TEST 1

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. kites B. hopes C. balls D. kicks
Question 2: A. hire B. hour C. hair D. hi
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. answer B. destroy C. allow D. complain
Question 4: A. twenty B. reporter C. notebook D. poverty
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5. I am gripped with a fever whenever a new year is coming.
A. I feel disappointed B. I am excited
C. I get upset D. I have got a temperature
Question 6. It was relatively easy for him to learn baseball because he had been a cricket player.
A. nearly B. essentially C. comparatively D. approximately
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. The presentation by Dr. Dineen was self-explanatory.
A. bright B. discouraging C. confusing D. enlightening
Question 8. She gave an impeccable reading of the sonata and had the audience on their feet.
A. unqualified B. imperfect C. suspicious D. negative
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 9. Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.
- Hoa: “Why aren’t you taking part in our activities? ___________________________”
- Hai: “Yes, I can. Certainly.”
A. Could you please show me how to get the nearest post office?
B. Shall I take your hat off?
C. Can you help me with this decoration?
D. Can I help you?
Question 10. Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby.
- Porter: “Shall I help you with your suitcase?” - Mary: “____________________________”
A. What nonsense! B. That’s very kind of you.
C. What a pity! D. I can’t agree more.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 11. Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating electricity for the
surrounding area.
A. to control flooding B. irrigation C. generating D. surrounding area
Question 12. Weather and geography conditions may determine the type of transportation used in a region.
A. Weather B. geography C. type D. used
Question 13. Geothermal energy is energy to obtain by using heat from the Earth’s interior.
A. energy B. to obtain C. using D. the Earth’s
Question 14. The more tired you are, the least hard you concentrate.
A. more tired B. you are C. least hard D. concentrate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 15. If I hadn’t had so much work to do, I would have gone to the movies.
A. I never go to the movies if I had work to do.
B. Because I had to do so much work, I couldn’t go to the movies.
C. I would go to the movies when I had done so much work.
D. A lot of work couldn’t prevent me from going to the movies.
Question 16. It is an undeniable fact that children watch too much TV.
A. It’s undeniable that too many children watch TV.
B. It’s undeniable that children don’t watch too many TV programmes.
C. It can’t be denied that children watch too many TV programmes.
 D. It’s obviously true that children spend too much time watching TV.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 17. You usually drive fast. You use more petrol than usual.
A. The faster you drive, the more you use petrol.
B. The more you drive fast, the more you use petrol.
C. The faster you drive, the more petrol you use.
D. The more fast you drive, the more petrol you use.
Question 18. The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday.
A. The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six-month.
B. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation.
C. The agreement which ends six-month negotiation was signed yesterday.
D. The agreement which lasted six-month was signed yesterday.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following question.
Question 19. ________, we stay inside the house.
A. The storm day it was B. It is a stormy day
C. It was a stormy day D. It being a stormy day
Question 20. Unless you _______ well-trained, you _______ to the company.
A. aren’t / will never be admitted B. aren’t / will never admit
C. are / will never be admitted D. are / will never admit
Question 21. Fax transmission has now become a cheap and _______ way to transmit texts and graphics over
distance.
A. convenient B. inconvenient C. uncomfortable D. comfortable
Question 22. ________, we tried our best to complete it.
A. Difficult as the homework was B. As though the homework was difficult
C. Thanks to the difficult homework D. Despite the homework was difficult
Question 23. That carcinogenic substances _______ in many common household items is well-known.
A. are contained B. containing C. are containing D. contained
Question 24. The second-hand car Patrick bought was almost new _______ it was made in the 1990s.
A. or B. because C. although D. however
Question 25. I like doing _______ such as cooking, washing and cleaning the house.
A. house-keeper B. household chores C. lord of house D. white house
Question 26. Unfortunately, some really ill animals have to be ________ by our center.
A. pass away B. turned over C. taken out D. put down
Question 27. I _______ Lan since she went abroad.
A. wasn’t met B. hadn’t met C. didn’t meet D. haven’t met
Question 28. “Did the minister approve the building plans?”
“Not really. He turned them down _______ that the costs were too high.”
A. in case B. supposing C. provided D. on the grounds
Question 29. Failing to submit the proposal on time was _____ for Tom.
A. a real kick in the pants B. an open and shut case
C. a shot in the dark D. a nail in the coffin
Question 30. They always kept on good _______ with their next-door neighbors for the children’s sake.
A. relations B. terms C. will D. relationship
Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
blanks.
American folk music originated with (31) ________ people at a time when the rural population was isolated
and music was not (32) ________ spread by radio, records, or music video. It was (33) _______ by oral
traditional and is noted for its energy, humor, and emotional impact. The major source of early American folk songs
was music from the British Isles, but songs from Africa as songs of the American Indians have significant part in its
heritage. Later settler from other countries also contributed songs. In the nineteenth century, composer Steven
Foster wrote some of the most enduringly popular of all American songs, (34) _________ soon became part of the
folk tradition. Beginning in the 1930s, Woody Guthrie gained great popularity by adapting melodies and lyrics and
supplying new ones as well. In the 1950s and 1960s, singer – composers such as Peter Seeger, Bob Dylan, Joan
Baez continued this tradition by urban’ folk music. Many of these songs deal (35) ________ important social issue,
such as racial integration and the war in Vietnam.
 Question 31: A. ordinary B. popular C. common D. typical
Question 32: A. even B. still C. until D. yet
Question 33: A. transferred B. transformed C. transmitted D. transited
Question 34: A. which B. this C. who D. that
Question 35: A. in B. by C. with D. at
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and prophecy
built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction makes it one
of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered
with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest
single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and
west-an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so
computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further scientific
study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present and future. Many of the events have
been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and
are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception.
Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of ancient past.
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today?
Question 36. In the second passage, the word ‘prophesied’ is closest in meaning to ____.
A. foretold B. terminated C. precipitated D. affiliated
Question 37. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Advanced tools of measurement B. Knowledge of the earth’s surface
C. Advanced technology D. Observation of the celestial bodies
Question 38. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
C. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the Pharaoh.
D. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife
Question 39. The word ‘feat’ in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to ____.
A. accomplishment B. festivity C. appendage D. structure
Question 40. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid
B. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops
C. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid
D. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza
Question 41. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. It was built by a super race.
B. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies.
C. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops.
D. It was very old.
Question 42. What has research of the base revealed?
A. There are cracks in the foundation
B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body
C. A superior race of people built in
D. The lines represent important events
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Overpopulation, the situation of having large numbers of people with too few resources and too little space, is closely
associated with poverty. It can result from high population density, or from low amounts of resources, or from both.
Excessively high population densities put stress on available resources. Only a certain number of people can be
supported on a given area of land, and that number depends on how much food and other resources the land can
provide. In countries where people live primarily by means of simple farming, gardening, herding, hunting, and
gathering, even large areas of land can support only small numbers of people because these labor-intensive
subsistence activities produce only small amounts of food.
In developed countries such as the United States, Japan, and the countries of Western Europe, overpopulation
generally is not considered a major cause of poverty. These countries produce large quantities of food through
mechanized farming, which depends on commercial fertilizers, large-scale irrigation, and agricultural machinery. This
form of production provides enough food to support the high densities of people in metropolitan areas.
A country’s level of poverty can depend greatly on its mix of population density and agricultural productivity.
Bangladesh, for example, has one of the world’s highest population densities, with 1,147 persons per sq km. A large
majority of the people of Bangladesh engage in low-productivity manual farming, which contributes to the country’s
extremely high level of poverty. Some of the smaller countries in Western Europe, such as the Netherlands and
Belgium, have high population densities as well. These countries practice mechanized farming and are involved in
high-tech industries, however, and therefore have high standards of living.
At the other end of the spectrum, many countries in sub-Saharan Africa have population densities of less than 30
persons per sq km. Many people in these countries practice manual subsistence farming; these countries also have
infertile land, and lack the economic resources and technology to boost productivity. As a consequence, these nations
are very poor. The United States has both relatively low population density and high agricultural productivity; it is one
of the world’s wealthiest nations.
High birth rates contribute to overpopulation in many developing countries. Children are assets to many poor families
because they provide labor, usually for farming. Cultural norms in traditionally rural societies commonly sanction the
value of large families. Also, the governments of developing countries often provide little or no support, financial or
political, for family planning; even people who wish to keep their families small have difficulty doing so. For all these
reasons, developing countries tend to have high rates of population growth.
Question 43. Which of the following is a contributor to overpopulation in many developing countries?
A. Sufficient financial support B. High-tech facilities
C. High birth rates D. Economic resources
Question 44. The word “infertile” in paragraph 4 probably means ______.
A. inaccessible B. unproductive C. impossible D. disused
Question 45. The phrase “engage in” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. participate in B. escape from C. look into D. give up
Question 46. Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. High Birth Rate and its Consequences
B. Overpopulation: A Cause of Poverty
C. Overpopulation: A Worldwide Problem
D. Poverty in Developing Countries
Question 47. The phrase “that number” in paragraph 1 refers to the number of ______.
A. countries B. resources C. people D. densities
Question 48. In certain countries, large areas of land can only yield small amounts of food because ______.
A. there are small numbers of laborers
B. there is a lack of mechanization
C. there is an abundance of resources
D. there is no shortage of skilled labor
Question 49. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. There is no connection between a country’s culture and overpopulation.
B. In certain developed countries, mechanized farming is applied.
C. All small countries in Western Europe have high population densities.
D. In sub-Saharan African countries, productivity is boosted by technology.
Question 50. Bangladesh is a country where the level of poverty depends greatly on ______.
A. its population density only
B. both population density and agricultural productivity
C. population density in metropolitan areas
D. its high agricultural productivity

TEST 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. calcium B. black C. match D. prepare
Question 2: A. maintains B. laughs C. drops D. imports
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. simultaneous B. popularity C. indication D. difficulty
Question 4: A. agrarian B. happen C. origin D. graduate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 5: My father used to give me a good advice whenever I had a problem.
Question 6. The original World Cup trophy was given permanent to Brazil to honor that country’s record third world
cup title in Mexico in 1970
Question 7. Peter was the first player scored a goal for his team in the yesterday’s match.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 8. I’m sorry, but I’ve got ________ much work to do to come to the beach today.
A. too B. such C. enough D. so
Question 9: The girl was used ________ birthday presents from her brothers.
A. to receive B. to receiving C. to being received D. to be receiving
Question 10. I know we had an argument, but now I'd quite like to________.
A. make for B. make up C. make out D. make into
Question 11: The university administrations are introducing new measures to.........that the enrolment process runs
smoothly.
A. improve B. maintain C. ensure D. facilitate
Question 12. ________ Paul realize that he was on the wrong flight.
A. No sooner had the plane taken off than B. It was not until the plane had taken off that
C. Only after the plane had taken off D. Not until the plane took off did
Question 13. The sky was grey and cloudy. ________ , we went to the beach.
A. However B. In spite of C. Even though D. Consequently
Question 14: They worked really hard _______ they could earn enough money for their living.
A. so as to B. because C. so that D. in order for
Question 15: The gun accidentally ________ and killed that man.
A. went away B. went off C. went down D. went in for
Question 16: In the wake of increasing food poisoning, many consumers have turned to
vegetables……....organically.
A. that grow B. are grown C. grown D. which grows
Question 17: Without your help, I...................the technical problem with my computer the other day.
A. wouldn’t solve B. couldn’t have solved
C. could solve D. can’t solve
Question 18: “It’s about time you_______ your homework, Mary.”
A. must do B. would do C. do D. did
Question 19: In our team, no person________ John could finish this tough task in such a short time.
A. other than B. apart C. outside D. rather than
Choose the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Ken and Laura are saying goodbye to each other after going to LOTTE Center. And they are going to
have a date with each other later.
- Laura. “Well, it’s getting late. May be we could get together sometime.” - Ken. “_____.”
A. Nice to see back you. B. Take it easy.
C. Sounds good. I’ll give you a call. D. Yes, I’ve enjoyed it.
Question 21-Waiter: “Can I get you something?” -John :
A. I’ll pay for what I have eaten B. Could I have a look at the dessert menu?
C. Yes, you can. D. Is it cheap or expensive?.
Choose the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Some of the potential dangers to cows treated with synthetic bovine growth hormone were brought into
light through the effort of some scientisst.
A. possible B. related C. certain D. obvious
Question 23: Question 30: The overall aim of the book is to help bridge the gap between theory and practice,
particularly in language teaching.
A. reduce the differences B. minimise the limitations
C. construct a bridge D. increase the understanding
Choose the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. single B. divorced C. separated D. married
Question 25: A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work.
A. uncomfortable B. responsive C. miserable D. calm
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 26. Jenny is so creative that we all can rely on her for original ideas.
A. Being creative, we can all rely on Jenny for original ideas.
B. Creative as Jenny is, we can rely on her for original ideas.
C. Jenny is such creative girl that we all can rely on her for original ideas.
D. So creative is Jenny that we all can rely on her for original ideas.
Question 27. We couldn't have managed our business successfully without my father's money.
A. Had it not been for my father's money, we couldn't have managed our business successfully.
B. We couldn't have managed our business successfully with my father's money.
C. If we could manage our business successfully, my father would give US his money.
D. If we couldn't have managed our business successfully, we would have had my father's money.
Question 28: “Why don’t we go out for dinner tonight?” said Jim.
A. Jim suggested going out for dinner that night. B. Jim suggested us to go out for dinner that night.
C. Jim invited us out for dinner that night. D. Jim promised to go out for dinner that night.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 29. We can protect the world in which we live. We, for example, can grow, more trees and recycle rubbish.
A. We can protect the world in which we live as well as we can grow more trees and recycle rubbish.
B. We can protect the world in which we live, growing more trees and recycle rubbish.
C. We can protect the world in which we live by growing more trees and recycling rubbish.
D. We can protect the world in which we live such as growing more trees and recycling rubbish.
Question 30. He joined the army in 1998. He was soon promoted to the rank of captain.
A. He was promoted to the rank of captain in 1998 and joined the army.
B. Promoted to the rank of captain in 1998, he joined the army soon later,
C. He worked as a captain in the army and had a promotion in 1998.
D. Joining the army in 1998, he was soon promoted to the rank of captain.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
THE DANGERS OF DIETING
Thanks to our modern lifestyle, with more and more time spent sitting down in front of computers than ever before,
the (31).....of overweight people is at a new high. As people frantically search for a solution to this problem, they often
try some of popular fad diet being offered. Many people see fad diet (32)...... harmless ways of losing weight, and
they are grateful to have them. Unfortunately, not only don’t fad diet usually do the trick, they can actually be
dangerous for your health.
Although permanent weight loss is the goal , few are able to achieve it. Experts estimate that 95 percent of dieters
return to starting weight, or even (33)......weight. While reckless use of fad diets can bring some initial results, long-
term results are very rare.
Nonetheless, people who are fed up with the difficulties of changing their eating habits often turn to fad diets.
(34)......being moderate, fad diets involve extreme dietary changes. They advise eating only one type of food, or they
prohibit other types of foods entirely. This results in a situation (35)......a person’s body doesn’t get all the vitamins
and other things that it needs to stay healthy.
Adapted from “Active Skills For Reading: Book 3” by Neil J. Anderson
Question 31: A. number B. range C. amount D. sum
Question 32: A. through B. by C. as D. like
Question 33: A. put B. lose C. reduce D. gain
Question 34: A. In spite of B. In addition to C. Rather than D. More than
Question 35: A. which B. where C. what D. why
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Since the early days of making movies, writers and directors have attempted to bring popular and classic novels
to the big screen. That tradition continues today. The movie industry seems to believe that if the story made a great
book, it should make a great movie as well. However, that rarely seems to be the case. More often than not, a great
book turns out to be a mediocre movie in the opinion of most viewers. Perhaps that is because readers of the book
have already made their own great "movies" in their heads. Then, when they see the studio's or the director's version
of the story, it does not quite measure up to their expectations.
Over the past one hundred years of film production, there have only been a handful of movies that have fulfilled
the ambition of turning the great book into a great movie. Literary critics as well as movie critics applaud both versions
of One Flew over the Cuckoo's Nest. The classic children's story, The Wizard of Oz, was transformed into a classic
movie musical that parents and children still enjoy today. Lovers of the historical novel, Gone with the Wind, continue
to be swept away by the movie adaptation starring .Clark Gable and Vivien Leigh. Science fiction readers as well as
movie critics both hail Stanley Kubrick's film, 2001: A Space Odyssey, which was co-written by Kubrick with the novel's
author Arthur C. Clarke, as a masterpiece.
On the other hand, there have been instances when not-so-great novels have been transformed into great
movies. Mario Puzo's The Godfather was quite popular at the time of its release as a novel, but critics hailed it more
for its entertainment value thanfor its value as literature. The film adaptation of this popular novel, however, continues
to be listed among the top ten greatest movies of all time. Likewise, the science fiction short story "Do Androids Dream
of Electric Sheep?" did not set the science fiction genre on fire when it came out. The movie version, though, made a
much bigger impact in its medium. Today, Blade Runner continues to top critics' lists of great films.
Are there any books that are simply impossible to film? Although film makers would like to think not, it is a good
bet that certain books will never be adapted into successful films. Books written in unique literary styles such as Ulysses
by James joyce and The Sound and the Fury by William Faulkner have resisted film adaptation to rival the greatness
of the books. Film makers will no doubt keep trying, of course. Readers and viewers will have to be the final judges of
whether it is better to read the book or see the movie.

Question 36.What is the main focus of this reading?

A.Books that make more money than movies B.Books written about movies
C.Movie made from books D.Movie stars who have written books
Question 37.Which of the following is considered both a great book and a great movie?
A.. Gone with the Wind B.. The Godfather
C.. Transformers D.. Ulysses
Question 38.What is NOT true about "Do Androids Dream of Electric Sheep?"
A.It made a very good movie. B. It is not a novel.
C.It was adapted into a movie. D.It was not widely hailed by literary critics.
39.Which of the following statements would the writer of this reading probably agree with?
A.Almost any book can easily be adapted into a good movie.
B.Faulkner knows a lot about both books and movies.
C.The movie Ulysses is better than Joyce's novel.
D.The Sound and the Fury will never be made into a great movie.
Question 40.The word " applaud " means ……………..?
A.. clapp one’s hands B.. delight C.. praise D.. highlight
Question 41.The word " mediocre " means…………………..?
A. unacceptable B. very good
C. excellent D. of only average standard
Question 42.The word " measure up to " means ……………..?
A. have the same quality as B.. calculate as
C.. be not as good as D.. be better than

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 43to 50.
Pandemic
Diseases are a natural part of life on Earth. If there were no diseases, the population would grow too quickly,
and there would not be enough food or other resources. So in a way, diseases are nature's way of keeping the Earth
in balance. But sometimes they spread very quickly and kill large numbers of people. For example, in 1918, an outbreak
of the flu spread across the world, killing over 25 million people in only six months. Such terrible outbreaks of a disease
are called pandemics.
Pandemics happen when a disease changes in a way that our bodies are not prepared to fight. In 1918, a new
type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had no way to fight this new flu virus, and so it spread very quickly and killed
large numbers of people. While there have been many different pandemic diseases throughout history, all of them have
a few things in common.
First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily. Second, while they may kill many
people, they generally do not kill people very quickly. A good example of this would be the Marburg virus. The Marburg
virus is an extremely infectious disease. In addition, it is deadly. About 70-80% of all the people who get the Marburg
virus die from the disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because most people die within
three days of getting the disease. This means that the virus does not have enough time to spread to a large number of
people. The flu virus of 1918, on the other hand, generally took about a week to ten days to kill its victims, so it had
more time to spread.
While we may never be able to completely stop pandemics, we can make them less common. Doctors carefully
monitor new diseases that they fear could become pandemics. For example, in 2002 and 2003, doctors carefully
watched SARS. Their health warnings may have prevented SARS from becoming a pandemic.

Question 43. This passage is mainly about ____.

A. how to prevent pandemic diseases. B. pandemic diseases.
C. pandemic diseases throughout history. D. why pandemics happen.
Question 44. According to paragraph 1, how are diseases a natural part of life on Earth?
A. They prevent pandemics. B. They help control the population.
C. They help the world grow quickly. D. They kill too many people.
Question 45. According to the passage, what causes pandemics?
A. Changes in a disease that the body cannot fight B. Careless doctors who do not watch the spread of diseases
C. Population growth that the world cannot support D. The failure to make new medicines
Question 46. According to the passage, all of the following are true of the 1918 flu pandemic EXCEPT that ____.
A. it involved a new kind of flu virus B. it killed over 25 million people
C. it was the last pandemic in history D. it took a little over a week to kill its victims
Question 47. The word it in the passage refers to ____.
A. disease B. flu virus C. pandemics D. bodies
Question 48. According to paragraph 3, why hasn't Marburg virus become a pandemic?
A. It is not a deadly disease.
B. It does not spread from person to person easily.
C. Doctors have prevented it from becoming a pandemic.
D. It kills people too quickly.
Question 49. The word monitor in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. fight B. prevent C. watch D. avoid
Question 50. The author mentions SARS in order to ____.
A. give an example of a highly dangerous disease.
B. suggest that SARS will never become a pandemic.
C. give an example of the successful prevention of a pandemic.
D. suggest that there may be a new pandemic soon