Insight RevisionTest 2016

RevisionTest01
N o t e b o o k : InsightsOnIndia Tests
2 points
1. Question
Which of the following conservation methods is/are considered as ex situ conservation method?
1. Gene banks, e.g. seed banks, sperm and ova banks, field banks
2. In vitro plant tissue and microbial culture collections
3. Captive breeding of animals and artificial propagation of plants, with possible
reintroduction into the wild
4. Collecting living organisms for zoos, aquaria, and botanic gardens for research and
public awareness
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 2 and 3 Only
b) 3 and 4 Only
c) 1, 3 and 4 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
http://www.jamaicachm.org.jm/BHS/conservation.htm
(Ex situ conservation method is mentioned under primary objectives of Botanical Survey of
India)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ex_situ_conservation
Also read about in situ conservation.
2 points
2. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. Naupada which is famous for salt fields is located in Odisha

2. Narayan Sarovar Sanctuary, which is identified as one of the last remaining habitats of
the cheetah in India, is located in the Rann of Kutch region
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Naupada is mentioned in Page 3. It is located in Andhra as per wikipedia.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Naupada
Try to remember names and unique features of sanctuaries located in Kutch region.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Narayan_Sarovar_Sanctuary
2 points
3. Question
With reference to India’s commitments under Under Intended Nationally Determined

Contribution (INDC), consider the following statements:
1. India has promised that that its greenhouse gas emissions from one unit of GDP in 2030
will be at least one third lesser than what it used to be in 2005
2. India has promised to increase the share of non-fossil based power generation capacity
to 40% of installed electric power capacity by 2030
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
First statement can be restated as : “To reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35
percent by 2030 from 2005 level.”
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=133974
http://climateactiontracker.org/countries/india.html
2 points
4. Question
With reference to Double coconut palm or Sea coconut, consider the following statements:
1. It bears the largest seed known to science

2. It is grown widely in Sri Lanka and in many islands in the Indian Ocean
3. It is listed as endangered species by IUCN
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 2 and 3 Only
Solution: c)
Mentioned in environmental ministry annual report (Page no. 7). There was an article on it in
The Hindu
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indias-only-double-coconut-tree-artificially-
pollinated/article7310257.ece
It is a possible question this year.
2 points
5. Question
To which Indian State does following statements refer?

1. It is one of the few states of the Republic of India that has an Orchid as its State Flower
2. Khangchendzonga National Park is located in this state
Find the correct answer from below options:
a) Assam
a) Arunachal Pradesh
c) Sikkim
d) Uttarkhand
Solution: c)
In page 7 of annual report of environmental ministry, red listing of Orchid is mentioned.
First paragraph: http://indiabiodiversity.org/biodiv/content/documents/document-4e59977f-
d08a-4551-becc-d65a676919dc/953.pdf
2 points
6. Question
The National Air Quality Index (AQI) considers eight pollutants. Which of the following is NOT
one of them?
a) PM10
b) O3
c) CO2
d) CO
Solution: c)
National Air Quality Index was launched by the Prime Minister in April, 2015 starting with 14
cities to disseminate air quality information. The AQI has six categories of air quality, viz Good,
Satisfactory, Moderately Polluted, Poor, Very Poor and Severe with distinct colour scheme.
Each of these categories is associated with likely health impacts. AQI considers eight pollutants
(PM10, PM 2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3 and Pb) for which (up to 24-hourly averaging period)
National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed.
2 points
7. Question
To which wildlife sanctuary does the following descriptions refer?
1. The flagship species of the sanctuary is the near threatened blackbuck antelope, the
sole member of the antelope family in India
2. It is home to both sand dunes and tropical dry evergreen forests
3. This site has recorded the second largest congregation of migratory waterbirds in India
Find the correct answer from below options:
a) Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary

b) Kumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary
c) Sariska National Park
d) Mount Abu Sanctuary
Solution: a)
Point Calimere is mentioned in environment ministry annual report in page 9. If you find name
of any sanctuary or national park in this report – jot down 3-4 interesting points about them
(this report has names of these parks because they were in news)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Point_Calimere_Wildlife_and_Bird_Sanctuary#Geography
2 points
8. Question
Which of the following are freshwater ecosystems?
1. Bhitarkanika Mangroves
2. Bhoj wetland
3. Ropar wetland
4. Sambhar Lake
a) 1,2 and 3 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 2,3 and 4 Only
d) 3 Only
Solution: b)
Both Bhoj and Ropa are mentioned in environment ministry annual report in page 10.
2 points
9. Question
Government of India is implementing Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) project with
the World Bank assistance. With reference to ICZM, consider the following statements:
1. ICZM concept was born in 1992 during the Earth Summit of Rio de Janeiro
2. The main goal of ICZM is to achieve sustainability
a) 1 Only
a) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
It is broadly covered in the ministry report. Please understand the concept ICZM from wikipedia
(https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Integrated_coastal_zone_management)
2 points
10. Question
The Society of Integrated Coastal Management (SICOM) is a/an
a) NGO assisted by World Bank involved in conducting research activities to understand

coastal management dynamics
b) A nodal body under the Ministry of Water Resources implementing integrated coastal
zone management programs
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
Solution: d)
http://www.sicommoef.in/about-us.aspx
2 points
11. Question
The Global Environment Facility is a/an
a) A fund within the World Bank to assist projects related to sustainable development
b) An independent institution that assist in the protection of the global environment and
to promote environmental sustainable development
c) NGO that has partnered with the United Nations Environment Program to promote
sustainable development
d) None of the above
Solution: b)
The Environment Ministry organised a Global Environment Facility (GEF) National Workshop in
association with GEF Secretariat, Washington on May 12-13, 2015.
https://www.thegef.org/gef/whatisgef
2 points
12. Question
With reference to forest fires in India, consider the following statements:
1. The highest number of forest fires are reported in the state of Mizoram
2. MODIS (or Moderate Resolution Imaging Spectroradiometer) sensor of NASA is used to
monitor forest fires in real time in India
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Page 21, annual report (MoEF)
2 points
13. Question
Teak, peepal, neem and shisham trees are mostly found in
a) Tropical evergreen forests

b) Tropical semi-evergreen forests
a) Tropical deciduous forests
Solution: c)
NCERT class VIII, Chapter – 8
http://epathshala.nic.in/wp-content/doc/book/flipbook/Class%20VI/0656-
The%20Earth%20Our%20Habitat%20-%20Geography/ch%208/docs/ch%208.pdf
2 points
14. Question
Mangroves grow in high salt conditions due to
a) Presence of special salt-excreting glands on leaves

b) The exclusion of salt from entering roots with water uptake
c) Ridding salt with old leaves, bark and wood
d) All of the above
Solution: d)
Mangrove forests is mentioned in NCERT Class VIII Our Habitat book in Chapter 8. We should
know why they survive in salty conditions.
http://www.mangrovewatch.org.au/index.php?
option=com_content&view=category&layout=blog&id=59&Itemid=300148
2 points
15. Question
1. Its most outstanding feature is the silver-white mane, which surrounds the head from
the cheeks down to its chin.
2. It is endemic to the Western Ghats of South India
To which animal does above statements refer?
a) Malabar large-spotted civet

b) Lion-tailed macaque
c) Nilgiri langur
Solution: b)
NCERT Class VI Science Chapter – 7
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lion-tailed_macaque
2 points
16. Question
Kadamba tree is a
a) Evergreen, tropical tree native to South and Southeast Asia

a) Tropical dry deciduous tree native to Sri Lanka
c) Mountain tree commonly found in the foothills of Shiwalik
Solution: a)
On the occasion of World Environment Day on June 5, the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi,
planted a ‘Kadamba’ sapling at 7, Race Course Road.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Neolamarckia_cadamba
2 points
17. Question
”.. is a 2010 supplementary agreement to the 1992 Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). Its
aim is the implementation of one of the three objectives of the CBD: the fair and equitable
sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources, thereby contributing to the
conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity.” This refers to
a) Montreal protocol
b) Nagoya protocol
c) Chicago convention
d) Bermuda principles
Solution: b)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nagoya_Protocol
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bermuda_Principles
Mentioned in MoEF annual report, page no. 30
2 points
18. Question
Article 8 (j) of the Convention on Biological Diversity is related to
a) Traditional Knowledge, Innovations and Practices

b) Access to Genetic Resources
c) Sustainable Use of Components of Biological Diversity
Solution: a)
https://www.cbd.int/traditional/
Mentioned in MoEF annual report Page – 31
2 points
19. Question
With reference to India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002), consider the following statements:
1. National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) established under this Act is a Statutory,

Autonomous Body and it performs advisory function for both Union and State
governments
2. Prime Minister is the chairman of the Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs)
established under this Act
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Page 30, Annual report, MoEF
The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 to implement India’s
Biological Diversity Act (2002). The NBA is a Statutory, Autonomous Body and it performs
facilitative, regulatory and advisory function for the Government of India on issues of
conservation, sustainable use of biological resources and fair and equitable sharing of benefits
arising out of the use of biological resources.
The Biological Diversity Act (2002) mandates implementation of the Act through decentralized
system with the NBA focusing on advising the Central Government on matters relating to the
conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components and equitable sharing of benefits
arising out of the utilization of biological resources; and advising the State Governments in the
selection of areas of biodiversity importance to be notified under Sub-Section (1) of Section 37
as heritage sites and measures for the management of such heritage sites;
The State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) focus on advising the State Governments, subject to any
guidelines issued by the Central Government, on matters relating to the conservation of
biodiversity, sustainable use of its components and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out
of the utilization of biological resources;
The SSBs also regulate, by granting of approvals or otherwise requests for commercial
utilization or bio-survey and bio-utilization of any biological resource by Indians. The local level
Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) are responsible for promoting conservation,
sustainable use and documentation of biological diversity including preservation of habitats,
conservation of land races, folk varieties and cultivars, domesticated stocks and breeds of
animals and microorganisms and chronicling of knowledge relating to biological diversity.
The NBA with its headquarters in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, delivers its mandate through a
structure that comprises of the Authority, Secretariat, SBBs, BMCs and Expert Committees.
Since its establishment, NBA has supported creation of SBBs in 29 States and, facilitated
establishment of around 37,769 BMCs
20. Question
The main objective/objectives of USAID’s new Forest-PLUS program in India is 2 points
a) To accelerate India’s transition to a low-carbon economy

b) To help to improve tools and capacity for land-use planning that reduces
deforestation while also ensuring the rights and engagement of local and indigenous
communities
c) To develop systems for forest carbon measurement and monitoring
d) All the above
Solution: d)
http://climatechange-asiapac.com/projects/india-forest-plus-program
MoEF annual report page no. 64
2 points
21. Question
A contract on construction job specifies a penalty for delay in completion of the work beyond a
certain date is as follows: Rs. 200 for the first day, Rs. 250 for the second day, Rs. 300 for the
third day etc., the penalty for each succeeding day being 50 more than that of the preceding
day. How much penalty should the contractor pay if he delays the work by 10 days ?
a) (a) Rs. 4950

(b) Rs. 4250
(c) Rs. 3600
(d) Rs. 650
Solution:b
2 points
22. Question
There are four routes to travel from city A to city B and six routes from city B to city C. How
many routes are possible to travel from the city A to city C?
(a) 24
b) 12
c) 10
d) 8
Solution: a)
2 points
23. Question
A person has only Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins with her. If the total number of coins that she has is 50
and the amount of money with her is Rs. 75, then the number of Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins are,
respectively
(a) 15 and 35
(b) 35 and 15
(c) 30 and 20
(d) 25 and 25
Solution: d)
2 points
24. Question
Three persons start walking together and their steps measure 40 cm, 42 cm and 45 cm
respectively. What is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover the same
distance in complete steps ?
(a) 25 m 20 cm
(b) 50 m 40 cm
(c) 75 m 60 cm
(d) 100 m 80 cm
Solution: a)
2 points
25. Question
If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a train travels 320 km in 5 hours at uniform speeds, then
what is the ratio of the distances travelled by them in one hour?
(a) 8 : 5
(b) 5 : 8
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 1 : 2
Solution: b)
Evernote Export
1. Question
1. Question
1. Under the Wildlife (protection) Act 1972, Nilgai and Wild Pig have been declared as vermins
2. If an animal is declared as vermin state authorities can carry out an extermination of such animals on a
large scale without attracting penal provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
MoEF report page 74.

http://www.livemint.com/Politics/TSea6J0X9dNMS2eibTMW9M/Wild-pigs-declared-vermin-in-Uttarakhand-for-a-
year.html
2. Question
The binturong, also known as bearcat, is a small mammal native to South and Southeast Asia and has been
assessed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. In which of the following National Parks, you are likely to find them?
a) Anamudi Shola National Park

b) Jim Corbett National Park
c) Manas National Park
d) Silent Valley National Park
Solution: c)
Its picture is given in MoEF report page no. 82
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binturong#Distribution_and_habitat
Answer to this question lies in the question itself – Southeast Asia.
3. Question
The Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change has constituted 30 state/UT level environment
assessment authorities under which of the following laws?
a) The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980

b) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
c) The National Environment Appellate Authority Act, 1997
d) The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
Solution: b)
MoEF annual report, page no. 87.
List of environment related Laws:
http://www.environmentallawsofindia.com/the-environment-definitions-and-acts.html
2 points
4. Question
1 of 7 03-Jun-16 11:29 PM
Evernote Export
1. PM 10 poses greater threat to health than PM 2.4 particles

2. According to WHO, PM10 particles can lodge deeply into the lungs, hence pose greater threat to health
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Both statements are INCORRECT.
https://www3.epa.gov/pmdesignations/faq.htm#1
5. Question
With reference to Fly ash, consider the following statements: 2 points
1. It is is one of the coal combustion products

2. Due to stringent rules, in India, thermal power plants have achieved 100% fly ash utilization target
a) 1 Only
a) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
MoEF report page no. 108
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fly_ash
6. Question
The pollution caused by burning fossil fuels can be somewhat reduced by 2 points
1. Increasing the efficiency of the combustion process

2. The use of catalytic converters
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
NCERT Class X Science, Chapter 14 – Page No. 244
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vehicle_emissions_control#Emissions_control
2 points
7. Question
Which of the following conventions deals with the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and
their Disposal?
a) Stockholm Convention
b) Rotterdam Convention
c) Basel Convention
d) Minamata Convention
2 of 7 03-Jun-16 11:29 PM
Solution: c)
MoEF annual report, Page no. 110 – 111 (Very important)
8. Question
Consider the following statements: 2 points
1. It is the shortest classified river draining into the Bay of Bengal

2. It was earlier known as the Triplicane river
3. It is one of the highly polluted river in Tamil Nadu
To which of the following rivers does above description refer?
a) Adyar River
b) Cooum River
c) Amaravati River
d) Bhavani River
Solution: b)
Mentioned in page 114, annual report MoEF
http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/rs-2000crore-scheme-to-clean-cooum/article7666648.ece
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cooum_River
9. Question
1. World Wetlands Day is celebrated on February 2 marking the date of the adoption of the Convention on
Wetlands on 2 February 1971
2. Wetlands occur naturally on every continent including Antarctica
3. A wetland is a land area that is always permanently saturated with water
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: b)
A wetland is a land area that is saturated with water, either permanently or seasonally, such that it takes on the
characteristics of a distinct ecosystem
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wetland#Ramsar_Convention_definition
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/states-to-get-greater-role-in-wetland-management
/article8180052.ece
2 points
10. Question
1. The autotrophs or the producers are at the first trophic level in food chain
2. There are generally a greater number of individuals at the lower trophic levels of an ecosystem
3. Food chains generally consist of only three or four steps, but they can have more than five trophic levels too
a) 1 and 2 Only
3 of 7 03-Jun-16 11:29 PM
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 Only
d) All 3 are correct
Solution: a)
NCERT CLass X Science Chapter 15, Page no. 259
11. Question
Which of the following matches is/are correct? 2 points
1. Rain Forest Research Institute – Jorhat

2. Arid Forest Research Institute – Jodhpur
3. Tropical Forest Research Institute – Jabalpur
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 2 Only
d) 1,2 and 3
Solution: d)
Page 144-145 MoEF annual report
12. Question
Consider the following definitions: 2 point
1. Bioaccumulation is the increasing concentration of a substance, such as a toxic chemical, in the tissues of
organisms at successively higher levels in a food chain
2. Biomagnification occurs within a trophic level, and is the increase in concentration of a substance in certain
tissues of organisms’ bodies due to absorption from food and the environment
3. Bioconcentration is defined as occurring when uptake from the water is greater than excretion
Which of the above definitions is/are INCORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biomagnification
13. Question
Consider the following statements 2 points
1. To save the environment, Reuse strategy is a better option than Recycling

2. Recycling of plastic is more lucrative than recycling of metals or glass
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
a) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Compared with lucrative recycling of metal, and similar to the low value of glass, plastic polymers recycling is often
4 of 7 03-Jun-16 11:29 PM
more challenging because of low density and low value.
14. Question
With reference to natural vegetation in the Himalayas, consider the following statements: 2 points
1. Deciduous forests are found in the foothills of the Himalayas

2. Oak and chestnut trees belong to evergreen broad leaf forests
3. Deodar, an endemic species grows mainly in the eastern part of the Himalayan range
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 3 Only
d) 1 and 2 Only
Solution: d)
Class XI Geography, India – Physical Environment, Page – 60
15. Question
In which of the following Biosphere Reserves, you are likely to find the tropical and subtropical moist 2 points
broadleaf forests, tropical moist forests, the subtropical dry broadleaf forests and tropical dry forests within its
boundaries?
a) Gulf of Mannar
b) Simplipal
c) Nilgiri
d) Pachmarhi
Solution: c)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nilgiri_Biosphere_Reserve
Class XI Geography, India – Physical Environment, Page – 66
16. Question
The Third UN United Nations World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction was held in March 2015 in 2 point
a) Yokohoma
a) Sendai
c) Tokyo
d) Kyoto
Solution: b)
First UN United Nations World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction held at Yokohoma is given prominent space
in Class XI Geography, India – Physical Environment, Page – 79 – 80
As it is a current event and Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030 is an important document,
we might expect a question on it.
17. Question
Which of the following region does NOT fall under Severe Drought Prone Area category in India? 2 points
a) Northern parts of Rajasthan

b) Eastern parts of Maharashtra
c) Interior parts of Andhra Pradesh
d) Northern parts of interior Tamil Nadu
Solution: a)
Refer page no. 90 of Class XI Geography, India – Physical Environment,
5 of 7 03-Jun-16 11:29 PM
18. Question
The effectiveness of any given GHG molecule will depend on which of the following factors? 2 points
1. The magnitude of the increase in its concentration

2. Its life time in the atmosphere
3. The wavelength of radiation that it absorbs
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
NCERT Class XI Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Page no. 108
19. Question
1. Groups of individual organisms having certain similarities in their physical characteristics are called species
2. Genetic biodiversity refers to the variation of genes within species
3. Areas rich in genetic biodiversity are called hotspots of diversity
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) 1,2 and 3
Solution: c)
NCERT Class XI Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Page no. 135 -136
20. Question
With reference to International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN), consider 2 points
the following statements:
1. It is an international NGO
2. Its headquarters is located in Germany
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/International_Union_for_Conservation_of_Nature
21. Question
There are 100 students in a particular class. 60% students play cricket, 30% student play football and 2 points
10% student play both the games. What is the number of students who play neither cricket nor football ?
6 of 7 03-Jun-16 11:29 PM
a) 25
(b) 20
(c) 18
(d) 15
Solution:b
22. Question
A village having a population of 4000 requires 150 liters of water per head per day. It has a tank 2 points
measuring 20 m x 15 m x 6 m. The water of this tank will last for
(a) 2 days
(b) 3 days
(c) 4 days
(d) 5 days
Solution: b)
23. Question
Consider the following argument: 2 points
“In, order to be a teacher one must graduate from college. All poets are poor. Some Mathematicians are poets. No
college graduate is poor.”
Which one of the following is not a valid conclusion regarding the above argument?
(a) Some Mathematicians are not teachers.

(b) Some teachers are not Mathematicians.
(c) Teachers are not poor.
(d) Poets are not teachers.
Solution: b)
24. Question
A student on her first 3 tests receives on an average score of N points. If she exceeds her previous 2 points
average score by 20 points on her fourth test, then what is the average score for the first 4 tests?
(a) N + 20
(b) N + 10
(c) N + 4
(d) N + 5
Solution: d)
2 points
25. Question
In a group of persons, 70% of the persons are male and 30% of the persons are married. If two sevenths of males
are married, what fraction of the females is single ?
(a) 2/7
(b) 1/3
(c) 3/7
(d) 2/3
Solution: d)
7 of 7 03-Jun-16 11:29 PM
RevisionTest0 3
No t e b o o k:
C re at e d : U p d at e d :
A u t h o r:
U RL :
1. Que st ion
T una fishes ar e unique among fishes in their ability to maintain the temper ature of their bodies
above that of the sur rounding w ater. This is because
a) They live mostly in cold water regions

b) They have well-developed network of blood vessels below the skin that acts as a
temperature-regulating device
c) They are the fastest swimming fishes in ocean
Solution: b)
NCERT Class XII, Biology Chapter 13 Page 221). Tuna is mentioned as species that doesn’t live
beyond tropical latitudes (but Britannica says that they live in temperate latitudes too).
http://www.britannica.com/animal/tuna-fish
Moreover, Tuna was in news recently:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Visakhapatnam/multiplication-of-small-fish-acts-as-bait-
for-tuna/article8614129.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/tuna-processing-to-get-a-
fillip/article7215357.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/cm-to-launch-subsidy-scheme-for-tuna-
fishing/article7249537.ece
2. Question
In which of the following regions of earth or its constituents, life is NOT found?
1. In extreme acidic conditions of pH levels of 2 or below

2. Extreme hot springs where temperatures is above 80 °C
3. In ocean sediments where oxygen is absent
Select the correct answer using codes below:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 3 Only
d) Life is found in all given options
Solution: d)
NCERT Class XII, Biology Chapter 13

Examples:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extremophile
http://www.nss.org/adastra/volume14/rothschild.html
2 points
3. Question
A fish, which can live both in saltwater and freshwater, is
a) Anadromous
b) Euryhaline
c) Catadromous
d) All the above
Solution: d)
There are two main types of euryhaline fish: anadromous and catadromous. Anadromous fish
are born in freshwater but spend most of their lives in the sea, only returning to freshwater in
order to spawn. These fish include salmon, smelt, shad, striped bass, and sturgeon, according
to the Alaska Department of Fish and Game. Catadromous fish, on the other hand, generally
live in freshwater bodies of water and only enter saltwater to spawn. North American eels and
European eels fall under this category – See more at: http://www.livescience.com/32167-can-
saltwater-fish-live-in-fresh-water.html#sthash.FrrlkBzl.dpuf
2 points
4. Question
Application of photoperiodism is common in which of the following industries?
1. Poultry
2. Flower growing industry
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
http://www.britannica.com/science/photoperiodism
http://www.hammiverse.com/lectures/39/1.html
2 points
5. Question
1. In very high temperatures, humans sweat to bring down their body temperature
2. Thermoregulation is completely absent in plants
a) 1 Only
a) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
NCERT Class XII, Biology Chapter 13, Page 224
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2866164/
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2634508/
2 points
6. Question
Which of the following statements convincingly explains why very small animals like shrews and
humming birds are rarely found in polar regions.
a) Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for small animals due to their large

surface area
b) Unavailability of enough food in colder regions
c) Polar regions have long duration of days and nights
Solution: a)
2 points
7. Question
1. This National Park was known as Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary and is located in Bharatpur
2. It is a is a man-made and man-managed wetland
3. The sanctuary is one of the richest bird areas in the world and is known for nesting of
resident birds and visiting migratory birds including water birds
This National Park is:
a) Sambhar Lake
b) Keoladeo National Park
c) Sariska National Park
d) Ranthambhore National Park
Solution: b)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Keoladeo_National_Park
8. Question
Many desert plants have a thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces and have their stomata 2 points
arranged in deep pits to
a) Absorb moisture from atmosphere
b) Minimize water loss through transpiration
c) Increase absorption of nutrients from air
Solution: b)
2 points
9. Question
Altitude sickness is caused because in the low atmospheric pressure of high altitudes, the body
does not get enough oxygen, however gradually body acclimatizes. By which of the following
means?
1. By increasing white blood cell production

2. By increasing the binding capacity of hemoglobin
3. By increasing breathing rate
a) 2 and 3 Only
b) 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 2 Only
Solution: b)
2 points
10. Question
Which of the following contribute decrease in population density in a given habitat?
1. Natality
2. Immigration
3. Emigration
4. Mortality
Select the correct answer using the codes below
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 3 and 4 Only
c) 1,3 and 4 Only
d) 4 Only
Solution: b)
2 points
11. Question
In which form of interaction, one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor
benefited?
a) Commensalism
b) Competition
c) Mutualism
d) Parasitism
Solution: a)
In competition, one species can get harmed thanks to depletion of resources due to
competition.
NCERT Class XII, Biology Chapter 13, Page 236-237
2 points
12. Question
1. The productivity of the oceans is more than the productivity of lands

2. Abiotic factors like solar radiation and nutrients, and biotic factors like zooplankton
predation contribute towards high ocean productivity
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Light is actually a limiting factor in oceans that affects its productivity compared to land
2 points
13. Question
1. Humus is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at an

extremely slow rate
2. Due to colloidal nature it acts as moisture and nutrient reservoir
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
a) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
2 points
14. Question
1. In an aquatic ecosystem, Detritus Food Chain is the major conduit for energy flow
2. Detritus Food Chain is mainly made up of decomposers
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
In an aquatic ecosystem, Grazing Food Chain is the major conduit for energy flow
2 points
15. Question
A Hummingbird is primarily a
a) Primary consumer
b) Secondary consumer
c) Tertiary consumer
d) All of the above
Solution: a)
Hummingbirds primarily eat flower nectar, tree sap, insects and pollen. Question is asking
‘Primarily’ – hence, even if they eat insects, they are considered as primary consumers
2 points
16. Question
1. The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted

2. Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted
a) 1 Only
a) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
2 points
17. Question
The Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History (SACON) is located in
a) Mumbai
b) Pune
c) Coimbatore
d) Chennai
Solution: c)
Page 161, MoEF annual report
2 points
18. Question
In the successive seral stages of an ecology
1. There is a change in the diversity of species of organisms

2. Decrease in the number of species and organisms
3. Decrease in the total biomass
Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) 1,2 and 3
Solution: a)
2 points
19. Question
Which of the following reasons explain why tropical regions are rich in biological diversity?
1. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years

2. Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more
constant and predictable
3. There is more solar energy available in the tropics
a) 2 and 3 Only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 1,2 and 3
Solution: d)
2 points
20. Question
Which of the following species are Extinct?
1. Dodo (Mauritius)
2. Quagga (Africa)
3. Steller’s Sea Cow (Russia)
4. Sumatran Tiger
5. Caspian Tiger
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
a) 1,2,3 and 4 Only

b) 1,2,3 and 5 Only
c) 1,2 and 3 Only
d) All are extinct
Solution: b)
Sumatran Tiger is near extinct
http://content.time.com/time/photogallery/0,29307,1888702_1863813,00.html
http://impressivemagazine.com/2013/08/08/5-amazing-extinct-animals/
2 points
21. Question
The houses of A and B face each other on a road going north-south, A’s being on the western
side. A comes out of his house, turns left, travels 5 km, turns right, travels 5 km to the front of
D’s house. B does exactly the same and reaches the front of C’s house. In this context, which
one of the following statements is correct?
(a) C and D live on the same street.

(b) C's house faces south.
(c) The houses of C and D are less than 20 km apart.
(d) None of the above
Solution: c)
2 points
22. Question
In a queue, Mr. X is fourteenth from the front and Mr. Y is seventeenth from the
end, while Mr. Z is exactly in between Mr. X and Mr. Y. If Mr. X is ahead Mr. Y
and there are 48 persons in the queue, how many persons are then between Mr. X
and Mr. Z ?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Solution: c)
2 points
23. Question
Two glasses of equal volume are respectively half and three-fourths filled with milk. They are
then filled to the brim by adding water. Their contents are then poured into another vessel.
What will be the ratio of milk to water in this vessel?
a) 1:3
b) 2:3
c) 3:2
d) 5:3
Solution: d)
2 points
24. Question
1. All machines consume energy
2. Electricity provides energy
3. Electrically operated machines are cheap to maintain
4. Electrically operated machines do not cause pollution.
Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?
a) All machines are run by electric energy.
b) There is no form of energy other than electricity
c) Most machines are operated on electric energy.
d) Electrically operated machines are preferable to use.
Solution: d)
2 points
25. Question
Examine the following statements:
1. None but the rich ran afford air-travel.
2. Some of those who travel by air become sick
3. Some of those who become sick require treatment
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
a) All the rich persons travel by air.
b) Those who travel by air become sick
c) All the rich persons become sick.
d) All those who travel by air are rich
Solution: d)
RevisionTest04
2 points
1. Question
Which of the following can be broadly included under climate, but not under weather?
1. Variation in El Nino effect

2. Abnormal summer
3. Thunderstorms
4. Heat waves
5. Floods
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1,2 and 3 Only
c) 1,2,3 and 4 Only
d) 1,2,3,4 and 5
Solution: a)
1 and 2 are not local events of small duration, hence can not be included under weather
definition.
http://climate.nasa.gov/faq/
http://www.nasa.gov/mission_pages/noaa-n/climate/climate_weather.html
2 points
2. Question
1. There has been an upward trend in the amount of the sun’s energy reaching Earth and
is one of the reasons why Earth’s temperature is increasing
2. Global warming causes heating up of stratosphere as well
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Both are incorrect. Sun is not at all the cause of global warming either directly or indirectly.
Global warming has resulted increase in surface temperature, not that of stratosphere.
2 points
3. Question
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) cause ozone depletion because
a) The carbon present in them breaks ozone molecule

b) CFCs intensify ultraviolet retention in ozone layer
c) CFCs as a whole act as a whole converts ozone into oxygen
Solution: d)
How do CFCs Destroy the Ozone Layer?

Emissions of CFCs to date have accounted for roughly 80% of total stratospheric depletion.
Whilst chlorine is a natural threat to ozone, CFCs which contain chlorine are a man-made
problem. Although CFC molecules are several times heavier than air, winds mix the
atmosphere to altitudes far above the top of the stratosphere much faster than molecules can
settle according to their weight. CFCs are insoluble in water and relatively unreactive in the
lower atmosphere but are quickly mixed and reach the stratosphere regardless of their weight.
When UV radiation hits a CFC molecule it causes one chlorine atom to break away. The
chlorine atom then hits an ozone molecule consisting of three oxygen atoms and takes one of
the oxygen molecules, destroying the ozone molecule and turning it into oxygen. When an
oxygen molecule hits the molecule of chlorine monoxide, the two oxygen atoms join and form
an oxygen molecule. When this happens, the chlorine atom is free and can continue to destroy
ozone. Naturally occurring chlorine has the same effect in the ozone layer, but has a shorter
life span.
http://www.ozone-hole.org.uk/05.php
2 points
4. Question
With reference to Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities

(CBDR–RC), consider the following statements:
1. This principle recognizes the different capabilities and differing responsibilities of

individual countries in addressing climate change
2. CBDR-RC has been accepted by developed countries in recent Paris Agreement in its
true spirit
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
http://www.theroadthroughparis.org/negotiation-issues/common-differentiated-responsibilities-
and-respective-capabilities-cbdr%E2%80%93rc
Economic survey Volume – 2, Page 176
2 points
5. Question
Which of the following sector is the largest contributor to Greenhouse Gas emissions
a) Agriculture Sector
a) Manufacturing Sector
c) Energy Sector
d) Mining Sector
Solution: c)
2 points
6. Question
1. Both in terms of absolute and per capita emissions, India was the third largest emitter of
GHGs in 2014
2. At present USA tops in per capita emissions of GHG
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Economic survey Volume – 2, Page 177 – 178
China is a top emitter in terms of absolute terms.
2 points
7. Question
1. One of the main focus of the Paris agreement is to hold the increase in the global
average temperature to well below 2°C above pre- Kyoto agreement level (1992) and
on driving efforts to limit it even further to 1.5°C
2. The Paris agreement has issued each country an emission reduction target
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Target is to hold the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-
Industrial level, NOT Kyoto level.
Paris agreement has followed bottom-up approach and has not issued any emission target to
individual countries
2 points
8. Question
1. Green finance refers to government budget proposals oriented towards sustainable

development projects
2. Climate bonds are fixed-income financial instruments (bonds) linked in some way to
climate change solutions and are issued only by Governments
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Green finance mostly refers to financial investments flowing towards sustainable development
projects and initiatives that encourage the development of a more sustainable economy. Hence,
statement a) can be included in this.
Statement b is wrong as like normal bonds, climate bonds can be issued by governments,
multi-national banks or corporations
2 points
9. Question
Which of the following is NOT one of India’s INDCs?
a) To create domestic fund without relying on developed countries for implementing

mitigation and adaptation actions in view of the resources required and the resource
gap
b) To reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 per cent of the 2005 level by
2030.
c) To achieve about 40 per cent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-
fossil fuel- based energy resources by 2030 with the help of transfer of technology and
low cost international finance including from the Green Climate Fund (GCF).
d) To create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent (CO2
eq.) through additional forest and tree cover by 2030
Solution: a)
It seeks to mobilize funds from developed countries as well.
2 points
10. Question
Which of the following International climate funds is the largest?
a) Green Climate Fund (GCF)

b) Clean Technology Fund (CTF)
c) Global Environment Facility (GEF)
d) Pilot Program for Climate Resilience (PPCR)
Solution: a)
11. Question
With reference to Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), consider the following 2 points
statements:
1. The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), created multilaterally under the UNFCCC has
been scrapped under the Paris agreement
2. The CDM has witnessed a steady decline in the number of projects being registered
since 2013
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
a) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
2 points
12. Question
India’s National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF) is funded by
a) Carbon tax on diesel vehicles

b) Cess on oil exploration
c) Carbon tax on polluting industries
Solution: d)
Funded by cess on coal
2 points
13. Question
1. The National Adaptation Fund on Climate Change (NAFCC) is funded both by the
government and the World Bank
2. The objective of the fund is to assist State and Union Territories that are particularly
vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change in meeting the cost of adaptation to
climate change effects
a) 1 Only
a) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
It is funded only by the government. We can expect one question on this.
2 points
14. Question
Which of the following international treaties/conventions are specific for the protection of
stratospheric ozone?
1. Vienna convention
2. Montreal protocol
3. Kyoto protocol
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
MoEF annual report, Page no. 187
2 points
15. Question
Which of the following chemicals is/are ozone depleting substance?
1. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
2. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs)
3. Carbon tetrachloride
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) 1,2 and 3
Solution: b)
2 points
16. Question
Which of the following is/are Greenhouse Gases (GHGs)?
1. Nitrogen Trifluoride
2. Perfluorocarbons
3. Sulphur Hexafluoride
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) 1,2 and 3
Solution: d)
2 points
17. Question
Which of the following processes are known to cause desertification?
1. Overgrazing
2. Intensive agriculture
3. Urbanization
4. Overdrafting of groundwater
5. Population pressure

a) 1,2,4 and 5 Only
b) 1,2,3 and 4 Only
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
http://www.unesco.org/mab/doc/ekocd/india.html
18. Question
Which of the following is/are Sustainable Development Goals? 2 points
1. Life on Land
2. Peace and Justice Strong Institutions
3. Decent Work and Economic Growth
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
2 points
19. Question
Which of the following is the bigger source of methane gas?
a) Cow belching
b) Cow Flatulence
c) Coal mining
Solution: a)
http://climate.nasa.gov/faq/
2 points
20. Question
1. India has set total renewable energy capacity target to 175GW by the year 2022, out of
which 100GW is to be from solar, 60 GW from wind, 10 GW from biomass and 5 GW
from small hydro power projects
2. Recently, the Reserve Bank of India has issued guidelines for the inclusion of renewable
energy in priority sector lending for scheduled commercial banks
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
2 points
21. Question
In five flats, one above the other, live five professionals. The professor has to go
up to meet his IAS officer friend. The doctor is equally friendly to all, and has to go
up as frequently as go down. The engineer has to go up to meet his MLA friend
above whose flat lives the professor’s friend.
From the ground floor to the top floor, in what order do the five professionals live?
a) Engineer, Professor, Doctor, IAS officer, MLA
b) Professor, Engineer, Doctor, IAS officer, MLA
c) IAS officer, Engineer, Doctor, Professor, MLA
d) Professor, Engineer, Doctor, MLA, IAS officer
Solution: d)
2 points
22. Question
1) I watch TV only if I am bored
2) I am never bored when I have my brother’s company.
3) Whenever I go to the theatre I take my brother along.
Which one of the following conclusions is valid in the context of the above
statements?
a) If I am bored I watch TV
b) If I am bored, I seek my brother’s company.
c) If I am not with my brother, than i'll watch TV.
d) If I am not bored I do not watch TV.
Solution: d)
2 points
23. Question
Only six roads A, B, C, P, Q and R connect a military camp to the rest of the country. Only one
out of A, P, and R are open at any one time. If B is closed so is Q. Only one of A & B is open
during storms. P is closed during floods. In the context, which one of the following statements
is correct?
a) Under normal conditions only three roads are open.

b) During storms at least one road is open.
c) During floods only three roads are open
d) During calamities all roads are closed
Solution: b)
2 points
24. Question
1. None but students are the members of the club.
2. Some members of the club are married.
3. All married persons are invited for dance.
Which one of the conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
a) All students are invited for dance
b) All married students are invited for dance
c) All members of the club are married person
d) None of the above conclusions can be drawn
Solution: b)
2 points
25. Question
Four political parties W, X, Y and Z decided to set up a joint candidate for the
coming parliamentary elections. The formula agreed by them was the acceptance
of a candidate of the most of the parties. For aspiring candidates A, B, C and D
approached the parties for their ticket.
A was acceptable to W but not Z
B was acceptable to Y but not X
C was acceptable to W and Y
D was acceptable to W and X

When candidate B was preferred by W and Z, candidate C was preferred by X and
Z and candidate A was acceptable to X but not Y: Who got the ticket?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Solution: c)
RevisionTest05
2 points
1. Question
With reference to prehistoric paintings in India, consider the following statements:
1. In India the earliest paintings have been reported from the Upper Mesolithic times
2. Bhimbetka in Satpura Range is home to one of the richest cave paintings in India
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Class XI, NCERT Introduction to Indian Art, Chapter – 1, Page no. 2-3
2 points
2. Question
In which of the following locations in India, cave painting depicting hand-linked dancing human
figures is found?
a) Kupgallu
b) Lakhudiyar
c) Piklihal
d) Tekkalkota
Solution: b)
Class XI, NCERT Introduction to Indian Art, Chapter – 1, Page no. 2
In Bhimbetka also dancing scenes are painted. But, in the question, under given options, it’s at
Lakhudiyar only.
2 points
3. Question
The paintings of this period are linear representations, in green and dark red, of huge animal
figures, such as bisons, elephants, tigers, rhinos and boars besides stick-like human figures.
The above description refers to paintings of which of the following periods?
a) Lower paleolithic
b) Upper paleolithic
c) Lower mesolithic
d) Upper mesolithic
Solution: b)
2 points
4. Question
Which of the following places are associated with the Harappa and Mohenjodaro and are
located in India?
1. Lothal
2. Balathal
3. Daimabad
4. Dholavira
a) 1,3 and 4 Only

b) 1 and 4 Only
c) 1, 2 and 4 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
Class XI, NCERT Introduction to Indian Art, Chapter – 2, Page no. 9 & 10
2 points
5. Question
1. The art of bronze-casting was practised on a wide scale by the Harappans

2. In the seals excavated at Harappa and Mohenjodaro sites, animals such as elephant,
horse, buffalo, rhinoceros and tiger are depicted
a) 1 Only
a) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Horse is not seen on any of Harappa And Mohenjodaro seals. However, unicorn seals are
found.
https://www.harappa.com/seal/1.html
https://www.harappa.com/slide/seals-mohenjo-daro
2 points
6. Question
The stupas were constructed over the relics of the Buddha. WHich of the following site is/are
associated with such stupas?
1. Rajagraha
2. Vaishali
3. Kapilavastu
4. Kushinagar
a) 1,2 and 4 Only

b) 1,3 and 4 Only
c) 2,3 and 4 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
2 points
7. Question
Arrange the following events in the life of Buddha in a chronological order
1. Dhammachakrapravartana
2. Enlightenment
3. Mahaparinibbana
a) 2 - 3 - 1
b) 1 - 2 - 3
c) 2 - 1 - 3
d) 3 - 2 - 1
Solution: c)

2 points
8. Question
Many Buddha images in this region have plain transparent drapery covering both shoulders,
and the halo around the head has very little ornamentation.
To which school of sculpture, does the above description refer?
a) Gandhara school
b) Sarnath school
c) Mathura school
d) Kosambi school
Solution: b)
2 points
9. Question
Which of the following caves mostly consist of only Buddhist architecture, sculptures and
paintings?
1. Ajanta caves
2. Ellora caves
3. Elephanta caves
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 2 Only
Solution: b)
Class XI, NCERT Introduction to Indian Art, Chapter – 4, Page no. 37 – 43
2 points
10. Question
With reference to art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following was
made earliest?
a) Kanchipuram Temple
b) Brihadeswara Temple at Thanjavur
c) Virupaksha temple at Hampi
d) Ajanta caves
Solution: d)
2 points
11. Question
Which of the following is/are the salient features of nagara temple style
1. The temple is enclosed within a compound wall

2. At the entrance, sculptures of fierce dvarapalas or the door-keepers guarding the
temple are found
3. The main temple in which the garbhagriha is situated has smallest towers
Select the correct answer using the codes below;
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 3 Only
d) None
Solution: d)
All are features of Dravida style
2 points
12. Question
1. The temple’s pyramidal multi-storeyed vimana rises a massive seventy metres

(approximately two hundred feet), topped by a monolithic shikhara which is an
octagonal dome-shaped stupika
2. This temple is the largest and tallest of all Indian temples
To which temple does above description refer?
a) Mahabalipuram
b) Brihadishwara temple
c) Gangaikondacholapuram temple
d) Meenakshi temple, Madurai
Solution: b)

2 points
13. Question
The temples at Belur, Halebid and Somnathpuram were built by which of the following
dynasties?
a) Pandya
b) Chola
c) Hoysala
d) Chalukya
Solution: c)
2 points
14. Question
In which of the following sites Siddhartha achieved enlightenment and became Gautama
Buddha?
a) Kushinagar
b) Sarnath
c) Bodhgaya
d) Lumbini
Solution: c)
2 points
15. Question
Shatrunjay hills near Palitana are known for which religious temples?
a) Jainism
b) Buddhism
c) Shaivism
d) Vaishnavism
Solution: a)
2 points
16. Question
This place has a large pre-historic mound which is known for its continuous archaeological
record from the Neolithic age (about 2500–1345 BC) to the reign of the Pal dynasty. Which is
this place?
a) Burzahom
b) Chirand
c) Mehrgarh
Solution: b)
Class VI, NCERT History, Page 31
2 points
17. Question
With reference to Satyakama Jabala, consider the following statements:
1. He was one of the best-known thinkers during the Vedic period

2. The influential ancient text Jabala Upanishad – a treatise on Sannyasa – is named after
him
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Satyakama_Jabala
2 points
18. Question
1. The rules made for the Buddhist sangha were written down in a book called the Sutra
Pitaka
2. All men, women and children could join the Buddhist sangha
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
2 points
19. Question
The dhamma mahamatta, appointed by King Ashoka were assigned the task of
a) Propagating dhamma
b) Keeping the emperor in touch with public opinion
c) Building of roads and rest houses
d) Both a and b
Solution: d)
http://www.britannica.com/place/India/Ashoka-and-his-successors#ref485242
2 points
20. Question
When Banabhatta wrote his biography, the Harshacharita, which Chinese monk visited the
empire?
a) Faxian
b) Xuanzang
c) Yijing
d) Sun Wukong
Solution: b)
2 points
21. Question
1. All X-brand cars parked here are white.
2. Some of them have radial tyres
3. All X-brand cars manufactured after 1986 have radial tyres are parked here.
4. All cars are not X-brand.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
a) Only white cars are parked here.
b) Some white X-brand cars with radial tyres are parked here.
c) Cars other than X-brand cannot have radial tyres.
d) Most of the X-brand cars are manufactured before 1986.
Solution: b)
2 points
22. Question
The Third World War, if it ever starts will end very quickly with possible end of
civilization. It is only the misuse of nuclear power which will trigger it.
Based on the above statement which one of the following inferences is correct?
a) Nuclear power will be used in Third World War.
b) There will be no civilization left after the third world war.
c) The growth of nuclear power will destroy civilization in the long run.
d) The third world war will not take place.
Solution: a)
2 points
23. Question
1. All artists are whimsical.
2. Some artists are drug addicts.
3. Frustrated people are prone to become drug addicts.
From the above three statements it may be concluded that:

a) Artists are frustrated
b) Some drug addicts are whimsical
c) All frustrated people are drug addicts.
d) Whimsical people are generally frustrated
Solution: b)
2 points
24. Question

1. Either A & B are of same age or A is older than B
2. Either C & D are of same age or D is older than C
3. B is older than C
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
a. A is older than B
b. B and D are of the same age
c. D is older than C
d. A is older than C
Solution: d)
2 points
25. Question
1. Only those who have a pair of binoculars can become the member of the
birdwatcher’s club.
2. Some members of the birdwatcher’s club have cameras.
3. Those members who have cameras can take part in photo-contests.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
a) All those who have a pair of binoculars are members of the birdwatcher's club.
b) All members of the birdwatcher's club have a pair of binoculars.
c) All those who take part in photo-contests are members of the birdwatcher's club.
d) No conclusion can be drawn.
Solution: b)
RevisioTest06
2 points
1. Question
With reference to Rowlatt Act (1919), consider the following statements:
1. It allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years

2. Non – cooperation movement was launched as a reaction to Rowlatt Act
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
NCERT Class X, Contemporary India – II, Page – 55-56
2 points
2. Question
1. Gandhiji took up the Khilafat issue to bring Hindus and Muslims together to launch a
nationwide struggle against the British after Jallianwala Bagh massacre
2. The decision to need to start a non-cooperation movement was taken at Bombay
session of the Congress in September 1919
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
NCERT Class X, Contemporary India – II, Page – 56
2 points
3. Question
The Non – Cooperation movement in the cities gradually slowed down for a variety of reasons.
Which of the following is NOT one of these reasons?
a) Khadi cloth was often more expensive than mass produced mill cloth and poor people
could not afford to buy it
b) The boycott of British institutions posed a problem as there were no alternative
institutions for them
c) Students and professionals in cities joined back schools and their workplaces
respectively
d) The Hindu - Muslim unity began to shake in cities due to over emphasis on Khilafat
cause by national leaders
Solution: d)
2 points
4. Question
1. During the Non-Cooperation movement, C.R.Das and Motilal Nehru pressed for more
radical mass agitation and for full independence
2. During the Non-Cooperation movement, many in Congress wanted to participate in
elections to the provincial councils that had been set up by the Government of India Act
of 1909
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
2 points
5. Question
With reference to civil disobedience movement, consider the following statements:
1. Gandhiji asked followers not only refuse to cooperate but also to break colonial laws
2. Like Non-cooperation movement, Gandhiji also called off Civil Disobedience movement
midway
a) 1 Only
a) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
2 points
6. Question
1. Under the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, Gandhiji agreed to participate in the first Round Table
COnference
2. In the first Round Table Conference, Dr B R Ambedkar represented depressed classes
as British Indian representative
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
NCERT Class X, Contemporary India – II, Page – 64- 65
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Round_Table_Conferences_(India)
2 points
7. Question
1. The Civil Disobedience Movement strengthened relationship between peasants – both

poor and rich – with the Congress
2. The industrial working classes participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement in large
numbers
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)

2 points
8. Question
Dalit participation in the Civil Disobedience Movement was limited. Which of the following
reasons are correct?
1. For long the Congress had ignored the dalits, for fear of offending the sanatanis, the
conservative high-caste Hindus
2. Dalit leaders believed in other methods such as reserved seats in educational
institutions, and a separate electorate that would choose dalit members for legislative
councils
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
NCERT Class X, Contemporary India – II, Page – 67-68
2 points
9. Question
Who established the All-India Depressed Classes League in 1930?
a) Dr B. R. Ambedkar
b) Babu Jagjivan Ram
c) E V Ramasamy
d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Solution: b)
Ambedkar started the Depressed Classes Association in 1930
http://www.thehindu.com/thehindu/mp/2003/05/19/stories/2003051901710200.htm
2 points
10. Question
“ In this painting Bharat Mata is portrayed as an ascetic figure; she is calm, composed, divine
and spiritual.”
During the Swadeshi movement, which of the following artists painted the image of Bharat
Mata that fits into above description?
a) Nandalal Bose
b) Jamini Roy
c) Abanindranath Tagore
d) Gaganendranath Tagore
Solution: c)
2 points
11. Question
In 1921, who designed the national flag that had a tricolour (red, green and white) and had a
spinning wheel in the centre, representing the Gandhian ideal of self-help?
a) Bhikaji Kama
b) Sarojini Naidu
a) Mahatma Gandhiji
d) Pingali Venkayya
Solution: d)
Gandhiji proposed and Pingali Venkayya designed it (Wikipedia). NCERT says Gandhiji designed
it (doubtful)
New designer has come up:
http://www.newindianexpress.com/states/andhra_pradesh/Hyderabadi-Muslim-woman-not-
Pingali-designed-Tricolour/2013/07/02/article1663152.ece
2 points
12. Question
During 1780s, which Governor – General persecuted James Augustus, editor of the Bengal
Gazette, for publishing gossip about the Company’s senior officials in India?
a) Warren Hastings
b) Cornwallis
c) John Macpherson
d) Wellesley
Solution: a)
Warren Hastings was the first (1732–1818) Governor General.
2 points
13. Question
The Bombay Samachar, one of Asia’s oldest newspaper started by Fardunjee Marzaban was
first published in which of the following languages?
a) Marathi
b) Hindi
c) Gujarati
Solution: c)
2 points
14. Question
What is common between Tarabai Shinde, Pandita Ramabai and Kailashbashini Debi
a) They actively led local movements during the Non-Cooperation movement

b) They mobilized many women to participate in the Civil Disobedience movement
c) They wrote books highlighting the plight of Hindu women
Solution: c)
2 points
15. Question
Which of the following national leaders started Mook Nayak (weekly newspaper), Bahishkrit
Bharat (half-monthly newspaper), Janata (weekly magazine)?
a) Shyamprasad Mukherjee
b) Dr B.R.Ambedkar
c) Purushottam Das Tandon
Solution: b)
http://roundtableindia.co.in/index.php?option=com_content&view=article&id=4992:ambedkar-
and-media&catid=119:feature&Itemid=132
2 points
16. Question
With reference to the Vernacular Press Act, consider the following statements:
1. It provided the government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the
vernacular press
2. It was passed under the Governor Generalship and Viceroyalty of Lord Northbrook
3. When a report was judged as seditious, the newspaper was warned, and if the warning
was ignored, the press was liable to be seized and the printing machinery confiscated

a) 2 and 3 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: c)
2 points
17. Question
) “this novel remains Premchand’s best-known work. It is an epic of the Indian peasantry. The
novel tells the moving story of Hori and his wife Dhania, a peasant couple.”
To which of the following novel above description refers to?
a) Kafan
b) Godan
c) Sevasadan
d) Gaban
Solution: b)
2 points
18. Question
Which of the following events took place at the earliest compared to other given options?
a) Neolithic
b) Chalcolithic
c) Harappan civilisation
d) Megalithic burials
Solution: a)
NCERT Class XII, Themes in Indian History – Part-1, Page 25
2 points
19. Question
Which of the following contributed towards understanding of Ashokan inscriptions?
1. Colin Mackenzie
2. James Prinsep
3. Alexander Cunningham
Select the correct answer using codes below
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 2 Only
d) 3 Only
Solution: b)
2 points
20. Question
Which of the following works were authored/written earlier?
a) Manusmriti
b) Sushruta Samhita
c) Ashtadhyayi of Panini
d) Nyaya Shastra of Bharata
Solution: c)
2 points
21. Question
During the summer vacation Ankit went to a summer camp where he took part in
hiking, swimming and boating. This summer, he is looking forward to a music camp
where he hopes to sing, dance and learn to play the guitar.
Based on the above information four conclusions as given below, have been made.
Which one of these logically follows from the information given above?
a) Ankit's parents want him to play guitar.
b) Ankit prefers music to outdoor activities.
c) Ankit goes to some type of camp every summer.
d) Ankit likes to sing and dance
Solution: d)
2 points
22. Question
Three persons A, B & C wear shirts of Black, Blue and Orange colours (not necessarily in the
order) and pants of green, yellow and orange (not necessarily in that order). No person wore
shirt and pant of the same colour. Further, it is given that,
1. A did not wear shirt of black colour.
2. B did not wear shirt of blue colour.
3. C did not wear shirt of orange colour.
4. A did not wear the pants of green colour
5. B wore pants of orange colour.
What were the colours of the pants and shirts worn by C respectively?
a) Orange and black
b) Green and blue
c) Yellow and blue
d) Yellow and black
Solution: b)
2 points
23. Question
Ten new TV shows started in January- 5 sitcoms, 3 drama and 2 news magazines.
By April, only seven of the new shows were still on, five of them being sitcoms.
Based on the above information, for conclusions, as given below, have been made.
Which of these logically follows from the information given above?
a) Only one news magazine show is still going on.
b) Only one of the drama show is still going on.
c) At least one discontinued show was a drama.
d) Viewers prefer sitcoms over drama.
Solution: c)
2 points
24. Question
Read the passage given below and the two statements that follow (given on the basis of the
passage):
Four men are waiting at Delhi airport for Mumbai flight. Two are doctors and other two are
businessman. Two speak Gujarati and two speak Tamil. No two of the same profession speak
the same language. Two are Muslims and two are Christians. No two of the same religion are
of the same profession, nor do they speak same language. The Tamil speaking doctor is
Christian.
1. The Christian-Businessman speaks Gujarati.

2. The Gujarati-speaking doctor is a Muslim.
Which of the above statements is/are correct conclusion/conclusions?

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
2 points
25. Question
Consider the following statement:
“Though quite expensive, television is not a luxury item, as one can learn many
things through television”.
Which of the following is the valid inference from the above given statement?
a) All expensive things are regarded as luxury.
b) All essential things for learning are not luxury.
c) Television is essential for learning.
d) Television is not a luxury item.
Solution: d)
RevisionTest07
2 points
1. Question
Which of the following scholars/travellers visited India first?
a) Marco Polo
b) Francois Bernier
c) Nicolo Conti
d) Domingo Paes
Solution: a)
Marco Polo (1292-1294 AD)
Nicolo Conti (1420-1421 AD)
Domingo Paes (1520-1522 AD)
Francois Bernier (1656-1717 AD)
NCERT Class XII, History – II, Chapter – 5
2 points
2. Question
Which of the following Arab travellers did NOT visit India?
a) Abd-ur Razzaq
b) Ibn Fadlan
c) Al Masudi
d) Mahmud Wali Balkhi
Solution: b)
NCERT Class XII, History – II, Page – 121
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ahmad_ibn_Fadlan
2 points
3. Question
With reference to Francois Bernier’s visit to India, consider the following statements:
1. During his stay in India, he was witness to death of Dara Shikoh, young Mughal Prince
2. In his writings, he described India in glowing terms
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
NCERT Class XII, History – II, Page 122
2 points
4. Question
1. According to Al – Biruni, conception of social pollution, intrinsic to the caste system was
not unnatural and was present in other societies as well
2. According to Ibn Battuta, Daulatabad (in Maharashtra) was as busy and almost as large
as Delhi during his visit
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
NCERT Class XII, History – II, Page 126 – 127
2 points
5. Question
The idea of oriental despotism of Montesquieu and the concept of the Asiatic mode of
production by Karl Marx were influenced by
a) The reports of missionaries who traveled back to Europe from India

b) Works of British historians who were critical of the Crown and mercantilism
c) Writings of Seventeenth century Arab travellers to India
Solution: d)
Writings of Francois Bernier influenced them.
2 points
6. Question
Which of the following national leaders analysed British economic policies in India and their
impact on society?
1. Prithwis Chandra Ray

2. V. Joshi
3. Romesh Chandra Dutt
4. K. Gokhale
a) 3 and 4 Only
b) 3 Only
c) 2,3 and 4 only
d) All
Solution: d)
India’s Struggle for Independence – Bipan Chandra, Chapter – 7
2 points
7. Question
1. Critics of British colonialism in India interpreted that colonialism functioned through the
mechanism of free trade and foreign capital investment
2. Early nationalists believed that modem industry was a major force which could help
unite the diverse peoples of India into a single national entity having common interests
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
2 points
8. Question
Which of the following national leaders said that ‘factories could far more effectively than
Schools and Colleges give a new birth to the activities of the Nation’ ?
a) Dadabhai Naoroji
b) G.D. Birla
c) Mahadev Govind Ranade
d) R.C Dutt
Solution: c)
2 points
9. Question
National leader Bipin Chandra Pal said that the “… it is the greatest of hindrances to all real
improvements in the economic condition of the people. It is as much a political, as it is an
economic danger. And the future of New India absolutely depends upon as early and radical
remedy of this two-edged evil.”
In the above statements ‘It’ refers to which of the following?
a) Western ideological hegemony

b) Missionary activities
c) Fascism
Solution: d)
Here, ‘it’ refers to Foreign Capital
2 points
10. Question
Who was the first Muslim president of the Indian National Congress?
a) Rahimtulla Sayani
b) Nawab Sayed Mohammad Bahadur
c) Badruddin Tyabji
d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Solution: c)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Badruddin_Tyabji
2 points
11. Question
With reference to the Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code, consider the statements:
1. During the British rule, a person was to be punished with transportation for life or for
any term or with imprisonment upto three years for violating the Section 124A of the
Indian Penal Code
2. At present, a person a violating the Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code can be
imprisoned with imprisonment for life or for three years
3. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was the first to be punished under this law
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
The first case was registered, in 1891, when the editor of a newspaper called Bangobasi was
booked for publishing an article criticising an “Age of Consent Bill.”
http://www.caravanmagazine.in/vantage/section-124a-sedition-jnu-protests
2 points
12. Question
1. Tantric practices were open only to men

2. Tantric practitioners often ignored differences of caste and class within the ritual context
3. Many Tantric ideas influenced Shaivism as well as Buddhism
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 3 Only
d) None
Solution: a)
2 points
13. Question
With reference to Nalayira Divyaprabandham – a Tamil text – consider the following
1. It was frequently described as the Tamil Veda as significant as Vedas composed by

Brahmins
2. It was composed by Nayanars
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
2 points
14. Question
Which Indian national was the first Indian to go to jail in performance of his duty as a journalist
during freedom struggle?
a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
c) Surendranath Banerjea
d) Mahatma Gandhi
Solution: c)
2 points
15. Question
In 1898, the Government amended Section 124A and added a new Section 153A to the penal
code, making it a criminal offence for anyone to attempt ‘to bring into contempt’ the
Government of India or to create hatred among different classes, that is vis-a-vis Englishmen in
India.
This was done in reaction to which of the following event?
a) The Swadeshi and Boycott Movement

b) The INC session at Amraoti in 1897
c) Publication of anti-government articles in various vernacular press
Solution: d)
It was done in reaction to nationwide protests against Tilak’s imprisonment in 1879.
2 points
16. Question
Gandhiji was tried in 1922 for the offence of sedition under the Section 124A for his articles in
which of the following newspaper?
a) Harijan
b) Navjivan
c) Young India
d) Indian Opinion
Solution: c)
2 points
17. Question
Which of the following mosques is often regarded as the “jewel in the crown” of all the existing
mosques of Kashmir?
a) Jamia Mosque, Srinagar

b) Shah Hamadan mosque, Srinagar
c) Pather Masjid, Sinagar
d) Aali Masjid, Srinagar
Solution: b)
2 points
18. Question
With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Anandamohan Bose is mainly known for
a) Presiding in one of the largest protest meeting against Partition of Bengal

b) For clearing Indian Civil Service exam and not joining it protesting against passing
Vernacular Press Act
c) For leading Non-Cooperation movement in Bengal
Solution: a)
2 points
19. Question
Which of the following national leader was mainly open to the option of violent resistance if
British repression was stepped up during the peak of the Swadeshi movement?
a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

b) Bipin Chandra Pal
c) Lajpat Rai
Solution: d)
Aurobindo Ghosh
2 points
20. Question
1. The original research done by Jagdish Chandra Bose and Prafulla Chandra Ray was
partly inspired by the Swadeshi movement
2. Rabindranath’s Amar Sonar Bangla – national anthem of Bangladesh – was penned
during the Swadeshi movement
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
2 points
21. Question
Mr. Kumar drives to work at an average speed of 48km/hr. The time taken to cover the first
60% of the distance is 10 minutes more than the time taken to cover the remaining distance.
How far is his office?
a) 30km
b) 40km
c) 45km
d) 48km
Solution: b)
2 points
22. Question
Gita is prettier than Sita but not as pretty as Rita. Then,
a) Sita is not as pretty as Gita

b) Sita is prettier than Rita
c) Rita is not as pretty as Gita
d) Gita is prettier than Rita
Solution: a)
2 points
23. Question
Given that,
1. A is the brother of B
2. C is the father of A.
3. D is brother of E.
4. E is the daughter of B
Then, the uncle of D is?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E
Solution: a)
2 points
24. Question
1. Rama scored more than Rani

2. Rani scored less than Ratna
3. Ratna scored more than Rama
4. Padma scored more than Rama but less than Ratna.
Who scored the highest?
a) Rama
b) Padma
c) Rani
d) Ratna
Solution: d)
2 points
25. Question
In the above figure, circle P represents hardworking people, circle Q represents

intelligent people, Circle R represents truthful people and circle S represents honest
people. Which region represents the people who are intelligent, honest and truthful
but not hardworking?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 11
Solution: a)
RevisionTest08
No t e b o o k: InsightsOnIndia Tests
2 points
1. Question
At the Calcutta Congress session in 1906, when tension between moderates and extremists was brewing, Four important
compromise Resolutions were passed under the presidentship of Dadabhai Naoroji. Which of the following is/are NOT one
of them?
1. Swadeshi
2. Boycott
3. National Education
4. Self – Government
a) 2 Only
b) 3 Only
c) 4 Only
d) All four were passed
Solution: d)
Struggle for India’s Independence, Bipan Chandra Chapter – 11
This is important as resolution on self government was passed for the first time under the Presidentship of Naoroji
2 points
2. Question
With reference to split between moderates and extremists, consider the following statements:
1. Moderates wanted split in Congress as they were afraid of Government’s use of power to destroy Congress itself
2. Impending Minto and Morley reforms gave hope to moderates about Indians sharing political and administrative
power in near future, encouraging them to split from extremists
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
2 points
3. Question
With reference to the Indian Councils Act of 1909, consider the following statements:
1. It increased the number of elected members in the provincial legislative councils

2. An Indian was to be appointed a member of the Governor-General’s Executive Council
3. It increased member’s power to ask questions
4. It introduced an element of democracy or self-government
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1,2 and 3 Only
c) 2,3 and 4 Only
d) All are correct
Solution: b)
2 points
4. Question
Which of the following revolutionaries tried to kill the Viceroy, Lord Hardinge by throwing bomb at him?
a) Har Dayal
b) Sachindra Nath Sanyal
c) Khudiram Bose
Solution: b)
Along with Rash Behari Bose, Sachindra Nath Sanyal (Sachin Sanyal) threw the bomb.
He was also the founder of Hindustan Republican Association (HRA, which after 1928 became the Hindustan Socialist
Republican Association or HSRA).
UPSC is known to ask questions on important personalities. It’s important to know 2-3 contributions/well known acts of
these personalities.
2 points
5. Question
In USA, Yugantar Ashram became a centre of activity for the Gadhar Movement where it became the home and
headquarters and refuge of these political workers. In which city was Yugantar Ashram set up?
a) New York
b) San Diego
c) San Francisco
d) Los Angeles
Solution: c)
Recently it was converted into Museum (2013)
2 points
6. Question
With reference to Komagata Maru incident, consider the following statements:
1. This incident involved violent clashes between passengers and authorities in Canada resulting in death of innocent
passengers
2. The journey of Komagata Maru was inspired by Supreme Court of Canada’s judgement allowing few Indians who
had not made a continuous journey to enter Canada
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)

There can be a question on Komagata Maru as it was recently in news
https://www.washingtonpost.com/news/worldviews/wp/2016/05/18/the-tragic-story-behind-justin-trudeaus-apology-in-
canadas-parliament/
2 points
7. Question
With reference to Gadhar Movement in India, consider the following statements:
1. Rash Behari Bose was part of the movement

2. The failure of Gadhar movement in India was partly due to lack of support from civilians in Punjab
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Both statements are correct.

2 points
8. Question
In the early decades after Permanent Settlement, many Zamindars failed to pay the revenue demand. This is because
1. Fixed and high demand by the Company

2. Regardless of the harvest, revenue was to be paid in fixed prices
3. Authority and autonomy of zamindars were curbed by the British
Which of the above reasons is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 Only
c) 2 Only
d) All are correct
Solution: d)
NCERT Class XII History – III, Page no. 259-260
2 points
9. Question
1. Since the East India Company established its rule over Bengal, its activities were neither watched nor debated closely
from Britain
2. The East India Company resulted in complete collapse of Zamindari power
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
NCERT Class XII History – III, Page no. 263 – 65
2 points
10. Question
Which of the following national leaders, through newspapers New India and Commonweal organized public meetings and
conferences to demand that India be granted self-government on the lines of the White colonies after the War?
a) Pherozeshah Mehta
b) Annie Besant
c) Gokhale
d) Indulal Yagnik
Solution: b)
2 points
11. Question
1. Tilak’s Home Rule League and Annie Besant’s Home Rule League did not quarrel as they had clearly demarcated
their areas of operation
2. Both factions of Home Rule League did not unite due to the British policy of divide and rule
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
2 points
12. Question
1. In 1917, many others including Jawaharlal Nehru in Allahabad and B. Chakravarti and J. Banerjea in Calcutta joined
the Home Rule League led by Tilak
2. Tilak and Annie Besant’s role was important in signing the Congress League Pact between Congress and Muslim
League
3. Tilak and his men were welcomed back into the Congress during the Lucknow session of the Congress in December
1916
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) All
Solution: b)
Nehru joined Annie Besant’s Home Rule League.

2 points
13. Question
With reference to Gandhiji’s political activism in South Africa, consider the following statements:
1. Gandhiji’s political activities from 1894 to 1906 used the method of passive resistance or civil disobedience
2. Gandhiji believed that the British sense of justice and fair play would intervene on behalf of Indians if he provided all
the facts of the case to the Imperial Government
3. The instrument of Satyagraha was first used when the Government in South Africa enacted legislation making it
compulsory for Indians to take out certificates of registration which held their finger prints
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) All
Solution: b)
The first phase of Gandhiji’s political activities is termed as ‘Moderate’ phase.
2 points
14. Question
1. The Tolstoy Farm was set up to house the families of the Satyagrahis and give them a way to sustain themselves
2. No one from India funded Tolstoy Farm and its activities.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
2 points
15. Question
The tinkathia system refers to
a) A system where farmers hard to forego one third of their land to Zamindars if they failed to pay annual rent for
three consecutive years
b) An agreement by British planters forcing cultivators to cultivate indigo on 3/20th of the land
c) A system forcing indigo farmers to supply one third of indigo harvest to the Britishers at very cheap rate
d) Both b and c
Solution: b)
2 points
16. Question
1. The American Civil War between 1861 – 1864 brought prosperity to all cotton producers in India
2. After the American Civil War, cotton exports from India continued to expand thank to expansion in acreage during
the War
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
NCERT Class XII History – III, Page no. 280-282
2 points
17. Question
1. Gandhiji’s decision to withdraw the Non-Cooperation movement in response to the violence at Chauri Chaura was
welcomed by C R Das and Motilal Nehru
2. The decision to withdraw the Non-Cooperation movement was ratified by the Congress Working Committee
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
2 points
18. Question
With reference to the Eka or unity movement, consider the following statements:
1. The Eka Movement included in its ranks many small zamindars

2. Till the end the Eka movement was led by the Congress and Khilafat leaders
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
2 points
19. Question
Which of the following leader was a veteran and main force of the Nagpur Flag Satyagraha and the Borsad Punitive Tax
Satyagraha?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
c) Babu Rajendra Prasad
Solution: b)
2 points
20. Question

1. On his return from South Africa, apart from travelling around India, Gandhiji actively got involved in Home Rule
League movement
2. Between 1917 and early 1918, Gandhiji was involved in local agitations mainly concerned with economic demands of
the masses
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
2 points
21. Question
Consider the following information regarding the performance of class of 1000 students in four different tests:
If a student scores 74 marks in each of the four tests, in which one of the following tests is her performance the best
comparatively?
a) Test I
b) Test II
c) Test III
d) Test IV
Solution: b)
2 points
22. Question
Six squares are coloured, front and back, red(R), blue(B), yellow (Y), green (G), white (W), orange (O) and are hinged
together as shown in the figure given below. If they were folded to form a cube what would be the face opposite to white
face?
a) R
b) G
c) B
d) O
Solution: c)
2 points
23. Question
Three views of a cube following a particular motion are given below:
What is letter opposite to A?
a) H
b) P
c) B
d) M
Solution: a)
RevisionTest09
2 points
1. Question
1. After the abrupt withdrawal of Non-Cooepration Movement, C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru
launched a new party named the Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party
2. The Swaraj Party wanted to present the national demand for self- government in the
councils and if the demand was rejected, it wanted to resign from councils and initiate
mass movement
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Struggle for India’s Independence, Bipan Chandra, Chapter – 19
2 points
2. Question
1. During early 1920s, the no-changers opposed council-entry mainly because the 1919 Act
didn’t give them enough powers to function effectively in councils
2. The Congress did not let Congressmen to either to stand as candidates or to exercise
their franchise in 1923 legislative council elections
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
The no-changers opposed council-entry mainly on the ground that parliamentary work would
lead to the neglect of constructive and other work among the masses, the loss of
revolutionary zeal and political corruption. The legislators who would go into the councils with
the aim of wrecking them would gradually give up the politics of obstruction. get sucked into
the imperial constitutional framework, and start cooperating with the Government on petty
reforms and piecemeal legislation Constructive work among the masses, on the other hand,
would prepare them for the next round of civil disobedience.
In a special session of the Congress held at Delhi in September 1923, the Congress suspended
all propaganda against council entry and permitted Congressmen to stand as candidates and
exercise their franchise in forthcoming elections.
2 points
3. Question
1. Gandhiji was completely opposed to council-entry of congressmen, however, he

supported the fight of Swarajists
2. Gandhiji was the president of 1924 Belgaum Session of Congress where he gave the
Swarajists a majority of seats on his Working Committee
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
2 points
4. Question
With reference to Government of India 1919 Act, consider the following statements:
1. The Viceroy or the Governor could certify any legislation, including a budgetary grant, if
it was rejected in the legislature
2. It made a provision for classification of the central and provincial subjects
3. The Act provided for the establishment of a Public Service Commission in India for the
first time
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Government_of_India_Act_1919
2 points
5. Question
Vithalbhai Patel, the freedom fighter is well known for

a) Till his death,he was a political lieutenant of Gandhiji in Gujarath
b) He cofounded Swaraj Party with CR Das and Motilal Nehru and served it well
c) He supported Subhash Chandra Bose and co founded Indian National Army
Solution: b)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vithalbhai_Patel
6. Question
The British Government in India passed the Public Safety Bill in 1928 – which was later 2 points
defeated in the council – for the purpose of
a) To ensure safety of public from deadly diseases

b) To arrest and deport British and other foreign socialist and communist agitators
residing in India
c) To arrest national leaders indulging in anti-national activities such as spreading
hatred against the Government
Solution: b)
2 points
7. Question
Which of the following factors influenced the rise of revolutionary terrorism in India during
1920s?
1. The upsurge of working class trade unionism after the War

2. The Russian Revolution
3. Newly formed Communist groups with their emphasis on Marxism, Socialism and the
proletariat
4. Failure of Gandhiji as a leader
a) 1,2 and 4 Only

b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 2,3 and 4 Only
d) 1,2 and 3 Only
Solution: d)
2 points
8. Question
Which of the following revolutionaries were tried by the British in the Assembly Bomb Case?
1. Bhagat Singh
2. Sukhdev
3. Rajguru
4. K.Dutt
a) 1 and 4 Only
b) 1,2 and 4 Only
c) 1,2 and 3 Only
d) 1,3 and 4 Only
Solution: a)
Others including Bhagat Singh were tried in various other conspiracies, but Bhagat SIngh and
Dutt were tried under Assembly Bomb Case
2 points
9. Question
With reference to the Bengal revolutionaries of the l920s and 1930s, consider the following
statements:
1. Majority of them followed strict Hindu religiosity

2. They did not evolve broader socio-economic goals
3. They retained elements of social conservatism
4. Some of the groups included Muslim members
a) 2,3 and 4 Only

b) 1,3 and 4 Only
c) 1,2 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
2 points
10. Question
Which of the following revolutionary wrote The Philosophy of the Bomb?
a) Bhagat Singh
b) Chandrashekhar Azad
c) Bhagwati Charan Vohra
d) Sukhdev
Solution: c)
2 points
11. Question
With reference to Bhagat Singh, Consider the following statements:
1. Before his arrest in 1929, he had abandoned his belief in terrorism and individual heroic
action
2. Before his arrest in 1929, he had come to believe strongly that popular broad-based
mass movements alone could lead to a successful revolution
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Both are correct
2 points
12. Question
With reference to Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. It was formed with the help of Bhagat SIngh

2. It was anti-communalism
3. It a left-wing association
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
2 points
13. Question
With reference to Simon Commission, consider the following statements:
1. It was formed by the British Labour government

2. It was formed to report on the working of the Indian constitution established by the
Government of India Act of 1919
3. The report proposed provincial autonomy in India but rejected parliamentary
responsibility at the centre
4. It accepted the idea of federalism and sought to retain direct contact between the British
crown and the Indian states
5. It was opposed by Indians mainly because it had no Indian member
a) 1,2 and 3 Only

b) 1,3,4 and 5 Only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 Only
d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 Only
Solution: d)
http://www.britannica.com/topic/Simon-Commission (points lifted from here!)
2 points
14. Question
With reference to the Nehru Report, consider the following statements:
1. This report sought completely independent India, not the Dominion, as the form of
government desired by India
2. It accepted the principle of separate communal electorates to give voice to everyone
3. It recommended universal adult suffrage
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 3 Only
d) All
Solution: c)
2 points
15. Question
As of 1928, which of the following leaders sought Dominion Status for India and defended it?
1. Mahatma Gandhiji
2. Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Motilal Nehru
4. Satyamurthi
Select the correct answer using codes below
a) 1, 3 and 4 Only
b) 2,3 and 4 Only
c) 3 and 4 Only
d) 1 and 3 Only
Solution: d)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/S._Satyamurti
2 points
16. Question
On which banks of the river, at midnight on 31 December 1929, the tricolour flag of Indian
independence was unfurled?
a) Beas
b) Ravi
c) Satluj
d) Jhelum
Solution: b)
2 points
17. Question
Which of the following freedom fighters led a salt march from Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyam?
a) V.O Chidambaram Pillai

b) C. Rajagopalachari
c) K. Kamaraj
d) S. Satyamurthi
Solution: b)
Same question asked in 2015 UPSC Prelims
2 points
18. Question
The Vaikom Satyagraha was organized to
a) To break salt law

b) To secure the rights of the depressed classes from orthodoxy
c) To get rights over land from powerful landlords
d) To free Vaikom from the British rule
SOlution: b)
In Malabar, K. Kelappan, the hero of the Vaikom Satyagraha, walked from Calicut to Payannur
to break the salt law.
Instead of asking question on Kelappan similar to above question, we have asked one on
Vaikom Satyagraha.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vaikom_Satyagraha
2 points
19. Question
During the Civil Disobedience Movement, Eastern India became the scene of a new kind of no-
tax campaign — refusal to pay the chowkidara tax. Why?
a) Villagers hated chowkidars who often acted as spies for the government
b) Chowkidars were local agents of big zamindars and rural people were intimidated by
their presence
c) Chowkidars were regular police force who had to be paid through chowkidar tax at
the cost of rural people’s livelihood
Solution: a)
2 points
20. Question
The terms of the Gandhi – Irwin agreement included
1. The return of confiscated lands not yet sold to third parties

2. Lenient treatment for those government employees who had resigned
3. The immediate release of all political prisoners whether they were convicted for violence
or not
4. The right to make salt for consumption to villages along the coast
5. A public inquiry into police excesses during civil disobedience movement
a) 1,2 and 4 Only

b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 Only
d) 1 and 2 Only
Solution: a)
2 points
21. Question
1. The impetus for the formation of All India kisan Sabha came from the formation of the
Congress Socialist Party (CSP)
2. Setting up of Karshaka Sanghams (peasant associations) in Kerala to mobilize peasants
was the result of the efforts mainly of the Congress Socialist Party
3. The CSP members rejected many of Gandhian policies and Congress attitude towards
communists
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
2 points
22. Question
Which of the following was/were both freedom fighter and a major farmer (kisan) leaders
during Freedom Struggle?
1. G. Ranga
2. Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Indulal Yagnik
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 1 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/N._G._Ranga
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sahajanand_Saraswati
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indulal_Yagnik
2 points
23. Question
With reference to the national movement and political activities in Princely States, consider the
following statements:
1. The Congress did not allow its members to form groups or unions in States in the name
of Congress till independence
2. The Congress had passed a resolution in 1920 itself calling upon the Princes to grant full
responsible government in their States
3. In later years, the Congress demanded that the Princes guarantee fundamental rights to
their people
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: b)
2 points
24. Question
In 1938, the Arya Samaj Satyagraha was launched to protest
a) Mistreatment of Hindus by the Muslim League in Muslim majority regions

b) The religious persecution of the Arya Samaj
c) Against the British policy of divide and rule
Solution: b)
2 points
25. Question
What is common between Vadilal Lallubhai Mehta, Samuel Aaron and Lala Shankar Lal?
a) All three were both capitalists and Congress members who fought hard for
independence
b) All three were capitalists but lent outside support to freedom struggle without
becoming members of any organization
c) All three actively opposed freedom struggle and supported the British cause in India
Solution: a)
2 points
26. Question
In a rare coin collection, there is one gold coin for every three non-gold coins. 10 more gold
coins are added to the collection and the ratio of gold coins to non-gold coins would be 1: 2.
Based on the information; the total number of corns in the collection now becomes
(a) 90
b) 80
c) 60
d) 50
Solution: a)
2 points
27. Question
A gardener has 1000 plants: He wants to plant them in such a way that the number of rows
and the number of columns remains the same. What is the minimum number of plants that he
needs more for this purpose?
(a) 14
(b) 24
(c) 32
(d) 34
Solution: b)
2 points
28. Question
A sum of RS. 700 has to be used to give seven cash prizes to the students of a school for their
overall academic performance. If each prize is Rs. 20 less than its preceding prize, then what is
the least value of the prize?
(a) RS. 30
(b) RS. 40
(c) RS. 60
(d) RS. 80
Solution: b)
2 points
29. Question
Out of 120 applications for a post, 70 are male and 80 have a driver’s license. What is the
ratio between the minimum to maximum number of males having driver’s license?
(a) 1 to 2
(b) 2 to 3
(c) 3 to 7
(d) 5 to 7
Solution: c)
2 points
30. Question
In a garrison, there was food for 1000 soldiers for one month. After 10 days, 1000 more
soldiers joined the garrison. How long would the soldiers be able to carry on with the
remaining food?
(a) 25 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 10 days
Solution: d)
RevisionTest10
2 points
1. Question
1. One can see full moon only once in a month

2. Lunar eclipses can occur only at full moon
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
NCERT, Class VI, The Earth Our Habitat, Page – 1
https://www.reference.com/science/full-moon-only-once-month-91820ecf00482520
2 points
2. Question
What is common between all of the following?
1. Leo
2. Orion
3. Gemini
4. Taurus
Select the correct answer from following hints:
a) All are astrological signs

b) All are constellations
c) All are nebullae
Solution: b)
http://www.sky-watch.com/astronomy-guide/major-constellations.html
2 points
3. Question
With reference to Pole Star, consider the following statements:
1. It lies approximately directly overhead when viewed from the Earth’s Equator
2. It always remains in the same position on sky
2. It always remains in the same position on sky
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
2 points
4. Question
What is common between Ceres, Vesta, Pallas, and Hygeia?
a) All are moons of Jupiter

b) All are dwarf planets found near Pluto
c) All are largest asteroids in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter
d) All are recently discovered black holes
Solution: c)
http://www.lunarplanner.com/asteroids-main/index.html
2 points
5. Question
In 2005-06 scientists discovered the most massive and second-largest dwarf planet known in
the Solar System. Its present name is
a) UB313
b) Eris
c) Makemake
Solution: b)
http://web.gps.caltech.edu/~mbrown/planetlila/
6. Question
1. The moon revolves around the earth once in around every 27 days
2. We see only one face of the moon as its spin time on its axis is equal to its revolution
time around the earth
3. If moon stops spinning, we might see both its faces
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
https://www.quora.com/What-would-happen-if-the-moon-started-rotating
2 points
7. Question
1. The distance from equator to either of the poles is one fourth of a circle round the earth
2. Measuring the angle of pole star helps one determine their latitude
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
http://www.lewis-clark.org/article/1276
2 points
8. Question
1. All meridians are of equal length

2. The International Date Line (IDL) is one of the meridians
3. The longitude against which Indian Standard time is set passes through Allahabad
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: c)
2 points
9. Question
On 21st June,what is the most likely event than can happen to earth?
a) Areas near Tropic of Cancer will receive most heat

b) The equator will receive less sunlight
c) The day will be longest along the places lying over Tropic of Capricorn
d) The Arctic will have a long night
Solution: a)
2 points
10. Question
Which of the following is India’s research station at the Arctic?
a) Bharati
b) Maitri
c) Himadri
d) Uttar Gangotri
Solution: c)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Himadri_Station
2 points
11. Question
Why is nitrogen the most common element in the earth’s atmosphere?
a) It’s heavy, therefore settles down without getting lost to space

b) It’s the most abundant element released by both living and non living beings from
earth’s surface
c) It is inert
Solution: a)
https://van.physics.illinois.edu/qa/listing.php?id=2199
Other reasons can be found here:

https://www.soest.hawaii.edu/GG/ASK/atmo-nitrogen.html
12. Question
1. It is a dormant volcano in the Pacific Ocean in Hawaii

2. Measured from bottom, it’s height is higher than Mount Everest
Above statements refer to?

Above statements refer to?
a) Mauna Loa
b) Mauna Kea
c) Kiluaea
Solution: b)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mauna_Kea
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mauna_Loa
2 points
13. Question
Hundru falls in Jharkhand is created on the course of the
a) Barakar River
b) Damodar River
c) Subarnarekha River
d) South Koel River
Solution: c)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hundru_Falls
2 points
14. Question
1. The stratosphere is less dense than troposphere

2. Humid air is less dense and exerts less pressure than dry air
3. In stratosphere, temperature decreases with altitude
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
https://www.arm.gov/education/studyhall/ask/past_question.php?id=424
http://www.atoptics.co.uk/highsky/htrop.htm
15. Question
Match the following: 2 points

Name Joins
1. Malacca Strait Andaman Sea & South China Sea
2. Palk Strait Palk Bay & Bay of Bengal
3. Sunda Strait Java Sea & Indian Ocean
Which of the above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
2 points
16. Question
The tank-full petrol in Arun’s motor-cycle lasts for 10 days. If he starts using 25% more
everyday, how many days will the tank-full petrol last?
(a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
Solution: d)
2 points
17. Question
A person can walk a certain distance and drive back in six hours. He can also walk both ways in
10 hours. How much time will he take to drive both ways?
(a) Two hours

(b) Two and a half hours
(c) Five and a half hours
(d) Four hours
Solution: a)
2 points
18. Question
I. A primary group is relatively smaller in size.

II. Intimacy is an essential characteristic of a primary group.
III. A family may be an example of a primary group.
In the light of the above statements, which one of the following is true?
a) All families are primary groups.

b) All primary groups are families.
c) A group of smaller size is always a primary group.
d) Members of a primary group know each other intimately.
Solution: d)
2 points
19. Question
Four friends, A, B, C and D distribute some money among themselves in such a manner that A
gets one less than B, C gets 5 more than D, D gets 3 more than B. Who gets the smallest
amount?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Solution: a)
20. Question
The music director of a film wants to select four persons to work on different aspects 2 points
of the composition of a piece of music. Seven persons are available for this work; they are
Rohit, Tanya, Shobha, Kaushal, Kunal, Mukesh and Jaswant. Rohit and Tanya will not work
together. Kunal and Shobha will not work together. Mukesh and Kunal want to work together.
Which of the following is the most acceptable group .of people that can be selected by the
music director?
a) Rohit, Shobha, Kunal and Kaushal

b) Tanya, Kaushal, Shobha and Rohit
c) Tanya, Mukesh, Kunal and Jaswant
d) Shobha, Tanya, Rohit and Mukesh
Solution: c)
RevisionTest11
2 points
1. Question
Which of the following factors DO NOT cause landslides?
1. Earthquakes
2. Floods
3. Volcanoes
4. Leaking pipes such as water and sewer reticulation
5. Removal of vegetation
6. Vibrations from heavy traffic, blasting, etc
a) 4 and 6 Only
b) 4 Only
c) 6 Only
d) All cause landslides
Solution: d)
NCERT Class VIII Geography – Page 12
2 points
2. Question
Which of the following is/are NOT methods of soil conservation?
1. Mixed Farming
2. Mulching
3. Intercropping
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 3 Only
d) All above methods protect soil
Solution: d)
NCERT Class VIII Geography – Page 13 – 14
http://www.fao.org/docrep/x5303e/x5303e09.htm
2 points
3. Question

1. Drinking salt water causes dehydration
2. Fresh water creates an isotonic environment for aquatic organisms
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Fresh water creates a hypotonic environment for aquatic organisms, which means it has a
lower osmotic pressure than another – a cell in this environment causes water to enter the cell,
causing it to swell.
http://science.howstuffworks.com/science-vs-myth/what-if/what-if-you-drink-saltwater1.htm
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fresh_water#Aquatic_organisms
2 points
4. Question
For a decade, numbers of three important species of vultures had been in a precipitous decline
throughout India due to consumption of carcasses recently treated with the drug diclofenac.
Which organ of birds did this drug affect and caused their death?
a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Heart
d) Stomach
Solution: b)
Extensive research has identified the cause of the decline to be ‘diclofenac’, a non-steroidal
anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used to treat livestock (Oaks et al. 2004, Shultz et al. 2004).
Vultures feeding on the carcasses of animals recently treated with the drug suffer renal failure
and die. Population modelling has demonstrated that even very low rates of diclofenac
contamination—between 1:130 and 1:760—are sufficient to account for the population crash
http://www.birdlife.org/datazone/sowb/casestudy/156
2 points
5. Question
The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora – a
multilateral treaty to protect endangered plants and animals, is also known as
a) The Washington Convention

b) The Nairobi Convention
b) The Nagoya Convention
Solution: a)
2 points
6. Question
Which of the following is NOT a Non – Metallic mineral?
1. Coal
2. Porphyry
3. Mica
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 3 Only
d) All are non - metallic minerals
Solution: d)
http://ec.europa.eu/eurostat/web/environmental-data-centre-on-natural-resources/natural-
resources/raw-materials/mineral-resources-non-metallic
2 points
7. Question
With reference to the Appalachians, consider the following statements:
1. They are a system of mountains in western North America

2. They are block mountains
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Appalachian_Mountains
2 points
8. Question
1. The oldest material of terrestrial origin that has been dated is a zircon mineral and is
found in Western Australia
2. Zirconium is a metallic mineral and it is placed in the periodic table
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
http://www.livescience.com/43584-earth-oldest-rock-jack-hills-zircon.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zirconium
2 points
9. Question
In which part of the world would you find Kalgoorlie – a prominent gold mine city?
a) South Africa
b) Western Australia
c) Southern Australia
d) Northern Australia
Solution: b)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kalgoorlie#Mining
2 points
10. Question
With reference to petroleum, consider the following statements:
1. Kerogen is an important part in the formation of petroleum beneath the earth

2. Brent Crude is a mixture that comes from 15 different oil fields between Nigeria and
Dubai
3. Brent crude has low sulfur content and has low density
4. India’s oil basket comprises mainly of Brent Crude
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2,3 and 4 Only
c) 1,2 and 3 Only
d) All are correct
Solution: c)
India’s oil basket comprises Oman-Dubai sour grade and dated Brent sweet crude in a
67.6:32.4 ratio.
http://nationalgeographic.org/encyclopedia/petroleum/ (important)
2 points
11. Question
1. LPG is mainly a mixture of a mixture of propane and butane, whereas CNG mainly
contains methane gas
2. CNG releases less greenhouse gases compared to LPG
3. LPG is more safer as it is lighter than air and disperses quickly when released
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 1 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) All are correct
Solution: c)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Compressed_natural_gas
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liquefied_petroleum_gas
http://www.diffen.com/difference/CNG_vs_LPG
2 points
12. Question
Like LPG, CNG is not used in cylinders for cooking at homes. Why?
a) CNG can not be liquified like LPG

b) CNG requires lower temperatures to store at homes
c) CNG provides less energy compared to same amount of LPG, and is not cost effective
Solution: c)
http://extension.psu.edu/natural-resources/natural-gas/news/2012/07/compressed-natural-
gas-for-home-use
https://www.quora.com/Fuels-Why-does-kitchen-cylinder-use-LPG-but-not-CNG-in-India
2 points
13. Question
1. India has about 25% of the world’s known thorium reserves

2. India’s 3 stage nuclear program was mainly conceived to use its thorium reserves for
energy generation
3. At present only one nuclear reactor in India is using thorium to generate commercially
viable energy
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/India%27s_three-
stage_nuclear_power_programme#Stage_III_.E2.80.93_Thorium_Based_Reactors
2 points
14. Question
As of now, which state in India has highest reserves of thorium bearing mineral?
a) Kerala
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Odisha
Solution: b)
2 points
15. Question
With reference to shifting cultivation, consider the following statements:
1. It adversely affects the recovery of soil fertility

2. It results in weed invasion
3. It can be used as a tool to combat climate change if effectively managed
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
http://www.iisc.ernet.in/currsci/nov25/articles12.htm
http://www.iwgia.org/publications/search-pubs?publication_id=514
http://bioscience.oxfordjournals.org/content/50/6/521.full
2 points
16. Question
1. It grows best in well-drained loam or clay-loam soils

2. It needs a lot of sunshine, especially when the grains are filling
3. The crop is grown as a rainfed crop in the temperate climates, in the sub-tropics with
winter rainfall
Which if this crop?
a) Sugarcane
b) Rice
c) Wheat
d) Maize
Solution: c)
http://kids.britannica.com/comptons/article-210174/wheat
http://www.fao.org/nr/water/cropinfo_wheat.html
2 points
17. Question
1. The Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL), which caused Bhopal Gas Tragedy, mainly
produced Methyl Isocyanate
2. Methyl isocyanate is an intermediate chemical in the production of carbamate pesticides
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)

UCIL stored MIC to produce chemicals such as plastics, industrial chemicals and pesticides.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Union_Carbide_India_Limited
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bhopal_disaster
2 points
18. Question
Five people A, B, C, D and E are, seated about a round table, Every chair is spaced equidistant
from adjacent chairs,
I. C is seated next to A.
II. A is seated two seats from D.
III. B is not seated next to A.
Which of the following must be true?
I. D is seated next to B.
II. E is seated next to A.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
Solution: c)
2 points
19. Question
Geeta is older than her cousin Meena, Meena’s brother Bipin is older than Geeta. When Meena
and Bipin visit Geeta, they like to play chess. Meena wins the game more often than Geeta.
Based on the above information, four conclusions, as given below, have been made. Which one
of these logically follows from the information given above?
a) While playing chess with Geeta and Meena, Bipin often loses.
b) Geeta is the oldest among the three.
c) Geeta hates to 10 the game.
d) Meena is the youngest of the three.
Solution: d)
2 points
20. Question
There are five hobby clubs in a college viz, photography, yachting, chess, electronics and
gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every
third day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day
and the photography group meets every sixth day. How many times do all the five groups meet
on the same day within 180 days?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 10
d) 18
Solution: a)
RevisionTest12
2 points
1. Question
With reference to Exclusive economic zone (EEZ), consider the following statements:
1. It confers a state full sovereignty over the waters in this zone

2. The surface waters in this region are international waters
3. If the continental shelf of the country extends beyond 200 nautical miles, that country
can claim EEZ beyond the approved 200 nautical miles
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: c)
NCERT Class X, Geography, Page – 2
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-hopes-to-double-its-eez/article2096905.ece
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Exclusive_economic_zone
2. Question
The 1992 Earth Summit resulted in which of the following documents/agreements? 2 points
1. Agenda 21
2. Forest Principles
3. Convention of Biological Diversity
4. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 1,2 and 3 Only
c) 1,3 and 4 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Earth_Summit
2 points
3. Question
The Club of Rome is mainly famous for
a) Its philanthropic work in the field of sustainable development

b) Its aid activities in Africa’s poorest nations
c) Its book on limited availability of natural resources and its impact on economic growth
Solution: c)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Club_of_Rome
2 points
4. Question
Which of the following are some of the direct causes of land degradation in India?
1. Deforestation
2. Shifting cultivation without adequate fallow periods
3. Overgrazing
4. Unbalanced fertilizer use
5. Overpumping of groundwater
a) 3,4 and 5 Only

b) 4 and 5 Only
c) 2,4 and 5 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
http://www.fao.org/docrep/v4360e/V4360E08.htm
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/a-third-of-indias-soil-degraded-
experts/article7950399.ece
5. Question
1. Alluvial soils are poor in phosphoric acid

2. Black soils are rich in calcium carbonate and magnesium
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
b) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b) [Contested]
NCERT Class X, Geography, Page – 8 – 10
Phosphorus (P) is an essential element classified as a macronutrient because of the relatively
large amounts of P required by plants. Phosphorus is one of the three nutrients generally added
to soils in fertilizers. So, it’s important to know which soil is rich in or lacks one of these 3
nutrients.
2 points
6. Question
1. Laterite soil develops in areas with heavy rainfall and low temperature
2. Humus content in laterite soil is very high
3. In its natural state, Laterite soil is very good for tea and coffee cultivation
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
All statements are incorrect.
2 points
7. Question
With reference to Strip Cropping, consider the following statements:
1. It’s used to prevent soil degradation

2. This method involves growing strips of grass between crops
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Soil erosion leads to soil degradation.
http://www.agriinfo.in/?page=topic&superid=1&topicid=443
2 points
8. Question
With reference to Chir Pine, consider the following statements:
1. Chir pine is among the most ubiquitous conifers in the Himalayan region and is not a
native of India
2. Large areas of Himalayan Oak have been replaced by Chir Pine due to afforestation
drive and for its resin product
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
NCERT Class X, Geography, Page – 16-17
It is native to India.
http://www.cseindia.org/agenda2011/everything_pine.htm
2 points
9. Question
Bhakra Dam is a
a) Embankment Dam
b) Concrete Arch Dam
c) Concrete Gravity Dam
d) Concrete Buttress Dam
Solution: c)
Types of dams is in Mains syllabus.
http://members.optusnet.com.au/~engineeringgeologist/page6.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bhakra_Dam
2 points
10. Question
With reference to Kul irrigation system, consider the following statements:
1. It is practised in the Eastern Himalayan region

2. It is a traditional rainwater harvesting technique
3. In this system, heads of glaciers are used to draw water in a sustainable manner
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All are correct
Solution: b)
It is practised in the Trans – Himalayan region, mainly in Spiti region.
http://www.rainwaterharvesting.org/methods/traditional/kuls.htm
2 points
11. Question
It is often said that to survive, Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern into
cereals to High Value Crops. Which of the following is/are High Value Crop?
1. Pulses
2. Vegetables
3. Fruits
4. Flowers
5. Cotton
a) 1,2,3 and 4 Only

b) 2,3,4 and 5 Only
c) 2,3 and 4 Only
d) All
Solution: c)
High value crops generally refer to non-staple agricultural crops such as vegetables, fruits,
flowers, ornamentals, condiments and spices2, 3. Most high value agricultural crops are those
known to have a higher net return per hectare of land than staples or other widely grown
crops. They therefore generally have a monetary value higher than staple crops in emerging
and expanding local, national, regional and global markets. High value crops and products
present an ideal opportunity for the poor in many developing countries to increase their income
by participation in commodity value chains, provided there is effective vertical coordination to
ensure that supply is in relative balance with demand.
2 points
12. Question
With reference to rat hole coal mining, consider the following statements:
1. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has banned on rat-hole coal mining in India
2. This type of mining is common in tribal belt of Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh
3. Rat – hole mining has resulted in increasing acidity level of water sources in the vicinity
of such mines
a) 2 Only
b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) 1 and 2 Only
Solution: b)
It was rampant in Meghalaya. Now it’s banned both by NGT and Meghalaya government.
http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/meghalaya-suspends-rathole-coal-mining-44432
http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/ngt-ban-on-rathole-mining-in-meghalaya-to-continue-
44701
2 points
13. Question
What is common between Kinkhwab, Pot-thans, Himru and Mashru?
a) They are types of silk clothes prominent in the Indian subcontinent

b) They are significant varieties of cotton textiles available in the Indian subcontinent
c) They are the varieties of clothes worn by Mughal emperors
Solution: a)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Silk_in_the_Indian_subcontinent
14. Question
Which of the following National Highways passes through Sri Nagar, Delhi, Jalandar, 2 points
Hyderabad and Bangalore?
a) NH - 44
b) NH - 6
c) NH - 7
d) NH - 48
Solution: a)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_National_Highways_in_India_by_highway_number
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Highway_44_(India)
15. Question
In which of the following regions in India corals are NOT found? 2 points
a) Gulf of Kutch
b) Gulf of Mannar
c) Lakshadweep Islands
d) Ganges Delta
Solution: d)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coral_reefs_in_India
2 points
16. Question
A, B, C, D and E belong to five different cities P, Q, R, Sand T (not necessarily in that order).
Each one of them comes from a different city. Further it is given that:
1. B and C do not belong to Q.
2. B and E do not belong to P and R.
3. A and C do not belong to R, Sand T.
4. D and E do not belong to Q and T.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a) C belongs to P
b) D belongs to R
c) A belongs to Q
d) B belongs to S
Solution: d)
2 points
17. Question
Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one is wearing a
cap of a different colour like violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see
in front of him green and blue, but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not red. G can
see caps of all colours other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo coloured cap, then the
colour of the cap worn by F is
a) Blue
b) Violet
c) Red
d) Orange
Solution: c)
2 points
18. Question
There are some balls of red, green and yellow colour lying on a table. There are as many red
balls as there are yellow balls. There are twice as many yellow balls as there are green ones.
The number of red balls
a) is equal to the sum of yellow and green balls.

b) is double the number of green balls.
c) is equal to yellow balls minus green balls.
d) cannot be ascertained.
Solution: b)
2 points
19. Question
In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th. When two boys joined, his rank was dropped by
one. What is his new rank from the end?
a) 25th
b) 26th
c) 27th
d) 28th
Solution: c)
2 points
20. Question
A thief running at 8 km/hr is chased by a policeman whose speed is 10 km/hr. If the thief is
100 m ahead of the policeman, then the time required for the policeman to catch the thief will
be
a) 2 min
b) 3 min
c) 4 min
d) 6 min
Solution: b)
RevisionTest13
1. Question
Which of the following processes have modified the composition of the early 2 points
atmosphere?
1. Degassing
2. Photosynthesis
3. Solar winds
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
NCERT Class XI Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Page – 17
http://www.britannica.com/topic/evolution-of-the-atmosphere-1703862
2 points
2. Question
1. Extinction of dinosaurs took place during the Jurassic period

2. First reptiles appeared during the Carboniferous period
3. Man first appeared during the Cretaceous period
a) 2 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
2 points
3. Question
1. The gravitation force (g) is same at different latitudes on the surface

2. Gravity changes with altitude

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
The gravitation force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. It is greater near
the poles and less at the equator. This is because of the distance from the centre at the
equator being greater than that at the poles
Explanation for why differs with altitude:
http://curious.astro.cornell.edu/about-us/42-our-solar-system/the-earth/gravity/93-does-
gravity-vary-across-the-surface-of-the-earth-intermediate
2 points
4. Question
Which of the following sources provide information about the interior of the earth?
1. Meteors
2. Mining activity
3. Gravitation
4. Magnetic field
5. Seismic activity
a) 2,3,4 and 5 Only

b) 3,4, and 5 Only
c) 2, 4 and 5 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
2 points
5. Question
The point at which the slip of an earthquake begins is called as
a) Hypocenter
b) Epicenter
c) Benioff zone
d) Focal depth
Solution: a)
http://earthquake.usgs.gov/learn/glossary/
2 points
6. Question
During earthquakes, Surface Waves cause the most surface destruction. Why?
a) Because of their larger amplitudes

b) Because of their high speed
c) Because they travel through any medium
Solution: a)
Explanation: http://www.sms-tsunami-warning.com/pages/seismic-waves#.V2PTi5N94dU
http://study.com/academy/lesson/energy-of-waves-amplitude-frequency-energy-loss.html
2 points
7. Question
With reference to asthenosphere, consider the following statements:
1. It is part of the lower lithosphere

2. It is convection currents generated within the asthenosphere that push magma upward
through volcanic vents
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
It is part of upper mantle.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Asthenosphere
2 points
8. Question
Earth’s outer core is in liquid state while the inner core is in solid state. Why?
a) Inner core is made up of heavier metals than outer core

b) Inner core is gravity neutral which keeps it in solid state
c) Inner core experiences more pressure compared to outer core
Solution: c)
http://scienceline.ucsb.edu/getkey.php?key=3659
http://earthscience.stackexchange.com/questions/530/why-is-earths-outer-core-liquid
2 points
9. Question
Alfred Wegener who proposed the Continental Drift theory, believed that the continents moved
apart due to
a) Convectional currents below lithosphere

b) Tidal forces caused by Sun and Moon
c) Pulling apart due to gravity anomalies over millions of years
Solution: b)
2 points
10. Question
Which of the following is/are volcanic hotspots?
1. Yellowstone National Park

2. Hawaii
3. Galapagos
4. Northeastern India
a) 1,2 and 4 Only

b) 1,2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) All
Solution: b)
Northeast India comes under deep earthquake zone formed due to plate movements.
2 points
11. Question
If you are standing above the Nazca tectonic plate, in which part of the world are you standing?
a) Western Atlantic Ocean

b) Eastern Pacific Ocean
c) Northern Pacific Ocean
d) Eastern part of South America
Solution: b)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazca_Plate
2 points
12. Question
Heat within the earth comes from which of the following sources?
1. Radioactive decay
2. Residual heat from planetary accretion
3. Solar fluctuations
4. Friction between various layers of earth
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1,2 and 4 Only
c) 1 and 4 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
The Earth’s internal heat comes from a combination of residual heat from planetary accretion,
heat produced through radioactive decay, and possibly heat from other sources. The major
heat-producing isotopes in the Earth are potassium-40, uranium-238, uranium-235, and
thorium-232.
For planetary accretion:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Accretion_(astrophysics)#Accretion_of_planets
2 points
13. Question
Which one of the following is the type of plate boundary of the Indian plate along the Himalayan
mountains?
a) Ocean-continent convergence
b) Divergent boundary
c) Transform boundary
d) Continent-continent convergence
Solution: d)
The Indian plate includes Peninsular India and the Australian continental portions. The
subduction zone along the Himalayas forms the northern plate boundary in the form of
continent— continent convergence. In the east, it extends through Rakinyoma Mountains of
Myanmar towards the island arc along the Java Trench. The eastern margin is a spreading site
lying to the east of Australia in the form of an oceanic ridge in SW Pacific.
2 points
14. Question
Which of the following cause metamorphism in rocks?
1. Hot magma
2. Pressure by overlying rocks
3. Tectonic shearing
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
2 points
15. Question
In the process of weathering, if oxidation takes place, the rock material usually breaks down.
Why?
a) Disturbance caused due to loss of oxygen

b) Disturbance caused due to addition of oxygen
c) Disturbance due to high pressure
Solution: b)
2 points
16. Question
A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels a distance of
72 km at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than its original speed. If it takes 3 hours to
complete the total journey, what is the original speed of the train in km/hr?
a) 24
b) 33
c) 42
d) 66
Solution: c)
2 points
17. Question
Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
Examine carefully the following statements and answer the three items that follow:
Out of four friends A, B, C and D,
A and B play football and cricket,
B and C play cricket and hockey,
A and D play basketball and football,
C and D play hockey and basketball.
Who does not play hockey?
a) D
b) C
c) B
d) A
Solution: d)
2 points
18. Question
Who plays football, basketball and hockey?
a) D
b) C
c) B
d) A
Solution: a)
2 points
19. Question
Which game do B, C and D play?
A) Basketball
b) Hockey
c) Cricket
d) Football
Solution: b)
1 points
20. Question
Following are the basic factors that control the formation of soils:
1. Parent material
2. Topography
3. Climate
4. Biological activity
Which of them is/are passive controls?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1, 2 and 3 Only
c. 1 and 3 Only
d. 1 Only
Solution: a)
NCERT Class XI Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Page – 56-57
RevisionTest14
2 points
1. Question
1. Unlike other features, beaches are permanent features created by waves and streams
2. A shingle beach is a beach which is armoured with pebbles or small- to medium-sized
cobbles
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
NCERT Class XI, Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Page – 71
No landform is permanent.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shingle_beach
2 points
2. Question
When a tsunami or storms approach, which of the following features first offer the buffer or
defence against them and absorb most of their destructive force?
a) The coastal off-shore bars

b) Mangroves
c) Beach dunes
c) Beach dunes
Solution: a)
The coastal off-shore bars offer the first buffer or defence against storm or tsunami by
absorbing most of their destructive force. Then come the barriers, beaches, beach dunes and
mangroves, if any, to absorb the destructive force of storm and tsunami waves. So, if we do
anything which disturbs the ‘sediment budget’ and the mangroves along the coast, these
coastal forms will get eroded away leaving human habitations to bear first strike of storm and
tsunami waves
2 points
3. Question
In which one of the following regions the chemical weathering process is more dominant than
the mechanical process?
a) Humid region
b) Arid region
c) Limestone region
d) Glacier region
Solution: c)
Chemical Weathering Processes

A group of weathering processes viz; solution, carbonation, hydration, oxidation and reduction
act on the rocks to decompose, dissolve or reduce them to a fine clastic state through chemical
reactions by oxygen, surface and/or soil water and other acids. Water and air (oxygen and
carbon dioxide) along with heat must be present to speed up all chemical reactions. Over and
above the carbon dioxide present in the air, decomposition of plants and animals increases the
quantity of carbon dioxide underground.
Above conditions are ample in limestone regions.
4. Question
Which of the following gases has high percentage of volume compared to other given 2 points
options in the Earth’s atmosphere?
a) Neon
b) Helium
c) Xenon
d) Hydrogen
Solution: a)
2 points
5. Question
Which of the following gases is transparent to the incoming solar radiation but opaque to the
outgoing terrestrial radiation?
a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Helium
Solution: d)
CO2 is transparent to the incoming solar radiation but opaque to the outgoing terrestrial
radiation.
Why?
https://www.quora.com/Why-is-carbon-dioxide-opaque-in-the-outgoing-terrestrial-radiation-
but-transparent-in-the-incoming-solar-radiation
2 points
6. Question
The Isotherms are lines joining places having equal temperature. On the North Atlantic Ocean
and surrounding land regions, in January, the isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean
and to the south over the continent. Why?
a) Due to presence of warm air masses on the land

b) Due to presence of warm ocean currents in North Atlantic ocean
c) Due to global warming
Solution: b)

In the northern hemisphere the land surface area is much larger than in the southern
hemisphere. Hence, the effects of land mass and the ocean currents are well pronounced. In
January the isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
This can be seen on the North Atlantic Ocean. The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf
Stream and North Atlantic drift, make the Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the isotherms
bend towards the north. Over the land the temperature decreases sharply and the isotherms
bend towards south in Europe.
2 points
7. Question
During summer, in which one of the following cities, are the days the longest?
a) Tiruvanantpuram
b) Hyderabad
c) Chandigarh
d) Nagpur
Solution: c)
The factor that determines the amount of insolation received is the angle of inclination of the
sun rays. This depends on the latitude of a place. The higher the latitude the less is the angle
they make with the surface of the earth resulting in slant sun rays (which means longer days).
Compared to other cities, Chandigarh is located in higher latitude, hence days are longer there.
2 points
8. Question
1. Near the equator the sea level pressure is usually high

2. Near the poles the sea level pressure is high, but lower than equator’s
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Good explanation given here:

https://www.quora.com/Atmospheric-Science-Why-do-the-poles-have-higher-air-pressure-
and-equator-lower-air-pressure
2 points
9. Question
1. The rotation of the earth about its axis has no impact on the direction of the wind
2. The frictional force affects wind speed – its influence is greatest at the surface
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
2 points
10. Question
At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero. Why?
a) The Earth is wider at the Equator

b) The Earth rotates faster at the equator
c) The forces that cause Coriolis force cancel each other at equator
d) All the above
Solution: d)
http://nationalgeographic.org/encyclopedia/coriolis-effect/
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2015/01/20/4-why-is-coriolis-force-zero-at-the-equator-also-
explain-why-cyclones-rotate-clockwise-in-northern-hemisphere/
11. Question
1. At the intertropical convergence zone ITCZ), the northeast and southeast trade winds
come together
2. Variation in the location of the intertropical convergence zone drastically affects rainfall
in many equatorial nations
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intertropical_Convergence_Zone
2 points
12. Question
The energy that intensifies the tropical cyclone mainly comes from
a) The condensation process in the towering cumulonimbus clouds, surrounding the

centre of the storm
b) The heat generated by its rotation speed
a) The heat captured from the Sun rays
d) High speed winds blowing near the Equator
Solution: a)
The energy that intensifies the storm, comes from the condensation process in the towering
cumulonimbus clouds, surrounding the centre of the storm. With continuous supply of moisture
from the sea, the storm is further strengthened. On reaching the land the moisture supply is
cut off and the storm dissipates.
2 points
13. Question
Which one of the following is the source region for the formation of air masses?
a) the Equatorial forest

b) the Siberian Plain
c) the Himalayas
d) the Deccan Plateau
Solution: b)
A source region must have certain temperature and humidity properties that can remain fixed
for a substantial length of time to affect air masses above it.
Air mass source regions occur only in the high or low latitudes; middle latitudes are too
variable.
Siberian plains plain fulfills above criteria, whereas other regions do not.
2 points
14. Question
These clouds are formed at high altitudes (8,000 – 12,000m). They are thin and detatched
clouds having a feathery appearance. They are always white in colour.
To which of the following clouds, above description refers?
a) Stratus
b) Nimbus
a) Cirrus
d) Cumulus
Solution: c)
1 points
15. Question
Which of the following factors majorly affect the distribution of temperature of ocean water?
1. Latitude
2. Unequal distribution of land and water
3. Salinity
4. Ocean currents
5. Depth
a) 1,2 and 3 Only

b) 1,2 and 4 Only
c) 1,2,3 and 4 Only
d) All
Solution: b)
RevisionTest15
2 points
1. Question
Which of the following states of India share their borders at least with three neighbouring
countries?
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Jammu and Kashmir
3. Sikkim
4. Assam
5. West Bengal
a) 1,2 and 5 Only

b) 1,2 and 3 Only
c) 1,2,3 and 4 Only
d) 1,2,3 and 5 Only
Solution: d)
Assam shares its border only with Bhutan and Bangladesh
NCERT Class XI India Physical Environment Geography , Page – 3
2. Question
Which of the pilgrimage site is NOT located in Jammu and Kashmir? 2 points
1. Vaishno Devi
2. Amarnath Cave
3. Charar -e-Sharif
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 3 Only
d) All are located in J&K
Solution: d)
2 points
3. Question
The Barak River is one of the major rivers of South Assam and is a part of the Surma-Meghna
River System. Through which of the following states it does NOT pass through?
a) Nagaland
b) Manipur
c) Assam
d) Mizoram
Solution: a)
It rises in the hill country of Manipur State,[1] where it is the biggest and the most important of
the hill country rivers.[1] After Manipur it flows through Mizoram State and into Assam, ending
just after it enters Bangladesh where the Surma and Kushiyara rivers begin
4. Question
The Northeastern Plateau of India is an extension of 2 points
a) The Eastern Himalayas

b) The Peninsular Plateau
c) The Arakan mountains
d) The Tibetan Plateau
Solution: b)
In fact it is an extension of the main Peninsular plateau. It is believed that due to the force
exerted by the northeastward movement of the Indian plate at the time of the Himalayan origin,
a huge fault was created between the Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya plateau. Later, this
depression got filled up by the deposition activity of the numerous rivers
2 points
5. Question
Which one of the water bodies separates the Andaman from the South Andaman?
a) 11° Channel
b) 10° Channel
c) Duncan Passage
d) Coco Channel
Solution: c) [Duncan Passage lies between South Andaman and Little Andaman]
http://www.ananyahotels.com/images/MAPandaman.jpg
6. Question
Which of the following is/are NOT tributaries of the Indus River? 2 points
1. The Gilgit
2. The Zaskar
3. The Jhelum
4. The Chenab
5. The Hunza
a) 1,2 and 5 Only

b) 2 and 5 Only
c) 5 Only
d) All are its tributaries
Solution: c)
NCERT Class-XI India Physical Environment, Page-24
7. Question 2 points
The Subansiri, a major tributary of the Brahmaputra River, which has its origin in Tibet, is an
antecedent river. Which of the following statements correctly explains the meaning of
antecedent river?
a) It is a stream formed before the main river to which it joins

b) It is a stream that has its origin in different country than the main river’s
c) It is a river that flows opposite to main river course and joins it as tributary
Solution: d)
An antecedent stream is a stream that maintains its original course and pattern despite the
changes in underlying rock topography. A stream with a dendritic drainage pattern, for
example, can be subject to slow tectonic uplift. However, as the uplift occurs, the stream
erodes through the rising ridge to form a steep-walled gorge. The stream thus keeps its
dendritic pattern even though it flows over a landscape that will normally produce a trellis
drainage pattern.
8. Question
The pattern of flow of water in a river channel over a year is known as its regime. 2 points
The Ganga river regime has its minimum flow during which of the following months?
a) July to August
b) September to December
c) January to June
d) Both a and b
Solution: c)
The Ganga has its minimum flow during the January-June period. The maximum flow is
attained either in August or in September. After September, there is a steady fall in the flow.
The river, thus, has a monsoon regime during the rainy season.
2 points
9. Question
1. The jet stream doesn’t influence the winter weather in India

2. An increase in the prevailing night temperature generally indicates an advance in the
arrival of western cyclones disturbances in the northern India
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
NCERT Class XI India Physical Environment Geography , Page – 35 – 36
Tibetan highlands act as a barrier in the path of these jet streams. As a result, jet streams get
bifurcated. One of its branches blows to the north of the Tibetan highlands, while the southern
branch blows in an eastward direction, south of the Himalayas. It has its mean position at 25°N
in February at 200-300 mb level. It is believed that this southern branch of the jet stream
exercises an important influence on the winter weather in India.
2 points
10. Question
The El-Nino results in which of the following?
1. Favourable monsoon in India

2. The distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation
3. Irregularities in the evaporation of sea water
4. Reduction in the amount of planktons which further reduces the number of fish in the
sea
a) 2,3 and 4 Only

b) 3 and 4 Only
c) 1, 2 and 4 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
2 points
11. Question
Consider the following statements;
1. In summer, the ITCZ moves southwards and occupies position at 19 degree latitude in
India
2. Southwesterly monsoon are in reality ‘displaced’ equatorial westerlies
3. Dust storms in the evening which are very common during May in Punjab, Haryana,
Eastern Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh bring a welcome respite from the oppressing heat
waves
a) 2 and 3 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
2 points
12. Question
Which one of the following is not a fact regarding South India?
a) Diurnal range of temperature is less here

b) Annual range of temperature is less here
c) Temperatures here are high throughout the year
d) Extreme climatic conditions are found here
Solution: d)
The hot weather season in south India is mild and not so intense as found in north India. The
Peninsular situation of south India with moderating effect of the oceans keeps the temperatures
lower than that prevailing in north India. So, temperatures remain between 26°C and 32°C.
Due to altitude, the temperatures in the hills of Western Ghats remain below 25°C.
2 points
13. Question
In which type of forests do you find MOST of naxalite insurgency in India?
a) Moist deciduous forests

b) Dry deciduous forests
c) Tropical semi-evergreen forests
d) Tropical rain forests
Solution: b)
NCERT Class XI India Physical Environment Geography , Page – 58 – 59
Their activity is spread over many types of forests, but it’s concentrated mainly in the dry
deciduous forests of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar, Odisha and Telangana
14. Question
1. Yellow soil indicates the presence of iron oxides

2. The coarse grained yellow soil is more fertile than fine grained soil
3. Yellow and red soils are also found in parts of Orissa and Chhattisgarh and in the
southern parts of the middle Ganga plain
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: c)
Fine-grained soil is more fertile.
2 points
15. Question
1. The tropical cyclones in India originate both in the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal
2. In case of the Bay of Bengal, cyclones mostly develop during the months of monsoon
arrival
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
2 points
16. Question
Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following statements and answer the four items that follow:
Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different modes of transport as follows:
P and Q are connected by boat as well as rail.
S and R are connected by bus and boat.
Q and T are connected by air only.
P and R are connected by boat only.
T and R are connected by rail and bus.
Which mode of transport would help one to reach R starting from Q, but without changing the
mode of transport?
a) Boat
b) Rail
c) Bus
d) Air
Solution: a)
2 points
17. Question
If a person visits each of the places starting from P and gets back to P, which of the following
places must he visit twice?
a) Q
b) R
c) S
d) T
Solution: b)
2 points
18. Question
Which one of the following pairs of cities is connected by any of the routes directly without
going to any other city?
a) P and T
b) T and S
c) Q and R
d) None of these
Solution: d)
2 points
19. Question
Between which two cities among the pairs of cities given below are there maximum travel
options available?
a) Q and S
b) P and R
c) P and T
d) Q and R
Solution: a)
RevisionTest16
2 points
1. Question
1. The Indian Constitution does not make ethnic identity a criterion for citizenship
2. The legitimacy of the Indian Constitution lies in the fact that it was drawn by credible
people
3. The Indian Constitution was never subject to any referendum, hence it lacks legitimacy
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d) [DOUBT] (a)
NCERT Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Page 11 – 12
Some countries have subjected their constitution to a full-fledged referendum, where all the
people vote on the desirability of a constitution. The Indian Constitution was never subject to
such a referendum, but nevertheless carried enormous public authority, because it had the
consensus and backing of leaders who were themselves popular. Although the Constitution
itself was not subjected to a referendum, the people adopted it as their own by abiding by its
provisions. Therefore, the authority of people who enact the constitution helps determine in
part its prospects for success.
2 points
2. Question
1. The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by indirect election by the
members of the Provisional Legislative Assemblies that had been established in 1935
2. The Constituent Assembly was composed roughly along the lines suggested by the plan
proposed by the Cabinet Mission
3. In the Constituent Assembly, Princely States had more representatives than from
province under direct British rule
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
NCERT Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Page 15
Each Province and each Princely State or group of States were allotted seats proportional to
their respective population roughly in the ratio of 1:10,00,000. As a result the Provinces (that
were under direct British rule) were to elect 292 members while the Princely States were
allotted a minimum of 93 seats.
2 points
3. Question
With reference to the Objectives Resolution moved by Nehru in 1946 in the Constituent
Assembly, consider the following statements:
1. It defined the aims of the Constituent Assembly

2. It reflected the principles that the nationalist movement brought to the Constituent
Assembly
3. Fundamental commitments like equality, liberty, democracy, sovereignty were given
institutional basis in the Constitution thanks to this Resolution
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
2 points
4. Question
The institution of the Speaker and his role was borrowed by the Indian Constitution from which
of the following Constitution?
a) United States Constitution

b) Canadian Constitution
c) French Constitution
d) British Constitution
Solution: d)
2 points
5. Question
1. Ordinary rights may be changed by the legislature by ordinary process of law making
2. Fundamental right may only be changed by amending the Constitution itself
3. Fundamental rights are absolute
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 2 Only
d) 2 and 3 Only
Solution: b)
Fundamental Rights are different from other rights available to us. While ordinary legal rights
are protected and enforced by ordinary law, Fundamental Rights are protected and guaranteed
by the constitution of the country. Ordinary rights may be changed by the legislature by
ordinary process of law making, but a fundamental right may only be changed by amending the
Constitution itself. Besides this, no organ of the government can act in a manner that violates
them.
2 points
6. Question
The Article 16 (4) of the Constitution of India which states that “Nothing in this article shall
prevent the State from making any provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in
favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately
represented in the services under the State,” fulfills which commitment in the Preamble?
a) Equality of status
b) Equality of opportunity
c) Political justice
d) Economic justice
Solution: b)
2 points
7. Question
Which of the following is/are considered as Fundamental Rights by courts in India?
1. The Right to shelter

2. The Right to live with human dignity
3. The right against hand cuffing
4. The right to go abroad
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 Only
c) 1,2 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
The meaning of the word life includes the right to live in fair and reasonable conditions, right to
rehabilitation after release, right to live hood by legal means and decent environment. The
expanded scope of Article 21 has been explained by the Apex Court in the case of Unni
Krishnan v. State of A.P. and the Apex Court itself provided the list of some of the rights
covered under Article 21 on the basis of earlier pronouncements and some of them are listed
below:
(1) The right to go abroad.
(2) The right to privacy.
(3) The right against solitary confinement.
(4) The right against hand cuffing.
(5) The right against delayed execution.
(6) The right to shelter.
(7) The right against custodial death.
(8) The right against public hanging.
(9) Doctors assistance
Source: http://www.legalserviceindia.com/articles/art222.htm
8. Question
In India, the Freedom of religion also includes the freedom of conscience. It means 2 points
1. An individual has freedom to think that he does not belong to any religion
2. An individual has freedom to choose any religion
3. An individual can choose not to stand up during the playing of the national anthem
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d) [DOUBT]- (a) There was a circular by MHA regarding this.

http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Madurai/need-not-stand-up-when-national-anthem-is-
played/article7935853.ece
The court ruled that there is no legal provision that obliges anyone to sing the National Anthem,
and it is not disrespectful to the Anthem if a person who stands up respectfully when it is being
sung does not join in the singing.
http://indianexpress.com/article/explained/standing-for-anthem-theres-no-law-only-
convention/
9. Question
1. The Supreme Court has ruled that the right to property is part of the basic structure of
the Constitution
2. The 42nd amendment to the Constitution removed the right to property from the list of
Fundamental Rights
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
It is not part of basic structure and was removed by 44th Amendment.
2 points
10. Question
With reference to the First Past the Post (FPTP) system, consider the following statements:
1. In this system, the winning candidate need not secure a majority of the votes
2. Proportional representation is used to elect the UK parliament
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
In UK it’s FPTP which is used as in India.
2 points
11. Question

1. In the Proportional Representation (PR) system a party gets the same proportion of
seats as its proportion of votes
2. The Constitution of India prescribes a complex variation of the PR system for the
election of President and Vice President
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
2 points
12. Question
1. The Election Commission is not responsible for the conduct of local body elections
2. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) has more powers than the other Election
Commissioners
3. The Chief Justice of India plays crucial role in the appointment of the Chief Election
Commissioner
a) 2 and 3 Only
b) 1 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) All
Solution: b)
2 points
13. Question
1. The only ground for impeachment of the President of India is violation of the Constitution
2. The removal President through impeachment is a quasi-judicial process
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
2 points
14. Question
1. In India, the Council of Ministers cannot exist without the Prime Minister
2. The Prime Minister is not obliged to communicate to the President all decisions of the
Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and
proposals for legislation
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
2 points
15. Question
1. If a minister does not agree with a policy or decision of the cabinet, he may choose not
to accept it and continue to be cabinet minister
2. A vote of no confidence even against a single minister leads to the resignation of the
entire Council of Ministers
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b) [DOUBT]
2 points
16. Question
Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
Read the following passage and answer the three items that follow:
A tennis coach is trying to put together a team of four players for the forthcoming tournament.
For this 7 players are available: males A, Band C; and females W, X, Y and Z. All players have
equal capability and at least 2 males will be there in the team. For a team of four, all players
must be able to play with each other. But, B cannot play with W, C cannot play with Z and W
cannot play with Y.
If Y is selected and B is rejected, the team will consist of which one of the following groups?
a) A, C, W and Y
b) A, C, X and Y
c) A, C, Y and Z
d) A, W, Y and Z
Solution: b)
2 points
17. Question
If B is selected and Y is rejected, the team will consist of which one of the following groups?
a) A, B, C and W
b) A, B, C and Z
c) A, B, C and X
d) A, W, Y and Z
Solution: c)
2 points
18. Question
If all the three males’ are selected, then how many combinations of four member teams are
possible?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Solution: b)
RevisionTest17
2 points
1. Question
1. The Supreme Court can decide whether to admit appeals even when appeal is not allowed by
the High Court
2. If the President of India refers any matter that is of public importance or that which involves
interpretation of Constitution to the Supreme Court for advice, the Court is bound to give
advice on such matters to the head of the State
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
NCERT Class XI, Indian COnstitution at Work, Page – 133
In addition to original and appellate jurisdiction, the Supreme Court of India possesses advisory
jurisdiction also. This means that the President of India can refer any matter that is of public
importance or that which involves interpretation of Constitution to Supreme Court for advice.
However, the Supreme Court is not bound to give advice on such matters and the President is not
bound to accept such an advice.
2 points
2. Question
Under its original jurisdiction, which of the following cases can the Supreme Court consider for
hearing?
a) Enforcement of Fundamental Rights

b) Disputes between Government of India and state governments
c) Dispute between two or more States
d) All the above
Solution: d)
The Supreme Court has original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction. Its exclusive original jurisdiction
extends to any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States or between the
Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other or
between two or more States, if and insofar as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or of
fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends. In addition, Article 32 of the
Constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of
Fundamental Rights. It is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature
of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari to enforce them.
2 points
3. Question
Which of the following have the right to decide whether various matters are part of the basic structure
of the Constitution?
a) The Parliament
b) The President
c) The Supreme Court
d) Both a and b
Solution: c)
In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court has ruled that it has the right to decide whether
various matters are part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
2 points
4. Question
Consider the following statements
1. There is no mention of the word federation in the Constitution of India

2. The economic and financial powers are centralised in the hands of the central government by
the Constitution of India
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
2 points
5. Question
For which of the following reasons, framers of the Indian Constitution created strong Centre?
1. To help bring social and political change in the country

2. To stem disintegration of the newly independent country
3. To integrate Princely states with India
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 2 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
2 points
6. Question
With reference to Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. President’s rule can be extended till three years

2. The President’s proclamation has to be ratified by Parliament
3. The Governor has the power to recommend the dismissal of the State government , but NOT
suspension or dissolution of State assembly
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
One of the most controversial articles in the Constitution is Article 356, which provides for President’s
rule in any State. This provision is to be applied, when ‘a situation has arisen in which the
Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.’ It
results in the takeover of the State government by the Union government. The President’s
proclamation has to be ratified by Parliament. President’s rule can be extended till three years. The
Governor has the power to recommend the dismissal of the State government and suspension or
dissolution of State assembly.
2 points
7. Question
With reference to the changes brought about by the 73rd amendment in Panchayati Raj institutions,
consider the following statements:
1. All the three levels of Panchayati Raj institutions are elected directly by the people
2. The Gram Sabha would comprise of all the adult members residing in the Panchayat area
3. Creation of Mandal or Taluka Panchayat is compulsory in all states
4. A State Election Commissioner who is under the control of the Election Commission of India,
would be responsible for conducting elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions
a) 1 and 4 Only
b) 1,2 and 4 Only
c) 1,2 and 3 Only
d) 3 and 4 Only
Solution: a)
NCERT Class XI, Indian COnstitution at Work, Page – 184 – 187
2 points
8. Question
WIth reference to passing amendment bill in the parliament, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution provides provision for holding joint session to pass certain amendments of
national interest
2. If only 273 members are present at the time of voting in the Lok Sabha, the amendment bill
must get the support of all 273 members
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Ordinarily, all business of the legislature requires that a motion or resolution or bill should get the
support of a simple majority of the members voting at that time. Suppose that at the time of voting on
a bill, 247 members were present in the house and all of them participated in the voting on the bill.
Then, the bill would be passed if at least 124 members voted in favour of the bill. Not so in the case
of an amendment bill. Amendment to the Constitution requires two different kinds of special
majorities: in the first place, those voting in favour of the amendment bill should constitute at least
half of the total strength of that House. Secondly, the supporters of the amendment bill must also
constitute two-thirds of those who actually take part in voting. Both Houses of the Parliament must
pass the amendment bill separately in this same manner (there is no provision for a joint session).
For every amendment bill, this special majority is required. Can you see the significance of this
requirement? In the Lok Sabha there are 545 members. Therefore, any amendment must be
supported by a minimum of 273 members. Even if only 300 members are present at the time of
voting, the amendment bill must get the support of 273 out of them.
9. Question
Consider the following landmark cases: 2 points
1. Shankari Prasad case v. Union of India

2. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
3. Golak Nath vs. The State of Punjab
4. Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
5. Kesavananda Bharati v. The State of Kerala
Which of the following options has correctly arranged the chronology of above cases from earliest to
the latest?
a) 1-4-3-2-5
b) 1-5-3-2-4
c) 1-3-5-2-4
d) 5-4-3-2-1
Solution: c)
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-case-that-saved-indian-democracy/article4647800.ece
2 points
10. Question
With reference to the Government of India Act of 1935, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the establishment of Reserve Bank of India

2. It provided for the establishment of Provincial Public Service Commission
3. It introduced provincial autonomy
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter – 1
2 points
11. Question
Which of the following functions were NOT performed by the Constituent Assembly?
1. Adopting the National Anthem

2. Ratifying India’s membership of the Commonwealth
3. Adopting National Flag
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All were performed by the Assembly
Solution: d)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter – 2 (Making of the Constitution)
2 points
12. Question
In which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution, Indian version of Secularism is implicit?
1. Article 14
2. Article 15
3. Article 25
4. Article 29
5. Article 17
a) 1,2 and 3 Only

b) 1,3,4 and 5 Only
c) 1,2,3 and 4 Only
d) All
Solution: c)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter – 3 (Salient Features of the Constitution)
2 points
13. Question
With reference to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. It is considered by the Supreme Court as part of the Constitution

2. The Supreme Court has held that the preamble can not be amended
3. The preamble was the first of all the parts of the constitution to be drafted
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 Only
c) 2 Only
d) 2 and 3 Only
Solution: b)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter – 4 (Preamble of the Constitution)
2 points
14. Question
Which of the following are unitary or non-federal features of the Indian Constitution?
1. Integrated judiciary
2. Single citizenship
3. Flexibility of constitution
4. Rigidity of constitution
Select the correct answer using codes below?
a) 1,2 and 3 Only

b) 1, 2 and 4 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter – 3 (Salient Features of the Constitution)
Flexible constitution gives centre more power to amend it, hence it’s non-federal in nature
2 points
15. Question
1. The decision of Supreme Court is final in resolving doubts and disputes in connection with
election of the President of India
2. The nominated members of both the houses of parliament can not participate in the
impeachment of the President
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter – 18 (President)
2 points
16. Question
1. The functions of Council of Ministers is determined by the Cabinet

2. The ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Prime Minister
3. Cabinet is part of the council of ministers
a) 3 Only
b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: b)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter – 21 (Central Council of Ministers)
2 points
17. Question
Direction for the following 5 (five) items:

Study the two figures given below and answer the five items that follow:
How many Physics professors belong to the age group 35 – 44?
(a) 18
b) 16
c) 14
d) 12
Solution: b)
2 points
18. Question
Which one of the following disciplines has the highest ratio of males to females?
(a) Physics
(b) Mathematics
(c) Chemistry
(d) Economics
Solution: a)
2 points
19. Question
What percentage of all Psychology professors are females?
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 70%
Solution: c)
2 points
20. Question
If the Psychology professors in the University constitute 2% of all the professors in the University, then
what is the number of professors in the University?
(a) 400
(b) 500
(c) 600
(d) 700
Solution: b)
2 points
21. Question
If the number of female Physics professors in the age group 25 – 34 equals 25% of all the Physics
professors in that age group, then what is the number of male Physics professors in the age group 25
– 34?
a) 9
b) 6
c) 3
d) 2
Solution: a)
RevisionTest18
2 points
1. Question
The Fourth Schedule in the Constitution of India deals with
a) Salary of President, Governors, Chief Judges

b) Allocation of seats for each state of India in Rajya Sabha
c) Forms of Oaths and affirmations
d) Allocation of powers and functions between Union & States
Solution: b)
Indian Polity by Laxmikanth, Chapter 22 (Parliament)
http://www.constitution.org/cons/india/schedule.html
2 points
2. Question
Which of the following arguments is/are put forward to abolish Rajya Sabha?
1. Lok Sabha adequately represents all states and sections through regional parties, hence
no need of another House
2. Rajya Sabha has become a haven for losers in elections, crony capitalists and similar
others
3. Role of Rajya Sabha in delaying passing of bills meant to bring reforms
4. Rajya Sabha is acting as roadblock in government’s efforts to spend more money on
important projects
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1,2 and 3 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: b)
Fourth argument is invalid as Rajya Sabha has little say in government spending (money bills).
Other three reasons are mentioned in following articles.
http://www.livemint.com/Opinion/ZhlriTSTMkik4PP5p6xSWI/Is-the-Rajya-Sabha-essential.html
http://www.huffingtonpost.in/k-s-venkatachalam/has-rajya-sabha-served-th_b_8809174.html
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-opinion/revisiting-the-rajya-sabhas-
role/article8757501.ece
2 points
3. Question
1. American Senate (Upper House) has no nominated members

2. Tamil Nadu sends second highest number of members to Rajya Sabha next to Uttar
Pradesh
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Maharashtra sends 19 members

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rajya_Sabha_members_from_Maharashtra
2 points
4. Question
1. The Constitution ensures that there is uniformity of representation in Lok Sabha

between the different constituencies in the same state
2. The present Constituencies are carved out on the basis of 2011 census
3. India will not have delimitation of constituencies till the first census after 2026
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
Under Article 82 of the Constitution, the Parliament by law enacts a Delimitation Act after every
census. After coming into force commencement of the Act, the Central Government constitutes
a Delimitation Commission. This Delimitation Commission demarcates the boundaries of the
Parliamentary Constituencies as per provisions of the Delimitation Act. The present delimitation
of constituencies has been done on the basis of 2001 census figures under the provisions of
Delimitation Act, 2002. Notwithstanding the above, the Constitution of India was specifically
amended in 2002 not to have delimitation of constituencies till the first census after 2026. Thus,
the present Constituencies carved out on the basis of 2001 census shall continue to be in
operation till the first census after 2026.
http://eci.nic.in/eci_main1/delimitation_faq.aspx
2 points
5. Question
1. During national emergency, the term of the Lok Sabha can be extended for one year at
a time for any length of time by passing a law in parliament
2. If the President dissolves Lok Sabha before its completion of term, it can be challenged
in the Supreme Court
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
As long as emergency is there, Lok Sabha can prolong its term by passing an act year after
year.
President’s decision of dissolution of Lok Sabha can not be questioned in any court of law.
2 points
6. Question
1. If a member of Parliament (MP) has voluntarily acquired citizenship of a foreign country,

he stands disqualified as MP
2. If an MP assumes office of president of BCCI, he/she can be disqualified from
membership of parliament
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is wrong as there is no such rule to disqualify a member unless he/she is a
director/managing agent is a corporation where government’s stake is at least 25%
2 points
7. Question
With reference to the Defection Law, consider the following statements:
1. A member of parliament can not be disqualified if he voluntarily gives up membership of

the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the house
2. If an independently elected member joins a political party, he can be disqualified
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
A member of parliament CAN BE disqualified if he voluntarily gives up membership of the

political party on whose ticket he is elected to the house
Please read this important post:
http://www.prsindia.org/media/articles-by-prs-team/in-parliament-part-1-961/
2 points
8. Question
1. In any instance, deputy speaker of Lok Sabha can not preside over the joint sitting of
both the Houses of Parliament
2. Deputy speaker is subordinate and responsible to the Speaker
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Deputy speaker can reside joint sitting in the absence of speaker.
He/she is not subordinate to speaker. he/she is directly responsible to the house.
2 points
9. Question
Who decides the questions of disqualification of an MP (Lok Sabha) arising on the ground of
defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule?
a) The President
b) The Speaker
d) The Party to which he belongs
Solution: b)
Following the 52nd Constitution amendment, the Speaker is vested with the power relating to
the disqualification of a member of the Lok Sabha on grounds of defection. However his
decision is subject to judicial review.
10. Question
2 points
1. Prorogation of a session of the House is done by its presiding officer

2. Prorogation of house brings to an end all bills or any other business pending before the
house
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Prorogation is done by the President. In UK prorogation end all pending bills and business, but
not in India.
2 points
11. Question
With reference to Money Bills, consider the following statements:
1. If a Bill seeks to abolish tax powers of local bodies, it can be introduced as Money Bill
2. A money bill can be introduced only on the recommendation of President
3. Recently the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and
Services) Bill, 2016 was passed as money bill

a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is wrong as it is mentioned in the Constitution that a Bill shall not be deemed to be
a Money Bill by reason only that it provides for the imposition of fines or other pecuniary
penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for licences or fees for services rendered, or
by reason that it provides for the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or
regulation of any tax by any local authority or body for local purposes.
http://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/the-aadhaar-targeted-delivery-of-financial-and-other-
subsidies-benefits-and-services-bill-2016-4202/
2 points
12. Question
Which of the following Committees of Parliament has most number of members?
a) Public Accounts Committee

b) Estimates Committee
c) Committee on Public Undertakings
d) Business Advisory Committee
Solution: b)
http://parliamentofindia.nic.in/ls/intro/p21.htm
2 points
13. Question
With reference to Ethics Committee of Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. It was first constituted by Lok Sabha

2. This committee examines cases concerning the alleged breach of the Code of Conduct
by members as also cases concerning allegations of any other ethical misconduct of
members
3. Ethics Committee in Lok Sabha is headed by L.K.Advani
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: c)
http://rajyasabha.nic.in/rsnew/committees/committ_ethics_rules.asp
http://rajyasabha.nic.in/rsnew/publication_electronic/ethics_committee.pdf
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/advani-is-chairman-of-lok-sabhas-ethics-
committee/article6419410.ece
14. Question
1. The Indian parliament can be regarded as sovereign body

2. High courts in India can declare the laws enacted by parliament as void and
unconstitutional
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
In UK parliament is regarded as a sovereign body, but not in India owing to many limitations
put on it by the constitution.
2 points
15. Question
Which of the following is considered as the Guardian of the Constitution in India?
a) The President
b) The Parliament
a) The Council of Ministers
Solution: c)
Indian Polity by Laxmikanth, Chapter 23 (Supreme Court)
RevisionTest19
2 points
1. Question
Which of the following authority is authorized by the constitution to appoint other place or
places as seat of the Supreme Court?
a) The President
b) The Chief Justice of India
c) The Parliament
d) The Union Cabinet
Solution: b)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth – Chapter 23 (Supreme Court)
2 points
2. Question
1. Under any circumstances, the conduct of Supreme Court judges in their discharge of
duties can not be discussed in Parliament
2. If necessary, the Parliament is authorized to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the
Supreme Court
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
During impeachment of judge of Supreme Court, parliament can discuss his/her conduct.
Parliament is not authorized to curtail supreme court’s powers. However, it can extend the
same.
2 points
3. Question
Which of the following cases do not come under Supreme Court’s Original jurisdiction?
1. Recovery of damages by a state against the Centre

2. Inter – state water disputes
3. Ordinary dispute of commercial nature between the Centre and the states
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
2 points
4. Question
1. The Indian Supreme Court defends rights of the citizen according to the due process of
law
2. Compared to American Supreme Court, Indian Supreme Court’s scope of judicial review
is very wide
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Indian Supreme Court follows ‘procedure established by law’ – in simple words – means if the
procedure is correct in enacting a law, then the law is valid. It has limited scope for
interpretation.
To know why India adopted this principle:
http://www.frontline.in/static/html/fl2905/stories/20120323290507900.htm
2 points
5. Question
With reference to Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) consider the following statements:
1. CAT is not bound by Civil Procedure Code

2. CAT is a constitutional body
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
A body created by an amendment to the constitution is also a constitutional body.
http://cgat.gov.in/intro.htm
2 points
6. Question
1. The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court is consulted by the President for
appointing judges to that High Court
2. The Governor of concerned state is not consulted by the President while appointing Chief
Justice to his state’s High Court
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth – Chapter 28 (High Court)
2 points
7. Question
1. In India a naturalized citizen is eligible for the office of President

2. Canada has adopted the system of dual citizenship
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth – Chapter 6 (Citizenship)

US and Switzerland have dual citizenship. India has adopted Canada’s model of single
citizenship and uniform rights.
2 points
8. Question

1. Recipients of Bharat Ratna using the title as a prefix or suffix to their name violate
Article 18 of the Constitution
2. Article 18 prohibits a citizen of India from accepting any title from any foreign state
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth – Chapter 7 (Fundamental Rights)
2 points
9. Question
1. According to Article 21, the state can deprive the right to life and personal liberty of a
person based on law
2. Right to information is part of Article 21
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)

Statement 1 is interpreted as such by the Supreme Court itself (Thanks to explicit mention of
‘procedure established by law’ principle under Article 21 in the Constitution)
2 points
10. Question
Which Article of Indian Constitution prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14
years in any factory?
a) Article 21
b) Article 22
c) Article 23
d) Article 24
Solution: d)
2 points
11. Question
1. Indian Constitution lays down that no person shall be compelled to pay any fees for the
promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination
2. Under Indian Constitution, all minorities have right to establish and administer
educational institutions of their choice
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
In statement it should be TAXES, not FEES. Fees can be levied, not taxes.
2 points
12. Question
Consider the following statements
1. Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution of India

2. The Supreme Court may not refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction, but a High Court may
refuse the same
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
2 points
13. Question
Which of the following writs can be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior
court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose?
a) Mandamus
b) Certiorari
c) Prohibition
d) Quo Warranto
Solution: a)
Prohibition and certiorari are not available against legislative bodies or government
2 points
14. Question
Which of the following writs can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the
aggrieved person?
a) Prohibition
b) Certiorari
c) Habeas Corpus
d) Quo - warranto
Solution: d)
2 points
15. Question
Which of the following is NOT a Directive Principle of State Policy?
a) Participation of workers in management of industries

b) To secure a uniform civil code for the citizens
c) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
d) To provide for free and compulsory education for children
Solution: c)
(c) is a Fundamental Duty

Indian Polity, Laxmikanth – Chapter 8 & 9 (DPSP & Fundamental Duties)
RevisionTest20
2 points
1. Question
1. Chief election commissioner can be removed from his office in same manner and on the same
grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court
2. Any other election commissioner or regional commissioner can be removed by the union cabinet
on proved misbehavior without the recommendation of chief election commissioner
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter 34 (Election Commission)
Second statement is wrong as without CEC’s recommendation, election commissioners can not be
removed.
2. Question
1. The Election Commission was formed in 1946 on the basis of Cabinet Mission plan to conduct
elections for interim government
2. Since independence, Election Commission has one chief election commissioner and two election
commissioners at the helm
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter 34 (Election Commission)
First statement is wrong. The interim government of India, formed on 2 September 1946 – was from the
newly elected Constituent Assembly of India. No general elections were held and there was no election
commission then.
2 points
3. Question
1. Determining the composition of UPSC is the discretion of the President

2. The President can remove UPSC member for misbehavior only after referring the matter to the
Supreme Court
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter 35 (UPSC)
2 points
4. Question
1. The government must consult UPSC before making reservations of appointments or posts for
which UPSC conducts examinations
2. A member of UPSC, after his completion of term is eligible for appointment as Governor of a state
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter 35 (UPSC)

Government need not consult UPSC for making any reservations.
Second statement is wrong as constitution doesn’t mention it and moreover a member is eligible for the
post of Chairman of UPSC only.However, government has appointed several of them as governors
(Please discuss this further if it’s unconstitutional or not – if you have some source regarding this issue)
2 points
5. Question
To which of the following authorities does State Public Service Commission annually presents a report on
its performance?
a) The President
b) The Governor
c) UPSC
d) State Legislature
Solution: b)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter 36 (SPSC)
2 points
6. Question
Which one of the following is NOT one of the qualifications prescribed by the Constitution to become
member of the Finance Commission?
a) Should be a retired judge of Supreme Court
b) Should have knowledge of Government finances or accounts
c) Should have had experience in administration and financial expertise
d) Should have special knowledge of economics
Solution: a)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter 37 (Finance Commission)
2 points
7. Question
1. It is not mentioned in the Constitution that the recommendations of Finance Commission shall be
binding upon the government
2. The finance commission submits its report to the Parliament
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter 37 (Finance Commission)
2 points
8. Question
Which of the following is/are not Constitutional bodies?
1. National Commission for Women

2. National Commission for Scheduled Castes
3. National Human Rights Commission
4. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 1, 3 and 4 Only
d) 3 Only
Solution: b)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter 37 (National Commission for Scheduled Castes)
2 points
9. Question
The chairperson of the State Human Rights Commission should be a
a) Retired Supreme Court Judge

b) Retired Chief Justice of High Court
c) Eminent personality who has worked for Social cause
Solution: b)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter 47 (SHRC)
2 points
10. Question
Which of the following is NOT one of the members of a committee that recommends the name of Central
Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) to President for appointment?
a) Prime Minister
b) Minister of Home Affairs
a) Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha
d) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Solution: d)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter 48 (CVC)
2 points
11. Question
With reference to Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) consider the following statements:
1. It has all powers of a civil court

2. CVC has no jurisdiction over Indian Foreign Service Officers
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter 48 (CVC)
It has jurisdiction over all members of All India Services and Group A officers of central government.
Hence statement 2 is wrong.
2 points
12. Question
1. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 is passed by both the Houses of Parliament and is given
assent by the President
2. At present the institution of Lokapal is not functional yet
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter 52 (Lokpal and Lokayukta)
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/Act-fast-on-appointment-of-Lokpal-SC-tells-
Centre/articleshow/52207179.cms
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Lokpal_and_Lokayuktas_Act,_2013#Journey_through_The_Rajya_Sabha
2 points
13. Question
1. At present, in addition to Hindi, English can be used indefinitely for all official purposes of the
Union
2. The Constitution has imposed duty upon the Centre to promote and develop Hindi language
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter 52 (Official language)
2 points
14. Question
The salary, allowances and expenses of the office of CAG is charged upon
a) Consolidated Fund of India

b) Contingency Fund
c) Public Account
d) CAG Fund
Solution: a)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter 41 (CAG)
2 points
15. Question
1. Attorney General can not defend accused persons in criminal persecutions without the permission
of Government of India
2. Constitution has provided the office of Solicitor General of India to assist Attorney General
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor
Solution: a)
Indian Polity, Laxmikanth, Chapter 42 (AG)
There is no mention of solicitor general in the Constitution.
RevisionTest21
2 points
1. Question
With reference to Muslin, consider the following statements
1. It’s a type of woollen textile

2. The finest variety of muslin was called malmal and was produced in Bangladesh
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Page 4
It is a cotton textile. Gets is name from Mosul (Iraq).
2 points
2. Question
1. Periodically, the British government estimated India’s national and per capita income and
published it in official gazette
2. Most studies have found that the country’s growth of aggregate real output during the
first half of the twentieth century was less than two per cent
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
British didn’t publish any such economic data for India.
2 points
3. Question
1. His estimates of the national and per capita incomes during the colonial period were
considered very significant
2. He established Delhi School of Economics
To which of the following personalities does above description refer?
a) R.C. Desai
b) Findlay Shirras
c) V K R V Rao
d) P C Mahalanobis
Solution: c)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/V._K._R._V._Rao
2 points
4. Question
1. The opening of the Suez Canal weakened British control over India’s foreign trade
2. The generation of a large export surplus was a significant feature of India’s foreign trade
during the colonial period
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Page 8 – 9
The opening of the Suez Canal further intensified British control over India’s foreign trade. The
most important characteristic of India’s foreign trade throughout the colonial period was the
generation of a large export surplus. But this surplus came at a huge cost to the country’s
economy. Several essential commodities—food grains, clothes, kerosene etc. — became
conspicuous by their acute scarcity in the domestic market. Furthermore, this export surplus did
not result in any flow of gold or silver into India. Rather, this was used to make payments for
the expenses incurred by an office set up by the colonial government in Britain, expenses on
war, again fought by the British government, and the import of invisible items, all of which led to
the drain of Indian wealth.
2 points
5. Question
1. Railways started by the British in India fostered commercialisation of Indian agriculture

which adversely affected the comparative self-sufficiency of the village economies in
India
2. In the 69 years since the country’s Independence, successive governments have
managed to lay only around 10,000 km of new tracks

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
http://www.hindustantimes.com/india/has-the-indian-railways-evolved-rapidly-since-
independence/story-9mOeCfNYKFWWeMFYS8U22N.html
2 points
6. Question
Which of the following are features of a socialist society?
1. Government decides what goods are to be produced

2. Government owns every means of production
3. Distribution will be based on what people need and not on what they can afford to
purchase
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
2 points
7. Question
With reference to land reforms in India, consider the following statements:
1. Land ceiling means fixing the maximum size of land which could be owned by an
individual
2. Land reforms which primarily refer to change in the ownership of landholdings
3. It can be concluded that efforts to bring land reforms in India is a huge success
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
Please read this important article on Land Reforms:
http://planningcommission.nic.in/reports/articles/venka/index.php?repts=m-land.htm
2 points
8. Question
Which of the following will make a positive impact on economy?
a) Farmers consuming most of their produce

b) Farmers hoarding most of their produce
c) Farmers selling most of their produce
d) Farmers selling their land to repay debt
Solution: c)
2 points
9. Question
The Karve committee formed in 1955 during the Second five-year plan was related to
a) Using small-scale industries for promoting rural development

b) Using large scale industries to create growth poles
c) Using large scale industries to create large employment opportunities in rural and
urban regions
d) Using large scale industries to push economic growth
Solution: a)
In 1955, the Village and Small-scale Industries Committee, also called the Karve Committee,
noted the possibility of using small-scale industries for promoting rural development.
2 points
10. Question
The origin of the 1991 financial crisis in India was mainly the result of
a) Breakup of USSR
b) Huge government spending in 1980s
c) Global oil crisis
d) Decline in Rupee value
Solution: b)
2 points
11. Question

1. The 1991 economic reforms in India changed the role of RBI from facilitator to regulator
2. Before 1991 reforms, banks needed to get permission from RBI to open their new
branches
3. As part of 1991 reforms, the rupee was devalued against foreign currencies
a) 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) 1 and 3 Only
Solution: b)
RBI’s role was reduced from regulator to facilitator (second statement is the hint)
2 points
12. Question
The 1991 reforms did not benefit agriculture sector. Which of the following is/are the reasons?
1. Reduced public investment in infrastructure such as irrigation, power and roads during
reforms period
2. WTO rules
3. Removal of subsidies
4. Export oriented policy in agriculture
a) 2,3 and 4 Only

b) 1,2 and 4 Only
c) 1,2 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
Reforms in Agriculture: Reforms have not been able to benefit agriculture, where the growth
rate has been decelerating. Public investment in agriculture sector especially in infrastructure,
which includes irrigation, power, roads, market linkages and research and extension (which
played a crucial role in the Green Revolution), has been reduced in the reform period. Further,
the removal of fertiliser subsidy has led to increase in the cost of production, which has severely
affected the small and marginal farmers. Moreover, since the commencement of WTO, this
sector has been experiencing a number of policy changes such as reduction in import duties on
agricultural products, removal of minimum support price and lifting of quantitative restrictions
on agricultural products; these have adversely affected Indian farmers as they now have to face
increased international competition. Moreover, because of exportoriented policy strategies in
agriculture, there has been a shift from production for the domestic market towards production
for the export market focusing on cash crops in lieu of production of food grains. This puts
pressure on prices of food grains.
2 points
13. Question
1. In India, the urban poor are largely the overflow of the rural poor
2. The poverty line concept in India has failed to address needs and problems of urban poor
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Please read this article: http://www.poverties.org/blog/urban-poverty-in-india
http://www.thehindu.com/data/urban-poor-own-nominal-assets/article8169625.ece
2 points
14. Question
1. In India, due to unequal distribution of land and other assets, the benefits from direct
poverty alleviation programmes have been appropriated by the non-poor
2. According to the Rangarajan committee estimates, poverty in India is 29.5 per cent
(2011 – 12)
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/rangarajan-defends-poverty-
estimates/article6186614.ece
2 points
15. Question
The Tapas Majumdar Committee of 1999 was concerned with which of the following sector?
a) Agriculture
b) Education
c) Manufacturing
d) Health
Solution: b)
Tapas Majumdar Committee was set up in 1999 to look into the financial implications of
operationalising the 83rd Amendment Bill introduced by union government in 1997, seeking to
make the right to free and compulsory education up to the age of 14 a fundamental right.
http://www.thehindu.com/features/education/issues/rte-act-heavily-underfunded-
cry/article389638.ece
2 points
16. Question
Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
The following graph shows the average profit of two fruit-sellers A and B in thousands (Rs.) per
year from the year 1995 to 2000.
Consider the graph and answer the 4 (four) items that follow:
16) In which year is the average profit of A and B same?
(a) 1995
(b) 1996
c) 1997
(d) 1998
Solution: b)
2 points
17. Question
What is the difference between the average profit of B and A in the year 1998?
(a) - Rs. 100

(b) - Rs. 1,000
(c) + Rs. 600
(d) - Rs. 300
Solution: c)
2 points
18. Question
How much more average profit did A make in the year 2000 than in the year 1999?
(a) Rs. 200

(b) Rs. 1,000
(c) Rs. 1,500
(d) Rs. 2,000
Solution: d)
2 points
19. Question
What is the trend of the average profit of B from the year 1997 to the year 2000?
(a) Non-increasing
(b) Non -decreasing
(c) Steady
(d) Fluctuating
Solution: b)
2 points
20. Question
A worker reaches his factory 3 minutes late if his speed from his house to the factory is 5
km/hr. If he walks at a speed of 6 km/hr then he reaches the factory 7 minutes early the
distance of the factory from his house is
(a) 3 km
(b) 4 km
(c) 5 km
(d) 6 km
Solution: c)
RevisionTest22
2 points
1. Question
Which of the following institutions/agencies is/are the macroeconomic decision makers in

India?
1. SEBI
2. RBI
3. SBI Group
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 2 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
NCERT Class XII, Introductory Macroeconomics, Page 3 – 4
Bodies such as RBI and SEBI will have public goals to achieve as demanded by law and
constitution. Bodies like SBI, even though public, are mainly concerned with profit and
microeconomic matters.
2 points
2. Question
Which of the following can be intermediate goods?
1. Tea powder
2. Sugar
3. Wheat flour
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
All products can be used in restaurant or in bakery to produce some final goods.
Tea powder if it’s used at home for consumption, acts as a final good. So is sugar and wheat
flour. But they are also intermediate goods.
(An intermediate good is a good or service that is used in the eventual production of a final
good, or finished product. These goods are sold by industries to one another for the purpose of
resale or producing other goods)
2 points
3. Question
1. Producing more consumption goods than capital goods in good for economy
2. Producing more capital goods decreases the productivity in an economy
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Statement 2 is hint for statement 1.
Producing more capital goods improves efficiency and productivity of labour, hence benefits
production of consumer goods as well.
2 points
4. Question
1. In economics, Inventory, which is an unsold, semi finished or raw goods of a company,

is treated as liability
2. A change in the inventory of a firm is treated as investment
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
NCERT Class XII, Introductory Macroeconomics, Page 19

Inventory is treated as capital.
Inventory is the raw materials, work-in-process products and finished goods that are
considered to be the portion of a business’s assets that are ready or will be ready for sale.
Inventory represents one of the most important assets of a business because the turnover of
inventory represents one of the primary sources of revenue generation and subsequent
earnings for the company’s shareholders .
http://www.investopedia.com/terms/i/inventory.asp
2 points
5. Question
Expenditure method to calculate GDP considers
a) Supply side of the products

b) Demand side of the products
c) Consumption by households
d) Both b and c
Solution: d)
The GDP under the expenditures approach is calculated by adding up all the expenditures made
on final goods and services produced within the geographical boundaries of a region. These
include consumption expenditure (by households), investment expenditures (by businesses),
government expenditures (on purchase of goods and services) and net expenditures by
foreigners (i.e. net exports which in turn equals total exports minus total imports).
(Spending, investing are all part of demand side economics)
2 points
6. Question
1. To calculate National Income, we need to deduct subsidies to the Net National Product
evaluated at market prices
2. In India, the Central Statistics Office (CSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation prepares and releases National Income data
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)

Subsidies is added and indirect taxes are deducted from NNP market prices to calculate
National Income.
2 points
7. Question
To compare the GDP figures of different countries at different points of time, we can not rely on
GDPs calculated at current market prices. To which of the following factor is this mainly
attributed?
a) Change in prices of goods and services

b) Methods of calculation vary
a) Variation in political stability
d) Value of currency keeps changing
Solution: a)
2 points
8. Question
1. Real GDP is calculated at Constant prices

2. Compared to Nominal GDP, Real GDP can give more accurate figure of economic growth
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
00:58 02:37 What is the ‘Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP)’ Real gross domestic product
(GDP) is an inflation-adjusted measure that reflects the value of all goods and services
produced by an economy in a given year, expressed in base-year prices, and is often referred
to as “constant-price,” “inflation-corrected” GDP or “constant dollar GDP.” Unlike nominal GDP,
real GDP can account for changes in price level and provide a more accurate figure of economic
growth.
http://www.investopedia.com/terms/r/realgdp.asp#ixzz4CslolWn6
2 points
9. Question
1. In the past, India has always used the Consumer Price Index (CPI) to measure inflation
2. Consumer Price Index (CPI) based inflation measure benefits common man
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
http://forbesindia.com/article/special/measuring-inflation-using-cpi-is-more-beneficial-for-the-
common-man/43583/1
2 points
10. Question
1. Minting of coins is the responsibility of the government of India, and not of the RBI
2. How many notes are to be published is decided by the RBI
3. The RBI has the powers to print currency notes of up to Rs 10,000 denomination
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 1 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
http://www.business-standard.com/article/finance/5-things-to-know-about-your-currency-
114012500243_1.html
2 points
11. Question
A High Bank Rate
a) Encourages commercial banks to spend money

b) Helps commercial banks maintain health reserve deposit ratio
c) Gives public lots of money to spend
Solution: b)
Bank rate is the rate at which commercial banks borrow from RBI.
2 points
12. Question
If foreign investors buy Indian bonds in foreign currency
a) RBI’s foreign exchange holding goes up

b) Commercial bank’s total reserves and deposits goes up
c) Both a and b
d) Neither 1 nor b
Solution: a)
2 points
13. Question
Which of the following is/are often referred to as ‘paper taxes’?
1. Gift tax
2. Wealth tax
3. Corporate tax
4. Estate duty
a) 1, 2 and 3 Only
b) 1,2 and 4 Only
c) 1 and 4 Only
d) All
Solution: b)
They do not yield much revenue to government, hence referred to as paper taxes. (Estate duty
is now abolished)
2 points
14. Question
Fiscal deficit minus the interest payments is called as
a) Gross fiscal deficit

b) Net fiscal deficit
c) Primary deficit
Solution: c)
2 points
15. Question
1. If government increases indirect taxes, it is a progressive step

2. Fiscal deficit increases during recession and falls during boom
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
2 points
16. Question
A bell rings every 18 minutes. A second bell rings every 24 minutes. A third bell rings every 32
minutes. If all the three bells ring at the same time at 8 o’clock in the morning, at what other
time will they all ring together?
(a) 12 : 40 hrs
(b) 12 : 48 hrs
(c) 12 : 56 hrs
(d) 13 : 04 hrs
Solution: b)
2 points
17. Question
“Price is not the same thing as value. Suppose that on a day the price of everything viz., coal,
bread, postage stamps, a day’s labour, the rent of houses, etc. were to double. Prices then
would certainly rise, but- values of all things except one would not.”
The writer wants to say that if prices of all things were doubled
(a) the values of all things would remain constant.

(b) the values of the things sold would be doubled.
(c) the values of the things bought would be halved.
(d) the value of money only would be halved.
Solution: d)
2 points
18. Question
A and B decide to travel from place X to place Y by bus. A has Rs. 10 with him and he finds that
it is 80% of the bus fare for two persons. B finds that he has Rs. 3 with him and hands it over
to A. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Now the money A has just enough to buy two tickets.
(b) A still needs Rs. 2 for buying the tickets
(c) After buying the two tickets A will be left with 50 paise.
(d) The money A now has is still not sufficient to buy two tickets
Solution: c)
2 points
19. Question
As per agreement with a bank, a businessman had to refund a loan in some equal installments
without interest. After paying 18 installments he found that 60 percent of his loan was
refunded. How many installments were there in the agreement?
(a) 22
(b) 24
(c) 30
(d) 33
Solution: c)
20. Question
2 points
“Liberty, therefore, is never real unless the Government can be called to account when
it invades rights.”
Which one of the following is the best justification of the above statement?
(a) In the realisation that the government can be brought to book in a court of law
(b) In identifying a man as a political unit in a way which distinguishes him from other
citizens
(c) In a decentralized society wherein the basic needs of men can find satisfaction
(d) In the understanding that liberty and, restraints are complementary
Solution: d)
RevisionTest23
2 points
1. Question
The Indian Railways (IR) is attempting to shift to open access (OA) for power purchase. What
is Open Access?
a) Opening its own power generation units around the country to meet its energy
demands
b) Open access is a mechanism that allows users to buy cheaper power from the open
market
c) Opening railways to allow investors to invest in power generation from renewable
sources
Solution: b)
Economic Survey 2015-16, Chapter – 11, Page – 152
According to section 2 (47) of the “Electricity Act 2003” Open Access is defined as “A non-
discriminatory provision for the use of transmission lines or distribution system or associated
facilities with such lines or system by any licensee or consumer or a person engaged in
generation in accordance with the regulations specified by the Appropriate Commission”
To interpret it in a more understandable way the above can be put as follows: Enabling of non-
discriminatory sale/ purchase of electric power/energy between two parties utilizing the system
of an in-between (third party), and not blocking it on unreasonable grounds. Open access
allows large users of power — typically having connected load of 1 megawatt (MW) and above
— to buy cheaper power from the open market.
The idea is that the customers should be able to choose among a large number of competing
power companies–instead of being forced to buy electricity from their existing electric utility
monopoly. It helps large consumers particularly the sick textile, cement and steel industrial
units by ensuring regular supply of electricity at competitive rates and boost business of power
bourses.
2 points
2. Question
With reference to the Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY), consider the following
statements:
1. Adopting UDAY is optional for States

2. The scheme will be operationalized through a tri-partite agreement amongst the
Ministry of Power, State Government and the DISCOM
3. UDAY scheme can be termed as a good example of cooperative and competitive
federalism
4. According to UDAY, financial liabilities of DISCOMs are the contingent liabilities of both
the union and respective state governments
a) 1, 2 and 3 Only
b) 2,3 and 4 Only
c) 1,2 and 4 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
2 points
3. Question
One of the objectives of the DeenDayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY) is to provide
feeder separation to ensure sufficient power to farmers. What is Feeder Separation?
a) Providing subsidised power to agriculture through dedicated separate micro-grids

b) Providing twenty four hour power supply to farmers at cheaper rates
c) Separation of technical infrastructure of agriculture consumers from non-agriculture
consumers
Solution: c)
What is rural feeder segregation and how is it important for rural electrification?
Rural feeder segregation is the separation of technical infrastructure of agriculture consumers

from non-agriculture consumers. In a water-constrained scenario where oversupply of power
to agricultural farmers may aggravate the already grave groundwater situation and also
aggravate financial distress of power utilities (already at 1.5 per cent of GDP), power supply to
agriculture sector needs to be controlled. In any case, agriculture power needs could be
fulfilled through a daily six to eight hour reliable supply, depending on the season.
If all rural consumers are connected on the same feeder (wires that emerge from sub-stations
and carry electricity to transformers for distribution to consumers), power supply to non-
agriculture consumers, including households, schools and dispensaries also get switched off
when agriculture supply is not needed. It is because switching off is done from the sub-station
from where the feeder is supplied. Some utilities have, therefore, segregated agriculture and
non-agriculture feeders and have thus attempted to provide 24×7 power supply to the non-
agriculture consumers. This has generated increased ability to generate livelihoods, and
resulted in significant socio-economic benefits in rural areas.
http://www.downtoearth.org.in/interviews/separate-power-feeders-can-greatly-improve-rural-
electrification-42382
2 points
4. Question
In India many industries have made a gradual transition towards captive generation. With
reference to captive generation, consider the following statements:
1. High tariffs and erratic supply for industry have led to captive generation in India
2. Under captive generation, industries or cooperatives set up their own power generation
unit for their use
3. Encouraging captive generation is not good for environment
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
Encouraging captive generation is good as it makes industries self reliant and saves them from
irregularities in power supply.
But, proliferation of spatially distributed fossil fuel-based smaller captive plants is likely to be
environmentally more damaging than the well planned and monitored development of large
utility power plants.
http://www.idfc.com/pdf/report/Chapter-12.pdf
2 points
5. Question
1. Between 1989 and 2010, more manufacturing jobs were created by informal sector
2. Creation of more jobs in informal sector is good for Indian economy
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
More jobs in informal sector is not good because these are not ‘good jobs’ – low wages,
insecurity, bad working conditions – all take toll on workers, hence affect human capital.
2 points
6. Question
With reference to contract labour, consider the following statements
1. It has boosted manufacturing GDP

2. From large company point of view, in India, contract labour is an ideal solution even if
labour laws are lenient
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Economic Survey 2015-16, Chapter – 10, Page – 143- 144
Many large firms say contract labour is not the ideal solution, and that they would prefer to hire
regular workers if dismissal laws were different. Hiring workers through a contractor can be
more expensive—14 per cent more expensive according to the Indian Cellular Association.
Furthermore, contract workers do not feel as much loyalty to the company as regular workers
would, reducing employers’ incentive to invest in their training. Indeed, there is evidence that
hiring contract workers today hurts a firm’s productivity tomorrow, precisely because contract
workers do not accumulate “firmspecific human capital”.
2 points
7. Question
With reference to PRODY, a term mentioned in recent Economic Survey, Consider the following
statements:
1. PRODY is is a weighted average of the per capita GDPs of countries exporting a given
product
2. If an item has high PRODY value, an economy should not export this item to protect its
economy
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
a) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Economic Survey 2015-16, Chapter – 10,, Page – 144
A product having high PRODY value should be exported more in number as it diversifies and
helps boost export market and production.
2 points
8. Question
With reference to apparel industry in India, consider the following statements:

1. Formal sector apparel firms are more productive than their informal sector counterparts
2. In India, apparel firms now make up the largest share of establishments in the informal
sector
3. Major costs incurred by apparel industry is due to capital-intensive inputs like power
which is more than cost of wages
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
Apparel is an industry in which India should be performing well. It is labourintensive, with 30
per cent of costs from wages. Only 2-3 per cent of costs are due to capital-intensive inputs like
power.
2 points
9. Question
The areas in India that have seen the greatest decline in female labour force participation in
the last decade are those villages that have rapidly urbanised and are now part of towns and
small cities. Why?
a) Due to loss of farming jobs

b) Women-friendly service sector jobs are yet to open up
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
Solution: c)
2 points
10. Question
With reference to neem – coated Urea, consider the following statements:
1. It prevents insect attacks on crops

2. Neem coating checks loss of nitrogen from urea
3. Neem coated urea encourages use of less urea per acre compared to ordinary urea
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/urea-coated-with-neem-12520
2 points
11. Question
1. The subsidies for Diammonium Phosphate (DAP), and Muriate of Potash (MOP) do not
vary with market prices
2. Imports of Diammonium Phosphate (DAP), and Muriate of Potash (MOP) is controlled in
India
3. Urea producers and importers receive a Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS)
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 Only
d) All
Solution: c)
DAP and MOP producers and importers receive a Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) based on a
formula that determines the amount of N, P and K in a given amount of fertiliser. Per kg
subsidies on DAP and MOP fertiliser are hence fixed—they do not vary with market prices.
Imports of DAP and MOP are also not controlled. The prices farmers face are thus deregulated
market prices adjusted by fixed nutrient subsidy. Government involvement in DAP and MOP is
limited to paying producers and importers a fixed nutrient based subsidy which works out to be
roughly 35 per cent of the cost of production.
Government sets a controlled Maximum Retail Price (MRP) at which urea must be sold to
farmers. It’s not nutrient based subsidy.
2 points
12. Question
1. A common market is a customs union where movement of factors of production is

relatively free amongst member countries
2. An economic union is a common market where member countries coordinate macro-
economic and exchange rate policies.
3. Mercosur is an example of common market
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
http://financetrain.com/trading-blocs-common-markets-and-economic-unions/
2 points
13. Question
The Trans-Pacific Partnership (TTP) consists of 12 members. Which of the following countries
is/are TTP’s members from Asia?
1. Japan
2. China
3. Vietnam
4. South Korea
5. Malaysia
a) 1,3, 4 and 5 Only

b) 1, 3 and 5 Only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Only
d) 2,4 and 5 Only
Solution: b)
Members: the US, Japan, Malaysia, Vietnam, Singapore, Brunei, Australia, New Zealand,
Canada, Mexico, Chile and Peru
http://www.bbc.com/news/business-32498715
14. Question
Consider the following statements: 2 point
1. India’s spending to GDP ratio is highest among BRICS countries

2. India’s tax to GDP ratio at 16.6 per cent is comparable to OECD’s ratio
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
India’s spending to GDP ratio (as well as spending in human capital i.e. health and education) is
lowest among BRICS and lower than both the OECD and EME averages. India’s tax to GDP ratio
at 16.6 per cent also is well below the EME and OECD averages of about 21 per cent and 34
per cent, respectively.
2 points
15. Question
1. A leading cause of neonatal mortality rate in India is low birth weight

2. In India, both poor and rich women do not gain more weight during pregnancy
3. Under the National Food Security Act of 2013 pregnant women are given Rs 6000
universal cash entitlement
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
2 points
16. Question
A group of 630 children is seated in rows for a group photo session. Each row contains three
less children than the row in front of it. Which one of the following number of rows is not
possible?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Solution: d)
2 points
17. Question
There are seven persons up on a ladder, A, B, C, D, E, F and G (not in that order). A is further
up than E but is lower than C. B is in the middle. G is between A and B. E is between B and F. If
F is between E and D, the person on the bottom step of the ladder will be
(a) B
(b) F
(c) D
(d) E
Solution: c)
2 points
18. Question
Consider that:
1. A is taller than B.
2. C is taller than A.
3. D is taller than C.
4. E is the tallest of all.
If they are made to sit in the above order of their height, who will occupy the mid position?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Solution: c)
19. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements: There are six villages A, B, C, D, E and F. F is 1 km
to the west of D.
B is 1 km to the east of E. A is 2 km to the north of E. C is 1 km to the east of A. D is 1 km to

the south of A.
Which three villages are in a line?
(a) A, C, B
(b) A, D, E
(c) C, B, F
(d) E, B, D
Solution: b)
2 points
20. Question
Four children are sitting in a row. A is occupying the seat next to B but not next to C. If C is not
sitting next to D, who is/are occupying seat/seats adjacent to D?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) B and A
(d) Impossible to tell
Solution: b)
RevisionTest24
2 points
1. Question
1. In India, the combined expenditure on health and education as a proportion of GDP in

the last decade is less than 6 per cent
2. In India during last decade, there has been a steady increase in the percentage of
enrolment in government schools in rural areas
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Economic Survey – 2016, Volume – 2, Chapter – 9, Page – 193
The trends in enrolment reflect a decline in the percentage of enrolment in government schools
in rural areas, from 72.9 per cent in 2007 to 63.1 per cent in 2014, as per the Annual Status of
Education Report (ASER) 2014. This decline is partly made up by private schools which have
registered an increase in enrolment from 20.2 per cent in 2007 to 30.7 per cent in 2014.
2 points
2. Question
1. According to ASER 2014, there is a sharp improvement in the number of children in

standard V who can read a textbook of standard II in both private and government
schools
2. The Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) is prepared and released by the ministry
of human resource development
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
According to ASER 2014, there is a sharp decline in the number of children in standard V who
can read a textbook of standard II in both government and private schools. In Government
schools, the decline is from 56.7 per cent in 2007 to 42.2 per cent in 2014, and the percentage
of children who can do division in standard V has declined from 41 per cent in 2007 to 20.7 per
cent in 2014 in rural areas. In the case of standard V children in private schools who can read
a standard II textbook, the decline is from 69 per cent in 2007 to 62.5 per cent in 2014.
ASER report is prepared by Pratham NGO.
2 points
3. Question
1. To improve female Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) and Worker Population ratio
(WPR), government has stipulated one-third participation by women under MGNREGA
2. National Rural Livelihood Mission aims at organizing all rural poor households and
nurturing and supporting them till they come out of abject poverty
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
2 points
4. Question
With reference to the National Child Labour Project (NCLP) Scheme, consider the following
statements:
1. It aims to rehabilitate the children withdrawn from work

2. The scheme is supervised and implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child
Development
3. After imparting them training, children are mainstreamed into formal education system
a) 2 and 3 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: c)
A Central Monitoring Committee under the Chairpersonship of Secretary, Ministry of Labour &
Employment with representation from State Governments and concerned
Ministries/Departments has been set up for supervision, monitoring and evaluation of the
National Child Labour Project
2 points
5. Question
With reference to the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY), consider
1. It is a placement-linked skill development scheme for rural youth who are poor
2. It is being implemented by the Ministry of Labour and Employment
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
The Ministry of Rural Development implements DDU-GKY
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/efeatures.aspx?relid=115288
2 points
6. Question
1. As per Census 2011, the share of children (0-6 years) accounts for 13.6 per cent of the
total population in the country
2. The under-5 mortality rate in India – the number of children who die by the age of five –
is equal to global average
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Global average is 43 and India’s is 48 (2015) (It was 46 and 49 respectively in 2013)
http://data.worldbank.org/indicator/SH.DYN.MORT
2 points
7. Question
Under “Mission Indradhanush”, which of the following diseases is/are NOT covered?
1. Tetanus
2. Whooping Cough
3. Malaria
4. Polio
5. Tuberculosis
6. Haemophilus Influenzae Type B
a) 2,3 and 6 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 3 and 6 Only
d) All are covered under the scheme
Solution: c)
The Mission Indradhanush, depicting seven colours of the rainbow, aims to cover all those
children by 2020 who are either unvaccinated, or are partially vaccinated against seven vaccine
preventable diseases which include diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis,
measles and hepatitis B.
2 points
8. Question
With reference to the Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK), consider the following
statements:
1. It aims to screen over 27 Crore children from 0 to 18 years for defects at birth,
diseases, deficiencies and disabilities
2. Children diagnosed with illnesses receive treatment including surgery free-of-cost under
NRHM
3. This scheme is an ambitious initiative of the NDA government
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
It was launched by UPA.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/efeatures.aspx?relid=94602
2 points
9. Question
The Universal Health Coverage (UHC) index which measures the progress made in health
sectors in select countries of the World, is developed by
a) WHO
b) World Bank
c) UNDP
d) UNICEF
Solution: b)
The Universal Health Coverage (UHC) index has been developed by the World Bank to measure
the progress made in health sectors in select countries of the World. India ranks 143 among
190 countries in terms of per capita expenditure on health ($146 PPP in 2011). It has 157th
position according to per capita government spending on health which is just about $44 PPP.
India’s performance on the indicator on treatment of diarrhoea needs improvement in terms of
enhancing the coverage.
2 points
10. Question
The National Rural Drinking Water Programme (NRDWP) is being implemented by
a) The Ministry of Rural Development

b) The Ministry of Water Resources
c) The Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation
d) Water ministries of each state government
Solution: c)
2 points
11. Question
With reference to the Gender Development Index (GDI), consider the following statements:
1. It is part of the Human Development Report written by the United Nations Development
Program
2. measures differences between male and female achievements in health, education, and
equitable command over economic resources

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
http://hdr.undp.org/en/faq-page/gender-development-index-gdi#t371n1821
2 points
12. Question
What’s common between: K.J.Udeshi, Usha Thorat and Shyamala Gopinath
a) Former only female members of SEBI

b) Former female secretaries in the Union ministry of Finance
c) Former Deputy Governors of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
d) Former members of Planning Commission
Solution c)
2 points
13. Question
1. The share of India’s services exports in global services exports in 2014 was nearly
double its share of merchandise exports in global merchandise exports
2. At present, India’s services imports is higher than its services exports
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Services exports have been a dynamic element of India’s trade and globalization in recent
years. WTO data shows that India’s services exports grew from US$16.8 billion in 2001 to
US$155.6 billion – which constitutes 7.5 per cent of the GDP – in 2014, making the country the
eighth largest services exporter in the world.
India’s services imports at 81.1 billion grew by 3.3 per cent in 2014-15.
2 points
14. Question
According to the latest World Tourism Barometer of the United Nation’s World Tourism
Organization (UNWTO), which of the following country has the highest share in international
tourist arrivals (ITA)?
a) USA
b) France
c) China
d) Spain
Solution: b)
2 points
15. Question
The Baltic Dry Index is
a) An index of value of crude oil trade across world

b) An index of trade volume between Baltic countries
c) An index of the price of moving the major raw materials by sea across world
Solution: c)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Baltic_Dry_Index
2 points
16. Question
Assume that
1. the hour and minute hands of a clock move without jerking.

2. the clock shows a time between 8 o’clock and 9 o’clock.
3. the two hands of the clock are one above the other.
After how many minutes (nearest integer) with the two hands will be again lying one above the
other?
(a) 60
(b) 62
(c) 65
(d) 67
Solution: c)
2 points
17. Question
If the 3rd day of a month is Monday, which one of the following will be the fifth day from 21st
of this month?
(a) Monday
(b) Tuesday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Friday
Solution: c)
2 points
18. Question
For a charity show, the total tickets sold were 420. Half of these tickets were sold at the rate of
Rs. 5 each, one-third at the rate of Rs. 3 each and the rest for Rs. 2 each. What was the total
amount received?
(a) Rs. 900

(b) Rs. 1,540
(c) Rs. 1,610
(d) Rs. 2,000
Solution: c)
2 points
19. Question
A question paper must have a question on one of the eight poets: A, B, C, D, E, F, G or H The
first four belong to the medieval period while the rest are considered modern poets Generally,
modern poets figure in the question paper in alternate years. Generally those who like H like G
also; and those who like F like E also. The paper-setter does not like to ask about F as he has
written a book on F, but he likes F. Last year, the paper contained a question on A. On the
basis of the information given, this year’s paper is most likely to contain a question on
(a) C
(b) E
(c) F
(d) H
Solution: b)
2 points
20. Question
In a group of six women there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and three
violinists. Girija and Vanaja are among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how
to play on the violin. Shailaja and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and
Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who
among the following is certainly a dancer and a violinist?
(a) Jalaja
(b) Pooja
(c) Shailaja
(d) Tanuja
Solution: d)
RevisionTest27
2 points
1. Question
With reference to the Science, Technology and Innovation (STI) Policy, 2013, consider the
1. This policy seeks to increase the public and political understanding of science
2. “Science and technology for the people” is the motto of STI Policy, 2013
3. It aims to position India amongst top five global scientific powers by 2020
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: d)
India – 2015, Chapter – 25 (S&T)
http://www.idsa.in/idsacomments/IndiasNewSciencePolicyisaboutInnovation_alele_090113
2 points
2. Question
With reference to the Women Scientists Scheme -A (WOS-A), consider the following
statements:
1. The scheme is being implemented by the Department of Science and Technology

2. The scheme aims provide funds to poor but talented girl students to pursue basic
science courses in reputed institutions
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
The ‘Women Scientists Scheme (WOS-A)’ of the Department of Science and Technology is
aimed to provide opportunities to women scientists and technologists for pursuing research in
basic or applied sciences in frontier areas of science and engineering. A special provision has
been made under this Scheme to encourage those women scientists who have had break-in-
career. It will provide a launch pad for them to return to mainstream science and work as
bench-level scientists in the field of science and technology.
2 points
3. Question
Lupifio developed by Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) is a recombinant

streptokinase. What does streptokinase do?
a) It breaks down unwanted blood clots

b) It synthesizes blood plasma
c) It kills cancer cells
d) It combines two DNA molecules
Solution: a)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Streptokinase
2 points
4. Question
Sabarimala Temple which is frequently in news, is located in which of the following regions?
a) Periyar Tiger Reserve

b) Parambikulam Tiger Reserve
c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary & National Park
d) Annamalai Wildlife Sanctuary
Solution: a)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/long-wait-for-pilgrims-at-sabarimala-
temple/article8052520.ece
Sabarimala is a Hindu pilgrimage centre located at the Periyar Tiger Reserve in the Western
Ghat mountain ranges of Pathanamthitta District, Perunad grama panchayat in Kerala. It is one
of the largest annual pilgrimages in the world, with an estimated over 100 million devotees
visiting every year.
2 points
5. Question
In January 2016, Pakistani singer Adnan Sami was granted Indian citizenship by the Indian
government. With reference to his citizenship, consider the following statements:
1. He is given citizenship under Section 6 (I) of the Indian Citizenship Act, 1955 under the
category “citizenship by naturalisation.”
2. The power to grant citizenship lies only with the External Affairs Ministry
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/new-year-gift-for-adnan-sami/article8052887.ece
The power to grant citizenship lies only with the Home Ministry.
2 points
6. Question
It is said that China is deepening its stakes in the geographic swathe long identified as the
“heartland”, one that stretches from the Volga to the Yangtze and from the Himalayas to the
Arctic. Who proposed Heartland theory?
a) Nicholas Spykman
b) Alexander von Humboldt
c) Halford John Mackinder
d) Friedrich Ratzel
Solution: c)
This came in The Hindu! So the Question

http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-international/beijings-race-for-the-eurasian-
heartland/article8051948.ece (check last paragraph)
2 points
7. Question
Which of the following is/are NOT part of eight core industries — that comprise nearly 38 per
cent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
1. Cement
2. Textiles
3. Fertilizers
4. Pharmaceuticals
5. Electricity
6. Food processing
a) 1, 4 and 6
b) 2, 3, 4 and 6
c) 2, 3 and 6
d) 2, 4 and 6
Solution: d)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/core-sector-shocker-on-new-years-
eve/article8051921.ece
http://indiainbusiness.nic.in/newdesign/index.php?param=economy_landing/201/1
Eight core sectors are: Coal, Crude oil, Natural Gas, Refinery products, Cement, Fertilizer,
Electricity and Steel
2 points
8. Question
In January, the Union Information and Broadcasting Ministry constituted a committee to suggest
best practices to help the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) members understand the
nuances of certifying films. Who headed the committee?
a) Adoor Gopalakrishnan
b) Girish Kasaravalli
c) Shyam Benegal
d) Shekhar Kapoor
Solution: c)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/shyam-benegal-to-head-cbfc-revamp-
panel/article8056379.ece
(UPSC might again start asking questions about personalities – it’s better to be prepared)
2 points
9. Question
The newly developed Variable thrust direction (VTD) technology is mainly applicable in
a) Unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV) to manoeuvre safely in mountain regions

b) Helping carve tunnels fast to create underground transport network
c) Launching missile to hit two or more targets at the same time
d) Helping passenger planes to avoid any collision in the air
Solution: a)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-in-school/new-technique-helps-drones-move-in-
hills/article8055473.ece
http://phys.org/news/2015-12-scientists-variable-vectoring-technique-propeller-powered.html
2 points
10. Question
Which of the following countries is NOT part of the contemporary use of the term that refers to
four parts of a Greater Kurdistan?
a) Turkey
b) Iran
c) Iraq
d) Jordan
Solution: d)
Other country is Syria, not Jordan.
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-international/turkeys-dangerous-war-on-kurdish-
militants/article8055903.ece
Contemporary use of the term refers to four parts of a Greater Kurdistan, which include
southeastern Turkey (Northern Kurdistan), northern Syria (Rojava or Western Kurdistan),
northern Iraq (Southern Kurdistan), and northwestern Iran (Eastern Kurdistan). Some Kurdish
nationalist organizations seek to create an independent nation state consisting of some or all of
these areas with a Kurdish majority, while others campaign for greater autonomy within the
existing national boundaries.
2 points
11. Question
Recently, Union government decided to redevelop 400 railway stations using the Swiss
challenge method. With reference to this method, consider the following statements:
1. It is a form of public procurement

2. Any person with credentials can submit a development proposal to the government
3. This method can not be applied to projects that are taken up on a PPP basis
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: b)
http://www.livemint.com/Politics/HOCSnmCWarO4hpYglBsHBP/What-is-the-Swiss-Challenge-
Method.html
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/panel-warns-against-swiss-challenge-
route/article8055947.ece
2 points
12. Question
Recently, the Central government decided to revive NATGRID (National Intelligence Grid). With
reference to NATGRID, consider the following statements:
1. It is a central organization similar to NIA and RAW

2. Its main aim is to collect information from various sources to counter terrorist activities
in the country
3. It is headed by the Prime Minister
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: b)
It is not an organization similar to NIA or RAW. It is basically a tool which can be utilized by
eleven security and intelligence organizations ( Research and Analysis Wing, the Intelligence
Bureau, Central Bureau of Investigation, Financial intelligence unit, Central Board of Direct
Taxes, Directorate of Revenue Intelligence, Enforcement Directorate, Narcotics Control Bureau,
Central Board of Excise and Customs and the Directorate General of Central Excise Intelligence)
It is headed by a CEO who is a security expert appointed by the government.
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-opinion/revive-natgrid-with-
safeguards/article8055893.ece
2 points
13. Question
Arunima Sinha, the amputee mountaineer who set a record by conquering Mount Everest,
recently added another feather to her cap by conquering Mount Aconcagua. In which of the
following countries is Mt Aconcagua located?
a) Chile
b) Argentina
c) Peru
d) Ecuador
Solution: b)
Aconcagua is the highest mountain outside of Asia, at 6,961 metres (22,838 ft), and by
extension the highest point in both the Western Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere. It is
located in the Andes mountain range, in the Mendoza Province, Argentina, and lies 112
kilometres (70 mi) northwest of its capital, the city of Mendoza.
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/arunima-sinha-scales-mt-aconcagua-in-
andes/article8059543.ece
2 points
14. Question
Knowing the surface gravity of a star helps in
a) Knowing your weight on that star

b) Knowing whether planets orbiting them can harbour life
c) Knowing its time of origin
d) Both a and b
Solution: d)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/new-way-to-measure-gravity-can-find-
earthlike-planets/article8059544.ece
If you love stars: http://news.vanderbilt.edu/2013/08/surface-gravity-of-stars/
If you love universe: http://www.nature.com/nature/journal/v500/n7463/full/nature12419.html
2 points
15. Question
Recently, Biderahalla Kaval in Tumakuru’s Gubbi taluk in Karnataka was in news for a significant
event. What’s it?
a) HAL is setting up state of the art helicopter manufacturing unit for the army
b) DRDO will set up a research facility for conducting research on UAVs
c) Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited is setting up a nuclear complex to recycle
fissile material
d) India’s largest food processing hub is coming up in this village
Solution: a)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/nondescript-village-to-host-hals-helicopter-
complex/article8059583.ece
Initially, the HAL plans to manufacture the lighter, three-tonne machines — the Light Utility
Helicopter (LUH) for reconnaissance and surveillance; and then the attack helicopter LCH (Light
Combat Helicopter). It will overhaul and repair military helicopters.
2 points
16. Question
China’s newly formed “Rocket Force” has which of the following the responsibility?
a) It controls China’s arsenal of land-based ballistic missiles - both nuclear and

conventional
b) It is China’s premier organization to create cutting edge space technology for military
use
c) It is a pool of highly trained astronauts for future space missions
Solution: a)
The People’s Liberation Army Rocket Force(PLARF), formerly the Second Artillery Corps, is the
strategic and tactical missile forces of the People’s Republic of China. The PLARF is a
component part of the People’s Liberation Army and controls the nation’s arsenal of land-based
ballistic missiles – both nuclear and conventional.
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-international/china-restructures-military-as-xi-eyes-
strong-army/article8059535.ece
2 points
17. Question
With reference to Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khana, consider the following statements:
1. He was one of the nine important ministers (dewan) in Babur’s court

2. He is known for his Hindi couplets and his books on astrology
3. He was son of Bairam Khan, Akbar’s trusted guardian and mentor
Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
Solution: b)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-features/tp-sundaymagazine/the-taj-of-
turkmenistan/article8059501.ece
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Abdul_Rahim_Khan-I-Khana
2 points
18. Question
With reference to Energy Efficiency Services Ltd (EESL), consider the following statements:
1. It is a public sector entity engaged in certification of energy efficiency of home

appliances
2. It is responsible for implementation of Domestic Efficient Lighting Programme (DELP)
under UJALA scheme
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/annual-solar-power-capacity-to-
quadruple-next-fiscal-year-goyal/article8059559.ece
Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) is a joint venture of state-run power companies,
responsible for implementation of Domestic Efficient Lighting Programme (DELP).[2] It has
reduced the prices of LED bulbs by 75%.
2 points
19. Question
Which of the following forces provide security to the Embassy and consulates of India in
Afghanistan?
a) The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) force

b) The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
c) The Border Security Force (BSF)
d) The National Security Guards (NSG)
Solution: a)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/attack-on-indian-consulate-in-afghanistan-
foiled/article8062783.ece
20. Question
Apart from its Embassy in Kabul, India has four diplomatic consulates in Afghanistan. 2 points
In which of the following cities India does NOT have its consulate in Afghanistan?
b) Mazar-e-Sharif
(b) Jalalabad
(c) Herat
d) Ghazni
Solution: d)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/attack-on-indian-consulate-in-afghanistan-
foiled/article8062783.ece
2 points
21. Question
Bhavani island, which is considered one of the largest river islands in India where
Shilparamam, an arts and crafts village project is being constructed, is located in
a) River Godavari
b) River Krishna
c) River Mahanadi
d) River Kaveri
Solution: b)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/tuck-into-your-favourite-food-on-river-
krishna/article8062544.ece
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bhavani_Island,_Vijayawada
2 points
22. Question
A community near the famed Serengeti national park in Tanzania is enlisting famed ’Bee
Concept’ to
a) Produce natural honey to fight hunger and poverty in the region

b) To reduce man - elephant conflict
c) To produce beehive like natural houses to solve housing problem
Solution: b)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-in-school/tanzania-looks-into-
beefence/article8065792.ece
2 points
23. Question
1. During cold weather pollution level increases

2. PM 2.5 particles are more harmful because they can travel more deeply into our lungs
and cause more harmful effects
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/calm-winds-spike-pollution-levels-in-
delhi/article8066339.ece
http://www.fortair.org/how-cold-weather-affects-air-quality/
2 points
24. Question
The Gigantopithecus, known as largest ape similar to famed King Kong, became extinct
thousands of years ago. Why?
a) A fruit-eater, it failed to adapt to the grass, roots, and leaves that became the
dominant food sources after climate change
b) Its population was hit by vast floods in South China
c) Its population was hit by large meteorite
(d) Its population was hunted down by early man for food
Solution: a)
http://news.nationalgeographic.com/2016/01/160106-science-evolution-apes-giant/
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/why-the-real-king-kong-became-
extinct/article8070101.ece
2 points
25. Question
Where is Gharana Wetland – recently in news for experiencing stress – located?
a) Jammu and Kashmir

b) Punjab
c) Haryana
d) Rajasthan
Solution: a)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-in-school/gharana-wetland-dying-a-slow-
death/article8073893.ece
2 points
26. Question
1. Black holes can be observed without high-spec x-ray or gamma-ray telescopes

2. Nasa’s Chandra X-ray Observatory is sensitive to X-ray sources 100 times fainter than
any previous X-ray telescope and detects x-rays from blackholes
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/visible-light-from-black-holes-detected-for-
first-time/article8079104.ece
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chandra_X-ray_Observatory
2 points
27. Question
Mission Bhageeratha of Telangana state which was in news recently, is a
a) Drinking water project

b) Housing project
c) Food for work project
d) Old age assistance scheme
Solution: a)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/mission-bhageeratha-brings-telangana-
forest-lands-in-focus/article8083720.ece
2 points
28. Question
There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only English and
some can speak only Hindi. 10 student can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of
students who can speak English 21, then how many students can speak Hindi how many can
speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English ?
(a) 21, 11 and 29 respectively

(b) 28, 18 and 22 respectively
(c) 37, 27 and 13 respectively
(d) 39, 29 and 11 respectively
Solution: d)
2 points
29. Question
A gardener increased the area of his rectangular garden by increasing its length by 40% and
decreasing its width by 20%. The area of the new garden
(a) has increased by 20%.

(b) has increased by 12%.
(c) has increased by 8%.
(d) is exactly the same as the old area.
Solution: b)
2 points
30. Question
Six books are labelled A, B, C, D, E and F and are placed side by side. Books B, C, E and F have
green covers while others have yellow covers. Books A, B and D are new while the rest are old
volumes. Books A, Band Care law reports while the rest are medical extracts. Which two books
are old medical extracts and have green covers?
(a) B and C
(b) E and F
(c) C and E
(d) C and F
Solution: b)
2 points
31. Question
A straight line segment is 36 cm long. Points are to be marked on the line from both the end
points. From each end, the first point is at a distance of 1 cm from the end, the second point is
at a distance of 2 cm from the first point and the third point is at a distance of 3 cm from the
second point and so on. If the points on the ends are not counted and the common points are
counted as one, what is the number of points?
(a) 10
b) 12
c) 14
d) 16
Solution: b)
2 points
32. Question
If Sohan, while selling two goats at the same price, makes a profit of 10% on one goat and
suffers a loss of 10% on the other
(a) he makes no profit and no loss.

(b) he makes a profit of 1%.
(c) he suffers a loss of 1%.
(d) he suffers a loss of 2%.
Solution: c)
2 points
33. Question
Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club, 5% can play all the three instruments, guitar, violin
and flute. It so happens that the number of musicians who can play any and only two of the
above instruments is 30. The number of musicians who can play guitar alone is 40. What is the
total number those who can play violin alone or flute alone?
(a) 45
(b) 44
(c) 38
d) 30
Solution: b)
2 points
34. Question
Six identical cards are placed on a table. Each card has number ‘1’ marked on one side and
number ‘2’ marked on its other side. All the six cards are placed in such a manner that the
number ‘1’ is on the upper side. In one try, exactly four (neither more nor less) cards are
turned upside down. In how many Ieast number of tries can the cards be turned upside down
such that all the six cards show number ‘2’ on the upper side?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
(d) This cannot be achieved
Solution: a)
2 points
35. Question
Two cars start towards each other, from two places A and B which are at a distance of 160
km. They start at the same time 08 : 10 AM. If the speeds of the cars are 50 km and 30 km per
hour respectively, they will meet each other at
(a) 10 : 10 AM
(b) 10 : 30 AM
(c) 11 : 10 AM
(d) 11 : 20 AM
Solution: a)
RevisionTest28
2 points
1. Question
WHO has recommended wearing helmets to prevent deaths caused due to head injuries during
accidents to motorcyclists and cyclists. How does wearing an helmet prevent head injury?
a) It reduces the deceleration of the skull, and hence the brain movement, by managing
the impact
b) It spreads the forces of the impact over a greater surface area so that they are not
concentrated on particular areas of the skull
c) It prevents direct contact between the skull and the impacting object by acting as a
mechanical barrier between the head and the object
d) All the above
Solution: d)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/compulsory-helmet-for-pillion-riders-from-
today/article8177743.ece
Please read this:
http://www.who.int/roadsafety/projects/manuals/helmet_manual/1-Why.pdf
2 points
2. Question
The Spaceward Bound project of NASA is a
a) Program to identify and train astronauts for its future manned missions to Mars
b) Exploration of scientifically interesting but remote and extreme environments on Earth
to train space explorers
c) Program to highly advanced Spaceships for future interplanetary missions
Solution: b)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/nasa-india-join-hands-for-astrobiology-
mission/article8176633.ece
http://quest.nasa.gov/projects/spacewardbound/
2 points
3. Question
Margaretha Geertruida Zelle, known by her stage name Mata Hari, was executed by a firing
squad during the First World War. Why and who killed her?
a) She was a Russian spy killed by Germans

b) She was a German Spy killed by French
c) She was an Italian spy killed by Germans
d) She was a French spy killed by Germans
Solution: b)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/wwi-spy-mata-hari-in-new-dutch-
ballet/article8180611.ece
2 points
4. Question
Who selects the managing director of the IMF?
a) All the members countries vote for a shortlisted candidate

b) IMF’s 24 member Executive Board
c) IMF’s Board of Governors
Solution: b)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-opinion/push-for-imf-reform/article8176660.ece
https://www.imf.org/external/np/exr/facts/mdsp.htm
https://www.imf.org/external/about/govstruct.htm
2 points
5. Question
With reference to the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB), consider the following statements:
1. It is currently under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence, Government of

India.
2. It is responsible for manning the China and Bhutan borders with India
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
It is under Home ministry. It mans Nepal and Bhutan borders
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/archana-ramasundaram-is-ssb-
chief/article8180700.ece
2 points
6. Question
With reference to the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD) , consider
1. It has only European members

2. Largest stakeholder is USA
3. It is also known as the European Investment Bank (EIB)
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 2 and 3 Only
Solution: b)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/indian-likely-to-become-cfo-of-
aiib/article8180632.ece
The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD) is an international financial
institution founded in 1991. As a multilateral developmental investment bank, the EBRD uses
investment as a tool to build market economies. Initially focused on the countries of the former
Eastern Bloc it expanded to support development in 30 countries from central Europe to central
Asia. Besides Europe, member countries of the EBRD are from all 5 continents (North America,
Africa, Asia and Australia see below), with the biggest shareholder being the United States, so
the name is somewhat of a misnomer.
Headquartered in London, the EBRD is owned by 65 countries and two EU institutions. Despite
its public sector shareholders, it invests mainly in private enterprises, together with commercial
partners. The EBRD is not to be confused with the European Investment Bank (EIB), which is
owned by EU member states and is used to support EU policy. EBRD is also distinct from the
Council of Europe Development Bank (CEB).
2 points
7. Question
With reference to endosulfan, consider the following statements:
1. It has been used in agriculture to control insect pests

2. It is banned under the Stockholm Convention
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/keralas-endosulfan-victims-hoping-for-an-
end-to-their-woes/article8185573.ece
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Endosulfan
2 points
8. Question
Muara — one of the main ports with which India has significant trade – is in the South China
Sea region . It belongs to which of the following countries?
a) Laos
b) Vietnam
c) Brunei
d) Cambodia
Solution: c)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-international/india-brunei-discuss-south-china-sea-
dispute/article8185549.ece
Brunei’s main port, Muara — one of the main ports in Southeast Asia through which the bulk of
the country’s oil and gas exports to India take place — is in the South China Sea region and will
become a major component of India’s growing maritime partnership with Brunei. Sources tell
The Hindu that India has taken note of the growing Chinese influence on Muara.
2 points
9. Question
1. He was first Asian to be elected as Chairman of Commonwealth Parliamentarian

Executive Forum
2. He served as Speaker of Lok Sabha from 1980 to 1989.
3. He was Governor of Madhya Pradesh state from 30 June 2004 to 30 May 2009
To whom does above description refer?
a) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

b) Bal Ram Jakhar
c) Shivraj Patil
d) Sardar Hukum Singh
Solution: b)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/balram-jakhar-passes-
away/article8190260.ece
He passed away recently. Question is framed because he was Speaker for 2 consecutive terms
and it seems he was Speaker for longest period compared to others.
http://speakerloksabha.nic.in/frmspeaker.asp
2 points
10. Question
Which of the following diseases does Aedes aegypti spread?

1. Yello fever
2. Zika
3. Chikungunya
4. Dengue fever
5. Malaria
a) 2,3 and 4 Only

b) 2 and 4 Only
c) 1,2,3 and 4 Only
d) 1,2, 4 and 5 Only
Solution: c)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/zika-transmitted-through-aedes-
mosquito/article8190705.ece
The yellow fever mosquito (Aedes aegypti) is a mosquito that can spread dengue fever,
chikungunya, Zika fever and yellow fever viruses, and other diseases. The mosquito can be
recognized by white markings on its legs and a marking in the form of a lyre on the upper
surface of the thorax. The mosquito originated in Africa,[2] but is now found in tropical and
subtropical regions throughout the world.
2 points
11. Question
Which country annually hosts the Cobra Gold 2016 event – largest Asia-Pacific military exercise
– in which India participated for the first time?
a) Vietnam
b) Thailand
c) Japan
d) South Korea
Solution: b)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-international/india-thailand-firm-up-maritime-
cooperation/article8190232.ece
2 points
12. Question
Five years after signing the Convention on Supplementary Compensation for Nuclear Damage
(CSC), India ratified the convention recently. WIth reference to CSC, consider the following
statements:
1. The CSC will give India access to international funding, beyond those available through
national resources, to pay for damages in the event of a nuclear accident
2. Apart from the CSC, two more nuclear liability regimes are there – the Vienna
Convention and the Paris Convention
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/india-ratifies-pact-on-nuclear-
compensation/article8195887.ece
For analysis wrt India:

http://www.idsa.in/issuebrief/IndiaandtheConventiononSupplementary_gbalachandran_190215
2 points
13. Question
Which of the following bodies issues the ‘Geographical Indication’ tag in India?
a) Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB)

b) Indian Patent Office
c) National Green Tribunal
d) The Ministry of Culture, Government of India
Solution: a)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/indian-basmati-rice-all-set-to-get-gi-
tag/article8200227.ece
IPAB exercises jurisdiction over Trademarks, Patents and Geographical Indications as on date.
2 points
14. Question
The world famous Temple of Dendur, which was recently in news, is located in which of the
following countries?
a) India
b) Egypt
c) Combodia
d) Nepal
Solution: b)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-in-school/the-lost-colours-of-an-old-
temple/article8206983.ece
http://www.nytimes.com/2016/02/02/arts/temple-of-dendurs-lost-colors-brought-to-life-at-the-
met.html?_r=0
2 points
15. Question
Recently, during the investigations of the biodiversity of coral reefs of the archipelago
Farasan, biologists have found “fluorescent lanterns” that were very similar to hydrae. Where
is Farasan located?
a) Mediterranean Sea
b) South China Sea
c) Red Sea
d) Black Sea
Solution: c)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/luminous-creatures-discovered-in-red-
sea/article8212357.ece
(for this kind of questions, you can make a guess – corals are usually found in tropical waters
and the name Farasan sound like Arabic/Persian word)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-in-school/new-glowing-creatures-discovered-in-red-
sea/article8210643.ece
2 points
16. Question
With reference to Myanmar’s Parliament, consider the following statement:
1. It is a bicameral legislature
2. It is established by the 2008 National Constitution
3. All the seats of Lower House are directly elected by democratic elections
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 Only
d) All
Solution: a)
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-in-school/myanmar-parliament-sets-date-for-
presidential-run/article8210683.ece
Lowe House known as Pyithu Hluttaw has 440 seats – of which 330 are directly elected and rest
are military appointees nominated by the Commander-in-Chief of the Defence Services.
RevisionTest29
2 points
1. Question
Recently, a sculpture of Chandesvarar, believed to belong to 10th century AD,was found near
Tiruchi. It belongs to which dynasty?
a) Chera
b) Chola
c) Hoysala
d) Chalukya
Solution: b)
https://drive.google.com/file/d/0BwVOV6fnuTNqYnF3Z0xQaEJTMzA/view
http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Tiruchirapalli/chandesvarar-sculpture-found-at-
umaiyalpuram/article8376448.ece
2 points
2. Question
With reference to the Maharashtra Hindu Place of Worship (Entry Authorisation) Act, 1956,
consider the following statements
1. According to this Act, if any temple or person prohibits any person from entering a
temple then he or she faces a six-month imprisonment
2. The Maharashtra High Court has pronounced this Act unconstitutional in its recent
verdict
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/no-law-prevents-women-from-entering-
temples-hc/article8414551.ece
2 points
3. Question
International World Water Day is held annually on 22 March as a means of focusing attention
on the importance of freshwater and advocating for the sustainable management of freshwater
resources. Which Summit/Conference recommended it?
a) UN Conference on the Human Environment (1972)
b) World Commission on Environment and Development (1987)
c) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (1992)
d) General Assembly Special Session on the Environment (1997)
Solution: c)
It is also called as Rio Summit or Earth SUmmit
http://www.un.org/en/events/waterday/background.shtml
http://research.un.org/en/docs/environment/conferences
2 points
4. Question
Superflares are typically found on/in
a) Black Holes
b) Supernova
c) Young stars
Solution: c)
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/sun-may-produce-devastating-superflares-say-
scientists/article8402426.ece
2 points
5. Question
With reference to The Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements
1. It is an ad hoc committee
2. It examines every complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member referred to it
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 2 and 3 Only
Solution: b)
It is a permanent standing committee
2 points
6. Question
Sutlej Yamuna link canal dispute is between
a) Punjab and Rajasthan

b) Haryana and Himachal Pradesh
c) Punjab and Haryana
d) Haryana and Uttarakhand
Solution: c)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sutlej_Yamuna_link_canal
2 points
7. Question
The Medical Council of India (MCI) is
a) A statutory body
b) Quasi judicial body
c) A Non-statutory body
d) Department in Ministry of Health, Govt of India
Solution: a)
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/medical-council-needs-urgent-
therapy/article8423556.ece
2 points
8. Question
With reference to India’s first international financial services centre (IFSC), consider the
1. An IFSC caters to customers outside the jurisdiction of the domestic economy

2. An IFSC can be set up in an SEZ
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
http://www.livemint.com/Industry/XmEtCCZklNL5w0LmQ9K7lJ/What-is-an-IFSC-and-how-does-
it-work.html
2 points
9. Question
With reference to combined braking system (CBS) , consider the following statements:
1. It has been made compulsory for all two-wheelers in India

2. In CBS, both front and rear brakes on a motorcycle are linked
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Combined_braking_system
2 points
10. Question
With reference to the National Court of Appeal(NCA), consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court has proposed setting up of NCA regional benches in Chennai,
Mumbai and Kolkata to act as final court of justice in dealing with appeals from the
decisions of the High Courts and tribunals
2. The Union government has agreed to set up NCA in different parts of the country
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/national-court-of-appeal-the-hindu-
explains/article8532094.ece
2 points
11. Question
Swine Flu is caused by
(a) H1N1 Virus

b) H5N1 Virus
c) H7N9 Virus
d) Both a and b
Solution: a)
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/punjab-notifies-swine-flu-under-
epidemic-disease-act/article8362584.ece
2 points
12. Question
Rotavirus infection causes
a) Severe brain deformation

b) Severe liver damage in young children
c) Severe limb deformities in infants
d) Severe diarrhoeal disease and dehydration in infants
Solution: d)
http://www.who.int/topics/rotavirus_infections/en/
http://www.ndtv.com/india-news/pm-narendra-modi-launches-rotavirus-vaccine-developed-in-
india-745338
2 points
13. Question
The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)
is an international organization involving a group of countries in South Asia and South East
Asia. Which of the following countries is NOT one of its members?
a) Nepal
b) Bhutan
c) Thailand
d) Indonesia
Solution: d)
The BIMSTEC comprises of seven countries, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri
Lanka and Thailand.
2 points
14. Question
With reference to Uridashi Masala bonds, consider the following statements:
1. They are issued by RBI

2. These are sold to Japanese household investors
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
They are issued by International Finance Corporation (IFC)
http://www.livemint.com/Money/tS6OKJXcnE2Wc9MVnjcBXO/IFC-launches-masala-bonds-to-
tap-Japanese-households.html

Insight RevisionTest 2016

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Insight RevisionTest 2016

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

RevisionTest01

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Consider the following statements:

1. Naupada which is famous for salt fields is located in Odisha

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

With reference to India’s commitments under Under Intended Nationally Determined

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

1. It bears the largest seed known to science

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

To which Indian State does following statements refer?

Find the correct answer from below options:

To which wildlife sanctuary does the following descriptions refer?

Find the correct answer from below options:

a) Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary

Which of the following are freshwater ecosystems?

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1,2 and 3 Only

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

The Society of Integrated Coastal Management (SICOM) is a/an

a) NGO assisted by World Bank involved in conducting research activities to understand

The Global Environment Facility is a/an

With reference to forest fires in India, consider the following statements:

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Teak, peepal, neem and shisham trees are mostly found in

a) Tropical evergreen forests

Mangroves grow in high salt conditions due to

a) Presence of special salt-excreting glands on leaves

Consider the following statements:

To which animal does above statements refer?

a) Malabar large-spotted civet

a) Evergreen, tropical tree native to South and Southeast Asia

Article 8 (j) of the Convention on Biological Diversity is related to

a) Traditional Knowledge, Innovations and Practices

1. National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) established under this Act is a Statutory,

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

The main objective/objectives of USAID’s new Forest-PLUS program in India is 2 points

a) To accelerate India’s transition to a low-carbon economy

a) (a) Rs. 4950

Consider the following statements:

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

MoEF report page 74.

a) Anamudi Shola National Park

a) The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980

Consider the following statements:

1. PM 10 poses greater threat to health than PM 2.4 particles

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

With reference to Fly ash, consider the following statements: 2 points

1. It is is one of the coal combustion products

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. Increasing the efficiency of the combustion process

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Consider the following statements: 2 points

1. It is the shortest classified river draining into the Bay of Bengal

To which of the following rivers does above description refer?

Consider the following statements: 2 points

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Consider the following statements:

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Which of the following matches is/are correct? 2 points

1. Rain Forest Research Institute – Jorhat

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Which of the above definitions is/are INCORRECT?

Consider the following statements 2 points

1. To save the environment, Reuse strategy is a better option than Recycling