Expected CAT 2019 Question Paper With Solution by Cetking PDF

CAT 2019 Expected paper
Verbal
Expected
CAT 2019
Neha Manglik Shashank Chorge Sai Mokka
CAT 100%ile CAT 99.99%ile CAT 99.93%ile
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coincidence. To avoid the confusion about similarity with real paper we have picked up questions from actual
previous years cat papers keeping the level of difficulty similar to the real paper.
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Directions for questions: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to
each question.
Language is not a cultural artifact that we learn the way we learn to tell time or how the federal government
works. Instead, it is a distinct piece of the biological makeup of our brains. Language is a complex, specialized
skill, which develops in the child spontaneously, without conscious effort or formal instruction, is deployed
without awareness of its underlying logic, is qualitatively the same in every individual, and is distinct from more
general abilities to process information or behave intelligently. For these reasons some cognitive researchers
have described language as a psychological faculty, a mental organ, a neural system, and a computational
module. But I prefer the admittedly quaint term “instinct”. It conveys the idea that people know how to talk in
more or less the sense that spiders know how to spin webs. Web-spinning was not invented by some unsung
spider genius and does not depend on having had the right education or on having an aptitude for architecture
or the construction trades. Rather, spiders spin spider webs because they have spider brains, which give them
the urge to spin and the competence to succeed. Although there are differences between webs and words, I will
encourage you to see language in this way, for it helps to make sense of the phenomena we will explore.
Thinking of language as an instinct inverts the popular wisdom, especially as it has been passed down in the
canon of the humanities and social sciences. Language is no more a cultural invention than is upright posture. It
is not a manifestation of a general capacity to use symbols: a three-year-old, we shall see, is a grammatical
genius, but is quite incompetent at the visual arts, religious iconography, traffic signs, and the other staples of
the semiotics curriculum. Though language is a magnificent ability unique to Homo sapiens among living species,
it does not call for sequestering the study of humans from the domain of biology, for a magnificent ability unique
to a particular living species is far from unique in the animal kingdom. Some kinds of bats home in on flying
insects using Doppler sonar. Some kinds of migratory birds navigate thousands of miles by calibrating the
positions of the constellations against the time of day and year. In nature’s talent show, we are simply a species
of primate with our own act, a knack for communicating information about who did what to whom by
modulating the sounds we make when we exhale.
Once you begin to look at language not as the ineffable essence of human uniqueness hut as a biological
adaptation to communicate information, it is no longer as tempting to see language as an insidious shaper of
thought, and, we shall see, it is not. Moreover, seeing language as one of nature’s engineering marvels — an
organ with “that perfection of structure and co-adaptation which justly excites our admiration,” in Darwin’s
words - gives us a new respect for your ordinary Joe and the much-maligned English language (or any language).
The complexity of language, from the researcher’s point of view, is part of our biological birthright; it is not
something that parents teach their children or something that must be elaborated in school — as Oscar Wilde
said, “Education is an admirable thing, but it is well to remember from time to time that nothing that is worth
knowing can be taught.” A preschooler’s tacit knowledge of grammar is more sophisticated than the thickest
style manual or the most state-of-the-art computer language system, and the same applies to all healthy human
beings, even the notorious syntax fracturing professional athlete and the, you know, like, inarticulate teenage
skateboarder. Finally, since language is the product of a well engineered biological instinct, we shall see that it
is not the nutty barrel of monkeys that entertainer columnists make it out to be.
1. According to the passage, all of the following stem from popular wisdom on language Except?
(1) Language is a cultural artifact. (2) Language is a cultural invention.
(3) Language is learnt as we grow. (4) Language is a psychological faculty.
2. Which of the following can be used as parallel reasoning for the “spiders know how to spin webs” analogy as
used by the author?
(1) A kitten learning to jump over a wall (2) Bees collecting nectar
(3) A donkey carrying a load (4) A horse running a Derby
3. According to the passage, which of the following is unique to human beings?

(1) Ability to use symbols while communicating with one another.
(2) Ability to communicate with each other through voice modulation.
(3) Ability to communicate information to other members of the species.
(4) Ability to use sound as means of communication.

4. According to the passage, complexity of language cannot be taught by parents or at school to children
because
(1) children instinctively know language. (2) children learn the language on their own.
(3) language is not amenable to teaching. (4) children know language better than their teachers or parents.
5. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?

(1) Language is unique to Homo sapiens. (2) Language is neither learnt nor taught.
(3) Language is not a cultural invention or artifact as it is made out.
(4) Language is instinctive ability of human beings.
6. Why author has referred to ‘preschooler’s tacit knowledge of grammar’

(1) To prove that Language is unique to Homo sapiens. (2) Used as an analogy for healthy human beings
(3) To prove his point that language is not a cultural invention or artifact as it is made out.
(4) To compare children instinctively know language.
each question.
If American policy towards Europe in the postwar years had been a conspicuous success, and towards Asia a
disappointing balance between success and failure, it could be said that the most conspicuous thing about
relations with Latin America was the absence of any policy. Franklin Roosevelt, to be sure, had launched a “Good
Neighbour” policy, but being a good neighbour was, it seemed, a negative rather than a positive affair, a matter
of keeping hands off, of making the Monroe Doctrine, in form at least, multilateral. All through the postwar
years, the states of Latin America - - Mexico and Chile were partial exceptions - - were in the throes of major
economic and social crises. Population was growing faster than in any other part of the globe, without a
comparable increase in wealth or productivity; the gap between the poor and the rich was widening; and as the
rich and powerful turned to the military for the preservation of order and privilege, the poor turned to
revolution.
Deeply involved in other quarters of the globe, the United States paid little attention to the fortunes or
misfortunes of her neighbours to the south, and when she did intervene, it appeared to be on the side of order
and the status quo rather than on the side of reform. So frightened was the United States of “Communism” in
Latin America that it preferred military dictatorship to reformers who might drift too far to the “left”, and
sustained a Batista in Cuba, a Trujillo in the Dominican Republic, a Peron in Argentina, and a Jimenez in
Venezuela.
In his last two years, President Eisenhower had tried to mend his Latin American fences. Though rejecting a
Brazilian proposal of a Marshall Plan for Latin America, he did take the initiative in setting up an Inter-American
development Bank with a capital of one billion dollars, almost half of it supplied by the United States. Other
government investments in Latin America ran to some four million dollars, while private investments exceeded
nine billion. Yet though to most Americans, all this seemed a form of economic aid, many Latin Americans
regarded it as economic imperialism. In September 1960, came a co-operative plan that could not be regarded
as other than enlightened: the Act of Bogota, which authorized a grant of half a billion dollars to subsidize not
only economic but social and educational progress in Latin America. “We are not saints”, said President
Eisenhower when he visited Santiago de Chile, “We know we make mistakes, but our heart is in the right place”.
But was it? President Kennedy was confronted by the same dilemma that had perplexed his predecessors.
Clearly it was essential to provide a large-scale aid to the countries south of Rio Grande, but should this aid go
to bolster up established regimes and thus help maintain status quo, or should it be used to speed up social
reforms, even at the risk of revolt? As early as 1958, the then Senator Kennedy had asserted that “the objective
of our aid program in Latin America should not be to purchase allies, but to consolidate a free and democratic
Western Hemisphere, alleviating those conditions which might foster opportunities for communistic infiltration
and uniting our peoples on the basis of constantly increasing living standards”.

This conviction that raising the standards of living was the best method of checking Communism now inspired
President Kennedy's bold proposal for the creation of the alliance for progress - - a ten year plan designed to do
for Latin America what Marshall Plan had done for Western Europe. It was to be “a peaceful revolution on a
hemispheric scale, a vast cooperative effort, unparalleled in magnitude and nobility of purpose, to satisfy the
basic needs of the American people for homes, work, land, health and schools. “To achieve this, the United
States pleaded an initial grant of one billion dollars, with the promise of additional billions for the future.
7. Following World War II, which problem was the United States most concerned with regarding Latin America?
(a) Economic stability. (b) Political ideology.
(c) Religious persecution. (d) Military dictatorship.
8. A key reason why Latin American rejected the Inter-American development Bank was that
(a) it primarily provided money for social reform subsidies.
(b) the moneys provided were only for specific performance projects.
(c) it constituted an extension of the Marshall Plan into Latin America
(d) it was being used as a means to control the economic destiny of Latin America.
9. Which of the following is most closely associated with the concept of a Marshall Plan for Latin America?
(a) The Good Neighbour Policy. (b) The Alliance for Progress.
(c) The Act of Bogota. (d) The Monroe Doctrine.
10. According to the passage, the fundamental change in U.S. foreign policy directed towards Latin America
(a) resulted in a deterioration of U.S. Latin American relations.
(b) was responsible for Peron remaining as a dictator in Peru.
(c) recognized that economic aid alone would prevent social revolutions.
(d) provided for increased military and economic aid to prevent the spread of communism in Latin America.
11. All of the following statements are true, except?

(a) Mexico and Chile did not experience the general social crises that are common to the majority of Latin
American countries.
(b) President Eisenhower continued in practice the theory that economic aid was the best defense against
communist incursion into Latin America
(c) The Good Neighbour Policy favoured a multilateral interpretation of the Monroe Doctrine.
(d) The traditional U.S. approach in Latin America was to protect the status quo.
12. Which of the inferences can be drawn if everything said in the passage were assumed to be true?
(a) Rebellions are fuelled by social reforms and avoided by supporting established authorities or continuing the
present state of affairs.
(b) The American policy towards Asia can be called an overall success, though small in magnitude.
(c) Kennedy, in 1958, wanted America to aid South American countries to acquire more support in their fight
against communism.
(d) Eisenhower rejected the Marshall Plan, whereas Kennedy implemented a similar one.
each question.
Last fortnight, news of a significant development was tucked away in the inside pages of newspapers. The
government finally tabled a bill in Parliament seeking to make primary education a fundamental right. A fortnight
earlier, a Delhi-based newspaper had carried a report about a three-month interruption in the Delhi
Government's ‘Education for All’ programme. The report made for distressing reading. It said that literacy
centres across the city were closed down, volunteers beaten up and enrolment registers burnt. All because the
state government had, earlier this year, made participation in the programme mandatory for teachers in
government schools. The routine denials were issued and there probably was a wee bit of exaggeration in the
report. But it still is a pointer to the enormity of the task at hand.

That economic development will be inherently unstable unless it is built on a solid base of education, specially
primary education, has been said so often that it is in danger of becoming a platitude. Nor does India's abysmal
record in the field need much reiteration. Nearly 30 million children in the six to ten age group do not go to
school — reason enough to make primary education not only compulsory but a fundamental right. But is that
the solution? More importantly, will it work? Or will it remain a mere token, like the laws providing for
compulsory primary education? It is now widely known that 14 states and four Union Territories have this law
on their statute books. Believe it or not, the list actually includes Bihar, Madhya Pradesh (MP) and Rajasthan,
where literacy and education levels are miles below the national average. A number of states have not even
notified the compulsory education law.
This is not to belittle the decision to make education a fundamental right. As a statement of political will, a
commitment by the decision-makers, its importance cannot be undervalued. Once this commitment is clear, a
lot of other things like resource allocation will naturally fall into place. But the task of universalizing elementary
education (UEE) is complicated by various socio-economic and cultural factors which vary from region to region
and within regions.
If India's record continues to appall, it is because these intricacies have not been adequately understood by the
planners and administrators. The trouble has been that education policy has been designed by grizzled
mandarins ensconced in Delhi and is totally out of touch with the ground reality. The key then is to decentralise
education planning and implementation. What's also needed is greater community involvement in the whole
process. Only then can school timings be adjusted for convenience, school children given a curriculum they can
relate to and teachers made accountable.
For proof, one has only to look at the success of the district primary education programme, which was launched
in 1994. It has met with a fair degree of success in the 122 districts it covers. Here the village community is
involved in all aspects of education — allocating finances to supervising teachers to fixing school timings and
developing curriculum and textbooks — through district planning teams. Teachers are also involved in the
planning and implementation process and are given small grants to develop teaching and learning material,
vastly improving motivational levels. The consequent improvement in the quality of education generates
increased demand for education.
But for this demand to be generated, quality will first have to be improved. In MP, the village panchayats are
responsible for not only constructing and maintaining primary schools but also managing scholarships, besides
organising non-formal education. How well this works in practice remains to be seen (though the department
claims the schemes are working very well) but the decision to empower panchayats with such powers is itself a
significant development. Unfortunately, the Panchayat Raj Act has not been notified in many states. After all,
delegating powers to the panchayats is not looked upon too kindly by vested interests.
More specifically, by politicians, since decentralisation of education administration takes away from them the
power of transfer, which they use to grant favours and build up a support base. But if the political leadership
can push through the bill to make education a fundamental right, it should also be able to persuade the states
to implement the laws on Panchayat Raj. For, UEE cannot be achieved without decentralisation. Of course, this
will have to be accompanied by proper supervision and adequate training of those involved in the administration
of education. But the devolution of powers to the local bodies has to come first.
13. None of these problems are plaguing the education system in India Except
a. poverty. b. diverse cultural and socio-economic factors.
c. male chauvinism. d. Celebrating festivals
14. In the context of the passage, the term 'grizzled mandarins' means
a. old hags. b. decrepit men.
c. ineffective old men. d. None of these
15. One of the reasons contributing to India's poor performance on the education front is that
a. its leaders do not have the conviction required to improve the education system.
b. male members of society do not want their female counterparts to be educated.

c. administrators in charge of education are out of touch with ground realities.
d. the country does not have the law for implementation of education policies in its statute books.
16. The only way in which the education system can be improved is by
a. decentralising education planning and implementation.
b. introducing fresh blood in the planning body.
c. injecting funds into the exchequer solely for the purpose.
d. educating the people on the need for primary education.
17. Primary education

a. is a fundamental right. b. will be made a fundamental right.
c. is only for the privileged sections of society. d. None of these
18. One of the ways in which education policy can be successfully implemented as mentioned in the passage, is
a. greater community involvement. b. greater community development.
c. greater community awareness. d. Both (a) and (b)
each question.
A game of strategy, as currently conceived in game theory, is a situation in which two or more “players” make
choices among available alternatives (moves). The totality of choices determines the outcomes of the game, and
it is assumed that the rank order of preferences for the outcomes is different for different players. Thus the
“interests” of the players are generally in conflict. Whether these interests are diametrically opposed or only
partially opposed depends on the type of game.
Psychologically, most interesting situations arise when the interests of the players are partly coincident and
partly opposed, because then one can postulate not only a conflict among the players but also inner conflicts
within the players. Each is torn between a tendency to cooperate, so as to promote the common interests, and
a tendency to compete, so as to enhance his own individual interests.
Internal conflicts are always psychologically interesting. What we vaguely call “interesting” psychology is in very
great measure the psychology of inner conflict. Inner conflict is also held to be an important component of
serious literature as distinguished from less serious genres. The classical tragedy, as well as the serious novel
reveals the inner conflict of central figures. The superficial adventure story on the other hand, depicts only
external conflict; that is, the threats to the person with whom the reader (or viewer) identifies stem in these
stories exclusively from external obstacles and from the adversaries who create them. On the most primitive
level this sort of external conflict is psychologically empty. In the fisticuffs between the protagonists of good and
evil, no psychological problems are involved or, at any rate, none are depicted in juvenile representations of
conflict.
The detective story, the “adult” analogue of a juvenile adventure tale, has at times been described as a
glorification of intellectualized conflict. However, a great deal of the interest in the plots of these stories is
sustained by withholding the unraveling of a solution to a problem. The effort of solving the problem is in itself
not a conflict if the adversary (the unknown criminal) remains passive, like Nature, whose secrets the scientist
supposedly unravels by deduction. If the adversary actively puts obstacles in the detective’s path toward the
solution, there is genuine conflict. But the conflict is psychologically interesting only to the extent that it contains
irrational components such as a tactical error on the criminal’s part or the detective’s insight into some
psychological quirk of the criminal or something of this sort. Conflict conducted in a perfectly rational manner is
psychologically no more interesting than a standard Western.
For example, Tic-tac-toe, played perfectly by both players, is completely devoid of psychological interest. Chess
may be psychologically interesting but only to the extent that it is played not quite rationally. Played completely
rationally, chess would not be different from Tic-tac-toe.

In short, a pure conflict of interest (what is called a zero-sum game) although it offers a wealth of interesting
conceptual problems, is not interesting psychologically, except to the extent that its conduct departs from
rational norms.
19. Find the main idea of the passage?

(1) To explain game of strategy (2) To explain detective’s game plan
(3) To explain juvenile representations games (4) None of these
20. According to the passage, internal conflicts are psychologically more interesting than external conflicts
because
(1) internal conflicts, rather than external conflicts, form an important component of serious literature as
distinguished from less serious genres.
(2) only juveniles or very few “adults” actually experience external conflict, while internal conflict is more widely
prevalent in society.
(3) in situations of internal conflict, individuals experience a dilemma in resolving their own preferences for
different outcomes.
(4) there are no threats to the reader (or viewer) in case of external conflicts.
21. Which, according to the author, would qualify as interesting psychology?

(1) A statistician’s dilemma over choosing the best method to solve an optimization problem.
(2) A chess player’s predicament over adopting a defensive strategy against an aggressive opponent.
(3) A mountaineer’s choice of the best path to Mt. Everest from the base camp.
(4) A finance manager’s quandary over the best way of raising money from the market.
22. According to the passage, which of the following options about the application of game theory to a conflict-
of-interest situation is true?
(1) Assuming that the rank order of preferences for options is different for different players.
(2) Accepting that the interests of different players are often in conflict.
(3) Not assuming that the interests are in complete disagreement.
(4) All of the above.
23. The problem solving process of a scientist is different from that of a detective because
(1) scientists study inanimate objects, while detectives deal with living criminals or law offenders.
(2) scientists study known objects, while detectives have to deal with unknown criminals or law offenders.
(3) scientists study phenomena that are not actively altered, while detectives deal with phenomena that have
been deliberately influenced to mislead.
(4) scientists study psychologically interesting phenomena, while detectives deal with “adult” analogues of
juvenile adventure tales.
24. If a movie is made on the above passage. What is the main genre of the movie?
1) Romance 2) Science 3) Fantasy 4) Psychology

25. Answer the following question on the basis of this paragraph and mark the correct option in the given box.
Parents usually do not insist that their children learn to walk by a certain age. Parents feel confident that the
children will learn to walk within a reasonable period of time, when their bodies are ready for such an
undertaking. Teachers should adopt the same attitude when teaching children in school how to read. If teachers
did this, children might learn to read much more quickly and experience less anxiety while doing so.
Which of the following best describes the Essence or structure of the passage?
A. How children learn one kind of activity is described and then this method is recommended for teaching
children another kind of activity.
B. Two different views of how children should be taught to read are compared and contrasted.
C. A view of how children should be taught is described and then criticized.
D. Contrasting views of parents and teachers on how quickly children actually learn are described and then
analyzed.
E. The amount of time it take for children to learn one kind of activity is described and then used to predict how
long it will take them to learn another kind of activity.
TITA:
26. The sentences given, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a
letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent
paragraph. Sentence 1 and 6 are fixed starting and ending of the paragraph. Type the correct order in the given
space.
1. Amount of published information available varies widely by industry.
A. Unfortunately for the researcher, many industries do not meet these criteria, and there may be little published
information available.
B. Generally, the problem the researcher will face in using published data for analysing an economically
meaningful industry is that they are too broad or too arranged to fit the industry.
C. However, it is always possible to gain some important information about an industry from published sources
and these sources should be aggressively pursued. D. Larger the industry, the older it is, and the slower the rate
of technological change, better is the available published information.
6. If a researcher starts a searching for data with this reality in mind, the uselessness of broad data will be better
recognized and the tendency to give up will be avoided.
TITA:
27. In the following question a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. Type the correct option number
in the given space below.
Trade protectionism, disguised as concern for the climate, is raising its head. Citing competitiveness concerns,
powerful industrialized countries are holding out threats of a levy on imports of energy-intensive products from
developing countries that refuse to accept their demands. The actual source of protectionist sentiment in the
OECD countries is, of course, their current lacklustre economic performance, combined with the challenges
posed by the rapid economic rise of China and India - in that order.
(1) Climate change is evoked to bring trade protectionism through the back door.
(2) OECD countries are taking refuge in climate change issues to erect trade barriers against these two countries.
(3) Climate change concerns have come as a convenient stick to beat the rising trade power of China and India.
(4) Defenders of the global economic status quo are posing as climate change champions.
(5) Today’s climate change champions are the perpetrators of global economic inequity.
TITA:
Whatever their disadvantage with respect to distributing education tax dollars equally among school districts,
in one respect at least, local property taxes are superior to state taxes as a means of funding public schools.
Because local property taxes provide public schools with a direct source of revenue, these public schools are
relatively free from competition for tax dollars with other government services. School administrators do not
have to compete for a share of the state tax dollars, which are already being spent on health, criminal justice,

public safety, and transportation. They are not placed in the position of having to argue that school programs
must have priority over other public services financed by state taxes.
Which of the following statements best expresses essence of the passage?
A. Education is more important than other government services, such as criminal justice or public safety.
B. The disadvantage of local property taxes is that they do not equally distribute tax dollars spent on education.
C. School administrators are not accustomed to arguing that their programs must have priority over other
government services.
D. Financing education with local property taxes has the advantage of eliminating competition for funding
between schools and other public services.
E. School administrators must be prepared to justify the funds they spend on education programs.
TITA:
Most people at their first consultation take a furtive look at the surgeon’s hands in the hope of reassurance.
Prospective patients look for delicacy, sensitivity, steadiness, perhaps unblemished pallor. On this basis, Henry
Perowne loses a number of cases each year. Generally, he knows it’s about to happen before the patient does:
the downward glance repeated, the prepared questions beginning to falter, the overemphatic thanks during the
retreat to the door.
(1) Other people do not communicate due to their poor observation.
(2) Other patients don’t like what they see but are ignorant of their right to go elsewhere.
(3) But Perowne himself is not concerned.’
(4) But others will take their place, he thought.
(5) These hands are steady enough, but they are large.
TITA:
paragraph. Sentence 1 and 6 are fixed starting and ending of the paragraph. Type the correct order in the given
space.
1. Intensity of competition in an industry is neither a matter of coincidence nor bad luck.
A. The collective strength of these forces determines the ultimate profit potential in the industry where profit
potential is measured in terms of long run returns on invested capital.
B. Rather, competition in an industry is rooted in its underlying economic structure and goes well beyond the
behavior of current competitors.
C. Not all industries have the same potential.
D. The state of competition in an industry depends on five basic competitive forces.
6. They differ fundamentally in their ultimate profit potential as the collective strength of the forces differs.
TITA:
Shakespeare wrote four types of plays: histories, comedies, tragedies, and tragicomedies. Some scholars
contend that Shakespeare’s choice of three of these types of dramatic forms reflects his various psychological
states. As a young man making a name for himself in London, he wrote comedies. Then, saddened by the death
of this son, he turned to tragedies. Finally, seasoned by life’s joys and sorrows, he produced tragicomedies. But
a look at the theater scene of his day reveals that Shakespeare was not so much writing out of his heart as into
his pocketbook. When comedies were the vogue, he wrote comedies; when tragedies were the rage, he wrote
tragedies; and when tragicomedies dominated the stage, he produced tragicomedies.
Which of the following statements best expresses essence of the passage?
A. Examine Shakespeare’s life in light of his dramatic works
B. Contest a theory that attempts to explain why Shakespeare wrote the kinds of plays he did
C. Explain the terms “comedy,” “tragedy,” and “tragicomedy” as they are used in discussions of Shakespeare’s
plays
D. Compare Shakespeare’s plays with the works of other dramatists of his day
E. Discuss what is known about Shakespeare’s psychological states

TITA:
paragraph. Type the correct order in the given space.
A. A few months ago I went to Princeton University to see what the young people who are going to be running
our country in a few decades are like.
B. I would go to sleep in my hotel room around midnight each night, and when I awoke, my mailbox would be
full of replies—sent at 1:15 a.m., 2:59 a.m., 3:23 a.m.
C.One senior told me that she went to bed around two and woke up each morning at seven; she could afford
that much rest because she had learned to supplement her full day of work by studying in her sleep.
D.Faculty members gave me the names of a few dozen articulate students, and I sent them e-mails, inviting them
out to lunch or dinner in small groups.
E.As she was falling asleep she would recite a math problem or a paper topic to herself; she would then
sometimes dream about it, and when she woke up, the problem might be solved.
TITA:
Mattancherry is Indian Jewry’s most famous settlement. Its pretty streets of pastel coloured houses, connected
by first-floor passages and home to the last twelve saree-and-sarong-wearing, whiteskinned Indian Jews are
visited by thousands of tourists each year. Its synagogue, built in 1568, with a floor of blue-and-white Chinese
tiles, a carpet given by Haile Selassie and the frosty Yaheh selling tickets at the door, stands as an image of
religious tolerance.
(1) Mattancherry represents, therefore, the perfect picture of peaceful co-existence.
(2) India’s Jews have almost never suffered discrimination, except for European colonizers and each other.
(3) Jews in India were always tolerant.
(4) Religious tolerance has always been only a façade and nothing more.
(5) The pretty pastel streets are, thus, very popular with the tourists.
TITA:
paragraph. Type the correct order in the given space.
1. The main source of power in industrial undertaking is electricity.
A. Electricity from water also requires enormous river valley projects involving huge expenditure.
B. In contrast, electricity from atomic power stations will result in a tremendous saving in expenditure.
C. Besides, the mineral resources of the world required for generation of electricity are being rapidly depleted.
D. But the production of electricity needs huge quantities of coal.
6. The installation of atomic plants will help in meeting the shortage of these resources.
TITA:

Type Area No. Of Ques Question Type

Reading Comprehension Passage 1 6 MCQ
Paragraph based Jumbled Paragraphs 4 TITA
Paragraph based Paragraph Summary 3 TITA
Paragraph based Coherrent passage 3 TITA
Overall Strategy
Correct Percentile Time / set
8 70 7.5
12 80 5
16 90 3.8
20 99 3.0
24 99.5 2.5
28 99.99 2.1
1. The passage states, “For these reasons some cognitive scientists have described language as a
psychological faculty, a mental organ, a neural system, and a computational module. But I prefer the admittedly
quaint term "instinct"”. Combine this extract with “Thinking of language as an instinct inverts the popular
wisdom” and we arrive at option 5 as the correct answer option. Option 1: While the passage mentions ‘cultural
artifact’, it does not relate it to popular wisdom. Hence, option 1 is incorrect. Option 2 is mentioned in the
passage but there is no data to suggest that it is not popular wisdom. Option 3 is incorrect because the author
has criticized the common view that children learn language as they grow, he instead says that children are born
with it. Option 4 is mentioned in the passage and does not invert popular wisdom in any way. Hence, the correct
answer is option 5.
2. The analogy describes an action which is a critical activity to the species, such that it is instinctive and
not something that develops over time. The analogy emphasises the fact that language is instinctive, and not
something that is learnt. Options 3, 4 and 5 about a donkey carrying the load, a horse running the derby and a
pet dog protecting property, are not instinctive and basic actions attributed to those animals. They have to be
trained to perform these functions. Option 1 is about ‘learning’, whereas the original example is about
instinctively ‘knowing’. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
3. At the end of the second paragraph, “a knack for communicating information about who did what to
whom by modulating the sounds we make when we exhale”. This ability is unique to humans as mentioned in
the passage. This resonates with option 2. Option 1, 3 and 4 are negated as the author has not mentioned or
implied in any way that non-humans cannot use symbols, cannot communicate information or do not use sound
as a means of communication. Therefore, option 5 - all of the above - is incorrect. Hence, the correct answer is
option 2.
4. The passage states, “The complexity of language, from the scientist’s point of view, is part of our
biological birthright; it is not something that parents teach their children or something that must be elaborated
in school”. This implies that children are born with an instinctive skill for language and that it cannot be taught.
Option 2 is about learning as they grow and not about instinctively knowing language. Option 3 is close, but the
question is related to ‘complexity’ of language. The author is silent on whether language is amenable to teaching
or not. Option 4 is irrelevant as there is no comparison between the language skills of teachers/ parents and
their children. Option 5 contradicts the passage. “Semiotics” is the study of symbols and signs and the passage
states that children are not good at semiotics. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

5. Option 4 succinctly summarizes the crux of the author’s arguments. The author is trying to propound
the ‘instinctive’ nature of language. He mentions it is unique to “Homo sapiens” but that is not the crux of the
passage making option 1 unsuitable as a summary. Option 2 focuses on a non critical aspect of language which
deals with ‘learning’ or ‘teaching’, which is true yet not central to the discussion. Option 3 is incorrect as it
focuses on ancillary aspects. Option 5 has no base in the paragraph, and is a radical statement. Hence, the correct
answer is option 4.
6. Option 2. Third last line of the passage: A preschooler’s tacit knowledge of grammar is more
sophisticated than the thickest style manual or the most state-of-the-art computer language system. This means
its mentioned as an analogy.
7. b US was more concerned with 'order' than with reforms of any kind.
8. d Latin Americans regarded it as economic imperialism.
9. a The Act of Bogota was most closely related to the Marshall Plan or Latin America.
10. c US preferred dictatorship to the spread of communism in Latin America.
11. b The President's initiative to present financial economic aid to Latin America has been presented as an
example of his efforts to mend his 'Latin Ameriacn fences'. Thus he was not acting to continue to keep
communism from intruding the country.
12. a The passage states that speeding up social reforms implied a risk of revolt, which could be avoided by
maintaining status quo.
13. b The diverse cultural and socio-economic factors are a major problem affecting the Indian education
system. (a) and (c) are not stated in the passage.
14. d 'Grizzled mandarins' refers to bureaucrats. It would be unfair to label the mandarins as (a), (b) or (c).
15. c Those in charge of education are totally out of touch with the ground reality. This point is given in the
fourth paragraph. Hence, it will not be necessary to mark (a), (b) or (d) as the answer.
16. a The author advocates decentralizing education planning and implementation to improve the
education system. This point is given in the fourth paragraph. Hence, it will not be necessary to mark (b), (c) or
(d) as the answer.
17. d None of the given statements can be related to primary education, on the basis of the passage.
18. c Politicians are specially responsible for obstructing the implementation of education policies as
decentralization of educational administration will take away certain powers from them. We are not sure about
the intentions of (a), (b) or (d).
19. Option 1. Main idea of the passage is to introduce the game of strategy.
20. Option 1 is eliminated because it states that ‘internal conflicts’ are found in serious literature. Option 2
states that ‘internal conflict is widely prevalent in society. Option 4 talks about threat to the reader (which is
ridiculous). None of these will address the query why internal conflicts are more interesting than external
conflicts. Answer is derived from: “Psychologically, most interesting situations arise when the interests of the
players are partly coincident and partly opposed, because then one can postulate not only a conflict among the
players but also inner conflicts within the players. Each is torn between a tendency to cooperate, so as to
promote the common interests, and a tendency to compete, so as to enhance his own individual interests.”
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
21. Option 2 To be considered ‘interesting psychology’, the passage states that internal conflicts are
essential. Bereft of internal conflicts a situation does not qualify to be psychologically interesting. In that case,
the only example available in the options which includes internal conflict is in option 2. None of the other
options include inner conflict, hence they do not merit evaluation. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
22. Option 4 All the options are given in the first paragraph itself. “The totality of choices determines the
outcomes of the game, and it is assumed that the rank order of preferences for the outcomes is different for
different players. Thus the “interests” of the players are generally in conflict. Whether these interests are
diametrically opposed or only partially opposed depends on the type of game.” As a result, option 4 is a
straightforward choice.
23. Option 3 The difference is stated in this part of the passage: For the detective “the effort of solving the
problem is in itself not a conflict if the adversary (the unknown criminal) remains passive, like Nature, whose
secrets the scientist supposedly unravels by deduction.” The basic difference is that scientist deals with passive
nature, whereas the detective has to deal with a criminal who may put obstacles (active) in his path. If the

criminal remains passive there is no conflict. As a result option 3 best answers the question. The other options,
then, are easily eliminated.
24. Option 4: If a movie is made on the above passage, only genre of the movie can be psychology
25. TITA: A; This question asks you to choose the statement that best describes the Essence or structure of
the passage. The first two sentences of the passage give you information about children and walking. In the third
sentence, the author asserts that the idea of walking when the time is right should be applied to the activity of
teaching children to read. The fourth sentence tells what might happen if the idea were applied. Choice A
accurately describes the Essence of the paragraph.
26. TITA: BDAC; B shows the problem faced by a researcher, D. elaborates why this happens, A continues
with it and C., by using ‘however’ introduces the way out of the problem.
27. TITA: 4; Option 1 has already been mentioned in the first statement of the paragraph. This does not
make it an effective paragraph ending. Option 2 mentions only OECD countries while the paragraph mentions
“powerful industrialized countries” of which the OECD countries are only a part. Furthermore, the option is again
a repetition of ideas presented in the paragraph. The focus of option 3 is on ‘China’ and ‘India’, while the focus
of the paragraph is not. Option 5 brings in ‘global economic inequity’ which is an opinion not expressed or
implied in the passage. Option 4 addresses the gist of the paragraph. Powerful countries, including the OECD
countries are posing as climate change champions due to their lacklustre economic performance as compared
to China and India which are growing rapidly. ‘Climate change champions’ in this option completes the
paragraph, and addresses the point raised in the first sentence. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
28. TITA: D; The best answer for this question is D. Several pieces of explicitly stated information point to
D as the best answer. The first sentence of the passage states that, in one respect, local property taxes “are
superior to” state taxes as a way of financing public schools. The second sentence states what this superiority
or advantage is in helping schools to avoid competition for funding. The third and fourth sentences tell more
about this advantage.
29. TITA: 3; The main sentence of the paragraph that decides the ending is “On this basis, Henry Perowne
loses a number of cases each year.” Option 1 moves away from the core of the paragraph - losing patients.
Option 5 does not complete the paragraph and leaves one wanting for more data to explain the importance of
hands being large. Option 4 loses out on the sentence structure and style. There is no logical continuity to the
paragraph. Option 3 provides a logical finish to the paragraph by showing that inspite of the losing patients,
Perowne is not concerned. Option 2 brings in a disconnect to the idea from the paragraph. It states that other
patients’ observations are also negative and those who stay with Perowne do so out of ignorance of available
alternatives. This is not in continuation of the main idea expressed in the paragraph. Hence, the correct answer
is option 3.
30. TITA: C; The user of word ‘rather’ in B. indicates that it should follow 1. D. states that the competition
depends on five basic competitive forces, A. continues with the same idea. C. states that not all industries have
the same potential an this is elaborated in 6.
31. TITA: B; This question asks you to identify the essence in writing the whole passage. The author does
not plainly state the essence; the essence must be determined on the basis of the information in the passage
and how that information is organized. The first two sentences classify Shakespeare’s plays into four categories
and offer an explanation, endorsed by “some scholars.” Note that up to this point in the passage, you know only
that the author is concerned about the kinds of plays Shakespeare wrote and with explaining why he may have
written them when he did. The word “But” in the sixth sentence of the passage informs you that the passage is
about to change direction. The author states that there is evidence to suggest that the first explanation may be
wrong. The ESSENCE of the passage, then, is not simply to describe the kinds of plays Shakespeare wrote, but
rather to refute the explanation attributed to “some scholars” by providing evidence to suggest it may not be
true. This purpose is described in choice B.
32. TITA: ADBCE; DB and CE are mandatory pairs. In D, the author sends emails and B mentions when he
gets replies. Statement C ends with the senior stating that she studies in her sleep. Statement E continues the
same by explaining how she manages to study like that. However, if you figured out DB, you have arrived at the
answer right away. Statement A begins the paragraph. It introduces the author’s intention of getting to know
Princeton university students. DBCE are extensions of what happens at the university. Hence, the correct answer
is option ADBCE.

33. TITA: 1; The paragraph starts with a location (as a backdrop) and moves on to describe things associated
with the location. While various things are described about the location, we are looking for a sentence that
completes the ideas stated in the paragraph. The paragraph juxtaposes various disparate ideas and cultures
together: note the saree and sarong, the Indian Jews, and the image of religious tolerance. Option 2 is a
disconnect from the main idea of the paragraph – it talks about religious discrimination which is not an idea
found in the paragraph. Option 1 is about Matancherry, which the whole paragraph is about. It brings together
the ideas in the paragraph to a logical, cohesive whole. Option 5, with ‘thus’ for pretty pastel streets is
disconnected. No reason is provided in the paragraph for pastel streets being popular. It is the majority
community which has to show tolerance towards a minority group, not the other way round. The paragraph
clearly states “home to the last twelve....” indicating the Indian Jews to be very few in numbers. Option 3 can be
eliminated. Option 4 is contrary to the data provided in the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
34. TITA: DABC; D starts with ‘but’ and states why use of electricity in industries poses problems. A.
continues with the idea and the word ‘also’ shows that it should follow D. B. presents an alternate to the costly
options by using ‘ in contrast’, C. states another reason to avoid using mineral resources for generating electricity
and leads to 6.

The QA section we are expecting is more easy as it was in CAT 2018, 2017 and 2016. Earlier CAT used to be
known for its tough Quant Section, but looking at last five CAT Papers (expect 2018) we can safely assume that
CAT is trying to balance out in favour of Non-Engineers, which is a good sign. The Quant section have 8 subjective
questions. Interestingly, most subjective questions were those, which would have been very easy even with
options.
Overall, in the Quant Section there was a representation of almost all the areas. Commercial Math (Percentage,
Profit & Loss & Ratio) had good number of questions. Surprisingly, there was not a single question on probability.
However, there was a one question on Permutation and Combination. Time and Distance also had very few
questions but otherwise traditional areas like Number System, Algebra & Geometry were present in a good
number.
Students who were amongst the toppers of our Test Series reported attempt of 29 to 34 in this Section. However,
the students who did not attempt subjective questions with guess work, for them attempt of 26+ should be
considered good in this section.
Topic Number of questions

Arithmetic 10
Geometry 7
Modern Mathematics 9
Algebra 4
Numbers 4
Out of 34 questions in the section, 15 were TITA questions and the remaining 19 were MCQ questions. This
section was marked by easy to medium level of difficulty question. In general, the level of difficulty of this section
was slightly higher than the level of difficulty of CAT-2014 QA section. This section was dominated by questions
on Arithmetic and Geometry. Questions from all the different topics in Arithmetic were tested.
A number of questions combined concepts across areas (such as Geometry and Progressions). We have classified
these questions based on the topic of more important concept required to solve the question.


DI LR section consisted of 8 sets on DI and LR each set had 4 questions. Most of the sets were time consuming
and challenging. A few DI sets had logical angle to them. In general, all the sets were data intensive with
several conditions. In general, DI-LR section was at similar level of difficulty as DI-LR section of previous years
CAT papers. Attempting CAT 2004 to 2008 papers LR DI Section could be best way to prepare and know the
level of difficulty.
Calculator was useful for solving only a few questions in the set. There were 8 TITA questions in all in this
section. One DI as well as one LR section consisted of all TITA questions. Following is the rough break-up of the
DI-LR sets:
Area Set Description No of Ques Difficulty
DILR Games 4 Difficult
DILR Investment 4 Medium
DILR Arrangement 4 Easy
DILR Betting 4 Medium
DILR Logic based DI (TITA) 4 Difficult
DILR Logic based DI 4 Easy
DILR Caselet 4 Difficult
DILR Logic based DI 4 Easy Med
Overall DI/LR Section

A good student would have been able to attempt 20 questions overall to get 99%ile plus

Answer the following questions based on the information given below: In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E
and F) are competing against each other Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches
in State – I and two matches in Stage – II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No
ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage – I and Stage – II are as
given below.
Stage-I:
• One team won all the three matches. • Two teams lost all the matches.
• D lost to A but won against C and F. • E lost to B but won against C and F.
• B lost at least one match. • F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.
Stage-II:
• The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches
• Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.
• Once more team lost both matches in Stage-II.
1. The two teams that defeated the leader of Stage-I are:

(1) F & D (2) E & F (3) B & D (4) E & D (5) F & D
2. The only team(s) that won both matches in Stage-II is (are)

(1) B (2) E & F (3) A, E & F (4) B, E & F (5) B & F
3. The teams that won exactly two matches in the event are
(1) A, D & F (2) D & E (3) E & F (4) D, E & F (5) D & F
4. The team(s) with the most wins in the event is (are)

(1) A (2) A & C (3) F (4) E (5) B & E
Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

Abdul, Bikram and Chetan are three professional traders who trade in shares of a company XYZ Ltd. Abdul follows
the strategy of buying at the opening of the day at 10 am and selling the whole lot at the close of the day at 3
pm. Bikram follows the strategy of buying at hourly intervals: 10 am, 11am, 12 noon, I pm. And 2 pm, and selling
the whole lot at the close of the day, Further, he buys an equal number of shares in each purchase. Chetan
follows a similar pattern as Bikram but his strategy is somewhat different. Chetan’s total investment amount is
divided equally among his purchases. The profit or loss made by each investor is the difference between the sale
value at the close of the day less the investment in purchase. The “return” for each investor is defined as the
ratio of the profit or loss to the investment amount expressed as a percentage.
5. On a day of fluctuating market prices, the share price of XYZ Ltd. ends with a gain, i.e, it is higher at the
close of the day compared to the opening value. Which trader got the maximum return on that day?
(1) Bikram (2) Chetan (3) Abdul (4) Bikram or Chetan (5) cannot be determined
6. Which one of the following statements is always true?

(1) Abdul will not be one with the minimum return
(2) Return for Chetan will be higher than that of Bikram
(3) Return for Bikram will be higher than that of Chetan
(4) Return for Chetan cannot be higher than that of Abdul
(5) none of the above
7. On a “boom” day the share price of XYZ Ltd. keeps rising throughout the day and peaks at the close of the
day. Which trader got the minimum return on that day?
(1) Bikram (2) Chetan (3) Abdul (4) Abdul or Chetan (5) cannot be determined
8. On a “bear” day the share price of XYZ Ltd. keeps falling throughout the day and is lowest at the close of
the day. Which trader got the maximum return on that day?
(1) Bikram (2) Chetan (3) Abdul (4) Abdul or Chetan (5) cannot be determined

Answer the following questions based on the statements given below:
(i) There are three houses on each side of the road.
(ii) These six houses are labeled as P, Q, R, S, T and U.
(iii) The houses are of different colours, namely, Red, Blue, Green, Orange, Yellow and White.
(iv) The houses are of different heights.
(v) T, the tallest house, is exactly opposite to the Red coloured house.
(vi) The shortest house is exactly opposite to the Green coloured house.
(vii) U, the Orange coloured house, is located between P and S.
(viii) R, the Yellow coloured house, is exactly opposite to P.
(ix) Q, the Green coloured house, is exactly opposite to U.
(x) P, the White coloured house, is taller than R, but shorter than S and Q.
9. What is the colour of the tallest house? ___________
10. What is the colour of the house diagonally opposite to the Yellow coloured house? ___________
11. Which is the second tallest house? ___________
12. Which of the pair is odd combination (1) PR (2) UQ (3) ST (4) UR ___________
Five horses, Red, White, Grey, Black and Spotted participated in a race. As per the rules of the race, the persons
betting on the winning horse get four times the bet amount and those betting on the horse that came in second
get thrice the bet amount. Moreover, the bet amount is returned to those betting on the horse that came in
third, and the rest lose the bet amount. Raju bets Rs. 3000, Rs. 2000 and Rs. 1000 on Red, White and Black horses
respectively and ends up with no profit and no loss.
13. Which of the following cannot be true?

(1) At least two horses finished before Spotted (2) Red finished last
(3) There were three horses between Black and Spotted (4) There were three horses between White and
Red
(5) Grey came in second
14. Suppose, in addition, it is known that Grey came in fourth. Then which of the following cannot be true?
(1) Spotted came in first (2) Red finished last
(3) White came in second (4) Black came in second
(5) There was one horse between Black and White
15. Suppose, in addition, it is known that White came in Second. Then which of the following must be true?
(1) Spotted came in first (2) Red finished last
(3) Grey came in last (4) Grey came in first
(5) Black or Red came in last
16. Suppose, in addition, it is known that Red came in last.

Then which of the following must be true?
(1) Spotted came in first or Second
(2) White finished 3rd or 4th.
(3) Grey came in last or 4th
(4) Grey came in first or second
(5) White finished 3rd or 2th
Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different sections, each
with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off marks fixed
by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get admission only if he/she gets marks greater

than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the sections and his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the
aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the college.
Sectional Cut – off Marks
College A. Quant B. Verbal C. Logic D. DI Aggregate Cut-off Marks
College 1 42 42 42 176
College 2 45 45 175
College 3 46 171
College 4 43 45 178
College 5 45 43 180
College 6 41 44 176
17. Minakshi did not get a call from even a single college. What could be the maximum aggregate marks
obtained by him? _____
18. Ramaya got calls from all colleges. What could be the minimum aggregate marks obtained by her? ____
19. Gauri got calls from two colleges. What could be the minimum marks obtained by him in a section? ____
20. What is the maximum score required by a Cetking student in Section D so that student clear all colleges
cut-off? _____
The Dean's office recently scanned

student results into the central
computer system. When their
character reading software cannot
read something, it leaves the space
blank. The scanner output reads as
follows:
In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and
F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2, and 0 grade
points respectively. The Grade Point
Average (GPA) is the arithmetic
mean of the grade points obtained in
the five subjects. For example
Nisha's GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 =
3.6. Some additional facts are also
known about the students' grades.
These are (a) Vipul obtained the
same grade in Marketing as Aparna
obtained in Finance and Strategy. (b)
Fazal obtained the same grade in
Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.
(c) Tara received the same grade in
exactly three courses.
21. What grade did Preeti obtain in Statistics? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
22. In operations, Tara could have received the same grade as (1) Ismet (2) Hari (3) Jagdeep (4) Manab
23. In Strategy, Gowri's grade point was higher than that obtained by (1) Fazal (2) Hari (3) Nisha (4) Rahul
24. What grade did Utkarsh obtain in Finance? (1) B (2) C (3) D (4) F

Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Coach John sat with the score cards of Indian
players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament where the same set of players played for India and
all the major batsmen got out.
John summarized the batting
performance through three
diagrams, one for each game. In
each diagram, the three outer
triangles communicate the
number of runs scored by the
three top scores from India,
where K, R, S, V, and Y represent
Kaif, Rahul, Saurav, Virender, and Yuvraj respectively. The middle triangle in each diagram denotes the
percentage of the total score that was scored by the top three Indian scorers in that game. No two players score
the same number of runs in the same game. John also calculated two batting indices for each player based on
his scores in the tournaments; the R-index of a batsman is the difference between his highest and lowest scores
in the 3 games while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are arranged in a non-increasing order.
25. For how many Indian players is it possible to calculate the exact M-index? (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) More than 2
26. Among the players mentioned, who can have the lowest R-index from the tournament?
(1) Only Kaif, Rahul or Yuvraj (2) Only Kaif or Rahul (3) Only Kaif or Yuvraj (4) Only Kaif
27. How many players among those listed definitely scored less than Yuvraj in the tournament?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) More than 2
28. Which of the players had the best M-index from the tournament?
(1) Rahul (2) Saurav (3) Virender (4) Yuvraj
Answer the questions on the

basis of the information given
below. Prof. Singh has been
tracking the number of
visitors to his homepage. His
service provider has provided
him with the following data on
the country of origin of the
visitors and the university
they belong to:
29. To which country does University 5 belong?

(1) India or Netherlands but not USA (2) India or USA but not Netherlands
(3) Netherlands or USA but not India (4) India or USA but not UK
30. University 1 can belong to

(1) UK (2) Canada (3) Netherlands (4) USA
31. Which among the listed countries can possibly host three
of the eight listed universities?
(1) None (2) Only UK (3) Only India (4) Both India and UK
32. Visitors from how many universities from UK visited

Prof. Singh's homepage in the three days?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

Solutions
Let the bold letters denote the teams that have lost. From condition 3 of stage I, D lost to A. D won against C. D
won against F. These can be represented as: D – A D -- C D -- F Similarly, condition 4 of stage I can be
represented as: E -- B E -- C E -- F Since D and E have participated in three matches in stage I, they would not be
involved in any other match in stage I. From the above representations it is clear that all other teams except A
have lost at least one match. From condition 1, of stage I, only A has won all the three matches in stage I.
Also, A will participate in 2 more matches as every team participates in 3 matches in stage I. A will win in 2 of
the remaining 3 matches. Also A is the top team as it wins all matches in stage I. From condition 6 of stage I, F
did not play against A. A won against B and C which can be represented as: B -- A A -- C The only 2 teams
which have not won even a single match so far is C and F. From statement 6 of stage I, F loses in the remaining
match against B, which can be represented as: F -- B Stage I can be represented as: D -- A B -- A D -- C A -- C
D -- F F -- B E -- B E -- C E -- F From condition 1 of stage II, A lost both matches in stage II. Also, since no team
plays against the same team more than once in the event, A plays matches against E and F. A -- E A -- F Since
one of the two teams at the bottom after stage I won both matches in stage II, F is the team which has won
both the matches in stage II. Also C lost both matches in stage II. F -- C B -- C The last condition states that one
more team lost both matches in stage II. D lost both matches in stage II. D -- B D -- E Stage II can be
represented as: A -- E A -- F F -- C B -- C D -- B D -- E Now, we can calculate the number of times each team has
won.
1. E and F defeated A. Hence, option 2.
2. B, E and F are the three teams that won both matches in stage II. Hence, option 4.
3. From the table it is clear that the teams that won exactly two matches in the event are D and F. Hence,
option 5.
4. It can be observed from the above table that B and E have most wins in the event. Hence, option 5.
5. (5) Since Chetan’s return is always higher than or equal to that of Bikram, the trader with the maximum
return would be either Abdul or Chetan. If it is a continuously rising market then Abdul would end up having
the highest gain as seen in the example above.
But there might be a scenario when the share price of XYZ would go down after 10 AM and rise in the end at 3
PM to a higher value. In such a case, if Chetan gets the shares at lower prices than what the price was at 10
AM he would end up making more profit and hence higher return.
Time of the Day Share Price (in Rs.) 10 am (open) 100 11 am 110 12 noon 140 1 pm 150 2 pm 180 3 pm (close)
200
Here, Abdul’s returns remain unaltered as 100%. Let Chetan always buy shares worth Rs. 100. So he would
end up buying 1 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 = 41 shares. When he sells the same at Rs. 200 he gets Rs. 8,200 for the
same. Chetan’s profit = 8200 − 500 = 7700. We cannot say for sure who would have higher returns. Hence,
option 5.
6. (5) From the explanation seen till now we can rule out options 1, 3 and 4. Now, option 2 is only partially
correct. We have seen that Chetan’s return would be higher than or equal to that of Bikram. It would be equal
to Bikram’s return in the scenario when the share price remains at a constant value throughout the day.
Option 2 is not always true. Hence, option 5.
7. (1) Firstly, let us try to understand the way the investments of the three traders behave. Abdul buys shares
at 10 am everyday and sells them at a particular price at 3 pm. So his return is determined by the difference in
the share price at these two times. Bikram and Chetan buy shares at equal intervals. But since Chetan buys
them in equal amount he would end up buying more when the price is less and less when the price is more.

Whether the prices are continuously rising or continuously falling down or in a fluctuating market, Chetan
always has a higher proportion of lower priced shares as compared to Bikram. This increases his profit in a
rising market and reduces his loss in a falling market. Therefore Chetan never has return lower than that of
Bikram. We have explained this concept by taking examples. For more depth we have also provided the
theoretical explanation. The theoretical explanation is only for better understanding and may not be suitable
in a test environment.
Now, let’s compare Bikram’s and Chetan’s returns. Since Arithmetic Mean is always greater than or equal to
the Harmonic Mean, Chetan’s returns will be greater than or equal to Bikram’s. Hence, option 1.
8. (1) On a bear day, Abdul’s return < Chetan’s return < Bikram’s return. Hence, option 1.
P (White, 4th) R (Yellow, 5th)

U (Orange, Shortest) Q (Green, 2nd/3rd)
S (Red, 2nd/3rd) T (Blue, First tallest)
9. The colour of the tallest house (T) is Blue.
10. The house diagonally opposite to the Yellow coloured house is S which has red colour.
11. The second tallest house can be either S or Q. We cannot determine for sure which of them is the second
tallest. hence type S or Q.
12. UR is the odd combination. So type 4.
Win x4 2nd x3 3rd x1 4th x0 5th x0

White 2000 Red 3000 Black 1000
White 2000 Black 1000 Red 3000
Black 1000 White 2000 Red 3000
Black 1000 White 2000 Red 3000
Black 1000 Red 3000 White 2000
Black 1000 Red 3000 White 2000
13. We solve this question by options. If we consider option 4 to be true, then either the White or Red horse
will finish first. It means that the amount Raju receives at the end of the race will be at least Rs. 8000 or Rs.
12000 (depending on which of the two horses finish first). However, his investment at the start of the race was
only Rs. 6000. So, his profit could never be zero; in the worst scenario he will at least make Rs. 2000. Option
(4) cannot be true. Hence, option 4.
14. We solve this question by options. If we consider option 3 to be true, then White finishes second and one
of the Red or Black horses will come in the first or third positions. With White at the second position, the
amount Raju receives at the end of the race will be at least Rs. 6000, and from Red or Black he will earn some
money. Therefore, the total money Raju receives will be more than Rs. 6000. Since his investment at the start
of the race was only Rs. 6000, his profit could never be zero. Option (3) cannot be true. Hence, option 3.
15. Grey came in last
16. White finished 3rd or 2th
17. Since Aditya didn’t get a call from any of the colleges, so for each college, he either didn’t clear one of the
sectional cut-offs or he didn’t clear the aggregate cutoff or both. If he didn’t clear one of the sectional cut-offs,
then for that section he scored less marks than the least cut-off among the given cut-offs of all the colleges. For
example, for section A, it is given that the cut-offs for colleges 1, 4 and 5 are 42, 43 and 45 respectively. The least
cut-off among them is 42. So, in order to not clear the sectional cut-off of section A for colleges 1, 4 and 5, he
should have scored less than 42. Similarly, For colleges 1, 2 and 6, Aditya’s Section B marks < 41 For colleges 1,
2, 3 and 5, Aditya’s Section C marks < 42 For colleges 4 and 6, Aditya’s Section D marks < 44 If he scores less in
Section C and D, he would not get calls for any colleges. Also in order to maximise the score we would assume

that he got just one less than the cut-off in section C and D and he scored maximum marks (50) in other sections.
Maximum marks obtained by Aditya such that he doesn’t get any calls = 41 + 43 + 50 + 50 = 184 TITA: 184.
18. Since Bhama got calls from all colleges, she must have cleared each of the 4 sections. This means that for
a particular section she scored more marks than the greatest cut-off for that section across the six colleges. For
example, for section A, it is given that the cut-offs for colleges 1, 4 and 5 are 42, 43 and 45 respectively. The
greatest cut-off among them is 45. So, in order to clear the sectional cut-off of section A for all the colleges, she
should have scored at least 45. Since we wish to minimise her marks, we should take her score in section A as
45. Similarly, in sections B, C and D, she scored 45, 46, and 45 marks respectively. Bhama’s minimum marks
such that she gets calls from all the colleges = 45 + 45 + 46 + 45 = 181 TITA: 181. Note: This is already greater
than the highest aggregate cut-off of all colleges (which is 180 for college 5). So, she will get calls from all 6
colleges.
19. The aggregate cut-off for each college is given in the common data. In order for Charlie to get minimum
marks in one of the sections, he should have got maximum marks (i.e. 50) in the other three sections. For
example, the aggregate cut-off in college 1 is 176. Since, we want minimum marks in a section he should have
gotten an aggregate of exactly 176. To minimise one of the sections, assume that he got 50 marks in the 3
sections whose cut-off is given in the common data. Then, Charlie will get a call from college 1 if he gets at least
176 – (50 × 3) = 26 marks in section D, provided that the cut-off for this section is also 26. Now, there is at least
one unknown sectional cut-off for each of the colleges, so we can use the same logic as used above for each of
the remaining colleges. For college 2, the minimum marks that Charlie needs to get a call = 175 – 150 = 25 For
college 3, the minimum marks that Charlie needs to get a call = 171 – 150 = 21 For college 4, the minimum marks
that Charlie needs to get a call = 178 – 150 = 28 For college 5, the minimum marks that Charlie needs to get a
call = 180 – 150 = 30 For college 6, the minimum marks that Charlie needs to get a call = 176 – 150 = 26 The
question states that Charlie only gets a call from 2 of the colleges. So, Charlie got 25 marks. TITA: 25
20. Maximum score required by a Cetking student in Section D so that student clear all colleges cut-off is 43.
TITA 43
21. 1 GPA of Preeti = 3.2 i.e. F + D + X + D + Y / 5 = 3.2 => 0 + 2 + x + 2 + y = 16 => x + y = 12. So only combination
possible is A, A. So Preeti obtained A grade in statistics.
22. 4 Tara received same grade in 3 courses. We already know that Tara has got B grade in one of the subject
and GPA is 2.4. So in 3 courses in which he scored same grade is B. So Tara has received the same grade as
Manab.
23. 2 GPA of Gowri is 3.8 i.e. 3 + 3 + 6 + x + 4 = 3.8 × 5 16 + x = 18 x = 2 So in strategy, Gowri's grade is C.

Rahul's grade in strategy = (4.2 × 5) – 15 = 6, i.e., A. Fazal's grade in strategy = (2.4 × 5) – 8 = 4, i.e., B. Hence,
Gowri's grade will be higher than that of Hari.
24. 3 As Fazal GPA = 2.4 So D + F + B + P + D = 2.4 × 5 2 + 0 + 4 + P + 2 = 12 P = 4 So his grade in strategy is B. So

Grade of Utkarsh in marketing is also B. So for Utkarsh, x + B + F + C + A = 3 × 5 x + 4 + 0 + 3 + 6 = 15 x = 2 So
grade of Utkarsh in finance = D.
25. Two players - Exact value of M of only Rahul and Saurav.

26. Only Kaif or Yuvraj will have lowest R.
27. Only one player scored less than yuvraj
28. Virender got best M index.
Pakistan South Africa Australia
K 28 51
R 49 55
S 75 50
V 130
Y 40 87
Top 3 bats 198 175 192

India Total 220 250 240
Blank players 0 to 22 0 to 49 0 to 48
Comparing Table 1 and 2, university 4 corresponds to UK and university 6 corresponds to USA (after as day 3
values are concerned and university 8 corresponds to India and university 3 to Netherlands now Indian or
Netherlands can take university 1 or university 5. Now university 2 and 7 belongs to either UK or Canada (only
one)
29. (1) India or Netherlands but not USA
30. (3) Netherlands
31. (1) None
32. (2) 2
Day1 Day2 Day3 Country

Univ 1 1 0 0 I or N
Univ 2 2 0 0 UK or Can
Univ 3 0 1 0 N
Univ 4 0 0 2 UK
Univ 5 1 0 0 I or N
Univ 6 1 0 1 USA
Univ 7 2 0 0 UK or Can
Univ 8 0 2 0 India
1. A person who has a certain amount with him goes to market. He can buy 50 oranges or 40 mangoes. He
retains 10% of the amount for taxi fares and buys 20 mangoes and of the balance he purchases oranges. Number
of oranges he can purchase is
a. 36 b. 40 c. 15 d. 20
2. 2/5 of the voters promise to vote for P and the rest promised to vote for Q. Of these, on the last day 15% of
the voters went back of their promise to vote for P and 25% of voters went back of their promise to vote for Q,
and P lost by 2 votes. Then the total number of voters is
a. 136 b. 140 c. 100 d. 200
3. A stockist wants to make some profit by selling sugar. He contemplates about various methods. Which of the
following would maximise his profit?
I. Sell sugar at 10% profit.
II. Use 900 g of weight instead of 1 kg.
III. Mix 10% impurities in sugar and selling sugar at cost price.
IV. Increase the price by 5% and reduce weights by 5%.
a. I or III b. II c. II, III and IV d. Profits are same
4. For the product n(n + 1)(2n + 1), n ∈ N, which one of the following is not necessarily true?
a. It is even b. Divisible by 3
c. Divisible by the sum of the square of first n natural numbers d. Never divisible by 237
5. ABCD is a square of area 4 with diagonals AC and BD, dividing square into 4 congruent triangles. Break them
into four non-over lapping triangles. Then the sum of the perimeters of the triangles is
a. 8(2 + √2) b. 8(1+ √2)

c. 4(1 + √2) d. 4(2 + √2)
6. PQRS is a square. SR is a tangent (at point S) to the circle with centre O and TR
= OS. Then the ratio of area of the circle to the area of the square is
a. π/3 b. 11/7
c. 3/π d. 7/11
7. From a circular sheet of paper with a radius 20 cm, four circles of radius 5 cm each are cut out. What is the
ratio of the uncut to the cut portion?
a. 1 : 3 b. 4 : 1 c. 3 : 1 d. 4 : 3
8. A wooden box (open at the top) of thickness 0.5 cm, length 21 cm, width 11 cm and height 6 cm is painted
on the inside. The expenses of painting are Rs. 70. What is the rate of painting per square centimetres?
a. Re 0.7 b. Re 0.5 c. Re 0.1 d. Re 0.2
9. The cost of diamond varies directly as the square of its weight. Once, this diamond broke into four pieces
with weights in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. When the pieces were sold, the merchant got Rs. 70,000 less. Find the
original price of the diamond in Lakhs.
a. 3.6 b. 1.5 c. 1 d. 2
10. . The figure shows the rectangle ABCD with a semicircle and a circle
inscribed inside in it as shown. What is the ratio of the area of the circle
to that of the semicircle?
a. (√2 – 1)2 : 1 b. 2(√2 – 1) 2 : 1
2
c. (√2 – 1) : 2 d. None of these
11. In a mile race, Akshay can be given a start of 128 m by Bhairav. If

Bhairav can give Chinmay a start of 4 m in a 100 m dash, then who out of
Akshay and Chinmay will win a race of one and half miles, and what will
be the final lead given by the winner to the loser? (One mile is 1,600 m.)
a. Akshay, 1/12 mile b. Chinmay, 1/32 mile c. Akshay, 1/24 mile d. Chinmay, 1/16 mile
12. Two liquids A and B are in the ratio 5 : 1 in container 1 and 1 : 3 in container 2. In what ratio should the
contents of the two containers be mixed so as to obtain a mixture of A and B in the ratio 1 : 1?
a. 2 : 3 b. 4 : 3 c. 3 : 2 d. 3 : 4
13. If x2 + y2 = 0.1 and |x – y| = 0.2, then |x| + |y| is equal to

a. 0.3 b. 0.4 c. 0.2 d. 0.6
14. ABCD is a rhombus with the diagonals AC and BD intersecting at the origin on the x-y plane. The equation of
the straight line AD is x + y = 1. What is the equation of BC?
a. x + y = –1 b. x – y = –1 c. x + y = 1 d. None of these
15. The set of all positive integers is the union of two disjoint subsets: {f(1), f(2), ..., f(n), ...} and {g(1), g(2), ...,
g(n), ...}, where f(1) < f(2) < ... < f(n) ..., and g(1) < g(2) < ... < g(n) ..., and g(n) = f(f(n)) + 1 for all n ≥ 1. What is the
value of g(1)?
Type in the answer here: ____
16. For all non-negative integers x and y, f(x, y) is defined as below.

f(0, y) = y + 1; f(x + 1, 0) = f(x, 1) ; f(x + 1, y + 1) = f(x, f(x + 1, y)).
Then what is the value of f(1, 2)?

17.
In the figure above, AB = BC = CD = DE = EF = FG = GA.
Then ∠DAE is approximately
18. A water tank has three taps A, B, and C. A fills four buckets in 24 mins,
B fills 8 buckets in 1 hour and C fills 2 buckets in 20 minutes. If all the taps
are opened together a full tank is emptied in 2 hours. If a bucket can hold
5 litres of water, what is the capacity of the tank in litres?
19. Shyam went from Delhi to Shimla via Chandigarh by car. The distance from Delhi to Chandigarh is ¾ times
the distance from Chandigarh to Shimla. The average speed from Delhi to Chandigarh was half as much again as
that from Chandigarh to Shimla. If the average speed for the entire journey was 49 kmph. What was the average
speed from Chandigarh to Shimla?
(a) 39.2 kmph (b) 63 kmph (c) 42 kmph (d) None of these
20. Fourth term of an arithmetic progression is 8. What is the sum of the first 7 terms of the arithmetic
progression?
(a) 7 (b) 64 (c) 56 (d) Cannot be determined
21. Two towns A and B are 100 km apart. A school is to be built for 100 students of town B and 30 students of
Town A. Expenditure on transport is Rs. 1.20 per km per student. If the total expenditure on transport by all 130
students is to be as small as possible, then the school should be built at
(a) 33 km from Town A (b) 33 km from Town B (c) Town A (d) Town B
22. In a bag, there are coins of 25 p, 10 p and 5 p in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. If there is Rs. 30 in all, how many 5 p
coins are there?
A. 50 B. 100 C. 150 D. 200
23. Let un+1 = 2un + 1(n=0,1,2,..) and u0 = 0. Then u10 nearest to

24. Let x < 0.50, 0 < y < 1, z > 1. Given a set of numbers, the middle number, when they are arranged in ascending
order, is called the median. So the median of the numbers x, y, and z would be
(a) less than one (b) between 0 and 1 (c) greater than 1 (d) cannot say
25. The price of Maruti car rises by 30 percent while the sales of the car come down by 20%. What is the
percentage change in the total revenue?
A. - 4% B. - 2% C. + 4% D. + 2%
26. Let x < 0, 0 < y < 1, z > 1. Which of the following may be false?
(a) (x2 – z2) has to be positive. (b) yz can be less than one.
(c) xy can never be zero. (d) (y2 – z2) is always negative.
27. A young girl counted in the following way on the fingers of her left hand. She started calling the thumb 1, the
index finger 2, middle finger 3, ring finger 4, little finger 5, then reversed direction, calling the ring finger 6,
middle finger 7, index finger 8, thumb 9, then back to the index finger for 10, middle finger for 11, and so on.
She counted up to 1994. She ended on her.
(a) thumb (b) index finger (c) middle finger (d) ring finger
28. In a mixture 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the quanity of water to
be further added is:
A. 20 litres B. 30 litres C. 40 litres D. 60 litres
29. The number of solutions of the equation 2x + y = 40 where both x and y are positive integers and x ≤ y is:

30. If logyx = (a . logzy) = (b . logxz) = ab, then which of the following pairs of values for (a, b) is not possible?
(1) (-2, 1/2) (2) (1, 1) (3) (π, 1/π) (4) (2, 2)
31. When you reverse the digits of the number 13, the number increases by 18. How many other two digit
numbers increase by 18 when their digits are reversed?
32. The salaries A, B, C are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. If the increments of 15%, 10% and 20% are allowed respectively
in their salaries, then what will be new ratio of their salaries?
A. 3 : 3 : 10 B. 10 : 11 : 20 C. 23 : 33 : 60 D. Cannot be determined
33. Amol was asked to calculate the arithmetic mean of 10 positive integers, each of which had 2 digits. By
mistake, he interchanged the 2 digits, say a and b, in one of these 10 integers. As a result, his answer for the
arithmetic mean was 1.8 more than what it should have been. Then b – a equals 1
34. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower 30 m high, from two points on the level ground on its opposite
sides are 45 degrees and 60 degrees. What is the distance between the two points?
(1) 30 (2) 51.96 (3) 47.32 (4) 81.96

Solution
1. d Let us assume that he has Rs. 100. In this he can buy 50 oranges or 40 mangoes. In other words,
the price of an orange is Rs. 2 and that of a mango is Rs. 2.50. Now if he decides to keep 10% of his
money for taxi fares, he would be left with Rs. 90. Now if he buys 20 mangoes, he would spend Rs.
50 and will be left with Rs. 40, in which he can buy 20 oranges.
2. a Let there be 100 voters in all. So initially there were 40 of these who promised to vote for P,
while 60 of them promised to vote for Q. On the last day, (15% of 40) = 6 voters shifted their interest
from P to Q and (25% of 60) = 15 voters shifted their interest from Q to P. So finally, P would end up
getting (40 – 6 + 15) = 49 votes and Q would end up getting (60 – 15 + 6) = 51 votes. Hence, margin
of victory for Q = (51 – 49) = 2, which matches the data given in the question. Hence, there were 100
voters in all.
3. b Profit percentage in each case is

(i) 10%
(ii) (100 × 100)/ 900 = 100/9%
(iii) ( 100 - 100 / 1.1 ) / (100/1.1) = 10%
(iv) (100 x 100) / 9 = 200/19%
4. d Since n(n + 1) forms two consecutive integers, one of them will be even and hence the product
will always be even. Also the sum of the squares of first n natural numbers is given by
n(n+1)(2n+1)/6. Hence, our product will always be divisible by this. Also you will find that the
product is always divisible by 3 (you can use any value of n to verify this). However, we can find that
the option (d) is not necessarily true. Only under certain situation does it hold good. e.g. if n = 118,
(2n + 1) = 237 or if n = 236, then (n + 1) = 237 or if n itself is 237, etc.
5. The sum of the perimeters of the triangles = (Perimetes of the square) + 2 × (Sum of its
diagonals). This is so because the bases of each triangle will be counted once. But since each of the
other two sides of the triangles is common to two triangles, it will be counted twice. Since area of
the square = 4, its side = 2 and perimeter = 8. Also its diagonal = 2√2. So the required perimeter = (8
+ 2 × 4√2) = 8(1 + √2).
6. a In the given figure, the area of the circle = πr2. To find the area of the circle, we need to find the
length of the side of the square. We know that OR = OT + TR = OT + OS = 2r. So in the right-angled
triangle ORS, we have OR = 2r, OS = r. So SR2 = OR2 – OS2. But SR2 = Area of the
square = 4r2 – r2 = 3r2. So the required ratio = π/3.
7. Area of the original paper = π(20)2 = 400π cm2. The total cut portion area = 4(π)(5)2 = 100π cm2 .
Therefore, area of the uncut (shaded) portion = (400 – 100) = 300π cm2. Hence, the required ratio =
300π : 100π = 3 : 1.

8. As it can be seen from the diagram, because of the thickness of the wall, the dimensions of the
inside of the box is as follows: length = (21 – 0.5 – 0.5) = 20 cm, width = (11 – 0.5 – 0.5) = 10 cm and
height = (6 – 0.5) = 5.5. Total number of faces to be painted = 4 walls + one base (as it is open from
the top). The dimensions of two of the walls = (10 × 5.5), that of the remaining two walls = (20 × 5.5)
and that of the base = (20 × 10). So the total area to be painted = 2 × (10 × 5.5) + 2 × (20 × 5.5) + (20
× 10) = 530 cm2. Since the total expense of painting this area is Rs. 70, the rate of painting =
70/530 = 0.13 = Re 0.1 per sq. cm.
9. c Let the original weight of the diamond be 10x. Hence, its original price will be k(100x2) . . .
where k is a constant. The weights of the pieces after breaking are x, 2x, 3x and 4x. Therefore, their
prices will be kx2, 4kx2, 9kx2 and 16kx2. So the total price of the pieces = (1 + 4 + 9 + 16)kx2 = 30kx2.
Hence, the difference in the price of the original diamond and its pieces = 100kx2 – 30kx2 = 70kx2 =
70000. Hence, kx2 = 1000 and the original price = 100kx2 = 100 × 1000 = 100000 = Rs. 1 lakh.
10.Let radius of the semicircle be R and radius of the circle be r. Let P be the centre of semicircle and
Q be the centre of the circle. Draw QS parallel to BC. Now, ∆∆ PQS ~ PBC
∴= PQ / PB = QS/ BC
⇒(R+ r) / √2R = (R – r) /R
⇒ R + r = √2R - √2r
⇒ r(1 + √2)= R(√2 - 1)
⇒ r = R (√2 - 1) / (√2 + 1) x (√2 - 1) / (√2 - 1)
⇒ r = R (√2 - 1)2
Required Ratio = πr2 / πR2 X 2
= πR2 (√2 - 1)4 / πR2 X 2
=2(√2 - 1) 4 : 1
11.. d In a mile race, Akshay can be given a start of 128 m by Bhairav. This means that Bhairav can
afford to start after Akshay has travelled 128 m and still complete one mile with him. In other words,
Bhairav can travel one mile, i.e. 1,600 m in the same time as Akshay can travel (1600 – 128) = 1,472
m. Hence, the ratio of the speeds of Bhairav and Akshay = Ratio of the distances travelled by
them in the same time = 1900/1472 = 25 : 23. Bhairav can give Chinmay a start of 4 miles. This
means that in the time Bhairav runs 100 m, Chinmay only runs 96 m. So the ratio of the speeds of
Bhairav and Chinmay = 100/96 = 25 : 24. Hence, we have B : A = 25 : 23 and B : C = 25 : 24. So A : B :
C = 23 : 25 : 24. This means that in the time Chinmay covers 24 m, Akshay only covers 23 m. In other
words, Chinmay is faster than Akshay. So if they race for 1 ½ miles = 2,400 m, Chinmay will complete
the race first and by this time Aksahy would only complete 2,300 m. In other words, Chinmay would
beat Akshay by 100 m = 1/ 16 mile.
12.d We can solve this by alligation. But while we alligate,

we have to be careful that it has to be done with respect
to any one of the two liquids, viz. either A or B. We can
verify that in both cases, we get the same result. e.g. the
proportion of A in the first vessel is 5/6 and that in the
second vessel is 1/4, and we finally require ½ parts of A.
Similarly, the proportion of B in the first vessel is 1/6 that
in the second vessel is 3/4 and finally we want it to be
1/2. With respect to liquid A.
13.b x2 + y2 = 0.1

Ix – yI2 = x2 + y2 – 2xy
(0.2)2 = 0.1 – 2xy or 2xy = 0.06 or xy = 0.03
Now IxI + IyI = √(x2 + y2 – 2xy) = √(0.1 + 0.06)
IxI + IyI = 0.40
Hence, x = 0.3, y = 0.1 or vice versa.
14.The gradient of the line AD is –1. Coordinates of B are (– 1, 0). Equation of line BC is x + y = –1.
15.b g(1) = f[f(1)] + 1 = 2 . Since f(1) has to be 1, else all the integers will not be covered. f(n) is the
set of odd numbers and g(n) is the set of even numbers.
16.b f(1, 2) = f(0, f(1, 1)); Now f(1, 1) = f[0, f(1, 0)] = f[0, f(0, 1)] = f[0, 2] = 3 Hence, f(1, 2) = f(0, 3) = 4
17.Let ∠EAD = a. Then ∠AFG = a and also ∠ACB = a. Therefore, ∠CBD = 2a (exterior angle to ∆ABC).
Also ∠CDB = 2a (since CB = CD). Further, ∠FGC = 2a (exterior angle to ∆AFG). Since GF = EF, ∠FEG =
2a. Now ∠DCE = ∠DEC = b (say). Then ∠DEF = b – 2a. Note that ∠DCB = 180 – (a + b). Therefore, in
∆DCB, 180 – (a + b) + 2a + 2a = 180 or b = 3a. Further ∠EFD = ∠EDF = γ (say). Then ∠EDC = γ – 2a. If
CD and EF meet at P, then ∠FPD = 180 – 5a (because b = 3a). Now in ∆PFD, 180 – 5a + γ + 2a = 180 or
γ = 3a. Therefore, in ∆EFD, a + 2γ = 180 or a + 6a = 180 or a = 26 or approximately 25.
18.b Since a bucket holds 5 litres of water, Tap A discharges 20 litres of water in 24 min or 5/6 litres
of water in 1 minute. Tap B discharges 40 litres in 1 hours or 2/3 litres in 1 minute. Tap C discharges
10 litres in 20 min. or ½ litres in 1 minute If A, B & C are all opened simultaneously, total discharge =
(5/6 + 2/3 + ½) = 2 litres in 1 minute. So in 2 hours, the discharge would be 240 litres, which should
be the capacity of the tank.
19.c It is clear that the ratio of the distances between (Delhi-Chandigarh) : (Chandigarh-Shimla) = 3 :
4. The ratio of the speeds between (Delhi-Chandigarh) : (Chandigarh-Shimla) = 3 : 2. Let the
distances be 3x & 4x respectively and speeds be 3y and 2y. So the time taken will be (x/y) and (2x/y)
respectively. Since average speed is given as (Total Distance) / (Total Time) = (7x)/(x/y + 2x/y) =
7y/3 = 49. Hence y = 21. So the average speed from Chandigarh to Shimla = 2y = 42 kmph.

20.c HINT : Students please note that you need not apply any formula in this case. The middle term
of an AP is always the average of all the terms. Hence, if we multiply the middle term by the number
of terms, we should get the sum of all the terms of that AP. In our problem, we have to find the sum
of first 7 terms and we have been given the 4th term (which is the middle term). Hence the required
answer is 8 x 7 = 56.
21.d
Option Location Expenditure of Town Expenditure of Town Total Expenditure
A students B students
(a) 33 km from 33x1.2x30 = 1188 67x1.2x100 = 8040 1188+8040 = 9228
A
(b) 33 km from B 67x1.2x30= 2412 33x1.2x100 = 3960 2412+3960 = 6372
(c) Town A 0 100x100x1.2 = 12000 12000
12000
(d) Town B 30x100x1.2 = 3600 0 3600
Hence we find that the least expenditure will be incurred if the school is located in town B. HINT :
Students please note that since there are more number of students from Town B, to minimise the
total expenditure the school should be located as closer to town B as possible.
22.C.
Let the number of 25 p, 10 p and 5 p coins be x, 2x, 3x respectively.
25x 10 x 2x 5 x 3x 60x
Then, sum of their values = Rs. + + = Rs.
100 100 100 100
60x 30 x 100
= 30 x= = 50.
100 60
Hence, the number of 5 p coins = (3 x 50) = 150.
23.a U0 = 20 – 1 = 0
U1 = 21 – 1 = 1
U2 = 22 – 1 = 3
U3 = 23 – 1 = 7 and so on.
∴ U10 = 210 – 1 = 1023.
24.b Since there are two numbers which are < 1 (viz. x & y), it is obvious that the median will be less
than 1. Hence (c) cannot be the answer. Since x < 0.5 and 0 < y < 1, the median will not be < 0. Hence
the answer is (b) between 0 and 1.
25.C. Let initial price of Maruti Car be Rs. 100.

As price increases 30%, price of car will become, (100 +30% of 100) = Rs. 130.
Due to increase in price, sales is down by 20%. It means, it is going make 20% less revenue as
expected after increment of price.
So, New revenue = (130 - 20% of 130) = Rs. 104.
The initial revenue was Rs. 100 which becomes Rs. 104 at the end. It means there is 4% increment in
the total revenue.
Mind Calculation Method:

100==30%↑(price effect)==>130==20%↓(sales effects)==>104.
Hence, 4% rises.

26.a Let us evaluate each option. (b) since 0 < y < 1 and z > 1, yz will always be < 1. (c) Since both x &
y are not equal to 0, xy will never be 0. (d) y is a positive number < 1 and z is a positive number > 1,
hence (y2 – z2) is always negative. Since, (b), (c) and (d) are always true, the answer has to be (a). And
this can be verified. For eg. If x = -2 and z = 3, then (x2 – z2) = 4 – 9 = -5, not a positive number.
27.b If you were to run two of three cycles of how she is counting, you will observe that the number
that she counts on thumb are 1, 9, 17, 25 and so on. So it forms a pattern such that all the numbers
that are 1 more than the multiples of 8 are counted on thumb. The closest multiple of 8 near 1994 is
1992. In other words she would count 1993 on thumb. So she would count 1994 on the index finger.
2
28. D. Quantity of milk = 60 x
3 litres = 40 litres.
Quantity of water in it = (60- 40) litres = 20 litres.
New ratio = 1 : 2
Let quantity of water to be added further be x litres.
40
Then, milk : water = .
20 + x
40 1
Now, =
20 + x 2
20 + x = 80
x = 60.
Quantity of water to be added = 60 litres.
29. 2 2x + y = 40 x ≤ y ⇒ y = 40 – 2x Values of x and y that satisfy the equation

X Y
1 38
2 36
3 34
4 32
5 30
6 28
7 26
8 24
9 22
10 20
11 18
12 16
13 14
∴ 13 values of (x, y) satisfy the equation such that x ≤ y
30. 4
logyx = (a . logzy) = (b . logxz) = ab
a = logyx / logzy and similarly b = logyx / logxz
a x b = logyx / logzy x logyx / logxz = (logyx)3
⇒ ab - a3b3 = 0
Or, a x b (1 –a2b2) = 0
Ab = +- 1

Only option (4) does not satisfy. Hence (4).
31.2 Let the number be 10x + y so when number is reversed the number because 10y + x. So, the
number increases by 18 Hence (10y + x) - (10x + y) = 9 (y - x) = 18 y - x = 2 So, the possible pairs of (x,
y) is (3, 1) (4, 2) (5, 3) (6, 4), (7, 5) (8, 6) (9, 7) But we want the number other than 13 so, there are 6
possible numbers are there i.e. 24, 35, 46, 57, 68, 79. So total possible numbers are 6.
32.So, total people reading the newspaper in consecutive months i.e. July and August and August
and Sept. is 2 + 7 = 9 people.
33. C.
Let A = 2k, B = 3k and C = 5k.
115 115 23k
A's new salary = of 2k = x 2k =
100 100 10
110 110 33k
B's new salary = of 3k = x 3k =
100 100 10
120 120
C's new salary = of 5k = x 5k = 6k
100 100
23k 33k
New ratio : : 6k = 23 : 33 : 60
10 10
34.Let OT be te tower.
Therefore, Height of tower = OT = 30 m
Let A and B be the two points on the level ground on the opposite side of tower OT.
Then, angle of elevation from A = TAO = 45o
and angle of elevation from B = TBO = 60o
Distance between AB = AO + OB = x + y (say)
Now, in right triangle ATO,
tan 45o = OT/AO = 30/x
=> x = 30/tan45 = 30 m
and in right traingle BTO
tan 60o =OT/OB = 30/y
=> y = 30/tan60 = 30/√3 = 30√3 / 3 = 17.32 m
Hence, the required distance = x + y = 30 + 17.32 = 47.32 m


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17. Primary education

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Type Area No. Of Ques Question Type

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Topic Number of questions

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4. The team(s) with the most wins in the event is (are)

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6. Which one of the following statements is always true?

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9. What is the colour of the tallest house? ___________

11. Which is the second tallest house? ___________

13. Which of the following cannot be true?

16. Suppose, in addition, it is known that Red came in last.

Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

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The Dean's office recently scanned

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Answer the questions on the

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Day1 Day2 Day3 Country

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