WELDING INSPECTION LEVEL 2: Paper 4 - Technology

1) Reference to any inspection hold point during manufacture will be contained within the:
a) Quality manual
b) QA procedures
c) Quality plan
d) Standards
2) Which of the following elements has greatest influence on the carbon equivalent value of a
carbon-manganese steel?
a) Manganese
b) Sulphur
c) Nickel
d) Carbon
3) Which of the following will help to reduce distortion?
a) Using the maximum number of runs
b) Using the minimum number of runs
c) Welding by a manual method
d) Using very high heat inputs
4) For HICC to occur, it can be said that higher the carbon content of the parent metal:
a) The lower the diffusible hydrogen required for this to occur
b) The higher the diffusible hydrogen required for this to occur
c) The amount of diffusible hydrogen has no bearing on HICC
d) The preheat would have to be increased for HICC to occur
5) Weld decay is caused by the formation of a compound with carbon. The other element in this
compound is:
a) Manganese
b) Sulphur
c) Chromium
d) Nickel
6) In fillet weld fracture test, the specimen is broken with:
a) The fillet weld in tension
b) The fillet weld in compression
c) No specific method needs to be adopted
d) Suitable machining

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7) To assess the surface of a weld for direct inspection, the distance from the surface to the eye
should be maximum of?
a) 200 mm
b) 600 mm
c) 60 mm
d) 6000 mm
8) Before and during welding in the cleaning stage which statements from below would you
consider to be correct?
a) Only stainless steel brushes and tools shall be used on stainless steels
b) Only stainless steel brushes and tools shall be used on nickel and non-ferrous materials
c) Grinding disc containing sulphur (iron sulphite) shall not be used on stainless steels
d) All of the answer options given
9) Arc blow can be reduced or eliminated by:
a. Relocating the earth connection
b) Welding towards a heavy tack
c) Charging to AC
d) All the options given are correct
10) The similarities between BS EN 22553 and WAS A2.4 in depicting welding symbols are:
a) Both have the same rule for depicting ‘weld all round’
b) Both have the same rule for depicting the ‘other side’
c) Both have the same rule for depicting ‘sequence of operations’
d) Both have the same method for depicting ‘ welding processes’
11) Magnetic particle testing is applicable only to ferromagnetic materials which are at a
temperature below the:
a) Curie point (about 950°C)
b) Curie point (about 650°C)
c) Curie point (about 150°C)
a) Curie point (about 450°C)
12) In the GTAW process, the use of pulsed current helps in achieving which of the following?
a) Electron cleaning effect and penetration
b) Controlling heat input and penetration
c) Controlling lack of sidewall fusion and heat input
d) Controlling spatter and penetration

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13) A standard radiographic film test cannot adequately detect:
a) Porosity in the weld volume
b) Slag inclusions in the weld
c) Laminations in the rolled plate adjacent to the weld
d) Lack of root penetration in a weld
14) The surface finish of the Charpy V Notch impact specimen is:
a) Rough
b) Smooth and surface ground
c) Turned in a lathe
d) Surface finish is not important
15) Which of the following inspection points is most critical to arc conditions for the spray transfer
MAG welding (135) process?
a) All electrical connections and contacts
b) Gas flow rate
c) Inductance settings
d) Electrode coating type
16) When welding medium carbon steel plates over 100mm in thickness would basic electrodes
require any pre-treatment before use?
a) None if they were in vacuum pack opened 8 hours prior to use
b) None if they were in a sealed vacuum pack immediately prior to use
c) Heat to 500°C for 2 hours if used outside
d) Baked at 150°C for 4 hours prior to use
17) Prior to commencing production welding using the MAG (GMAW) process you notice the
earth clamp is a very poor condition, what would you do?
a) Nothing
b) Insist the welder have it replaced before commencing welding
c) It will not affect the welding so wait until it eventually melts off then have it replaced
d) It will be OK for welding but ensure that nobody touches it because they may get burnt
18) According to EN 22553, if the symbol is on the identification line, where does the weld go?
a) On both side
b) On the arrow side
c) Opposite arrow side
d) It does not matter

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19) For a bend test which of the following is NOT true:
a) A 4t bend is more severe than a 2t bend
b) The outer surface of the bend specimen is examined
c) It reveals defects like lack of fusion and porosity
d) It gives an indication of the ductility of the welded joint and weld metal
20) Usually liquid penetrant is applicable at a temperature range of approximately
a) 0°C ~ 100°C
b) -5°C ~ 90°C
c) -20°C ~ 60°C
d) 5°C ~ 60°C
21) Austenitic stainless steels are not susceptible to HICC because:

a) They are non-magnetic

b) They are stainless and contain chromium
c) They don’t harden during heating and cooling
d) They are highly ductile
22) The soak temperature for PWHT specified by code will depend on the type of steel. Low alloy
steels (such as Cr-Mo steels used for elevated temperature service) require temperature
typically in the range of:
a) ~700 to 950°C
b) ~900 to ~1100°C
c) ~600 to ~650°C
d) ~700 to ~760°C
23) Pure argon is used with the MIG process to weld which material?
a) Stainless steel
b) Steels
c) All materials
d) Aluminium
24) Why would visual inspection of excess weld metal at the bottom of a cross country pipeline be
important?
a) It is the most difficult are to weld
b) It is the dirtiest part of the pipe as it is near to the ground
c) Welders always forget to weld the bottom
d) It is the most difficult area to radiograph

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25) Root and Face bends from an 8mm thick butt weld require testing. The specimens are cut to
20mm wide. The Code calls for a 4t bend. Which one of the following rollers should be selected
for the testing?
a) 80mm radius
b) 80mm diameter
c) 32mm radius
d) 32mm diameter
26) A post weld heat-treatment may also be of benefit in minimise the risk of weld decay, this heat
treatment would be called:
a) Stress relief
b) Normalising
c) Quench and Tempering
d) Solution treatment over 1000°C
27) Which of the following defects are the most difficult to size correctly when ultrasonically
testing a weld?
a) Isolated pore > 3mm diameter
b) Clustered porosity
c) Slag
d) Lack of root penetration
28) Solidification cracking takes place in carbon steels,
a) After post weld heat treatment
b) In the base metal
c) Immediately after welding
d) After a few hours.
29) Which of the following processes is most prone to solidification cracks?
a) MMA with basic coated electrodes
b) MMA with rutile coated electrode
c) TIG
d) SAW
30) What are the three metal transfer modes when using MIG/MAG (GMAW)?
a) Dip, drop and drag
b) Trailing, vertical and leading
c) Pulse, dip and flood
d) Dip, spray and pulse

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31) The stresses that remain after welding are called?
a) Post stresses
b) Relieving stresses
c) After welding stresses
d) Residual stresses
32) During root welding, which of the following would be the main cause of burn-through?
a) The current is too high
b) The root gap is too small in accordance with WPS
c) Preheat not used
d) Root face is too large
33) Cathodic cleaning is used to remove?
a) Sign waves
b) Oxides
c) Surface inclusions
d) Low melting point compounds
34) The deposition rate of the FCAW process is widely accepted as being:
a) Higher than GMAW process
b) Lower than GMAW process
c) The same as GMAW process
d) Higher or lower depending on the welding position
35) Lamellar tears in steel weldments may only be formed when:
a) Using deep penetration welding processes (high current density)
b) High levels of stresses act in the short transverse direction in the steel
c) Martensite has formed in the weld HAZ
d) Low melting point Iron sulphide (FeS) has formed in the fusion zone
36) One of the advantages of ultrasonic inspection in relation to radiographic testing, is:
a) Access is only required from one side of the component being tested
b) The designated work are must be closed off by barriers, therefore safety is increased
c) Thin materials can be easily examined
d) A permanent image of the defect can be obtained

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37) In MIG/MAG welding what would be affected if the Contact Tip Workpiece Distance (CTWD)
was extended?
a) Amperage
b) Voltage
c) Inductance
d) Travel speed
38) Which standard is used for the basic requirements for visual inspection?
a) BS EN ISO 17637
b) API 1104
c) BS EN 7079
d) BS EN 4515
39) When PWHT is conducted after welding, which of the following aspects require monitoring?
a) Heating rate only
b) Soaking time and temperature only
c) Cooling rate only
d) Heating rate, cooling rate, soaking time and temperature
40) Which of these statements are true concerning Lamellar tearing?
a) As hydrogen levels increase Lamellar Tearing is more likely.
b) As material thickness increases ductility decreases making Lamellar Tearing more likely
c) Lamellar tearing occurs below the HAZ
d) Lamellar tearing affects all joint types.
41) Charpy impact tests show a 50% rough torn surface and a 50% flat crystalline surface after
the completed test. This would indicate which type of failure?
a) Fatigue to brittle
b) Ductile to brittle
c) Ductile with gross yielding
d) Fatigue to ductile
42) How do we determine what the correct weld preparation (root gap, root face, included angle)
should be?
a) By consulting the WPS’s
b) The fabrication drawing will give all the information
c) The welder will decide
d) The inspector will recommend what is suitable

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43) A number of changes and deviations have happened during the fabrication of a component,
how will they be indicated to every one for future reference?
a) By verbal communication
b) By written communication
c) By incorporating them in ‘as-built’ drawings
d) No need to mention these changes to every one as they are insignificant
44) What is the maximum OCV allowable to initiate an arc when using AC current?
a) 1000V
b) 10V
c) 90V
d) 900V
45) A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 50mm thick impact tested steel plate. The welding
electrode used was a basic type, 5mm diameter. The measured welding parameters for one of
the runs was 220 amps, 21 volts, using DC +ve polarity, and ROL of 270mm per min. What
would be the arc energy?
a) Insufficient information given to calculate the arc energy
b) 1.54kJ/mm
c) 1.026kJ/mm

d) 2.82kJ/mm
46) Which of the following is a direct consequence of residual stresses introduced during
welding?
a) Porosity
b) Distortion
c) Corrosion
d) Work hardening
47) Which of the following radioactive isotope has the longest half life?
a) Iridium 192
b) Cobalt 60
c) Thulium 170
d) Ytterbium 169
48) Lack of penetration in a double sided weld may occur due to:
a) Too high a welding current
b) A thin root face
c) Insufficient back gouging
d) Use of a double-V weld preparation
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49) In SAW at higher currents or in the case of multiple electrode systems, AC is often preferred
to:
a) Avoid the problem of lack of fusion
b) Avoid the problem of excess penetration
c) Avoid the problem of arc blow
d) Avoid the problem of dilution
50) A tensile test was 120mm long before testing and after testing the length was 135mm long.
What is the percentage elongation?
a) 20%
b) 15%
c) 11%
d) 12.5%
51) Which of the following may cause distortion?
a) Heating
b) Contraction
c) Stresses
d) Heating, contraction and stresses
52) Which of the following defects is usually associated with the MAG (GMAW) welding process
when using Dip Transfer?
a) Centreline cracking
b) Lack of sidewall fusion
c) Undercut
d) Tungsten inclusion
53) Weld decay will cause which of the following problems:
a) A reduced resistance to corrosion
b) A lower tensile strength
c) The toughness is reduced
d) The hardness will increase
54) A transverse tensile test was carried out on a welding procedure. The cross sectional area of
the specimen was 30mm wide and 15mm thick. The maximum load applied was 170kN. What
is the ultimate tensile strength value?
a) 377 N/mm²
b) 450 N/mm²
c) 300 N/mm²
d) 600 N/mm²
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55) Is it always necessary to preheat the base material before welding?
a) Not on a sunny day
b) Only in accordance with the WPS
c) If the equipment is available is must be used
d) If using cellulosic rods these will provide enough heat
56) At what level is the hardness value a problem when trying to minimise the risk of H2 cracking
a) 270 to 290HV
b) 300 to 350HV
c) 100 to 150HV
d) 160 to 200HV

57) The standard elongation punch mark spacing for an all-weld metal tensile test is usually what
distance apart?
a) 50 mm
b) 10 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 300 mmm
58) When would you measured the interpass temperature?
a) Immediately prior to depositing the next run
b) Immediately prior to commencing the first pass
c) When the welding is complete
d) Only required if the heat input is lower than that specified in WPS
59) According to AWS 2.4, a weld symbol “below the reference line” refers to:
a) A weld on “the other side”
b) A weld at “the root of the joint”
c) A weld on “the arrow side”
d) None of the answers given – it should be on the dashed line
60) In SAW normally DCEP is used. When is DCEN preferred?
a) For positional welding
b) For welding thicker plates
c) For fully automated welding
For surfacing applications

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