::001::

Which of the following statements regarding cephalosporins are correct?

First generation is more effective against gram+ bacteria

Third generation is more effective against gram- bacteria
Fourth generation has narrow spectrum of action
All are destroyed by beta-lactamases
Are effective against some protozoa
Are drugs of choice against MRSA

::002::
Which of the following statements regarding antibacterial chemothrapy are correct?

Often is associated with dysbiosis

Broad spectrum antibiotics always are preferred
Drug resistance takes 1-2 months of antibiotic administration to develop
Should be started with the least effective drugs
Antibiotics may induce endotoxic reaction
Parenteral administration always should be preferred
Antibiotics may induce pseudomembranous colitis

::003::
Which of the following antimicrobial drugs have broad spectrum of action?

Doxycycline
Moxifloxacin
Benzylpenicillin
Erythromycin
Isoniazid
Vancomycin

::004::
Which of the following are used for individual prophylaxix of malaria?

Chloroquine
Mefloquine
Metronidazole
Albendazole
Furazolidone
Praziquantel

::005::
Which of the following drugs are used in helmintosis?

Mebendazole
Praziquantel
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Itraconazole
Nystatin

::006::
Which of the following pairs correctly match the drug with its clinical use?

Azidothymidine – HIV infection

Oseltamivir – influenza
Aciclovir – hepatitis B
Saquinavir – herpes infection
Zidovudine – cytomegalovirus infection
Levorin – hepatitis C

::007::
Which of the following pairs correctly match the drug with its mechanism of action?

Methotrexate – folate antagonist

Mercaptopurine – antimetabolite
Cylophosphamide – mitotic spindle inhibitor
Doxorubicin – alkylating
Methylprednisolone – purine antagonist
Interferon alpha 2b – aromatase inhibitor

::008::
Which of the following drugs cause miosis?

Morphine
Physostigmine
Adrenaline
Atropine
Phenyephrine
Tropicamide

::009::
Which of the following drugs cause mydriasis?

Atropine
Adrenaline
Phenylephrine
Pilocarpine
Physostigmine
Morphine
Acetylsalicylic acid
Ibuprofen

::010::
Which of the following drugs cause tachycardia?
Adrenaline
Atropine
Propranolol
Labetalol
Physostigmine
Verapamil

::011::
Which of the following drugs cause bradycardia?

Metoprolol
Neostigmine
Digoxin
Verapamil
Adrenaline
Dobutamine
Atropine
Isoproterenol

::012::
Which of the following drugs reduce oxygen demand of the heart?

Nitroglycerine
Metoprolol
Verapamil
Adrenaline
Atropine
Theophylline
Heparin
Isoproterenol

::013::
Which of the following drugs lower blood pressure

ACE inhibitors
Calcium channel blockers
Indirect acting adrenomimetcs
Alpha1-adrenomimetics
Ganglion blocking agents
Cardiotonic
H2-antagonists
Proton pump inhibitors

::014::
Which of the following drugs are potent inducers of cytochrome P450?

Phenobarbital
Fenytoin
Heparin
Insulin
Ibuprofen
Captopril

::015::
Which of the following drugs are potent inhibitors of cytochrome P450?

Ketoconazole
Omeprazole
Bisacodyl
Bismuth subnitrate
Enalapril
Loperamide

::016::
Which of the following statements regarding local anesthetics are correct?

Adrenaline is used to terminate their action

Lidocaine has antiarrhythmic activity
Cocaine inhibits monoamines reuptake
Procaine causes vasoconstriction
They block sodium channels
Benzocaine is used for spinal anesthesia

::017::
Which of the following statements regarding morphine are correct?

Has spasmolytic activity

Blocks opioid receptors
Causes respiratory depression
Causes CNS excitation
Dilates the pupil
Its action is terminated by naloxone
Has expectorant activity

::018::
Which of the following statements are correct

Opioid analgesics stimulate neurotransmission within the nociceptive pathway

Nonnarcotic analgesics act by increasing prostaglandins synthesis
Selective COX2 inhibitors are associated with low risk of peptic ulcer
The main advantage of nonnarcotic analgesics over opioid is higher efficacy
Opiod analgesics are used to control cancer pain
Nonnarcotic analgesics are used to relieve pain during labour
::019::
Which of the following drugs may increase symptoms of peptic ulcer?

Caffeine
Ibuprofen
Neostigmine
Charcoal
Prednisolone
Omeprazole
Atropine
Verapamil

::020::
Antipsychotic drugs

Increase blood pressure

Produce antiparkinsonian effect
Have antiemetic activity
Stimulate dopamine receptors
Are used to treat depression
Cause CNS excitation
Block serotonin receptors

::021::
Which of the following potentiate the action of alcohol?

Chlorpromazine
Diazepam
Caffeine
Phenobarbital
Paracetamol
Amitryptiline
Clonidine
Captopril
Adrenaline
Benzylpenicillin

::022::
Which of the following statements correctly match the drug with its properties?

Fenytoin blocks sodium channels

Diazepam blocks dopamine receptors
Droperidol blocks GABA receptors
Levodopa – dopamine precursor
Trihexyphenidyl blocks H1 receptors
Phenobarbital decreases GABA activity

::023::
Choose correct statements:

MAO inhibitors should not be taken with tyramine containing food

Caffeine is contraindicated in peptic ulcer
Pyracetam causes amnesia
Diazepam improves memory
Amphetamine is indirect acting adrenomimetic
MAO inhibitors are respiratory analeptics

::024::
Which drugs cause CNS depression?

Clonidine
Morphine
Chlorpromazine
Diazepam
Phenobarbital
Caffeine
Theophylline
Aspirin
Loratadine
Cocaine

::025::
Choose correct statements:

Heparin direct thrombin inhibitor

Aspirin - ADP antagonist
Aminocaproic acid - fibrinolytic agent
Warfarin - vitamin K antagonist
Fraxiparin - indirect factor X inhibitor
Alteplase antifibrinolytic

::026::
Which of the following drugs are effective to prevent thrombi formation?

Aspirin
Heparin
Fraxiparin
Warfarin
Alteplase
Vicasolum
Aminocapronic acid

::027::
Which of the following drugs may induce symptoms of vitamin deficiency if administered
repeatedly?
Isoniazid
Methotrexate
Trimetoprim
Warfarin
Digoxin
Verapamil
Phenobarbital
Chloroquine

::028::
Choose correct statements

Thiopental sodium sensitizes the heart to catecholamines

Propofol has psychotomimetic activity
Ketamine causes dissociative anesthesia
Halothan is hepatotoxic
Nitrous oxide has low analgesic activity
Diethyl ester does not induce the stage of excitation

::029::
Which of the following statements are correct regarding drug overdose?

Naloxone is used in diazepam overdose

Flumazenyl is used in morphine overdose
Deferoxamine is used in iron preparations overdose
N-acetylcysteine is used in paracetamol overdose
Vitamin K is used in heparin overdose
Protamine sulfate is used in warfarin overdose
Physostimine is used in atropine overdose

::030::
Which of the following statements regarding ACE inhibitors are correct?

They decrease renin level

They decrease angiotensin I level
They decrease angiotensin II level
They decrease aldosterone level
They decrease bradykinin concentration
They increase plasma potassium concentratin
They cause dry cough
They are teratogenic
They are contraindicated in congestive heart failure
They are contraindicated in diabetes mellitus

::031::
Which of he following drugs produce negative inotropic effect?

Metoprolol
Verapamil
Propranolol
Digoxin
Dobutamine
Strophantine
Corglycone
Captopril

::032::
Which statements are correct regarding glucocorticoids?

Induce peptic ulcer

Cause hypotension
Accelerate wound healing
Produce immunosuppression
Produce hypoglycemia
Stimulate protein breakdown
Cause hyperkalemia

::033::
Which drugs decrease plasma potassium level?

Furosemide
Hydrochlorothiazide
Prednisolone
Captopril
Spironolactone
Losartan
Triamteren

::034::
Which drugs are useful in peptic ulcer?

H+/K+-ATPase inhibitors
M-cholinoblockers
H1-antagonists
H2-antagonists
Na+/K+-ATPase inhibitors
Na+,K+2Cl-cotransport inhibitors
COX inhibitors

::035::
Which of the following drugs may cause constipation?

Atropine
Morphine
Loperamide
Neostigmine
Bisacodyl
Magnesium sulfate
Castor oil

::036::
Which of the following are symptoms of morphine overdose?

Respiratory depression
Increased BP
Miosis
Dilation of the pupil
Coma
Diarrhea
CNS excitation

::037::
Choose symptoms of anticholinesterase overdose?

Mydriasis
Bronchospasm
Dry mouth
Vomiting
Urinary retention
Lacrimation
Skeletal muscle paralysis
Tachycardia

::038::
What are the symptoms of atropine overdose?

Mydriasis
Bronchospasm
Dry mouth
Diarrhea
Urinary retention
Lacrimation
Hallucinations
Bradycardia
Sweating

::039::
Which of the following pairs correctly match the drug with its clinical use?

Iron deficiency anemia – erythropoietin

Pernicious anemia – folic acid
Anemia in chronic renal insufficiency – ferrous sulfate
Chemotherapy induced neutropenia – filgrastim
Heparin induced bleeding - protamine sulfate
Warfarin induced beeding – vitamin K
Fibrinolytic bleeding – alteplase
Megaloblastic anemia – ascorbic acid

::040::
Which drugs are usually administered with general anesthetics for balanced anesthesia

Antimuscarinic
Opioid analgesics
Antianxiety
Neuromuscular blocking
Nonnarcotic analgesics
Calcium channel blockers
Alpha-adrenergic agonists
M-cholinomimetics

::041::
Which drugs are used in the treatment of type II diabetes mellitus

Pioglitazone
Metformin
Acarbose
Methimazole
Calcitriol
Verapamil
Tamoxifen
Letrozole

::042::
Which of the following agents induce hyperglycemia?

Prednisolone
Adrenaline
Hydrochlorothiazide
Glucagon
Propranolol
Pioglitazone
Glibenclamide
Metformin
Acarbose

::043::
What are the symptoms of cocaine overdose?

Excitation
Miosis
Hypotension
Bronchospam
Dilation of the pupil
Vasoconstriction
Tachycardia
Bradycardia

::044::
What are the common features of adrenaline and atropine?

Bronchodilation
Tachycardia
Hypertension
Mydriasis
Increased gastric acid secretion
Hypersalivation
Increased skeletal muscle tone
Hyperglycemia

::045::
Which of the following are lincosamides ?

Lincomycin
Clindamyccin
Gentamicin
Azythromycin
Amikacin
Clarythromycin
Neomycin

::046::
What is the mechanism of action of cocaine?

Blocks Na+-channels
Inhibits monoamines re-uptake
Blocks muscarinic cholinoreceptpors
Blocks nicotinic cholinoreceptors
Inhibits acetylcholinesterase
Blocks H2-receptors
Blocks H1-receptors

::047::
A 38-year-old farmer is brought to the ER by his wife with symptoms of sudden difficulty
breathing, sweatiness, and anxiety. He was spraying insecticide when this happened. It has been 25
minutes since the symptoms started. What mediactions should be administered to the patient?

Pralidoxime
Atropine sulfate
Physostigmine
Propranolol
Phenylephrine
Pancuronium
Pilocarpine

::048::
A 78-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease experiences worsening of his symptoms. He is already
taking levodopa. Since the disease is characterized by degeneration of dopaminergic neurons,
leading to the lack of inhibition of cholinergic neurons, the addition of which medications are likely
to help alleviate the patient’s symptoms?

Benztropine
Trihexyphenidyl
Scopolamine
Reserpine
Doxazocin
Timolol
Tubocurarine

::049::
Which of the following medications are used to prevent miscarriage / premature labour?

Terbutaline
Magnesium sulfate
Progesterone
Tamsulosin
Pilocarpine
Atracurium
Oxytocin
Propranolol

::050::
A nurse informed you about a patient who is having chest pain. You ordered an electrocardiogram
and rushed to see the patient. He describes the pain as tight pressure and is demonstrably sweating
and gasping for air. The ECG comes back with acute ST-segment elevations in inferior leads, and
you diagnose a myocardial infarction. You start giving the patient oxygenWhat medications are
useful in this case?

Nitrate
Opiod analgesic
Beta-blocker
Aticoagulant
Antifibrinolitic
Alpha-adrenergic agonist
Beta-adrenergic agonist
Muscarinic agonist
Neuromuscular blocking
Dopamine agonist
::051::
In contrast to propranolol metoprolol:

Is less likely to precipitate bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma

Is less likely to cause vasoconstriction
Is less likely to cause hypoglycemia
Is less likely to cause negative inotropic effect
Is used for the management of hypertension
Has greater selectivity for β2-adrenoceptors
May be beneficial for the acute treatment of migraine headache
May be beneficial for tachyarrhythmia

::052::
Which of the following drugs are used to treat myasthenia gravis?

Pyridostigmine
Neostigmine
Pilocarpine
Atropine
Bethanechol
Pralidoxime
Oxybutinin

::053::
What is correct regarding clonidine ?

Activates alpha2 adrenoceptors

Activates imidazoline receptors
May be effective in resistant hypertension
Activates beta1 adrenoceptors
Activates beta2 adrenoceptors
Is first choice agent for initial chronic treatment of hypertension
Causes marked CNS stimulation

::054::
What drug should be used in the case of poisoning with an insecticide containing an
anticholinesterase?

Atropine
Pralidoxime
Physostigmine
Bethanechol
Propranolol
Pilocarpine

::055::
Receptor actions of acetylcholine are mimicked by nicotine at which of the following sites?
Adrenal medullary chromaffin cells
Neuromuscular junctions
Autonomic ganglia
CNS
Carotid sinus
Urinary bladder smooth muscle cells
Iris circular (constrictor) muscle
Heart sinoatrial pacemaker cells
Bronchial smooth muscles

::056::
Emergency treatment of acute heart failure is best managed with which of the following drugs?

Dobutamine
Digoxin
Metaproterenol
Phenylephrine
Norepinephrine
Isoproterenol

::057::
Which one of the following agents, when applied topically to the eye, would cause both mydriasis
and cycloplegia?

Atropine
Tropicamide
Phenylephrine
Carbachol
Prazosin
Betanechol

::058::
Neostigmine would be expected to reverse which of the following conditions?

Paralysis of skeletal muscle induced by a competitive, nondepolarizing muscle relaxant

Weakness of skeletal muscle in myasthenia gravis
Urinary retention induced by atropine
Paralysis of skeletal muscle induced by a depolarizing muscle relaxant
Cardiac slowing induced by stimulation of the vagus nerve
Miosis induced by bright light

::059::
What dosage forms are semisolid?

Ointment
Paste
Liniment
powder
capsule
dragee
tablet

::060::
What constituents are used to make ointments?

Vaseline
Lanolin
Cocoa butter
Olive oil
Sugar
Talc

::061::
What dosage forms are administered orally by spoons?

Mixtures
Infusions
Decoctions
Tinctures
Fluid extracts
Liniments
Pastes

::062::
Which drugs are useful in hyperlipoproteinemia?

Lovastatin
Gemfibrozil
Niacin
Metoprolol
Calciferol
Prednisolone

::063::
Which of the following drugs are used to treat arthritis?

Celecoxib
Ibuprofen
Prednisolone
Loratadine
Diphenhydramine
Fexofenadine
Ketotifen

::064::
Choose drugs which are able to relieve nasal congestion associated with rhinitis?

Oxymetazoline
Phenylephrine
Acetylsalicylic acid
Salbutamol
Propranolol
Prasozin

::065::
Which of the following drugs can be used to reduce hallucinations ?

Chlorpromazine
Droperidol
Clozapine
Chlordiazepoxide
Diazepam
Phenobarbital
Zolpidem

::066::
Repeated administration of what drugs may induce development of tremor, skeletal muscle rigidity
and hypokinesia?

Chlorpromazine
Droperidol
Haloperidol
Chlordiazepoxide
Diazepam
Phenobarbital
Zolpidem

::067::
Which agents are used to treat systemic mycosis?

Amphotericin B
Fluconazole
Itraconazole
Mebendazole
Albemdazole
Grizeofulvin
Nystatin

::068::
Which agents are used to treat vaginal candidiasis?

Fluconazole
Natamycin
Ketoconazole
Grizeofulvin
Amphotericin B
Caspofungin

::069::
After 1 month of antituberculous chemotherapy the patient developed symptoms of liver
dysfunction. What agents may cause this complication?

Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Pyrazinamide
Streptomycin
Ethambutol
Ciprofloxcin

::070::
Which of the following statements regarding fluoroquinolones are correct?

Have broad spectrum of action

Inhibit folate metabolism
Are administered parenterally only
Are effective against mycobacteria tuberculosis
May cause chondropathy in children
Have no activity against anaerobes
Cause hemopoietic disorders
Have high hepatotoxicity

::071::
Antibiotics with antitumor activity:

Dactinomycin
Doxorubicin
Streptomycin
Tetracycline
Olivomycin
Azytromycin
Norfloxacin
Kanamycin

::072::
Antimetabolites used for treatment of malignant neoplasms:

Vincristine
Methotrexate
Fluorouracil
L-asparginase
Mercaptopurine
Cyclophosphamide
Chlorobutin
Myelosan

::073::
Hormonal drugs and their substitutes used for treatment of malignant neoplasms:

Oxytocin
Phosphestrol
Thyroxine
Sinestrol
Fluorouracil
L-asparginase
Mercaptopurine

::074::
Metronidazole is effective in treatment of:

Amebiasis
Trichomoniasis
Lambliasis
Herpes virus
Helicobacter pylori
Tularemia
Streptococcus
Tuberculosis
Candidiasis
Methycillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus

::075::
Terbinafine is used for:

Systemic or deep mycoses

Dermatomycosis
Superficial candidiasis
Lambliasis
Herpes virus
Helicobacter pylori
Tularemia

::076::
Sulfonamides of resorbtive action, well absorbed from gastrointestinal tract:

Phthalazole
Sulfadimesin
Sulfadimethoxin
Sulfacyl sodium
Co-trimoxazole
Terbinafine
Amoxicillin
Ofloxacin
Nitrofurantion

::077::
Antimicrobial agents - fluoroquinolone derivatives:

Furazolidone
Ciprofloxacin
Moxifloxacin
Nitroxoline
Nalidixic acid
Co-trimoxazole
Terbinafine
Amoxicillin

::078::
Tetracyclines are characterized by:

Have a wide spectrum of antimicrobial action

Disturb protein synthesis on ribosomes
Have bactericidal action
Have a narrow spectrum of action
Inhibit cell wall synthesis
Can’t be used orally
Can be used topically
Are used with milk

::079::
Antibiotics that disrupt protein synthesis, include:

Metacycline hydrochloride
Vancomycin
Doxycycline hydrochloride
Polymyxin
Levomycetin
Gentamicin
Amoxicillin
Ofloxacin
Imipinem
Biccilin 5

::080::
Clarithromycin is characterized by:

It is antibiotic of the group of aminoglycosides

Used in treatment of peptic ulcer and duodenal ulcer
Ineffective in oral administration
Is destroyed by hydrochloric acid of stomach
Used for respiratory infections, urinary tract, diphtheria
Has high antimicrobial activity regarding chlamydia and toxoplasma
Is poorly absorbed in the gut
Form chelate compounds with metals

::081::
Spiramycin is characterized by:

Efficacy against mycoplasma, chlamydia, treponema pallidum, toxoplasma

Rapid elimination
Used for respiratory infections, system, urinary tract, otitis media, diphtheria
It is a highly toxic drug
Ineffective in oral administration
Is poorly absorbed in the gut
It is antibiotic of the group of penicillins

::082::
Cephalosporins:

Are related to beta-lactam antibiotics

Act mainly on gram-positive flora
Can be used both enterally and parenterally
Act mainly on gram-negative flora
Have a narrow spectrum of action
Are not used orally
Form chelate compounds with metals
Inhibit protein synthesis

::083::
Histamine H1 receptor blockers that have little effect on the central nervous system are:

Diphenhydramine
Astemizole
Loratadine
Cromolyn sodium
Zafirlucast
Ranitidin
Famotidin
Suprastin

::084::
Drugs that block interaction of histamine with H1-histamine receptors in tissues are:

Diphenhydramine
Cromoline sodium
Loratadine
Ranitidin
Famotidin
Astemizole
Cromolyn sodium
Zafirlucast

::085::
Anabolic steroids are:

Testosterone
Phenobolin
Mifepristone
Retabolil
Estradiol
Estrol
Finasteride
Tamoxifen

::086::
Androgen antagonists are:

Cyproterone
Mifepristone
Finasteride
Tamoxifen
Testosterone
Estradiol
Retabolil
Phenobolin

::087::
The main effects of glucocorticoids are:

Anti-inflammatory
Immunosuppressive
Immunostimulatory
Antiallergic
Anticonvulsant
Antiulcer
Anabolic
Antiaterogenic

::088::
Acarbose characteristics include:

Is used orally
Inhibits α-glucosidase
Reduces intestinal carbohydrate absorption
Effective for type 1 diabetes
Effective for type 2 diabetes
Has antiaterogenic properties
Is used intravenously
Is used intramusculary
Is used subcutaneously

::089::
Rosiglitazone:

Increases insulin secretion by pancreatic B cells

Increases insulin sensitivity of cells
Increases glucose uptake by tissues
Effective for type 1 diabetes
Effective for type 2 diabetes
Inhibits α-glucosidase
Is prodrug
Is used intramusculary

::090::
Antithyroid drugs are:

Merkazolil
Triiodothyronine
Calcitonin
Propylthiouracil
Potassium iodide
Lyothyronine
Lactin
Folitropin
Tyroxin

::091::
Thyroxine:

Increases tissue oxygen consumption

Activates the breakdown of proteins, carbohydrates, fats
Reduces basal metabolic rate
Enhances the effects of adrenaline
Inhibits α-glucosidase
Is prodrug
Can’t be used orally

::092::
Octreotide is used in treatment of:

Acromegaly
Acute pancreatitis
Bleeding from varicose veins of the esophagus
Dwarfism
Diabetes insipidus
Infertility
Hypogonadism
Gigantism

::093::
Preparations of hormones of the anterior pituitary gland and their derivatives include:

Oxytocin
Thyrotropin
Calcitonin
Somatropin
Desmopressin
Vasopressin
Terlipressin
Acarbose

::094::
Drugs that reduce intestinal motility, from the group of myotropic antispasmodics are:

Papaverine
Atropine
Drotaverine
Imodium
Platifillin
Bisacodyl
Famotidine
Omeprazol

::095::
Indications for pirenzepine administration include:

Ulcerative disease of the stomach and duodenum

Chronic hyperacidic reflux esophagitis
Decreased appetite
Diarrhea
Bronchial asthma
Constipation
Motion sickness
Atropine poisoning

::096::
Intravenous administration of furosemide is characterized by:

Latent period of action - 3-4 minutes

Latent period of action is about 60 minutes
Duration of action is 1-2 hours
Duration of action is 10-12 hours
Duration of action 24 hours
Has a potassium sparing property
Can cause short-term increase of blood pressure
Sedative activity

::097::
Potassium, magnesium-sparing diuretics:

Dichlothiazide
Furosemide
Triamteren
Spironolactone
Diacarb
Ethacrinic acid
Torasemide

::098::
Effects of nifedepine include:

Antihypertensive
Antianginal
Antiarrhythmic
Broncholytic
Cardiotonic
Antiaterogenic
Antiaggregant
Sedative

::099::
Antianginal drugs used to relieve angina pectoris attacks:

Anaprilin
Nitroglycerin
Trimethazidine
Validol
Nifedipine
Atropine
Corglycon
Lovastatin

::100::
Side effects of nitroglycerin include:

Headache
Lightheadedness
Reflex tachycardia
Increase in blood pressure
Lowering of blood pressure
Hypoglycemia
Vasospastic angina pectoris
Trombocytopenia

::101::
For relief of pain in patient with myocardial infarction can be used:

Opioid analgesics
Talamonal (fentanyl + droperidol)
Nitrous oxide
Nitrong
Analgin
Aspirin
Paracetamol
Ibuprofen

::102::
Antihypertensive drugs that inhibit the activity of renin-angiotensin system:

Nifedipine
Enalapril
Losartan
Sodium nitroprusside
Clonidine
Amlodipine
Dichlothiazide

::103::
Nitroglycerin mainly acts on:

Large coronary vessels and collateral

Venous vessels
Vessels of the brain
AV node
Purkinje fibers
SA node

::104::
Nitroglycerin reduces the oxygen demand of the heart because:

Reduces preload
Reduces afterload
Has positive chronotropic effect
Has negative chronotropic effect
Has positive inotropic effect
Has positive bathmotropic ceffect
Has negative dromotropic effect
Has negative inotropic effect

::105::
Nitroglycerine:

Reduces myocardial oxygen demand

Increases myocardial oxygen supply
Cardioprotector
Cardiotonic
Antiarrhythmic
Angioprotector
Positive inotropic drug

::106::
3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase inhibitors are:

Pravastatin
Simvastatin
Hemfibrozil
Lovastatin
Fluvastatin
Fenofibrate
Methyluracil
Acarbose

::107::
IB class antiarrhythmic drugs:

Novocainamide
Lidocaine
Quinidine
Diphenin
Verapamil
Esmolol
Quinine
Procainamide

::108::
Antiarrhythmic drugs effective in supraventricular and ventricular tachyarrhythmias:

Amiodarone
Lidocaine
Quinidine
Verapamil
Anaprilin
Nitroglycerine
Nifedepine
Digoxin
::109::
Drugs used in management of AV-block:

Quinidine
Atropine
Izadrin
Amiodarone
Lidocaine
Verapamil
Anaprilin
Nitroglycerine

::110::
Antiarrhythmic drugs - sodium channel blockers of 1A class:

Novocainamide
Lidocaine
Quinidine
Diphenin
Verapamil
Esmolol
Amiodarone
Izadrin

::111::
The effect of cardiac glycosides on the content of sodium, potassium and calcium ions in
myocardial cells:

Increase the content of potassium ions

Increase the content of sodium ions
Increase the content of calcium ions
Decrease the content of potassium ions
Decrease the content of calcium ions
Decrease the content of sodium ions
Have no influence on calcium ions
Have no influence on potassium ions

::112::
Cardiotonic agents of a non-glycoside structure are:

Digoxin
Dobutamine
Strophanthin
Digitoxin
Amrinon
Niroglycerine
Validol
Nifedipine

::113::
Cardiotonic agents of a glycoside structure are:

Digoxin
Dobutamine
Strophanthin
Digitoxin
Amrinon
Niroglycerine
Validol
Nifedipine

::114::
Morphine when acting on the gastrointestinal tract:

Increases sphincter tone

Slows down bowel movement
Accelerates bowel movement
Causes constipation
Causes diarrhea
Decreases sphincter tone
Increase bile production
Decrease bile production

::115::
Indications for the use of opioid analgesics:

Severe pain from injuries, burns

Pain in malignant tumors
Pains in myocardial infarction
Headache
Muscle pain
Severe rheumatic arthritis
Severe cough in bronchial asthma
Insomnia

::116::
Opioid analgesics from the group of agonists-antagonist and partial agonists of opioid receptors:

Morphine
Buprenorphine
Fentanyl
Butorphanol
Droperidol
Loperamide
Codein
Diamorphine

::117::
Pharmacokinetics includes which of the following?

Drug absorption
Drug distribution
Accumulation of the drugs
Localization of drug action
Mechanisms of drug action
Pharmacological effects
Drug biotransfrormation
Teratogenic effects
Mutagenic effects

::118::
Enteral routes of drug administration include which of the following?

Oral
Intramuscular
Subcutaneous
Rectal
Sublingual
Inhalational
Buccal
Intravenous

::119::
Opioid analgesics - opioid receptor agonists are:

Morphine
Fentanyl
Naltrexone
Naloxone
Droperidol
Codeine

::120::
Diazepam and phenazepam:

Benzodiazepine receptor agonists

Sleeping pills
Increase GABAergic processes in the brain
Decrease GABAergic processes in the brain
Do not affect GABAergic processes in the brain
Benzodiazepine receptor antagonists
Non-bezodiazepines
Do not cause addiction
Used in overdose of phenobarbital

::121::
Correct statements concerning Diazepam:

Sedative drug
Hypnotic drug
Anticonvulsant drug
Anti-parkinsonian drug
Used in treatment of Alzheimer disease
Analgesic drug
Respiratory analeptic

::122::
Beta-blockers are used in treatment of:

Stable angina pectoris

Tachyarrhythmias
Arterial hypertension
Bronchospasm
Arterial hypotension
Bradyarrhythmias
Atherosclerosis

::123::
Non-selective beta blockers:

Reduce heart automaticity

Increase heart automaticity
Reduce bronchial tone
Increase bronchial tone
Decrease blood pressure
Increase blood pressure
Increase heart contractility
Decrease heart contractility

::124::
Beta blockers have:

Positive inotropic effect

Negative inotropic effect
Positive chronotropic effect
Negative chronotropic effect
Positive bathmotropic effect
Negative bathmotropic effect
Positive dromotropic effect
Negative dromotropic effect
::125::
Adrenaline can be administered:

Oraly
Intramusculary
Subcutaneously
Rectaly
Sublingualy
Buccaly
Intravenously

::126::
Side effects of adrenaline include:

Tachycardia
Bradycardia
Hypertension
AV-block
Diarrhea
SA-block
Sedation
Hypotension
Bronchospasm

::127::
Prazosin:

Dilates blood vessels

Constricts blood vessels
Decreases blood pressure
Increases blood pressure
Causes bronchospasm
Causes sedation
Increases appetite
Causes diarrhea

::128::
Beta blockers are:

Anaprilin
Atenolol
Prazosin
Labetalol
Clonidine
Doxasosin
Timolol
Tamsulosin
::129::
Salbutamol and fenoterol are used:

In bronchoobstruction
To decrease uterine contractility
To increase uterine contractility
In rhinitis
In cardiac arrest
In arrhythmias
In thyroiditis
In arterial hypertension

::130::
Clinical indications for adrenaline administration are:

Anaphylactic shock
Cardiac arrest
Tachycardia
Atrial extrasystoly
Ventricular extrasystoly
Arterial hypertension
Premature labour
Thyrotoxic crisis

::131::
Beta2-adrenergic agonists:

Reduce the tone of the bronchi

Increase the tone of the bronchi
Reduce the tone and contractile activity of the myometrium
Increase the tone and contractile activity of the myometrium
Increase blood pressure
Increase histamine release
Increase bradykinin release
Increase serotonin release

::132::
Adrenaline:

Increases heart rate

Increases heart contractility
Increases bronchial tone
Constricts blood vessels
Decreases blood preasure
Increases histamine relese
Increases bradykinin release
::133::
Beta2-adrenergic agonists are:

Mesatone
Galazolin
Salbutamol
Fenoterol
Adrenaline
Papaverine
Labetalol
Timolol

::134::
Adverse effects of atropine include:

Dry mouth
Constipation
Tachycardia
Bronchospasm
Diarrhea
Decreased blood pressure
Hypehidrosis
Hypersalivation

::135::
Atropine is used in:

Bronchospasm
Smooth muscle spasms
Urinary bladder atony
Gall bladder atony
AV block
Organophosphate poisoning
Hypertensive emergency
Hypotensive emergency

::136::
M-cholinoblocking drugs can cause:

Bradycardia
Tachycardia
Increased bronchial tone
Decreased intestinal motility
Decreased secretion of exocrine glands
Mydriasis
Miosis
Decreased intraocular pressure
::137::
M-cholinergic blockers are:

Atropine
Scopolamine
Galantamine
Ipratropium
Betanechol
Neostigmine
Pyridostigmine
Tubocurarine

::138::
Indications for anticholinesterases administration:

Intestinal atony
Urinary bladder atony
Myastenia gravis
Angina pectoris
Alzheimer’s disease
Parkinson disease
Organophosphate poisoning
Mushroom poisoning

::139::
Local anesthetics, used mainly for infiltration and conduction anesthesia:

Benzocaine
Novocaine
Trimecaine
Lidocaine
Bupivacaine
Ketamine
Cocaine
Trimetazidine

::140::
Phase I reactions of biotransformation include which of the following?

Oxidation
Reduction
Acetylation
Hydrolysis
Glucuronidation
Sulfatation
Methylation
Glycine conjugation
::141::
Phase II reactions of biotransformation include which of the following?

Oxidation
Reduction
Acetylation
Hydrolysis
Glucuronidation
Methylation
Glycine conjugation
Protein binding

::142::
Pharmadynamics includes which of the following?

Drug absorption
Drug distribution
Accumulation of the drugs
Localization of drug action
Mechanisms of drug action
Pharmacological effects
Drug biotransfrormation
Drug excretion

::143::
Which of the following belong to intacellular receptors?

N-cholinoreceptors
M-cholinoreceptors
Receptors for steroid hormones
GABAA- receptors
Receptors for thyroid hormones
Kinase-linked receptors
Carrier molecules
Ion channels

::144::
Specific receptors are macromolecules that:

Are specially designed to attract drugs

Can’t communicate with ion channels
Exist as targets for endogenous regulatory substances
Are located only on the outer surface of cells
Are located only on the inner surface of cells
Are synthesized by the cells
May undergo desensitization

::145::
Directly acting M,N-cholinomimetics are which of the following?

Pilocarpine
Carbachol
Bethanechol
Acetylcholine
Physostigmine
Lobelin
Cytitone
Proserin

::146::
Directly acting cholinoreceptor agonists are which of the following?

Pilocarpine
Nicotine
Lobeline
Neostigmine
Clonidine
Bethanechol
Edrophonium
Pralidoxime

::147::
Reversible anticholinesterases include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Physostigmine
Echotiophate
Neostigmine
Pyridostigmine
Edrophonium
Bethanechol
Galantamine
Pralidoxime

::148::
Reversible anticholinesterases include which of the following drugs:

Physostigmine
Echotiophate
Neostigmine
Pyridostigmine
Edrophonium
Bethanechol
Galantamine
Pralidoxime
Atropine
Scopolamine
Alloxime
::149::
Potential uses of reversible anticholinesterases which penetrate the CNS are:

Alzheimer’s disease
Parkinson’s disease
Bronchial asthma
Sedation
Motion sickness
Chemotherapy-induced vomiting
Antidote for atropine poisoning
Mushroom poisoning

::150::
Drugs used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis are which of the following?

Isoflurophate
Neostigmine
Physostigmine
Rivastigmine
Echotiophate
Pyridostigmine
Pralidoxime
Bethanechol

::151::
Which of the following are NOT expected symptoms of poisoning with irreversible
anticholinesterases?

Increased bronchial secretion

Miosis
Mydriasis
Twitching of skeletal muscles
Intestinal paralysis
Salivation
Gastrointestinal cramps
Wheezing

::152::
A crop duster pilot has been accidently exposed to a high concentration of an agricultural
organophosphate insecticide. The main symptoms of such poisoning would most likely be?

Dry and hot skin

Intestinal paralysis
Salivation
Gastrointestinal bleeding
Sweating
Bronchoconstriction
Vomiting
Constipation

::153::
A crop duster pilot has been accidently exposed to a high concentration of an agricultural
organophosphate insecticide. Which of the following drugs should be given immediately to such
patient for the treatment of poisoning?

Atropine
Bethanechol
Propranolol
Echothiophate
Physostigmine
Pralidoxime
Pilocarpine
Lobeline

::154::
Potential sites for nicotinic receptors include which of the following?

Postsynaptic membrane of effector cells inervated by postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers

Sympathetic gaglionic neurons
Chromaffine cells of the adrenal medulla
Motor end-plates on the skeletal muscles
Parasympathetic ganglionic neurons
Carotid bodies

::155::
Which of the following statements concerning atropine are correct?

It causes reversible blockade of all muscarinic receptor subtypes

It blocks M3-cholinoreceptors only
It produces tachycardia
It produces marked vasoconstriction
In therapeutic doses it has a mild stimulating effect on the CNS
It exerts a sedative effect when used in therapeutic doses
It stimulates exocrine glands secretion

::156::
M-cholinoblockers may be used in the treatment of which of the following?

Bronchial asthma
Peptic ulcer
Atony of intestine
Heart block
Glaucoma
Xerostomia
Alzheimer’s disease
::157::
Antimuscarinic drugs used in ophthalmology are which of the following?

Pilocarpine
Cyclopentolate
Ipratropium
Homatropine
Tiotropium
Tropicamide
Pirenzepine
Timolol

::158::
Which of the following drugs are alpha-adrenoreceptor agonists?

Ephedrine
Salbutamol
Isoproterenol
Xylomethazoline
Fenoterol
Dobutamine
Phenylephrine
Clonidine

::159::
Which of the following drugs are beta-adrenoreceptor agonists?

Ephedrine
Salbutamol
Isoproterenol
Xylomethazoline
Fenoterol
Dobutamine
Phenylephrine
Clonidine

::160::
Therapeutic uses of alpha1-adrenomimetics are which of the following?

To increase duration of action of local anesthetics

Hypotension
Hypertension
Bronchial asthma
As mydriatic agent in ophthalmology
Congestive heart failure
Rhinitis
Premature labor
::161::
All of the following drugs can be used as bronchodilators, EXCEPT:

Salbutamol
Neostigmine
Epinephrine
Ephedrine
Salmeterol
Clonidine
Ipratropium

::162::
Which of the following drugs stimulate GABA-ergic processes in the brain?

Doxylamine
Flurazepam
Hydroxyzine
Zolpidem
Phenobarbital
Scopolamine
Codeine
Lobeline

::163::
Nonbenzodiazepine agonists of benzodiazepine receptors are which of the following?

Zaleplon
Phenobarbital
Ketamine
Zopiclone
Chloral hydrate
Diazepam
Lorazepam
Diphenhydramine

::164::
Drugs used to prevent tonic-clonic seizures are which of the following:

Phenytoin
Diazepam
Valproic acid
Carbamazepine
Ethosuximide
Zopiclone
Diphenhydramine
Clonidine
::165::
Which of the following drugs enhance dopaminergic activity in the basal ganglia?

Amantadine
Benztropine
Carbidopa
Levodopa
Selegeline
Bromocriptine
Trihexyphenidyl
Neostigmine