CHETHAN.

S 1
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT

SOUNDARYA INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND SCIENCE

DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT

SUBJECT: SCIENCE AND SOCIETY

Unit I - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MCQ – The underlined options are considered to be the opt answers

1. The word science comes from the

a) Latin b) Greek c) Sanskrit d) English

2. The word science comes from the Latin “scientia”, meaning.

a) Natural Phenomena b) Knowledge c) Physical evidence d) Experimentation

3. Science refers to –
a) A system of acquiring knowledge b) A system of natural phenomena
c) a system of physical evidence d) A system of experimentation

4. ----- is a systematic and logical approach in discovering how things in the universe work.
a) History b) Astrology c) Science d) Mathematics

5. The purpose of science is the systematic study of –

a) Make a system of natural phenomena b) Produce useful models of reality
c) Make a system of physical evidence d) Make a system of experimentation

6. A social science is the systematic study of ---

a) The natural world b) Models of reality
c) Human behavior and society d) Experimentation

7. Anatomy is the study of –

a) Structure of an animal or plant
b) Life on earth and in space
c) Structure and interactions of the complex organic molecules found in living systems

8. Evolutionary biology is the study of –

a) Structure of an animal or plant
b) Life on earth and space
c) dealing with plant life
d) Evolutionary processes that produced the diversity of life on earth
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9. Genetics is the study of ---

a) Human evolution, variation and classification b) Cell structure and function
c) Heredity d) Dealing with plant life

10. Immunology is the study of ---

a) All aspects of the immune system
b) Human evolution, variation and classification
c) Heredity
d) Dealing with plant life

11. Neuroscience is the study of ---

a) Structure or function of the nervous system and brain
b) Structure and function of the macromolecules
c) Human evolution, variation and classification
d) Microorganisms – bacteria, protozoan parasites, viruses and fungi

12. Toxicology is the study of ---

a) The structure of an animal or plant
b) The nature, effects and detection of poisons
c) All aspects of the immune system
d) Microorganisms – Bacteria, protozoan parasites, viruses and fungi

13. The English word scientist was first coined by

a) Landsteiner b) Oldham c) Einstein d) William Whewell

14. Empirical investigation of the natural world has been described since classical antiquity by
a) Haber b) Oldham c) Einstein d) Aristotle

15. Scientific methods have been employed since the middle ages by ---
a) Haber b) Ibn al-Haytham c) Oldham d) Einstein

16. Which stage scientists do not always possess exquisite technical skills?
a) 2nd stage b) 3rd stage c) 4th stage d) 1st stage

17. In 1543 --- proposed to switch the places of the Earth and the Sun.
a) Nicholas Copernicus b) Galieo c) Oldham d) Einstein

18. Who hoped that “my labors contribute somewhat even to the Commonwealth of the Church”?
a) Oldham b) Nicholas Copernicus c) Galileo d) Einstein
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19. The surface of the Moon is not smooth, uniform, and precisely spherical as a great number of
philosophers believe it to be, but is uneven, rough, and full of cavities and prominences, being not
unlike the face of the Earth, relieved by chains of mountains and deep valleys.
a) Nicholas Copernicus b) Galileo c) Oldham d) Einstein

20. Who laid down the first accurate laws of motion for masses?
a) Nicholas Copernicus b) Galieo c) Oldham d) Einstein

21. Who introduced telescope?

a) Nicholas Copernicus b) Galieo c) Oldham d) Haber

22. The Renaissance was a time of great --- change in Europe.

a) Social b) Cultural c) Both d) None of these

23. The Renaissance spanned from the

a) 13th to the 16th centuries
b) 14th to the 16th centuries
c) 14h to the 15th centuries
d) 15th to the 16th centuries

24. The Renaissance birthplace

a) Italy b) America c) India d) Australia

25. The European renaissance began in Northern Italy in

a) 1th century b) 12th century c) 13th century d) 14th century

26. The _____ city is considered the birth place of renaissance.

a) London b) Delhi c) Paris d) Tuscan

27. New way of thinking, sparked by a philosophy known as

a) Humanism b) socialism c) behaviorism d) Politics

28. Pioneering renaissance scientists and inventor include

a) Galileo Galilei b) Leonardo da Vinci c) Both d) none of these

29. In 1507 an Italian writer named ______ published a famous book called ‘The Courtier’.
a) Nicholas Copernicus
b) Oldham
c) Count Baldassare Castiglione
d) Haber
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30. Rediscovery of rational civilization exemplified by

a) Greece b) Rome c) Both d) None

31. Representation of property owners’ interest is called

a) Politics & the state
b) Ideology
c) Agricultural development
d) Infrastructure

32. Property right as central to conception of right is called

a) Politics & the state
b) Ideology
c) Agricultural development
d) Infrastructure

33. The creation of agricultural surplus is called

a) Politics & the state
b) ideology
c) Agricultural development
d) Infrastructure

34. Road and canal systems, port and ships called

a) Politics & the state
b) ideology
c) Agricultural development
d) Infrastructure

35. The first stage of the industrial revolution:

a) Consumable goods production
b) Capital goods production
c) Standardization
d) Productivity

36. Second stage of the industrial revolution:

a) Consumable goods production
b) Capital goods production
c) Standardization
d) Productivity

37. Who did the first moonwalk in 1969?

a) American buzz Aldin b) Landsteiner c) Oldham d) Einstein
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38. The first moonwalk in the year-

a) 1968 b) 1969 c) 1967 d) 1970

39. The first airplane was flown in ---

a) 1902 b) 1901 c) 1903 d) 1904

40. The structure of DNA was determined ---

a) 1963 b) 1953 c) 1967 d) 1970

41. Who discovered penicillin?

a) James Watson b) Alexandar Fleming c) Oldham d) Einstein

42. The structure of DNA was determined in 1953 by ---

a) James Watson b) Landsteiner c)Oldham d) Einstein

43. Quantum theory was proposed by ---

a) Planck b) Landsteiner c) Oldham d) Einstein

44. Who discovered human blood groups?

a) Planck b) Landsteiner c) Oldham d) Einstein

45. Establishment of the scientific study of animal behavior

a) Cornell b) Meitner c) Lorenz d) Heisenberg

46. Birth of radio astronomy

a) Jansky b) Cornell c) Meitner d) Heisenberg

47. First electron microscope-

a) Tatum b) Mayor c) Krebs d) Ruska

48. Discovery of the neutron

a) Wieman b) Chadwick c) McCarty d) Borlaug

49. Discovery of the positron, first antimatter particle

a) Wieman b) McCarty c) Anderson d) ornell

50. Magnitude scale for earthquakes

a) Cornell b) Meitner c) Richter d) Heisenberg

51. Theory of nuclear force

a) Yukawa b) McCarty c) Borlaug d) Kapitza
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52. Discovery of the citric acid cycle

a) Krebs b) Wieman c) Mccarty d) Cornell

53. Nuclear reactions in stars were found out by

a) Wieman b) McCarty c) Bethe d) Cornell

54. Evidence in bacteria that DNA is the genetic material

a) MacLeod b) McCarty c) Borlaug d) Kapitza

55. The Start of the Mexican wheat improvement program, leading to the “green revolution”
a) McCarty b) Borlaug c) Kapitza d) Ornell

56. Formulation of the one-gene, one-enzyme hypothesis

a) Cornell b) Meitner c) Heisenberg d) Beadle & Tatum

57. Radiocarbon dating

a) Libby b) McCarty c) Borlaug d) Kapitza

58. Initial elucidation of the reactions involved in photosynthesis

a) Wieman b) Calvin c) Mccarty d) Borlaug

59. Invention of the transistor

a) Shockley b) McCarty c) Borlaug d) Kapitza

60. Production of amino acids in early Earth” conditions

a) Miller & Urey b) Cornell c) Meitner d) Heisenberg

61. First complete DNA sequence of an organism

a) Sanger b) Wieman c) McCarty d) Borlaug

62. First extra solar planet identified by

a) Mayor b) Bednorz c) Tatum d) Meitner

63. The definition of Modern Science is defined as an attitude of observation and experimentation
quite often with the inclusion of mathematics to explain those
a) Observations b) Experimentation c) Mathematics d) None of these

64. Modern science is typically subdivided into the natural sciences which study the
a) Material world
b) People and Societies
c) Mathematics
d) Experimentation
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65. The social sciences which study --

a) Material world b) People and Societies c) Mathematics d) Experimentation

66. The formal science like

a) Material world b) People and Societies c) Mathematics d)
Experimentation

67. The result of a process of inductive reasoning –

a) Scientific Method b) Mathematical Method c) Hypothesis d) None of these

68. The process of Hypothesis Testing has –

a) 6 Step b) 7 Step c) 5 step d) 8 Step

69. Allows extra time for everything that can and will go wrong
a) Murphy’s law b) Newton law c) Ohms law d) None of these

70. The history of science is the study of the development of science and scientific knowledge,
including-
a) Natural sciences b) Social sciences c) None of these d) Both a and b

71. The history of the arts and humanities is termed as ---

a) Natural sciences b) Social sciences
c) History of scholarship d) None of these

72. Proto-Mathematics from-

a) 30000 BCE, up to 2000 BCE
b) 2000 BCE up to 800 BCE
c) 800 BCE to 1500 CE
d) 1400 CE to 1500 CE

73. Ancient Mathematics from—

a) 30000 BCE, up to 2000 BCE b) 2000 BCE up to 800
c) 800 BCE to 1500 CE d) 1400 CE to 1500 CE

74. Mercantile Mathematics from

a) 30000 BCE, up to 2000 BCE b) 2000 BCE up to 800 BCE
c) 800 BCE to 1500 CE d) 1400 CE to 1500 CE

75. Classical Mathematics from-

a) 30000 BCE, up to 2000 BCE b) 2000 BCE up to 800 BCE c) 800 BCE
to 1500 CE d) 1400 CE to 1500 CE
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76. Pre-Modern Mathematics from

a) 30000 BCE, up to 2000 BCE b) 1500 CE up to 1700 CE c) 800 BCE
to 1500 CE d) 1400 CE to 1500 CE

77. Modern Mathematics from ---

a) 30000 BCE, up to 2000 BCE
b) 2000 BCE up to 800 BCE
c) 1700 CE to 1950 CE
d) 1400 CE to 1500 CE

78. Post-Modern Mathematics from

a) 30000 BCE, up to 2000 BCE b) 2000 BCE up to 800 BCE
c) 800 BCE to 1500 CE d) 1950 CE to present

79. Yukti means

a) Skill b) Human intervention c) Both d) None of these

80. Daiva means

a) Divine b) Skill c) Human intervention d) None of these

81. In India the field of Ayurveda, depended heavily on the use of

a) Herbs b) Plants c) Animals d) None of these

82. Traditional Indian herbal remedies are

a) Neem b) Turmeric c) Both a and b d) None of these

83. The plants were first used for medical purposes

a) Vaccination b) Rhinoplasty c) Herbalism d) None of these

84. Atharvaveda dating from the early

a) Iron Age b) Bronze Age c) Aluminium Age d) None of these

85. Ayurveda, meaning

a) Complete knowledge for long life b) Complete knowledge
c) Long life d) None of these

86. Ayurveda famous texts belong to the schools of

a) Charaka b) Sushruta c) Both a and b d) None of these

87. Which medicine got deep roots and royal patronage during medieval times.
a) Unani b) Ayurveda c) Both a and b d) None of these
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88. The wootz steels were discovered in

a) India b) Japan c) England d) Iran

89. The first basic step in metallurgy is

a) Identifying and discovering its usefulness b) Locating metals in quantity
c) Mining the ores d) Melting the metal

90. The second basic step in metallurgy is

a) Identifying and discovering its usefulness b) Locating metals in quantity
c) Mining the ores d) Smelting the metal

91. The third basic step in metallurgy is

a) Identifying and discovering its usefulness b) Locating metals in quantity
c) Mining the ores d) Smelting the metal

92. Basic ages of metals in the ancient world

a) Copper Age b) Bronze Age c) Iron Age d) All the above

93. Copper Age

a) 4000 – 3000 BCE b) 3000-1000 BC
c) 1000 BCE to the present d) None of these

94. The Bronze Age

a) 4000 – 3000 BCE b) 3000-1000 BC
c) 1000 BCE to the present d) None of these

95. The Iron Age

a) 4000 – 3000 BCE b) 3000-1000 BC
c) 1000 BCE to the present d) None of these
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Unit II - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MCQ – The underlined options are considered to be the opt answers

1. Darwinism is a theory of ---

a) Biological evolution b) Physical evolution c) Geometric evolution d) None of these

2. Darwinism is a theory developed by –

a) Charles Darwin b) Weismann c) Bhaskaran d) None of these

3. Genetic drift is change of

a) Gene frequency in same generation b) Appearance of recessive genes
c) Gene frequency from one generation to next d) None of these

4. Which one of the following changes involved in irrelevant, in the evolution of man?
a) Perfection of hand for toll making
b) Change of diet from hard nuts and hard roots to soft food
c) Loss of tail
d) Increase in the ability to communicate with others and develop community behavior

5. The first domesticated animal by primitive man was

a) Cat b) Cow c) Dog d) Horse

6. Which of the following is a living fossil?

a) Mirabilis Jalapa b) Ginkgo Biloba c) Pinus Longifolia d) Dalbergia Sissoo

7. Reason of diversity in living being is

a) Mutation b) Long term evolutionary change
c) Gradual change d) Short term evolutionary change

8. 1st life on earth was

a) Cyanobacteria b) Chemohetrotrophs c) Autotrophs d) Photoautotrophs

9. There is no life on the moon due to the absence of

a) O2 b) Water c) Light d) Temperature

10. Darwin in his “Natural selection Theory” did not believe in any role of which one of the following
in organic evolution?
a) Parasites and predators as natural enemies b) Survival of the fittest
c) Struggle for existence d) Discontinuous variations
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11. Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic
evolution?
a) Development of transgenic animals
b) Production of ‘Dolly’, the sheep by cloning
c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
d) Development of organs from ‘stem cells’ for organ transplantation

12. Two nucleotide sequences found in two different species are almost exactly the same. This
suggest that these species
a) Are evolving into the same species b) Contain identical DNA
c) May have similar evolutionary histories d) Have the same number of mutations

13. The theory that evolutionary change is slow and continuous is known as
a) Punctuated equilibrium b) Geographic isolation c) Speciation d) Gradualism

14. The concept that species have changed over long periods of time is known as
a) Ecology b) Embryology c) Spontaneous generation d) Organic evolution

15. Which group of organisms is believed to be among the earliest to evolve on Earth?
a) Arthropods b) Coelenterates c) Protozoans d) Reptiles

16. Which concept was not included in Charles Darwin’s theory of natural selection?
a) Survival of the fittest b) Struggle for existence
c) Overproduction of offspring d) Punctuated equilibrium

17. Darwin’s theory of evolution is based on the concept of

a) Use and disuse b) Mutations c) Natural selection d) Hybridization

18. Antibiotic resistance can

a) Inherent b) Acquired c) Either be inherent nor be acquired d) Both

19. Acquired resistance occurs when a bacterium that was originally sensitive to an antibiotic
develops
a) Resistance b) Attraction c) Both d) None of these

20. Which of the following inhibits DNA gyrase?

a) Pencillin b) Trimethoprim c) Chloramphenicol d) Ciprofloxacin
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21. Regarding the “azole” group of antifungals

a) Fluconazole has low water solubility
b) Ketoconazole may be given IV/PO
c)Intraconazole undergoes renal elimination
d) They work by reduction of ergosterol synthesis by inhibition of fungal cytochrome P450 enzymes

22. Which of the following is a second generation cephalosporin?

a) Ceftazidime b) Cephalothin c) Cefotaxime d)Cefaclor

23. The cephalosporin with the highest activity against gram positive cocci is
a) Cefaclor b) Cephalothin c) Cefuroxime d) Cefaclor

24. Which of the following is considered to be bacteriostatic?

a) Pencillin b) Chloramphenicol c) Ciprofloxacin d) Cefoxitin

25. Half-life of amphotericin B is

a) 2 seconds b) 20 minutes c) 2 hours d) 2 weeks

26. Soap and detergents are the source of organic pollutants like;
a) A glycerol b) Polyphosphates c) Sulphonated hydrocarbons d) None of these

27. Soap is a salt of a

a) Fatty acid b) Amino acid c) Citric acid d) None of these

28. Soaps are mainly used as surfactants for

a) Washing b) Bathing c) Cleaning d) All the above

29. Soap in used in

a) Textile spinning b) Lubricants c) Both d) None of these

30. Fats and oils are composed of

a) Triglycerides b) Glycosides c) Both a and b d) None of these

31. Term “lye soap” refers almost exclusively to soaps made with
a) Sodium carbonate b) Sodium hydroxide c) Sodium peroxide d) None of these

32. The soap has history going back as far as --- thousand years
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 3

33. The earliest known soap recipe is credited to the ancient Babylonians
a) 3800 B.C b) 2400 B.C c) 2500 B.C. d) 2800 B.C.
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34. Throughout history soap was medically used for treatment of

a) Skin diseases b) Liver diseases c) Heart diseases d) Eye diseases

35. Common soap bars were invented in the

a) 16th Century b) 17th century c) 19th century d) 18thcentury

36. The first soap was discovered almost --- years ago.
a) 4000 b) 5000 c) 2000 d) 3000

37. The first soap was discovered in ancient

a) Babylonia b) Greece c) Rome d) All the above
38. The first soap was discovered by mixing
a) Animal fats b) Wood ash c) Water d) All the above

39. The first soaps were used in the

a) Textile industry b) Skin diseases c) Both a and b d) None of these

40. Liquid soaps are formulated for cleaning the

a) Body b) Feature skin conditioners c) Both a and b d) None of these

41. Heavy duty hand cleaners are available as

a) Bars b) Liquids c) Powers d) all the above

42. Bluing absorbs the --- part of the light spectrum

a) Yellow b) Red c) Green d) None of these

43. Boosters enhance the

a) Soil and stain removal b) Brightening c) Buffering d) All the above

44. Enzyme presoaks are used for soaking items before washing to
a) Difficult stains b) soils c) Both d) None of these

45. Fabric softeners impact a

a) Pleasing fragrance b) Make ironing easier c) both a and b d) None of these

46. Dishwashing products include detergents for

a) Hand b) Machine dishwashing c) Specialty products d) All the above

47. Glass cleaners – oily soils found on glass, and dry quickly without streaking.
a) Loosen b) Dissolve c) Both a and b d) None of these
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48. Drain openers --- kitchen and bathroom drains.

a) Unclog b) Clog c) Block d) None of these
49. Creation of automatic dishwasher powders, fabric softeners
a) 1950s b) 1960s c) 1970s d) 1980s

50. Prewash stain removers, enzyme presoaks

a) 1950s b) 1960s c) 1970s d) 1980s

51. Multifunctional products (detergent + softener), liquid soaps

a) 1950s b) 1960s c) 1970s d) 1980s

52. Polymers are large molecules composed of --- chemical units.

a) Repeated b) Enhanced c) Less d) None of these

53. The smallest repeating unit is called a

a) Mer b)MM c)CM d) None of these

54. The term polymer is derived from the --- words

a) Greek b) Latin c) American d) None of these

55. Mers meaning ---

a) Many parts b) Less parts c) Small parts d) None of these

56. Who announced in 1907 the synthesis of the first truly synthetic polymeric material?
a) Leo Baekeland b) Goodyear c) Darwin d) None of these

57. First truly synthetic polymeric material

a) Bakelite b) Neoprene c) Nylon d) PVC

58. Who found that acetylene could be made to add to itself forming dimers and trimers.
a) Julius A. Nieuwland b) Goodyear c) Darwin d) None of these

59. Neoprene was found by

a) Goodyear b) Amold Collins c) Darwin d) None of these

60. Nylon was found by

a) Dupont b) Goodyear c) Darwin d) None

61. PVC was initially formed by German chemist --- in 1872,

a) Eugen Baumann b) Goodyear c) Darwin d) None of these
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62. Polystyrene was probably first formed by German apothecary

a) B. F. Goodrich b) Goodyear c) Eduard Simon d) None of these

63. Polystyrere was probably first formed by German apothecary in

a) 1829 b) 1849 c) 1839 d)1859

64. Various uses of polymers are:

a) Elastomers b) Plastics c) Fibers d) all the above

65. Rubber is the most important of all elastomers.

a) Elastomers b) Plastics c) Fibers d) all the above

66. – is used to extract metals like thorium, vanadium and zirconium from their compounds by
displacement reactions, a deoxidizers
a) Calcium b) Calcium Carbonate c) Alcohols d) Alkenes

67. Is a synthetic narcotic used legally to treat addiction to narcotics and relieve severe pain?
a) Methadone b) Crack cocaine c) Powdered cocaine d) none of these

68. Atomic energy carried by

a) Atoms b) Protons c) Electrons d) None of these

69. The term atom was popularized by

a) Ernest Rutherford b) H. G Wells c) Darwin d) None of these

70. One of the well-known elements used in nuclear fission is

a) 235U b) 245U c) 225U d) 135U

71. The main design is the pressurized water reactor (PWR) which has water at over
a) 300OC b) 200OC c) 400OC d) 500OC

72. Which statement best describes the structure of an atom?

a) A positive core surrounded by electrons packed tightly around it
b) A particle comprised of a mixture of protons, electrons and neutrons
c) A tiny nucleus of protons and neutrons with electrons orbiting around it
d) A large core of protons and electrons surrounded by neutrons

73. Thermal neutrons have energy around

a) 100ev b) 10ev c) 1ev d) all the above
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74. Moderators are used in the nuclear reactors to

a) Generate neutrons b) Absorb neutrons
c) To slow down the neutrons d) Produce neutrons

75. Cadmium rods are used in a nuclear reactor to

a) Generate neutrons b) Absorb neutrons
c) To slow down neutrons d) Produce neutrons

76. In the nuclear reactor at Trombay which of the following is used as moderator
a) Ordinary water b) Cadmium c) Copper d) Heavy water

77. Which of the following is the best nuclear fuel?

a) Neptunium 293 b) Plutonium 239 c) Uranium 236 d) Thorium 236
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Unit III - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Agriculture, along with the fisheries and forestry, account for _____ of the nation’s GDP and is
its single largest contributors.
a) One third b) two third c) half d) one

2. Agricultural export constitutes a ________ of the total export of the country.

a) 2nd b) 3rd c) 5th d) 4th

3. NDDB means
a) National daily development board
b) National dairy development board
c) National dairy developing board
d) National development dairy board

4. With an annual output of 130 MT, _____ is the largest producer of the milk in the world.
a) India b) China c) Japan d) None

5. In 2013-14 India achieved a record food grain production of

a) 254 MT b) 264 MT c) 269 MT d) 274 MT

6. DES means
a) Directorate of economics and statistics b) Directorate of ecology and statistics
c) Directorate of ergonomics and statistics d) None

7. Which sector is the backbone of Indian economy?

a) Service sector b) Financial sector c) Tourism sector d) Agricultural sector

8. Who announced the introduction of National Food Security act?

a) Pranab Mukherjee b) Manmohan Singh c) P. Chidambaram d) Arun jaitley

9. When NFSM launched?

a) Mid of 9th five year plan b) End of 10th five year plan
c) mid of 11th five year plan d) End of 11th five year plan

10. Who announced the launched of rashtriya krishi vikas yojana ?

a) Narendra Modi b) Dr. Manmohan Singh c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee d) I.K Gujral

11. Which among the following does not belong to welfare schemes for the farmers?
a) Kisan credit card scheme b) SHG Bank Linkage Programme
c) National Agricultural Insurance Scheme d) Employee Referral Scheme
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12. When did the government present Kisan credit card scheme?
a) April 1853 b) August 1998 c) July 1991 d) November 1995

13. When was ‘On Farm Management Scheme’ launched?

a) July 2000 b) March 2002 c) March 2004 d) January 2004

14. When was ‘Micro Irrigation’ launched?

a) March 2002 b) March 2004 c) January 2004 d) January 2006

15. The Blue Revolution is related with?

a) Fish production b) Food grain production
c) Oilseed production d)Milk production

16. Indian agriculture is typically characterized as …

a) Land surplus, labor scare economy b) Land surplus, labor surplus economy
c) Land scare, labor surplus economy d) Land scare, labor scare economy

17. Dr. M. S Swaminathan has distinguished himself in which of the following fields?
a) Nuclear physics b) Agriculture c) Astrophysics d) Medicine

18. The Green Revolution in India was the outcome of the efforts of who amongst the following?
a) M. S. Swaminathan b) C. Rangarajan c) K.V Kamath d) Rakesh Mohan

19. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established in the
year…
a) 1970 b) 1975 c) 1977 d) 1982

20. The head office of the NABARD is located in?

a) Lucknow b) Hyderabad c) New Delhi d) Mumbai

21. Where is the central rice research institute located?

a) Bangalore b) Kanpur c) Coimbatore d) Cuttack

22. NABARD was established in the …

a) Fourth Five year plan b) Fifth Five year plan
c) Sixth Five year plan d) Eighth Five year plan

23. Who is known as Father of White Revolution in India?

a) M. S. Swaminathan b) V. Kurien c) K.N Bahal d) B.P. Pal

24. Which is the highest food grain producing Indian state, as per 2013-2014?
a) Madhya Pradesh b) Punjab c) Uttar Pradesh d) Maharastra
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25. Which is the highest coarse cereal producing Indian state, as per 2013-2014?
a) Karnataka b) Maharastra c) Rajasthan d) Uttar Pradesh

26. Which Indian state has the largest area irrigated by water tanks, as 2013-14?
a) Andhra Pradesh b) Karnataka c) Tamilnadu d) Uttar Pradesh

27. Which is the biggest milk plant in India?

a) Verka milk plant b) Mother Diary c) Burnett Diary d) Lorenae Diary

28. Which of the following is a human made input of agriculture?

a) Relief of the land b) Irrigation Facilities c) Earthworms d) Crops

29. Which is also known as the golden fiber?

a) Cotton b) Wheat c) Silk d) Jute

30. The two most important staple food crops of the world are – and ---
a) Ragi & Bajra b) Tea & Coffee c) Rice & wheat d) Milets & Maize

31. It is also known as “Monoculture”, i.e. single crop grown over a large area.
a) Commercial Grain Farming b) Plantation farming c) Multiple Farming d) Mixed farming

32. In Assam, West Bengal and Orissa, three crops of --- are grown in a year known as “Aus, Aman
and Boro”.
a) Paddy b) wheat c) Pulses d) Maize

33. Which one is not a millet crop?

a) Jowar b) Ragi c) Wheat d) Bajra

34. The word ‘Agriculture’ has been derived from two … words
a) German b) American c) Latin d) Arabic

35. Cultivation of the grapes is also known as ….

a) Viticulture b) Horticulture c) Sericulture d) Pisciculture

36. The term white revolution refers to the

a) Increased production of food grains b) Increased production of Milk
c) Increased production of eggs d) Increased production of Fish

37. Who was the father of Operation Flood?

a) Dr. Norman Borlaug b) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
c) Dr. Verghese Kurien d) Dr. William Gande
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38. Which state is the biggest tea producer in the country?

a) Andhra Pradesh b) Sikkim c) Assam d) West Bengal

39. Which is not a Kharif Crop?

a) Jowar b) Maize c) Groundnut d) Wheat

40. When a community development program (CDP) started?

a) 1952 b) 1953 c) 1954 d) 1955

41. Green revolution started in

a) 1964-65 b) 1965-66 c) 1966-67 d) 1967-68

42. White revolution is associated with

a) Milk b) Milk products c) Both d) None

43. The gene revolution is the application of --- in food production.

a) Bio-technology b) Technology c) Both d) None

44. The information revolution began with the invention of the...

a) Integrated circuit b) Computers c) both d) none

45. The information revolution started around

a) 1000 BC b) 2000 BC c) 3000 BC d) 4000 BC

46. The information revolution started around 3000 BC with the --- pictographs.
a) Sumerian b) American c) Indian d) Chinese

47. The WWW means that

a) World Wide Web b) World Work Web c) Both d) None

48. Internet works on

a) Packet switching b) Circuit switching c) Both d) None

49. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol used in internet?
a) Remote procedure call b) Internet relay chat
c) Resource reservation protocol d) None of these

50. Which protocol assigns IP address to the client connected in the internet?
a) DHCP b) IP c) RPC d) None
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51. Which one of the following is not used in media access control?
a) Ethernet b) Digital subscriber line c) Fiber distributed data interface d) none

52. TCP/IP is a:
a) Network hardware b) Network software c) Protocol d) None

53. OSI stands for:

a) Open system Interface b) Out System Interface
c) Open System Interconnection d) Out System Interconnection

54. TCP/IP mainly used for:

a) File Transfer b) Email c) Remote Login Service d)All the above

55. IPX/SPX used for:

a) Linux b) Unix c) Novel Net ware d) Windows

56. NetBIOS is developed by:

a) Microsoft d) IBM c) Sun d) None

57. Which network architecture is developed by IBM?

a) System Network Architecture b) Digital Network Architecture
c) Boroughs Network Architecture d) Distributed Network Architecture

58. Which is the lowest layer of TCP/IP model?

a) Host to Host Layer b) Network Access Layers
c) Internet Layer d) application Layer

59. The most common method for gaining access to the Internet is through a ---
a) Dump terminal b) Virtual provider or computer
c) Point-to-point computer d) Provider or host computer

60. The term ISP refers to

a) Internal software protocol b) International Shareware pool
c) Internet service provider d) Interface standard protocol

61. The extensions .gov, .edu, .mil and .net are called
a) DNAs b) E-mail targets c) Domain codes d) Mail to address

62. URL is an acronym for ---

a) Uniform Resource Locator b) Uniform Resource Link
c) Universal Reference Locator d) Unlimited Real-time Language
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63. When surfing the web, the browser interprets the HTML command found in a document file, and
displays it as a(n)
a) Applet page b) Java page c) Web page d) Domain page

64. HTML is an acronym for –

a) Hyperlink Markup Language b) Hypertext markup Language
c) Hypertext Markup Link d) Hypertext Modern Language

65. Connections to other documents or to other locations within a website are

a) Filters b) hyperlinks c) plug-ins d) bots

66. Hyperlinks in a Web document typically appear as

a) Bolded and underlined b) Italicized and underlined
c) Underlined and colored d) Bolded and italicized

67. Applets are typically written in a programming language called

a) XML b) Basic c) Pascal d) Java

68. Which of the following are not required in order to send and receive e-mail?
a) Email account b) Web page c) Access to the Internet d) E-mail program

69. Which of the following is not one of basic elements of an e-mail message?
a) Header b) Footer c) Message d) Signature

70. An internet standard for transferring files is known as

a) IRC b) Telnet c) FTP d) WAIS

71. A(n) --- can be used to block access to specific sites.

a) Filter b) Hardware block c) Censor d) Rubicon

72. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?

a) Coal b) Forests c) Water d) Wildlife

73. Which among the following is not a renewable source of energy?

a) Solar Energy b) Biomass energy c) Hydro-power d) Geothermal energy

74. Identify the non-renewable energy resource from the following…

a) Coal b) Fuel cells c) Wind power d) Wave power

75. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy sources?
a) Highly polluting b) High waste disposal cost c) Unreliable supply d) High running cost
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76. Photovoltaic energy is the conversion of sunlight into:

a) Chemical energy b) Biogas c) Electricity d) geothermal energy

77. Which among the following is not an adverse environmental impact of tidal power generation?
a) Interference with spawning and migration of fish
b) Pollution and health hazard in the estuary due to blockage of flow of polluted water into the sea
c) Navigational hazard
d) None

78. A fuel cell, in order to produce electricity, burns:

a) Helium b) Nitrogen c) Hydrogen d) None
79. Fuel cells are;
a) Carbon cell b) Hydrogen battery c) Nuclear cell d) Chromium cell
80. A module is a:
a) Series-arrangement of solar cells b) Parallel arrangement of solar cells
c) Series-parallel arrangement of solar cells d) None

81. The efficiency of solar cells is about:

a) 25% b) 15% c) 40 d) 60%

82. Which of the following area is preferred for solar power plants?
a) Coastal areas b) Hot, arid zones c) Mountain tops d) High rainfall zones

83. Which power plant is free from environmental pollution problems?

a) Thermal power plant b) Nuclear power plant
c) Hydro-power plant d) Geothermal energy power plant

84. Climate change is primarily caused by the building up of --- in the atmosphere.
a) Greenhouse gases b) CO2 c) Nitrogen d) None

85. The global increase of methane and nitrous oxide are primarily due to
a) Agriculture b) Industries c) Soil erosion d) None

86. Global warming is a specific example of the broader term

a) Climate change b) environment change c) Health change d) None

87. The observed increase in the average temperature of the air near earth’s surface and oceans in recent decades
a) Environment change b) Global warming c) Health change d) None
88. The first known use of wind power was in
a) 6000 BC b) 4000 BC c) 5000 BC d) 3000BC
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