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Hazardous Waste Management Questions and Answers –
Exposure Assessment
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This set of Hazardous Waste Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
(MCQs) focuses on “Exposure Assessment”.
1. What does the term “exposure” to chemical pollutants from hazardous waste
management processes indicate?
a) contact with chemical substances that can potentially cause adverse health effects
b) contamination level
c) spatial distribution of the contaminant
d) affected biota
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Exposure to a chemical pollutant indicates the contact with a toxin that
has the potential to cause health effects, which are modulated by the toxicity of
substances, the susceptibility of exposed individuals, and the extent and exposure
pattern.
2. The severity of toxic exposure on an individual depends on ________

a) Age and health
b) Genetics
c) Dose and susceptibility
d) Diet
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Dose represents the major determinant of the extent of toxic action and
the susceptibility of an individual is a function of age, genetics, health and exposures to
other agents.
3. What is the main objective of exposure assessment?

a) To estimate chemical concentrations
b) To estimate exposure of chemicals by the population at risk
c) To study site history
d) Chemical assessment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Major objective of exposure assessment is to estimate the risk caused by
the exposure of a chemical contaminant to an individual and ecosystem.
4. What is the first step evaluation in exposure assessment?
a) Models based on generic scenarios and conservative assumptions
b) On-site waste handling techniques
c) Study of pathways
d) Chemical analysis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a first step evaluation, models based on generic scenarios and
conservative assumptions can be used to perform a preliminary indirect exposure
assessment.
5. What is the second stage of quantitative risk assessment?

a) Hazard identification
b) Exposure assessment
c) Toxicity assessment
d) Risk characterisation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Exposure assessment deals with the study of exposure of chemicals to
population which may pose a threat.
6. Exposure assessment follows hazard characterization.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To know the rate of exposure on a population a hazard have to be
characterized.
7. Exposure is a state in which a person can potentially be influenced by a force or

situation but not necessarily affected.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Vulnerability is the state where a person can be influenced by situation
but not necessarily affected. Exposure indicates contact with the contaminant.
8. Estimation of short-term and long term exposure are usually in terms of ________
a) Doses by exposure rate
b) Susceptibility
c) Population
d) Genetics
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The period of exposure is estimated in terms of doses by calculating the
rate of exposure along with exposure pathways.
9. Which of the following risk assessment tool is used for the determination of spatial
distribution of contaminants at the site?
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The first step of exposure assessment is the determination of the sources
and the possible pathways.
10. Why does the environmental pathways of chemicals has to be found in exposure
assessment?
a) To predict the source of discharge
b) To estimate chemicals
c) Chemical analysis
d) To determine affected biota
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: By determining the environmental pathway of chemicals, the probable
source of discharge could be found and severity of the exposure can be minimized.
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Risk Assessment – Hazard Identification
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(MCQs) focuses on “Risk Assessment – Hazard Identification”.
1. What is the main purpose of hazard identification?

a) To minimise the effect of a consequence
b) For better risk management
c) To characterize adverse effect of toxins
d) To reduce probability of occurrence
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hazard identification is the first step in risk assessment. The goal is to
understand the concentration of toxins, spatial distribution and there movement.
2. The ____________ process determines whether exposure to a chemical can increase

the incidence of adverse health effect.
d) Risk characterization
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hazard identification traces the path of the toxins and also determines the
likelihood of occurrence in humans.
3. Which of the following data is not required for hazard identification?

a) Land use
b) Contaminant levels
c) Affected population
d) Estimation of risk
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation of risk is done at risk characterization whereas land use,
contaminant level, affected population and biota data play a major role while
identifying a hazard.
4. Hazard is defined as the probability of suffering harm or loss.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk is the probability of suffering harm whereas hazard is a potential
source of harm.
5. Why does site history have to be considered for hazard identification?

a) To estimate the risk
b) To calculate carcinogenic exposure
c) To know the probable source and causes of contamination on site
d) For determination of remedial actions
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Site history provides precise information about the activities that had
been carried on the area. Most of the instance contamination is due to past activities
on site.
6. What is the main objective of risk assessment?

a) To evaluate hazard and minimize the risks
b) Remediation of contaminated sites
c) Hazard management
d) To know source of pollutants
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Risk assessment helps to understand possible problems and provides
alternatives as well as control measures to reduce the accident.
7. What is the first stage of risk assessment?

a) Exposure assessment
b) Hazard identification
c) Toxicity study
d) Risk characterization
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hazard identification is the first stage of risk assessment. It provides clear
understanding about chemical contaminants, their concentration and distribution in
environment.
8. An incident can be called hazardous only when?

a) Stressor has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems
b) Poses threat to surrounding
c) Monitoring is failed
d) Outburst of chemicals
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An incident is called hazardous only when the contaminant poses threat
to humans and ecological systems which may results in catastrophic.
9. The purpose of risk management is to identify potential problems before they occur
so that risk-handling activities may be planned.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main goal of risk management is to reduce the threats from an
activity so that harm to the surrounding is minimized.
10. Hazard identification mainly focus on ______________
a) Chemical source and concentration
b) Chemical exposure
d) Chemical pathway
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main aim of hazard identification is to identify chemical source,
concentration and its movement in environment.

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Exposure Assessment
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(MCQs) focuses on “Exposure Assessment”.
1. What does the term “exposure” to chemical pollutants from hazardous waste
management processes indicate?
a) contact with chemical substances that can potentially cause adverse health effects
b) contamination level
c) spatial distribution of the contaminant
d) affected biota
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Exposure to a chemical pollutant indicates the contact with a toxin that
has the potential to cause health effects, which are modulated by the toxicity of
substances, the susceptibility of exposed individuals, and the extent and exposure
pattern.
2. The severity of toxic exposure on an individual depends on ________

a) Age and health
b) Genetics
c) Dose and susceptibility
d) Diet
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Dose represents the major determinant of the extent of toxic action and
the susceptibility of an individual is a function of age, genetics, health and exposures to
other agents.
3. What is the main objective of exposure assessment?

a) To estimate chemical concentrations
b) To estimate exposure of chemicals by the population at risk
c) To study site history
d) Chemical assessment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Major objective of exposure assessment is to estimate the risk caused by
the exposure of a chemical contaminant to an individual and ecosystem.
4. What is the first step evaluation in exposure assessment?

a) Models based on generic scenarios and conservative assumptions
b) On-site waste handling techniques
c) Study of pathways
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a first step evaluation, models based on generic scenarios and
conservative assumptions can be used to perform a preliminary indirect exposure
assessment.
5. What is the second stage of quantitative risk assessment?

View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Exposure assessment deals with the study of exposure of chemicals to
population which may pose a threat.
6. Exposure assessment follows hazard characterization.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To know the rate of exposure on a population a hazard have to be
characterized.
7. Exposure is a state in which a person can potentially be influenced by a force or

situation but not necessarily affected.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Vulnerability is the state where a person can be influenced by situation
but not necessarily affected. Exposure indicates contact with the contaminant.
8. Estimation of short-term and long term exposure are usually in terms of ________
a) Doses by exposure rate
b) Susceptibility
c) Population
d) Genetics
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The period of exposure is estimated in terms of doses by calculating the
rate of exposure along with exposure pathways.
9. Which of the following risk assessment tool is used for the determination of spatial
distribution of contaminants at the site?
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The first step of exposure assessment is the determination of the sources
and the possible pathways.
10. Why does the environmental pathways of chemicals has to be found in exposure
assessment?
a) To predict the source of discharge
b) To estimate chemicals
d) To determine affected biota
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: By determining the environmental pathway of chemicals, the probable
source of discharge could be found and severity of the exposure can be minimized.

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Toxicity Assessment
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(MCQs) focuses on “Toxicity Assessment”
1. What are the steps involved in evaluation of toxicity?

a) hazard identification and dose-response evaluation
b) chemical analysis
c) pathway analysis
d) evaluation of long term impact
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hazard identification includes a description of the specific forms of toxicity
and Dose-response evaluation is incidence of specific toxins subjected to population.
2. ___________ establishes the relationship between the contaminant/s of concern and

the receptor.
b) Toxicity assessment
c) Risk characterisation
d) Exposure assessment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Toxicity assessment is the Characterization of the toxicological properties
and effects of a chemical, with special emphasis on establishment of dose-response
characteristics.
3. Which of the following is not characteristics of hazardous waste?

a) Toxicity
b) Corrosivity
c) Ignitibility
d) Leakage
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Toxicity, corrosivity, ignitibility and reactivity are the aspects considered in
quantification and characterisation of hazardous waste.
4. What is toxicity equivalence factor?

a) Ratio of the toxicity of a chemical to that of another structurally related chemical (or
index compound) chosen as a reference
b) Ratio of the toxicity of a contaminant to that of another structurally related chemical
(or index compound) chosen as a reference
c) Ratio of the toxicity of a chemical to that of another chemical pollutant chosen as a
reference
d) Ratio of the toxicity of a chemical to that of source
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Factor used to estimate the toxicity of a complex mixture, commonly a
mixture of chlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins [oxanthrenes], furans, and biphenyls.
5. Toxicity test is the experimental study of the adverse effects of exposure of a living
organism to a substance for a defined duration under defined conditions.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Toxicity testing is conducted to determine the degree to which a
substance can damage a living or non-living organisms.
6. Results from long-term exposure to lower doses of a chemical is known as ________

a) Acute toxicity
b) Chronic toxicity
c) Moderate toxicity
d) High toxicity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Chronic toxicity is the development of adverse effects as the result of long
term exposure to a toxicant or other stressor.
7. _________ is an interpretation tool which enables toxicity of unknown mixtures of

chemicals be converted into the concentration of an equivalently toxic reference
substance.
a) Toxicity equivalencing
b) Toxicity index
c) Toxicity proportion
d) Toxicity interpretation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Toxicity equivalencing tool is used to evaluate the amount of toxicity and
estimates the risks of a mixture of structurally related chemicals with a common and
same mechanism.
8. Which toxicity test is preferable to determine the acute or chronic toxicity of air,
water and wastewater discharges or total pollutant loads?
a) Indirect toxicity test
b) Direct toxicity test
d) High toxicity test
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The use of DTA allows an assessment of the toxicity of mixtures of
chemicals rather than individual chemicals.
9. What is the main objective of toxicity assessment?

a) To determine source of pathway
b) To determine chemical concentration
c) To estimate how much of a substance does what kind of harm.
d) To analyse chemical exposure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The main objective of toxicity assessment is the classification and
grouping according to toxicological properties of a substance, specifically the dose-
response relationship a with a specific route of exposure.
10. What is the third step of risk assessment?

b) Toxicity assessment
c) Exposure assessment
d) Corrosivity assessment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk assessments combine information on the level of exposure to
substance and its toxicity to characterize what is likely to happen to humans who may
be exposed.
11. LD50 in a toxicity test stands for ______

a) a dose that will kill 50% of an exposed population
b) a dose that would not affect or harm 50% of an exposed population
c) a dose that will kill 25% of an exposed population
d) a dose that would not kill 25% of an exposed population
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The value of LD50 for a substance is the dose required to kill half the
participant of a tested population after a specified test duration and it also depends on
the rate of exposure.
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Risk Characterization
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(MCQs) focuses on “Risk Characterization”.
1. What is the main objective of risk characterisation?

a) Estimation of the potential for adverse health or ecological effects to occur from
exposure to a stressor
b) Determination of pathways
c) Estimation of exposure
d) Collection of data
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Risk characterization is the qualitative and quantitative determination of
combined risks to receptors from individual chemicals of concern and exposure
pathways, and the associated uncertainties.
2. If the MDD from the target population is smaller than the RfD, the exposure is
considered relatively _________
a) Safe
b) Unsafe
c) Permissible
d) Accident
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: permissible exposure is defined in the dose-response phase of the risk
assessment, comparison with the maximum daily dose (MDD) occurring within the
tested population. If MDD is less than RfD it is considered safe.
3. If the MDD from the target population is greater than the RfD, the exposure is
considered relatively _________
a) Safe
b) Permissible
c) Unsafe
d) Void
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If MDD is higher than the RfD and if is approaching within 100 fold of the
NOEL according to the toxic studies, then the exposure is considered unsafe.
4. What should be the MOE after extrapolation to humans to be considered as a low

risk?
a) Over 20
b) Over 30
c) Over 40
d) Over 10
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Risk of exposure for non-oncogenic effects is expressed as a Margin
of Exposure (MOE). If it’s over 10, No Effects Level is a lot higher than the actual
exposure occurring among the most exposed individuals within the target population.
5. Which of the following is not a component of risk characterisation?

a) Study of exposure duration, frequency, and magnitude
b) Study of pathways and receptors
c) Study of toxicity values
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The components of risk characterization focus on gather, review,
compare, and organize the outputs of the exposure and toxicity assessment.
6. The sum of risk of each individual chemical is __________

a) Total pathway risk
b) Simple pathway risk
c) Negative pathway risk
d) Complex pathway risk
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Total pathway risk is the determination cumulative risk of each exposure
pathway by adding risk from each individual chemical in that pathway.
7. What is the final stage of risk assessment?

b) Risk characterisation
c) Exposure assessment
d) Toxicity assessment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The final stage of risk assessment is to calculate risks. Risks consists of
calculating quantitative estimates of carcinogenic and non-carcinogenic risks to
receptors.
8. Which of the following does not come under elements of risk characterisation?
a) Qualitative description of uncertainty
b) Presentation of the risk estimate
c) Communication of the results of risk analysis
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Analysis of chemicals does not belongs to risk characterization.
Generation of a quantitative estimate of risk is the first step to be considered.
9. _________ document provides guidance to EPA and other government employees for
clean-up of hazardous site.
a) Superfund Risk-Assessment Guidance
b) RCRA Risk-Assessment Guidance
c) NPL Risk-Assessment Guidance
d) HRS Risk-Assessment Guidance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Superfund document provides guidance to EPA and other
government employees and contractors who might be risk-assessment reviewers, risk
assessor, remedial project managers, or risk managers involved in clean-up of
superfund-site.
10. ______ provides information important for interpreting the risk results.
a) Risk estimation
b) Risk description
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk output
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk description provides information important for interpreting the risk
results and identifies a level for harmful effects on the plants and animals of concern.
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Risk Management – Exposure Prediction
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(MCQs) focuses on “Risk Management – Exposure Prediction”.
1. Which of the following is not a modelling approach for prediction of exposure in

ecological risk assessment?
a) Static representation of the environment
b) Chemical discharge
c) Simplified dynamic approach
d) Site history
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Evaluating organism exposure in ecosystems is a difficult and can be
carried out measuring or predicting concentrations in the environment. Current
regulatory approaches favour modelling approach, they either use a static
representation of the environment and of the chemical discharge or a simplified
dynamic approach.
2. Exposure prediction depends upon _______ of exposure.

a) Frequency and intensity
b) Data collection
c) Genetics
d) Agents
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Measurement or estimation of the exposure depends upon the intensity,
frequency, and duration of human exposures to agents.
3. Exposure prediction is difficult and complex.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The dimensions of the dose-response relationship usually prove
particularly troublesome, primarily because estimates of dose are poor in most
collections of epidemiological evidence. Even the quantification of exposure can be
difficult.
4. ______ represents a contact between a chemical agent and an object.

a) Dose
b) Response
c) Exposure
d) Concentration
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Exposure represents a contact between a chemical agent and an object
which can lead to acute and chronic diseases depending on the rate of exposure.
5. What do the below hazard pictograph stands for?
a) Skin sensitizer
b) Flammable
c) Explosive
d) Dangerous
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) require pictographs on labels to
alert users of the chemical hazards to which they may be exposed. Explanation marks
stands for irritant (skin and eye), skin sensitizer, acute toxicity (harmful), narcotic
effects, respiratory tract irritant, hazardous to Ozone layer.
6. What does the below hazard pictograph represent?
a) Toxicity
b) Acute toxicity
c) Oxidisers
d) Chronic toxicity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Flame over circle symbol on a chemical label means that the substance is
an oxidizer. Oxidizers may cause a fire by increasing the concentration of oxygen in the
air.
7. What do the below hazard pictograph indicate?
a) Explosives
b) Flammable
c) Toxic
d) Dangerous
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Indicates explosives with very insensitive substances which have a mass
explosion hazard and the asterisk is replaced by the compatibility code.
8. Which of the following is not a function of hazard pictogram?

a) Identification of the product
b) Analysis
c) Danger or warning
d) Hazard statements
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Precautionary statements are one of the key elements for the labelling of
containers under the GHS, along with an identification of the product, a signal word –
either danger or warning hazard statements, indicating the nature and degree of the
risks posed by the product and the identity of the supplier.
9. ________ identifies and quantifies pathway of exposure.

a) Exposure assessment
b) Risk assessment
d) Risk assessment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Exposure assessment includes three steps which are characterization of
the exposure setting (e.g., point source), identification of exposure pathways (e.g.,
groundwater) and quantification of the exposure (e.g., microgram/L water).
10. Exposure effect is more in adults than that of children.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The sensitivity rate is more in infants, elderly, pregnant women, and those
with chronic illness.

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Characterization – Toxicity Test
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(MCQs) focuses on “Characterization – Toxicity Test”.
1. Toxicity is characterized by _______

a) Instability
b) Volume
c) Temperature
d) Dosage
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Identified character of toxicity is the concentration of lethal dosage, also
known as LD50.
2. A waste to be called toxic, acute oral LD50 concentration should be _______ mg/kg.
a) 2200
b) 2300
c) 2400
d) 2500
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A waste to be called acute oral toxic, LD50 concentration should be less
than 2,500 milligrams per kilogram.
3. A waste to be called toxic, acute dermal LD50 concentration should be ________

mg/kg.
a) 2200
b) 4300
c) 2400
d) 2500
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A waste to be called acute dermal toxic, LD50 concentration should be less
than 4300 milligrams per kilogram.
4. LC50 is associated with toxicity.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: LC50 is the measurement of micrograms or milligrams of material per liter
or ppm of air or water. Lower the amount, more toxic the material.
5. A waste to be called toxic, acute inhalation LC50 concentration should be _______

ppm.
a) 2200
b) 4300
c) 2400
d) 10000
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A waste to be called acute inhalation toxic, LC50 concentration should be
less than 10000ppm.
6. ________ test is done to determine toxicity level of waste.

a) EP
b) SD
c) AW
d) PO
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Extraction Procedure (EP), EP toxicity test is designed to identify which
particular toxic constituent causes damage when improperly managed.
7. Leaching actions are observed for finding toxicity concentrations.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Leachate from landfill is extracted to analyse the concentration of toxic
contaminants.
8. Maximum concentration of D004 waste is ________ mg/L.

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The hazardous contaminant that has hazardous waste number D004
according to EPA is arsenic. The maximum concentration of arsenic is 5mg/L.
9. Maximum concentration of D009 waste is ________ mg/L.

a) 0.1
b) 0.2
c) 0.3
d) 0.4
View Answer
Answer: b
according to EPA is mercury. The maximum concentration of mercury is 0.2mg/L.
10. Maximum concentration of D015 waste is _________ mg/L.
a) 0.2
b) 0.3
c) 0.4
d) 0.5
View Answer
Answer: d
according to EPA is toxaphene. The maximum concentration of toxaphene is 0.5mg/L.

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Characterization – Ignitability Test
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(MCQs) focuses on “Characterization – Ignitability Test”.
1. Characteristic of an hazardous waste that causes fire is ________

a) Ignitibility
b) Corrosivity
c) Reactivity
d) Toxicity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ignitibility is the hazardous character that would cause a fire hazard
during transport, storage or disposal if not handled properly.
2. Character exhibited by waste oils is ________

a) Ignitibility
b) Corrosivity
c) Reactivity
d) Toxicity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Waste oils and used solvents have high flash point and are subjected to
fire hazard if mishandled.
3. For a waste to be considered ignitable the alcohol content should be less than
_________ percent.
a) 21
b) 22
c) 23
d) 24
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A liquid waste is said to exhibit ignitable character if the alcohol content is
less than 24% of waste volume.
4. For a waste to be considered ignitable the flash point should be less than _________
Celsius.
a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 80
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A liquid waste is said to exhibit ignitable character if the flash point is 60
degrees Celsius or 140 degrees Fahrenheit.
5. Flash point of an ignitable waste is determined by ________ tester.

a) Pensky-Martens
b) Donald
c) Harry-styles
d) Max-light
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flash point of an ignitable waste is determined by Pensky-Martens
Closed cup tester as specified in ASTM standard 9379.
6. What is the parameter responsible for ignitibility in non-liquid waste?

a) Temperature
b) Volume
c) Area
d) Storage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A hazardous waste is said to be ignitable when it reacts with temperature,
pressure and undergoes chemical changes.
7. A _________ exhibits ignitable character.

a) Metal
b) Heavy metal
c) Oxidizer
d) Pollutant
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An oxidizer as defined in 49 code of Federal regulations of DOT is
considered ignitable.
8. Compressed gas has ignitable characters.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Compressed gas possess ignitable characters as defined in 49 code of
Federal regulations according to DOT.
9. If the HW is ignitable it undergoes chemical changes.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A non-liquid waste is considered to have ignitable characters and at
standard temperature and pressure causes fire through absorption of moisture and
undergoes spontaneous chemical changes.
10. Hazardous waste number of material that is not considered ignitable is ________
a) D002
b) D003
c) D001
d) D005
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A waste that exhibits ignitable character but is not listed as hazardous
waste in sub-part D of EPA has a number D001.

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Environment Management Questions and Answers –
Effects and Control Measures of Marine Pollution
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This set of Environment Management MCQs focuses on “Effects and Control Measures
of Marine Pollution”.
1. What is the first step in primary sewage treatment plants?

a) Fine screening
b) Course screening
c) Chlorination
d) Primary settling tank
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sewage treatment is one of the efficient ways to reduce the pollution load
happening on marine waters. The primary treatment first undergoes for course
screening which then proceeds to other steps like fine screening and all.
2. What is called for the removal of sand, gravel in the primary treatment of sewage
treatment plant?
a) Course screening
b) Fine screening
c) Grit removal
d) Chlorination
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The removal of sand and gravel from the sewage in the primary treatment
of sewage plant is known as grit removal. This is the third step in primary treatment
after course screening and fine screening.
3. What is called for the place where lighter, organic material settles in the primary
treatment of sewage plant?
a) Primary settling tank
b) Secondary settling tank
c) Grit chamber
d) Coursing chamber
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The place where lighter and organic material settles in the primary
treatment of sewage plant is called as grit chamber. This chamber comes after the
screening of influent by removing the pollutants.
4. Where can we find rotating arm sprays in sewage treatment?

a) Primary treatment
b) Secondary treatment of trickling filter
c) Secondary treatment of activated sludge process
d) Secondary process of oxidation pool
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rotating arm sprays water over rocks can be seen in secondary treatment
of trickling filter. Rotating arm is followed by a circular bed of first size rocks and filter.
That treated wastewater along with slim goes to secondary settling tank, which treats
the water.
5. In which secondary treatment of sewage treatment sludge is broken down in an

anaerobic digester?
a) Oxidation pool
b) Activated sludge process
c) Trickling filter
d) Bed filter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In sedimentation tank, during sludge treatment sludge is broken down in
an anaerobic digester. The digester sludge is pumped onto sludge drying beds. The
dried sludge is a good source of manure.
6. In sewage treatment of oxidation pond we can see the water up to 2 meters deep.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In oxidation pond of the secondary treatment of sewage treatment plants
the influent is transferred into effluent. Partially treated sewage is directed to settle 2
meters deep in a vessel. This vessel settles the pollutants inside and floats the pollutant
free water upwards.
7. In which of the following treatment of sewage plant we can find disinfection as a
step?
a) Secondary process of oxidation pool
b) Secondary treatment of trickling filter
c) Primary treatment
d) Advanced sewage treatment
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: We can find disinfection as a step in advanced sewage treatment. Influent
after primary and secondary treatment proceeds to chemical treatment and then to
filtration and then to disinfection process after this effluent comes out.
8. How many percentage of BOD removes in primary treatment?

a) 15%
b) 25%
c) 35%
d) 45%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Primary treatment involves various processes like screening which is
proceeding by sedimentation where pollutants are removed during sedimentation.
Primary treatment normally removes about 35% of the BOD and 60% of the suspended
particles.
9. What is the main objective of secondary treatment of sewage plants?

a) To remove the suspended particles
b) To remove the contaminants
c) To remove the BOD
d) To remove the organic material
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The main objective of secondary treatment of sewage plants is to remove
most of the BOD. BOD decided the contamination of water pollutants. Secondary
treatment of sewage treatment can remove at least 85% of the BOD.
10. How many common approaches are used in secondary treatment?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Three commonly used approaches are used in the secondary treatment of
sewage plants. The three commonly used approaches are trickling filters where we can
see rotating arm, activated sludge process where we can see aeration tank and the last
one is oxidation pond.
11. What is the meaning of ‘Tainting’ related to marine pollution?

a) Unpleasant flavor of seafood
b) Unpleasant flavor of water
c) Unpleasant flavor of soil
d) Unpleasant flavor of air
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tainting imparts an unpleasant flavor to fish and seafood and is
detectable even at extremely low levels of contamination. Thus, the economic loss from
oil slicks on fish and shellfish happens.
12. When drill cutting dumped on the seabed which toxic is produced?
a) Toxic nitrites
b) Toxic fluorides
c) Toxic sulphides
d) Toxic hydrates
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When drill cuttings dumped on the seabed and it creates anoxic
conditions. These anoxic conditions result in the production of toxic sulphides in the
bottom sediment, thus eliminating the benthic fauna.
13. What happens if liquid oil contaminates a bird’s plumage?

a) Birds bone become week
b) Birds lost its memory
c) Birds digestive system becomes weak
d) Birds lost its water-repellent properties
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If liquid oil contaminates a bird’s plumage, its water-repellant properties
are lost. Water then penetrates the plumage and displaces the air trapped between the
feathers and skin. With this, the plumage becomes water-logged and the birds may
sink and drown.
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Environment Management Questions and Answers –
Hazardous Waste
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This set of Environment Management Puzzles focuses on “Hazardous Waste”.
1. When can we classify waste as hazardous?

a) When waste won’t cause any mortality
b) When waste increase mortality
c) When waste decrease mortality
d) When waste decompose itself without any aid
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Waste is normally classified as hazardous when it causes an increase in
mortality o an increase in series irreversible or incapacitating reversible illness or the
environment when improperly treated or disposed.
2. Based on how many primary characteristics we can classified waste as hazardous?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Waste is classified as hazardous if it exhibits any four primary
characteristics based on the physical or chemical properties of toxicity, reactivity,
ignitability and corrosivity. In addition to these waste products is also classified as
hazardous.
3. What is a toxic waste?

a) Substances those are not poisonous
b) Substances those are poisonous only when it taken in large quantity
c) Substances those are poisonous only when it taken in small quantity
d) Substances which work as an antidote for toxic materials
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Toxic wastes are substances that are poisonous even in very small or trace
amounts. Some may have an acute effect on humans causing death, others may have a
chronic or long term effect, slowly causing irreparable harm to humans and other
organisms.
4. Why chronic toxicity is difficult to determine?

a) Because there is no cure for that
b) Because it causes only little problems
c) Because effects can be seen immediately
d) Because effects may not be seen for years
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Chronic toxicity is much difficult to determine because the effects may not
be seen for years. One of the examples of chronic toxicity is cancer which can’t find
immediately. Certain toxic wastes are known to be carcinogenic and others may be
mutagenic.
5. Which of the following have a tendency to react vigorously with water or air?
a) Toxic waste
b) Reactive waste
c) Corrosive waste
d) Infectious waste
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reactive waste is that which has a tendency to react vigorously with air or
water. It is unstable to shock or heat, generates toxic gases or explodes during routine
management such as gunpowder.
6. Modern society doesn’t produce a large quantity of hazardous waste.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Modern society produces hazardous waste. It produces large quantities of
hazardous waste generated by chemical manufacturing companies, petroleum
refineries, paper mills, smelters and other industries.
7. What is an ignitable waste?

a) Waste which can burn relatively low temperatures
b) Waste which can burn relatively high temperatures
c) Waste which don’t burn
d) Waste which don’t produce temperature
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ignitable waste is that which burns at relatively low temperatures say less
than 60 Celsius. It is capable of spontaneous combustion during storage, transport or
disposal gasoline, paint thinners and alcohol.
8. What kind of reactions happens in corrosive waste?

a) Physical
b) Electro-chemical
c) Biological
d) Chemical
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In corrosive waste the reaction that happens is chemical. Corrosive waste
is that which destroys materials and living tissue by chemical reaction such as acid and
bases and thus cause hazardous to organisms.
9. Where we can get radioactive wastes?

a) Small scale industries
b) Houses
c) Nuclear power plants
d) Vehicular wastes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear power plants are the source for radioactive wastes. Radioactive
waste is the output from nuclear power plants that can persist in the environment for
thousands of years before it decays and cause hazardous to the environment.
10. Which of the following is a hazardous substance?

a) Gold
b) Lead
c) Copper
d) Iron
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lead is a hazardous substance often referred to as heavy metals. Lead is
abundant heavy metal and is relatively easy to obtain. Most of the lead absorbed by
people and wildlife is stored in the bones.
11. How do PCBs impact on birds?

a) They decrease the memory
b) They cause reproductive failure
c) They cause bird flu
d) They cause indigestion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PCBs is one of the hazardous waste that impact on greater extent to
environment. These PCBs can cause reproductive failure in birds and mammals. Thus
this kind of hazardous waste use must be use in limited quantity with precautionary
measures.
12. Vinyl chloride is widely used in the manufacture of______________
a) Glass
b) Agricultural chemicals
c) Storage of aquatic foods
d) Plastics
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Vinyl chloride is a chemical that is widely used in the manufacture of
plastic. A long continuous exposure in humans can cause deafness, vision problems
and bone deformities. Vinyl chloride also causes birth defects.
13. In order to dispose hazardous waste where there are no abundant lands which
method is used?
a) Land disposal
b) Burning
c) Floats in water bodies
d) Incineration
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The most common methods for disposing of hazardous waste are land
disposal and incineration. In countries where there is abundant land available for
disposal land disposal is used and countries where there is no abundant land
incineration method is used.
14. The use of polyvinyl chloride can be lowered by reducing the use of plastic.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Polyvinyl chloride use can lowered the use of plastics. In plastic PCBs is the
essential substitute by using polyvinyl chloride we can reduce the use of plastic. By
reducing waste, recycling and using products which are durable we can reduce the
consumption of chemicals which are causing hazardous to the environment.

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Environment Management Questions and Answers – Noise
Pollution and its Effects
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This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
(MCQs) focuses on “Noise Pollution and its Effects”.
1. What is noise?
a) Desirable sound
b) Desirable and unwanted sound
c) Undesirable and unwanted sound
d) Undesirable and wanted sound
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Noise is defined as an undesirable and unwanted sound. Noise pollution
affects human health and can contribute o a general deterioration of environmental
quality. Several sources of noise pollution contribute to both indoor and outdoor noise
pollution.
2. In which unit sound is measured?

a) Kilometer
b) Pascal
c) Kilogram
d) Decibel
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Noise pollution is measured in terms of decibel (dB). This parameter
depends on the various environmental conditions. If the decibel level increased than
the threshold it causes problems to humans and other organisms.
3. Which pollution cause hearing loss in organisms?

a) Air pollution
b) Noise pollution
c) Water pollution
d) Soil pollution
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Noise pollution can cause various health impacts on humans and other
organisms. This health impacts leads to various issues like reduced in the mental
health, hearing loss either temporary or permanent, loss in efficiency and many more.
4. What is the dB of a threshold of hearing?

a) 0
b) 10
c) 50
d) 100
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Decibel of the threshold of hearing is 0, for the rustle of leaves the dB is
10, for broadcasting studio dB is 20 and for Bedroom at night the dB is 30. This dB
various based on the noise and the environmental conditions.
5. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?

a) 100
b) 110
c) 120
d) 146
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Threshold of pain is described as the maximum level in which one can
sustain the noise after this the noise and cause several health related issues and it
even damage the hearing capacity permanently or temporarily.
6. All sound is noise.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Not all sound is noise. Sound is the voice below of the threshold of pain
where organisms can listen to the voice without any struggle. But noise is the
disturbance that arises in the sound and cause problems to organisms.
7. At what decibel instantaneous rupture of membrane happens?

a) 100
b) 120
c) 146
d) 150
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Instantaneous rapture of the membrane occurs at the decibel of 150.
Threshold of pain is caused at the decibel of 146. If the noise level increased to 150
decibels than within no time there will be an instantaneous rupture of membrane
occurs.
8. What is the ambient noise level in the residential one during night time?
a) 40 dB
b) 45 dB
c) 50 dB
d) 55 dB
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ambient noise level in residential zone during night period is 45 dB.
During day time the ambient noise levels in the residential area are 55 dB. Ambient
noise levels are different for commercial zone and industrial zones.
9. What is called for a temporary hearing loss?

a) Temporary ear pain
b) Temporary hearing problem
c) Temporary threshold shift
d) Temporary hearing shift
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Temporary hearing loss is often called a ‘temporary threshold shift’.
People suffering from this condition are unable to detect weak sounds. If a person got
this problem, hearing ability is usually recovered within a month of exposure.
10. What is the permissible noise limit of 120 db?

a) 30 minutes
b) 2 minutes
c) 1 minute
d) 30 seconds
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: One can hear 120 db for a duration of 30 seconds. For 30 seconds the
permissible noise limits is 120 db. If someone hear more than this duration there are
high chances of hearing loss and other mental health issues.
11. At what level a sound becomes physical pain?

a) Above 50 dB
b) Above 70 dB
c) Above 80 dB
d) Above 100 dB
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sound is measured in terms of decibels (db). World Health Organization
prescribed optimum noise level as 45 db during day time and 35 db during night time.
Anything above 80 db is hazardous.
12. Which of the following sound is pleasant to our ears?
a) Heavy machinery
b) Transportation equipment
c) Loud noise
d) Music
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Among the above options music is the only sound which pleasant our ears
rest of the sounds cause irritation by its unpleasant noise and cause damage to the
hearing permanently or temporarily.
13. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals
dependent on_______________
a) Noise
b) Sound
c) Actions
d) Behavior
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Animals develop a better sense of hearing than us since their survival
depends on it. Wildlife faces far more problems than humans because wildlife depends
on sound to protect themselves from enemies more than humans.
14. The degree of hearing loss depends on the duration as well as the intensity of the
noise.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For example, one hour of exposure to a 100 db sound level can produce a
temporary threshold shift that may last for about one day. In factories workers
subjected to high sounds for several hours in a day. It will cause hearing loss and other
mental issues.

Management.
To practice all areas of Energy & Environment Management, here is complete set of
1000+ Multiple Choice Questions and Answers.
and jobs!
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Measures of Marine Pollution
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2. The severity of toxic exposure on an individual depends on ________

3. What is the main objective of exposure assessment?

5. What is the second stage of quantitative risk assessment?

6. Exposure assessment follows hazard characterization.

7. Exposure is a state in which a person can potentially be influenced by a force or

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1. What is the main purpose of hazard identification?

2. The ____________ process determines whether exposure to a chemical can increase

3. Which of the following data is not required for hazard identification?

4. Hazard is defined as the probability of suffering harm or loss.

5. Why does site history have to be considered for hazard identification?

6. What is the main objective of risk assessment?

7. What is the first stage of risk assessment?

8. An incident can be called hazardous only when?

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Hazardous Waste Management.

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1000 Hazardous Waste Management MCQs

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2. The severity of toxic exposure on an individual depends on ________

3. What is the main objective of exposure assessment?

4. What is the first step evaluation in exposure assessment?

5. What is the second stage of quantitative risk assessment?

6. Exposure assessment follows hazard characterization.

7. Exposure is a state in which a person can potentially be influenced by a force or

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Hazardous Waste Management.

« Prev - Hazardous Waste Management Questions and Answers – Risk Assessment –

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1000 Hazardous Waste Management MCQs

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1000 Hazardous Waste Management MCQs

Risk AssessmentRisk ManagementEnvironmental LegislationInternational

1. What are the steps involved in evaluation of toxicity?

2. ___________ establishes the relationship between the contaminant/s of concern and

3. Which of the following is not characteristics of hazardous waste?

4. What is toxicity equivalence factor?

6. Results from long-term exposure to lower doses of a chemical is known as ________

7. _________ is an interpretation tool which enables toxicity of unknown mixtures of

9. What is the main objective of toxicity assessment?

10. What is the third step of risk assessment?

11. LD50 in a toxicity test stands for ______

« Prev - Hazardous Waste Management Questions and Answers – Exposure

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1000 Hazardous Waste Management MCQs

Risk AssessmentRisk ManagementEnvironmental LegislationInternational

1. What is the main objective of risk characterisation?

4. What should be the MOE after extrapolation to humans to be considered as a low

5. Which of the following is not a component of risk characterisation?