1. Which of the following statement is not TRUE?

A. Anti thrombin III deficiency is sex linked

B. Mucinous adenocarcinomas are more prone for DIC
C. Protein C deficiency can develop Coumardin-induced skin necrosis when started without
heparin
D. Obesity is a risk factor for thrombosis in post operative patient
2. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Inab phenotype?
A. Inherited deficiency of CD 55
B. Inherited deficiency of CD 59
C. Inherited deficiency of CD 55 and CD 59
D. Acquired deficiency of CD 55
3. A condition with an X-linked mode of inheritance, often associated with chronic granulomatous
disease, hemolytic anaemia and characteristic red cell acanthocytosis is ….
A. Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
B. Rh null phenotype
C. McLeod phenotype
D. Gerbich-negative phenotype
4. An elderly gentleman develops purpura all over body 7 days after anterior resection for Ca
colon. He was found to have platelet count-10,000/cumm with normal WBC and Hb.
Coagulation was normal. He was given 4 units of PCV during surgery and was on LMW heparin
prophylaxis for DVT. What is to be done?
A. Platelet transfusion
B. Corticosteroids
C. High dose IVIg
D. Stop heparin and start on warfarin
5. All of these are associated with prolonged aPTT without bleeding manifestations, EXCEPT:
A. Factor XII deficiency
B. Factor XI deficiency
C. Prekallikrein deficiency
D. HMW Kininogen deficiency
6. Eosin-5-maleimide (EMA) dye in flow cytometry for erythrocyte membrane abnormalities binds
to which antigen?
A. Ankyrin
B. Spectrin
C. Band 3 protein
D. GPI anchor
7. Which description of T cell gene rearrangement is correct?
A. The order of rearrangement is gamma, delta, beta and alpha
B. The order of rearrangement is alpha, beta, gamma and delta
C. Gamma and delta receptors are present on 95% of circulating T cells
D. TCR genes do not undergo V(d)J rearrangement
8. Which of the following has an abnormal response to Ristocetin induced platelet aggregation?
A. Bernard-soulier syndrome
B. Glanzmann’s thromboasthenia
C. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
D. None of the above
9. A patient with APML who is on chemotherapy with DIC with Hb-7 gm% requires blood
transfusion. An RBC unit removed from storage and should be transfused ….
A. Within 30 minutes of removal from cold storage
B. Within 2 hours or when the unit has come to room temperature
C. After warming to 37degree centrigrade
D. Within 1 hour of removal from cold storage
10. An elderly gentleman is a known case of CLL for which has never received any treatment. He
was brought to casualty with Hb of 5 gm/dl. Cross matching was difficult because DCT and ICT
being positive against all panel cells. RBC morphology, bilirubin and LDH were normal. What is
the most appropriate transfusion product?
A. Irradiated PRBC
B. ABO/Rh/matched “least incompatible” PRBC
C. Washed PRBC
D. HLA matched RBC
11. How many ABO phenotypes and genotypes exists?
A. 6,4
B. 4,6
C. 6,6
D. 4,4
12. NOT TRUE about cryoprecipitate is
A. Prepared from blood while separating the fresh plasma
B. Contains equal amount of Factor VIII and IX
C. Is a poor source of fibrinogen
D. All of the above
13. True about hyper IgM syndrome is:
A. Defect in CD40 ligand
B. Disorder of immunoglobulin class switching
C. Patient dies at young age
D. All of the above
14. A 42year old woman has become increasingly fatigue for the past 3 months. During the past
week, she has noted purpuric spots on her skin. She has no organomegalies. Laboratory studies
show Hb- 6.8 gm%, MCV-91 fl, Paltelets- 34,000/cumm and TC- 2140/ cumm. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Aplastic anaemia
B. Myeloproliferative disorder
C. ITP
D. Hereditary sperocytosis
15. A 13-year-old girl has the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and bach pain. On physical
examination her abdomen was found to be diffusely tender, but there are no masses. A CBC
shows Hb-6.5 gm%, MCV-99 fl, Platelets-211,000/cumm and WBC count-11,200/cumm.
Examination of her PBS shows nucleated RBCs and sickled RBCs. Which of the following type of
gene mutation is she most likely to have?
A. Deletion
B. Duplication
C. Insertion
D. Missense
16. Cytogenetic abnormalities associated with Waldenstorm macroglobulinemia include all, EXCEPT:
A. Deletion 13q14
B. Deletion 17p13
C. Deletion 16q
D. Deletion 7p
17. Autologous transplant is not done for:
A. Lymphoma
B. Myeloma
C. AML
D. Aplastic anaemia
18. In factor XIII deficiency:
A. PT is prolonged
B. aPTT is prolonged
C. TT is prolonged
D. None of the above are prolonged
19. Heparin induce thrombocytopenia is due to antibodies against:
A. Platelet Factor 1 (PF1)
B. PF2
C. PF3
D. PF4
20. Which is not a feature of PNH?
A. Due to PIG-A gene mutation
B. Cells are deficient in GPI- linked proteins
C. Never associated with MDS
D. Thrombosis can be one of the presentations
21. Corrected Count Increment (CCI) term is used for….
A. Neutrophil recovery
B. RBC recovery
C. Platelet recovery
D. Eosinophil recovery in hypereosinophilic syndrome
22. Extensive inflammatory infiltrate with poor anti tumor immune response is seen in
A. Marginal zone lymphoma
B. Lymphocyte depleted Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C. Plasmablastic lymphoma
D. Small lymphocytic lymphoma
23. The Leyden phenotype of Hemophilia B is characterised by….
A. Severe Hemophilia A in childhood that becomes mild after puberty
B. Mild Hemophilia A in childhood that becomes severe after puberty
C. Severe Hemophilia B in childhood that becomes mild after puberty
D. Severe Hemophilia A & B in childhood that becomes mild after puberty
24. CSF to evaluate for CNS involvement in AML is recommended for all EXCEPT:
A. Patients with high WBC count (>100,000/cumm) at the time of diagnsosis
B. Patients with Monoblastic phenotype
C. CD 56 positivity
D. AML M7
25. The peripheral blood eosinophil count in Eosinophilia-myalagia syndrome is usually
A. Less than 1000 cells/µl
B. More than 1000 cells/µl
C. Less than 500 cells/µl
D. More than 5000 cells/µl
26. In a case of anaemia with thrombocytopenia and neutrophils showing inclusions. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. May-Hegglin anomaly
B. Evan’s syndrome
C. Elder-Reilly anomaly
D. Pelger’s Heut anomaly
27. Which of the following surface glycoproteins most often expressed in human hematopoietic
stem cell?
A. CD22
B. CD45
C. CD14
D. CD34
28. EBV is not associated with
A. Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin’s disease
B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
C. Plasmablastic lymphoma
D. Mixed cellularity Hodgkin’s disease
29. Origin of lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma (Waldenstorm macroglobulinemia) is from
A. Germinal centre T cells
B. Germinal centre B cells
C. Postgerminal centre B cells
D. Pregerminal centre B cells
30. Myelofibrosis leading to dry tap on bone marrow aspiration is seen with which of the following
condition?
A. Burkitt’s lymphoma
B. Acute erythroleukemia
C. Acute Megakaryocytic Leukemia
D. Acute Myelomonocytic Leukemia
31. Palatal edema is significant for?
A. Alpha heavy chain disease
B. Gamma heavy chain disease
C. Mu chain disease
D. Beta heavy chain disease
32. A patient presents with complaints of regular headaches and upper abdominal pain. On physical
examination, his spleen and liver seem enlarged, and his face is plethoric. Gastroendoscopy
reveals several gastric ulcers. A bone marrow aspirate shows hypercellularity with fibrosis and
serum erythropoietin is low. The patient is informed about a new treatment with ruxolitinib for
the main cause of his symptoms. Which of the conditions below can develop due to the same
mutation that is causing this patient's symptoms?
A. Acute Monocytic Leukemia
B. Mantle Cell Lymphoma
C. Essential Thrombocythemia
D. Burkitt’s Lymphoma
33. A 34-year-old man presents with chronic fatigue and bumps on his neck, right axilla, and groin.
He gives history of frequent visits to Japan and is rather promiscuous on his business trips. He
denies use of barrier protection. On examination, there is generalized lymphadenopathy.
Routine lab work reveals abnormal lymphocytes on peripheral smear. The serum calcium is 12.2
mg/dl. Which of the following viruses is associated with this patient's condition?
A. HIV
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Human T-lymphotropic virus 2
D. Human T-lymphotropic virus 1
34. A 40-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe left upper quadrant
pain. On physical examination is significant for severe tenderness to palpation in the left upper
quadrant. Significant splenomegaly is also noted. The patient is admitted to the hospital for
close observation and placed on DVT prophylaxis as part of a routine protocol. Laboratory
findings are drawn sometime after admission demonstrate a normal PT and elevated PTT. Which
of the following factors is most directly affected by the DVT prophylaxis?
A. Factor VII
B. Factor XIIa
C. Factor VIIa
D. Factor X
35. CD11c is the marker of ..
A. Eosinophils
B. Mast cells
C. Dendritic cells
D. Endothelial cell
36.