2012 Human Histology

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Modified cardiac muscle cells that spontaneously depolarize as a part of normal heart function.
a. Cells of the atrioventricular (AV) node
b. Cells of the bundle of His
c. Cells of the cardiac skeleton
d. Cells of the sinuatrial (SA) node
e. Purkinje cells

2. Vasa vasorum may be found in the walls of

a. arterioles.
b. continuous capillaries.
c. elastic arteries.
d. fenestrated capillaries.
e. postcapillary venules.

3. The cardiac skeleton and impulse conducting system of the heart (Purkinje fibers) are located in
this region of the heart wall.
a. Endometrium
b. Epicardium
c. Myocardium
d. Subendocardial connective tissue
e. Tunica intima

4. The atrial and ventricular syncytia are insulated from each other by the
a. cardiac skeleton.
b. Epicardium.
c. fibrous pericardium.
d. pericardial cavity.
e. Purkinje fibers.

5. These blood vessels are functionally classified as resistance vessels due to their role in regulating
systemic blood pressure.
a. Arterioles
b. Capillaries
c. Elastic arteries
d. Muscular arteries
e. Venules

_6. Cell type associated with capillaries and venules that are capable of transforming into smooth
muscle cells.
a. Endothelial cells
b. Paneth cells
c. Parietal cells
d. Pericytes
e. Podocytes

7. A blood vessel with one layer of smooth muscle in its tunica media would be classified as a
a. arteriole.
b. continuous capillary.
c. muscular artery.
d. postcapillary venule.
e. sinusoid.

8. Site where circulating lymphocytes leave the blood and enter the spleen.
a. Central arteries.
b. High endothelial venules in the paracortex.
c. Marginal sinuses surrounding the white pulp.
d. Splenic sinusoids.
e. Subcapsular sinus.

9. What is the function of macrophages in the thymus?

a. Act as antigen presenting cells and stimulate immune responses.
b. Differentiate into epithelial reticular cells.
c. Phagocytosis of B lymphocytes that display low affinity for antigen.
d. Phagocytosis of old red blood cells.
e. Phagocytosis of developing T lymphocytes that fail positive or negative selection.

10. Stroma found in all lymphoid organs and tissues except the thymus.
a. Capsule
b. Cytoreticulum
c. Reticular tissue
d. Tonofilaments
e. Trabeculae
C

11. Site where antigen-dependent proliferation of B lymphocytes takes place.

a. Bone marrow
b. Cortex of thymus
c. Germinal centers of lymph nodules
d. Marginal zone of the spleen
e. Paracortex of lymph nodes

12. Which of the following is an example of an antigen presenting cell capable of directly participating
in the activation of T helper cells leading to an immune response?
a. B lymphocytes
b. Epithelial reticular cells
c. Pericytes
d. Reticular cells
e. Thymocytes

13. Feature of lymphatic capillaries which allows for the entry into the lymphatic system of molecules
too large to reenter the blood via postcapillary venules.
a. Clathrin coated vesicle transport systems
b. Fenestrae lacking diaphragms
c. High number of gap junctions between endothelial cells
d. Minivalves formed by overlapping endothelial cells
e. 2-4 micron gaps between adjacent endothelial cells

14. Cell type which forms Hassall’s corpuscles.

a. Epithelial reticular cells
b. Macrophages
c. Reticular cells
d. Stromal cells
e. Thymocytes

15. The highest concentration of melanosomes are found in

a. keratinocytes of the stratum basalis.
b. keratinocytes of the stratum granulosum.
c. Langerhans cells.
d. Merkle cells.
e. melanocytes.
A

16. Filaggrin functions in the

a. bundling of tonofilaments.
b. formation of a barrier to fluid loss.
c. formation of intercellular junctions between keratinocytes.
d. transport of melanosomes.
e. transport of nerve impulses.

17. Most abundant type of cell junction present in skin.

a. Desmosomes
b. Fascia adherens
c. Gap junctions
d. Hemidesmosomes
e. Tight junctions

18. The striations seen in the cells forming striated ducts are the result of
a. accumulations of rough endoplasmic reticulum.
b. accumulations of secretory vesicles.
c. infoldings of the baso-lateral membrane lined by mitochondria.
d. numerous hemidesmosomes attaching the cells to the underlying basal lamina.
e. the contraction of myoepithelial cells surrounding the ducts.

19. Pancreatic duct cells secrete _________, which along with the digestive enzymes secreted by the
pancreatic acini, is delivered to the duodenum.
a. acetylcholine
b. bicarbonate
c. lysozyme
d. secretin
e. trypsin

20. Fat is abundant in what exocrine gland?

a. Pancreas
b. Parathyroid gland
c. Parotid gland
d. Sublingual gland
e. Submandibular gland

C
 21. Hormone which acts on the pancreatic acinar cells to induce the release of zymogens.
a. Cholecystokinin
b. Gastrin
c. Oxytocin
d. Secretin
e. Somatostatin

22. Graves disease is caused by

a. a mutation in the TSH receptor gene.
b. abnormally high levels of iodine in the blood.
c. abnormally high number of TSH receptors on follicular cells.
d. binding of autoimmune antibodies to TSH receptors on follicular cells.
e. hypersecretion of TSH by thyrotropes.

23. An example of a neurosecretory endocrine cell type is

a. the chief cells of the parathyroid.
b. the chromaffin cells of the adrenal gland.
c. the corticotropes of the pituitary.
d. the follicular cells of the thyroid.
e. the oxyphils of the parathyroid.

24. The administration of glucocorticoids results in the atrophy of the

a. anterior pituitary.
b. medulla of adrenal gland.
c. posterior pituitary.
d. thyroid gland.
e. zona fasciculate and zona reticularis of adrenal gland.

25. Type I diabetes is the result of

a. a decreased number of islets in the pancreas.
b. a mutation in the insulin receptor gene.
c. the destruction of beta cells in the pancreas.
d. the absence of the enzyme required to convert proinsulin to insulin.
e. hyperplasia of alpha cells in the pancreas.

C
 26. Regulatory hormones from the hypothalamus are transported to the anterior pituitary via
a. diffusion.
b. parasympathetic nerve fibers.
c. portal blood system.
d. sympathetic nerve fibers.
e. vesicle transport along microtubules.

27. Cell type which secretes calcitonin.

a. Alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans
b. Chief cells in the parathyroid
c. Chromaffin cells in the adrenal gland
d. Oxyphil cells in the parathyroid
e. Parafollicular cells in the thyroid

28. Destruction of the adrenal cortex will result in hypersecretion by what cell type?
a. Chromaffin cell
b. Corticotrope
c. Leydig cell
d. Luteal cell
e. Pituicyte

29. What is the function of the glycocalyx of the small intestine?

a. Adhesion of adjacent cells
b. Digestion of lumenal contents
c. Increasing the amount of surface area available for absorption
d. Neutralization of lumenal contents
e. Protection of the epithelium from physical abrasion

30. Chief cells in the stomach secrete an inactive form of the digestive enzyme pepsin. Activation of
pepsin is dependent upon
a. binding of cofactors secreted by the surface mucous cells.
b. contact with the acidic gastric juice.
c. digestion by enteropeptidase located in the plasma membrane of the surface
mucous cells.
d. digestion by trypsin in the lumen of the stomach.
e. the formation of protein homodimers in the lumen of the stomach.

B
 31. Plicae circulares are
a. folds of the mucosa and part of the submucosa of the small intestine.
b. folds of the mucosa and part of the submucosa of the stomach.
c. morphologically indistinct regions of the muscularis externa forming physiological
sphincters through the digestive tract.
d. thick ribbon-like bands of muscle in the large intestine.
e. thickenings of the muscularis externa forming anatomical sphincters located
throughout the digestive tract.

32. Feature of the esophagus not found in the other organs of the digestive tube.
a. Adventitia
b. Muscularis mucosa
c. Peristaltic contraction of muscularis externa
d. Skeletal muscle in muscularis externa
e. Submucosal glands

33. Primary function of the secretions of pyloric glands.

a. Absorption of vitamin B12
b. Emulsification of lipids
c. Neutralization of acidic chyme
d. Terminal digestion of polypeptides
e. Trapping of foreign material for removal by cilia

34. Digestive system cell type which is part of the innate immune system.
a. Chief cell
b. M cell
c. Paneth cell
d. Principal cell
e. Stromal cell

35. The highest concentration of parietal cells is found in the

a. appendix.
b. colon.
c. duodenum.
d. body/fundic stomach.
e. pyloric stomach.

D
 36. In individuals with congestive heart failure resulting in hypoxia, which portion of the liver acinus will
be the most affected by the lack of oxygen?
a. Zone 1
b. Zone 2
c. Zone 3

37. Region where blood from liver sinusoids comes into direct contact with the plasma membrane of
hepatocytes.
a. Intercellular canaliculi
b. Marginal sinuses
c. Minor calyces
d. Portal triads
e. Space of Disse

38. The walls of bile canaliculi are formed by

a. endothelial cells and underlying basal lamina.
b. Kupffer cells.
c. plasma membranes of adjacent hepatocytes.
d. simple cuboidal epithelium and underlying basal lamina.
e. stratified cuboidal epithelium and underlying basal lamina.

39. Cell type which stores vitamin A.

a. Hepatocytes
b. Ito cell
c. Kupffer cell
d. Oxyphil
e. Wesserhelle cell

40. Cholecystokinin (CCK) induces contraction of the muscularis of the gallbladder resulting in the
release of bile. What cell type is responsible for the secretion of CCK?
a. Alpha cells of the pancreatic islets
b. Basophils of the anterior pituitary
c. Enteroendocrine cells of the duodenum
d. Oxyphils of the parathyroid
e. Paneth cells of the ileum

C
 41. In addition to endothelial cells, the lumens of liver sinusoids are lined by this cell type.
a. Hepatocytes
b. Ito cell
c. Kupffer cell
d. Pericyte
e. Podocyte

42. In liver portal lobules, blood from the liver sinusoids drains directly into a
a. central arteriole.
b. central vein.
c. marginal sinus.
d. medullary sinus.
e. portal vein.

43. Approximately 100% of the residual protein, amino acids and glucose of the urinary ultrafiltrate is
resorbed in the
a. collecting ducts.
b. distal convoluted tubules.
c. juxtaglomerular apparatus.
d. proximal convoluted tubules.
e. thin limbs of Henle’s loop.

44. The visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule is formed by this cell type.
a. Endothelial cell
b. Interstitial cell
c. Juxtaglomerular (JG) cell
d. Mesangial cell
e. Podocyte

45. Cells which secrete renin in response to low Na+ levels.

a. Duct cells of proximal convoluted tubules
b. Endothelial cells of glomerular capillaries
c. Extraglomerular mesangial cells
d. Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells
e. Macula densa cells

D
 46. The blood vessels that make up the vasa recta arise from
a. afferent arterioles of the cortical glomeruli.
b. arcuate arteries.
c. efferent arterioles of juxtamedullary glomeruli.
d. interlobular arteries.
e. the renal artery.

47. Component of the filtration barrier which prevents blood cells from passing into the ultrafiltrate.
a. Endothelial fenestrae
b. Fenestrae diaphragms
c. Filtration slits between pedicels
d. Polyanionic proteoglycans
e. Type IV collagen

48. Collecting ducts and the straight portions of proximal and distal tubules form the
a. medullary rays.
b. nephrons.
c. renal columns.
d. renal lobules.
e. renal pyramids.

49. The macula densa is a region of the

a. afferent arteriole.
b. collecting duct.
c. distal convoluted tubule.
d. efferent arteriole.
e. proximal convoluted tubule.

50. Characteristic which distinguishes respiratory bronchioles from terminal bronchioles.

a. Presence of alveoli
b. Presence of mucosal glands
c. Presence of goblet cells
d. Presence of hyaline cartilage
e. Presence of respiratory epithelium

51. In terminal bronchioles, a surfactant-like substance is secreted by

a. clara cells.
b. goblet cells.
c. peg cells.
d. surface mucous cells.
e. type I pneumocytes.

52. Cell type that forms part of the blood-gas barrier.

a. Dust cell
b. Endothelial cell
c. Peg cell
d. Smooth muscle cell
e. Type II pneumocyte

53. The true vocal cords are covered by

a. respiratory epithelium.
b. simple columnar epithelium.
c. simple cuboidal epithelium.
d. stratified squamous keratinized epithelium.
e. stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium.

54. Dust cells are

a. mucous-secreting cells.
b. neuroendocrine cells.
c. part of the blood-gas barrier.
d. phagocytic cells.
e. surfactant-secreting cells.

55. Odorant receptors are located on the

a. axonal ends of olfactory neurons.
b. basal cells of the olfactory epithelium.
c. cilia at the dendritic ends of olfactory neurons.
d. goblet cells of the olfactory epithelium.
e. sustentacular cells (supporting cells) of the olfactory epithelium.

56. Alveolar pores

a. are fenestrations of the capillaries located within the walls of the alveoli.
b. are metaplastic changes caused by inhalation of pollutants.
c. are pathways for the transport of gasses across the air-blood barrier.
d. function to equilibrate air pressure in the lungs.
e. open and close to regulate the entry of air into the alveoli.
D

57. Secretions from this organ comprise 50% or more of the volume of ejaculate.
a. Ampulla of ductus deferens
b. Epididymis
c. Prostate gland
d. Seminal vesicles
e. Testis

58. The blood-testis barrier is formed by

a. the basal lamina of the capillaries surrounding seminiferous tubules.
b. the basal lamina of the seminiferous epithelium.
c. the tunica albuginea of the testis.
d. tight junctions between sertoli cells.
e. tight junctions between the Leydig cells surrounding the seminiferous tubules.

59. In the testis, testosterone production is stimulated by

a. androgen binding protein (ABP).
b. follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).
c. inhibin.
d. luteinizing hormone (LH).
e. prostaglandins secreted by sertoli cells.

60. During penile erection, blood flows into sinusoidal cavities of the corpora cavernosa and corpus
spongiosum via
a. arcuate arteries.
b. dilated helicine arteries.
c. interlobar arteries.
d. portal arterioles.
e. radial arteries.

61. Structures within the prostate gland that increase in number with age.
a. Atretic follicles
b. Corpora amylacea
c. Corpus albicans
d. Lamellar bodies
e. Rathke’s cysts

B
 62. Surface-associated decapacitation factor is added to sperm in the
a. epididymis.
b. oviduct.
c. testis.
d. vagina.
e. vas deferens.

63. The tubuli recti are lined by what cell type?

a. Granulosa cells
b. Leydig cells
c. Principal cells
d. Sertoli cells
e. Spermatogonia

64. Oocytes complete meiosis II to form a haploid ovum in

a. graafian follicles when they receive signals from the corona radiata cells.
b. primary follicles when gap junctions are formed with granulosa cells.
c. primary follicles when they come into contact with the glycoproteins of the zona
pellucida.
d. secondary follicles when stimulated by progesterone secreted by granulosa cells.
e. the oviduct when they come into contact with a sperm.

65. Granulosa cells and oocytes are connected by

a. desmosomes.
b. gap junctions.
c. hemidesmosomes.
d. tight junctions.
e. zonula adherens.

66. The theca interna cells of secondary follicles secrete

a. androgens.
b. estrogens.
c. progesterone.
d. prolactin.
e. relaxin.

A
 67. The low luminal pH of the vagina is the result of the
a. acidic secretions of cervical glands.
b. acidic secretions of vaginal mucosal glands.
c. acidic secretions of vaginal submucosal glands.
d. hydrolysis of glycogen from sloughed epithelial cells.
e. transport into the lumen of H+ ions by the vaginal mucosal epithelial cells.

68. During the follicular phase, the oviduct responds to increasing levels of estrogen by
a. changing the consistency of peg cell secretions from thin and watery to thick and
viscous.
b. decreasing the beat frequency of the ciliated cells.
c. decreasing the peristaltic contractions of the muscularis externa.
d. increasing the secretory activity of the peg cells.
e. reversing the direction of ciliary beating to assist the entry of sperm into the
oviduct.

69. During pregnancy, stromal cells of the uterus lamina propria differenciate into ____________ and
form the maternal portion of the placenta.
a. cytotrophoblasts
b. decidual cells
c. granulosa cells
d. lutein cells
e. syncytiotrophoblasts

70. Hormone which stimulates release of milk by inducing contractions of the myoepithelial cells
surrounding the alveoli of the mammary glands.
a. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
b. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
c. Oxytocin
d. Prolactin
e. Relaxin