PATHOLOGY

1.The type of programmed cell death that is a part is normal development is called _________

A) Mitosis

B) Apoptosis

C) Cytokinesis

D) Angiogenesis

2.How do cell division and programmed cell death interact?

A) Cell division occurs first, then programmed cell death, followed again by cell division and so forth.

B) Cell division resumes quickly before the last cell dies after programmed cell death.

C) Cell division and programmed cell death occur in balance so that a tissue does not shrink or grow too
large.

D) None of these is correct.

3.Apoptosis begins when ____________.

A) the cell is injured

B) a “death receptor” on the cell membrane receives the signal to die

C) caspases become activated

D) killer enzymes tear up the cytoskeleton

4.What is the function of apoptosis?

A) to weed out cells that grow uncontrollably

B) to allow the immune system to distinguish self from non-self .

C) to shape organs during development

D) All of these are correct

5.The characteristics of cancer cells include

A) ability to produce signals to stimulate angiogenesis.

B) Uncontrollable growth.
C) dedifferentiation.

D) All of the above are correct.

6.An example of hypertrophy would be

A) liver regeneration after partial hepatectomy

B) breast development at puberty

C) the uterus during pregnancy

D) the uterus during menstruation

7. Hypertrophy

A) occurs after partial hepatectomy

B) increases function of an organ exponentially

C) is triggered by mechanical and trophic

D) occurs after denervation (e) is usually pathological

8. Which of the following is an example of hypertrophy

A) increased liver size after partial hepatectomy

B) increased size of the female breast at puberty

C) increased respiratory epithelium seen in vitamin A deficiency

D) increased size of the uterus in pregnancy (e) endometrial development in readiness for ovum
implantation

9. Metapalsia

A) can be caused by vitamin B12 deficiency

B) preserves the mucus secretion in the respiratory tract

C) is typically irreversible

D) describes the underlying pathology of Barrett’s oesophagus

10. Hyperplasia is

A) increase in the size of cells

B)increase in the number of cells

C)increase in the number of cellular organelles

D)increase in the size of the organ

11. Examples of hyperplasia include

A) cardiac enlargement seen in hypertension

B) fatty liver

C) skeletal muscle enlargement with weightlifting

D) glandular epithelium of pubertal breasts

12. Which of the following is not associated with atrophy?

A) decreased smooth endoplasmic reticulum

B)decreased rough endoplasmic reticulum

C)decreased mitochondrial number

D) lysosomal degradation of cellular components

13. Regarding atrophy, all are correct except

A) Persistence of residual bodies

B) decreased microfilaments

C) Decreased rough endoplasmic reticulum

D) Decreased autophagic vacuoles

14. All the following are features of apoptosis except

A) cell swelling

B) chromatin condensation

C) formation of cytoplasmic blebs

D) lack of inflammation

15. Irreversible cell injury is characterised by

A) dispersion of ribosomes

B) cell membrane defects always reversible

C) nuclear chromatin clumping

D) lysosomal rupture

16. Pinocytosis

A) adds to the cell membrane

B) is the uptake of small particulate matter

C) is the vacuolisation of the cell

D) involve the uptake of soluble macromolecules

17. Regarding fatty change, which statement is incorrect

A) it may result from protein malnutrition

B) it may result from anoxia

C) it may result from diabetes mellitus

D) fatty cells are seen sporadically in alcoholic fatty

18. Fatty change

A) occurs during protein malnutrition

B) is not a feature of hypoxia

C) is abnormal accumulations of free fatty acids in cells

D) always impairs cellular function

19. Dystrophic calcification

A) formed by is crystalline calcium phosphate material

B) does not occur on heart valves

C) rarely causes dysfunction

D) is rarely found in mitochondria

20. Metastatic calcification occurs in

B) old lymph nodes

C) atherosclerotic lymph nodes

D) gastric mucosa

21.Which of the following accurately defines cellular adaptation:

A)Development of a new, altered steady state

B)Maintaining a steady state

C)Internally programmed cell death

D)ATP depletion

22.Which of the following in not considered an adaptive response: 

A)Atrophy

B)Hyperplasiya

C)Dyspalasia

 D)Hypertrophy

23.The enlarged uterus of a pregnant woman is an example of which adaptive behavior?

A)Dysplasia

B)Metaplasia

C)Hyperplasia

D)Hypertrophy

24.A 4 year girl has a broken arm. After her cast is removed 6 weeks later, her healing arm is markedly
smaller than her normal arm. The mechanism of atrophy in this case is:

A)Senile atrophy

 B)Pressure atrophy

C)Loss of endocrine stimulation

D)Disuse atrophy

25.All of the following are features of apoptosis EXCEPT:

A)Cell shrinkage
 B)Disorientation of cell membrane lipids

C)Karyolysis

D)No associated inflammation

26.Stimuli causing cellular injury do so by which of the following mechanisms:

A)ATP depletion

B)Loss of tochondrial membrane potential

C)Oxidative stress

D)All of the above

27.Steatosis refers to the accumulation of which of the following in cells?

 A)Thin filament

B)Triglycerides

C)Keratin filaments

D)Glycogen

28.A 76 year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer to bone, has abnormal calcium deposits diffusely
within her lung depicted on chest x-ray. This is an example of what type of pathologic calcification?

A)Dystrophic

B)Metastatic

C)Both A and B

D)ALL of the above

29.Hypertrophy of a muscle is due to

a) Increase in number of cells
b) Increase in size of cells
c) Decrease in number of cells
d) Abnormal shape of cell

30.replacement of one epithelium by other

a) Aplasia
b) Metaplasia
 c) Hyperplasia
d) Atrophy

31.Metaplasia is a
a. reversible change
b. Irreversible change
c. Inflammatory reaction
d. Post-infectious state.

32. Dysplasia refers of

a. Change in morphology
b. Change in number
c. Change in cell type
d. Change in cell size

33. Irreversible cell injury is seen

a. Apoptosis
b. Hypertrophy
c. Hyaline change
d. Fatty change

34. All are features of apoptosis except

a. Increase in cell size
b. Cell bodies
c. Cytoplasmic blebs
d. Chromatin Condensation

35. Apoptosis can be defined as

a. Programmed cell growth
b. Programmed cell death
c. Programmed cell maturity

36. The following pigment is non- endogenous

a. Melanin
b. Hemosiderin
c. Lipofuscin
d. Anthracotic pigment
37. The pigment of ageing [wear and tear pigment]
a. Melanin
b. Hemosiderin
c. Bilirubin
d. Lipofuscin

38. Prussian blue is used to stain

a. Hemosiderin
b. Calcium
c. Glycogen
d. Amyloid
39. Psammoma bodies are seen in
a. Dystrophic calcification
b. Metastatic calcification
c. Apoptosis
d. Necrosis

40. Anti-apoptotic proteins are

a. 2 & Bc1 x Bcl
b. Apaf – 1
c. Bax  & Bim
d. Bim & Bid

41. Cellular response that results from reprogramming of stem cells is

a. Anaplastic
b. Metaplasia
c. Hyperplasia
d. Hypertrophy
42. Phagocytosis was discovered by
a. Ehrlich
b. Metchnikoff
c. Celsus
d. Virchow

43. Locomotion across chemical gradient is called

a. Diapedesis
b. Chemotaxis
 c. Pavement
d. Margination

44. Pain in inflammation is mediated byBradykinin

a. Bradykinin
b. Histamine
c. Serotonin
d. Thromboxane

45. The following are labile cells except

a. Hepatocytes
b. Bone marrow
c. Intestinal mucosa
d. Epithelium of skin

46. Wound contraction is due to

a. Myocyte
b. Fibroblast
c. Myofibroblast
d. Skeletal muscle fiber

47.The type of necrosis seen in hypoxic brain is

a. Caseous necrosis
b. Coagulative necrosis
c. Liquefactive necrosis
d. Avascular necrosis

48.Hypertrophy of a muscle is due to

a) Increase in number of cells
b) Increase in size of cells
c) Decrease in number of cells
d) Abnormal shape of cell

49. Metastatic calcification occurs in

B) old lymph nodes

C) atherosclerotic lymph nodes

D) gastric mucosa

50. Metaplasia is a
a) reversible change
b) Irreversible change
c) Inflammatory reaction
d) Post-infectious state.

AUTOIMMUNE DISORDERS:

51: Protection against infection called?

a: Phagocytosis.

b: Sensitivity.

c: Immunity.

d: Angiogenesis.

52: The immune system it is self capable of causing tissue injury and disease
referred as?

a: Immunity.

b: Innate immunity.

c: Hyper sensitivity disorders.

d: Hypo sensitivity disorders.

53: The immune reaction against self antigens called?

a: Autoimmunity.

b: Pathogens.

c: Antibodies.

d: Antigens.
54: Sjogren syndrome caused by?

a: Auto immune T-cells.

b:Auto immune B - cells.

c: Bacterial.

d: Infection.

55: Immunologic disorders caused by excessive fibrosis in multiple tissue ,

production of multiple auto antibodies is?

a: Sjogren.

b: Heamophillia.

c: Local sclerosis.

d: Systemic sclerosis.

56: which of the following are autoimmune disease except?

a: Systemic lupus Erythematosus.

b: Sjogren.

c: Diabetes.

d: Rheumatoid Arthritis.

57: Which disorder characterized by extracellular deposits of proteins that are

prone to aggregate and form insoluble fibrils?

a: Sjogren.

b: Amyloidosus.

c: Fibrosis.

d: Heamorrhoids.
58: Autoimmune thrombocytopenia is an example of which type of
hypersensitivity reaction?

a: T- cells mediated.

b: Immediate.

c: Antibody mediated.

d: Immune complex.

59: T- lymphocytes mediate which immunity?

a: Auto.

b: Cellular.

c: Innate.

d: Temporary.

60: Cell lysis and inflammation are pathologic lession seen in which type of
hypersensitivity reactions?

a: Type 2.

b: Type 3.

c: Type 4.

d: Type 1.

61: Where do plasma cells mainly reside?

a: Bone marrow.

b: Neural tissue.

c: Glandular tissue.

d: Circulating blood.
62: X- Linked hyper Igm syndrome is an immun deficiency disease caused by a
mutation in gene for which ligand?

a: CD 20.

b: CD 1.

c: CD 40.

d: CD 39.

63: All of the following are immune deficiency disease except?

a: Graves disease.

b: SCID.

c: Digeorge's syndrome.

d: Hyper Igm syndrome.

64: The major chemical messenger involved in

hyper sensitivity is ?

a: Interleukins.

b: Histamine.

c: Interferons.

d: Bradykinin.

65: Which of the following Ig is involved in mediating allergic reaction?

a: Ig g.

b: Ig M.

c: Ig E.

d: Ig A .
66: Type 1 diabetes mellitus is an example of which type of hyper sensitivity
reaction?

a: T- cells mediate.

b: Antibody mediated.

c: Immune complex.

d: Immediate.

67: Food allergy is an example of which type of hyper sensitivity reaction?

a: T- cells mediated.

b: Immediate.

c: Antibody mediated.

d: Immune complex.

68: Humoral immunity protect against which microbes and their toxins?

a: Intracellular.

b: Extracellular.

c : Bacterial.

d: Strong.

69: Cell mediate immunity is responsible for defence against which microbes?

a: Bacterial.

b: intracellular.

c: Extracellular.

d: Weak.
70: Post streptococcal glomerulonephritus is an example of which type of hyper
sensitivity reaction?

a: T- cells mediated.

b: Immediate.

c: Immune complex.

d: Antibody mediated.

(NEOPLASIA)

71: Spread of malignant tumour from one site to another via blood or lymph is
termed as ?

a: Benign.

b: Metastasis.

c: Malignant.

d: Hypertrophy.

72: Those tumour capable of invasive growth and often fatal if not treated
effectively called?

a: Hyperplasia.

b: Metaplasia.

c: Melignant.

d: Benign.

73: Which of the following tumour doesn't invade surrounding tissue?

a: Metaplasia.
b: Benign.

c: Melignant.

d: Hyperplasia.

74: Precursor of neoplasia involved following except?

a: Metaplasia.

b: Hyperplasia.

c: Dysplasia.

d: Atrophy.

75: Recognizable morphologic changes in cells that indicates presence of genetic

mutations beginning the development of neoplasm?

a: Hyperplasia.

b: Atrophy.

c: Dysplasia.

d: Hypertrophy.

76: Which of the following are causes of cancer except?

a: Chronic inflammation.

b: Radiations.

c: Infectious agents.

d: Acute inflammation.

77: What does proliferation of neoplastic cells lead to?

a: Neoplasia.

b: Freckles.
c: Tumors.

d: Atrophy.

78: What is the term that mean new growth?

a: Anaplasia.

b: Neoplasia.

c: Hyperplasia.

d: Metaplasia.

79: What kind of tumor have a limited growth potential and a good outcome?

a: Hypotrophic.

b: Hypertrophic.

c: Benign.

d: Melignant.

80: What kind of tumor lack a capsule and are not demarcated?

a: Benign.

b: Melignant.

c: Hypertrophic.

d: Hypotrophic.

81: What is an example of lymphatic metastasis?

a: Renal cells carcinoma.

b: Breast cancer.

c: Adrenal adenoma.

d: Leiyoma.
82: Melignant tumor in skeletal muscles is called a?

a: Fibrosarcoma.

b: Rhabdomyosarcoma.

c: Liposarcoma.

d: carcinoma.

83: Which grade is a moderately differentiate tumor ?

a: 1

b: 2.

c: 3.

d: 4.

84: What does TNM stands for?

a: Tumor size , Lymph nodes , metastasis.

b: Tumor size , Lymph nodes , malignancy.

c: Tumor shape , Lymph nodes , metastasis.

d: Tumor size , leimyoma, malignancy.

85: If tumor is benign and of squamous origin what would it be called?

a: Melignant.

b: Carcinoma.

c: Papilloma.

d: Krukenburg.

86: A Melignant epithelial cells neoplasm derived from any of three germs layer is
referred as?
a: Sarcoma.

b: Teratoma.

c: Carcinoma.

d: Adenoma.

87: Which of the following neoplasm has a tendency to develop in areas of

unpigmented skin?

a: Squamous cells carcinoma.

b : Masto cytoma.

c: Basal cells epithelioma.

d: Histo cytoma.

88: If a tumor is benign and glandular in origin what it is called?

a: Melignant .

b: Adenoma.

c: Carcinoma.

d: Papilloma.

89: Melignant tumor in fibrous tissue called?

a: Lipo sarcoma.

b: Osteo sarcoma.

c: Fibro sarcoma.

d: Rhabdomyo sarcoma.

90: Benign tumor in fat tissue is called?

a: Leimyoma.
b: Lipoma.

c: Chondroma.

d: Osteoma.

91: The process in which tissues are able to replace the damaged components and return to normal
state called?

a: Degeneration.

b: Regeneration.

c: Mitosis.

d: Proliferation.

92: Which term is used to describe the extensive deposition of collagen that occurs in lungs, liver, kidney
and other organs called ?

a: Necrosis.

b: Fibrosis.

c: Apoptosis.

d: Scar tissue.

93: Regeneration of liver occurs by which mechanisms ?

a: Proliferation of remaining hepatocytes.

b: Degradation from progenitor cells.

c: Maturation of tissue stem cells.

d: Regeneration by proliferation of residual cells.

94: The process in which new blood vessel development from existing vessels called?

a: Regeneration.

b: Angiogenesis.

c: Remodeling.

d: Abiogenesis.
95: Macrophages are involved in which process?

a: Degeneration.

b: Scar formation.

c: Repair.

d: degradation.

96: Which of the following steps not involved in scar formation?

a: Inflammation.

b: Cell proliferation.

c: Remodeling.

d: Degeneration.

97: Cell proliferation is controlled by?

a: TCA cycle.

b: Cell signaling.

c: Cell cycle.

d: Electron transport chain.

98: Excessive production of ECM ( extra cellular Matrix) can cause in skin?

a: Ulcer.

b: Eczema.

c: Keloids.

d: Pressure sore.

99: Which steps not involved in cutaneous wound healing?

a: Inflammation.

b: Formation of granulation tissue.

c: ECM remodeling

d: Redness.
100: What are the important factor that influence the healing process except?

a: type.

b: volume.

c: location of injury.

d: Humidity.

101: Which cytokine are involved in fibrosis?

a: TGF-A.

b: TGF-B.

c: Interleukin 1 and 2.

d: Histamine.

102: The area of skin ulceration and necrosis of underlying tissues caused by prolonged compression?

a: Inflammation.

b: Venous leg ulcer.

c: Pressure sore.

d: Varicose vein.

103: Which growth factor stimulates both migration and proliferation of endothelial cells?

a: VEGF-C.

b: FGF-2.

c: VEGF-A.

d: TGF-B.

104: Which cytokine involved in for the synthesis and deposition of connective tissue proteins?

a: VEGF- A.

b: TGF-B.

c: TGF-A.

d: TGF-C.
105: Repair of damaged tissues occurs by which reactions?

a: Maturation of tissue stem cells.

b: Degeneration by proliferation of residual cells.

c: proliferation of remaining hepatocytes.

d: Repopulation from progenitor cells.

106: Which type of ulcer develop in Individual with artherosclerosis of peripheral artries?

a: Venous leg ulcer.

b: Diabetic ulcer.

c: Vericose vein.

d: Arterial ulcer.

107: The process begins 2 to 3 weeks after injury and many continue for months or year?

a: Wound healing.

b: Scar formation.

c: Modelling.

d: Remodelling.

108: Which cells are capable of dividing in response to injury?

a: Labial cells.

b: Stable cells.

c: permanent cells.

d: Mucosal layer.

109: Which type of cells continously replaced by new cells?

a: Stable cells.

b : Labile cells.

c: Permanent cells.

d: Cardiac cells.
120: Which type of cells divide at the time of birth?

a: Stable cells.

b: Permanent cells.

c: Labile cells.

d: epithelial cells.

121: Example of permanent cells are except?

a: skeletal muscles cells.

b: Rbc's .

c: Cardiac cells.

d: Neurons.

122: wrong statement about example of stable cells?

a: RBC.

b:WBC.

c: Mucosal layer.

d: Platelets.

123: Which of the following example of labile cells except?

a: Mucosal layer.

b: squamous epithelial layer.

c: cuboidal layer.

d: Epidermis.

124: Accumulation of excessive amount of collagen may result in raised scar caused?

a: Tissue scar.

b: Hypertrophic scar.

c: Hypotonic scar.

d: Bone healing.
125: Tissue regeneration can occur in which organ?

a: Parenchymal organ.

b: Mesenchymal organ .

c: Ependymal organ.

d: Liver.

126: Most common cause of cell injury except?

a: Hypoxia.

b: Ischemia.

c: Infectious agents.

d:Swelling.

127: Which stage of cell injury at which the deranged function and morphology of injured cells can
return to its normal if damaging stimulus is removed?

a: Reversible cell injury.

b: Irreversible cell injury.

c: Remodeling.

d: Regeneration.

128: The process in which diminished ability of cells to respond to stress amd eventually the death of
cells and of organism?

a: Aging.

b: Degeneration.

c: Inflammation.

d: Swelling.

129: Which inflammation occurs over a second ,minutes, hours and days?

a: Chronic inflammation.

b: Acute inflammation.

c: Edema.
d: Swelling.

130: Which inflammation occurs over a longer time, days and months?

a: Acute inflammation.

b: chronic inflammation.

c: Swelling.

d: Redness.

131: Which of the following is not causes of chronic inflammation?

a: Persistent infection.

b: Prolonged exposure to potentially toxic agents.

c: Autoimmunity.

d:Swelling.

132: Which form of necrosis occur in immune reaction in which complexes of antigen and antibodies are
deposited in wall of blood vessels?

a: Fibrinoid necrosis.

b: Fat necrosis.

c: Caseous necrosis.

d: Coagulative necrosis.

133: Which of the following refer to any accumulation of triglycerides with in parenchymal cells?

a: Steatosis.

b: Steatorrhea.

c: Artherosclerosis.

d: Sillica silicosis.

134: Which of the following brown black pigment that is synthesize by melanocytes located in
epidermis?

a: Keratin.

b: Histidine.
c: Melanin.

d: Arginin.

135: Which of the following is the reaction of blood vessels leading to accumulation of fluid and
leukocytes in extra vascular tissue ?

a: Inflammation.

b: Swelling.

c: Edema.

d: Cell injury.

136: Vasodilation induced by which of the following inflammatory mediator?

a: Bradykinin.

b: Serotinin.

c: Histamine.

d: Acytykholine.

137: Which of the following sequential steps involved in phagocytosis except?

a: Recognition.

b: Degradation.

c: Engulfment.

d: Damaging.

138: Which of the following are abundant in immune reactions mediated by IgE and in parasitic infection
?

a: Basophills.

b: Neutrophils.

c: Eosinophils.

d: Lymphocytes.

139: Which of the following chemical mediator increase vascular permeability and causes pain when
injected into skin?

a: Acetylcholine.
b: Bradykinin.

c: Serotonin.

d: Cytokinin.

140: Which of the following protein secreted by many cells types that mediate and regulate immune and
inflammatory reaction?

a: Arginin.

b: Histamine.

c: Cytokines.

d: Serotinin.

141: Correct statement about Atrophy?

a: Increase in number of cells in an organ.

b: Shrinkage in size of cells by loss of cells substance.

c: Replacement of cells.

d: Decreas the size of cells.

142: Which of the following pathway of cell death in which cells activate enzymes that degrade the cells
own nuclear DNA and cytoplasmic protein?

a: Necrosis.

b: Reversible injury.

c: Apoptosis.

d: Inflammation.

143: Which type of necrosis is refers to fat destruction result from release of pancreatic lipases ?

a: Coagulative Necrosis.

b: Gangrenous Necrosis.

c: Liquefactive Necrosis.

d: Fat Necrosis.

144:Which of the following form of necrosis in which tissue maintain a cheese like appearance?
a: Coagulative Necrosis.

b: Fat necrosis.

c: Caseous necrosis.

d: Fibrinoid necrosis.

145: Erythema is caused by?

a: Ischemia.

b: Edema of dermis.

c: Vasodilation of blood vessels in dermis.

d: Breadykinin.

146: Aproximately 30 -60 mins after being bitten by a "bug" a 26 year old man , noticed a localized
swelling and erythema in affected aerea? Edema is most likely the result of ?

a: Venous obstruction.

b: Increase vascular permeability.

c: Increase arterial hydrostatic pressure.

d: Arterial oncotic pressure.

147: What is the first response of arterioles to injury?

a: Vasodilation.

b: Redness.

c: Hyperemia.

d: Vasoconstriction.

1 48: Pelvic inflammatory disease is an example of which inflammation?

a: Last longer inflammation.

b: Acute inflammation.

c: Chronic Inflammation.

d: Ulceratic Inflammation.

149: Pus formation occur in which type of necrosis?

a: Fibrinoid necrosis.

b: Caseous necrosis.

c: Fat necrosis.

d: Liquefactive Necrosis.

150: Which tissue is most suspectible to Liquefactive necrosis following ischemic injury?

a: Pancras.

b: liver.

c: Brain.

d: Intestine.

151: Coagulative necrosis usually result from ?

a: Trauma.

b: Ischemia.

c: Tuberculosis.

d: Sphyllis.

HEMORRHAGE
152. __________ is defined as the extravation of blood from blood vessels?

A. Hemostasis
B. Hemorrhage
C. Thrombosis
D. Edema
153. Hemorrhage is most often the result of damage of ________ ?

A. Venules
B. Arteries
C. Capillaries
D. Blood vessels
154. Hemorrhage may be external or accumulate with in a tissue as a________ ?

A. Blood clot
 B. Blood spot
C. Hemostasis
D. Hematoma
155. Extensive hemorrhages can occassionaly result in________ from the massive break down of RBCs?

A. Jaundice
B. Fracture
C. Bleeding
D. Cell death
156. The clinical significance of any particular hemorrhage depends on the ________ ?

A. Blood pressure
B. Plasma volume
C. Membrane permeability
D. Volume of blood
157. Purpura can result from the same disorder disorder that cause petechiae, as well as ________?

A. Jaundice
B. Hemorrhage
C. Trauma
D. Edema
158. Bleeding that would be trivial in the substancous tissues Can cause death if it is located in_______ ?

A. Kidney
B. Brain
C. Heart
D. Liver
159. Extravasated RBC’s are phagocytosed and degraded by the________?

A. WBC’s
B. Platelates
C. Macrophages
D. Lymphocytes
160. Loss of vascukar wall support as a result of deficiency of________?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin E
161. Neoplastic erosion of a vessels wall also may lead to ________ ?

A. Hemostasis
B. Edema
C. Hemorrhage
 D. Hematoma

THROMBOSIS
162. The abnormalities that lead to intravascular thrombosis are all except ?

A. Endothelial injury
B. Rupture of membrane
C. Static blood flow
D. Hyper coagulability
163. Trubelence contributes to arterial and cardiac thrombosis by causing_______?

A. Blood clot
B. Static blood flow
C. Endothelial injury
D. Hemastasis
164. Trubulent and static blood flow contributes to________ in a number ofclinical settings?

A. Hemorrhage
B. Edema
C. Hydrothorax
D. Thrombosis
165. Hyper coagulability refers to an abnormally high tendency of the blood to _______?

A. Damage
B. Die
C. Clot
D. Rupture
166. Abnormal aortic and arterial dilation called_____ create local stasis?

A. Aneurysms
B. Thrombosis
C. Cancer
D. Tissue in injury
167. The risk of thrombosis is only midly increased in heterozygous carriers of ________?

A. Factor III
B. Factor V
C. Factor X
D. Factor IV
168. Elevated levels of _____ contribute to arterial and venous thrombosis?

A. Factor V
B. Histamine
C. Homocystiene
 D. Cytosine
169. Thrombi occurring in heart chambers or in the aortic lumen are called as______?

A. Semi lunar thrombi

B. Venous thrombi
C. Vegetations
D. Mural thrombi
170. Thrombi on heart valves ara called_____?

A. Embolism
B. Metabolism
C. Vegetation
D. Endocarditis
171. Thrombus is significant because they cause the _____ of arteries and veins ?

A. Damaging
B. Obstruction
C. Rebuilt
D. Blockage

AIR EMBOLISM
172. A particular form of gas embolism called_____?

A. Depression
B. Decompression
C. Destruction
D. Pressurized
173. Gas bubbles with in the circulation can coalesce and obstructed vascular flow and cause _____?

A. Infarction
B. Hemorrhage
C. Embolism
D. Ischemic injury
174. Air embolism in the CNS can cause mental impairement and even sudden onset of

____?

A. Paralysis
B. Thrombosis
C. Coma
D. Death
175. The chronic form decomposition sickness is called_____ disease?

A. Caisson
 B. Congestion
C. Heart
D. Congenital
176. Air embolism in the pulmonary vasculature can cause ______?

A. Obstruction
B. Edema
C. Thrombosis
D. Congestion

HEMODYNAMIC DISORDER
177. All of the following are hemodynamic disorder except ?

A. Edeme
B. Dehydration
C. Hemorrhage
D. Hyperemia
178. Accumation of protein poor fluid in the interstitial spaces is called _____?

A. Hemorrhage
B. Edema
C. Hydrothorax
D. ascites
179. Following are the types of edema except?

A. Venous
B. Lymphatic
C. Arterial
D. Hypoalbuminemic
180. A small amount of water drains from the tissues through______?

A. Lymphatic channels
B. Arterioles
C. Capillaries
D. Venules
181. Sudden onset of left side heart failure leads to the elevation of hydrostatic pressure in lungs
causes ?

A. Heart edema
B. Lung edema
C. Kidney
D. Liver

EDEMA
182. _____ is an excessive accumulation interstitial fluid with in tissues

A. Edema
B. Embolism
C. Congestive
D. Hyperemia
183. ______is marked by profound selling of subcutaneous tissues and accumulation of fluid in body
cavities

A. Hepatic congestion
B. Anasarca
C. Ascites
D. Gastroenteropathy
184. Extravascular fluid can also collect in body cavities and such accumulation are often reffered to
collectively as_______?

A. Ascites
B. Hydrothorax
C. Effusion
D. Diffusion
185. _____ may result from lymphatic obstraction that compromises reabsorption of fluid from
interstitial spaces

A. Edema
B. Chronic congestion
C. Ansarca
D. Effusion
186. The edema fluid that accumulation in the setting of increases ______?

A. Osmotic pressure
B. Blood pressure
C. Venous return
D. Hydrostatic pressure
187. ______ referred to the edema of peritoneal cavity?

A. Ascites
B. Anscara
C. Hydrothorax
D. Pitting edema
188. _______ results from movement of fluid from the vasculature into interstitial spaces?

A. Neoplasia
B. Ascites
C. Edema
 D. Renal dysfunction
189. Finger pressure over edematous subcutaneous tissue displace the fluid, leaving a finger shaped
depression called________?

A. Dependent edema
B. Chronic edema
C. Ankle edema
D. Pitting edema
190. Excessive retention of ____ can load to edema?

A. Sodium
B. Salt
C. Potassium
D. Glucose
191. Increased in hydrostatic pressure are mainly caused by disorder that impair _______

A. Venous return
B. Plasma pressure
C. Renal blood flow
D. Hepatic failure

CONGESTION
192. ___ results from impaired venous ouflow from a tissue ?

A. Hyperemia
B. Congestion
C. Hypervolemia
D. Filariasis
193. Congestion of capillary beds is closely related to the development______?

A. Chronic congestion
B. Edema
C. Venous edema
D. Renal disease
194. Congested tissue have an abnormal blue red color calls called_____?

A. Cyanosis
B. Hemosiderin
C. phagocytosed cell
D. Damage cell
195. _______ is marked by blood engorged alveolar capillaries

A. Pulmonary congestion
B. Hepatic congestion
 C. Chronic congestion
D. Cyanosis
196. In congestion, the accumulation of ______ blood occur?

A. Oxygenated
B. Deoxygenated
C. Mix blood
D. Thin blood

HYPEREMIA
197. _____ is an active process resulting from arteriolar dilation and increased blood inflow?

A. Edema
B. Cyanosis
C. Hyperemia
D. Congestion
198. Hyperemic tissues are redder than normal because of engorgement with ____ Blood

A. Deoxygenated
B. Oxygenated
C. Thick
D. Mix
199. Hyperemia is an _______ type of process?

A. Passive
B. Automatic
C. Active
D. Static
200. In the hyperemia condition , results from increased blood inflow because of___

A. Venoconstriction
B. Arteriolar dilation
C. Renal dilation
D. Arterial constriction
201. Hyperemia and congestion both refers to an increase in ______ with in a tissue ?

A. Osmotic pressure
B. Plasma volume
C. Blood volume
D. Hydrostatic pressure

INFARCTION
202. An_____ is an area if ischemic necrosis caused by occlusion of the vascular supply to the affected
tissue?

A. Necrosed
B. Infract
C. Damaged
D. Clot
203. ________ occur with arterial occlusion in solid organs with end arterial circulation

A. White infarct
B. Blue infarct
C. Red infarct
D. Pink infarct
204. Arterial thrombosis underlies the vast majority of _____?

A. Heart failure
B. Cirrhosis
C. Cancer
D. Infarction
205. Infarction primarily affecting the ____ is a common and extremely important cause of clinical illness

A. Heart and lungs

B. Heart and brain
C. Brain and liver
D. Kidney and heart
206. The main histologic finding associated with infracts is ______?

A. Cell damage
B. Cell death
C. Coagulative necrosis
D. Apoptosis

FAT EMBOLISM
207. Soft tissue crush or rupture of narrow vascular sinusoids release microscopic fats globules into
circulation

A. Fat embolism
B. Air embolism
C. Bubble embolism
D. Stone embolism
208. Fat and narrow _____ occur in some 90% of individual with severe skeletal injuries.

A. Clot formation
B. Embolism
 C. Necrosis
D. Effusion
209. Characterized by the following except ?

A. Pulmonary insufficiency
B. Leakage of blood
C. Neurologic symptoms
D. Thrombocytopenia
210. The pathogenesis of fat emboli syndrome involves both mechanical obstruction and______?

A. Clot formation
B. Pulmonary blockage
C. Platelet adhesion
D. Biochemical injury
211. Lipids are dissolved by the solvent used during tissue processing, microscopic and demonstration of
______ ?

A. Fat microglobules
B. Embolism
C. Amniotic
D. Fat stains

212. Which of the following types of necrosis is grossly opaque and chalky white:
a) Coagulation necrosis.
b) Liquefaction necrosis.

c) Caseous necrosis.

d) Fat necrosis.
213. Which of the following types of necrosis is most commonly associated with ischaemic injury:

a) Coagulative necrosis.

b) Liquifactive necrosis.

c) Caseous necrosis.

d) Fat necrosis.

214. Dystrophic calcification is most closely associated with:

a) Hypercalcaemia.

b) Necrosis.

c) Chronic irritation.
d) Diminished blood flow.

215. Localized area of ischaemic necrosis is mostly associated with:

a) Ascitese.

b) Petechiae.

c) Infarction.

d) Emboli formation.

216. Metabolism is most closely associated with:

a) Diminished blood supply.

b) Increased work load.

c) Necrosis.

d) Chronic irritation.

217. Which of the following is a reversible change:

a) Karyorrhexis.

b) Pyknosis.

c) Karyolysis.

d) Swelling of endoplasmic reticulum.

218. After initiation of an acute inflammatory process third in a sequence of changes in vascular flow is:

a) Vasoconstriction.

b) Redness.

c) Leukocytic migration.

d) Vasodilation.

219. Which of the following are thought to mediate, many of the systemic effects of inflammation are
chemotactic and stimulate adhesion molecules:
a) Interleukin 1 (IL-1) and tumor necrosis factor.

b) C5 a and leukotriene B-4.

c) C3 b.
d) Leukotriene C4, D4 and E4.

220. Which of the following is the hallmark of acute inflammation:

a) Neutrophils.

b) Connective tissue.

c) Macrophages.

d) Granulation tissue.

221. Granuloma formation is most frequently associated with:

a) The healing process.

b) Acute inflammation.
c) Wound contraction.
d) A persistent irritant.
222. Morphologic changes seen in chronic non-specific inflammation include an increase in:
a) Neutrophils, lymphocytes and liquefaction necrosis.
b) Neutrophils, macrophages and fibrosis.

c) Lymphocytes, plasma cells and fibrosis.

d) Giant cells, macrophages and coagulative necrosis.

223. Caseation necrosis is most characteristic of:

a) Acute myocardial infarction.

b) Tuberculosis.

c) Acute pancreatitis.

d) Cerebral infarct.

224. The most characteristic feature of granulation tissue is the:

a) Growth of fibroblasts and new capillaries.

b) Resemblance to a granuloma.

c) Character of the exudate.

d) Granular scar that results.

225. The growth factor elaborated by macrophages, which recruits macrophages and fibroblasts to
wound site and induces all steps in angiogenesis is:
a) Vascular endothelial growth factor.

b) Fibroblast growth factor.

c) Epithelial growth factor.

d) Platelet derived growth factor.

226. A young man of 20, got a lacerated wound on his left arm, stiched-1 week later sutures were
remained-healing continued but the site became disfigured by prominent raised irregular nodular scar,
in next 2 months which of the following best describes the process:
a) Organization.
b) Dehiscence.
c) Resolution.
d) Keloid formation.

227. If a rare disorder with an early onset in life is inherited in such a way that male and female
offsprings are equally affected, only homozygous persons are affected, then the mode of inheritance
would be:

a) Autosomal dominant.

b) Autosomal recessive.

c) X-linked dominant.

d) X-linked recessive.

228. A six months old baby with blue eyes, decreased pigmentation of hair and skin and a strong mousy
odour is brought to you-on examination there is severe mental retardation. What will be the enzyme
deficiency:
a) Homogentisate oxidase.
b) Phenyl Alanine oxidase.
c) P-hydroxyphenyl pyruvate hyroxylase.
d) Tyrosinase.

229. A 39 years old male developed a testicular mass which was removed and was sent for pathological
examination, along with additional studies. Which of the following is the most compelling evidence that
the lesion is malignant:

a) Cells of the mass infiltrate a narrow band of the tuinea albuginea.

b) Two mitosis are found in every (HPF) high power field of microscope.
c) Nuclei are viable in size and tend to stain.
d) X-ray shows 2 round nodules in the left lung field and one in the right, were not present 2 years
ago.
230. Which of the following pair does not correctly match the tumor with its causative agent:
a) Anagenital carcinoma – HPV (Type 16 & 18).

b) Burkitts lymphoma - EBV.

c) Hepatocellular carcinoma - Hepatitis A virus.

d) Carcinoma stomach - Helicobacter pylori.

231. Which of the following terms refer to a malignant tumor of mesenchymal origin:
a) Carcinoma.

b) Hepatoma.

c) Hematoma.

d) Sarcoma.

232. Grading of cancer is based on which of the following statements:

a) Size of the primary tumor.

b) Spread of cancer cells to regional lymph nodes.

c) Presence of blood born metastasis.

d) Degree of differentiation of tumor cells, anaplasia and no. of mitosis.

233. The chemical carcinogen, aflatoxin B-1 derived form a fungus, which contaminates grain foods most
commonly induces:
a) Transitional cell carcinoma of lung.
b) Adenocarcinoma of rectum.
c) Squamous cell carcinoma of skin.
d) Hepatocellular carcinoma.
234. Which of the following is not a malignant tumor:

a) Glioma.

b) Lymphoma.

c) Melanoma.

d) Leiamyoma.
235. Which of the following are most frequent site of venous thrombosis?
a) Veins of lower extremity.
b) Pelvic veins.
c) Portal vein.
d) Hepatic vein.

236. In a state of shock there is:

a) A decreased hydrostatic pressure and increased osmotic pressure.

b) Cardiovascular collapse.

c) Active process leading to increased volume of blood.

d) Decreased pulse rate.

237. The main factor responsible for world wide distribution of Entamoeba histolytica is:

a) Extreme antigenic variation.

b) Usual stability of its cysts in the environment.

c) Wide spread distribution of mosquitoes.

d) Usual motility of trophoziotes in contaminated water.

238. All of the following characteristics are seen in the stool of Amoebic dysentery except one:
a) RBCs in clumps.

b) Charcat leyden crystals.

c) Eosinophyls.

d) Ghost cells.

239. Parasite induced pernicious anaemia is caused by:

a) Taenia saginata.

b) Taenia solium.

c) Diphyllabothrium latum.
d) Echinococcus granulosus.
240. In malaria the form of plasmodium transmitted to man from mosquito is:
a) Sporozoites.
b) Gametocytes.

c) Merozoites.

d) Trophazoites.
241. The host that harbours the adult or sexually mature, parasite is called:

a) Intermediate host.
b) Commensal host.

c) Symbiotic host.

d) Definite host.

242. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Hookworm infestation:

a) Hookworm infection causes anaemia.

b) Man acquires infection when filariform larvae penetrate skin.

c) Hookworm infection may sometimes be acquired by oral route.

d Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding trophozoites in the stool.

243. Which of the following bacterial substance binds to the Fc portion of immunoglobulin molecules:
a) Endotoxin.

b) Coagulase.

c) Lipotheichoic acid.

d) Protein A.

244. Which of the following is associated with a deficiency of third component of complement C3:
a) Pyogenic infection.

b) Immune complex disease.

c) Systemic lupus erythematosus.

d) Glomerulonephritis.
245. Which of the following components enhances the binding of antigen antibody complex to
macrophages:
a) C1.

b) C3a.

c) C3b.

d) C8.
246. A secretary piece is attached to IgA:

a) In plasma cells.

b) In epithelial cells.

c) By enzyme in mucous secretion.

d) By T-cells.
247. Two tests are used to detect the presence of HIV infections are:

a) Agglutination and neutralization reactions.

b) Compliment fixation and immunoflorescence tests.

c) ELIZA and Western Blotting.

d) Haemagglutination and Coamb’s Test

248. General steps in viral multiplication cycle are:

a) Adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation and release.

b) Endocytosis, uncoating, replication, assembly and budding.

c) Adsorption, uncoating, duplication, assembly and lysis.

d) Endocytosis, penetration, replication, maturation, exocytosis.

249. Which of the following serum component is an indicator of post infection and subsequent
immunity to hepatitis B-viral infection:
a) HBS Ag.
b) HBC Ag.
c) HBe Ag.
d) Anti HBS.

250. Which of the following conditions is not rightly against its causative agent:

a) Squamous cell carcinoma cervix = HPV (16, 18).

b) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma = EBV.

c) Cutaneous warte, (squamous cell papilloma) = HPV (12, 4, 7).

d) Hepatocellular carcinoma = HDV.

251. Which of the following is a RNA virus:

a) Human papilloma virus.

b) Human T-cell leukaemia virus.

c) Hepatitis B virus.

d) Epstein Barr virus.

252. The antiphagocytic property of the group A streptococcus is associated with which of the following:
a) Hyaluromidase.
b) Streptolysin S.

c) M. protein.

d) Peptidoglycan.
253. Which of the following is correct sequence of steps in performing Gm. Stain:
a) Safranin stain, crystal violet stain, iodine solution.
b) Crystal violet stain, decolorization, safranin stain, iodine solution.
c) Safranin stain, iodine solution, decolorization, crystal violet stain.
d) Crystal violet stain, iodine solution, decolorization, safranin stain.

254. The most reliable method for diagnosis of primary syphilis is the:

a) VDRL Test.
b) FTA-ABS.

c) Microhemagglutinine.
d) Dark field examination of chancre material.
255. The pathogenisis of which of the following organisms is most likely to involve invasion of the
intestinal mucosa:
a) Vibrio chalerae.
b) Enteroloxigenic E. coli.
C) Shigella somei.
d) Clostridium botulinum.
256. Which of the following tests does not correspond with the respective disease:
a) Casoni’s Test for Hydatid disease.

b) Frei’s Test in Infectious mononuclease.

c) Schick’s Test for Diphtheria.

d) Wasserman’s Test for syphilis.

TOPIC:Cell injury & death

257. Pathogenesis refers to the mechanism of :

A. Development of progression of disorder

B. Development of progression of disease
C. Progression of inflammation
D. Development of mental illness
258. Pathology provides the scientific foundation for the:

A. Treatment of disease
 B. Development of disorder
C. Prevention of disease
D. Practice of medicine
259._______ is the one of the most crucial event in the evaluation of disease in any tissue or organ?

A. Inflammation
B. Cell death
C. Necrosis
D. Cell injury
260. Hypoxia refers to the condition of:

A. Oxygen deficiency
B. Lipids deficiency
C. Nutritions deficiency
D. Lack of protein
261._______is the stage of cell injury at which the deranged function and morphology of injured cells?

A. Irreversible injury
B. Intracellular injury
C. Plasma injury
D. Reversible injury
262.__________ is commonly seen in injury associated with increased permeability of the plasma
membrane ?

A. Fatty change
B. Mitochondrial changes
C. Cellular swelling
D. Cellular atrophy
263. when cells are injured they die by different membrane, this process is called.?

A. Apoptosis
B. Cell death
C. Cell injury
D. Inflammation
264. The morphology manisfestation of accidental cell death is__________?

A. Apoptosis
B. Cell injury
C. Necrosis
D. Cell atrophy
265. Necrosis elicits a local best reaction called?

A. Inflammation
B. Apoptosis
C. Cell injury
 D. Cell death
266. The morphologic appearance of most types of regulated cell death is?

A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis
C. Cell injury
D. Programmed cell
267. The cellular response to injurious stimuli depend on all except.

A. Type of injury
B. Its duration
C. Its severity
D. O2 consumption
267. Autophagy refer to the process of?

A. Cell death
B. Cell damage
C. self eating
D. Phagocyte
268. Deficiency of oxygen leads to failure of many metabolic pathways and ultimately causes?

A. Cell death
B. Apoptosis
C. Necrosis
D. Cell death by necrosis
269. Hypertrophy is the condition in which__________?

A. Decrease size of cell

B. Increase size of cell
C. Increase strength of cell
D. Decrease number of cell
270 .Atrophy is the condition in which cell_________?

A. Shrink
B. Swell
C. Decrease size
D. Become large
271. Many cell expresses surface molecules called that trigger apoptosis.?

A. Injury receptors
B. Death receptors
C. Extrinsic receptors
D. Intrinsic receptors
272. Hyperplasia refers to the process in which?

A. Decrease number of cell

 B. Increase size of cell
C. Increase number of cell
D. Decrease size of cell
273. Cellular aging is the result of progressive decline in the life span and functional activity of
___________?

A. Cells
B. Tissue
C. Organ
D. System
274. Replicative senescene occurs in aging cells because progressive shortening of telomeres, which
result in.?

A. Cell death
B. Cell injury
C. Necrosis
D. Cell cycle arrest
275. Cells have developed mechanism to remove _________ and there by minimize their injurious
effects .?

A. Death cells
B. Damage cell
C. Free radicles
D. Injured cells
276.____________ is a responce of vascularized tissues to infection and tissue damage.?

A. Necrosis
B. Cell death
C. Inflammation
D. Cell injury
278. The initial rapid response to infections and tissue damage is called.

A. Inflammation
B. Acute inflammation
C. Chronic inflammation
D. Cell death
279. Acute inflammation develops within__________?

A. Days
B. Months
C. Minutes or hours
D. Year
280. The initial response fails to clear the stimulus, the reaction process to a protracted type of
inflammation that is called____________?

A. Acute inflammation
 B. Cell death
C. Cell injury
D. Chronic inflammation
281. In some situation, the inflammatory reaction becomes the cause of ______?

A. Disorder
B. Infection
C. Disease
D. Dysfunction

TOPIC: Inflammation
282. The leukocytes and proteins are activated and work together to________ the offering substance?

A. Controlled elements
B. Destroy and eliminate
C. Kill bacteria
D. Destroy foreign substances
283. Inflammation is terminated when the offending agent is_______?

A. Excreted
B. Secreted
C. Produced
D. Eliminated
284. Immune reaction also called_________ reactions on which normally protective immune system
changes the individual’s own tissues?

A. Hypersensitivity
B. Allergic reactions
C. Hyposenstivity
D. Chemical reaction
285. Different infectious pathogen elicet distinct___________ responses?

A. Inflammatory
B. Allergic
C. Chemotaxis
D. Immune
286. ___________mediate the initial weak interactions between leukocytes and endothelium?

A. Chemokines
B. Leucokines
C. Selectins
D. Cytokines
287. Recognition of microbes or dad cells induces several responses in leukocytes that are
collectively called____________?
 A. Cellular reaction
B. Chemotaxic reaction
C. Inflammatory reaction
D. Leukocyte activation
288. Phagocytosis involves three sequential steps:

A. Recognition, engulfment and killing

B. Killing, recognition and engulfment
C. Engulfment, killing and recognition
D. Damaging, recognition and engulfment
289. _________causes dilation of arterioles and increases permeability of venules?

A. Serotonin
B. Histamine
C. Cytokine
D. Amines
290.__________may be produced locally by cells at the site of inflammation?

A. Selectins
B. Microbes
C. Mediators
D. Histamines
291.________are localized collections of pus caused by suppurtum bured in tissue?

A. Ulcers
B. Abscesses
C. Fibrinous
D. Inflamed cells
292. An_________ is a local defect of the surface of an organ that is produced by the shedding tissues?

A. Inflammed cel
B. Ulcer
C. Necrotic cell
D. Fibrinous
293. Some tissues are able to replaces the damaged components. This process is called?

A. Sepsis
B. Inflammation
C. Regeneration
D. Degeneration
294.__________is characterized by an elevation of body temperature?

A. Inflammation
B. Ulcer
C. Cell injury
D. Fever
295. ___________are the central cellular playerism the repair process?

A. Leukocytes
B. Macrophages
C. Cytokine
D. Progenitor
296. __________is the process of new blood vessel development from existing vessels?

A. Inflammation
B. Angiogenesis
C. Vasodilation
D. Vasoconstriction
297. The connective tissue that has been developed by fibroblast, this process is called_________?

A. Remodeling
B. Modeling
C. Healing
D. Regeneration
298. ________is one of the most important cause of delayed healing?

A. Fibrinous
B. Infection
C. Healing
D. Wounds
299. After the __________ is formed, It is remodeled to increase its strength and untract it?

A. Remodeling
B. Regenerated cell
C. Scar
D. Progenitor
300. The accumulation of excessive amounts of collagen may result in a raised scar is known as
a_________?

A. Hypertrophic scars
B. Hypotonic scars
C. Inflamed scars
D. Infectious scar
301.__________healing can be altered by many conditions, particularly infection and diabetes?

A. Fibrotic
B. Infected
C. Intracellular
D. Wound
302. The__________term is used to excessive deposition of collagen and other ECM component in
tissue?
 A. Ulcer
B. Inflammation
C. Fibrosis
D. Necrosis
303.__________inflammation is marked by exudation of cell poor fluid into spaces created by injury?

A. Fibrinous
B. Purulent
C. Serous
D. Ulcer
304. Prolonged exposure to potentially toxic agents____________?

A. Exogenous or Endogenous
B. Endogenous
C. Exogenous
D. Intracellular or extracellular agents
305._________ is a chronic inflammatory process affecting the arterial wall?

A. Venosclerosis
B. Artherosclerosis
C. Bronchopneumonia
D. Neutrophilis
306.__________and other environment antigens activated T and B lymphocytes, which amplify and
propagate chronic inflammation?

A. Macrophages
B. Leucocytes
C. Microbes
D. Cytokines

TOPIC: Healing & Repair

307. The process in which tissues are able to replace the damaged components and return to
normal state called?

A. Degeneration.
B. Regeneration.
C. Mitosis.
D. Proliferation.
308. Which term is used to describe the extensive deposition of collagen that occurs in lungs,
liver,kidney and other organs called ?

A. Necrosis.
B. Fibrosis.
 C. Apoptosis.
D. Scar tissue.
309. Regeneration of liver occurs by which mechanisms ?

A. Proliferation of remaining hepatocytes.

B. Degradation from progenitor cells.
C. Maturation of tissue stem cells.
D. Regeneration by proliferation of residual cells.
310.The process in which new blood vessel development from existing vessels called?

A. Regeneration.
B. Angiogenesis.
C. Remodeling.
D. Abiogenesis.
311. Macrophages are involved in which process?

A. Degeneration.
B. Scar formation.
C. Repair.
D. Degradation.
312. Which of the following steps not involved in scar formation?

A. Inflammation.
B. Cell proliferation.
C. Remodeling.
D. Degeneration.
313. Cell proliferation is controlled by?

A. TCA cycle.
B. Cell signaling.
C. Cell cycle.
D. Electron transport chain.
314. Excessive production of ECM ( extra cellular Matrix) can cause in skin?

A. Ulcer.
B. Eczema.
C. Keloids.
D. Pressure sore.
315.Which steps not involved in cutaneous wound healing?

A. Inflammation.
B. Formation of granulation tissue.
C. ECM remodeling
D. Redness.
316..What are the important factor that influence the healing process except?
 A. type.
B. volume.
C. location of injury.
D. Humidity.
317. Which cytokine are involved in fibrosis?

A. TGF-A.
B. TGF-B.
C. Interleukin 1 and 2.
D. Histamine.
318. The area of skin ulceration and necrosis of underlying tissues caused by prolonged
compression?

A. Inflammation.
B. Venous leg ulcer.
C. Pressure sore.
D. Varicose vein.
319. Which growth factor stimulates both migration and proliferation of endothelial cells?

A. VEGF-C.
B. FGF-2.
C. VEGF-A.
D. TGF-B.
320. Which cytokine involved in for the synthesis and deposition of connective tissue proteins?

A. VEGF- A.
B. TGF-B.
C. TGF-A.
D. TGF-C.
321. Repair of damaged tissues occurs by which reactions?

A. Maturation of tissue stem cells.

B. Degeneration by proliferation of residual cells.
C. proliferation of remaining hepatocytes.
D. Repopulation from progenitor cells.
322. Which type of ulcer develop in Individual with artherosclerosis of peripheral artries?

A. Venous leg ulcer.

B. Diabetic ulcer.
C. Vericose vein.
D. Arterial ulcer.
323. The process begins 2 to 3 weeks after injury and many continue for months or year?

A. Wound healing.
B. Scar formation.
C. Modelling.
 D. Remodelling.

TOPIC: Cell Injury

324. Which cells are capable of dividing in response to injury?

A. Labial cells.
B. Stable cells.
C. permanent cells.
D. Mucosal layer.
325. Which type of cells continously replaced by new cells?

A. Stable cells.
B. Labile cells.
C. Permanent cells.
D. Cardiac cells.
326. Which type of cells divide at the time of birth?

A. Stable cells.
B. Permanent cells.
C. Labile cells.
D. epithelial cells.
327. Example of permanent cells are except?

A. skeletal muscles cells.

B. Rbc's .
C. Cardiac cells.
D. Neurons.
328. wrong statement about example of stable cells?

A. RBC.
B. WBC.
C. Mucosal layer.
D. Platelets.
329. Which of the following example of labile cells except?

A. Mucosal layer.
B. squamous epithelial layer.
C. cuboidal layer.
D. Epidermis.
330. Accumulation of excessive amount of collagen may result in raised scar caused?

A. Tissue scar.
B. Hypertrophic scar.
C. Hypotonic scar.
D. Bone healing.
331. Tissue regeneration can occur in which organ?

A. Parenchymal organ.
B. Mesenchymal organ .
C. Ependymal organ.
D. Liver.
332. Most common cause of cell injury except?

A. Hypoxia.
B. Ischemia.
C. Infectious agents.
D. Swelling.
333. Which stage of cell injury at which the deranged function and morphology of injured cells can
return to its normal if damaging stimulus is removed?

A. Reversible cell injury.

B. Irreversible cell injury.
C. Remodeling.
D. Regeneration.
334. The process in which diminished ability of cells to respond to stress amd eventually the death
of cells and of organism?

A. Aging.
B. Degeneration.
C. Inflammation.
D. Swelling.
335. Which inflammation occurs over a second , minutes, hours and days?

A. Chronic inflammation.
B. Acute inflammation.
C. Edema.
D. Swelling.

TOPIC: Chronic Inflammation

336. Which inflammation occurs over a longer time, days and months?

A. Acute inflammation.
B. chronic inflammation.
C. Swelling.
D. Redness.
337. Which of the following is not causes of chronic inflammation?

A. Persistent infection.
B. Prolonged exposure to potentially toxic agents.
C. Autoimmunity.
 D. Swelling.
338. Which form of necrosis occur in immune reaction in which complexes of antigen and
antibodies are deposited in wall of blood vessels?

A. Fibrinoid necrosis.
B. Fat necrosis.
C. Caseous necrosis.
D. Coagulative necrosis.
339.Which of the following refer to any accumulation of triglycerides with in parenchymal cells?

A. Steatosis.
B. Steatorrhea.
C. Artherosclerosis.
D. Sillica silicosis.
340. Which of the following brown black pigment that is synthesize by melanocytes located in
epidermis?

A. Keratin.
B. Histidine.
C. Melanin.
D. Arginin.
341. Which of the following is the reaction of blood vessels leading to accumulation of fluid and
leukocytes in extra vascular tissue ?

A. Inflammation.
B. Swelling.
C. Edema.
D. Cell injury.
342. Vasodilation induced by which of the following inflammatory mediator?

A. Bradykinin.
B. Serotonin.
C. Histamine.
D. Acetylcholine.
343. Which of the following sequential steps involved in phagocytosis except?

A. Recognition.
B. Degradation.
C. Engulfment.
D. Damaging.
344. Which of the following are abundant in immune reactions mediated by IgE and in parasitic
infection ?

A. Basophills.
B. Neutrophils.
C. Eosinophils.
 D. Lymphocytes.
345. Which of the following chemical mediator increase vascular permeability and causes pain
when injected into skin?

A. Acetylcholine.
B. Bradykinin.
C. Serotonin.
D. Cytokinin.
346. Which of the following protein secreted by many cells types that mediate and regulate immune
and inflammatory reaction?

A. Arginin.
B. Histamine.
C. Cytokines.
D. Serotonin.
347. Correct statement about Atrophy?

A. Increase in number of cells in an organ.

B. Shrinkage in size of cells by loss of cells substance.
C. Replacement of cells.
D. Decrease the size of cells.

TOPIC: Apoptosis
348. Which of the following pathway of cell death in which cells activate enzymes that degrade the
cells own nuclear DNA and cytoplasmic protein?

A. Necrosis.
B. Reversible injury.
C. Apoptosis.
D. Inflammation.
349. Which type of necrosis is refers to fat destruction result from release of pancreatic lipases ?

A. Coagulative Necrosis.
B. Gangrenous Necrosis.
C. Liquefactive Necrosis.
D. Fat Necrosis.
350. Which of the following form of necrosis in which tissue maintain a cheese like appearance?

A. Coagulative Necrosis.
B. Fat necrosis.
C. Caseous necrosis.
D. Fibrinoid necrosis.
351. Erythema is caused by?
 A. Ischemia.
B. Edema of dermis.
C. Vasodilation of blood vessels in dermis.
D. Breadykinin.
352. Aproximately 30 -60 mins after being bitten by a "bug" a 26 year old man noticed a localized
swelling and erythema in affected area? Edema is most likely the result of ?

A. Venous obstruction.
B. Increase vascular permeability.
C. Increase arterial hydrostatic pressure.
D. Arterial oncotic pressure.
353. What is the first response of arterioles to injury?

A. Vasodilation.
B. Redness.
C. Hyperemia.
D. Vasoconstriction.
354. Coagulative necrosis usually result from ?

A. Trauma.
B. Ischemia.
C. Tuberculosis.
D. Sphyllis.
355. Pus formation occur in which type of necrosis?

A. Fibrinoid necrosis.
B. Caseous necrosis.
C. Fat necrosis.
D. Liquefactive Necrosis.

356. Which tissue is most suspectible to Liquefactive necrosis following ischemic injury?

A. Pancreas.
B. liver.
C. Brain.
D. Intestine.

BACTERIA
357)The identification of bacteria by serologic tests is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which
of the following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens?
a. Capsule

b. Cell wall

c. Flagella

d. Ribosomes

358)An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. You
are called upon to investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the most likely
source of the organism?

a. Nose

b. Colon

c. Vagina

d. Throat

359)Each of the following organisms is an important cause of urinary tract infections except:

a. Klebsiella pneumoniae

b. Escherichia coli

c. Bacteriodes fragilis

d. Proteus mirabilis

360)A 30 year old woman has non-bloody diarrhea for the past 14 hours. Which one of the to following
organisms is least likely to cause this illness?

a. Streptococcus pyogens

b. Clostridium difficile

c. Shigella dysenteriae

d. Salmonella enteritidis

361)Each of the following agents is a recognized cause of diarrhea except

a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Vibrio cholerae

c. Enterococcus faecalis

d. Escherichia coli

362)Which of the following bacteria has the lowest 50% infective dose (ID50)?

a. Campylobacter jejuni

b. Salmonella typhi

c. Vibrio cholerae

d. Shigella sonnei

363)Which of the following disease is best diagnosed by serologic means?

a. Pulmonary tuberculosis

b. Gonorrhea

c. Actinomycosis

d. Q Fever

364)The identification of bacteria by serologic tests is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which
of the following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens?

a. Capsule

b. Cell wall

c. Flagella

d. Ribosomes

365)An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. You
are called upon to investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the most likely
source of the organism?
a. Nose

b. Colon

c. Vagina

d. Throat

366)Generation time of Escherichia coli is

A. 20 minutes

B. 20 hours

C. 20 days

D. 200 hours

MICRO-ORGANISM
367) Which of the following drug is used to treat fungal infections?

a. erythromycin

b. penicillin

c. amphotericin B

d. Quinine

368). What organism is considered an index of fecal pollution of drinking water supplies?

a. Rota Virus

b. E. coli

c. Salmonella spp.

d. Hepatitis E virus
369). Protective mechanisms used by bacteria to survive in the host may be

a. capsules

b. M protein

c. various enzymes

d. Quinine

370) Ethanol is one of the most commonly used disinfectants.

Which concentration of ethanol is most effective for this purpose?

a. 100%

b. 70%

c. 50%

d. 30%

371) A typical growth curve consists of 4 phases. Which is the correct sequence?

a. exponential, lag, stationary, death

b. lag, exponential, stationary, death

c. stationary, exponential, lag, death

d. lag, stationary, exponential, death

372) Which of the following are true about viruses?

a. they are not composed of cells

b. as virions they cannot metabolize nutrients

c. they alone cannot reproduce themselves

d. they contain DNA or RNA

373). The correct sequence for the viral life cycle is:

a. attachment, biosynthesis, penetration, maturation, release

b. penetration, biosynthesis, attachment, maturation, release

c. attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, maturation, release

d. biosynthesis, attachment, penetration, maturation, release

374) Which of the following drug is used to treat fungal infections?

a. erythromycin

b. penicillin

c. amphotericin B

d. Quinine

375). What organism is considered an index of fecal pollution of drinking water supplies?

a. Rota Virus

b. E. coli

c. Salmonella spp.

d. Hepatitis E virus

376) Starvation proteins are produced by a culture during which of the following segments of the
growth curve?

A. Lag phase

B. Exponential phase

C. Stationary phase

D. Death phase
377)A culture broth tube was very turbid at the surface but clear throughout the rest of the tube
indicating that the

A. organism are aerobes

B. organism should be grown in an anaerobic chamber

C. organism cannot produce superoxide dismutase and/or catalase

D. organism cannot tolerate oxygen

378)The growth is normally expressed as __________ in turbidimetric measurement

A. cells per ml

B. cfu/ml

C. optical density

D. mg N2 /ml

379) hiThe straightforward method of binary fission explains how bacteria

A. grow in nutrient agar

B. evolve

C. move

D. reproduce

MICROBIAL GROWTH

380)Which of the following is not the characteristic of a growth curve?

A. Shows development of microbial population under relatively stable environmental conditions

B. Plotted with logarithmic numbers

C. Graphs numbers of microbes versus time

D. Each growth curve consists of four distinct phases

381)Generation time of Escherichia coli is

A. 20 minutes

B. 20 hours

C. 20 days

D. 200 hours

382)The growth is normally expressed as __________ in turbidimetric measurement

A. cells per ml

B. cfu/ml

C. optical density

D. mg N2 /ml

383)The straightforward method of binary fission explains how bacteria

A. grow in nutrient agar

B. evolve

C. move

D. reproduce

384)Starvation proteins are produced by a culture during which of the following segments of the growth
curve?

A. Lag phase

B. Exponential phase

C. Stationary phase
D. Death phase

385)A culture broth tube was very turbid at the surface but clear throughout the rest of the tube
indicating that the

A. organism are aerobes

B. organism should be grown in an anaerobic chamber

C. organism cannot produce superoxide dismutase and/or catalase

D. organism cannot tolerate oxygen

386)The microorganisms that grow best in a low-oxygen environment is called a (n)

A. aerobe

B. anaerobe

C. facultative

D. microaerophile

387)Which of the following is the suitable temperature range for mesophiles?

A. 20-30°C

B. 25-40°C

C. >40°C

D. None of these

388)In the exponential phase, the cells and cell mass

A. first increases then decreases

B. decreases

C. are constant

D. double at a constant rate

389)What is the primary source of food for marine life?

A. Phytoplankton

B. Zooplankton

C. Sea weed

D. Grass

390)Organisms such as lactobacilli that have elaborate requirements for specific nutrients i.e. vitamins
and other growth promoting substances, are generally called as

A. fastidious hetrotrophs

B. chemo-lithotrophs

C. chemotrophs

D. photo-organotrophs

391)The straightforward method of binary fission explains how bacteria

A. grow in nutrient agar

B. evolve

C. move

D. reproduce

392)Starvation proteins are produced by a culture during which of the following segments of the growth
curve?

A. Lag phase

B. Exponential phase

C. Stationary phase

D. Death phase
393)A culture broth tube was very turbid at the surface but clear throughout the rest of the tube
indicating that the

A. organism are aerobes

B. organism should be grown in an anaerobic chamber

C. organism cannot produce superoxide dismutase and/or catalase

D.organism cannot tolerate oxygen

394)The microorganisms that grow best in a low-oxygen environment is called a (n)

A. aerobe

B. anaerobe

C. facultative

D. microaerophile

395)Which of the following is the suitable temperature range for mesophiles?

A. 20-30°C

B. 25-40°C

C. >40°C

D. None of these

396) Which of the following drug is used to treat fungal infections?

a. erythromycin

b. penicillin

c. amphotericin B

d. Quinine

397). What organism is considered an index of fecal pollution of drinking water supplies?
a. Rota Virus

b. E. coli

c. Salmonella spp.

d. Hepatitis E virus

398). Protective mechanisms used by bacteria to survive in the host may be

a. capsules

b. M protein

c. various enzymes

d. Quinine

399) Ethanol is one of the most commonly used disinfectants.

Which concentration of ethanol is most effective for this purpose?

a. 100%

b. 70%

c. 50%

d. 30%

400) A typical growth curve consists of 4 phases. Which is the correct sequence?

a. exponential, lag, stationary, death

b. lag, exponential, stationary, death

c. stationary, exponential, lag, death

d. lag, stationary, exponential, death

401)The identification of bacteria by serologic tests is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which
of the following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens?
a. Capsule

b. Cell wall

c. Flagella

d. Ribosomes

402) An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. You
are called upon to investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the most likely
source of the organism?

a. Nose

b. Colon

c. Vagina

d. Throat

403) Each of the following organisms is an important cause of urinary tract infections except:

a. Klebsiella pneumoniae

b. Escherichia coli

c. Bacteriodes fragilis

d. Proteus mirabilis

404) A 30 year old woman has non-bloody diarrhea for the past 14 hours. Which one of the to following
organisms is least likely to cause this illness?

a. Streptococcus pyogens

b. Clostridium difficile

c. Shigella dysenteriae

d. Salmonella enteritidis

405) Each of the following agents is a recognized cause of diarrhea except

a. Clostridium perfringens

b. Vibrio cholerae

c. Enterococcus faecalis

d. Escherichia coli

406) An organism is completely dependent on atmospheric O2 for growth. This organism is

A. osmotolerant

B. acidophile

C. Facultative anaerobe

D. obligate aerobe