TECHNOLOGY EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

(MULTI-COHICE EXAM)

Answers to be indicated on Candidate Answer Sheet under the heading of Technology Candidates must not
mark this sheet; failure to follow these instructions could lead to this part of the examination being void.

Duties before welding

1. Who should have access to the WPS?

a) NDT operators b) Inspectors only c) Welders only d) Welders and inspectors
2. How do we determine what the correct weld preparation (root gap, root face, included angle) should be?
a) By consulting the WPSs b) The fabrication drawing will give all the information
c) The welder will decide d) The inspector will recommend what is suitable
3. How are the lengths of tack welds during assembly and fit up determined?
a) By the welders as they have extensive knowledge
b) The fabrication specification will give minimum tack length requirements
c) The fabrication drawing will give all the information
d) Any length of tack weld will do for assembly
4. Is it always necessary to preheat the base material before welding?
a) Not on a sunny day b) Only in accordance with the WPS
c) If the equipment is available it must be used d) If using cellulosic rods these will provide enough heat
5. Which of the following would not be required to be checked before welding?
a) The welding consumables b) The weld root gap
c) PWHT temperature range d) The weld preparation
6. What does the term WPS means?
a) Weld productivity specification b) Weld production scheme
c) Welding procedure specification d) Weld productivity standard
7. Which standard is used for the basic requirements of visual inspection?
a) BS EN 970 b) API 1104 c) BS EN 7079 d) BS EN 4515
8. Who is responsible for site safety?
a) Site Quality Engineer b) Welding Supervisor c) An approved safety engineer d) Everyone
Duties during welding

9. It is permissible to allow welding to be carried out in bad weather?

a) Never
b) Yes as long as there is an adequate protection
c) Yes as long as basic low hydrogen welding electrode are used
d) Yes as long as the welder is prepared to work in the rain
10. Who has the responsibility of ensuring the welder is using the correct consumables during fabrication?
a) The welder and the welding inspector b) Store man and the welder
c) Welding Engineer d) The Q/A department
11. When would you measure the interpass temperature?
a) The highest temperature recorded in the welded joint immediately prior to depositing the next run
b) Immediately prior to commencing the first pass
c) When the welding is complete
d) Only required if the heat input is lower than the specified in WPS

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12. ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------------------------

a) ------------------------------------------------------------------- b) -----------------------------------------------------------------
c) ------------------------------------------------------------------- d) -----------------------------------------------------------------

13. You notice the welders are adjusting the current on the welding set, is this allowable?
a) Never
b) The welder has the final say on voltage and current
c) Only if the current is within the range recorded on the WPS
d) As long as the welder has approval from the welding foreman

14. What course of action should be taken upon finding a welder using incorrect welding consumables?
a) Report the incident and record all relevant information
b) Allow welding to proceed if the workmanship is good
c) None if the tensile strength of the consumable is the same as the approved one
d) Change the electrode for the correct type and continue welding

15. What is the maximum OCV allowed to initiate an arc when using A. C current?
a) 1000V b) 10V c) 90V d) 900V

16. Why is the OCV capped at voltage setting?

a) To save electricity b) To prevent exploding of the consumable
c) Allow smooth transition into welding voltage range d) To reduce the risk of fatality

Duties after welding

17. What information should be recorded as a minimum, on a completed production weld?

a) Size and type of electrode used b) Welding supervisor’s name
c) Welder’s Identification, date and weld number d) Welding inspector name

18. What is meant by the term PWHT?

a) Pipe weld heat treatment b) Pre weld heat treatment
c) Post weld hydrogen tearing d) Post weld heat treatment

19. Why would visual inspection of the excess weld metal at the bottom of a cross country pipeline be important?
a) It is the most difficult area to weld b) It is the dirtiest part of the pipe as it is near the ground
c) Welders always forget to weld the bottom d) It is the most difficult area to radiograph

20. Who has the final responsibility of sentencing and accepting a weld on completion?
a) The contractor’s inspector b) Site manager
c) The welder d) The client’s inspector or certifying authority

21. Why is it essential to clean the excess weld metal on completion of the production weld?
a) So it can be ready for painting b) To remove any rust
c) To ensure it is suitably clean for visual inspection and NDT d) To remove slag from the undercut

22. To assess the surface of a weld for direct inspection, the distance from the surface to eye should be a maximum of?
a) 200mm b) 600mm c) 60mm d) 6000mm

23. What is the recommended minimum range of illumination required by BS EN 970 for inspection of a welded surface?
a) 90 to 125 lux b) 150 to 250 lux c) 350 to 500 lux d) 35 to 50 lux

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24. Who should select the specific welds for NDT, to cover the 10% contractual percentage required by the
specification/Code?
a) Anyone can select the welds as its just a random choice
b) The welder as he knows which welds are likely to produce the least defects
c) This will be referenced in the inspection and test plan
d) Nobody, as welding is always carried out to a high standard the use of percentage NDT is of no real value

Mechanical Testing

25. In a welding procedure transverse joint tensile test the following observations were made. The specimen CSA was
recorded as 25mm x 12mm and the maximum load applied was recorded as 150kN. What is the UTS?
a) 50kN/mm2 b) 5500N/mm2 c) 500N/mm2 d) 50N/mm2
26. In a transverse weld tensile test, if the break was in the weld metal, the sample would he:
a) Rejected
b) Retested
c) Acceptable if the UTS is equal to or greater than the specified UTS of the plate
d) Acceptable if the UTS is between 80-90% of the specified UTS of the plate
27. In an all weld tensile test, the original specimen gauge length was 50mm, and after the test the increased gauge
length was 60mm, what is the elongation percentage?
a) % A is 50 b) % A is 20 c) % A is 29 d) % A is 36
28. Some codes require the excess weld metal (weld cap) on cross weld joint `tensile specimens to be flush, this is
because:
a) Flushed caps will always break in the weld metal area
b) This is to remove any porosity in the excess weld metal (weld cap)
c) It is easier to calculate the cross sectional area of the joint when flushed
d) Flushed caps have fewer stress raisers and therefore give a more accurate result
29. In welder qualification testing of 20mm plates, why are side bends used instead of root and face bends?
a) They are easier to produce b) The testing equipment cannot handle thick root/face bends
c) Root defects are not important for welder qualification d) They give more accurate indications
30. Mechanical tests are divided in to two areas, identify these from the list below:
a) Destructive and non destructive tests b) Qualitative and quantitative
c) Visual and mechanical d) Qualitative and visual
31. When examining a completed bend test, the angle of the bend was found to be 175°. The testing specification calls
for the sample to have been formed through 180°?
a) The bends should be considered as failed
b) They should be bent to 180° then re-examined
c) They should be acceptable as the reduction in angle is due to material spring back
d) They should be rejected as the angle is not close enough to be acceptable
32. Charpy testing is carried out on a welding procedure test plate because?
a) It gives an indication of the through thickness ductility (in the Z direction).
b) The impact test results can be used to verify that the material has not been adversely affected by the heat of the
welding
c) It give an indication of the materials elongation properties
d) It gives a quick indication of the weld quality for welder qualification tests.
33. Charpy impact tests showing a flat but rough surface after the completed test, this would indicate which type of
failure?
a) Fatigue b) Ductile c) Fatigue to ductile d) Brittle

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Welding Processes

34. A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 50mm thick impact tested steel plate. The welding electrode used was a
basic type, 5mm diameter. The measured welding parameters for one of the runs was 220 amps, 21 volts, using
DC+ve polarity, and a ROL of 270mm per min. What would be the arc energy?

a) Insufficient information given to calculate the arc energy b) 1.54kJ/mm

c) 1.026kJ/mm d) 2.82kJ/mm

35. When using DC+ve polarity, what is the typical OCV?

a) 20V b) 50V c) 90V d) 240V

36. When MMA welding what will be the effect on the weld f the power source was changed from DC+ve to AC?

a) None b) It would have been easier for the welder to strike the arc
c) It would slightly increase the depth of penetration d) It would slightly decrease the depth of penetration

37. What would the effect be if the polarity were changed from DC+ve to DC-ve?

a) None b) Greater deposition rate c) Greater penetration d) Less deposition rate

38. Would you consider using a 5mm electrode for vertical up root runs is a 6G (HL045) fixed position pipe?

a) Yes, it is compatible
b) Yes but this would depend upon the welder skill
c) No, it is not the most suitable electrode coating type
d) No, the electrode should have been smaller in diamater

39. Which of the following uses a flat characteristic?

a) MAG (GMAW) b) MMA (SMAW) c) TIG (GTAW) d) SAW using greater than 1000 amps

40. When welding medium carbon steel plates over 90mm in thickness would the basic electrodes require any pre-
treatment before use?

a) None if they were in a vacuum pack b) None if they were used in a factory
c) Heat to 500 C for 2 hours if used outside d) Baked at 150°C for four hours prior to use

41. Which of the following defects are not associated with the MMA (SMAW) welding process?

a) Isolated pores b) Lack of Fusion c) Undercut d) Tungsten inclusions

42. Slag lines found in MMA welds are usually associated with:

a) The voltage being too low b) The open circuit current being too high
c) Improper cleaning between weld runs d) Low open circuit voltage

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NDT

43. With which of the following NDE processes is it possible to detect both surface and slight subsurface defects up to
2mm below the surface

a) Visual b) Dye Penetrant c) Magnetic Particle using DC d) Magnetic particle using AC

44. For MPI using the prods method which of the following statements is true:
a) It may cause arc damage on the specimen material surface
b) It requires fewer operators therefore is easier
c) It can be used with ferritic and non-ferritic materials
d) It is quicker than using a yoke type electromegnet

45. With the DPI method of inspection, after the contact time has elapsed the dye should be removed by:
a) Spraying the surface with the remover till all dye has gone then wipe with clean cloth
b) Spraying with the developer then wiping with a cloth
c) Wipe clean, using a clean cloth soaked in a solvent remover
d) it doesn’t matter how it is done as long as all traces of dye are removed

46. Which of the following commonly used radioactive isotopes has the longest half life?

a) Iridium 192 b) Cobalt 60 c) Thulium 170 d) Ytterbium 169

47. A 300mm diameter pipe, 5mm wall thickness is to be radiographed using the double wall single image technique.
The source to be used is Iridium. Which of the following statements is true?

a) It should not be done because the thickness is below that recommended

b) It should be better to use a cobalt 60 source in this instance
c) There is no problem with the technique
d) Only the double wall, double image technique should be used with Iridium

48. Half life is a term used to describe

a) The penetrating ability a gamma source

b) Half the total time a gamma source will be useful
c) The time taken for the gamma source to reduce the strength by half
d) The rate of decay of an X-ray tube

49. What is the greatest disadvantage of radiographic inspection?

a) the inability to size defects accurately b) The physical size of the equipment
c) The skill level of the operators d) The harmful effects of ionizing radiation

50. Which of the following defects are unlikely to be detected by normal radiographic techniques?

a) Intergranular corrosion cracking b) Porosity c) Slag d) Lack of penetration

51. For ultrasonic testing, which of the following statements is true?

a) It is easy to identify all defects b) The equipment shall be calibrated before use
c) The equipment cannot be automated d) Sound waves will not travel through copper

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-----------------

52. ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------------------------

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -------------------
------------------------------------------- (Temperature associated with Hydrogen Cracking)
a) 500°C b) 300°C c) 300°F d) 730°C

53. Inspection for hydrogen cracking is often specified to be done between 48 to 72hrs after completion of the weld, this
is because?
a) The stress level will have reduced by then
b) It is the maximum time it takes for all the H2 to diffuse out of the weld
c) Usually after 48hrs such cracking is unlikely to occur
d) It is to ensure the weld has properly cooled down to ambient temperature

54. At what level is H2 considered to be more critical in cracking?

a) Less than 5ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
b) Between 5 and 10ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
c) Between 10 and 15ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
d) Over 15ml per 100g of weld metal deposited

55. Which of the following electrode types would produce the highest levels of hydrogen?
a) Basic electrode when baked correctly
b) Cellulosic in a sealed tin
c) Rutile
d) Heavy rutile

56. Assuming the same materials and welding procedure were used which of the following situations would require the
highest preheat?
a) Butt weld in 30mm plate
b) tee joint butt welded in 20mm plate
c) Tee joint fillet welded in 20mm plate
d) Cruciform joint in 20mm plate

57. In general which of the following would require the highest preheat if all other factors were the same as per ISO BS
EN 1011?
a) MMA weld with cellulosic electrode b) MMA weld with rutile electrode
c) MMA weld with basic electrode d) MAG weld with solid wire

58. Which of the following microstructure is critical to the likely formation of hydrogen cracks?
a) Austenite b) Ferrite c) Pearlite d) Martensite

59. Basic electrodes are often sold vacuum packed. The reason is:
a) They have been packed at the manufacturers at a hydrogen level less than 5ml per 100g of weld metal deposited.
b) They are mass produced which makes these electrodes cheap
c) They require baking time after removal from the packet
d) They are formulated that once open they will pick up no more moisture

60. On inspecting a completed weld which has Charpy impact requirements some small area of undercut have been
found. The welder says he can quickly put this right by depositing a thin marrow bead along the undercut. In this
situation would you?
a) Agree to go ahead with no preheat as the weld is so small
b) Agree to go ahead with the same preheat as the original weld
c) Agree to go ahead with a preheat 50°C above original
d) Only allow the welder to cosmetically blend out the undercut

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