OML751 - TESTING OF MATERIALS

UNIT I

INTRODUCTION

1. Traditionally,the major class of materials are

I. Metals
II. Ceramics
III. Glass
IV. Both I & ii
2. What is the major composition of nylon?
I. Glass
II. Metal
III. Oil
IV. Plastic
3. How the material comparison is carried out?
I. Performance
II. Cost
III. Physical & Chemical Properties
IV. Both I & iii
4. The response of an object to mechanical forces are determined by
I. Chemical properties
II. Physical properties
III. Biological properties
IV. All the above
5. An example for flammable material is
I. Brick
II. Glass
III. Wood
IV. Metals
6. The process of transformation of the sample into a different substance, and it may be
difficult to reverse the process.is termed as
I. physical reaction
II. chemical reaction
III. both physical and chemical reaction
IV. None of these
7. An example of chemical changes are
I. Melting
II. Freezing
III. Boiling
IV. Burning
8. Sugar dissolves in water is an example of
I. Physical change
II. Chemical change
III. Both I & ii
IV. None of these
9. When salt dissolve in water,salt dissociates in to ions then it is termed as
I. Physical change
II. Chemical change
III. Both I & ii
10. Which one is example of chemical change.
I. Copper metal is melted
II. An iron rail corroded in moist hair
III. A mirror is broken
IV. Boiling water
11. The glass is produced by changing arrangement of silicon and oxygen atoms in which
material?
I. Wood
II. Oil
III. Sand
IV. Metal
12. The major change in chemical composition are termed as
I. Processing
II. Synthesis
III. Chemical change
IV. All the above
13. Aluminium,steel,brass are example of
I. Metals
II. Semiconductors
III. Non metals
IV. Ceramics
14. The material which are opaque to visible light but transparent to the infrared are
I. Metals
II. Semiconductors
III. Ceramics
IV. None of these.
15. The material which is usually combinations of metals or semiconductors with oxygen,
nitrogen or carbon.
I. Semiconductors
II. Metals
III. Ceramics
IV. Polymers
16. The material which decompose at moderate temperatures (100 – 400 C), and are
lightweight.
I. Ceramics
II. Polymer
III. Metals
IV. biomaterials
17. A type of material that is biocompatible and used, for instance, to replace human body
parts
I. Polymer
II. Biomaterials
III. Ceramics
IV. None of the above.
18. What are the factors to be considered for the selection of materials
I. Availability :
II. Cost :
III. Mechanical Properties :
IV. Manufacturing consideration
V. All the above
19. Tensile test can be performed on
I. Impact testing machine
II. Universal testing machine
III. Rockwell tester
IV. Brinell tester
20. The ability of the material to resist stress without failure is called
I. Strength
II. Hardness
III. Stiffness
IV. toughness
21. The property of a material that resists penetration or indentation by means of abrasion or
scratching is known as
I. Strength
II. Hardness
III. Toughness
IV. Brittleness
22. During hardenss test the indentor is usually a
I. Ball
II. Pyramid
III. Cone
IV. All of the above
23. Which machine records the change in length of specimen?
I. Impact testing machine
II. Universal testing machine
III. Rockwell tester
IV. Brinell tester
 UNIT II
MECHANICAL TESTING
1. The indenter used in brinell hardness test is a
I. Ball
II. Cone
III. Cylinder
IV. pyramid
2. for hardness test of copper in brinell hardness tester,the diameter of the ball is
I. 1 mm
II. 3 mm
III. 5 mm
IV. 7 mm
3. Which hardness test is most widely used in the US?
I. Brinell
II. Vickers
III. Shore
IV. Rockwell
4. Rockwell test utilizes ___________ a measure of hardness.
I. Load
II. Depthofindentation
III. Diameterofindentation
IV. Time of loading
5. Which scale is used to test softer materials?
I. A
II. B
III. C
IV. D
6. Diamond indenter is known as ‘Brale indenter’.
I. True
II. False
7.  A minor load of _________ is applied to seat the specimen in the Rockwell test.
I. 1kg
II. 5kg
III. 10kg
IV. 150 kg
8.  What is a limitation of the Rockwell test?
I. Slowspeed
II. Personalerror
III. Biggersizeofindentation
IV. Different indenter
9. How much penetration is indicated by each division in dial in Rockwell test?
I. 0.2mm
II. 0.02mm
III. 0.002mm
IV. 0.0002 mm
10. What is the V-notch angle found on an impact testing machine?
I. 30 degree
 II. 45 degree
III. 60 degree
IV. 90 degree
11. What is the size of the specimen used Charpy test?
I. 75*10*10
II. 75*5*5
III. 55*10*10
IV. 55*5*5
12.  What is the depth of notch seen in impact testing methods?
I. 2 mm
II. 5 mm
III.9 mm
IV. 12 mm
13. What position is used for placing specimen in anvil for Izod test?
I. Supported vertical
II. Freely vertical
III. Supported horizontally
IV. Freely horizontally
14. What is the cross section of a standard specimen for impact testing?
I. 10mm×10mm
II. 10mm×20mm
III. 20mm×20mm
IV. 15mm×20mm
15. Izod uses _________ hammer as striker and Charpy use _________ hammer.
I. Farming, farming
II. Farming, Ball pin
III. Ball pin, forming
IV. Ball pin, ball pin
16. The ability of the material to withstand tensile force, without breaking, is known as
______
a) Yield strength
b) Tensile strength
c) Compressive strength
d) Creep strength
17. With an increase in the degree of cold working, tensile strength of material ______
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) First decreases then increase
18.  Which one of the following factor decreases the tensile strength?
a) Cold working
b) Alloying
c) Temperature rise
d) Grain refinement
19.  If the Brinell hardness of a steel specimen is measured 149 HBN. What will be the
UTS?
a) 431 MPa
 b) 514 MPa
c) 608 MPa
d) 637 MPa
20. Find the minimum tensile strength of spring material ASTM A232 having diameter 3
millimeter, exponent m = 0.155 and constant A = 173 kpsi.
 a)120 kpsi
b) 146 kpsi
c) 158 kpsi
d) 167 kpsi
21. Tensile strength increases with increasing ______
a) Temperature
b) Molecular weight
c) Purity
d) Grain size
22. Which metal is capable of maintaining its mechanical strength on working
temperature?
a) Pb
b) Zn
c) Fe
d) Sn
23. With an increase in temperature, the modulus of elasticity ____________
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) First Increases, then decreases
24. With increases in temperature, yield strength __________ and tensile strength
___________
a) Increases, increases
b) Increases, decreases
c) Decreases, increases
d) Decreases, decreases
25. Softening process dominates over hardening process in ___________ stage of
creep.
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary
26. The first stage of creep is also known as ___________ creep.
a) Transient
b) Viscous
c) Flow
d) Tertiary
27. Second stage of creep is also known as ___________ creep.
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Transient
d) Viscous
28. Failure of metals under fluctuating stress is known as __________ failure.
a) Creep
b) Fatigue
c) Dynamic
d) Tensile
29. ________ % of engineering failures are fatigue failures.
a) 10
b) 30
c) 50
d) 90
30. What is a type of fatigue failure?
a) Rupture
b) Brittle fracture
c) Ductile fracture
d) De-cohesive
31. What initiates the crack in fatigue?
a) Cyclic stress
b) Tensile stress
c) Plastic strain
d) Compressive stress
32. Which zone covers beach markings?
a) I zone
b) II zone
c) III zone
d) IV zone
33.  Which region is smoother and more lustrous?
a) R
b) S
c) O
d) G
34. Bending tests are conducted to ensure that the material has enough _________
a) force
b) hardness
c) impact
d) ductility
35. Specimens in the bending test are usually ________ inches long.
a) 23
b) 16
c) 6
d) 0.564
36.  If the specimen being tested is heavy in weight, it should have a __________ cross-
section.
a) circular
b) spherical
c) rectangular
d) triangular
37. The usual angle through which bending should be obtained in a bending test is
________
 a) 180°
b) 120°
c) 75°
d) 90°
38. The minimum length of wire that can be used in a reverse bend test is ________
a) 5 inches
b) 23 inches
c) 10 inches
d) 4.5 inches
39. _________ usually undergoes a reverse bend test.
a) Round steel wire
b) Glue
c) Plated iron
d) Wood
40.  A bend of what angle is considered as a single bend?
a) 45°
b) 90°
c) 180°
d) 270°
UNIT III

NON DESTRUCTIVE TESTING

1. In which type of test the capillary action principle is used?

a. Probe test
b. Bend liquid test
c. Dye penetrant test
d. None of the above
2. Non-destructive testing is used to determine
a. location of defects
b. chemical composition
c. corrosion of metal
d. All of these
3. Which among the following is not a type of Non-destructive testing?
a. compression test
b. visual testing
c. ultrasonic testing
d. eddy current testing
4. Identify the type of destructive testing
a. Radiographic test
b. Dye penetrant test
c. Creep test
d. All of the above
5. Which among the following is the last step in magnetic particle test method?
 a. observation and inspection
b. circular magnetization
c. demagnetization
d. magnetization
6. Which of the following statements is/are true for ultrasonic test?
a. Equipment used for ultrasonic testing is portable
b. Complicated shapes can be easily scanned
c. Waves generated are health hazardous
d. All the above statements are true
7. During radiography test, which region absorbs less radiation and transmits more?
a. Low and high density regions absorb and transmit same amount of
radiation
b. High density region
c. Low density region
d. None of the above
8. Which test is used to determine dimensions of any object?
a. Ultrasonic test
b. Torsion test
c. Eddy current test
d. All of these tests can be used to determine dimensions of any object
9. What is the disadvantage of LPI?
a) Expensive
b) Slow
c) Not reliable
d) Depth restriction
10. LPI can’t be used on __________ specimen.
a) Large
b) Simple
c) Complex
d) Internally defected
11. Which order is right for LPI?
a) Penetrant apply, development, inspection, surface preparation
b) Surface preparation, penetrant apply, development, inspection
c) Penetrant apply, development, surface preparation, inspection
d) Development, surface preparation, penetrant apply, inspection
12. What is general dwell time?
a)20 seconds
b) 2 minutes
c) 20 minutes
d) 2 hours
13. __________ increases the visibility of the flaw in LPI.
 a)Developer
b) Penetrant
c) Benzene
d) Spirit
14. Developer is chosen such as benzene.
a) True
b) False
15. Small components are dipped in penetrant.
a) True
b) False
16. Which materials can be tested by MPI?
a) Magnetic
b) Non-magnetic
c) Paramagnetic
d) Ferromagnetic
17. Which material can’t be tested by MPI?
a) Co
b) Fe
c) Ni
d) Mg
18. What is Curie point for most of the ferrous magnetic materials?
a) 550˚C
b) 760˚C
c) 910˚C
d) 1133˚C
19. The minimum width of crack, which can be inspected by MPI, is _________
a) 1nm
b) 1µm
c) 10µm
d) 1mm
20. Radiographic inspection use _________
a) Sound waves
b) AC
c) X-rays
d) Visible light
21. The dark areas represent an object with ________
a) Lower density
b) High density
c) Porosity
d) Grain boundaries
22. The film in radiographic inspection is called __________
 a) Plate
b) Radiograph
c) Micrograph
d) X-ray sheet
23. ________ produce light area on film
a) Inclusions
b) Pores
c) Voids
d) Blow holes
24. Radiography don’t give ________
a) Thickness of material
b) Hardness
c) Blow holes in casting
d) Pores in weldmen
25. Planar defects can’t be detected by radiography
a) True
b) False
26. The amount of absorption of rays depends on the density and thickness of the material.
a) True
b) False
27. The force required to remove the residual magnetism from the material is called
the:
a. Inverse force
b. Reciprocal force
c. Coercive force
d. Residual force
28. Magnetic lines of force
a. Almost never cross each other
b. Commonly cross each other
c. Will shift 90 degrees when a direct current is applied
d. Never cross each other
29. Magnetic particle inspection can be performed on parts made from which
materials?
a. Iron, nickel, copper
b. Iron, nickel, cobalt
c. Nickel, cobalt, copper
d. Iron only
30. Materials can be demagnetized by
a. Heating above thier curie temperature
b. Subjecting the component to a reversing and decreasing magnetic field
c. Both A and B
 d. None of the above
31. When a small diameter tube is placed in a glass of water, water rises in the tube to a
level above the adjacent surface. This is called:
(a) Viscosity
(b) Capillary action
(c) Surface tension
(d) Barometric testing
32. A penetrant that is self-emulsifying is called:
a) Solvent removable
(b) Water washable
(c) Post-emulsified
(d) Dual sensitivity method
33. Above this frequency level,sound waves are known as ultrasonic waves,what is the
threshold level of frequency
a. 20HZ
b. 2khz
c. 20khz
d. 20mhz
34. Eddy currents are generated when
a. A conductive material is placed in a changing magnetic field
b. When a conducting material is move through a static magnetic field
c. When a static magentic field is moved across the surface of a conductive
material
d. All of the above
35. Within the given material ,the speed of the sound
a. Is constant
b. Decreases with the distance from the transducer
c. increases with the distance from the transducer
d. None of the above
36. In several construction sites ,heaps of sand is stored ,if the stored sand get wet in rain,the
sand grains from agglomerates .what is the driving force for the formation of these
agglomerates
a. Capillary force
b. Magnetic force
c. Vander wall’s force
d. Electrostatic force
37. The number of magentic lines of force cutting through a plane of a given area at a right
angle is known as the
a. Magnetic flux leakage
b. Magnetic flux density
c. Magnetic ampere
 d. None of the above
38. Sound can propagate as
a. Longitudinal waves
b. Shear waves
c. Surface waves
d. All of the above
39. The ability to locate the discontinuties that are close together within the material is called
a. Resolution
b. Sensitivity
c. Effectiveness
d. Phase delay
40. The current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field experiences an induced
magnetic field.this is known as
a. Photoelectric effect
b. Thomson effect
c. Electromagnetic induction
d. Lenz’s law
41. What are the ways to demagnetize a magnetic object
a. Heat the object above curie temperature
b. Pass a current in the direction opposing the magnetic field
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
42. Acceptable methods of penetrant application are
a. Spraying
b. Dipping
c. Brushing
d. All the above
43. How can reduce the dwell time in LPI testing
a. Keeping the surface clean
b. Choosing the liquid with high degree of wettability
c. Liquid with low viscosity
d. All of the above
44. What is likely the result of incomplete removal of excess penetrant from the test piec
a. Formation of relevant indication
b. Formation of false indication
c. Exaggreation of size of relevant indications
d. Both a and b
45. Which of the following element is used as target in X ray generator
a. Tungsten
b. Molybdenum’
c. Zirconium
 d. germanium
46. If a testing material is iron in radiograohic test,the penetrometer also must be made
of
a. Aluminium
b. Iron
c. Nickel
d. Chromium
47. You are inspecting a component using radiographic testing,after you develop the film,you
are not satidsfied with the quality of the image ,what will you do to enhance the quality of
the object
a. Increase the distance between the source and sample
b. decrease the distance between the source and sample
c. decrease the distance between the film and object
d. None of the above
48. Magnetic particle inspection is based on principle of mfl at a discontinuity .here mfl
stands for
a. Magnetic field lines
b. Magnetic field loss
c. Magnetic flux leakage
d. None of the above
49. In eddy current testing typically used frequency range of AC is
a. 1khz to 10mhz
b. 50hz to 60hz
c. 20hz-20000 hz
d. 10 mhz -1ghz
50. The major difference of acoustic emission method from other forms of NDT is that
a. Acoustic emission relies on visual intrepretation of data
b. The energy detected is radiated from the defect itself
c. Transduce are use dto gather data
d. Developers are used to indicate the flaws
UNIT IV
MATERIAL CHARACTERIZATION TESTING

1. Scanning electron microscopy helps us _____.

a. see the surface texture of a sample

b. see the inside of a sample

c. see the atoms of a sample

d. see the electrons of a sample

2. Which of the following is used in electron microscope?
a) electron beams
b) magnetic fields
c) light waves
d) electron beams and magnetic fields

3. Which of the following are true for electron microscopy?

a) specimen should be thin and dry
b) image is obtained on a phosphorescent screen
c) electron beam must pass through evacuated chamber
d) specimen should be thin and dry, image is obtained on a phosphorescent screen
and electron beam must pass through evacuated chamber

4. Electron Microscope can give a magnification up to ___________

a) 400,000X
b) 100,000X
c) 15000X
d) 100X

5. Which among the following helps us in getting a three-dimensional picture of the

specimen?
a) Transmission Electron Microscope
b) Scanning Electron Microscope
c) Compound Microscope
d) Simple Microscope

6. Where do we obtain the magnified image of the specimen in SEM?

a) cathode ray tube
b) phosphorescent screen
c) anode
d) scanning generator

7.  Which of the following techniques are used in Transmission Electron Microscopy

(TEM) for examining cellular structure?
a) Negative-Staining
b) Shadow Casting
c) Ultrathin Sectioning
d) Negative-Staining, Shadow Casting, Ultrathin Sectioning, Freeze-Etching

8. The “fingerprint” IR spectrum can be seen using a(n):

a. microspectrophotometer.
 b. scanning electron microscope

c. stereoscopic microscope

d. polarizing microscope.

9. in its usual mode, the scanning electron microscope (SEM) has a magnification that
ranges from

a. 10x to 100,000x.

b. 100x to 10,000x.

c. 10x to 10,000x

d. 1x to 100x

10. The resolving power of TEM is derived from _______________

a.electrons
b) specimens
c) power
d) ocular system

11. The cathode of transmission electron microscope consists of a ____________________

a) tungsten wire
b) bulb
c) iron filament
d) gold wire

12. During TEM, a vacuum is created inside the _________________________

a) room of operation
b) specimen
c) column
d) ocular system

13. Image formation in electron microscope is based on ___________________________

a) column length
b) electron number
c) differential scattering
d) specimen size

14. Surface is usually more than _____ atomic layer deep and is a region of ________
atomic potentials.
a) One, uniform
 b) One, non-uniform
c) Two, uniform
d) Two, non-uniform

15. . In surface spectrometer, which of the following beam is analysed?

a) Reflected beam
b) Absorbed beam
c) Refracted beam
d) Incident beam

16. Which of the following is a type of electron spectroscopy?

a) MIKES
b) Auger spectroscopy
c) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy
d) Ion scattering spectroscopy

17. Which of the following is the abbreviation of ESCA?

a) Electron scattering chemical analysis
b) Emission spectroscopy combination analysis
c) Electron spectroscopy for chemical analysis
d) Electron spectrum chemically analysed

18. Which of the following is the abbreviation of SIMS?

a) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy
b) Spectrum ionization mass spectroscopy
c) Scattering ions mass spectroscopy
d) Spectral ionization mass spectroscopy

19. X-ray diffractometers are not used to identify the physical properties of which of the
following?
a) Metals
b) Liquids
c) Polymeric materials
d) Solids
20.  X-ray diffractometers provide ____________ information about the compounds
present in a solid sample.
a) Quantitative
b) Qualitative
c) Quantitative and qualitative
d) Either quantitative or qualitative
21. Using the powder method of diffractometers, which of the following can be
determined?
a) Percentage of K+
b) Percentage of Na+ and Cl-
 c) Percentage of KBr and NaCl
d) Percentage of Br-
22.  Which of the following is the most common instrument for photographic recording of
diffraction patterns?
a) Debye-Scherrer powder camera
b) Gamma camera
c) Geiger tube
d) Scintillation counter
23. With the help of which of the following equations is the distance calculated from a
known wavelength of the source and measured angle?
a) Coolidge equation
b) Bragg’s equation
c) Debye equation
d) Scherrer equation

24. In Diffractometer, the identification of a component of the sample from its powder
diffraction pattern is based upon the _________ of lines and their relative
___________
a) Number, length
b) Number, intensity
c) Position, length
d) Position, intensity

25.  Diffractometers are similar to which of the following?

a) Optical grating spectrometer
b) Prism spectrometer
c) Photo multiplier
d) Photovoltaic cell

26. In Diffractometers, line intensities depend on ______ and kind of atomic reflection
centres in each set of plates.
a) Number
b) Position
c) Length
d) Distance between lines

27. In powder diffractometer, the sharpness of the lines is greatly determined by which of
the following?
a) Quality of the sample, size of the slit
b) Quality of the slit, size of the sample
c) Thickness of the slit, amount of the sample
d) Number of slits, composition of the sample
 28. What happens when the electron beam hit the specimen?

a. Electrons and x rays are generated

b. Positions an gamma rays are generated
c. Radio waves are generated
d. Neutinos and uv rays are generated
29. Which of the following cannot be distinguished in SEM?
a. Alterations in ITZ
b. Intra granular cracks in mineral grains
c. Amount of staining of minerals on degradation
d. None of the above.
30. Choose the modes of operation in a transmission electron microscope
a. Reflected light only
b. Transmitted light only
c. Reflected and transmitted light
d. Combination of reflected and transmitted light

UNIT V
OTHER TESTING

1. Differential scanning calorimetry (DSC) can be used to determine which of the following
properties of a semicrystalline polymer sample?
a. The melting temperature
b. The crystallization temperature
c. The degree of crystallinity
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
f. Only (a) and (b)
2. For typical polymer samples, the melting temperature will be which of the following relative
to the crystallization temperature?
a. The melting temperature will be less than the crystallization temperature.
b. The melting temperature will be equal to the crystallization temperature.
c. The melting temperature will be greater than the crystallization
temperature

3. Which one of the following technique is used to determine glass transition temperature
(a) X-ray diffractometry
(b) Raman spectroscopy
(c) Differential scanning calorimetry
 (d) Atomic forced microscopy
4. Differential scanning calorimetry is a technique to measure
a. Electrical conductivity
b. Impact energy
c. Thermal expansion
d. Specific heat
5. ---------is a mode of heat transfer that occurs when there is a temperature gradient
across a body
a. Convection
b. Radiation
c. Conduction
d. All of these
6. Specific heat of a material ______________.
(a) Constant for a material
(b) Heat capacity per unit mass
(c) Extrinsic property
(d) Has units as J/kg-K.
7. Heat capacity has units as
(a) J/kg.K
(b) J/mol.K
(c) J.ohm/sec.K2
(d) W/m.K
8. Units for thermal conductivity
(a) J/kg.K
(b) J/mol.K
(c) J.ohm/sec.K2
(d) W/m.K
9. Lorentz constant has units as
(a) J/kg.K
(b) J/mol.K
(c) J.ohm/sec.K2
(d) W/m.K
10. Thermal expansion of a material has units as
(a) J/kg-K
(b) J/mol-K
(c) J.ohm/sec.K2
(d) 1/˚C
11. Polymers have thermal conductivities in the range of
(a) < 1
(b) 1-10
 (c) 10-100
(d) >100
12. Polymers have thermal expansion coefficients in the range of _____x10-6.
(a) 0.5-15
(b) 5-25
(c) 25-50
(d) 50-400
13. Coefficient of thermal expansion for ceramics is the range of _______x10-6.
(a) 0.5-15
(b) 5-25
(c) 25-50
(d) 50-400
14. Metals have thermal conductivities in the range of
(a) < 1
(b) 1-5
(c) 5-25
(d) 20-400
15. Heat capacity of most materials is approximately equal to ________.
(a) R
(b) 2R
(c) 3R
(d) R/2
16. With increase in temperature, thermal conductivity of a metal _____________.
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Either
(d) All, depending on metal.
17. Thermal conductivity in polymers increases with ________.
(a) Increase in crystallinity
(b) Decrease in crystallinity
(c) Either
(d) None
18. During DTA (Differential thermal analysis) what kind of reference material is used?
a) Chemically active
b) Physically active
c) Inert
d) Having catalytic property
19. in DTA, the ___________________ of sample and reference should be______________
until any thermal event take place. Fill up the appropriate options for the two blanks given
from the choices given below.
a) Concentration, different
 b) Concentration, same
c) Temperature, different
d) Temperature, same
20. What is the factor that limits the application of this differential thermal analysis method?
a) Huge apparatus
b) Insensitivity
c) Highly reactive
d) Low growth rate
21. In DTA method, the sample temperature was recorded on __________
a) Heating
b) Cooling
c) Gaseous
d) Liquid
22. What is the reading of output when the sample and reference are at same temperature in
DTA?
a) Negligible
b) Zero
c) Very high
d) Moderate
23. What kind of material is used to monitor the temperature of heating in a differential thermal
analysis?
a) Active electrolyte
b) Inactive electrolyte
c) An electrode
d) Thermocouple
24. In the normal DTA instruments, what is the size of the sample size to be used?
a) Very large
b) Moderate
c) Small
d) Very very small
25.  What is the main factor because of which DTA cells are designed?
a) Maximum sensitivity
b) Minimum sensitivity
c) Maximum solubility
d) Minimum solubility
26. Which of the following method is described by the diagram given below?

a) Hydrothermal analysis
b) Thermogravitric analysis
c) Heat analysis
d) Differential thermal analysis
27. If the absorption of electromagnetic radiation by matter results in the emission of radiation of
the same or longer wavelengths for a long or a short time, the phenomenon is termed as
which of the following?
a) Luminescence
b) Fluorescence
c) Phosphorescence
d) Spontaneous emission
28. If the absorption of electromagnetic radiation by matter results in the emission of radiation of
the same or longer wavelengths for a short time, the phenomenon is termed as which of the
following?
a) Luminescence
b) Fluorescence
c) Phosphorescence
d) Spontaneous emission
29. If the absorption of electromagnetic radiation by matter results in the emission of radiation of
the same or longer wavelengths for a long time, the phenomenon is termed as which of the
following?
a) Luminescence
b) Fluorescence
c) Phosphorescence
d) Spontaneous emission
30. Prompt emission of X-ray by an atom ionised by a higher energy X-ray is a type of which of
the following phenomena?
a) Luminescence
b) Fluorescence
 c) Phosphorescence
d) Spontaneous emission
31. The measurement of intensity of fluorescent X-rays provide a simple and ____________ way
of _____________ analysis.
a) Destructive, quantitative
b) Non-destructive, quantitative
c) Destructive, qualitative
d) Non-destructive, qualitative
32. The energy of the emitted X-rays depends upon the _________ of the atom and their
intensity depends upon the __________
a) Atomic number, amount of sample
b) Mass number, amount of sample
c) Mass number, concentration of atoms
d) Atomic number, concentration of atoms
33. In X-ray fluorescence spectrometer, the relationship between the excitation intensity and the
intensity of fluorescence does not depend on which of the following?
a) Spectrum of the incident radiation
b) Angle of radiance
c) Molecular weight
d) Incident angle
34. Fluorescent X-ray spectrometers would require only moderate-intensity X-ray tubes.
a) True
b) False
35. ICP’s principle is similar to which of the following?
a) Flame emission spectroscopy
b) Fourier transforms spectroscopy
c) Atomic emission spectroscopy
d) Absorption spectroscopy
36. ICP is used to analyse samples in which of the following states?
a) Solids
b) Liquids
c) Gases
d) Solids and liquids
37. Liquid samples are introduced into the ICP spectrometer using which of the following?
a) Nebulizer
b) Curvette having glass windows
c) Probe
d) Laser ablation system
38. Solid samples are introduced into the ICP spectrometer using which of the following?
a) Nebulizer
b) Curvette having glass windows
 c) Probe
d) Laser ablation system
39. Atomisation or ionisation occurs at which of the following conditions?
a) Vacuum pressure
b) Atmospheric pressure
c) Low pressure
d) High pressure
40.  Ions flow is pumped into the vacuum system using which of the following?
a) Orifice
b) Nozzle
c) Venturi meter
d) Dall tube
41. Which of the following is not the characteristic of ICP spectrometer?
a) Easy sample introduction
b) It can trace multiple elements
c) High detection limits
d) Accurate
42. The most common type of ion detector found in ICP system is which of the following?
a) Faraday cup collector
b) Channeltron
c) Micro-channel plate
d) Flame ionization detector
43. Which of the following is the most accurate method of determination of elemental
composition?
a) Spectroscopy
b) Isotope dilution
c) Isobar dilution
d) Chromatography
44. Which of the following is the disadvantage of ICP mass spectroscopy?
a) Incapable of multi-element analysis
b) Less sensitivity
c) Impossible to obtain isotopic information
d) Not useful for detection of non-metals
45. The isobaric interference is not caused in which of the following elements?
a) Argon
b) Oxygen
c) Helium
d) Nitrogen
46. In atomic emission spectroscopy the graph drawn between
a. Emission vs. Concentration
b. Absorbance Vs Concentration
 c. Absorbance Vs wave length
d. Emission Vs wave length
47. Who discovered the mass spectrometer?
a) Francis Aston
b) J. J Thomson
c) Ernest O. Lawrence
d) Walter Kaufmann
48. In which state of matter mass spectroscopy is being performed?
a) solid
b) liquid
c) gaseous
d) plasma
49. What are the main criteria on which mass spectrometer used for?
a) Composition in sample
b) Relative mass of atoms
c) Concentration of elements in the sample
d) Properties of sample
50. Which species of the following is used to bombard with the sample for which mass
spectroscopy has been performed?
a) Alpha particles
b) Neutrons
c) Electrons
d) Protons