are issued by which of the following entity, in India?
ICAI
SEBI
RBI
IFRS
Q22
Both assets and owner’s equity would be increased by _______________
Capital brought in
Purchase of an asset on credit
Payments of creditors
Proprietors drawings
Q23 . Which of the following statement shows the Net Profit/Loss earned by a business entity?
Income Statement
Balance Sheet
Trial Balance
Cash Flow Statement

Q24
A new firm commenced business on 1st January 20016 and purchased goods costing Rs. 90,000 during
the year. A sum of Rs. 6,000 was spent on freight inwards. At the end of the year the cost of goods still
unsold was Rs. 12,000. Sales during the year Rs.1,20,000. What is the gross profit earned by firm?
36000
30000
42000
38000
Q25
Credit sales for the year is Rs 100000 and closing debtors are Rs10000. Calculate the collection period of
the firms?
10 days
5 days
39 days
None of the above

Q26
In which of the following firm structure liability of owners is unlimited
Sole proprietorship
Ltd liability partnership
Pvt ltd company
Public ltd company
Q27
Higher debt- equity ratio indicates
High operating risk
Low operating risk
High financial risk
Low financial risk
Q28
ABC Ltd Purchased Machinery on 1st October 2017 at cost price of Rs 5 Lacs. There is no salvage value
and estimated useful life of Machinery is 5 years. How much depreciation should be charged for Year
2017-18?
1 Lac
Zero
50000
None of these
Q29
Wages paid to workers must be debited to_________ account
Wages
Machinery
Factory Expenses
Office Expenses
Q30
Which of the following can be categorized as revenue?
Sale of goods
Sale of old furniture
Dividend received
All of above
ECOC514 SET 1 DEC 2018
Test -1
1.Demand curve slopes downward due to
-income effect
-substitution effect
-diminishing marginal utility
-all of the above
2.An increase in the price of a good normally increases the
-demand for its substitutes
-supply of compliments
-purchasing power of consumer incomes
-purchasing power of consumer divide incomes
3.An isoquant is
-least cost combination
-a locus of input combination that give the same level of output
-a locus of input combination that give different level of output
-a locus of product combination that give the same level of satisfaction
4.If planned spending exceeds planned output, the result is
-a reduction in GDP
-unintended inventory increases
-unintended inventory reduction
-an increase in government purchases
5.Production of an additional unit of output by the firm gives rise to
-Explicit cost
-implicit cost
-incremental cost
-marginal cost
6.If future price changes were perfectly anticipated by both borrowers and lenders ,what would happen
to the real interest rate in the future if the price level changed?
-it would increase
-it would decrease
-it would not change
-it would decrease by the amount of the price increase
7.Negative cross-price elasticity of demand indicates that
-the product is an inferior good
-the product is a necessity

-the product is a luxury
-the two products are compliments
8.when the first stage of law of variable proportions begins to operate the TVC curve
-falls at an increasing rate
-rises at an increasing rate
-falls at a decreasing rate
-rises at a decreasing rate
9.In determining comparative advantage, cost is measured in terms of
-foreign currency
-opportunities forgone
-domestic currency
-gold only
10.in actability
-each country consumption possibilities are the same as its production possibilities
-equilibrium is attained with the maximum gains from specialization and trade
-equilibrium is attained with the maximum amount of international trade
-a nation is governed by an individual with absolute authority
11.if an imperfectly competitive firm is selling its 100th unit of output for $35,its marginal revenue
-will be greater than $35
-will be less than $35
-will also be $35

-may be either greater or less than $35
12.the equation for calculation of gross domestic product through expenditure approach is
-Y=C+I+G+(X-M)
-Y=C+I+G+(X+M)
-Y=C+I+G(X-M)
-Y=C+I+(X-M)
13.price discrimination refers to
-the differences between the prices a purely competitive seller and a purely monopolistic seller would
charge
-the selling of a given product at different prices that do not reflect cost differences
-any price above that which is equal to minimum average total cost
-selling a given product for different prices at two different points in time
14.As a result of an increased deficit associated with discretionary fiscal policy
-both the interest rate and real output fall
-both the interest rate and nominal output rise
-the interest rate falls and real output rises
-the interest rate rises and real output falls
15.A consumer maximizes utility when the marginal utilities of all goods
-having positive money prices that are equal to zero
-are equal
-are maximized
-are exactly proportional to their market prices

16.when prices increases at a such speed that the value of money falls drastically is called as
-headline inflation
-core inflation
-hyperinflation
-stagflation
17.If the supply of a product increases, then
-more will be purchased at the same price
-the price of a product must have declined
-demand for the good must have increased
-producers offer less for sale at each possible price

18.The money demand curve describes how the quantity of money demanded varies with
-nominal GDP
-the interest rate
-real GDP
-the price level
19.A purely competitive firm is in short run equilibrium and its MC exceeds its AC.it can be conclude that
-firms will leave the industry in the long run
-the firm is realizing an economic profit
-the firm is realizing a loss
-this is an increasing cost industry

20.Which of the following will not increase when net taxes decrease ?
-saving
-disposable income
-consumption
-government expenditure
21.GDP price index is calculated by the formula
-Nominal GDP/Real GDP*100
-Real GDP /nominal GDP*100
-Nominal GDP/real GDP
-Real GDP /Nominal GDP

22.Cross elasticity between a battery and a car will be
-positive
-negative
-Unitary
-Zero
23.The firm is a price taker under
-perfect competition
-oligopoly
-monopolistic competition
-All of the above
24.Gross domestic product is

-the sum of money value of all intermediate goods and services produced with in the domestic
territories of a country during an accounting year
-the aggregate final goods and services produced during an accounting year
The aggregate intermediate goods and services produced during an accounting year
-the sum of money value of all final goods and services produced with in the domestic territories of a
country during an accounting year
25.Short run cost curves behaviour is explained by
-laws of returns
-economies of scale
-law of variable proportion
-law of increasing returns
26.If total revenue falls ,when price falls ,the demand of the product will be
-elastic
-unitary elastic
-inelastic
-perfectly elastic
27.For a perfectly competitive firm the average revenue
-coincides with total revenue
-is lower than total revenue
-is equal to marginal revenue
-is higher than marginal revenue
28.In the long run, a monopolistic competitor

-incurs losses
-makes economic profit
-reaps normal profit
-any of the above
29.The percentage change in the demand for film divided by the percentage change in the price of
cameras indicates
-the cross -price elasticity of demand between film and cameras
-the cross-price elasticity of demand for photographs
-the price elasticity of demand for film
-the price elasticity of demand for cameras
30.Marginal utility is defined as the
-average amount of satisfaction gained from consuming a product

-total amount of satisfaction gained from consuming a product
-additional satisfaction gained from consuming one more unit of a product
-total amount of satisfaction gained from consuming a product divided by the number of units
consumed.
Test – 2
IMT
ECOC514 DECEMBER 2018
1.A government -imposed price above floor above the market price of milk would increase consumer
expenditure on milk only if
-demand is elastic
-supply is inelastic
-demand falls
-demand is inelastic
2.the equilibrium interest rate is determined by
-both the supply of and demand for money
-demand for money
-supply of money
-reserve bank of india
3.Gross domestic product can be calculated by adding---------- in an accounting year
-adding income earned by all factor inputs
-expenditure approach
-adding output produced by all sectors
-any of these method
4.which of the following is true concerning the relationship between the marginal propensity to
consume and the consumption function?
-the larger the MPC the higher the level of autonomous consumption
-the larger the MPC the steeper the consumption function
-the larger the MPC the larger the MPS
-the smaller the MPC the steeper the consumption function
5.If a pure monopolist is producing a level of output in excess of the MR=MC output
-it will be the interest of the firm and the society to reduce output
-it will be the interest of the firm and society to increase output
-it will be in the interest of the firm but not necessarily of society to reduce output
-the firm may or may not be maximizing profits
6.An arbitrageur in foreign exchange is a person who
-buys foreign currency, hopping to profit by selling it at a higher exchange rate of some later date
-earns illegal profit by manipulating foreign exchange
-causes differences in exchange rates in different geographic market
-simultaneously buys large amount of currency in one market and sells it in another market
7.If future price changes were perfectly anticipated by both borrowers and lenders, what would happen
to the real interest rate in the future if the price level changed?
-it would increase
-it would decrease
-it would not change

-it would decrease by the amount of the price increase
8.A typical situation when stagnation and inflation coexist is called as an
-Disinflation
-Hyperinflation
-Stagnation
-Headline inflation
9.Point of tangency between isoquant and is cost denotes
-producer equilibrium
-least cost combination
-optical factor combination
-all of the above

10.price are measured in india by
-consumer price index
-wholesale price index
-consumer price index and wholesale price index
-None of these
11.When economist say that people act as rational decision makers, that means
-they gather all relevant information before making their purchases
-once a pattern of behaviour has been established people tend to become set in their ways
-people respond in predictable ways to changes in costs and benefits

-people rarely make errors when they are permitted to make transactions
12.production of an additional units of output by the firm gives rise to
-Explicit cost
-implicit cost
-incremental cost
-marginal cost
13.A firm earns maximum profit when
-MC=MR
-MC=ATC
-Total revenue equals total cost
-TR is greater than TC by the larger amount

14.infaltuon rates differ in metropolitan regions MOSTLY because of
-differences in retail prices
-differences in housing prices
-transportation cost
-all of these
15.Marginal utility is defined as the
-Average amount of satisfaction gained from consuming a product
-total amount of satisfaction gained from consuming a product
-additional satisfaction gained from consuming more unit of a product
-total amount of satisfaction gained from consuming a product divided by the number of units
consumed
16.In choosing between burger and shirts, consumer increase their purchases of each until
-the marginal utility from the last rupee spent on one is the same as on the another
-the marginal utility from the last rupee of burger is the same as from the last shirt
-the total utility from one is the same as from the other
-none of the above
17.A movement on the demand curve will take place when there is
-a change in own price of the product
-a change in price of a substitute
-a change in consumer preferences
-an increase in per capita income

18.A firm is in equilibrium when
-marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost
-marginal revenue is more than marginal cost
-marginal cost of the firm is rising
-both conditions 1 and 2 are fulfilled
19.the law of diminishing marginal utility states that
-the total utility falls continuously additional unit of a product
-the marginal utility falls continuously with consumption additional unit of a product
-the average utility falls continuously with consumption additional unit of a product
-the marginal utility falls continuously with consumption total unit of a product
20.An increase in the money supply leads to a(n)
-decline in interest rates ,an increase in investment and an increase in aggregate demand
-decline in interest rate a decrease in investment and an increase in aggregate demand
-decline in interest rate an increase in investment and a decline in aggregate demand
-increase in interest rate an increase in investment and an increase in aggregate demand
21.If the economy experiences a contractionary gap and the RBI stimulates the economy
-The money supply is decreasing because the RBI makes open market sales
-The money supply is increasing because the RBI makes open market purchases
-The money supply is increasing because the RBI prints more money
-The money supply is decreasing because the RBI hoards money
22.when prices increase at a such speed that the value of money falls drastically is called as
-Headline inflation
-Core inflation
-Hyperinflation
-Stagflation
23.If marginal product of labour is lesser than average product of labour then average product of labour
is
-Constant
-Decreasing
-Increasing
-Maximum
24.Cartel is
-a form of overt collusion
-a form of tacit collusion
-used to explain price rigidity
-non collusive oligopoly
25.To close a contractionary gap using fiscal policy, the government can
-Increase government spending by the size of the gap
-decrease government spending by the size of the gap
-increase government spending by less than the size of the gap
-decrease government spending by more than the size of the gap
26.The firm is a price taker under
-Perfect competition
-Oligopoly
-monopolistic competition
-all of these
27.Demand curve slopes downward due to
-income effect
-substitution effect
-diminishing marginal utility
-all of the above
28.Demand pull inflation is due to
-increase in money supply
-increase in purchasing power

-increasing in income with the population
-all of these
29.which of the following will not increase when net taxes decrease?
-saving
-disposable income
-consumption
-government expenditure
30.Total fixed cost includes cost of
-plant and machinery
-plant and machinery and depreciation cost of plant
-routine maintenance of plant

-plant and machinery and routine maintenance of

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Subgroups of people or markets having similar product needs

Systematic evaluation of objectives strategies structure and performance is called

The foundation of any marketing plan is the firms

form of distribution aimed at covering selective markets

constant preference of one brand over others is

governs all corporate bodies

foreign trade development act

environment protection act

companies act 1956

unprocessed extractive or agriculture products are called

process of dividing markets into identifiable groups is called

someone’s recommendation for new restaurant is called

refers to value of company and brand names

aggressive advertisements and price discounts to customers is called

researcher selects sample based on personal judgement

marketing of goods and services to organisations is

business customers who consider numerous bids before selection

increased standards of living are a function of increased

people in a business house involved in purchase decision

Delivering a product of management in an orientation

business mission statements stated narrowly suffer from

persons or firms providing goods and services to organisations are called

facilate the exchange of ownership between sellers and buyers

individualized attention to customers is

provides a frame work for seeking environmental clearance

environment protection act

concrete symbol of the service offering

post purchase message

a characteristic that can be assessed after use

one that cannot be copied by the competition

marketing several products wider same brand is

decision amount of time and effort buyers invest in evaluation of purchase

Demand forecasting helps in the

the person who first suggests making a purchase

SOP Stands For

Standard Operating Program

Standard Operating Procedure.

Standard Operations Procedure

Standard Operating Policy

Conducting 'Green' business practices

Observing all environmental laws

Conducting business in an environment friendly manner

Doing eco-friendly business

In “Dialectical Enquiry” Approach Requires

One Proposal With Two Assumptions

Two Proposals With Different Assumptions

One Proposal With Different Assumptions

Many Proposals With Different Assumptions

An Obstruction That Makes It Difficult For A Company To Enter An Industry

Entry Fee Is High.

Initial Investment Is High

The 3rd Phase Of Evolvement Of Strategic Management Was

Externally Oriented Strategic Planning

Forecast Based Planning

Long Term Planning

Conglomerate Structure Is Appropriate For

Multiple Product Firm

Firm With Many Divisions

Large Firm With Many Product Lines In Several Unrelated Industries

Follow The Leader' Is A Strategy To

Follow The Rival

Imitate The Leader