5 Reading Official Website Online Oet Tests With Answers

OFFICIAL OET PREPARATION MATERIALS
Practice Book Set 1

All professions
READING
ISBN: 978-0-9807653-0-4 © Copyright Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment.
This work is copyright. Apart from any use permitted under the Copyright Act 1968, no part
may be reproduced by any process without prior written permission from Cambridge Boxhill
Language Assessment. For information in regards to OET visit the OET website:
www.occupationalenglishtest.org
First published January 2010
2nd edition November 2014
3rd edition May 2015
Contents
How to use the Reading Practice Booklet 01
An overview of OET (Occupational English Test) 03
History of the test 05
Description of OET 06
How the test is scored 08
Reading Section 1: What is the Reading sub-test? 09
Reading Section 2: Test-takers’ guide to Part A of the Reading sub-test 10
Reading Section 3: Test-takers’ guide to Part B of the Reading sub-test 12
Reading Section 4: How can I further prepare for Part B of the Reading sub-test? 13
Reading Section 5: Full Practice Test: Part A and Part B 15
Reading Section 6: Practice Test: Part A and B - Answer Keys 33

- Junior Sports Injuries 33
- Going blind in Australia 35
- Exercise, fitness and health 37
Reading Section 7: Part A - Study guide 39
Reading Section 8: Sample Test: Part A - Text Booklet 47

Sample Test: Part A - Answer Booklet 51
Sample Test: Part A - Answer Key 55
Reading Section 9: Further Practice 57
Reading Section 10: Resources 59

How to use the Reading Practice Booklet
Option 1
Read Sections 1 to 4 page 09 - 13
Do the Part A and B - Full Practice Test page 15 - 32
Check your answers and revise using the Part A - Study guide page 33 - 45
Do the Part A - Additional Sample Test page 47 - 54
Option 2
Read the Test-takers’ guide to Part A of the Reading sub-test page 10 - 11
Do the Practice Test (Part A) page 15 - 21
Check your answers and revise using the Part A - Study guide page 33 - 34, 39 - 45
Read the Test-takers’ guide to Part B of the Reading sub-test page 12 - 13
Do the Practice Test (Part B) page 23 - 32
Check your answers page 35 - 38
Do the Part A - Additional Sample Test page 47 - 54
www.occupationalenglishtest.org 1
An overview of OET (Occupational English Test)
OET assesses the language proficiency of healthcare professionals When and where is OET available?
who wish to register and practise in an English-speaking
environment. It is designed to meet the specific English language OET is available up to twelve times a year, at more than 40 test
needs of the healthcare sector. venues in 25 countries.
OET tests candidates from the following 12 health professions: What is in the test?
Dentistry, Dietetics, Medicine, Nursing, Occupational Therapy, OET is an in-depth and thorough assessment of all areas of language
Optometry, Pharmacy, Physiotherapy, Podiatry, Radiography, Speech ability – with an emphasis on communication in medical and health
Pathology and Veterinary Science. Nursing, Medicine and Dentistry professional settings.
currently provide the largest numbers of candidates.
The test consists of four sub-tests:
The test is now owned by Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment
Pty Ltd (CBLA), a joint venture between Cambridge English Language • Listening
Assessment and Box Hill Institute in Australia. • Reading
• Writing
Who recognises OET? • Speaking
OET is recognised by over 20 regulatory healthcare bodies and
councils at state and national level in Australia, New Zealand and The Writing and Speaking sub-tests are specific to each profession,
Singapore. while the Listening and Reading sub-tests are common to all
professions.
OET is one of only two English language tests recognised by the
Department of Immigration and Border Protection (DIBP)* for a
number of skilled immigration visas.
* T his information is accurate as of December 2013. The Department of Immigration and Border
Protection (DIBP) used to be the Department of Immigration and Citizenship (DIAC).
Sub-test (duration) Content Shows candidates can:
Listening 2 tasks follow and understand a range of health-related spoken materials such as
(50 minutes) Common to all 12 professions patient consultations and lectures.
Reading 2 tasks read and understand different types of text on health-related subjects.
(60 minutes) Common to all 12 professions
Writing 1 task write a letter in a clear and accurate way which is relevant for the reader.
(45 minutes) Specific to each profession
Speaking 2 tasks effectively communicate in a real-life context through the use of role plays.
(20 minutes) Specific to each profession
Results Registration procedures
OET Statements of Results include a separate grade for each sub- For registration details visit: www.occupationalenglishtest.org
test, ranging from A (highest) to E (lowest). There is no overall
grade for OET. Here you’ll find all the information and instructions you need
to apply for OET online for the first time, including test fees, ID,
payment and photo guidelines.
High-quality, secure language assessment Our ID procedures have DIBP approval, ensuring confidence in
CBLA is committed to the highest standards of quality, security and candidate identity.
integrity for OET – from test development, test delivery and results
processing, through to post-examination review and evaluation.
Special provision
Fair and consistent delivery of OET is ensured by secure technology
and the continual training and monitoring of assessors, as well as Candidates with special needs may apply in advance for
test centre management and facilities. special provision. CBLA makes all reasonable arrangements
to accommodate special visual or auditory needs, including
The Writing and Speaking sub-tests are developed in consultation enlargement of print texts and special auditory equipment.
with practising healthcare professionals and educators to ensure
test materials simulate real-life clinical situations, such as
explaining a diagnosis and writing referral letters. Preparation materials
The Listening and Reading sub-tests are developed by the Language Resources can be accessed from the OET website, including:
Testing Research Centre (LTRC) at the University of Melbourne.
• sample papers
• suggested reading material
Assessment • a list of preparation training providers*
All sub-tests are assessed at the OET Centre by trained expert

assessors. Assessment procedures routinely include double * T his list is for information only – we do not endorse any particular training
marking and statistical analysis to ensure that candidate results program.
are accurate and fair.
Each of the four sub-tests is assessed in a specific way. Read more

about OET assessment procedures at:
4 www.occupationalenglishtest.org
History of the test
Occupational English Test was designed by Professor Tim reviewed and analysed in the literature since the 1980s. McNamara
McNamara of the University of Melbourne under contract to the (1996)1 gives a full account of the development of the test and
Australian Federal Government. associated validation research.
As part of the annual intake of refugees and immigrants, hundreds The initial development of the test specifications involved:
of overseas-trained health practitioners were entering Australia by
a. extensive consultation with expert informants, including
the mid to late 1980s. The majority were medical practitioners, but a
clinical educators, ESL teachers offering language support in
number of other health professional groups were also represented.
clinical settings, and overseas-trained professionals who were
The process of registration to practise in most health professions completing or had completed a clinical bridging program.
in Australia included three stages of assessment: English language
b. literature search.
proficiency, a multiple choice test of profession-specific clinical
knowledge and a performance-based test of clinical competence. c. direct observation of the workplace.
Dissatisfaction with the results of existing language tests led to
the development of thoroughly researched specifications for a
communicative, contextualised test. OET has been frequently
Stages of Test Development (presentation by Prof Tim McNamara, August 2007)2
1. McNamara, T. [1996] Measuring Second Language Performance. London: Longman.

2. McNamara, T. [2007] Stages of Test Development. OET Forum.
Description of OET
Test format
OET assesses listening, reading, writing and speaking.
There is a separate sub-test for each skill area. The Listening and Reading sub-tests are designed to assess the ability to understand spoken
and written English in contexts related to general health and medicine. The sub-tests for Listening and Reading are common to all professions.
The Writing and Speaking sub-tests are specific to each profession and are designed to assess the ability to use English appropriately in a
relevant professional context.
Listening sub-test
The Listening sub-test consists of two parts: a recorded, simulated professional-patient
consultation with note-taking questions (Part A), and a recorded talk or lecture on a
health-related topic with short-answer/note-taking questions (Part B), each about
15 minutes of recorded speech. A set of questions is attached to each section and
candidates write their answers while listening. The original recording is edited with
pauses to allow candidates time to write their answers.
The format for Part A (the consultation) requires candidates to produce case notes
under relevant headings and to write as much relevant information as possible. Part B
(the lecture) requires candidates to complete a range of open-ended and fixed-choice
listening tasks.
Reading sub-test
The Reading sub-test consists of two parts:
Part A is a summary reading task. This requires candidates to skim and scan 3-4 short
texts (a total of about 650 words) related to a single topic and to complete a summary
paragraph by filling in the missing words. Candidates are required to write responses
for 25-35 gaps in total, within a strictly monitored time limit of 15 minutes.
Part A is designed to test the reader’s ability to source information from multiple texts,
to synthesise information in a meaningful way and to assess skimming and scanning
ability within a time limit.
In Part B candidates are required to read two passages (600-800 words each) on
general medical topics and answer 8-10 multiple-choice questions for each text (a total
of 16-20 questions) – within a time limit of 45 minutes.
Part B is designed to test the reader’s ability to read in greater detail both general and
specific information for comprehension.
Writing sub-test
The Writing sub-test usually consists of a scenario presented to the candidate,
which requires the production of a letter of referral to another professional. The letter
must record treatment offered to date and the issues to be addressed by the other
professional. The letter must take account of the stimulus material presented.
The body of the letter must consist of approximately 180-200 words and be set out
in an appropriate format. For certain professions, other professional writing tasks of
equivalent difficulty may also be set, e.g., responding in writing to a complaint, or
providing written information to a specified audience in the form of a letter.
Speaking sub-test
The production of contextualised professional language is achieved by requiring
the candidate to engage with an interlocutor who plays the role of a patient or a
patient’s carer. The candidate must respond as a professional consultant to two
different scenarios played out with the interlocutor. These exchanges are recorded for
subsequent assessment. The recording also includes a short ‘warm-up’ that is part of
the Speaking sub-test, though this material is not assessed.
How the test is scored
You will receive a Statement of Results which shows your grade for
each of the four sub-tests, from A (highest) to E (lowest). Each of the
four sub-tests is assessed in a specific way.
Writing and Speaking Listening and Reading

Your performances on the Writing and Speaking sub-tests are each Your answer booklets for the Listening sub-test and for Reading
rated by at least two trained Assessors at the OET Centre. Audio Part A are marked by trained Assessors at the OET Centre. Answer
files and scripts are assigned to Assessors at random to avoid any booklets are assigned at random to avoid any conflict of interest.
conflict of interest. Your test-day Interlocutor is not involved in the Your answer sheet for Reading Part B is computer scanned and
assessment process. automatically scored.
Writing and Speaking Assessors are monitored for accuracy and Listening and Reading Assessors use a detailed marking guide
consistency, and the scores they award are adjusted to take into which sets out which answers receive marks and how the marks
account any leniency or severity. If two Assessors award different are counted. Assessors use this guide to decide for each question
scores to your performance, your script and/or audio file will be whether you have provided enough correct information to be given
referred to at least one other senior Assessor not previously involved the mark or marks available. Assessors are monitored for accuracy
in your assessment. and consistency, and the data entry of scores is also double-checked
for accuracy.
For the Writing sub-test, each Assessor scores your performance
according to five criteria: Overall Task Fulfilment, Appropriateness of There is no set score-to-grade conversion for the Listening and
Language, Comprehension of Stimulus, Linguistic Features (Grammar Reading sub-tests because there are inevitably minor differences
and Cohesion), and Presentation Features (Spelling, Punctuation, in the difficulty level across tests. The grade boundaries for each
and Layout). The five criteria are equally weighted. Grade B for Writing version of the test are set so that all candidates’ results relate to
requires a high level of performance on all five criteria. the same scale of achievement. Grade B for Listening and grade B
for Reading both require the use of a range of skills, including the
For the Speaking sub-test, each Assessor scores your performance ability to understand main ideas, factual information, opinions and
according to five criteria: Overall Communicative Effectiveness, attitudes, and to follow the development of ideas.
Intelligibility, Fluency, Appropriateness, and Resources of Grammar
and Expression. The five criteria are equally weighted. Grade B for
Speaking requires a high level of performance on all five criteria.
READING SECTION 1
What is the Reading sub-test?

The Reading sub-test consists of two parts:
Reading Part A
• Part A is a Summary reading task.
• This requires test-takers to skim and scan 3-4 short texts (a total of about 650 words) related to a single topic and to complete a
summary paragraph by filling in the missing words.
• Test-takers are required to read the texts and write responses for 25-35 gaps in total, within a strictly monitored time limit of 15
minutes.
• Part A is designed to test the reader’s ability to source information from multiple texts, to synthesise information in a meaningful way
and to assess skimming and scanning ability under a time limit.
Reading Part B
• In Part B test-takers are required to read two passages (600-800 words each) on general medical topics and answer 8-10 multiple
choice questions for each text (a total of 16-20 questions) – within a time limit of 45 minutes.
• Part B is designed to test the reader’s ability to read longer texts in detail for comprehension.
What will you do on test day?

• On the day of the test you will complete the Reading test in two parts. First you will be given Part A Text Booklet and Part A Answer
Booklet. You will have exactly 15 minutes to read the texts and write your answers to the summary. At the end of 15 minutes, both
booklets will be collected from you.
• The supervisor will then give you Part B Text Booklet and Part B Answer sheet. He/she will explain to you how to fill in the Answer sheet.
You then have 45 minutes to read the 2 texts and answer the questions by filling in your Answer sheet.
READING SECTION 2
Test takers’ guide to Part A of the

Reading sub-test
Part A
Before you attempt Part A of the Practice test, consider some important tips below.
Do
• Write at least 1 word, or up to 3 words for each answer.
• Make sure you write your response in the same numbered box as the ‘gap’ in the summary passage. Sometimes the numbered boxes in
the Answers column may not line up across the page with the same numbered gaps as they appear in the Summary column.
• If you miss an answer, make sure you move on to the correctly corresponding numbered item before writing anything further. For
example, don’t write your answer for the gap for item 15 in the box for item 14 in the Answers column.
• Use correct spelling. Responses that are not spelt correctly will not receive any marks. American and British English spelling variations
are accepted, e.g., color or colour.
• Use words with similar meaning to words in the texts if you can’t find a word(s) directly from the texts. These words are known
as synonyms.
• If you are required to write down numbers or figures you can write either the full form (e.g., three, one hundred or one million) or the
number form (e.g., 3, 100, or 1,000,000).
• Use the headings of the four texts in the text booklet to help you understand which text to use to complete different parts of the
summary passage.
• Use words surrounding the gap for the missing word(s) in the summary passage to help you predict what kind of information is
missing and to anticipate the type of missing word(s) you need to write.
• Read the instructions carefully. Have the Text booklet open in front of you so that all texts are visible at the same time. Have the Answer
Booklet slightly to the side so that you can write your responses as you read the texts.
• You may write your answers in either pen or pencil for Part A.
Don’t
• Write more than 3 words for each answer OR no words at all! You will not be penalised for leaving a blank space but you might be
rewarded for a correct guess!
• Waste valuable time using an eraser to correct a mistake if you make one. You may, for example, accidentally include an extra word that
goes over the allowable three words or write the wrong word in the wrong space. Simply cross out any words you don’t want the person
marking your paper to accept; this takes a lot less time and you will not be penalised.
• Write in the summary column, i.e., do not write directly onto the small gaps in the actual text of the summary passage within the
Summary column. You will waste valuable time if you then try to transfer your responses across to the Answers column. The person
marking your paper is trained to only accept responses written down in the Answers column of Part A - Answer Booklet.
• Begin Part A by simply reading all texts from beginning to end as this will waste valuable time. Use the summary passage to guide
you to which text to read first.
• Just directly copy the words as they appear in the original texts in the Text Booklet. Instead think about the grammatical correctness of
the words you choose as they relate to the language used in the summary passage.
• Change the meaning of the summary. Be careful not to choose a word(s) that might be grammatically correct for the summary passage
but which might mean something different than the ideas in the original text.
• Use abbreviations. Use the correctly spelt full form of the words you select.
General
• Have a spare pen and pencil ready just in case.
• Fill in the booklet cover page correctly.
• Fill in your personal information on the answer sheet correctly.
• Note how the text is organised (e.g., with sub-headings, tables/diagrams).
• Write on the texts if it helps you (e.g., underlining key words and phrases) but don’t make it more difficult for you to read by
adding too many marks.
Checking at the end

• Don’t make any last-minute changes unless you are sure.
• Don’t leave any blanks.
• Check you have put an answer against all the question numbers in the Answer column.
READING SECTION 3
Test takers’ guide to Part B of the

Reading sub-test
Part B
In Part B, test-takers are required to read two passages (600-800 words each) on general medical topics and answer 8-10 multiple choice
questions for each text (a total of 16-20 questions) within a time limit of 45 minutes.
The two texts are on health-related topics and are similar to texts found in academic or professional journals. After each of the texts you
will find 8-10 questions or unfinished statements about the text, each with four suggested answers or ways of finishing (multiple-choice
questions). You must choose the one response which you think fits best.
The texts appear in the Text Booklet and there is a separate answer sheet to complete. You must indicate your chosen response (A, B, C or D)
to each question by shading the appropriate oval on the answer sheet. You must do this with a soft (2B) pencil.
Before you attempt Part B of the Practice test, consider some important tips below.
Do
• Answer every question. If you get to the end of Part B and are still not sure about a particular question, make an educated estimation.
Record your answers accurately on the Answer sheet before the 45 minutes is over.
• Take the sample test under test conditions beforehand so you know what it feels like. Set your timer for 45 minutes and aim to spend
approximately 22-23 minutes on each text in Part B.
• Bring and use a soft (2B) pencil. Remember you cannot use a pen to fill in the Answer sheet for Part B. It is a good idea to bring one or
two extra 2B pencils as spares or a small pencil sharpener.
Don’t
• Get stuck on one question – keep going and come back to it at the end when you have answered all other questions. Marks are not
deducted for incorrect answers.
• Cross out mistakes when you are filling out the Answer sheet for Part B. Unlike for Part A, in Part B you need to erase wrong answers
completely then fill in the correct answer fully. There are clear instructions on the Answer sheet about how to fill in your answers.
• Fill in more than one box on the Answer sheet as the scanner will not be able to recognise your answer and you will not receive any
marks for that question.
READING SECTION 4
How can I further prepare for Part B of the

Reading sub-test?
• You should answer all questions. You don’t lose marks for incorrect answers.
• You must complete the answer sheet within the 45 minutes allowed for the test. If your responses are not on the answer sheet, you
will receive a score of zero.
• Start by getting an overview of the two texts and the number of questions for each.
• There are usually two types of multiple-choice questions to answer. There are statement completion questions where the question
stem is unfinished and you need to choose the correct completion of the stem from information in the text.
• There are also closed question types where the stem is a fully complete question and you need to choose from four alternative
answer options.
• Usually the paragraph that is relevant to the question is mentioned in the question stem. Occasionally you may be asked to
look at a particular line number in the text. The line numbers will be written on the outside left of the text in these cases.
• Take each question in turn and make sure you look in the right place for the answer (e.g., ‘according to paragraph 2’ means the
question refers to information given in paragraph 2).
• Read each question carefully, looking out for key words, e.g., which statement is TRUE, which statement is FALSE, which of the
following is NOT appropriate.
• Consider the options in turn and try to explain to yourself exactly what makes each one right or wrong.
• Write on the text and questions if it helps you (e.g., underlining key words and phrases) but don’t make it more difficult for
you to read by adding too many marks.
General
• Have a spare pencil ready just in case.
• Fill in the Answer sheet correctly.
• Fill in your personal information on the Answer sheet correctly.
• Note how the text is organised (e.g., with paragraph headings and (sometimes) individual line numbers).
• Write on the texts if it helps you (e.g., underlining key words and phrases).
Checking at the end

• Don’t make any last-minute changes unless you are sure.
• Make sure you have one answer marked on the Answer sheet for each of the questions.
• Check you have put your answer against the correct question number.
• Don’t leave any blank boxes on the Answer sheet.
• Check you have put an answer against all the question numbers on the Answer sheet.
READING SECTION 5
Reading sub-test
Part A – Text booklet
You must record your answers for Part A in the

Part A – Answer booklet using pen or pencil.
Please print in BLOCK LETTERS
Candidate number – –
Family name
Other name(s)
City
Date of test
Candidate’s signature
YOU MUST NOT REMOVE OET MATERIAL FROM THE TEST ROOM
The OET Centre

GPO Box 372 Telephone: +613 8656 4000
Melbourne VIC 3001 Facsimile: +613 8656 4020
Australia www.occupationalenglishtest.org
© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment ABN 51 988 559 414
Reading: Part A – Text Booklet
Instructions
TIME LIMIT: 15 MINUTES
• Complete the summary on pages 1 and 2 of Part A - Answer booklet using the information in the four texts
(A1-A4) below.
• You do not need to read each text from beginning to end to complete the task. You should scan the texts to
find the information you need.
• Gaps may require 1, 2 or 3 words. Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.
• You should write your answers next to the appropriate number in the right-hand column.
• Please use correct spelling in your responses. Do not use abbreviations unless they appear in the texts.
Text A1 Junior Sports Injuries: Texts

Title: Patterns of injury in US high school sports: A review.
Authors: Field and O’Brien (2007)
OBJECTIVE: To characterize the risk of injury associated with 10 popular high school sports by
comparing the relative frequency of injury and selected injury rates among sports, as well as the
participation conditions of each sport. DESIGN AND SETTING: A cohort observational study of high
school athletes using a surveillance protocol whereby certified athletic trainers recorded data during
the 2005-2007 academic years. SUBJECTS: Players listed on the school’s team rosters for football,
wrestling, baseball, field hockey, softball, girls’ volleyball, boys’ or girls’ basketball, and boys’ or girls’
soccer. MEASUREMENTS: Injuries and opportunities for injury (exposures) were recorded daily. The
definition of reportable injury used in the study required that certified athletic trainers evaluate the injured
players and subsequently restrict them from participation. RESULTS: Football had the highest injury rate
per 1000 athlete-exposures at 8.1, and girls’ volleyball had the lowest rate at 1.7. Only boys’ (59.3%)
and girls’ (57.0%) soccer showed a larger proportion of reported injuries for games than practices, while
volleyball was the only sport to demonstrate a higher injury rate per 1000 athlete-exposures for practices
than for games. More than 73% of the injuries restricted players for fewer than 8 days. The proportion of
knee injuries was highest for girls’ soccer (19.4%) and lowest for baseball (10.5%). Among the studied
sports, sprains and strains accounted for more than 50% of the injuries. Of the injuries requiring surgery,
60.3% were to the knee. CONCLUSIONS: An inherent risk of injury is associated with participation in
high school sports based on the nature of the game and the activities of the players. Therefore, injury
prevention programs should be in place for both practices and games. Preventing reinjury through daily
injury management is a critical component of an injury prevention program. Although sports injuries cannot
be entirely eliminated, consistent and professional evaluation of yearly injury patterns can provide focus for
the development and evaluation of injury prevention strategies.
Text A2
Literature review extract: Prevention of sports injuries.
… Langran and Selvaraj conducted a study in Scotland to identify risk factors for snow sports injuries.
They found that persons under 16 years of age most frequently sustained injury, which may be attributed
to inexperience.
They conclude that protective wrist guards and safety release binding systems for skiboards help
prevent injury to young or inexperienced skiers and snowboarders.
Ranalli and Rye provide an awareness of the oral health care needs of the female athlete. They report
that a properly fitted, custom-fabricated or mouth-formed mouthguard is essential in preventing intraoral
soft tissue lacerations, tooth and jaw fractures and dislocations, and indirect concussions in sports.
Although custom-fabricated mouthguards are expensive, they have been shown to be the most effective
and most comfortable for athletes to wear.
Pettersen conducted a study to determine the attitudes of Canadian rugby players and coaches
regarding the use of protective headgear. Although he found that few actually wear headgear, the
equipment is known to prevent lacerations and abrasions to the scalp and may minimize the risk of
concussion.
Text A3
Best practice guidelines for junior sports injury management and return to play
When coaches, officials, sports first aiders, other safety personnel, parents and participants follow the safety
guidelines, the risk of serious injury is minimal.
If an injury does occur, the golden rule in managing it is “do no further damage”. It is important that the injured
participant is assessed and managed by an appropriately qualified person such as a sports first aider or sports
trainer.
Immediate management approaches include DRABCD (checking Danger, Response, Airway, Breathing,
Compression and Defibrillation) and RICER NO HARM (when an injury is sustained apply Rest, Ice, Compression,
Elevation, Referral and NO Heat, Alcohol, Running or Massage).
Young participants returning to activity too early after an injury are more susceptible to further injury. Before
returning to participation the participant should be able to answer yes to the following questions:
• Is the injured area pain free?
• Can you move the injured part easily through a full range of movement?
• Has the injured area fully regained its strength?
Whilst serious head injuries are uncommon in children and young peoples’ sport, participants who have lost
consciousness or who are suspected of being concussed must be removed from the activity.
Prior to returning to sport or physical activity, any child who has sustained an injury should have medical clearance.
Text A4
Research briefs on sports injuries in Canada
- Approximately 3 million children and adolescents aged 14 and under get hurt annually
playing sports or participating in recreational activities.
- Although death from a sports injury is rare, the leading cause of death from a sports-related
injury is a brain injury.
- Sports and recreational activities contribute to approximately 18 percent of all traumatic

brain injuries among Canadian children and adolescents.
- The majority of head injuries sustained in sports or recreational activities occur during
cycling, skateboarding, or skating incidents.
END OF PART A
THIS TEXT BOOKLET WILL BE COLLECTED
READING SECTION 5
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
ASSESSOR NO.
ASSESSOR NO.
Reading sub-test
Part A – Answer booklet

Family name
Other name(s)
City
Date of test
The OET Centre

Reading: Part A – Answer Booklet
Instructions
• Complete the following summary using the information in the four texts, A1-A4, provided on pages 1 and 2 of
the Text booklet.
• Gaps may require 1, 2 or 3 words. You will not receive any marks if you write more than 3 words.
Marker’s
Summary Answers use only
Junior Sports Injuries

1.
Guidelines for junior sports injury

2.
management suggest that there is only
a small risk of being .... (1).... . However
statistics show that injury of some kind 3.
is reasonably common. In Canada, for
example, around .... (2).... children under 15 4.
are injured every .... (3).... . While it is very
unusual for these injuries to .... (4).... they
5.
do make up just under one fifth of .... (5)....
among children and adolescents in Canada.
6.
A US study which investigated the .... (6).... of

injuries across a range of sports found that 7.
the safest sport was .... (7).... , whereas .... (8)....
was the most likely to cause injury. Of the 8.
injuries observed, more than half were
.... (9).... , and knee injuries accounted for
9.
60.3% of those that .... (10).... . The scope of
the US study was limited, however, with
10.
.... (11).... being the only non-ball game
studied.
[Continued on next page]
11.
Marker’s
Canadian data, on the other hand, revealed 12.

that cycling, skateboarding and
.... (12).... were the cause of most .... (13).... 13.
associated with sporting activities.
14.
For those adults and children involved in
junior sports, it is best practice to ensure 15.
that .... (14).... is done if an injury does occur.
In the first instance, the injury should be 16.
evaluated by a .... (15).... . Two management
plans which should be followed are RICER 17.
NO HARM and .... (16).... ; a key feature of the
former is that the child should be prevented 18.
from doing any further .... (17).... . It is advised
that any child who has been injured should 19.
have .... (18).... before returning to play.
20.
Head injuries are considered very serious,
and children who have lost consciousness 21.
should be . Ideally, children involved
.... (19)....
in sports such as rugby should wear 22.
.... (20).... , because according to recent
research such preventative measures can 23.
.... (21).... of concussion and also stop
. Other preemptive measures that
.... (22).... 24.
might be considered are .... (23).... to prevent
intraoral .... (24).... and fractures of the 25.
.... (25).... , as well as .... (26).... and .... (27)....
systems to help prevent snow sports 26.
injuries.
27.
END OF PART A
THIS ANSWER BOOKLET WILL BE COLLECTED
READING SECTION 5
Reading sub-test
Part B – Text booklet
You must record your answers for Part B on the

multiple-choice Answer Sheet using 2B pencil.
Family name
Other name(s)
City
Date of test
The OET Centre

Instructions
There are TWO reading texts in Part B. After each of the texts you will find a number of questions or unfinished
statements about the text, each with four suggested answers or ways of finishing.
You must choose the ONE which you think fits best. For each question, 1-18, indicate on your answer sheet
the letter A, B, C or D against the number of the question. Only your answers on the Answer Sheet will be marked.
Answers recorded in this Text booklet will not be marked.
Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.
NOTE: You must complete your Answer Sheet for Part B within the 45 minutes allowed for this part of the sub-test.
NOW TURN TO THE NEXT PAGE FOR TEXTS AND QUESTIONS
Text B1
Going blind in Australia
Paragraph 1
Australians are living longer and so face increasing levels of visual impairment. When we look at the problem
of visual impairment and the elderly, there are three main issues. First, most impaired people retire with
relatively “normal” eyesight, with no more than presbyopia, which is common in most people over 45 years
of age. Second, those with visual impairment do have eye disease and are not merely suffering from “old
age”. Third, almost all the major ocular disorders affecting the older population, such as cataract, glaucoma
and age-related macular degeneration (AMD), are progressive and if untreated will cause visual impairment
and eventual blindness.
Paragraph 2
Cataract accounts for nearly half of all blindness and remains the most prevalent cause of blindness
worldwide. In Australia, we do not know how prevalent cataract is, but it was estimated in 1979 to affect the
vision of 43 persons per thousand over the age of 64 years. Although some risk factors for cataract have
been identified, such as ultraviolet radiation, cigarette smoking and alcohol consumption, there is no proven
means of preventing the development of most age-related or senile cataract. However cataract blindness
can be delayed or cured if diagnosis is early and therapy, including surgery, is accessible.
Paragraph 3
AMD is the leading cause of new cases of blindness in those over 65. In the United States, it affects
8–11% of those aged 65–74, and 20% of those over 75 years. In Australia, the prevalence of AMD is
presently unknown but could be similar to that in the USA. Unlike cataract, the treatment possibilities for
AMD are limited. Glaucoma is the third major cause of vision loss in the elderly. This insidious disease is often
undetected until optic nerve damage is far advanced. While risk factors for glaucoma, such as ethnicity and
family history, are known, these associations are poorly understood. With early detection, glaucoma can be
controlled medically or surgically.
Paragraph 4
While older people use a large percentage of eye services, many more may not have access to, or may
underutilise, these services. In the United States, 33% of the elderly in Baltimore had ocular pathology
requiring further investigation or intervention. In the UK, only half the visually impaired in London were known
by their doctors to have visual problems, and 40% of those visually impaired in the city of Canterbury had
never visited an ophthalmologist. The reasons for people underutilising eye care services are, first, that many
elderly people believe that poor vision is inevitable or untreatable. Second, many of the visually impaired
have other chronic disease and may neglect their eyesight. Third, hospital resources and rehabilitation
centres in the community are limited and, finally, social factors play a role.
Paragraph 5
People in lower socioeconomic groups are more likely to delay seeking treatment; they also use fewer
preventive, early intervention and screening services, and fewer rehabilitation and after-care services. The
poor use more health services, but their use is episodic, and often involves hospital casualty departments
or general medical services, where eyes are not routinely examined. In addition, the costs of services are
a great deterrent for those with lower incomes, who are less likely to have private health insurance. For
example, surgery is the most effective means of treatment for cataract, and timely medical care is required
for glaucoma and AMD. However, in December 1991, the proportion of the Australian population covered
by private health insurance was 42%. Less than 38% had supplementary insurance cover. With 46% of
category 1 (urgent) patients waiting for more than 30 days for elective eye surgery in the public system, and
54% of category 2 (semi-urgent) patients waiting for more than three months, cost appears to be a barrier
to appropriate and adequate care.
Paragraph 6
With the proportion of Australians aged 65 years and older expected to double from the present 11% to
21% by 2031, the cost to individuals and to society of poor sight will increase significantly if people do not
have access to, or do not use, eye services. To help contain these costs, general practitioners can actively
investigate the vision of all their older patients, refer them earlier, and teach them self-care practices. In
addition, the government, which is responsible to the taxpayer, must provide everyone with equal access
to eye health care services. This may not be achieved merely by increasing expenditure – funds need to be
directed towards prevention and health promotion, as well as treatment. Such strategies will make good
economic sense if they stop older people going blind.
Part B - Text B1: Questions 1–10

1 In paragraph 1, the author suggests that ……
A many people have poor eyesight at retirement age.
B sight problems of the aged are often treatable.
C cataract and glaucoma are the inevitable results of growing older.
D few sight problems of the elderly are potentially damaging.
2 According to paragraph 2, cataracts ……

A may affect about half the population of Australians aged over 64.
B may occur in about 4–5% of Australians aged over 64.
C are directly related to smoking and alcohol consumption in old age.
D are the cause of more than 50% of visual impairments.
3 According to paragraph 3, age-related macular degeneration (AMD) ……

A responds well to early treatment.
B affects 1 in 5 of people aged 65–74.
C is a new disease which originated in the USA.
D causes a significant amount of sight loss in the elderly.
QUESTIONS
4 According to paragraph 3, the detection of glaucoma ……

A generally occurs too late for treatment to be effective.
B is strongly associated with ethnic and genetic factors.
C must occur early to enable effective treatment.
D generally occurs before optic nerve damage is very advanced.
5 Statistics in paragraph 4 indicate that ……

A existing eye care services are not fully utilised by the elderly.
B GPs are generally aware of their patients’ sight difficulties.
C most of the elderly in the USA receive adequate eye treatment.
D only 40% of the visually impaired visit an ophthalmologist.
6 According to paragraph 4, which one of the following statements is NOT true?

A Many elderly people believe that eyesight problems cannot be treated effectively.
B Elderly people with chronic diseases are more likely to have poor eyesight.
C The facilities for eye treatments are not always readily available.
D Many elderly people think that deterioration of eyesight is a product of ageing.
7 In discussing social factors affecting the use of health services in paragraph 5, the author points
out that ……
A wealthier people use health services more often than poorer people.
B poorer people use health services more regularly than wealthier people.
C poorer people deliberately avoid having their eye sight examined.
D poorer people have less access to the range of available eye care services.
8 According to paragraph 6, in Australia in the year 2031 ……

A about one tenth of the country’s population will be elderly.
B about one third of the country’s population will be elderly.
C the proportion of people over 65 will be twice the present proportion.
D the number of visually impaired will be twice the present number.
9 According to paragraph 6, the author believes that general practitioners ……

A should be more active in investigating patients’ possible sight difficulties.
B should not be required to deal with sight deterioration.
C should not refer patients to specialists until the problems are advanced.
D should seek assistance from eye specialists in detection of problems.
QUESTIONS
10 In paragraph 6, the author suggests that ……

A increased government funding will solve the country’s eye care problems.
B government services should include prevention and health promotion.
C general practitioners should reduce the cost of treating sight problems in the elderly.
D general practitioners should take full responsibility for treating sight problems.
END OF PART B - TEXT 1

TURN OVER FOR PART B - TEXT 2
Text B2
Exercise, fitness and health
Paragraph 1
Physical inactivity is a substantial risk factor for cardiovascular disease. Exercise probably works by increasing
physical fitness and by modifying other risk factors. Among other benefits, it lessens the risk of stroke and
osteoporosis and is associated with a lower all-cause mortality. Moreover, it has psychological effects that
are surely underexploited. A pervasive benefit is the gain in everyday reserve capacity – that is, the ability
to do more without fatigue. Nevertheless, there is much debate about how intense the exercise should be.
Some studies show a dose-response relation between activity and reduction of risk, with a threshold of
effect; some suggest that vigorous aerobic activity is needed and others that frequent moderate exercise
is adequate – and indeed safer if ischaemic heart disease might be present. A few surveys have found a
slightly increased risk of heart attack with extreme activity, though further analysis in one study suggested
this applied only to men with hypertension.
Paragraph 2
A commonly recommended minimum regimen for cardiovascular benefit is thrice weekly exercise for 20
minutes, brisk enough to produce sweating or hard breathing (or a heart rate 60–80% of maximum). Indeed,
this is what the Allied Dunbar national survey of fitness among adults in the UK recommends. It conveys a
simple popular message of broad minimum targets for different age groups expressed in terms of activities
of different intensity. The aim is to produce a training effect through exercise beyond what is customary for
an individual.
Paragraph 3
The main reason why people fail to take exercise is lack of time. Thus an important message is that exercise
can be part of the daily routine – walking or cycling to work or the shops, for instance. Relatively few people
in the national fitness survey had walked continuously for even 1–25 km in the previous month (11–30%
depending on age and sex), and other surveys have also found little walking. Cycling is also beneficial,
however many are put off cycling to work by the danger. Certainly more cycle routes are needed, but even
now life years lost through accidents are outweighed by the estimated life years gained through better health.
Employers could encourage people to make exercise part of the working day by providing showers and
changing rooms, flexible working hours, individual counselling by occupational health or personnel staff, and
sometimes exercise facilities – or at least encouragement for exercise groups.
Paragraph 4
In the promotion of exercise, children, women, middle aged men, and older people need special thought.
Lifelong exercise is most likely to be started in childhood, but children may have little vigorous exercise.
Women tend to be much less active than men and are less fit at all ages. The proportion judged on a treadmill
test to be unable to keep walking at 5km/h up a slight slope rose with age from 34% to 92% – and over half
of those aged over 54 would not be able to do so even on the level. Women have particular constraints:
young children may prevent even brisk walking. Thus they need sensitive help from health professionals and
women’s and children’s groups as well as the media.
Paragraph 5
A high proportion of men aged 45–54, who have a high risk of coronary heart disease, were not considered
active enough for their health. Promotion of exercise and individual counselling at work could help. Forty
percent of 65–74 year olds had done no “moderate” activity for even 20 minutes in a month. Yet older people
especially need exercise to help them make the most of their reduced physical capacity and counteract the
natural deterioration of age. They respond to endurance training much the same as do younger people.
Doctors particularly should take this challenge more seriously.
Paragraph 6
People need to be better informed, and much can be done through the media. For instance, many in the
survey were mistaken in thinking that they were active and fit. Moreover, many gave “not enough energy”
and “too old” as reasons for not exercising. Precautions also need publicity – for example, warming up
and cooling down gradually, avoiding vigorous exercise during infections, and (for older people) having a
medical check before starting vigorous activity. Doctors are in a key position. Some general practitioners
have diplomas in sports medicine, and a few are setting up exercise programmes. As the Royal College of
Physicians says, however, all doctors should ask about exercise when they see patients, especially during
routine health checks, and advise on suitable exercise and local facilities. Their frequent contact with women
and children provides a valuable opportunity. Excluding ischaemic heart disease and also checking blood
pressure before vigorous activity is started are important precautions. But above all doctors could help to
create a cultural change whereby the habit of exercise becomes integral to daily life.
Part B - Text B2: Questions 11–18

11 All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 1 as benefits of exercise EXCEPT ……
A increase in the capacity to withstand strenuous activity.
B significant decrease in the risk of osteoporosis.
C reduction of the risk of heart disease.
D weight control and decrease in levels of body fat.
12 According to paragraph 2, the recommendations of the report on the national fitness survey included
……
A long, vigorous aerobic sessions for all men, women and children.
B no more than three, 20 minute exercise sessions per week.
C avoiding any exercise that brought on hard breathing.
D different levels of exercise intensity for different age groups.
13 According to paragraph 3, one reason many people do not exercise is ……

A they are unaware of its importance.
B difficulty in fitting it into their daily routine.
C they are unaware of its long-term health benefits.
D they live too far from work to walk or cycle.
14 Which one of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a way in which employers can help
improve the physical fitness and health of their staff?
A Making it mandatory for employees to exercise during lunch breaks.
B Providing encouragement and advice from staff within the organisation.
C Hiring trained sports educators to counsel members of staff about exercise.
D Setting an example, as individuals, by regularly exercising themselves.
QUESTIONS
15 According to paragraphs 4 and 5, older men and women need to remain physically active and fit
because ……
A they need to counteract the risk of coronary disease.
B fitness levels decrease rapidly over the age of 54.
C they need to guard against poor health and inactivity.
D exercise works against the physical effects of ageing.
16 Which one of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 6 as a precaution to be taken when
considering exercise?
A The need to balance aerobic activity with stretching.
B The need to warm up before and cool down after exercise.
C The need to eliminate the risk of ischaemic heart disease before starting.
D The need to exclude strenuous exercise from the routine during infection.
17 Which one of the following needs in relation to the improvement of national fitness is NOT mentioned
in the article?
A The need for people to make exercise a regular daily habit.
B The need to provide information on health and fitness to the community.
C The need for doctors themselves to improve their own fitness levels.
D The need to consult a doctor before starting an exercise program.
18 According to the article, which one of the following is FALSE?

A It is unsafe for people with high blood pressure to do regular moderate exercise.
B Experts agree on the importance of both type and intensity of exercise.
C Men are generally fitter and more active than women.
D Cycling, though unsafe, is a beneficial form of exercise.
END OF PART B - TEXT 2

END OF READING TEST
READING SECTION 6
Reading sub-test
Part A – Answer key
Junior Sports Injuries
The following conventions have been followed in preparing the key:
/ indicates an acceptable alternative within an answer
OR indicates an acceptable (complete) alternative answer
( ) words, figures, or ideas in brackets are not essential to the answer – they are also not a sufficient
substitute on their own for the main idea
NOT indicates an unacceptable answer or part of an answer
No other answers except those included in the key will be considered acceptable. Responses that have been
incorrectly spelt will not be awarded any marks, neither will answers that contain more than three words.
The OET Centre

Reading Sub-test
Part A: Junior Sports Injuries
Answer Key
Total of 27 questions
1 seriously/badly injured
2 three/3 million OR 3,000,000
3 year
4 result in/cause death/fatality OR kill OR be fatal/deadly/lethal OR lead to death
5 traumatic brain injuries
6 relative frequency OR pattern(s) OR risk(s) OR rate(s)
7 girls’ volleyball
8 football
9 sprains and strains
10 required/needed surgery/needed an operation
11 wrestling
12 skating accidents/incidents
13 head injuries
14 no further damage
15 sports first aider OR sports trainer OR (suitably) qualified person
16 DRABCD
17 running
18 (a) medical clearance
19 removed/withdrawn (from play/activity)
20 (protective) headgear
21 minimise/reduce the risk OR reduce rates
22 lacerations and abrasions
23 custom-fabricated mouthguard OR mouth-formed mouthguard
24 soft tissue laceration(s)
25 tooth and jaw OR teeth OR jaw
26 (protective) wrist guards
27 safety release binding
END OF KEY
READING SECTION 6
Reading sub-test
Part B – Answer key
Going blind in Australia
The OET Centre

Reading Sub-test
Part B - Text 1: Going blind in Australia
Answer Key
1 B sight problems of the aged are often treatable.
2 B may occur in about 4–5% of Australians aged over 64.
3 D causes a significant amount of sight loss in the elderly.
4 C must occur early to enable effective treatment.
5 A existing eye care services are not fully utilised by the elderly.
6 B Elderly people with chronic diseases are more likely to have poor eyesight.
7 D poorer people have less access to the range of available eye care services.
8 C the proportion of people over 65 will be twice the present proportion.
9 A should be more active in investigating patients’ possible sight difficulties.
10 B government services should include prevention and health promotion.
END OF KEY
READING SECTION 6
Reading sub-test
Part B – Answer key
Exercise, fitness and health
The OET Centre

Reading Sub-test
Part B - Text 2: Exercise, fitness and health
Answer Key
11 D weight control and decrease in levels of body fat.
12 D different levels of exercise intensity for different age groups.
13 B difficulty in fitting it into their daily routine.
14 B Providing encouragement and advice from staff within the organisation.
15 D exercise works against the physical effects of ageing.
16 A The need to balance aerobic activity with stretching.
17 C The need for doctors themselves to improve their own fitness levels.
18 B Experts agree on the importance of both type and intensity of exercise.
END OF KEY
READING SECTION 7
Part A - Study guide

• Remember Part A of the Reading sub-test requires you to complete a summary by writing the missing word or several words (but only
up to three words) within a strict time limit of 15 minutes. It is therefore important that you do not begin Part A by immediately reading
all of the passages in great detail before attempting the summary task. This will take up valuable time and may result in an incomplete
summary at the end of the 15 minute period.
• Instead, it is highly recommended that you begin by reading the summary passage which contains the numbered ‘gaps’ (in the
‘summary’ column of the ‘Part A - Answer Booklet’). This will direct your attention to the topic and focus of the first paragraph so
that you can quickly select which text matches the first part of the summary passage. In other words, reading the summary
passage first will help you to know which one of the texts in the ‘Text Booklet’ contains the relevant information to choose the
missing words for the first part of the summary passage.
• Remember, Part A of the Reading sub-test is a test of your ability to skim read and scan quickly across different texts to choose selected
information in order to summarise. It is not a test of detailed reading for comprehension purposes - that particular skill is tested in Part
B of the reading sub-test.
• Remember also that the first paragraph of the summary passage may not necessarily always directly relate to the first text (A1) of the
Text booklet. Information for the first two or three ‘gaps’ in the summary passage might only be located by reading another text. That is
why it is very important to quickly establish a sense of the topic and focus of the first paragraph; to direct your reading straight away to
the appropriate text therefore making efficient use of the time available.
Using the headings of the four texts

As a general rule, in the first sentence of the first paragraph of the summary passage (in the ‘Part A - Answer Booklet’) there is usually a
‘clue’ word or ‘signal’ word that will help direct your reading, i.e. help you find which text to scan first. Often this ‘signal’ word relates directly
to the heading of the text in the Text Booklet that indicates the topic of the text.
Consider the example below of headings from the Practice test Text booklet:
The headings of texts A1–A4 are:
Text A1: Patterns of injury in US high school sports: A review.
Text A2: Literature review extract: Prevention of sports injuries.
Text A3: Best practice guidelines for junior sports injury management and return to play
Text A4: Research briefs on sports injuries in Canada
The first sentence of the summary passage is highlighted below:
Guidelines for junior sports injury management suggest that there is only a small risk of being (1).... However
statistics show that injury ... (continued)
The ‘signal’ word that would direct the reader to the appropriate text is ‘Guidelines’. Although ‘sports injuries’ are mentioned in both the
opening sentence of the summary passage and in all four of the text headings; the word ‘guidelines’ is mentioned only in the heading for
Text A3. The reader’s focus will be directed to Text 3 after reading the first sentence of the summary passage. The heading acts as a ‘hook’ to
focus the reader on Text A3, where it is likely that information needed to complete the first gap(s) in the summary will be found.
Using signal words in the summary passage
Sometimes missing information for each paragraph of the summary passage will be found from multiple sources i.e., from more than one
of the texts in the Text booklet. You need to know when to direct your attention from one text to another. Again, it is a good idea to look for
‘signal’ words that tell you that the next missing word(s) comes from a different text than the previous one. Often this might be a direct
signal in the form of a key word that is repeated in the heading for each text or; a referent word that directs the reader back to something that
has already been mentioned in the passage.
Consider the example summary passage from the sample test posted on the OET website below:
Concerning interventions, the US report found that most migraine sufferers in the survey (7) ..... medical advice.
Of the patients surveyed by Spark, Vale and Mills, just over eight per cent were taking (8) ..... at the time of the
study. By contrast, the study found that a large proportion of migraine sufferers used (9) ..... . Given these findings,
the authors note that general practitioners do not utilise (10)..... effectively, and tend to choose from a (11) ..... of
available therapies.
Now consider the headings of the four texts below informing the summary passage above:
Text A1: Title: Management of migraine in New Zealand General Practice Authors: Spark, Vale & Mills (2006)
Text A2: Table 1: Economic burden of migraine in the USA
Text A3: Case studies: migraine sufferers and work
Text A4: Research brief on migraines in the US
There are a few key words in the summary passage that direct the reader as to which text to focus on, highlighted below:
Concerning interventions, the US report found that most migraine sufferers in the survey (7) ..... medical advice.
Of the patients surveyed by Spark, Vale and Mills, just over eight per cent were taking (8) ..... at the time of
the study. By contrast, the study found that a large proportion of migraine sufferers used (9) ..... . Given these
findings, the authors note that general practitioners do not utilise (10) ..... effectively, and tend to choose from a
(11) ..... of available therapies.
By recognising these signal words, the successful reader will realise that information for item 7 is likely to come from either Text A2 or A4
(mentioning the ‘US report’). Items 8-11 will probably stem from information in Text A1. The summary passage mentions ‘Spark, Vale
and Mills’ (the authors of the text) and this provides the clue that item 8 directly relates to the title of Text A1 whereas the mention of
‘the study’ and ‘the authors’ later in the summary passage highlights these as referents; signalling to the reader that all of the missing
information (items 9-11) is probably from the same source text (A1). ‘The study’ refers back to ‘the patients surveyed by Spark,
Vale and Mills’ (a survey is a type of study) while ‘the authors’ refers back to Spark, Vale and Mills (the names of the people who wrote
the study).
Using prediction techniques to anticipate the missing word(s)
It is useful to consider looking at the words around the ‘gaps’ in the summary passage to try and predict what the missing word or words
might be. Doing this before skim reading the relevant text can save time because you will already have a sense of the type of information
you are looking for. You will know what to expect to read for.
Consider the examples below from the Practice test of how to use prediction:
1. Prediction based on lists

Canadian data, on the other hand, revealed that cycling, skateboarding and (12) ..... were the cause of most
(13) ..... associated with sporting activities.
It is useful to consider that for item 12, it would seem that the missing word may be a similar type of word to the words that appear before
it. Cycling and skateboarding are the names given to two kinds of vigorous sports. The use of the word ‘and’, after ‘skateboarding’,
would suggest that the missing word(s) will most likely mean another example of a vigorous sport. Having a sense of what the reader needs
to look for in the text will make it easier to scan for words, e.g., for the names of similar types of sport.
The part of the text that is relevant is highlighted below:
The majority of head injuries sustained in sports or recreational activities occur during cycling, skateboarding, or
skating incidents.
The missing word (skating), clearly belongs to the group of words (examples of vigorous sports) in the preceding list.
2. Prediction based on context

Ideally, children involved in sports such as rugby should wear (20) ..... , because according to recent research such
preventative measures can (21)..... of concussion and also stop (22)..... .
It is useful to consider that for item 20, the missing word(s) is/are both connected to the overall meaning of the sentence, and relates
directly to the meaning of the word immediately before the ‘gap’. The verb ‘to wear’, in the example above, is an important clue – meaning
‘the placement of an item of clothing or equipment on a person’s body’.
The overall meaning of the sentence is highlighted below:
Children playing rough physical sports need to wear something to avoid (signalled by words such as preventative
and stop) getting hurt.
As a result, the reader can predict that the missing information is likely to signify an item of clothing or equipment that is used to protect the
body during sport.
A careful reader will notice the word concussion (meaning: ‘shock to the head that can damage the brain’) in the summary passage. This
will enable the reader to narrow down the meaning of the missing word(s) to that of protective clothing or equipment specifically designed
to protect a person’s head while playing sport.
The reader may, from their knowledge of vocabulary, think of words such as ‘helmet’ or ‘head gear’ as vocabulary items with the more
specific meaning of head protection than, for example, other items worn on the head - e.g., hat or cap.
The text that is relevant is highlighted below:
Pettersen [14] conducted a study to determine the attitudes of Canadian rugby players and coaches regarding the
use of protective headgear. Although he found that few actually wear headgear, the equipment is known to prevent
lacerations and abrasions to the scalp and may minimize the risk of concussion.
The missing word (headgear) is directly mentioned in the text. A reader who might not be familiar with the word ‘headgear’ can probably
establish the meaning of the missing word from a careful reading of the surrounding text and link the summary passage to the relevant
part of the original text.
3. Prediction based on grammatical awareness

Remember the summary passage is not a direct copy of any of the texts. A summary is a shortened outline of a longer text(s) and
accordingly, uses paraphrasing and other writing techniques to present information in shortened form. The way the summary passage is
written is often quite different grammatically to the original texts, as well as in tone or style.
Do not therefore simply copy words directly from the texts into your summary as there is a greater chance of making a grammatical error if
you do. Even though you might correctly spell the word you choose, if you don’t choose the correct form of the word which has grammatical
agreement with the summary passage, you will not receive any marks.
You need to consider the overall grammatical appropriateness of the word(s) you decide to write down, i.e., how the words you choose fit
into the way the summary passage is written and whether you need to alter the word(s) slightly from the way they appear in the original
longer text. You might like to consider, for example, such things as the word-ending for a particular verb (e.g., according to verb tense) or
whether the sentence in the summary passage is written in active or passive voice.
4. Prediction based on changing verb forms

Part of the summary passage with a ‘gap’ (specifically item 10) is highlighted below:
Of the injuries observed, more than half were (9) ....., and knee injuries accounted for 60.3% of those that (10) .....
The part of the longer text that contains the missing information for item 10 is highlighted below:
Among the studied sports, sprains and strains accounted for more than 50% of the injuries. Of the injuries requiring
surgery, 60.3% were to the knee.
A careless reader might simply write ‘requiring surgery’ as their response to item 10 (directly copying from the text) because there is
some similarity between the wordings of the text and the summary passage. However, a closer reading of the summary passage shows
that the sentence is written in the simple past tense - shown clearly by the use of ‘ed-ending’ verbs (observed, and accounted) and
the past tense marker ‘were’.
A reader who responds by using the ‘ing’ form ‘requiring surgery’ (as copied directly from the text), would not receive any marks as
‘requiring surgery’ does not conform correctly to the grammatical style of the summary passage (✗ = ‘ing’ form following a relative
pronoun ‘that’). The more correct response would be:
Of the injuries observed, more than half were strains and sprains and knee injuries accounted for 60.3% of those
that required surgery.
Note that the meaning here is kept. The correct vocabulary items required for the response are found in the longer text but the form of the
words needed to be altered to make sure the summary text remained grammatically consistent. The skill for the reader is to recognise
the important meaning of the text and then carry that meaning through to the shortened summary passage making any grammatical
changes as needed.
5. Prediction based on word form phrases
Part of the summary passage and a ‘gap’ (item 4) is highlighted below:
While it is very unusual for these injuries to (4) ......, they do make up just under one fifth of (5) ...... among children
and adolescents in Canada.
The part of the original text that contains the missing information for item 4 is highlighted below:
Although death from a sports injury is rare, the leading cause of death from a sports-related injury is a brain injury.
Again, a careless reader might simply copy the noun phrase ‘cause of death’ as their response to item 4 from the text as there are some
similarities between the two texts.
However a careful reading of the summary passage shows that the commonly found structure in English; ‘subject + ‘to’ + infinitive (form
of the verb)’ is used in the summary passage; therefore the correct response is:
While it is very unusual for these injuries to cause death, they do make up just under one fifth of traumatic brain
injuries among children and adolescents in Canada.
Here it is important for the reader to recognise the use of ‘to’ before the gap to predict the likely use of the infinitive verb form and then to
change the verb construction accordingly from source text to summary.
6. Prediction based on Negatives vs. Positives

Part of a summary passage with a ‘gap’ (item 7) is shown below:
Note: this example is taken from the sample test posted on the OET website: www.occupationalenglishtest.org
Concerning interventions, the US report found that most migraine sufferers in the survey (7).... medical advice.
The part of the original text that contains the missing information for item 7 is shown below:
Only about 1 in 5 sufferers seek help from a doctor.
Again a careless reader might simply write the verb ‘seek’ as their response to item 7 as a direct copy from the text. A careful reader will
note that the focus in the original text is on the smaller proportion of sufferers seeking help from a doctor, the proportion represented by
the ‘1’ in ‘1 in 5 sufferers’.
However; the summary passage requires the reader to recognise that the focus in the summary sentence is the ‘larger proportion of
sufferers, marked by the quantifier ‘most’ (sufferers). To accurately complete the summary passage, the reader is required to recognise
that most sufferers in fact do not seek help from a doctor (medical advice). The wording is reversed although the meaning has stayed
the same. To ensure grammatical and logical accuracy therefore, the correct response is:
‘Concerning interventions, the US report found that most migraine sufferers in the survey’ did not seek’ (or ‘do
not seek’) medical advice.
In order for the summary passage to make sense, the reader needed to use a negative construction to ensure the meaning is maintained
between the text and the differently worded summary passage. It is important to recognise that the same information in the text might be
written in a slightly different way in the summary passage.
7. Prediction based on passive vs. active voice
An example from the summary passage from another test with a ‘gap’ (item 21) is highlighted below:
In 2006, around 22% of all injuries responded to by the emergency department (21).... car accidents - but this
figure has declined in recent years.
The part of the reading text that contains the missing information (item 21) is shown below:
Car accidents caused approximately 22% of all injuries responded to by the hospital’s emergency department in
2006 although this figure has reduced in recent years.
A careful reader will note that the focus in the original text is on ‘car accidents’ (at the beginning of the statement) as the ‘agent’ or
subject of the sentence. As the agent of the action (to cause) the active voice of the past simple verb form (caused) is used with the object
of the sentence being ‘22% of all injuries’. In the summary passage, the construction is reversed, with 22% of all injuries the main
focus of the sentence (with the action being ‘done’ by ‘car accidents’).
The reader will recognise that the summary passage requires the use of passive voice (verb ‘to be’ + past participle) to convey the same
meaning as the text. Thus the correct response below:
In 2006, around 22% of all injuries responded to by the emergency department were caused by / resulted from car
accidents - but this figure has declined in recent years.
Recognising where the subject or focus of the sentence has changed between the wording of the text and the wording of the summary
passage (with the meaning staying the same) will help the reader to predict whether active or passive voice is needed in the response.
Using abbreviated words

Always use the correctly spelt full form of the words. If you wrote inst., for example, to mean the word institution, you would not receive
any marks. Other wrong examples might include ‘yr’ for year, ‘No’ for numbers and ‘tel’ for telephone.
The exception to this is when an abbreviation is included in the text and is necessary for your response.
Consider the example below from the Practice test:
Two management plans which should be followed are RICER NO HARM and (16) .... ;
The original text is below:
Immediate management approaches include DRABCD (checking Danger, Response, Airway, Breathing,
Compression and Defibrillation) and RICER NO HARM (when an injury is sustained apply Rest, Ice, Compression,
Elevation, Referral and NO Heat, Alcohol, Running or Massage).
Clearly, ‘DRABCD’ can be considered a correct response for item 16 as writing down each word individually would go over the three word
limit. In the example above, the abbreviated response is allowed.
Using synonyms
Use words with similar meaning to words in the texts if you can’t find a word (s) directly from the texts. These words are known as
synonyms. The person who is marking your paper has a list of allowable answers. In some but not all instances, responses can be
accepted that get across the same meaning as words in the original texts and grammatically conform to the summary passage. There will
though usually be only one clearly acceptable response.
Consider the example summary passage from the sample test posted on the OET website below:
Migraine incidence was different across genders, with a (4).... proportion of men diagnosed compared with women.
The following words: lower/smaller/lesser/low/small/minor would all be considered acceptable as a response to item 4.
The original text below allows the reader to determine what the missing word (s) might be:
191 GPs reported that 649 of 5663 patients (11.5%) had been diagnosed with migraine. Prevalence was 14.9% in
females and 6.1% in males.
The overall meaning of the statement from the text is that more women were diagnosed with migraines than men. To successfully complete
the summary, the reader is required to use a word or expression that compares a smaller quantity to a larger quantity (i.e., men to
women) – when men are mentioned first in the passage.
Using contractions
In some cases, the use of the contracted form is acceptable. For example, either ‘couldn’t’ or ‘could not’ and ‘did not’ or ‘didn’t’ are
acceptable. If you choose to use the contracted form, this will be considered by the person marking your paper as one-word.
Similarly, hyphenated words are acceptable and will be considered by the person marking your paper as one-word. For example, ‘low-
budget fares’ would be considered a two-word response.
In general it will be clear from a reading of the original texts when a contracted or hyphenated word is required. However, if you write a
contracted or hyphenated word that accurately reflects the original texts and is grammatically appropriate for the summary passage, even
though it may not appear in that form in the original text, you will receive marks.
READING SECTION 8
Reading sub-test
Part A – Text booklet

Family name
Other name(s)
City
Date of test
The OET Centre

Reading: Part A – Text Booklet
Instructions
• Complete the summary on pages 1 and 2 of Part A - Answer booklet using the information in the four
texts (A1-A4) below.
• You do not need to read each text from beginning to end to complete the task. You should scan the texts
to find the information you need.
• Gaps may require 1, 2 or 3 words. Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect
answers.
Text A1 Migraines: Texts

Title: Management of migraine in New Zealand General Practice
Authors: Spark, Vale & Mills (2006)
OBJECTIVES: To determine the proportion of patients who have a diagnosis of migraine in a sample of
New Zealand general practice patients, and to review the prophylactic and acute drug treatments used by
these patients.
DESIGN, SETTING AND PARTICIPANTS: A cohort of general practitioners collected data from about
30 consecutive patients each as part of the BEACH (Bettering the Evaluation and Care of Health) program;
this is a continuous national study of general practice activity in New Zealand. The migraine substudy was
conducted in June-July 2005 and December 2005-January 2006.
MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: Proportion of patients with a current diagnosis of migraine; frequency of
migraine attacks; current and previous drug treatments; and appropriateness of treatment assessed using
published guidelines.
RESULTS: 191 GPs reported that 649 of 5663 patients (11.5%) had been diagnosed with migraine.
Prevalence was 14.9% in females and 6.1% in males. Migraine frequency in these patients was one or
fewer attacks per month in 77.1% (476/617), two per month in 10.5% (65/617), and three or more per
month in 12.3% (76/617) (missing data excluded). Only 8.3% (54/648) of migraine patients were currently
taking prophylactic medication. Patients reporting three or more migraines or two migraines per month
were significantly more likely to be taking prophylactic medication (19.7% and 25.0%, respectively) than
those with less frequent migraine attacks (3.8%) (P < 0.0001). Prophylactic medication had been used
previously by 15.0% (96/640). The most common prophylactic agents used currently or previously were
pizotifen and propranolol; other appropriate agents were rarely used, and inappropriate use of acute
medications accounted for 9% of “prophylactic treatments”. Four in five migraine patients were currently
using acute medication as required for migraine, and 60.6% of these medications conformed with
recommendations of the National Prescribing Service. However, non-recommended drugs were also used,
including opioids (38% of acute medications).
CONCLUSIONS: Migraine is recognised frequently in New Zealand general practice. Use of acute
medication often follows published guidelines. Prophylactic medication appears to be underutilised,
especially in patients with frequent migraine. GPs appear to select from a limited range of therapeutic
options for migraine prophylaxis, despite the availability of several other well documented efficacious
agents, and some use inappropriate drugs for migraine prevention.
Text A2
Table 1: Economic burden of migraine in the USA
US$ million
Cost element Men Women Total

Medical 193 1,033 1,226
Missed workdays 1,240 6,662 7,902
Lost productivity 1,420 4,026 5,446
TOTAL 14,574
Text A3
Case studies: migraine sufferers and work
Case 1:
“Jane” experienced pressure from employers due to her migraine absences. She had three days off
work in the first quarter of the year, and this was deemed unacceptable and unsustainable by her
employers; therefore she has just resigned from her job and hopes that her future employers will be
more understanding.
Case 2:
“Sally’s” employers and colleagues are aware of her migraine symptoms and are alert to any behaviour
changes which might indicate an impending attack. In addition, colleagues have supporters’ contact
numbers, should she need to be escorted during a migraine. As her employers are part of the
government ‘Workstep Programme’, she has accessed a number of allowances and initiatives: her
migraines have been classified as a long-term health condition rather than sickness absence, which
permits her a higher absence threshold. She now works flexible hours and has received funding for eye
examinations, prescription glasses, and a laptop to enable her to work from home.
Text A4
Research brief on migraines in the US
• Migraine prevalence is about 7% in men and 20% in women over the ages 20 to 64.
• The average number of migraine attacks per year was 34 for men and 37 for women.
• Men will need nearly four days in bed every year. Women will need six.
• The average length of bed rest is five to six hours.
• Only about 1 in 5 sufferers seek help from a doctor.
END OF PART A
READING SECTION 8
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
ASSESSOR NO.
ASSESSOR NO.
Reading sub-test
Part A – Answer booklet

Family name
Other name(s)
City
Date of test
The OET Centre

Reading: Part A – Answer Booklet
Instructions
• Complete the following summary using the information in the four texts, A1-A4, provided on pages 1 and 2
of the Text booklet.
• You do not need to read each text from beginning to end to complete the task. You should scan the texts
to find the information you need.
Marker’s
Migraines
1.
In a recent study by Spark, Vale and Mills,
which investigated the prevalence of
migraines among .... (1).... patients in New 2.
Zealand, it was found that .... (2).... out of
.... (3).... patients had been diagnosed with
migraine. Migraine incidence was different 3.
across genders, with a .... (4).... proportion
of men diagnosed compared with women.
Similarly, a US report found migraines 4.
occurring in around .... (5).... of men and

.... (6).... of women within a restricted age
5.
range.
Concerning interventions, the US report 6.

found that most migraine sufferers in
the survey .... (7).... medical advice. Of the
patients surveyed by Spark, Vale and Mills, 7.
just over eight per cent were taking .... (8)....
at the time of the study. By contrast, the
8.
study found that a large proportion of
migraine sufferers used .... (9).... .
[Continued on next page] 9.
Marker’s
Given these findings, the authors note that

10.
general practitioners do not utilise .... (10)....
effectively, and tend to choose from a
11.
.... (11).... of available therapies.
12.
With respect to gender, an economic
analysis suggests that the economic .... (12).... 13.
of migraines in the US cost $7,902,000,000
in .... (13).... and $5,446,000,000 in .... (14).... ,
14.
with women accounting for a .... (15)....
proportion of costs compared to men. This
is reflected in research from the US which 15.
has found that female migraine sufferers
spend an average of six days .... (16).... each
16.
year, compared with .... (17).... for men.
17.
The case of .... (18).... demonstrates that
employers may not tolerate .... (19).... . 18.
However the case of .... (20).... illustrates a
“best practice” approach to dealing with
19.
migraines in the workplace. This case
shows that, ideally, .... (21).... and .... (22)....
should be aware of migraine symptoms, 20.
and be able to notice any .... (23).... which
might signal that an attack is about to occur. 21.
It is also useful if co-workers have a list of
.... (24).... . Being able to work .... (25).... hours
22.
and having the capacity to work .... (26)....
also make working life more manageable for
the migraine sufferer. 23.
24.
25.
26.
END OF PART A
READING SECTION 8
Reading sub-test
Part A – Answer key
Migraines
/ indicates an acceptable alternative within an answer
OR indicates an acceptable (complete) alternative answer
( ) words, figures, or ideas in brackets are not essential to the answer – they are also not a sufficient
substitute on their own for the main idea
NOT indicates an unacceptable answer or part of an answer
No other answers except those included in the key will be considered acceptable. Responses that have been
incorrectly spelt will not be awarded any marks, neither will answers that contain more than three words.
The OET Centre

Reading Sub-test
Part A: Migraines
Answer Key
1 general practice/GP
2 649
3 5663
4 lower/smaller/lesser/low/small/minor
5 7%
6 20%
7 did not seek/do not seek (or contractions)
8 prophylactic medication/preventative medication
9 acute medication
10 prophylactic medication/preventative medication
11 limited range/narrow range
12 burden/impact
13 (total) missed workdays
14 (total) lost productivity/productivity loss
15 greater/higher/bigger/larger/high/big/large/major
16 in bed OR off (work/sick)
17 four (days)
18 Jane
19 (migraine) absences
20 Sally
21 employers OR colleagues
22 employers OR colleagues
23 behaviour change(s) OR changes in behaviour
24 (supporters’) contact numbers
25 flexible
26 from home/at home
END OF KEY
READING SECTION 9
Further Practice
Information on new developments in medical science is often published in journals written in English. High-level reading skills in
English are therefore important to maintain professional standards and ensure knowledge and skills are up to date.
Part A of the reading sub-test tests a reader’s ability to:
• Locate specific information in a range of source texts

• Understand the relationship between different types of information
• Understand the conventions of different text types
• Draw logical inferences
• Synthesize information from different sources
• Differentiate main ideas and supporting information
• Understand the presentation of textual and numerical data
• Recognise paraphrase
Part B of the reading sub-test assesses a reader’s ability to:
• Understand main ideas

• Locate specific information
• Differentiate main ideas from supporting information
• Identify underlying concepts
• Draw logical conclusions
• Understand a range of general and medical vocabulary
• Use contextual clues to determine the meaning of lexical items
• Recognise paraphrase
You need to understand how the writer constructs the text to communicate his/her message. This may involve using words and
phrases to show, for example,
• the order of events (e.g., firstly, secondly; initially, subsequently, in the end)
• consequences (e.g., due to, therefore, as a result)
• contrasting or alternative ideas (e.g., however, on the other hand, despite)
• the extension of an idea (e.g., in addition, furthermore)
It may involve understanding how an academic or professional text ‘works’ (is built and holds together) using, for example,
• text references (e.g., this, the other study, as noted above)

• nominalisation (choosing nouns rather than verbs or adjectives, e.g., explanation [from explain], detoxification, assessment)
• more complex comparative structures (e.g., The study found that women over 60 benefited from the therapy almost twice as
much as those aged between 20 and 35 did.)
• long noun phrases (e.g., The four-year study into the uptake and continuing use of the drug-based treatment administered with
appropriate medical supervision discovered that...)
• groups of words with ‘shades of meaning’ (e.g., states, concludes, implies, suggests, proposes, assumes, supposes, believes,
considers, presumes)
Reading widely on health-related issues in English is great preparation for the OET. You may have access to journals and
professional association websites with reading material relevant to your own profession.
The OET Centre
PO Box 16136
Collins St West
VIC 8007 Australia
Tel: +61 3 8656 4000
The Occupational English Test (OET) is designed to meet the specific English language needs of the healthcare
sector. It assesses the language proficiency of healthcare professionals who wish to register and practise in an
English-speaking environment.
OET is owned by Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment Trust (CBLA), a venture between Cambridge
English and Box Hill Institute. Cambridge English Language Assessment is a not-for-profit department of the
University of Cambridge with over 100 years of experience in assessing the English language. Box Hill Institute
is a leading Australian vocational and higher education provider, active both in Australia and overseas.
The OET Centre
PO Box 16136
Collins St West
VIC 8007 Australia
Tel: +61 3 8656 4000
The Occupational English Test (OET) is designed to meet the specific English language needs of the healthcare
sector. It assesses the language proficiency of healthcare professionals who wish to register and practise in an
English-speaking environment.
OET is owned by Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment Trust (CBLA), a venture between Cambridge
English and Box Hill Institute. Cambridge English Language Assessment is a not-for-profit department of the
University of Cambridge with over 100 years of experience in assessing the English language. Box Hill Institute
is a leading Australian vocational and higher education provider, active both in Australia and overseas.
READING SECTION 10
Resources
ABC Australia Health
www.abc.net.au/health Health Matters – index with links to programs and features
BBC World Service Health

www.bbc.co.uk/worldservice/sci_tech/features/health/index.shtml Health index
BBC Health
www.bbc.co.uk/health
New England Journal of Medicine

http://content.nejm.org (registration gives access to articles six months old or order)
Science Magazine for the American Association for the Advancement of Science
www.sciencemag.org/archive/ (registration gives access to articles more than one year old)
Nature
www.nature.com
British Medical Journal

www.bmj.com
Journal of the American Medical Association
http://jama.ama-assn.org/
Medical Journal of Australia

www.mja.com.au
The Free Medical Journals Site

www.freemedicaljournals.com (links to journals)
Newsletters
Subscribe to these regular health-related newsletters:
www.abc.net.au/health/subscribe/default.htm
Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment is not responsible for the content of external websites.
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
ASSESSOR NO.
Occupational English Test
READING SUB-TEST
Part A - Answer Booklet
Practice test

Part A - Answer Booklet using pen or pencil.
Family name
Other name(s)
City
Date of test
YOU MUST NOT REMOVE OET MATERIAL FROM THE TEST ROOM.
The OET Centre Telephone: +61 3 9652 0800

GPO Box 372 Facsimile: +61 3 9654 5329
Melbourne VIC 3001 www.occupationalenglishtest.org
Australia
© OET Centre — Practice test ABN 84 434 201 642

Reading: Part A - Answer Booklet
Instructions
• Complete the following summary using the information in the four texts, A1-A4, provided on pages 2 and 3 of the
Text Booklet.
• You do not need to read each text from beginning to end to complete the task. You should scan the texts to find the
information you need.
Summary Answers
Vasectomy
1.
One method of contraception is male sterilisation

or vasectomy. Statistics for 2008 showed that 2.
....(1)....of adult men aged under ....(2).... in

Britain had undergone a vasectomy and that 3.
this proportion had been ....(3)....during the

previous five years. 4.
5.
Patients are informed that vasectomy is a
procedure ....(4)....serious risks or complications. 6.
After the operation, which is ....(5)....carried
out under local anaesthetic, the man will often
7.
experience pain from bruising and swelling of
his ....(6)..... General advice is to wear ....(7)....to
8.
provide support. Physical exertion should ...(8)....
for seven days as a minimum. If the site of the
operation becomes....(9)....or greatly swollen, 9.
or if there is bleeding, the patient should seek
immediate medical attention. After the operation 10.
and for several months subsequently, ....(10)....
may form if there is any leakage of sperm into the 11.
....(11)....; these can be painful but are....(12).....
12.
2 TURN OVER
Summary Answers
13.
Men with vasectomies have been shown
....(13).... at a higher risk of prostate cancer.
14.
Researchers in Australia contacted ....(14)....
men aged between 40 and 75 who had been
diagnosed with ....(15).... in the preceding 15.
....(16).... months. A control group of men with a

matching ....(17).... profile was also interviewed. 16.
The length of time since ....(18).... did not affect

the relative risk, nor did other possible factors 17.
(e.g. ....(19)....of prostate cancer, social class,
....(20)....and/or location). 18.
Vasectomy is not intended to be a ....(21).... 19.

change. Consequently, reversal is difficult and
this can make it ....(22)..... A successful outcome 20.
cannot be guaranteed. In one case, a man
had to have ....(23)....before his vasectomy was
21.
properly reversed. Having already fathered
....(24).... by the age of 30, he had believed
22.
his original decision to have a vasectomy was
responsible. However, he now advises men in
their ....(25)... to wait unless they are absolutely 23.
certain they ....(26)....a child. Statistics from
Britain for 2008 seem to ....(27).... this advice: the 24.
percentage of men who had had a vasectomy
changes gradually from ....(28).... of those aged 25.
16-29 to ....(29)....of those aged 50-54.
26.
27.
28.
29.
TOTAL SCORE (Marker’s use only)
END OF PART A
3
READING SUB-TEST
Part A - Text Booklet
Practice test

Part A - Answer Booklet using pen or pencil.
Family name
Other name(s)
City
Date of test

Australia

Reading: Part A - Text Booklet
Instructions
• Complete the summary on pages 2 and 3 of Part A - Answer booklet using the information in the four texts
(A1-4) below.
• Gaps may require 1, 2 or 3 words. Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.
Text A1 Vasectomy: Texts

Title: Risk of Prostate Cancer After Vasectomy (2003)
Authors: Krishnamurthy, McLeod & Williams
Context: Vasectomy is a common method of contraception, but concern exists about a reported association
with risk of prostate cancer.
Objective: To examine whether vasectomy increases risk of prostate cancer.
Design, Setting, and Participants: National population-based case-control study of 923 new cases of
prostate cancer among men aged 40 to 74 years from the Australia Cancer Registry who were on the
general electoral roll. Controls (n = 1224) were randomly selected from the general electoral roll, with
frequency matching to cases in 5-year age groups. Cases (3-15 months after diagnosis) and controls were
interviewed by telephone over a 3-year period.
Main Outcome Measures: Relative risk (RR) of prostate cancer for men who had had a vasectomy vs
those who had not.
Results: There was no association between prostate cancer and vasectomy (RR, 0.92; 95% confidence
interval [CI], 0.75-1.14) nor with time since vasectomy (RR, 0.92; 95% CI, 0.68-1.23 for ≥25 years since
vasectomy). Adjustment for social class, geographic region, religious affiliation, and a family history of
prostate cancer did not affect these RRs.
Conclusions: Vasectomy does not increase the risk of prostate cancer, even after 25 years or more.
Text A2
Vasectomy Statistics from Britain (2008)

men aged 16-69: percentage who had had a vasectomy (2001-2008)
2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008

17 15 18 17 18 18 17 18
percentage who had had a vasectomy: by age (2008)
16-29 30-34 35-39 40-44 45-49 50-54 55-64 65-69

1 6 15 19 20 30 31 30
Texts continue on the next page
2
Text A3
Male sterilisation (vasectomy) – FAQs for patients

Q: How will I feel after the operation?
A: Your scrotum will probably be bruised, swollen and painful. Wearing tight-fitting underpants, to
support your scrotum, day and night for a week may help. You should avoid strenuous exercise for at
least a week. For most men pain is quite mild and they do not need any further help. The doctor or nurse
should give you information about how to look after yourself.
Q: Are there any serious risks or complications?
A: Research shows that there are no known serious long-term health risks caused by having a vasectomy.
• Occasionally, some men have bleeding, a large swelling, or an infection. In this case, see your
doctor as soon as possible.
• Sometimes sperm may leak out of the tube and collect in the surrounding tissue as sperm
granulomas. These may cause inflammation and pain immediately, or a few weeks or months later.
If this happens, they can be treated.
• Some men may experience ongoing pain in their testicles. This is known as chronic pain. Treatment
for this is often unsuccessful.
• The large majority of men having a vasectomy will have a local anaesthetic but sometimes a
general anaesthetic is used. All operations using a general anaesthetic carry some risks, but serious
problems are rare.
Q: Can sterilisation be reversed?
A: Sterilisation is meant to be permanent. There are reversal operations but they are not always
successful. The success will depend on how and when you were sterilised. Reversal can be difficult and
may cost a great deal because of this.
Text A4
Reverse vasectomy: a case study
Gary married young and had three children in his twenties. He had a
vasectomy at 31. Then his first marriage broke down. He met Sarah and
they decided they also wanted a family. Gary paid to have a reverse
vasectomy operation but it wasn’t successful. A second operation with a
different urologist did succeed, and Sarah is now pregnant with their
first child. Gary felt that the original vasectomy was the right thing to
do at the time, but with hindsight he now believes men under 40 should
not rush into having one if there is even the smallest chance they may
want a child in the future.
END OF PART A
3
READING SUB-TEST
Practice test
Part A: Vasectomy
Key
/ Indicates an acceptable alternative within an answer
OR Indicates an acceptable (complete) alternative answer
( ) words, figures, or ideas in brackets are not essential to the answer
- they are also not a sufficient substitute for the main idea indicated in the key
No other answers except those included in the key will be considered acceptable. Responses that have
been incorrectly spelt will not be awarded any marks, as will answers that contain more than three words.

Australia
© OET Centre — Practice test

ABN 84 434 201 642
Reading Sub-test
Part A: Vasectomy
Answer Key
1. 18% // 18 percent
2. 70 (years old)
3. (relatively/fairly) steady/constant/level/unchanged/stable/consistent // almost/roughly the same // (very/quite)

similar // maintained // sustained
4. free from/of (any) (known) // without (any) (known) // with no (known)
5. normally // usually // generally // in most cases // most often
6. scrotum
7. tight(-fitting) underpants/underwear
8. be avoided
9. infected
10. (sperm) granulomas
11. surrounding tissue(s)
12. treatable
13. not to be // to not be
14. 923
15. prostate cancer
16. 3-15 // 3 to 15 // three to fifteen
17. age
18. (a/any) vasectomy // vasectomy/ surgery (was performed/done)
19. (a) family history
20. religion // religious affiliation
21. temporary // reversible
22. (quite/very) expensive // costly
23. two operations/(surgical) procedures/surgeries // a second operation
24. three/3 children
25. (twenties and) thirties // (20s and) 30s // (20’s and) 30’s
26. won’t/wouldn’t (ever) want/have // will/would not want/have // will/would never want/have // ‘ll not/never want/
have // don’t (ever) want // do not want // never want
27. support // confirm // verify // reflect // corroborate // correspond with
28. 1% // 1 percent
29. 30% // 30 percent
END OF KEY
2
Computer answer sheet
OET – CANDIDATE INFORMATION & SAMPLE MATERIALS 2

READING SUB-TEST
Part B - Text Booklet
Practice test
You must record your answers for Part B on the

multiple-choice answer sheet using 2B pencil.
Family name
Other name(s)
City
Date of test

Australia

Instructions
There are TWO reading texts in Part B. After each of the texts you will find a number of questions or unfinished
statements about the text, each with four suggested answers or ways of finishing.
You must choose the ONE which you think fits best. For each question, 1-20, indicate on your answer sheet
the letter A, B, C or D against the number of the question.
Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.
NOTE: You must complete your Answer Sheet for Part B within the 45 minutes allowed for this part of the
sub-test.
NOW TURN TO THE NEXT PAGE FOR TEXTS AND QUESTIONS

Text B1: Animal testing
Paragraph 1
The use of living animals in research and teaching, while first documented around 2000 years ago,
became prominent in the second half of the 19th century as part of the development of the emerging
sciences of physiology and anatomy. In the mid 1900s, the rapid expansion of the pharmaceutical
and chemical industries gave rise to an enormous increase in the use of animals in research. Today it
is a multi-billion dollar industry, involving not only the pharmaceutical and chemical industries, but
also university and government bodies. There is, additionally, a sizeable industry providing support
services in relation to animal research, including animal breeding, food supply and cage manufacture,
among many others.
Paragraph 2
The types of research that animals are subjected to include the traditional forms of physiological
research, which typically involves the study of body function and disease, and psychological
research, which often entails controlling the eating, movement or choices of animals in experimental
contexts. Other more recent forms of research include agricultural research directed towards intensive
farming methods and increasing the efficiency of animals kept for food or food products. The genetic
engineering of species used in agriculture is common amongst sheep and cattle, for example, in an
attempt to increase the production of wool or milk, or to alter the characteristics of the end product
(finer wool, for instance). Safety testing, or toxicology testing, is another common type of research
where medicines, agricultural chemicals and various other chemical products, such as shampoos and
cosmetics, are assessed for safe human use by testing the products on animals.
Paragraph 3
While accurate global figures for animal testing are extremely difficult to obtain, estimates indicate
that anywhere from 50 to 100 million vertebrates are used in experiments every year (although this
figure does not include the many more invertebrates, such as worms and flies, that are employed).
The most commonly used vertebrates are mice, attractive to researchers for their size, low cost, ease
of handling, and fast reproduction rate, as well as the fact that their genetic makeup is comparable to
that of human beings. Other types of vertebrates used in the pursuit of science include fish, chickens,
pigs, monkeys, cats, dogs, sheep and horses.
Paragraph 4
Perhaps one of the most widely-known examples of animals being used for the purposes of scientific
research is Ivan Pavlov’s ‘conditioned reflex’ experiments in the late 19th early 20th centuries. Pavlov
and his researchers were investigating the gastric functions of dogs and the chemical composition of
their saliva under changing conditions, when Pavlov noticed that the animals began salivating before
food was delivered. Pavlov’s team then changed the focus of their experiments and embarked on a
series of experiments on conditional reflexes that earned Pavlov the 1904 Nobel Prize in Physiology
and Medicine for his work on the physiology of digestion. What is less well-known about Pavlov’s
research is that these experiments included surgically implanting fistulas in animals’ stomachs, which
enabled him to study organs and take samples of body fluids from animals while they continued to
function normally. Also, further work on reflex actions involved involuntary reactions to extreme
stress and pain.
2
Paragraph 5
Supporters of animal testing argue that virtually every medical achievement in the 20th century relied on
the use of animals in some way and that alternatives to animal testing, such as computer modelling, are
inadequate and fail to model the complex interactions between molecules, cells, tissues, organs, organisms
and the environment. Opponents argue that such testing is cruel to animals and is poor scientific practice, that
results are an unreliable indicator of the effects in humans, and that it is poorly regulated. They also point
to the fact that many alternatives to using animals have been developed, particularly in the area of toxicity
testing, and that these developments have occurred most rapidly and effectively in countries where the use of
animals is prohibited.
Paragraph 6
Although animal rights groups have made slow headway, there are signs that the issues they are concerned
about are being heard. Most scientists and governments state, publicly at least, that animal testing should cause
as little suffering to animals as possible, and that animal tests should only be performed where necessary.
The ‘three Rs’ of replacement, reduction and refinement are the guiding principles for the use of animals in
research in most countries. They are designed to minimise the use of animals in scientific research by using
other types of research where possible, by reducing the number of animals used in research, and by refining
research techniques to minimise the animals’ pain and distress.
Part B -Text B1: Questions 1-11

1 According to paragraph 1, research using animals ……
A was non-existent before 1850.

B is most common in the medical industry.
C generates trade for offshoot industries.
D is on the rise.
2 According to paragraph 1, the use of living animals in research and teaching ……
A has taken place for at least two millennia.

B rose to prominence around 2,000 years ago.
C emerged in the second half of the 19th century.
D originated in the pharmaceutical and chemical industries.
3 According to paragraph 2, one of the new applications of animal testing is concerned

with ……
A combining the traditions of physiological and psychological research.

B finding ways to improve farm animals’ productive capacity.
C controlling the eating, movement or choices of animals.
D revisiting the age-old study of body function and disease.
TURN OVER 3
QUESTIONS
4 According to paragraph 3, global figures for animal testing are ……
A subsiding.
B elusive.
C confronting.
D extreme.
5 According to paragraph 3, which one of the following statements about mice

is TRUE?
A They are much more popular with researchers than invertebrates.

B They have a genetic make-up which is at odds with that of humans.
C They are very attractive to researchers because of their speed and aptitude.
D They pose fewer constraints than other vertebrates in terms of care and expense.
6 According to paragraph 4, Pavlov’s research ……
A was unethical at the time.

B involved hurting animals deliberately.
C was conducted solely on dogs.
D did not focus on dogs initially.
7 According to paragraph 4, Pavlov’s groundbreaking research into conditional

reflexes ……
A was prompted by the observation that dogs salivated when they were hungry.
B came about by accident while he was investigating something else.
C was triggered by his noticing chemical changes in the dogs’ saliva.
D led to a larger-scale investigation of the gastric functions of dogs.
8 According to paragraph 5, animal testing proponents argue that ……
A many of the alternative methods still rely on the use of animals in some way.
B it was crucial in the 20th century before viable alternatives became available.
C computer modelling requires improvement before it can replace animal testing.
D medical advancement in the 20th century would have been hindered without it.
9 According to paragraph 5, opponents of animal testing argue that ……
A countries who prohibit it are developing rapidly.

B its results are unreliable due to poor regulation.
C there are insufficient rules and restrictions.
D it is only justifiable in the area of toxicity testing.
4
QUESTIONS
10 The word headway in paragraph 6 could best be replaced by ……
A progress.
B improvements.
C impact.
D developments.
11 Replacement in the three Rs described in paragraph 6 refers to the

substitution of ……
A animal species.
B research methods.
C painful techniques.
D animal numbers.
END OF PART B - Text 1

TURN OVER FOR PART B - TEXT 2
5
Text B2: Oral health and systemic disease
Paragraph 1
The relationship between oral health and diabetes (Types 1 and 2) is well known and documented. In the
last decade, however, an increasing body of evidence has given support to the existence of an association
between oral health problems, specifically periodontal disease, and other systemic diseases, such as those
of the cardiovascular system. Adding further layers of complexity to the problem is the lack of awareness
in much of the population of periodontal disease, relative to their knowledge of more observable dental
problems, as well as the decreasing accessibility and affordability of dental treatment in Australia. While
epidemiological studies have confirmed links between periodontal disease and systemic diseases, from
diabetes to autoimmune conditions, osteoporosis, heart attacks and stroke, in the case of the last two the
findings remain cautious and qualified regarding the mechanics or biological rationale of the relationship.
Paragraph 2
Periodontal diseases, the most severe form of which is periodontitis, are inflammatory bacterial infections
that attack and destroy the attachment tissue and supporting bone of the jaw. Periodontitis occurs when
gingivitis is untreated or treatment is delayed. Bacteria in plaque that has spread below the gum line release
toxins which irritate the gums. These toxins stimulate a chronic inflammatory response in which the body, in
essence, turns on itself, and the tissues and bone that support the teeth are broken down and destroyed. Gums
separate from the teeth, forming pockets (spaces between the teeth and gums) that become infected. As the
disease progresses, the pockets deepen and more gum tissue and bone are destroyed. Often, this destructive
process only has very mild symptoms. Eventually, however, teeth can become loose and may have to be
removed.
Paragraph 3
The current interest in the relationship between periodontal disease and systemic disease may best be
attributed to a report by Kimmo Mattila and his colleagues. In 1989, in Finland, they conducted a case-
control study on patients who had experienced an acute myocardial infarction and compared them to control
subjects selected from the community. A dental examination was performed on all of the subjects studied,
and a dental index was computed. The dental index used was the sum of scores from the number of carious
lesions, missing teeth, and periapical lesions and probing depth measures to indicate periodontitis and the
presence or absence of pericoronitis (a red swelling of the soft tissues that surround the crown of a tooth
which has partially grown in). The researchers reported a highly significant association between poor dental
health, as measured by the dental index, and acute myocardial infarction. The association was independent
of other risk factors for heart attack, such as age, total cholesterol, high-density lipoprotein triglycerides, C
peptide, hypertension, diabetes, and smoking.
Paragraph 4
Since then, researchers have sought to understand the association between oral health, specifically periodontal
disease, and cardiovascular disease (CVD) – the missing link explaining the abnormally high blood levels of
some inflammatory markers or endotoxins and the presence of periodontal pathogens in the atherosclerotic
plaques of patients with periodontal disease. Two biological mechanisms have been suggested. One is that
periodontal bacteria may enter the circulatory system and contribute directly to atheromatous and thrombotic
processes. The other is that systemic factors may alter the immunoflammatory process involved in both
periodontal disease and CVD. It has also been suggested that some of these illnesses may in turn increase
the incidence and severity of periodontal disease by modifying the body’s immune response to the bacteria
involved, in a bi-directional relationship.
6
Paragraph 5
However, not only is ‘the jury out’ on the actual mechanism of the relationship, it also remains impossible to say
whether treating gum disease can reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and improve health outcomes for those
who are already sufferers. Additional research is needed to evaluate disease pathogenesis. Should the contributing
mechanisms be identified, however, it will confirm the role of oral health in overall well-being, with some implications
of this being the desirability of closer ties between the medical and the dental professions, and improved public health
education, not to mention greater access to preventive and curative dental treatment. In time, periodontal disease may
be added to other preventable risk factors for CVD, such as smoking, high blood cholesterol, obesity and diabetes.
Part B -Text B2: Questions 12-20

12 According to paragraph 1, oral health problems have recently been linked to ……
A periodontal disease.
B heart conditions.
C diabetes.
D economic factors.
13 According to paragraph 1, periodontal disease is unknown to many Australians

because ……
A dental treatment is no longer affordable.
B the problem has a high degree of complexity.

C information on dental problems is inaccessible.
D it is not as prominent as other dental issues.
14 The most suitable heading for paragraph 2 is ……
A ‘Types of periodontal disease’.

B ‘The treatment of gingivitis’.
C ‘The body’s response to toxins’.
D ‘The process of periodontitis’.
15 According to paragraph 3, the 1989 study in Finland ……
A prompted further interest in the link between oral health and systemic disease.
B did not take into account a number of important risk factors for heart attacks.
C concluded that people with oral health problems were likely to have heart attacks.
D was not considered significant when it was first reported but is now.
TURN OVER 7
QUESTIONS
16 The research study described in paragraph 3 found that the relationship

between poor dental health and heart attacks was ……
A inconclusive.
B coincidental.
C evident.
D inconsequential.
17 According to paragraph 3, the dental index was used to ……
A indicate whether periodontitis was present.

B assess the overall oral health of patients.
C establish whether pericoronitis was present.
D predict the likelihood of acute myocardial infarction.
18 According to paragraph 4, it has been proposed that ……
A cardiovascular disease could actually exacerbate periodontal disease.

B periodontal disease could modify the body’s immune response.
C there is a bi-directional relationship between periodontal disease and bacteria.
D systemic factors may contribute directly to atheromatous and thrombotic processes.
19 According to paragraph 5, if the processes by which gum disease contributes

to CVD can be discovered there will be ……
A less need for doctors and dentists to work in conjunction.

B a reduced emphasis on other preventable risk factors for CVD.
C a concomitant link between smoking and periodontal disease.
D more support for dental care in the public health system.
20 The expression the jury [is] out in paragraph 5 means that a definitive
conclusion is ……
A imminent.
B impossible.
C without empirical basis.
D yet to be attained.
END OF PART B - Text 2
END OF READING TEST
8
READING SUB-TEST
Practice test
Animal Testing
Key

Australia

ABN 84 434 201 642
Reading Sub-test
Text B1: Animal Testing
Answer Key
1 C generates trade for offshoot industries.
2 A has taken place for at least two millennia.
3 B finding ways to improve farm animals’ productive capacity.
4 B elusive.
5 D They pose fewer constraints than other vertebrates in terms of care and expense.
6 B involved hurting animals deliberately.
7 B came about by accident while he was investigating something else.
8 D medical advancement in the 20th century would have been hindered without it.
9 C there are insufficient rules and restrictions.
10 A progress.
11 B research methods.
END OF KEY
2
READING SUB-TEST
Practice test
Oral health and systemic disease
Key

Australia

ABN 84 434 201 642
Reading Sub-test
Text B2: Oral health and systemic disease
Answer Key
12 B heart conditions.
13 D it is not as prominent as other dental issues.
14 D ‘The process of periodontitis’.
15 A prompted further interest in the link between oral health and systemic disease.
16 C evident.
17 B assess the overall oral health of patients.
18 A cardiovascular disease could actually exacerbate periodontal disease.
19 D more support for dental care in the public health system.
20 D yet to be attained.
END OF KEY
4
1
Reading Part A

Part A Summary Gap Fill Time Limit: 15 minutes
Instructions
• Complete the following summary using the information in the texts
for this task.
• Skim and scan the texts to find the information required.
• Gaps may require 1, 2 or 3 words.
• Write your answers in the appropriate space in the column on the
right hand side.
• Make sure your spelling is correct.
Summary Answers
1.
Due to ....(1).... in south east Australia, governments
have recommended that households ....(2).... domestic 2.
water tanks. However, a recent study by Beebe,
Cooper, Mottram and ....(3).... warns that this could 3.
increase the risk of ....(4).... especially in summer time.
4.
The scientific name of the dengue mosquito is ....(5)....
Its appearance is similar to most other mosquitoes so
5.
a ....(6).... is required for identification. In terms of

6.
behaviour, the dengue mosquito prefers to ....(7).... and
its bite is not very ....(8).... . It usually attacks the ....(9)....
7.
of people with most bites occurring during ....(10)....
hours.
8.

Aedus aegypti is responsible for the spread of dengue 9.
fever and typical symptoms in adults include a rapid
....(11).... which lasts several days. Intense headache,
10.
muscle and joint pain and ....(12).... may also occur. As
11.
the fever reduces , victims may have a ....(13)..... . It is
....(14).... for young children to have no symptoms at all.
12.
13.
14.
This resource was developed by OET Online and is subject to copyright ©

Website: http://oetonline.com.au Email: steve@oetonline.com.au
2
Reading Part A
Summary Answers
15.
The dengue mosquito ....(15).... breed without water

16.
and will seek out water holding containers in ....(16).... .

17.
Therefore homeowners are encouraged to ensure
their backyards do not have watering cans, ....(17)....
18.
tyres and buckets lying around. In addition, rain water
tanks need to be ....(18).... .
19.

20.

While in recent times, the range of Aedus aegypti has 21.
been limited to tropical areas, there is a risk that it
could spread further, not because of ....(19).... but 22.
because humans have ....(20).... to drier weather by
installing rain water tanks in their backyards, which in
23.
turn act as breeding sites for Aedus aegypti, leading to
24.
an ....(21).... risk of dengue fever in ....(22)....

25.

26.
This risk is....(23).... in the warm summer months.
Therefore, it is essential that governments strictly
27.
....(24).... the ....(25).... and ....(26).... of domestic water tanks
in order to ....(27).... the spread of Aedus aegypti to
28.
....(28).... throughout Australia.
TOTAL SCORE

3
Reading Part A
Part A
Time Limit: 15 minutes
Instructions
• Complete the summary on the answer page using the information in
the four texts below.
right hand side.
The Increasing Threat of Dengue Fever
Text 1
The dengue mosquito
The dengue mosquito looks like many other mosquitoes so it is difficult for
the layperson to identify without the use of a microscope. As a rule of
thumb, if you have mosquitoes biting you indoors during the day in north
Queensland, it is likely that they are dengue mosquitoes.
The dengue mosquito(Aedes aegypti) can more readily be identified by its
behaviour. Look for these signs:
*It likes to live indoors and bite people indoors
*It is hard to catch; it moves very quickly, darting back and forth
*It bites people around the ankles and feet
*Its bite is relatively painless
The adult mosquito prefers to rest in dark areas inside and under houses and
buildings. Favourite resting spots are under beds, tables and chairs; in
wardrobes and closets; on piles of dirty laundry and shoes; inside open
containers; in dark and quiet rooms; and even on dark objects such as
clothing or furniture.
The dengue mosquito prefers to bite humans during daylight. It is very
cautious when biting, flying away quickly at the slightest disturbance. An
effective way to kill adult mosquitoes is to apply a residual insecticide
(cockroach surface spray) onto the areas where they prefer to rest.

4
Reading Part A
Text 2
Title: Australia’s Dengue Risk Driven by Human Adaption to Climate Change
Authors: Nigel W. Beebe, Robert D. Cooper, Pipi Mottram, Anthony W. Sweeney
Source: Public Library of Open Science
Background: The reduced rainfall in southeast Australia has placed this

region’s urban and rural communities on escalating water restrictions, with
anthropogenic climate change forecasts suggesting that this drying trend
will continue. To mitigate the stress this may place on domestic water
supply, governments have encouraged the installation of domestic water
tanks in towns and cities throughout this region. These prospective stable
mosquito larval sites create the possibility of the reintroduction of Aedes
aegypti from Queensland, where it remains endemic, back into New South
Wales and other populated centres in Australia, along with the associated
emerging and re-emerging dengue risk if the virus was to be introduced.
Objective: To determine the whether human’s ability to adapt to climate

change through the installation of large stable water storage tanks leads to
a more wide spread distribution of Aedes Aegypti.
Principal Findings: The distribution of Aedes aegypti is mediated more by

human activity than by climate. Synthesis of this data with dengue
transmission climate limits in Australia derived from historical dengue
epidemics suggested that a proliferation of domestic water tanks in
Australia could result in another range expansion of Aedus aegypti which
would present a risk of dengue transmission in most major cities during their
warm summer months.
Conclusions/Significance: In the debate of the role climate change will play

in the future range of dengue in Australia, we conclude that the increased
risk of an Aedes aegypti range expansion in Australia would be due not
directly to climate change but rather to human adaptation to drier weather
by the installation of large domestic water storing containers. The
expansion of this efficient dengue vector presents both an emerging disease
risk to Australia. Therefore, if the installation and maintenance of domestic
water storage tanks is not tightly controlled, Aedes aegypti could expand its
range again in urban areas throughout most parts of Australia, presenting a
high potential dengue transmission risk during our warm summers.

5
Reading Part A
Text 3
Symptoms of Dengue Fever
Symptoms are most commonly seen in adults and older children. Young
children may show no symptoms. Typical symptoms may include
• sudden onset of fever (lasting three to seven days)
• intense headache (especially behind the eyes)
• muscle and joint pain (ankles, knees and elbows)
• diarrhoea
• fine skin rash as fever subsides
Text 4
Dengue mosquito Breeding sites
The dengue mosquito frequents suburban backyards in search of

containers holding water in order to breed
• watering cans
• buckets
• unsealed rain water tanks
• old car tyres
• roof gutters
• tarpaulins
• any vessel which holds water

6
Reading Part A
Dengue Fever: Answer key and explanation

Answer Details
1. reduced rainfall
Type 1

Type 2: change word form: installation (noun) 
2. install
install (active verb)
3. Sweeney
Type 1

4. dengue
transmission Type 1

5. Aedes aegypti
Type 1

6. microscope
Type 1

7. live indoors
Type 1

8. painful
Type 4: use opposite word to match meaning

9. ankles and feet
Type 1

10. daylight
Type 1

11. onset of fever
Type 1

12. diarrhoea
Type 1

13. fine skin rash
Type 1

14. usual/common
or words of similar Type 4: match meaning
meaning
15. cannot/is unable to
or words of similar Type 4: match meaning
meaning
16. suburban backyards
Type 1

17. old car
Type 1

18. sealed Type 1/4: Need to use opposite word to make
meaning match
19. climate change
Type 1

Type 2 : change word form: adaption (noun) 
20. adapted
adapted (verb)

7
Reading Part A
21. emerging
Type 1

22. Australia
Type 1

Type 1/2/4: requiring understand of meaning and
23. Highest/higher/high possible word modification

Type 2 & 4: requiring understand of meaning and
24. control
word modification
25. installation
Type 1

26. maintenance
Type 1

27. prevent/stop or
Type 4: Need to use an original word to make the
words of similar
meaning match
meaning
28. urban areas
Type 1


8
Reading Part A
The Increasing Threat of Dengue Fever
Text 1
The dengue mosquito
The dengue mosquito looks like many other mosquitoes so it is difficult for the layperson to identify
without the use of a (6) microscope. As a rule of thumb, if you have mosquitoes biting you indoors
during the day in north Queensland, it is likely that they are dengue mosquitoes.
The dengue mosquito (5) (Aedes aegypti) can more readily be identified by its behaviour. Look for
these signs:
*It likes to (7)live indoors and bite people indoors
*It is hard to catch; it moves very quickly, darting back and forth
*It bites people around the (9)ankles and feet
*Its bite is relatively(8) painless
The adult mosquito prefers to rest in dark areas inside and under houses and buildings. Favourite
resting spots are under beds, tables and chairs; in wardrobes and closets; on piles of dirty laundry and
shoes; inside open containers; in dark and quiet rooms; and even on dark objects such as clothing or
furniture.
The dengue mosquito prefers to bite humans during (10)daylight. It is very cautious when biting,
flying away quickly at the slightest disturbance. An effective way to kill adult mosquitoes is to apply a
residual insecticide (cockroach surface spray) onto the areas where they prefer to rest.
Text 2
Title: Australia’s Dengue Risk Driven by Human Adaption to Climate Change

Authors: Nigel W. Beebe, Robert D. Cooper, Pipi Mottram, Anthony W. (3) Sweeney
Background: The (1)reduced rainfall in southeast Australia has placed this region’s urban and rural
communities on escalating water restrictions, with anthropogenic climate change forecasts suggesting
that this drying trend will continue. To mitigate the stress this may place on domestic water supply,
governments have encouraged the (2)installation of domestic water tanks in towns and cities
throughout this region. These prospective stable mosquito larval sites create the possibility of the
reintroduction of Aedes aegypti from Queensland, where it remains endemic, back into New South
Wales and other populated centres in Australia, along with the associated emerging and re-emerging
dengue risk if the virus was to be introduced.
Objective: To determine the whether human’s ability to adapt to climate change through the
installation of large stable water storage tanks leads to a more wide spread distribution of Aedes
Aegypti.
Principal Findings: The distribution of Aedus aegypti is mediated more by human activity than by
climate. Synthesis of this data with dengue transmission climate limits in Australia derived from
historical dengue epidemics suggested that a proliferation of domestic water tanks in Australia could
result in another range expansion of Aedes aegypti which would present a risk of (4)dengue
transmission in most major cities during their warm summer months.
Conclusions/Significance: In the debate of the role climate change will play in the future range of
dengue in Australia, we conclude that the increased risk of an Aedes aegypti range expansion in
Australia would be due not directly to (19)climate change but rather to human (20)adaptation to drier
weather by the installation of large domestic water storing containers. The expansion of this efficient
dengue vector presents both an (21)emerging disease risk to (22)Australia. Therefore, if the
(25)installation and (26)maintenance of domestic water storage tanks is not tightly (24)controlled,
Aedes aegypti could expand its range again in (28)urban areas throughout most parts of Australia,
presenting a (23)high potential dengue transmission risk during our warm summers.

9
Reading Part A
Text 3
Symptoms of Dengue Fever
Symptoms are most commonly seen in adult. (14) Young children may show no symptoms. Typical
symptoms may include
• sudden (11)onset of fever (lasting three to seven days)
• intense headache (especially behind the eyes)
• muscle and joint pain (ankles, knees and elbows)
• (12) diarrhoea
• (13)fine skin rash as fever subsides
Text 4
Dengue mosquito Breeding sites
The dengue mosquito frequents (16)suburban backyards in search of containers holding (15)water
which it needs in order to breed
• watering cans
• buckets
• (18)unsealed rain water tanks
• (17)old car tyres
• roof gutters
• tarpaulins
• any vessel which holds water

1
Reading Part A

Instructions
for this task.
right hand side.
Summary Answers
1.
There are various risks associated with ....(1)...., one of
them being deep vein thrombosis. Research first 2.
linked the condition to air travel in ....(2).... . Since
then many case reports have been published. An 3.
English study published in the well known medical

4.
journal the ....(3).... found that a person’s ....(4).... was
greater as a result of flying and that more people 5.
....(5).... in the ....(6).... area than the ....(7).... area. New
Zealand and German studies found similar 6.
associations between flying and deep vein
7.
thrombosis. This was ....(8).... to a Dutch study which
found no association between flying and deep vein
8.
thrombosis.
9.
Despite conflicting ....(9)...., some airlines take a
proactive approach and provide ....(10).... to 10.
passengers on ways to lower the risk of deep vein
thrombosis. Their recommendations include the 11.
wearing of loose clothes, ....(11).... alcohol and
cigarettes and regular movements around the plane. 12.
Sitting with your legs crossed is ....(12).... while

13.
regular stretching and ....(13).... may be beneficial.
Finally before travelling, a ....(14).... with your doctor
14.
is suggested.

2
Reading Part A
Part A Answer Sheet continued
Summary Answers
15.
A recent study by Cannegieter et al, published in
16.
....(15).... investigated the risk factors for deep vein
thrombosis associated with various ....(16).... and
17.
....(17)..... Based on a study of ....(18).... 2,000 patients,
the researchers found that travelling by ....(19).... had a 18.
....(20).... risk to that of flying.
19.
For those still prepared to take the risk of travelling,
20.
common ....(21).... include ....(22).... in the leg, often
associated with swelling, redness, increased warmth
21.
and bluish ....(23).... However, the most significant
symptom linked to deep vein thrombosis is ....(24).... 22.
23.
According to Cannegieter et al there are several risk 24.

factors among the general population which may
25.
increase susceptibility to deep vein thrombosis. Bus
or train travelers with factor V Leiden who were
26.
overweight, were taller than ....(25).... or who took
....(26).... had a ....(27).... high risk. Whereas ....(28)..... led 27.
to an ....(29).... thrombosis risk for travelers who were
....(30).... 160cm. 28.
29.
30.
TOTAL SCORE

3
Reading Part A
Part A
Instructions
right hand side.
Text 1
Economy Class Syndrome
International flights are suspected of contributing to the formation of
DVT in susceptible people, although the research evidence is currently
divided. Some airlines prefer to err on the side of caution and offer
suggestions to passengers on how to reduce the risk of DVT. Suggestions
include:
• Wear loose clothes
• Avoid cigarettes and alcohol
• Move about the cabin whenever possible
• Don’t sit with your legs crossed
• Perform leg and foot stretches and exercises while seated
• Consult with your doctor before travelling
Text 2
Previous research
Venous thrombosis was first linked to air travel in 1954, and as air travel has
become more and more common, many case reports and case series have
been published since. Several clinical studies have shown an association
between air travel and the risk of venous thrombosis.
English researchers proposed, in a paper published in the Lancet, that flying

directly increases a person's risk. The report found that in a series of
individuals who died suddenly at Heathrow Airport, death occurred far more
often in the arrival than in the departure area. Two similar studies reported
that the risk of pulmonary embolism in air travelers increased with the
distance traveled.
In terms of absolute risk, two studies found similar results: one performed
in New Zealand found a frequency of 1% of venous thrombosis in 878
individuals who had traveled by air for at least 10 hours. The other was a
German study which found venous thrombotic events in 2.8% of 964
individuals who had traveled for more than 8 hours in an airplane.
In contrast, a Dutch study found no link between DVT and long distance
travel of any kind.

4
Reading Part A
Text 3
Symptoms
• Pain and tenderness in the leg
• Pain on extending the foot
• Tenderness in calf (the most important sign)
• Swelling of the lower leg, ankle and foot
• Redness in the leg
• Bluish skin discoloration
• Increased warmth in the leg
Text 4
Title: Travel-Related Venous Thrombosis: Results from a Large
Population-Based Case Control (2006)
Authors: Suzanne C. Cannegieter1, Carine J. M. Doggen1, Hans C. van
Houwelingen2, Frits R. Rosendaal
Background
Recent studies have indicated an increased risk of venous thrombosis after
air travel. Nevertheless, questions on the magnitude of risk, the underlying
mechanism, and modifying factors remain unanswered.
Methods
We studied the effect of various modes of transport and duration of travel
on the risk of venous thrombosis in a large ongoing case-control study on
risk factors for venous thrombosis in an unselected population. We also
assessed the combined effect of travel in relation to body mass index,
height, and oral contraceptive use.
Since March 1999, consecutive patients younger than 70 years of age with a
first venous thrombosis have been invited to participate in the study, with
their partners serving as matched control individuals. Information has been
collected on acquired and genetic risk factors for venous thrombosis.
Results:
Of 1,996 patients, 233 had traveled for more than 4 hours in the 8 weeks
preceding the event. Traveling in general was found to increase the risk of
venous thrombosis. The risk of flying was similar to the risks of traveling by
bus or train. The risk was highest in the first week after traveling. Travel by
bus, or train led to a high relative risk of thrombosis in individuals with
factor V Leiden, in those who had a body mass index of more than 30, those
who were more than 190 cm tall , and in those who used oral
contraceptives. For air travel, those people shorter than 160 cm had an
increased risk of thrombosis after air travel as well.
Conclusions
The risk of venous thrombosis after travel is moderately increased for all
modes of travel. Subgroups exist in which the risk is highly increased.

5
Reading Part A
DVT: Answer key and explanation

Answer Details
1. Air travel/flying or
words of similar Type 4: Deduce meaning by the content
meaning

2. 1954
Type 1
3. Lancet
Type 1

4. risk
Type 1

5. died Type 2: change word form: death (noun)  died
(verb)
6. arrival
Type 1

7. departure
Type 1

8. in contrast
Type 1

9. research evidence
Type 1 & 4: requires understanding of meaning

10. suggestions Type 1

11. avoiding/the
Type 2: change word form: avoid (imperative verb)
avoidance of
 avoiding (gerund)

12. not
recommended/not
Type 4: Need to use an original word to make the
advised or words of
meaning match
similar meaning

13. exercising Type 2 : change word form: exercises (noun) 
exercising (verb)
14. consultation Type 2: change word form: consult (verb) 
consultation(noun)
15. 2006 Type 3: Note preposition “in” as clue for time reference
16. modes of transport
Type 1

17. duration of travel
Type 1

18. almost/nearly/just
under or words of Type 4: Need to use an original word to make the
similar meaning meaning match

19. bus or train Type 1

6
Reading Part A

20. similar
Type 1

21. symptoms
Type 1

22. pain and tenderness
Type 1

23. skin discolouration Type 1
24. tenderness in calf Type 1
25. 190cm
Type 3

26. oral contraceptives
Type 1

Type 2 change word form: relative(adjective) 
27. relatively
relatively (adverb)
28. air travel Type 1
29. increased
Type 1

30. shorter than Type 1

7
Reading Part A
DVT: Answers highlighted in text

Text 1
Economy Class Syndrome
International flights are suspected of contributing to the formation of DVT in susceptible people, although the
(9)research evidence is currently divided. Some airlines prefer to err on the side of caution and offer
(10)suggestions to passengers on how to reduce the risk of DVT. Suggestions include:
• Wear loose clothes
• (11)Avoid cigarettes and alcohol
• Move about the cabin whenever possible
• Don’t sit with your legs crossed (12) i.e not recommended
• Perform leg and foot stretches and (13)do exercises while seated
• (14)Consult (tation)with your doctor before travelling
Text 2
Previous research
Venous thrombosis was first linked to air travel in (2)1954, and as air travel has become more and more common,
many case reports and case series have been published since. Several clinical studies have shown an association
between air travel and the risk of venous thrombosis.
English researchers proposed, in a paper published in the (3) Lancet, that flying directly increases a person's (4)
risk. The report found that in a series of individuals who died suddenly at Heathrow Airport, (5)death occurred far
more often in the (6)arrival than in the (7)departure area. Two similar studies reported that the risk of pulmonary
embolism in air travelers increased with the distance traveled.
In terms of absolute risk, two studies found similar results: one performed in New Zealand found a frequency of 1%
of venous thrombosis in 878 individuals who had traveled by air for at least 10 hours. The other was a German
study which found venous thrombotic events in 2.8% of 964 individuals who had traveled for more than 8 hours in
an airplane.
(8)In contrast, a Dutch study found no link between DVT and long distance travel of any kind.
Text 3
(21)Symptoms
• (22)Pain and tenderness in the leg
• Pain on extending the foot
• (24)Tenderness in calf (the most important sign)
• Swelling of the lower leg, ankle and foot
• Redness in the leg
• Bluish (23)skin discoloration
• Increased warmth in the leg
Text 4
Title: Travel-Related Venous Thrombosis: Results from a Large Population-Based Case Control (15) (2006)
Authors: Suzanne C. Cannegieter1, Carine J. M. Doggen1, Hans C. van Houwelingen2, Frits R. Rosendaal
Study
Background
Recent studies have indicated an increased risk of venous thrombosis after air travel. Nevertheless, questions on
the magnitude of risk, the underlying mechanism, and modifying factors remain unanswered.
Methods
We studied the effect of various (16)modes of transport and (17)duration of travel on the risk of venous thrombosis
in a large ongoing case-control study on risk factors for venous thrombosis in an unselected population. We also
assessed the combined effect of travel in relation to body mass index, height, and oral contraceptive use.
Since March 1999, consecutive patients younger than 70 years of age with a first venous thrombosis have been
invited to participate in the study, with their partners serving as matched control individuals. Information has
been collected on acquired and genetic risk factors for venous thrombosis.
Results:
Of (18)1,996 patients, 233 had traveled for more than 4 hours in the 8 weeks preceding the event. Traveling in
general was found to increase the risk of venous thrombosis. The risk of flying was (20) similar to the risks of
traveling by (19)bus or train. The risk was highest in the first week after traveling. Travel by bus, or train led to a
high (27) relative risk of thrombosis in individuals with factor V Leiden, in those who had a body mass index of
more than 30, those who were more than (25)190 cm tall , and in those who used (26)oral contraceptives. For
(28)air travel, those people (30) shorter than 160 cm had an (29) increased risk of thrombosis after air travel as
well.
Conclusions
The risk of venous thrombosis after travel is moderately increased for all modes of travel. Subgroups exist in which
the risk is highly increased.

1
Reading Part A

Instructions
for this task.
right hand side.
Summary Answers
1.
Research suggests that there is a ....(1).... that ....(2)....

2.
animals could introduce a human-transmissible
....(3).... leading to a deadly pandemic. 3.
The Australia Government has also ....(4).... that 4.
H1N1 influenza is still a threat to all Australians and

5.
therefore vaccination ....(5).... for community
protection. The vaccine is ....(6).... and is 6.
recommended for pregnant women, people suffering
from ....(7).... , aborigines, young children and people 7.
suffering from ....(8).... Vaccination provides
protection to individuals and also ....(9).... the flu 8.
from spreading. H1N1 has already the cause of

9.
....(10).... and even death in ....(11).... this Autumn.
10.
If a new strain of influenza does indeed break out,
the questions remains as to whether countries are 11.
adequately prepared. A ....(12).... study by Alonso
and Shuck-Paim investigated this issue by ....(13).... 12.
government websites in a study of 10 countries, of

13.
which ....(14)..... % were industrialised nations.
14.

2
Reading Part A
Part A Answer Sheet continued
Summary Answers
15.
According to the data, there was inconsistency in

16.
recommendations given. Coughing etiquette and
....(15)..... were the most common recommendations, 17.
followed by isolation of ....(16)..... Citizens were
advised to avoid touching the eyes and mouth in 18.
....(17)..... . Regarding treatment at home, young

19.
people were advised not to ....(18).... aspirin and it
was also recommended to drink water ....(19)..... . 20.
Only....(20)..... advised their citizens to store masks.
21.
Businesses also need to be ....(21).... and guidelines
warn that business owners may be affected 22.
financially. It is also ....(22).....to ensure good hygiene

23.
practice among staff as well as planning for ....(23)....
Decisions on whether to ....(24).... in case of a 24.
pandemic need to be made. Businesses may also be
in a position to offer ....(25).... . 25.
As identified by the research of Alonso & Schuck- 26.
Paim, ....(26).... which concentrates on slowing down

27.
transmission is required. It must also be ....(27)....and
provide ....(28).... with clear and comprehensive 28.
guidelines.
TOTAL SCORE

3
Reading Part A
Part A
Instructions
right hand side.
Text 1
Category Specific Recommendation Number of
countries
adopting it
Reducing 1. Isolation at home of infected individuals 1. 8
Transmission to 2. Treatment of patient at home (mild symptoms) 2. 6
others 3. Call before visiting doctor 3. 3
4. Coughing etiquette 4. 10
5. Call before visiting doctor 5. 3
Prevention measures 1. Not to touch eyes and mouth 1. 7

2. Washing hands 2. 10
Treating patients at 1. Antiviral without need to visit doctor 1. 5

home 2. Regular water consumption 2. 4
3. How to treat fever 3. 4
4. Avoid aspirin for young individuals 4. 4
Preparation for 1. Store water 1. 2
home isolation 2. Store food 2. 2
3. Store medicine 3. 2
4. Store masks 4. 1
Table 1: Official preparedness recommendations & guidelines provided by government
sources in 10 countries.
Text 2
Australian Government Announcement
H1N1 Vaccine now available (18 January 2010)

H1N1 influenza remains a threat and all Australians are encouraged to get
vaccinated to protect both themselves and those who are vulnerable in the
community. There is clear evidence of serious or fatal health complications
for some people who catch this flu. As with all flu viruses, H1N1 influenza
spreads easily from person to person. By getting vaccinated you not only
protect yourself but can help stop this flu spreading. In the northern
hemisphere pandemic influenza arrived in autumn, earlier than seasonal
influenza and it has caused thousands of hospitalisations as well as some
deaths. All people can receive the free vaccine but some people are at
higher risk of suffering serious complications from H1N1 Influenza.
Vaccination is strongly recommended for pregnant women, people with
underlying chronic conditions, indigenous Australians, people who are
severely obese and young children.

4
Reading Part A
Text 3
Title: Public preparedness guidance for a severe influenza pandemic in

different countries: a qualitative assessment and critical overview
Authors: Alonso, W.J & Schuck-Paim, C (2009)

Study
Background
The possibility of a human catastrophe produced by a novel, virulent and
human-transmissible influenza strain introduced from wild and domestic
animals is considered a plausible modern threat by renowned influenza
experts.
Methods
We examined the governmental websites from 10 countries with North
America, South America, Europe, Oceania, Africa and Asia being
represented in our sample, with 6 out of the 10 countries representing
industrialized nations, and the sum of these 10 countries’ populations
representing approximately 30% of the world population.
We tabulated the existence of specific recommendations addressing the
following aspects: how to prevent and reduce transmission of a respiratory
disease, how to prepare for treating infected patients at home, how
businesses should prepare, how to help the most vulnerable individuals of
the neighbourhood and how to prepare for home isolation
Results
In the current study, focused on the preparedness guidelines issued to the
population by 10 countries, we found that, while many positive
recommendations were provided, the set of recommendations issued by
most countries was not comprehensive enough for severe influenza
scenarios. Moreover, as we discussed along with the exposition of the
results, some of the recommendations provided have proven to be
inadequate to reduce transmission and enable an efficient allocation of
limited resources to attend the most in need.
Conclusions
A global initiative is required focussing on opportunities for slowing down
transmission in a cost effective way by providing clear, comprehensive and
sound guidelines to the public.
Text 4
Guidelines for Business
• Encourage good personal hygiene practice
• Plan for staff absences based on personal infection and support for
family members who may be infected
• Decide if your business will stay open during the pandemic
• Have contingency plans in place
• Be prepared for financial losses
• Consider ways of offering community support

5
Reading Part A
Influenza: Answer key and explanation

Answer Details
1. possibility
Type 1

2. wild and domestic Type 1
3. influenza strain
Type 1

4. announced Type 2: change word form: announcement (noun) 
announced (verb)
5. is encouraged/is Type 2: change grammar to match subject:
recommended Australians are encouraged vaccination is
encouraged
6. free
Type 1

7. underlying chronic
conditions Type 1

8. obesity/severe
Type 2: change word form:obese (adjective) 
obesity
obesity (noun)

9. can prevent
Type 1

10. thousands of
Type 1
hospitalisations

11. the northern
hemisphere Type 1

12. 2009
Type 3

13. examining Type 2 : change word form: examined (verb) 
examining(gerund) Handy clue…after prepositions such as by
the ______ing form if often used.
14. 60
Type 3: 6 out of 10 =60%

15. washing hands Type 1
16. infected individuals
Type 1

17. 7 countries
Type 3: Need to read the table headings

18. take or words of
similar meaning Type 4: create word to make meaning correct

Type 2: change word form: regular (adjective) 
19. regularly
regularly(adverb)

6
Reading Part A
20. 1 country Type 3/4: Need to read the table headings and use
singular form of countries
21. prepared/ready or
words of similar Type 4: Add word based on the subject, requires
meaning overall comprehension

22. important/necessary
/advised/recommended
Type 4: Add word based on the subject, requires
or words of similar
overall comprehension
meaning

Type 1
23. staff absences

24. stay open Type 1
25. community support
Type 1

26. a global initiative
Type 1

27. cost effective Type 1
28. the public Type 1
Influenza: Answers highlighted in text

Text 1
Category Specific Recommendation Number of
countries
adopting it
Reducing Transmission to 6. Isolation at home of (16)infected individuals 6. 8
others 7. Treatment of patient at home (mild symptoms) 7. 6
9. Coughing etiquette 9. 10
Prevention measures 3. Not to touch eyes and mouth 3. (17)7

4. (15)Washing hands 4. 10
Treating patients at home 5. Antiviral without need to visit doctor 5. 5

6. (19)Regular water consumption 6. 4
7. How to treat fever 7. 4
8. (18) Avoid aspirin for young individuals 8. 4
Preparation for home 5. Store water 5. 2
isolation 6. Store food 6. 2
7. Store medicine 7. 2
8. Store masks 8. (20)1
Table 1: Official preparedness recommendations & guidelines provided by government sources in 10 countries.

7
Reading Part A
Text 2
Australian Government (4)Announcement
H1N1 Vaccine now available (18 January 2010)

H1N1 influenza remains a threat and all Australians are (5)encouraged to get vaccinated to protect both themselves and those
who are vulnerable in the community. There is clear evidence of serious or fatal health complications for some people who catch
this flu. As with all flu viruses, H1N1 influenza spreads easily from person to person. By getting vaccinated you not only protect
yourself but (9)can prevent this flu spreading. In (11)the northern hemisphere pandemic influenza arrived in autumn, earlier than
seasonal influenza and it has caused (10)thousands of hospitalisations as well as some deaths. All people can receive the (6)free
vaccine but some people are at higher risk of suffering serious complications from H1N1 Influenza. Vaccination is strongly
recommended for pregnant women, people with (7)underlying chronic conditions, indigenous Australians, people who are
severely (8)obese and young children.
Text 3
Title: Public preparedness guidance for a severe influenza pandemic in different countries: a qualitative
assessment and critical overview
Authors: Alonso, W.J & Schuck-Paim, C (12) (2009)

Study
Background
The (1)possibility of a human catastrophe produced by a novel, virulent and human-transmissible (3)influenza
strain introduced from (2)wild and domestic animals is considered a plausible modern threat by renowned
influenza experts.
Methods
We (13)examined the governmental websites from 10 countries with North America, South America, Europe,
Oceania, Africa and Asia being represented in our sample, with (14)6 out of the 10 countries representing
industrialized nations, and the sum of these 10 countries’ populations representing approximately 30% of the world
population.
We tabulated the existence of specific recommendations addressing the following aspects: how to prevent and
reduce transmission of a respiratory disease, how to prepare for treating infected patients at home, how
businesses should prepare, how to help the most vulnerable individuals of the neighbourhood and how to prepare
for home isolation
Results
In the current study, focused on the preparedness guidelines issued to the population by 10 countries, we found
that, while many positive recommendations were provided, the set of recommendations issued by most countries
was not comprehensive enough for severe influenza scenarios. Moreover, as we discussed along with the exposition
of the results, some of the recommendations provided have proven to be inadequate to reduce transmission and
enable an efficient allocation of limited resources to attend the most in need.
Conclusions
(26)A global initiative is required focussing on opportunities for slowing down transmission in a (27)cost effective
way by providing clear, comprehensive and sound guidelines to (28)the public.
Text 4
Guidelines for Businesses
• Encourage good personal hygiene practice
• Plan for (23)staff absences based on personal infection and support for family members who may be
infected
• Decide if your business will (24)stay open during the pandemic
• Have contingency plans in place
• Be prepared for financial losses
• Consider ways of offering (25)community support

OET Online Reading Part B

Part B : Multiple Choice Questions Time Limit: 20~25 Minutes
Task 2: The Mental Health Risks of Adolescent Cannabis Use

Author: Wayne Hall
Source: Public Library of Science
Paragraph 1
Since the early 1970s, when cannabis first began to be widely used, the proportion of
young people who have used cannabis has steeply increased and the age of first use
has declined. Most cannabis users now start in the mid-to-late teens, an important
period of psychosocial transition when misadventures can have large adverse effects
on a young person’s life chances. Dependence is an underappreciated risk of cannabis
use. There has been an increase in the numbers of adults requesting help to stop using
cannabis in many developed countries, including Australia and the Netherlands.
Regular cannabis users develop tolerance to many of the effects of delta-9-
tetrahydrocannabinol, and those seeking help to stop often report withdrawal
symptoms. Withdrawal symptoms have been reported by 80% of male and 60% of
female adolescents seeking treatment for cannabis dependence.
Paragraph 2
In epidemiological studies in the early 1980s and 1990s, it was found that 4% of the
United States population had met diagnostic criteria for cannabis abuse or dependence
at some time in their lives and this risk is much higher for daily users and persons
who start using at an early age. Only a minority of cannabis-dependent people in
surveys report seeking treatment, but among those who do, fewer than half succeed in
remaining abstinent for as long as a year. Those who use cannabis more often than
weekly in adolescence are more likely to develop dependence, use other illicit drugs,
and develop psychotic symptoms and psychosis.
Paragraph 3
Surveys of adolescents in the United States over the past 30 years have consistently
shown that almost all adolescents who had tried cocaine and heroin had first used
alcohol, tobacco, and cannabis, in that order; that regular cannabis users are the most
likely to use heroin and cocaine; and that the earlier the age of first cannabis use, the
more likely a young person is to use other illicit drugs. One explanation for this
pattern is that cannabis users obtain the drug from the same black market as other
illicit drugs, thereby providing more opportunities to use these drug.
Paragraph 4
In most developed countries, the debate about cannabis policy is often simplified to a
choice between two options: to legalize cannabis because its use is harmless, or to
continue to prohibit its use because it is harmful. As a consequence, evidence that
cannabis use causes harm to adolescents is embraced by supporters of cannabis
prohibition and is dismissed as “flawed” by proponents of cannabis legalisation.
This resource was developed by OET Online 1

Website: http://oetonline.com.au Email: oetonline@gmail.com


Paragraph 5
A major challenge in providing credible health education to young people about the
risks of cannabis use is in presenting the information in a persuasive way that
accurately reflects the remaining uncertainties about these risks. The question of how
best to provide this information to young people requires research on their views
about these issues and the type of information they find most persuasive. It is clear
from US experience that it is worth trying to change adolescent views about the health
risks of cannabis; a sustained decline in cannabis use during the 1980s was preceded
by increases in the perceived risks of cannabis use among young people.
Paragraph 6
Cannabis users can become dependent on cannabis. The risk (around 10%) is lower
than that for alcohol, nicotine, and opiates, but the earlier the age a young person
begins to use cannabis, the higher the risk. Regular users of cannabis are more likely
to use heroin, cocaine, or other drugs, but the reasons for this remain unclear. Some of
the relationship is attributable to the fact that young people who become regular
cannabis users are more likely to use other illicit drugs for other reasons, and that they
are in social environments that provide more opportunities to use these drugs.
Paragraph 7
It is also possible that regular cannabis use produces changes in brain function that
make the use of other drugs more attractive. The most likely explanation of the
association between cannabis and the use of other illicit drugs probably involves a
combination of these factors. As a rule of thumb, adolescents who use cannabis more
than weekly probably increase their risk of experiencing psychotic symptoms and
developing psychosis if they are vulnerable—if they have a family member with a
psychosis or other mental disorder, or have already had unusual psychological
experiences after using cannabis. This vulnerability may prove to be genetically
mediated.
Part B : Multiple Choice Questions

1. In paragraph 1, which of the following statements does not match the
information on cannabis use?
a. The use of cannabis by teenagers has been increasing over the past 40
years.
b. Cannabis use has adverse effects on young people.
c. Withdrawal symptoms are more common in males.
d. People try cannabis for the first time at a younger age than previously.

2. Epidemiological studies in the 1980s & 1990s have found that….
a. 4% of the US population currently suffer from cannabis abuse or
dependence.
b. starting cannabis use at a young age increases the risk of dependence
or abuse.
c. only a minority of surveys researched treatment options for cannabis
dependent people.
d. people who start cannabis use at a young age have high risk of
becoming daily users.


3. The main point of paragraph 3 is that…

a. alcohol, tobacco and cannabis can lead to the use of heroin and
cocaine.
b. most adolescents who have used cocaine or heroin first try alcohol,
followed by tobacco and then cannabis.
c. there is a clear link between habitual cannabis use and the use of
heroin and cannabis.
d. the black market is the main source of illicit drugs.
4. Which of the following would be the most appropriate heading for

paragraph 4?
a. Opinion on an effective cannabis policy is divided.
b. Cannabis use is harmful to adolescents and should be prohibited.
c. Cannabis use is a serious problem in a majority of developed countries.
d. Cannabis use should be legalised.
5. The word closest in meaning credible in paragraph 5 is…

a. believable
b. possible
c. high quality
d. inexpensive
6. Cannabis use in the US declined during the 1980s because…

a. parents were able to explain the health risks of cannabis use.
b. there was good health education regarding the health risks associated
with cannabis use available at that time.
c. cannabis had increased in price
d. young people had became more worried about its effect on their health
7. The word relationship in paragraph 6 refers to the connection between…

a. legal drugs such as alcohol and nicotine and illegal drugs such as
cannabis, cocaine and heroin.
b. cannabis use and dependency.
c. the use of hard drugs such as heroin and cocaine and cannabis use.
d. regular users and their partners.
8. Which of the following statements best matches the information in the last
paragraph?
a. Regular cannabis use produces changes in brain function.
b. Regular adolescent cannabis users with a genetic predisposition to
mental disorders have an increased risk of encountering psychosis.
c. Regular adolescent users of cannabis are vulnerable to psychosis.
d. Occasional use of cannabis can make other drugs more appealing.



Answer Key
1. b 2.b 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. d 7. c 8.b
Question 1
a) Incorrect: Mentioned
b) Correct: not mentioned (note: misadventures can have an adverse effect, but
nothing is mentioned directly about cannabis)
c) Incorrect: Mentioned
d) Incorrect: Mentioned
Question 2
a) Incorrect: Not currently, at some time in their lives.
b) Correct: risk (of abuse/dependence) is much higher for persons who start
using at an early age
c) Incorrect: play on word order
d) Incorrect: Not mentioned
Question 3
a) Incorrect: This is not stated and is logically incorrect.
b) Incorrect: The statement itself is correct, but it is not the main idea.
c) Correct: this sentence best summarises the main idea.
d) Incorrect: This is probably true, but it is not stated, nor is it the main idea.
Question 4
a) Correct: Yes: debate about cannabis policy is often simplified to a choice
between two options (therefore opinion is divided)
b) Incorrect: This is only one side of the debate.
c) Incorrect: This is not mentioned
d) Incorrect: This is the other side of the debate.
Question 5
a) Correct
b) Incorrect
c) Incorrect
d) Incorrect
Question 6
a) Incorrect: Parents not mentioned
b) Incorrect: Education not mentioned
c) Incorrect: No mention of price
d) Correct: preceded by increases in the perceived risks of cannabis use among
young people.
Question 7
a) Incorrect: Not mentioned
b) Incorrect: Not mentioned
c) Correct: See highlighted text
d) Incorrect: Partners not mentioned!
Question 8
a) Incorrect: Incomplete information
b) Correct: Meaning is the same, note use of synonyms i.e encountering for
experiencing
c) Incorrect: Only certain users, see B
d) Incorrect: Not occasional use, regular use.



Answers Highlighted
Task 2: The Mental Health Risks of Adolescent Cannabis Use
Paragraph 1
1 a)Since the early 1970s, when cannabis first began to be widely used, the proportion
of young people who have used cannabis has steeply increased and 1 d)the age of first
use has declined. Most cannabis users now start in the mid-to-late teens, an important
period of psychosocial transition when misadventures can have large adverse effects
on a young person’s life chances. Dependence is an underappreciated risk of cannabis
use. There has been an increase in the numbers of adults requesting help to stop using
cannabis in many developed countries, including Australia and the Netherlands.
Regular cannabis users develop tolerance to many of the effects of delta-9-
tetrahydrocannabinol, and those seeking help to stop often report withdrawal
symptoms. 1 c)Withdrawal symptoms have been reported by 80% of male and 60% of
female adolescents seeking treatment for cannabis dependence.
Paragraph 2
In epidemiological studies in the early 1980s and 1990s, it was found that 4% of the
United States population had met diagnostic criteria for 2 b)cannabis abuse or
dependence at some time in their lives and this risk is much higher for daily users and
persons who start using at an early age. Only a minority of cannabis-dependent people
in surveys report seeking treatment, but among those who do, fewer than half succeed
in remaining abstinent for as long as a year. Those who use cannabis more often than
weekly in adolescence are more likely to develop dependence, use other illicit drugs,
and develop psychotic symptoms and psychosis.
Paragraph 3
3 b)Surveys of adolescents in the United States over the past 30 years have
consistently shown that almost all adolescents who had tried cocaine and heroin had
first used alcohol, tobacco, and cannabis, in that order; that regular cannabis users are
the most likely to use heroin and cocaine; and that the earlier the age of first cannabis
use, the more likely a young person is to use other illicit drugs. One explanation for
this pattern is that cannabis users obtain the drug from the same black market as other
illicit drugs thereby providing more opportunities to use these drug.
Paragraph 4
In most developed countries, 4 a)the debate about cannabis policy is often simplified
to a choice between two options: to legalize cannabis because its use is harmless, or to
continue to prohibit its use because it is harmful. As a consequence, evidence that
cannabis use causes harm to adolescents is embraced by supporters of cannabis
prohibition and is dismissed as “flawed” by proponents of cannabis legalisation.
Paragraph 5
A major challenge in providing 5)credible health education to young people about the
risks of cannabis use is in presenting the information in a persuasive way that
accurately reflects the remaining uncertainties about these risks. The question of how
best to provide this information to young people requires research on their views


about these issues and the type of information they find most persuasive. It is clear
from US experience that it is worth trying to change adolescent views about the health
risks of cannabis; 6d) a sustained decline in cannabis use during the 1980s was
preceded by increases in the perceived risks of cannabis use among young people.
Paragraph 6
Cannabis users can become dependent on cannabis. The risk (around 10%) is lower
than that for alcohol, nicotine, and opiates, but the earlier the age a young person
begins to use cannabis, the higher the risk. Regular users of 7 c)cannabis are more
likely to use heroin, cocaine, or other drugs, but the reasons for this remain unclear.
Some of the relationship is attributable to the fact that young people who become
regular cannabis users are more likely to use other illicit drugs for other reasons, and
that they are in social environments that provide more opportunities to use these
drugs.
Paragraph 7
It is also possible that regular cannabis use produces changes in brain function that
make the use of other drugs more attractive. The most likely explanation of the
association between cannabis and the use of other illicit drugs probably involves a
combination of these factors. As a rule of thumb, 8 b)adolescents who use cannabis
more than weekly probably increase their risk of experiencing psychotic symptoms
and developing psychosis if they are vulnerable—if they have a family member with a
psychosis or other mental disorder, or have already had unusual psychological
experiences after using cannabis. This vulnerability may prove to be genetically
mediated.



Task 5
Fluoride
Goldman AS, Yee R, Holmgren CJ, Benzian H
Globalization and Health 2008, 4:7 (13 June 2008)
Paragraph 1
Globalization has provoked changes in many facets of human life, particularly in diet.
Trends in the development of dental caries in population have traditionally followed
developmental patterns where, as economies grow and populations have access to a
wider variety of food products as a result of more income and trade, the rate of tooth
decay begins to increase. As countries become wealthier, there is a trend to greater
preference for a more "western" diet, high in carbohydrates and refined sugars. Rapid
globalization of many economies has accelerated this process. These dietary changes
have a substantial impact on diseases such as diabetes and dental caries.
Paragraph 2
The cariogenic potential of diet emerges in areas where fluoride supplementation is
inadequate. Dental caries is a global health problem and has a significant negative
impact on quality of life, economic productivity, adult and children's general health
and development. Untreated dental caries in pre-school children is associated with
poorer quality of life, pain and discomfort, and difficulties in ingesting food that can
result in failure to gain weight and impaired cognitive development. Since low-
income countries cannot afford dental restorative treatment and in general the poor
are most vulnerable to the impacts of illness, they should be afforded a greater degree
of protection.
Paragraph 3
By WHO estimates, one third of the world's population have inadequate access to
needed medicines primarily because they cannot afford them. Despite the inclusion of
sodium fluoride in the World Health Organization's Essential Medicines Model List,
the global availability and accessibility of fluoride for the prevention of dental caries
remains a global problem. The optimal use of fluoride is an essential and basic public
health strategy in the prevention and control of dental caries, the most common non-
communicable disease on the planet. Although a whole range of effective fluoride
vehicles are available for fluoride use (drinking water, salt, milk, varnish, etc.), the
most widely used method for maintaining a constant low level of fluoride in the oral
environment is fluoride toothpaste.
Paragraph 4
More recently, the decline in dental caries amongst school children in Nepal has been
attributed to improved access to affordable fluoride toothpaste. For many low-income
nations, fluoride toothpaste is probably the only realistic population strategy for the
control and prevention of dental caries since cheaper alternatives such as water or salt
fluoridation are not feasible due to poor infrastructure and limited financial and
technological resources. The use of topical fluoride e.g. in the form of varnish or gels
for dental caries prevention is similarly impractical since it relies on repeated


applications of fluoride by trained personnel on an individual basis and therefore in
terms of cost cannot be considered as part of a population based preventive strategy.
Paragraph 5
The use of fluoride toothpaste is largely dependent upon its socio-cultural integration
in personal oral hygiene habits, availability and the ability of individuals to purchase
and use it on a regular basis. The price of fluoride toothpaste is believed to be too
high in some developing countries and this might impede equitable access. In a
survey conducted at a hospital dental clinic in Lagos, Nigeria 32.5% of the
respondents reported that the cost of toothpaste influenced their choice of brands and
54% also reported that the taste of toothpastes influenced their choice.
Paragraph 6
Taxes and tariffs on fluoride toothpaste can also significantly contribute to higher
prices, lower demand and inequity since they target the poor. Toothpastes are usually
classified as a cosmetic product and as such often highly taxed by governments. For
example, various taxes such as excise tax, VAT, local taxes as well as taxation on the
ingredients and packaging contribute to 25% of the retail cost of toothpaste in Nepal
and India, and 50% of the retail price in Burkina Faso. WHO continues to recommend
the removal taxes and tariffs on fluoride toothpastes. Any lost revenue can be restored
by higher taxes on sugar and high sugar containing foods, which are common risk
factors for dental caries, coronary heart disease, diabetes and obesity.
Paragraph 7
The production of toothpaste within a country has the potential to make fluoride
toothpaste more affordable than imported products. In Nepal, fluoride toothpaste was
limited to expensive imported products. However, due to successful advocacy for
locally manufactured fluoride toothpaste, the least expensive locally manufactured
fluoride toothpaste is now 170 times less costly than the most expensive import. In the
Philippines, local manufacturers are able to satisfy consumer preferences and compete
against multinationals by discounting the price of toothpaste by as much as 55%
against global brands; and typically receive a 40% profit margin compared to 70% for
multinational producers.
Paragraph 8
In view of the current extremely inequitable use of fluoride throughout countries and
regions, all efforts to make fluoride and fluoride toothpaste affordable and accessible
must be intensified. As a first step to addressing the issue of affordability of fluoride
toothpaste in the poorer countries in-depth country studies should be undertaken to
analyze the price of toothpaste in the context of the country economies.



1. Which of the following would be the most appropriate heading for
the paragraph 1?
a. High sugar intake and increasing tooth decay
b. Globalisation, dietary changes and declining dental health
c. Dietary changes in developing nations
d. Negative health effects of a western diet

2. Which of the following is not mentioned as a negative effect of
untreated dental caries in pre-school children?
a. Decreased mental alertness
b. Troubling chewing and swallowing food
c. Lower life quality
d. Reduced physical development

3. According to paragraph 3, which of the following statements is
correct?
a. Dental caries is the most contagious disease on earth.
b. Fluoride in drinking water is effective but rarely used
c. Fluoride is too expensive for a large proportion of the global
population.
d. Fluoride toothpaste is widely used by 2/3 of the world’s
population.

4. Fluoride toothpaste is considered the most effective strategy to
reduce dental caries in low income countries because…..
a. it is the most affordable.
b. topical fluoride is unavailable.
c. it does not require expensive infrastructure or training.
d. it was effective in Nepal.

5. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word impede?
a. stop
b. prevent
c. hinder
d. postpone

6. Regarding the issue of taxation in paragraph 6 which of the following
statements is most correct?
a. Income tax rates are higher in Burkina Faso than India or Nepal.
b. WHO recommends that tax on toothpaste be reduced .
c. Governments would like to reduce tax on toothpastes but can’t as
it is classified as a cosmetic.
d. WHO suggests taxing products with a high sugar content instead of
toothpastes.



7. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word advocacy?
a. marketing
b. demand
c. development
d. support

8. Statistics in paragraph 7 indicate that….
a. local products can’t compete with global products and make a
profit at the same time.
b. Philippine produced toothpaste is profitable while being less than
half the price of global brands.
c. in Nepal, fluoride toothpaste is limited to imported products which
are very expensive
d. toothpaste produced in the Philippines has a higher profit margin
than internationally produced toothpaste.

9. What would make the most suitable alternative title for the article?
a. Globalisation and declining dental health
b. Best practice in global fluoride supplementation
c. Increased dental problems in developing countries
d. Global affordability of fluoride toothpaste


Answer Key
1. b 2. a 3. c 4. c 5. c 6. d 7. d 8.b 9. d
Question 1
a) Incorrect: Too specific
b) Correct: Summarises both aspects of the paragraph
c) Incorrect: Covers only aspect of the paragraph
d) Incorrect: Covers only one aspect and too general
Question 2
a) Correct: decreased mental alertness and impaired cognitive
development are not the same thing
b) Incorrect: chewing and swallowing relate to ingestion
c) Incorrect: Mentioned
d) Incorrect: Similar in meaning to failure to gain weight
Question 3
a) Incorrect: opposite, non-contagious
b) Incorrect: Not given
c) Correct: 1/3 is a large proportion and fluoride is considered a medicine
d) Incorrect: Not given
Question 4
a) Incorrect: water or salt may be cheaper
b) Incorrect: Topical is available but it is impractical
c) Correct: This best summarises the reason given. See highlighted text.
d) Incorrect: The Nepal case is given as an example not a reason
Question 5
a) Incorrect: Too strong
b) Incorrect: Same meaning as A. So here is a tip, if two answers have the
same meaning then they can be eliminated
c) Correct : Closest in meaning
d) Incorrect: Off topic
Question 6
a) Incorrect: Income tax is not mentioned
b) Incorrect: Not reduced, removed
c) Incorrect: Not mentioned
d) Correct: See highlighted text
Question 7
a) Incorrect
b) Incorrect
c) Incorrect
d) Correct: Closest in meaning
Question 8
a) Incorrect: Opposite is true
b) Correct: See highlighted text
c) Incorrect: Opposite is true
d) Incorrect: No, opposite is true
Question 9
a) Incorrect: This is more background information
b) Incorrect: Too general
c) Incorrect: Covers only part of the article
d) Correct: Covers the main issue as discussed in paragraphs 4~8


Fluoride
Goldman AS, Yee R, Holmgren CJ, Benzian H
Globalization and Health 2008, 4:7 (13 June 2008)
Paragraph 1
1 b)Globalization has provoked changes in many facets of human life, particularly in
diet. Trends in the development of dental caries in population have traditionally
followed developmental patterns where, as economies grow and populations have
access to a wider variety of food products as a result of more income and trade, the
rate of tooth decay begins to increase. As countries become wealthier, there is a trend
to greater preference for a more "western" diet, high in carbohydrates and refined
sugars. Rapid globalization of many economies has accelerated this process. These
dietary changes have a substantial impact on diseases such as diabetes and dental
caries.
Paragraph 2
The cariogenic potential of diet emerges in areas where fluoride supplementation is
inadequate. Dental caries is a global health problem and has a significant negative
impact on quality of life, economic productivity, adult and children's general health
and development. 2 a)Untreated dental caries in pre-school children is associated with
poorer quality of life, pain and discomfort, and difficulties in ingesting food that can
result in failure to gain weight and impaired cognitive development. Since low-
income countries cannot afford dental restorative treatment and in general the poor
are most vulnerable to the impacts of illness, they should be afforded a greater degree
of protection.
Paragraph 3
By WHO estimates, 3 c) one third of the world's population have inadequate access to
needed medicines primarily because they cannot afford them. Despite the inclusion of
sodium fluoride in the World Health Organization's Essential Medicines Model List,
the global availability and accessibility of fluoride for the prevention of dental caries
remains a global problem. The optimal use of fluoride is an essential and basic public
health strategy in the prevention and control of dental caries, the most common non-
communicable disease on the planet. Although a whole range of effective fluoride
vehicles are available for fluoride use (drinking water, salt, milk, varnish, etc.), the
most widely used method for maintaining a constant low level of fluoride in the oral
environment is fluoride toothpaste.
Paragraph 4
More recently, the decline in dental caries amongst school children in Nepal has been
attributed to improved access to affordable fluoride toothpaste. For many low-income
nations, 4 c)fluoride toothpaste is probably the only realistic population strategy for
the control and prevention of dental caries since cheaper alternatives such as water or
salt fluoridation are not feasible due to poor infrastructure and limited financial and
technological resources. The use of topical fluoride e.g. in the form of varnish or gels
for dental caries prevention is similarly impractical since it relies on repeated
applications of fluoride by trained personnel on an individual basis and therefore in
terms of cost cannot be considered as part of a population based preventive strategy.


Paragraph 5
The use of fluoride toothpaste is largely dependent upon its socio-cultural integration
in personal oral hygiene habits, availability and the ability of individuals to purchase
and use it on a regular basis. The price of fluoride toothpaste is believed to be too
high in some developing countries and this might 5 c)impede equitable access. In a
survey conducted at a hospital dental clinic in Lagos, Nigeria 32.5% of the
respondents reported that the cost of toothpaste influenced their choice of brands and
54% also reported that the taste of toothpastes influenced their choice.
Paragraph 6
Taxes and tariffs on fluoride toothpaste can also significantly contribute to higher
prices, lower demand and inequity since they target the poor. Toothpastes are usually
classified as a cosmetic product and as such often highly taxed by governments. For
example, various taxes such as excise tax, VAT, local taxes as well as taxation on the
ingredients and packaging contribute to 25% of the retail cost of toothpaste in Nepal
and India, and 50% of the retail price in Burkina Faso. 6 d) WHO continues to
recommend the removal taxes and tariffs on fluoride toothpastes. Any lost revenue
can be restored by higher taxes on sugar and high sugar containing foods, which are
common risk factors for dental caries, coronary heart disease, diabetes and obesity.
Paragraph 7
The production of toothpaste within a country has the potential to make fluoride
toothpaste more affordable than imported products. In Nepal, fluoride toothpaste was
limited to expensive imported products. However, due to successful 7 d)advocacy for
locally manufactured fluoride toothpaste, the least expensive locally manufactured
fluoride toothpaste is now 170 times less costly than the most expensive import. In the
8 b) Philippines, local manufacturers are able to satisfy consumer preferences and
compete against multinationals by discounting the price of toothpaste by as much as
55% against global brands; and typically receive a 40% profit margin compared to
70% for multinational producers.
Paragraph 8
9 d)In view of the current extremely inequitable use of fluoride throughout countries
and regions, all efforts to make fluoride and fluoride toothpaste affordable and
accessible must be intensified. As a first step to addressing the issue of affordability
of fluoride toothpaste in the poorer countries in-depth country studies should be
undertaken to analyze the price of toothpaste in the context of the country economies.


Task 3
Seasonal Influenza Vaccination and the H1N1 Virus
Authors: Cécile Viboud & Lone Simonsen
As the novel pandemic influenza A (H1N1) virus spread around the world in
late spring 2009 with a well-matched pandemic vaccine not immediately
available, the question of partial protection afforded by seasonal influenza
vaccine arose. Coverage of the seasonal influenza vaccine had reached 30%–
40% in the general population in 2008–09 in the US and Canada, following
recent expansion of vaccine recommendations.
Unexpected Findings in a Sentinel Surveillance System
The spring 2009 pandemic wave was the perfect opportunity to address the
association between seasonal trivalent inactivated influenza vaccine (TIV)
and risk of pandemic illness. In an issue of PLoS Medicine, Danuta
Skowronski and colleagues report the unexpected results of a series of
Canadian epidemiological studies suggesting a counterproductive effect of
the vaccine. The findings are based on Canada's unique near-real-time
sentinel system for monitoring influenza vaccine effectiveness. Patients
with influenza-like illness who presented to a network of participating
physicians were tested for influenza virus by RT-PCR, and information on
demographics, clinical outcomes, and vaccine status was collected. In this
sentinel system, vaccine effectiveness may be measured by comparing
vaccination status among influenza-positive “case” patients with influenza-
negative “control” patients. This approach has produced accurate measures
of vaccine effectiveness for TIV in the past, with estimates of protection in
healthy adults higher when the vaccine is well-matched with circulating
influenza strains and lower for mismatched seasons. The sentinel system
was expanded to continue during April to July 2009, as the H1N1 virus
defied influenza seasonality and rapidly became dominant over seasonal
influenza viruses in Canada.
Additional Analyses and Proposed Biological Mechanisms
The Canadian sentinel study showed that receipt of TIV in the previous
season (autumn 2008) appeared to increase the risk of H1N1 illness by 1.03-
to 2.74-fold, even after adjustment for the comorbidities of age and
geography. The investigators were prudent and conducted multiple
sensitivity analyses to attempt to explain their perplexing findings.
Importantly, TIV remained protective against seasonal influenza viruses
circulating in April through May 2009, with an effectiveness estimated at
56%, suggesting that the system had not suddenly become flawed. TIV
appeared as a risk factor in people under 50, but not in seniors—although
senior estimates were imprecise due to lower rates of pandemic illness in
that age group. Interestingly, if vaccine were truly a risk factor in younger



adults, seniors may have fared better because their immune response to
vaccination is less rigorous.
Potential Biases and Findings from Other Countries
The Canadian authors provided a full description of their study population

and carefully compared vaccine coverage and prevalence of comorbidities in
controls with national or province-level age-specific estimates—the best one
can do short of a randomized study. In parallel, profound bias in
observational studies of vaccine effectiveness does exist, as was amply
documented in several cohort studies overestimating the mortality benefits
of seasonal influenza vaccination in seniors.
Given the uncertainty associated with observational studies, we believe it

would be premature to conclude that TIV increased the risk of 2009
pandemic illness, especially in light of six other contemporaneous
observational studies in civilian populations that have produced highly
conflicting results. We note the large spread of vaccine effectiveness
estimates in those studies; indeed, four of the studies set in the US and
Australia did not show any association whereas two Mexican studies
suggested a protective effect of 35%–73%.
Policy Implications and a Way Forward
The alleged association between seasonal vaccination and 2009 H1N1 illness
remains an open question, given the conflicting evidence from available
research. Canadian health authorities debated whether to postpone
seasonal vaccination in the autumn of 2009 until after a second pandemic
wave had occurred, but decided to follow normal vaccine recommendations
instead because of concern about a resurgence of seasonal influenza viruses
during the 2009–10 season. This illustrates the difficulty of making policy
decisions in the midst of a public health crisis, when officials must rely on
limited and possibly biased evidence from observational data, even in the
best possible scenario of a well-established sentinel monitoring system
already in place.
What happens next? Given the timeliness of the Canadian sentinel system,
data on the association between seasonal TIV and risk of H1N1 illness during
the autumn 2009 pandemic wave will become available very soon, and will
be crucial in confirming or refuting the earlier Canadian results. In addition,
evidence may be gained from disease patterns during the autumn 2009
pandemic wave in other countries and from immunological studies
characterizing the baseline immunological status of vaccinated and
unvaccinated populations. Overall, this perplexing experience in Canada
teaches us how to best react to disparate and conflicting studies and can aid
in preparing for the next public health crisis.




1. The question of partial protection against H1N1 arose…
a. before spring 2009
b. during Spring 2009
c. after spring 2009
d. during 2008-09
2. According to Danuta Skowronski….

a. the inactivated influenza vaccine may not be having the desired effects.
b. Canada’s near-real-time sentinel system is unique.
c. the epidemiological studies were counterproductive
d. the inactivated influenza vaccine has proven to be ineffective.
3. The vaccine achieved higher rates of protection in healthy adults when….

a. it was supported by physicians.
b. the sentinel system was expanded.
c. used in the right season.
d. it was matched with other current influenza strains.
4. Which one of the following is closest in meaning to the word prudent?

a. anxious
b. cautious
c. busy
d. confused

5. The Canadian sentinel study demonstrated that…..
a. age and geography had no effect on the vaccine’s effectiveness.
b. vaccinations on senior citizens is less effective than on younger people.
c. the vaccination was no longer effective.
d. the risk of H1N1 seemed to be higher among people who received the
TIV vaccination.
6. Which of the following sentences best summarises the writers’ opinion

regarding the uncertainty associated with observational studies?
a. More studies are needed to determine whether TIV increased the risk
of the 2009 pandemic illness.
b. It is too early to tell whether the risk of catching the 2009 pandemic
illness increased due to TIV.
c. The Australian and Mexican studies prove that there is no association
between TIV and increased risk of catching the 2009 pandemic illness.
d. Civilian populations are less at risk of catching the 2009 pandemic
illness.



7. Which one of the following is closest in meaning to the word alleged?

a. reported
b. likely
c. suspected
d. possible
8. Canadian health authorities did not postpone the Autumn 2009 seasonal
vaccination because…
a. of a fear seasonal influenza viruses would reappear in the 2009-10
season.
b. there was too much conflicting evidence regarding the effectiveness of
the vaccine.
c. the sentinel monitoring system was well established.
d. observational data may have been biased.
9. What would make the most suitable alternative title for the article?
a. Current research on H1N1 and other influenza strains
b. Errors in Canadian health policy
c. Possible link between influenza vaccination and increased risk of
H1N1 illness.
d. Unreliable H1N1 and influenza vaccination research



Answer Key
1. b 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. b 7. c 8.a 9. c
Question 1
a) Incorrect
b) Correct: during is a synonym for as
c) Incorrect
d) Incorrect
Question 2
a) Correct: counterproductive can mean not achieving what you want
b) Incorrect: the system is unique but it has nothing to do with Danuta
Skowronski
c) Incorrect: it is not the studies that were counterproductive
d) Incorrect: This is a suggestion not a fact
Question 3
a) Incorrect: This is not stated
b) Incorrect: This is not stated
c) Incorrect: This is not stated
d) Correct: Refer highlighted text.
Question 4
a) Incorrect
b) Correct: The meaning can be deduced by the fact that they conducted
several tests so were therefore cautious
c) Incorrect
d) Incorrect
Question 5
a) Incorrect: no connection
b) Incorrect: not mentioned
c) Incorrect : it had a limited effect
d) Correct: Refer highlighted text
Question 6
a) Incorrect: More studies not mentioned
b) Correct: Premature to conclude means too early to tell
c) Incorrect: Nothing was proven
d) Incorrect
Question 7
a) Incorrect
b) Incorrect
c) Correct: The meaning can be deduced by the overall discussion in the
article
d) Incorrect
Question 8
a) Correct: See highlighted text
b) Incorrect: This is a true fact but not the answer to the question
c) Incorrect: This is also a true fact but not the answer to the question
d) Incorrect: This is also a true fact but not the answer to the question
Question 9
a) Incorrect: Too general
b) Incorrect: This opinionis not stated in the article
c) Correct: This issue is raised several times in the text including in
questions 2 & 5
d) Incorrect: The research results have been inconsistent bit not unreliable.



Answers Highlighted

Does Seasonal Influenza Vaccination Increase the Risk of Illness with the
2009 A/H1N1 Pandemic Virus? by Cécile Viboud & Lone Simonsen
1 a) As the novel pandemic influenza A (H1N1) virus spread around the world
in late spring 2009 with a well-matched pandemic vaccine not immediately
available, the question of partial protection afforded by seasonal influenza
vaccine arose. Coverage of the seasonal influenza vaccine had reached 30%–
40% in the general population in 2008–09 in the US and Canada, following
recent expansion of vaccine recommendations.
Unexpected Findings in a Sentinel Surveillance System
The spring 2009 pandemic wave was the perfect opportunity to address the
association between seasonal trivalent inactivated influenza vaccine (TIV)
and risk of pandemic illness. In an issue of PLoS Medicine, Danuta
Skowronski and colleagues report the unexpected results of a series of
Canadian epidemiological studies 2 a) & 9 c)suggesting a counterproductive
effect of the vaccine. The findings are based on Canada's unique near-real-
time sentinel system for monitoring influenza vaccine effectiveness.
Patients with influenza-like illness who presented to a network of
participating physicians were tested for influenza virus by RT-PCR, and
information on demographics, clinical outcomes, and vaccine status was
collected. In this sentinel system, vaccine effectiveness may be measured
by comparing vaccination status among influenza-positive “case” patients
with influenza-negative “control” patients. This approach has produced
accurate measures of vaccine effectiveness for TIV in the past, 3 d)with
estimates of protection in healthy adults higher when the vaccine is well-
matched with circulating influenza strains and lower for mismatched
seasons. The sentinel system was expanded to continue during April to July
2009, as the pH1N1 virus defied influenza seasonality and rapidly became
dominant over seasonal influenza viruses in Canada.
Additional Analyses and Proposed Biological Mechanisms
5 d) & 9 c)The Canadian sentinel study showed that receipt of TIV in the
previous season (autumn 2008) appeared to increase the risk of H1N1 illness
by 1.03- to 2.74-fold, even after adjustment for the comorbidities of age
and geography. 4 a)The investigators were prudent and conducted multiple
sensitivity analyses to attempt to explain their perplexing findings.
Importantly, TIV remained protective against seasonal influenza viruses
circulating in April through May 2009, with an effectiveness estimated at
56%, suggesting that the system had not suddenly become flawed. TIV
appeared as a risk factor in people under 50, but not in seniors—although
senior estimates were imprecise due to lower rates of pandemic illness in
that age group. Interestingly, if vaccine were truly a risk factor in younger
adults, seniors may have fared better because their immune response to
vaccination is less rigorous.


Potential Biases and Findings from Other Countries
The Canadian authors provided a full description of their study population

and carefully compared vaccine coverage and prevalence of comorbidities in
controls with national or province-level age-specific estimates—the best one
can do short of a randomized study. In parallel, profound bias in
observational studies of vaccine effectiveness does exist, as was amply
documented in several cohort studies overestimating the mortality benefits
of seasonal influenza vaccination in seniors.
Given the uncertainty associated with observational studies, 6 b) we believe

it would be premature to conclude that TIV increased the risk of 2009
pandemic illness, especially in light of six other contemporaneous
observational studies in civilian populations that have produced highly
conflicting results. We note the large spread of vaccine effectiveness
estimates in those studies; indeed, four of the studies set in the US and
Australia did not show any association whereas two Mexican studies
suggested a protective effect of 35%–73%.
Policy Implications and a Way Forward
The 7 c) alleged association between seasonal vaccination and 2009 H1N1

illness remains an open question, given the conflicting evidence from
available research. 8 a)Canadian health authorities debated whether to
postpone seasonal vaccination in the autumn of 2009 until after a second
pandemic wave had occurred, but decided to follow normal vaccine
recommendations instead because of concern about a resurgence of
seasonal influenza viruses during the 2009–10 season. This illustrates the
difficulty of making policy decisions in the midst of a public health crisis,
when officials must rely on limited and possibly biased evidence from
observational data, even in the best possible scenario of a well-established
sentinel monitoring system already in place.
What happens next? Given the timeliness of the Canadian sentinel system,
data on the association between seasonal TIV and risk of H1N1 illness during
the autumn 2009 pandemic wave will become available very soon, and will
be crucial in confirming or refuting the earlier Canadian results. In addition,
evidence may be gained from disease patterns during the autumn 2009
pandemic wave in other countries and from immunological studies
characterizing the baseline immunological status of vaccinated and
unvaccinated populations. Overall, this perplexing experience in Canada
teaches us how to best react to disparate and conflicting studies and can aid
in preparing for the next public health crisis.


Reading: Part A - Text Booklet

Instructions
• Complete the following summary using the information in the four texts, A1 - A4, provided
on pages 2 and 3 of the Text Booklet.
• You do not need to read the text from beginning to end to complete the task. You should
scan the texts to find the information you need.
• Gaps may require 1, 2 or 3 words. You will not receive any marks if you write more
than 3 words.
• You should write your answer next to the appropriate number in the right-hand column.
• Please use correct spelling in your responses. Do not use abbreviations unless they
appear in the text.
Promoting Physical Activity: Texts

Text A 1
Intervention strategies
GP prescription. Patients are screened opportunistically when visiting their general
practice; inactive patients receive a physical activity prescription from the GP and
follow-‐up phone call(s) from an exercise physiologist.
GP referral to exercise physiologist. Screening questionnaires are mailed to all
patients on the GP patient list; inactive patients are invited to attend a series of
counselling sessions with an exercise physiologist at their local general practice.
Mass media-based campaign. A six-‐week campaign combines physical activity
promotion via mass media(television, radio, newspaper, etc.), distribution of
promotional materials, and community events and activities.
TravelSmart. An active transport program targets households with tailored
information (e.g., maps of local walking paths, bus & train timetables) and merchandise
(e.g., water bottles, key rings) as an incentive to use public transport and reduce use of
cars for transport.
Pedometers. A community program encourages use of pedometers as a motivational
tool to increase physical activity (e.g., to 10,000 steps per day).
Internet. Participants are recruited via mass media to access physical activity
information and advice across the internet via a Web site and/or email.


Text A 2
Effects of Physical Inactivity

Physical activity occurs during work, transport, domestic, and leisure-time activities. Too little
physical activity increases the risks of ischaemic heart disease, stroke, colon cancer, breast
cancer, and type 2 diabetes, as well as obesity and falls in later life. The World Health
Organization recommends at least 30 minutes of regular, moderate-intensity physical activity
on most days to reduce the risk of disease and injury.
Lack of physical activity is a problem in many developed countries, and a growing concern for
developing countries adopting a progressively ‘‘Westernised’’ lifestyle. Australia is no
exception, with only 44% of men and 36% of women achieving sufficient physical activity for
health. This inactivity contributes 7% of Australia’s disease burden and 10% of all deaths,
mostly due to cardiovascular disease and diabetes. It also places a substantial burden on the
Australian economy through the costs of treatment for physical activity–related disease and
injury, lost productivity, and diminished quality of life.

Text A 3

Title: Cost-Effectiveness of Interventions to Promote Physical Activity
Linda J. Cobiac, Theo Vos, Jan J. Barendregt

Objective To determine the cost-‐effectiveness of various intervention strategies aimed
at informing the Australian public of the benefits of physical activity and derive the
optimal pathway for implementation.
Method Based on evidence of intervention efficacy in the physical activity literature and
evaluation of the health sector costs of intervention and disease treatment, we model
the cost impacts and health outcomes of six physical activity interventions, over the
lifetime of the Australian population.
Results Intervention to encourage an increase in physical activity participation is highly
recommended in Australia. Potential reductions in costs of treating ischaemic heart
disease, stroke, diabetes, breast cancer, and colon cancer mean that there is a high
probability of cost-‐savings from a health sector perspective.
Conclusions: Intervention to promote physical activity is recommended as a public
health measure. Despite substantial variability in the quantity and quality of evidence on
intervention effectiveness, and uncertainty about the long-‐term sustainability of
behavioural changes, it is highly likely that as a combination of interventions could lead
to substantial improvement in population health at a cost saving to the health sector.


Text A 4

Intervention Target Group Cost (AUS $million)
GP Prescription 35% Population aged $250
40~79
GP referral to exercise 11% Population aged over $190
physiologist. 60
Mass media-‐based 100% of population aged $160
campaign 25~60
Internet 2% of population (internet $21
users) aged over 15
Pedometers 13% of population aged $53
over 15
TravelSmart 57 % of population in $412
urban areas over 15


Reading Part A Promoting Physical Activity: Answer Booklet
Instructions
• Complete the following summary using the information in the texts for this
task.
• Write your answers in the appropriate space in the column on the right hand
side.
• Make sure your spelling is correct and do not use abbreviations unless in
they appear in the text.
Summary Answers
1.
Promoting Physical Activity

2.
In Australia and many other …(1)…. countries, lack
of physical activity in a serious problem. Current
3.
figures indicate that only …(2)…. of women and …(3)….
of men do …(4)…. physical activity to maintain good 4.
health. Not enough physical activity leads to an
…(5)…. risk of various …(6)…. including colon and
5.
breast cancer, stroke, heart disease, …(7)…. and

6.
obesity and falls. In addition, it places a
significant burden on the …(8)…. due to the costs of 7.
treatment, …(9)…. and reduced quality of life.
8.
To address this situation, a recent study by
9.
Cobaic, Vos and Barendregt investigated the …(10)….
of a range of intervention strategies designed to
10.
…(11)…. the Australian public of the advantages of
…(12)…. . 11.

The six intervention strategies selected include GP prescription
12. which involves
screening patients when they visit their …(13)…. .
This is effective for the …(14)…. age group and the 13.
estimated cost is …(15)…. .

14.

15.

Part A Answer Booklet continued

Summary Answers
16.

Another intervention strategy is a mass media-‐
17.
based campaign involving various forms of mass
media such as …(16)…. . Other aspects of this 18.
campaign are promotional material and …(17)…. .
19.
The advantage of this strategy is that it will reach
…(18)…. the 25~60 population. …(19)…. was found to
20.
be an effective strategy for urban areas but it was
the …(20)…. in terms of cost at $412 million. The 21.
aim of this progamme is to encourage the public
to walk or use …(21)…. instead of …(22)…. . 22.

23.
The …(23)…. intervention strategy was found to be
the internet but it only reaches …(24)…. of the 24.
population over 15.
25.
From a health sector perspective, the results of
26.
the study indicate that participation in physical
activity can potentially …(25)…. the costs of
27.
treatment for several major diseases. Therefore,
intervention to promote physical activity should
28.
be encouraged …(26)…. variability of evidence
regarding the …(27)…. of intervention as well as 29.
…(28)…. regarding the long-‐term prospects of
behavioural changes. Overall improvement in TOTAL SCORE

…(29)…. while saving costs are major benefits of

this strategy.


Promoting Physical Activity: Answer key and explanation

Answer Details
1. developed Type 1
2. 36% Type 3
3. 44% Type 3
4. sufficient Type 1
Type 2: change word form: increases (verb) ⇒

5. increased
increased(adjective)
Type 4: requiring understand of meaning to select the correct
6. diseases/illnesses
word
7. type 2 diabetes Type 1
8. Australian
Type 1
economy
9. lost productivity Type 1
10. cost effectiveness Type 1
Type 2: change word form: informing (gerund) ⇒ inform

11. inform
(verb)
12. physical activity Type 1
13. general practice Type 1
14. 40~79 Type 3

15. $250 million Type 3 (must include million)
16. television, radio,

Type 1
newspaper
17. community events Type 1
18. 100% Type 3
19. TravelSmart Type 1
20. most expensive / Type 4: requiring understand of meaning to select the correct
dearest/costly word
21. public transport Type 1
22. cars Type 1
23. cheapest / least Type 4: requiring understand of meaning to select the correct
expensive word
24. 2% Type 3
25. reduce Type 2 change word form: reduction (noun) ⇒ reduce (verb)
26. despite Type 1
27. effectiveness Type 1
28. uncertainty Type 1
29. population health Type 1


Promoting Physical Activity: Highlighted Answers

Text A 1
Intervention strategies
GP prescription. Patients are screened opportunistically when visiting their (13)general practice; inactive patients
receive a physical activity prescription from the GP and follow-‐up phone call(s) from an exercise physiologist.
GP referral to exercise physiologist. Screening questionnaires are mailed to all patients on the GP patient list; inactive
patients are invited to attend a series of counselling sessions with an exercise physiologist at their local general practice.
Mass media-based campaign. A six-‐week campaign combines physical activity promotion via mass media (16)
(television, radio, newspaper, etc.), distribution of promotional materials, and (17)community events and activities.
TravelSmart. An active transport program targets households with tailored information (e.g., maps of local
walking paths, bus & train timetables) and merchandise (e.g., water bottles, key rings) as an incentive to use (21)public
transport and reduce use of (22)cars for transport.
Pedometers. A community program encourages use of pedometers as a motivational tool to increase physical activity
(e.g., to 10,000 steps per day).
Internet. Participants are recruited via mass media to access physical activity information and advice across the
internet via a Web site and/or email.

Text A2
Effects of Physical Inactivity
Physical activity occurs during work, transport, domestic, and leisure-‐time activities. Too little physical activity
(5)increases the risks of ischaemic heart disease, stroke, colon cancer, breast cancer, and (7)type 2 diabetes, as well as
obesity and falls in later life. The World Health Organization recommends at least 30 minutes of regular, moderate-‐
intensity physical activity on most days to reduce the risk of disease and injury.
Lack of physical activity is a problem in many (1)developed countries, and a growing concern for developing countries
adopting a progressively ‘‘Westernised’’ lifestyle. Australia is no exception, with only (3)44% of men and (2)36% of
women achieving (4)sufficient physical activity for health. This inactivity contributes 7% of Australia’s disease burden
and 10% of all deaths, mostly due to cardiovascular disease and diabetes. It also places a substantial burden on the
(8)Australian economy through the costs of treatment for physical activity–related disease and injury, (9)lost
productivity, and diminished quality of life.

Text A 3
Title: Cost-Effectiveness of Interventions to Promote Physical Activity
Linda J. Cobiac, Theo Vos, Jan J. Barendregt (2009)

Objective To determine the (10) cost-‐effectiveness of various intervention strategies aimed at (11)informing the
Australian public of the benefits of (12)physical activity and derive the optimal pathway for implementation.
Method Based on evidence of intervention efficacy in the physical activity literature and evaluation of the health sector
costs of intervention and disease treatment, we model the cost impacts and health outcomes of six physical activity
interventions, over the lifetime of the Australian population.
Results Intervention to encourage an increase in physical activity participation is highly recommended in Australia.
Potential (25)reductions in costs of treating ischaemic heart disease, stroke, diabetes, breast cancer, and colon cancer
mean that there is a high probability of cost-‐savings from a health sector perspective.
Conclusions: Intervention to promote physical activity is recommended as a public health measure. (26)Despite
substantial variability in the quantity and quality of evidence on intervention (27)effectiveness, and (28)uncertainty
about the long-‐term sustainability of behavioural changes, it is highly likely that as a combination of interventions could
lead to substantial improvement in (29)population health at a cost saving to the health sector.

Text A 4
Intervention Target Group Cost (AUS $million)
GP Prescription 35% Population aged (14)40~79 (15) $250
GP referral to exercise physiologist. 11% Population aged over 60 $190
Mass media-‐based campaign (18)100% of population aged 25~60 $160
Internet (24)2% of population (internet users) $21
aged over 15
Pedometers 13% of population aged over 15 $53
(19)TravelSmart 57 % of population in urban areas $412
over 15


Reading Part B : Multiple Choice Questions
Instructions
• Read the following text and answer the Multiple Choice Questions which follow.
• Each question has four suggested answers or ways of finishing.
• You must choose the ONE which you think fits best. For each question, indicate on
your answer sheet the letter A, B, C or D.,
• Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.
• Time Limit: 20-25 minutes
Task 1: Breast Cancer and the Elderly

Paragraph 1
Breast cancer is one of the highest-profile diseases in women in developed
countries. Although the risk for women younger than 30 years is minimal,
this risk increases with age. One-third of all breast cancer patients in
Sweden, for example, are 70 years or older at diagnosis. Despite these
statistics, few breast cancer trials take these older women into account.
Considering that nowadays a 70-year-old woman can expect to live for at
least another 12–16 years, this is a serious gap in clinical knowledge, not
least because in older women breast cancer is more likely to be present
with other diseases, and doctors need to know whether cancer treatment
will affect or increase the risk for these diseases.
Paragraph 2
In 1992, guidelines were issued to the Uppsala/Orebro region in Sweden
(with a population of 1.9 million) that all women with breast cancer should
be able to receive equal treatment. At the same time, a breast cancer
register was set up to record details about patients in the region, to ensure
that the guidelines were being followed. Sonja Eaker and colleagues set out
to assess data from the register to see whether women of all ages were
receiving equal cancer treatment.
Paragraph 3
They compared the 5-year relative survival for 9,059 women with breast
cancer aged 50–84 years. They divided them into two age groups: 50–69
years, and 70–84 years. They also categorized the women according to the
stage of breast cancer. They looked at differences between the proliferative
ability of breast cancer cells, estrogen receptor status, the number of lymph
nodes examined, and lymph node involvement. The researchers also
compared types of treatment—i.e., surgical, oncological (radiotherapy,
chemotherapy, or hormonal)—and the type of clinic the patients were
treated in.
Paragraph 4
They found that women aged 70–84 years had up to a 13% lower chance of
surviving breast cancer than those aged 50–69 years. Records for older
women tended to have less information on their disease, and these women
were more likely to have unknown proliferation and estrogen receptor
status. Older women were less likely to have their cancer detected by
mammography screening and to have the stage of disease identified, and
they had larger tumours. They also had fewer lymph nodes examined, and
had radiotherapy and chemotherapy less often than younger patients.
Paragraph 5
Current guidelines are vague about the use of chemotherapy in older
women, since studies have included only a few older women so far, but this
did not explain why these women received radiotherapy less often. Older
women were also less likely to be offered breast-conserving surgery, but
they were more likely to be given hormone treatment such as tamoxifen
even if the tumours did not show signs of hormone sensitivity. The
researchers suggest that this could be because since chemotherapy tends to
be not recommended for older women, perhaps clinicians believed that
tamoxifen could be an alternative.
Paragraph 6
The researchers admit that one drawback of their study is that there was
little information on the other diseases that older women had, which might
explain why they were offered treatment less often than younger patients.
However, the fact remains that in Sweden, women older than 70 years are
offered mammography screening much less often than younger women—
despite accounting for one-third of all breast cancer cases in the country—
and those older than 74 years are not screened at all. Eaker and co-workers'
findings indicate that older women are urgently in need of better treatment
for breast cancer and guidelines that are more appropriate to their age
group. Developed countries, faced with an increasingly aging population,
cannot afford to neglect the elderly.
Questions-Part B
1. The main idea presented in paragraph one is that……

a. only older women need to be concerned about breast cancer.
b. breast cancer trials seldom consider older women.
c. breast cancer is more common than other diseases in older woman.
d. older woman do not take part in breast cancer trials.
2. Regarding cancer treatment in paragraph one, it can be concluded

that….
a. doctors know cancer treatment will increase the risk of disease in
elderly patients.
b. cancer treatments too risky for elderly people
c. it is unknown whether or not cancer treatments will affect the
treatment of other diseases in elderly people.
d. older woman are less likely to have other diseases

3. According to paragraph two, the 1992 Guidelines issued to the
Uppsala/Orebro region in Sweden stated that…
a. Sweden has a population of 1.9 million.
b. women with breast cancer need to register their condition to ensure
they receive equal treatment.
c. identical breast cancer treatment should be available to women of
all ages.
d. all women with breast cancer should have access to equivalent
breast cancer treatment.
4. According to paragraph 3, which of the following was not part of Sonja

Eaker and her colleagues research?
a. Comparing ability of breast cancer cells to increase in number.
b. Grouping woman according to their survival rate.
c. Identifying differences in treatment methods.
d. Splitting the groups based on age.
5. According to paragraph 4, which of the following statements is true?

a. Older women have fewer lymph nodes
b. Mammography screening is not able to detect cancer in older women
c. Only 13% of women aged 70~84 survive breast cancer
d. Women aged 50~69 have a lower mortality rate than women aged
70~84
6. In paragraphs 5, findings by the researchers indicate that…….

a. older women are not usually advised to have chemotherapy
b. older women prefer hormone treatment such as tamoxifen
c. breast conserving surgery was not popular among older women
d. older women respond better to chemotherapy than to hormone
treatment.
7. The word vague is paragraph 5 means……

a. uncertain
b. unclear
c. unknown
d. doubtful
8. According to paragraph 6, one limitation of the study is that…..

a. older women are treated less often than younger women.
b. older women have a lower incidence of breast cancer.
c. younger women are treated more often than older women.
d. there is a lack of information on other diseases which older women
have.
9. Which of the following statements best represents the view expressed by

the writer in paragraph 6?
a. Due to ageing population in developed countries, the needs of the
elderly must not be ignored.
b. Older women need more appropriate treatment to suit their age.
c. Most developed countries have neglected the elderly for too long.
d. It is too expensive treat the elderly.

Answer Key
1. b 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. b 8. d 9. a
Question 1
a) Incorrect: incorrect assumption
b) Correct: see highlighted text
c) Incorrect: it is present with other diseases, not more common
d) Incorrect: usually they do not take part but not always
Question 2
a) Incorrect: Doctors don’t know this.
b) Incorrect: not mentioned
c) Correct: see highlighted text
d) Incorrect: not mentioned
Question 3
a) Incorrect: The statement itself is true, but it has nothing to do with the
guidelines
b) Incorrect: Not given, note that register is used as a verb here to confuse the
test taker
c) Incorrect: identical is not a synonym for equal
d) Correct: equivalent is a synonym for equal.
Question 4
a) Incorrect: Mentioned..proliferate is synonym for increase
b) Correct: They were not grouped based on survival rate, rather the stage
of cancer
c) Incorrect: mentioned
d) Incorrect: mentioned
Question 5
a) Incorrect: Fewer lymph nodes examined
b) Incorrect: less likely to detect is not the same as not able to detect
c) Incorrect: not given, statistic is different
d) Correct: Same meaning, see highlight
Question 6
a) Correct: See highlighted test
b) Incorrect: older women’s preference is not mentioned
c) Incorrect: not mentioned
d) Incorrect: possibly true but not mentioned or indicated by the researchers
Question 7
a) Incorrect
b) Correct: Check your dictionary and thesaurus if you got this wrong!
c) Incorrect
d) Incorrect
Question 8
a) Incorrect: This information is true but is not related to their study
b) Incorrect: Not mentioned
c) Incorrect: This information is also true but is not related to their study
d) Correct: see highlighted text
Question 9
a) Correct: See highlighted text
b) Incorrect: This the research findings not the writer’s opinion
c) Incorrect: Could be true but not mentioned
d) Incorrect: Trick question connecting the word afford & expensive

Answers –Highlighted
Paragraph 1
Breast cancer is one of the highest-profile diseases in women in developed
countries. Although the risk for women younger than 30 years is minimal,
this risk increases with age. One-third of all breast cancer patients in
Sweden, for example, are 70 years or older at diagnosis. Despite these
statistics, (1) few breast cancer trials take these older women into account.
Considering that nowadays a 70-year-old woman can expect to live for at
least another 12–16 years, this is a serious gap in clinical knowledge, not
least because in older women breast cancer is more likely to be present
with other diseases, and (2) doctors need to know whether cancer
treatment will affect or increase the risk for these diseases.
Paragraph 2
In 1992, guidelines were issued to the Uppsala/Örebro region in Sweden
(with a population of 1.9 million) that(3) women with breast cancer should
be able to receive equal treatment. At the same time, a breast cancer
register was set up to record details about patients in the region, to ensure
that the guidelines were being followed. Sonja Eaker and colleagues set out
to assess data from the register to see whether women of all ages were
receiving equal cancer treatment.
Paragraph 3
They compared the relative survival for 9,059 women with breast cancer
aged 50–84 years. 4d They divided them into two age groups: 50–69 years,
and 70–84 years. They also categorized the women according to the stage of
breast cancer. 4 a They looked at differences between the proliferative
ability of breast cancer cells, estrogen receptor status, the number of lymph
nodes examined, and lymph node involvement. 4c The researchers also
compared types of treatment—i.e., surgical, oncological (radiotherapy,
chemotherapy, or hormonal)—and the type of clinic the patients were
treated in.
4 a, c, d mentioned above. Therefore answer is b
Paragraph 4
(5) They found that women aged 70–84 years had up to a 13% lower chance
of surviving breast cancer than those aged 50–69 years. Records for older
women tended to have less information on their disease, and these women
were more likely to have unknown proliferation and estrogen receptor
status. Older women were less likely to have their cancer detected by
mammography screening and to have the stage of disease identified, and
they had larger tumors. They also had fewer lymph nodes examined, and
had radiotherapy and chemotherapy less often than younger patients.
Paragraph 5
Current guidelines are (7)vague about the use of chemotherapy in older
women, since studies have included only a few older women so far, but this
did not explain why these women received radiotherapy less often. Older
women were also less likely to be offered breast-conserving surgery, but
they were more likely to be given hormone treatment such as tamoxifen
even if the tumors did not show sign of hormone sensitivity. (6)The
researchers suggest that this could be because since chemotherapy tends to
be not recommended for older women, perhaps clinicians believed that
tamoxifen could be an alternative.
Paragraph 6
The researchers admit that (8) one drawback of their study is that there was
little information on the other diseases that older women had, which might
explain why they were offered treatment less often than younger patients.
However, the fact remains that in Sweden, women older than 70 years are
offered mammography screening much less often than younger women—
despite accounting for one-third of all breast cancer cases in the country—
and those older than 74 years are not screened at all.
Eaker and co-workers' findings indicate that older women are urgently in
need of better treatment for breast cancer and guidelines that are more
appropriate to their age group. (9) Developed countries, faced with an
increasingly aging population, cannot afford to neglect the elderly.


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OFFICIAL OET PREPARATION MATERIALS

Practice Book Set 1

How to use the Reading Practice Booklet 01

An overview of OET (Occupational English Test) 03

History of the test 05

How the test is scored 08

Reading Section 1: What is the Reading sub-test? 09

Reading Section 2: Test-takers’ guide to Part A of the Reading sub-test 10

Reading Section 3: Test-takers’ guide to Part B of the Reading sub-test 12

Reading Section 5: Full Practice Test: Part A and Part B 15

Reading Section 6: Practice Test: Part A and B - Answer Keys 33

Reading Section 7: Part A - Study guide 39

Reading Section 8: Sample Test: Part A - Text Booklet 47

Reading Section 9: Further Practice 57

Reading Section 10: Resources 59

Do the Part A and B - Full Practice Test page 15 - 32

Do the Part A - Additional Sample Test page 47 - 54

Do the Practice Test (Part A) page 15 - 21

Read the Test-takers’ guide to Part B of the Reading sub-test page 12 - 13

Do the Practice Test (Part B) page 23 - 32

Check your answers page 35 - 38

Do the Part A - Additional Sample Test page 47 - 54

Sub-test (duration) Content Shows candidates can:

All sub-tests are assessed at the OET Centre by trained expert

Each of the four sub-tests is assessed in a specific way. Read more

Stages of Test Development (presentation by Prof Tim McNamara, August 2007)2

1. McNamara, T. [1996] Measuring Second Language Performance. London: Longman.

Writing and Speaking Listening and Reading

What is the Reading sub-test?

What will you do on test day?

Test takers’ guide to Part A of the

Checking at the end

Test takers’ guide to Part B of the

How can I further prepare for Part B of the

Checking at the end

You must record your answers for Part A in the

Please print in BLOCK LETTERS

The OET Centre

© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment ABN 51 988 559 414

Text A1 Junior Sports Injuries: Texts

- Sports and recreational activities contribute to approximately 18 percent of all traumatic

You must record your answers for Part A in the

Please print in BLOCK LETTERS

The OET Centre

© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment ABN 51 988 559 414

Junior Sports Injuries

Guidelines for junior sports injury

A US study which investigated the .... (6).... of

Canadian data, on the other hand, revealed 12.

You must record your answers for Part B on the

Please print in BLOCK LETTERS

The OET Centre

© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment ABN 51 988 559 414

NOW TURN TO THE NEXT PAGE FOR TEXTS AND QUESTIONS

Going blind in Australia

Part B - Text B1: Questions 1–10

2 According to paragraph 2, cataracts ……

3 According to paragraph 3, age-related macular degeneration (AMD) ……

4 According to paragraph 3, the detection of glaucoma ……

5 Statistics in paragraph 4 indicate that ……

6 According to paragraph 4, which one of the following statements is NOT true?

8 According to paragraph 6, in Australia in the year 2031 ……

9 According to paragraph 6, the author believes that general practitioners ……

10 In paragraph 6, the author suggests that ……