2ND TEST TUTORIAL FOR HEAMATOLOGY
CD 79a – B cells T
Mark True or False against each option
(wrong answers will attract penalties)
1. Cells of the myeloid lineage include
A. Megakaryocytes T
B. Natural killer cells F
C. Eosinophils T
D. MonocytesT
2. In the adult human the sites of
haempoiesis will include the
following bones;
A. Pelvis T
B. Phalanges
C. Sternum T
D. Distal femur
3. The following is true of haemopoetic
growth factors
A. They are steroid hormones
B. They are secreted by stem cells
C. They act secreted by monocytes
T C. Absorption takes place in the
D. They regulate division and
differentiation of cells T
4. The following are true of the site of
actions of the growth factors;
A . Stem cell factor – multi-potent
progenitor T
B. Thrombopoetin – BFU-E T
C. Erythropoietin – reticuocytes F
D. Interleukin 6 – megakaryocytes F
5. The following CD markers are
matched with the cells where they
are found;
A. CD2 – B cells
B. CD 22 – myeloid cells
C. CD 5 – T cells T
D.
6. The following are causes of Target
cells in the blood film;
A. Liver disease T
B. Post-splenectomy T
C. Iron deficiency T
D. Lead poisoning
E. OBSTRUCTIVE JAUNDICE T
7. Clinical features of Iron deficiency
include;
A. Oesophageal webbing T
B. Hepatosplenomegaly F (10% HAS
SPLENOMEGALY AND NOT
HEPATOSPLENOMEGALY)
C. Koilonychia T
D. Jaundice with a greenish tinge
F(this is seen in b12 deficiency)
8. With regards to Vitamin B12
metabolism;
A. Acid gastric secretions are
important T
B. Intrinsic factor is necessary T
duodenum F
D. It takes 3 – 4 months to develop
deficiency when intake ceases F
9. Specific diagnostic tests for
Megaloblastic anaemia will include;
A. Full blood count T
B. Serum Lactate dehydrogenase T
C. Red cell folate T
D. Bone marrow aspirate cytology T
10. With regards to cross-matching of
blood for transfusion;
A. Involves mixing recipients red
cells with donors serum T
B. Involves use of the (anti-human
globulin) Coombs Reagent T
 C. The search is for antibodies in
the recipients serum F
D. The mixture is incubated at 60°C
F 37’C
11. The following are transfusion-
transmissible infections;
A. Chaga’s disease
B. Babesiosis
C. Cytomegalovirus T
D. Malaria T
12. The following should be observed in
clinical blood transfusion;
A. Pre-warmed the blood in hot
water T
B. Transfusion must take at least 8
hours
C. Transfusion should be
completed within 4 hours
D. Cross-check the form and the
bag T
13. All the following are immune-
mediated complications of blood
transfusion, except;
A. Immune thrombocytopaenic
purpuraT
B. Anaphylactic reactions
C. Urticarial reactions
D. Citrate toxicity T
14. Laboratory features of acute
leukaemias will include all the
following;
A. Disseminated intravascular
coagulation F
B. Gum infiltration F
C. Chloromas T
D. Haemarthrosis (bleeding into the
joints) F
15. The following are examples of
cytochemical stains useful in
leukaemia diagnosis;
A. Giemsa stain
B. Myeloperoxidase T
C. Sudan Black T
D. Leishman stain
16. The following statements are true of
Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
(AML-M3);
A. Has BCR-ABL translocation F
B. Gum hypertrophy is a feature T
C. Usually treated with (all-trans
retinoic acid) ATRA T
D. Has translocation (15;17)T
17. Features of poor prognosis in ALL
include;
A. Presence of Philadelphia
chromosome T
B. CNS involvement T
C. Age less than 2 years T
D. ALL (L1) F
18. In Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
the Philadelphia chromosome;
A. Is the aberrant chromosome 9
B. Can be detected with
Cytochemical stains T
C. Is found in about 95% of patients
F=50%
D. Can be detected on Karyotyping
T
19. The following drugs are used in
treatment of CML;
A. Imatinib Mesylate T
B. Cyclosporine F
C. Interferon α T
D. Rituximab F MM AND PAGET DIZ
20. Diagnosis of Chronic lymphocytic
leukaemia (CLL) is based on;
A. Presence of 10% monoclonal
lymphocytosis T
B. Presence of ≥ 20% lymphocytes
in the bone marrow
C. Presence of ≥ 5 x 109/L of
monoclonal lymphocytes T
D. None of the above
21. Histologic bone marrow infiltration
patterns in CLL patients can be
described as;
A. Trabecular
B. Paratrabecular
C. Nodular T
D. Punctate
22. ‘B’ symptoms in Lymphoma staging
will include;
A. Drenching night sweats T
B. Fever of > 40°C for more than 2
weeks
C. Weight loss of more than 10kg in
the last 6 months
D. Large node size > 10 cm in its
widest diameter
23. The following statement is true with
regards to staging of Lymphomas;
A. Stage 1 involves 2 or more nodes
on same side of the diaphragm
B. Stage 2 can only be confirmed
with bone marrow trephine
histology
C. Stage 3 involves 3 or more lymph
node regions on both sides of
the diaphragm
D. Stage 4 involves extra-lymphatic
organs
24. The two most common types of
Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphomas are;
A. Follicular Lymphoma
B. Diffuse large B- cell lymphoma
C. Mantle cell lymphoma
D. Small cell lymphoma
25. Contents of dense granules of
platelets include;
A. Serotonin T
B. Histamine
C. Platelet Factor 4
D. ATP T
26. Abnormalities in the following will
lead to an increased bleeding time;
A. Platelet count T
B. Coagulation factors T
C. Von Willebrand Factor T
D. Vessel wall T
27. Naturally occurring inhibitors of
coagulation includes;
A. Anti-thrombin III T
B. Plasmin T
C. Calmodulin T
D. Activated Protein C T
28. The following are causes of DIC;T
A. Gram negative septicaemia T
B. Snake Venom T
C. Abruptio placenta T
D. Ovarian carcinoma T
29. The following are clinical features of
sickle cell anaemia;
A. Jaundice T
B. Dactylitis T
C. Priapism T
D. LymphadenopathyT
30. Features of sequestration crisis in
sickle cell anaemia includes;
 A. Precipitous fall in Haemoglobin
concentration
B. Severe jaundice
C. Usually in children < 6 years
D. Hypovolaemic shock
31. The following is true of IgG;
A. Half life is 13 days
B. Can be transferred across the
placenta
C. Neutralizes toxins and viruses
D. Capable of complement fixation
32. Aplastic crisis in sickle cell anaemia;
A. Is an acquired form of pure red
cell aplasia
B. Leads to deepening of jaundice
C. Is due to Parvovirus B19 virus
infection
D. Is due to Hepatitis C
33. Haptens are;
A. Weakly immunogenic
B. Non-immunogenic
C. Are usually antigens
D. Are usually immunogens
34. The following are capable of
activating the complement
pathways;
A. Kallikrein
B. Oxides
C. Plasmin
D. Hydrophobic surfaces
35. The following are anaphylatoxins;
A. C3a T
B. C3b
C. C4b
D. C5a T
E. C4a T
36. The following is true about
regulation of the complement
pathways;
A. S protein inhibits the action of
the membrane attack complex
B. Factor H prevents binding of C3b
and B
C. Factor I cleaves bound C4b
D. Decay accelerating factor inhibits
the action of C3 convertases
37. The following is true of Type 3
hypersensitivity reaction;
A. Involves mainly IgE
B. Serum sickness is a type
C. Blood transfusion reaction is a
classical example
D. Involves either IgG or IgM
38. Precipitation as an immunological
laboratory technique involves;
A. Use of insoluble antibodies
B. Reaction time takes minutes to
hours
C. Test results can only be
qualitative
D. Test results can also be
quantitative
39. Paroxysmal nocturnal
haemoglobinuria;
A. Can be treated with bone
marrow transplant
B. There is thrombosis of the
mesenteric vessels
C. Jaundice is typically observed
D. Diagnostic tests will include
Hams test
40. With regards to antigen
presentation,
A. CD4 cells present antigens in
conjunction with MCH Class I
B. CD4 cells present antigens in
conjunction with MCH Class II
C. CD8 cells present antigens in
conjunction with MCH Class I
D. CD8 cells present antigens in
conjunction with MCH Class II