MOCKBOARD EXAM in PATHOLOGY

Department of Pathology

1. A 20-year old boy presents with a 6. Cause of Binswanger’s disease:

fluctuant mass in the upper neck along the A. Arteriolosclerosis
sternocleidomastoid muscle. Fine needle B. Atherosclerosis
aspiration biopsy discloses a cystic lesion C. Vasculitis
composed of clear fluid containing abundant D. Embolism
squamous epithelia and small round KEY: A
lymphocytes. This is diagnostic of:
A. Cystic thyroid heterotopia 7. Which is the most common tumor that
B. Branchial cleft cyst metastasizes to the brain?
C. Odontogenic cyst A. Lung
D. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Breast
KEY: B C. Kidney
D. Gastrointestinal tract
2. Warthin’s tumor occurs exclusively in KEY: A
which gland?
A. Minor salivary 8. What happens to blood vessels during
B. Sublingual acute inflammation?
C. Submandibular A. Dilate to slow blood flow and increase
D. Parotid permeability
KEY: D B. Constrict to slow blood flow and increase
permeability
3. Which is the most radiosensitive C. Dilate to hasten blood flow and decrease
nasopharyngeal tumor? permeability
A. Squamous cell carcinoma, keratinizing D. Dilate to hasten blood flow and increase
B. Squamous cell carcinoma, permeability
nonkeratinizing KEY: A
C. Undifferentiated carcinoma
D. Adenocarcinoma 9. What is the stage exhibited by the
KEY: C microscopic finding of alveolar space
densely infiltrated by collections of red
4. Which is the most common cause of blood cells and pus cells admixed with
intracerebral hemorrhage? fibrin?
A. Charcot-Buchard microaneurysm A. Congestion
B. Berry aneurysm B. Red Hepatization
C. A-V malformation C. Gray Hepatization
D. Lacunae D. Resolution
KEY: A KEY: B

5. The heart of a 35 year old male with a 10. Which characterizes a transudative type
history of chronic rheumatic heart disease of fluid?
exhibits the so-called “bread and butter” A. High protein concentration
type of pericarditis. The patient ultimately B. High cellular debris
died of cardiac failure. The cause of death C. Low specific gravity
is most likely due to: D. None of the above
A. Caseation necrosis of the adjacent KEY: C
myocardium
B. Decreased cardiac output secondary to 11. What mediator is primarily involved in
pericardial fibrosis vasodilation?
C. Myocardial rupture A. Histamine
D. Liquefactive necrosis of the cardiac wall B. Endothelin
KEY: B C. Leukotriene
D. Prostaglandin
KEY: A

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12. What is the most common mechanism
of vascular leakage in acute inflammation?
A. Endothelial injury
B. Increased fluid transport through
transcytosis
C. Contraction of endothelial cells
D. Opening of transcellular channels
KEY: C
13. Which of the following is true of Lyon
Hypothesis?
A. Normal males are mosaics
B. Random inactivation of the X
chromosome occurs in mid-embryogenesis
C. One X chromosome is active
D. All paternal X chromosome is inactivated
KEY: C
14. This abnormality involves inability to
catabolize GM2 gangliosides:
A. Lysosomal Storage Disease
B. Tay Sachs Disease
C. Gaucher’s Disease
D. Alkaptonuria
KEY: B
15. The second number/item in karyotyping
nomenclature corresponds to which of the
following?
A. Bands involved
B. Chromosome number
C. 23rd pair of chromosome
D. Description of the genetic abnormality
KEY: C
17. Which chromosomal translocation is
seen in mantle cell lymphoma?
A. 11;18 translocation
B. 8;14 translocation
C. 11;14 translocation
D. 14;18 translocation
KEY: C
18. Which of the following changes best
describes the pathophysiology involved in
the production of lung edema in patients
with congestive heart failure?
A. Acute lymphatic obstruction
B. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure
C. Increased hydrostatic pressure
D. Widespread endothelial damage
KEY: C
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MOCKBOARD EXAM in PATHOLOGY
Department of Pathology
19. Which is the likely type of shock
produced by pulmonary embolism?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Hypovolemic
D. Septic
KEY: B
20. Atherosclerotic coronary artery may
form thrombus thru which major cause?
A. Hypercoagulability of blood
B. Endothelial injury
C. Stasis
D. Turbulence of blood flow
KEY: B
21. Patients with renal hypoperfusion
develop edema because of:
A. Hormone secretion
B. Excessive protein is lost in urine
C. Damage to the excretory ductules
D. Sodium and water retention
KEY: D
22. Which is a common feature of
hyperemia and congestion?
A. Increased arterial flow
B. Bright red discoloration
C. Decreased venous flow
D. Increased blood volumes
KEY: D
23. Sterile, verrucous (Libmann Sacks)
endocarditis is commonly seen in which
setting?
A. Previously damaged valve
B. Cancer
C. Infective endocarditis
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
KEY: D
24.Which heart disease occurs in early
adults with a history of viral infection
resulting to four
chamber dilatation of the heart?
A. Viral myocarditis
B. Bacterial myocarditis
C. Congestive cardiomyopathy
D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
KEY: C
2 | PATHOLOGY

25. The pathologic changes of heart valves
in rheumatic heart disease is due to which
morphologic finding?
A. Acute inflammation
B. Damage to collagen that weakens the
leaflets
C. Nodular calcification beginning in
interstitial cells
D. Fibrotic thickening
KEY: D
26. A 63 year old male patient was brought
to the ER due to prolonged chest heaviness
5hours
prior to consult. His CK-MB is slightly
elevated. Which would be the likely
histologic feature of the myocardium
affected?
A. Cytomyolysis and macrophages
B. Dense fibrosis
C. Loss of striations and heavy neutrophilic
infiltration
D. Myocardial waviness
KEY: D
27. Eisenmenger syndrome occurring in a
setting of VSD is characterized by:
A. Left to right shunt
B. Cyanosis
C. Left ventricular hypertrophy
D. Systemic hypertension
KEY: B
28. Which is the pathology caused by drugs
such as aminoglycoside antibiotics,
cyclosporin,
amphotericin B to the kidneys?
A. Glomerulonephritis
B. Acute tubular necrosis
C. Tubulointerstitial disease
D. Lipoid nephrosis
KEY: B
29. The characteristic peau d’orange skin
change seen in inflammatory breast
carcinoma is due to:
A. Contraction of the supporting fibroelastic
fibers of the breast
B. Fat necrosis with secondary inflammatory
reaction
C. Obstruction of the dermal lymphatics by
tumor emboli
D. Marked interstitial edema
KEY: D
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MOCKBOARD EXAM in PATHOLOGY
Department of Pathology
30. A 29 year old nulliparous woman
requests a routine mammogram because
both her mother
an older sister of 10 years died of
metastatic breast cancer before 40 years of
age. Which of the
ff. would add to this patient’s risk factors for
breast cancer?
A. BRCA1 mutation
B. High fiber diet
C. Nulliparity
D. Oral contraceptive use
KEY: A
31. A newborn has ambiguous genitalia.
What appears to be a vagina is
associated with a significantly enlarged
clitoris resembling a penis. Laboratory
findings show
hyponatremia and hyperkalemia, and
hypotension. Deficiency of which of the ff.
rate limiting
enzymes is suggested by these findings?
A. 1α-Hydroxylase
B. 11-Hydroxylase
C. 17-Hydroxylase
D. 21-Hydroxylase
KEY: D
32. A 35-year old elderly primigravid is seen
7 months after giving birth to a normal
healthy infant. Her
obstetric history reveals that she suffered
severe haemorrhagic shock with a near-
fatal scenario
due to abruption placenta. Following
massive blood transfusion and emergency
hysterectomy,
post-partum recovery has so far been
uneventful. She presently complaints of
continued
amenorrhea, significant weight loss, body
malaise and muscular weakness. Further
investigation might be expected to
demonstrate which of the ff. findings?
A. Decreased serum cortisol
B. Hyperestrinism
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Increased serum free T4
KEY: A
3 | PATHOLOGY

34. A solitary 2.0 cm palpable nodule of the
right thyroid lobe presents in a 40 year old
man during a routine executive check-up. A
fine needle aspiration biopsy (FNAB) is
performed with a
cytodiagnosis of “Consistent with papillary
carcinoma.” Which of the following
histologic features of thyroid disease would
be most likely present in the thyroidectomy
specimen?
A. Amyloid-rich stroma
B. Anaplastic cytology
C. Dense stromal fibrosis
D. Psammoma bodies
KEY: D
35. A 34-year old woman presents with
amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and visual field
defects of 6 months’ duration. MRI reveals a
suprasellar mass impinging on the optic
chiasm.
This lesion is most likely a:
A. Acidophilic adenoma
B. Craniopharyngioma
C. Corticotropic adenoma
D. Prolactinoma
KEY: D
36. A 32-year old woman consults her
family physician because of intolerable pain
upon
swallowing following a recent bout of severe
upper respiratory tract infection. During
physical
examination, the physician notices that the
patient winces and grimaces upon palpation
of the
thyroid gland. If a FNAB were performed,
what would most likely be prominently
identified?
A. Follicular cells with oncocytic metaplasia
B. Multinucleated giant cells
C. Thyrocytes with nuclear pseudoinclusions
and grooves
D. Psammoma bodies
KEY: B
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MOCKBOARD EXAM in PATHOLOGY
Department of Pathology
37. What afflicts a 40 year old woman with
potentially lethal blistering skin disorder,
suprabasal in location, associated with
acantholysis, and exhibits “Basket-weave
pattern” on
Immunofluorescence microscopy (IFAT)?
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Psoriasis vulgaris
C. Dermatitis herpetiformis
D. Bullous pemphigoid
KEY: A
38. A 50 year old man dies because of
dyspnea, cough and expiratory wheezes.
Initially, attacks were episodic eventually
increasing in frequency and at the time of
death had become
continuous and intractable. At autopsy,
findings in the lungs were:
A. Bronchial smooth muscle hypertrophy
with eosinophils
B. Diffuse alveolar damage with pulmonary
edema
C. Dilated alveolar spaces with destruction
of alveolar walls
D. Hyperplasia of submucous glands
KEY: A
39. A 60 year old man presents with
exertional dyspnea and non-productive
cough. He worked
as a shipbuilder with know asbestos
exposure. This patient is predisposed to
develop this
condition.
A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
B. Malignant mesothelioma of the pleura
C. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
D. Good pastures’ syndrome
KEY: B
40. A 46 year old laundry woman presents
with fever, hemoptysis weight loss and
night sweats.
Chest radiograph reveals apical lesions with
cavitation in the left lung. PPD test develop
an 18
mm wheal after 48 hours. What is your
most likely diagnosis?
A. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
B. Congenital Immunodeficiency
C. Primary tuberculosis with Gohn complex
D. Secondary tuberculosis with activation of
a prior Gohn complex
KEY: D
4 | PATHOLOGY
 MOCKBOARD EXAM in PATHOLOGY
Department of Pathology

47. This germ cell tumor often occurs as a

41. True of Meckel diverticulum, EXCEPT: mixed type of tumor and morphologically
A. It is a true diverticulum show
B. Approximately 5 cm long cytotrophoblasts and syncitiotrophoblasts
C. Are twice as common in females cells.
D. Are most often symptomatic by age 2 y/o A. Seminoma
KEY: C B. Teratoma
C. Embryonal carcinoma
42. Barrett esophagus is characterized D. Choriocarcinoma
morphologically by: KEY: D
A. Presence of dense intraepithelial
lymphocytic infiltrates. 48. This penile tumor usually occurs in
B. Presence of intestinal epithelium within younger age group and virtually never
the esophageal squamous mucosa. develops into
C. Presence of gastric epithelium and invasive carcinoma.
squamous epithelium A. Bowens disease
D. Presence of dysplastic stratified B. Erythroplasia of queyrat
squamous epithelium C. Bowenoid papulosis
KEY: B D. Peyronie disease
KEY: C
43. The organisms causing this intestinal
oval ulcer that is oriented along the axis of 49. A 30-year-old female has recurrent
the ileum. microscopic hematuria. Gross hematuria is
A. Entamoeba histolytica seen during
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis bouts of URTI. Immunofluorescence of
C. Salmonella typhi renal biopsy shows IgA deposits in widened
D. Vibrio cholera glomerular mesangium. Activation of what
KEY: C effector mechanism resulted to tissue
destruction:
44. Which of the following histomorphologic A. Macrophages/phagocytes
characteristics favor a benign ulcer over a B. Complement
malignant ulcer? C. T helper/killer cells
A. Heaped-up margins D. Eosinophils
B. Sharply punched-out defect KEY: B
C. Presence of hemorrhage and necrosis
D. Mucosal margin overhangs the base 50. A 40-yr-old female complains of ptosis
KEY: B of an eyelid and pronounced tiredness of
the upper
45. The best prognostic predictor of arm muscles in the afternoon. Imaging
prostatic adenocarcinoma is: reveals a thymoma. Antibodies to which of
A. Gleason grading the following
B. Size of tumor would probably be found elevated through
C. Differentiation of tumor cells blood tests:
D. Grading and staging A. TSH
KEY: D B. Norepinephrine
C. Acetylcholine receptors
46. True of benign prostatic hyperplasia D. Cortisol
A. Originates from the peripheral zone KEY: C
B. Hyperplastic glands are lined by 2 cell
layer
C. Diagnosis is by transrectal core needle
biopsy
D. Estrogen is the primary hormone that is
involved
KEY: B

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51. A 20-yr-old exhibits vascular collapse
several minutes after injection of an IV
antibiotic
for which he was not subjected to a skin
test. What is the responsible immune
reactant?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgG
D. IgE
KEY: D
52. Autoreactive T and B cells are removed
or neutralized through:
A. Negative selection
B. Action of a super set of killer T cells
C. Splenic filtration
D. Lymphoid maturation arrest
KEY: A
53. A 42-year-old man reports recurrent
diarrhea and respiratory tract infections for
most of his
life. Following injuries sustained in a motor
vehicle accident, he is transfused whole
blood and
blood components. During the transfusion
he develops a transfusion reaction. Which of
the
following diseases is he most likely to have?
A. Graft versus host disease
B. Common variable immunodeficiency
C. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
D. Selective IgA deficiency
KEY: D
54. Which of the following is important in
discriminating between self- and non-self
cells?
A. Mitochondrial DNA
B. Majorhistocompatibility complex
C. Phospholipid bilayer cell membrane
D. Cell adhesion molecules
KEY: B
55. Biopsy of a lung mass in 60 year old
female showed back-to-back glands lined by
epithelial cells with hyperchromatic,
pleomorphic nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and
scant cytoplasm. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Adenoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Squamous papilloma
KEY: A
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MOCKBOARD EXAM in PATHOLOGY
Department of Pathology
56. Which of the following statements is
TRUE?
A. The presence of many mitoses in a
neoplasm always indicates that a tumor is
malignant.
B. In benign neoplasms, nuclear to
cytoplasmic ratio is increased.
C. Nuclei of malignant cells are more lightly
stained and hypochromatic.
D. Abnormally large nucleoli are commonly
seen in malignant cells.
KEY: D
57. Which of the following statements about
the hematogenous spread of cancer is
FALSE?
A. Arteries are less readily penetrated by
cancer cells because of their thicker walls
B. This is seen only in sarcomas and never
in carcinomas
C. Arterial spread may occur when tumor
cells pass through the pulmonary capillary
beds or pulmonary AV shunts
D. Vertebral metastases are more
frequently seen in cancers found in thyroid
and prostate because are close to the
vertebral column.
KEY: B
58. Hypercalcemia is a paraneoplastic
syndrome often seen in patients with:
A. Fibrosarcoma of soft tissue
B. Small cell carcinoma of the lung
C. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
D. Adenocarcinoma of the prostate
KEY: C
59. After modified radical mastectomy, a 55
year old woman was diagnosed to have
Invasive Ductal Carcinoma, Grade 1, Stage
1. Which of the following is the best
interpretation of this diagnosis?
A. The patient’s tumor is well-differentiated
and localized to the breast
B The patient has axillary lymph nodes
positive for tumor metastasis.
C. The patient’s tumor is benign.
D. The patient has in-situ carcinoma only.
KEY: A
6 | PATHOLOGY
 MOCKBOARD EXAM in PATHOLOGY
Department of Pathology

60. On Pap smear, a 37 year old female is 66. Which immature element is the basis for
found to have an infection with Human grading immature teratoma?
Papillomavirus. Which of the following is the A. Rhabdomyoblast
pathognomonic feature found on her B. Fetal cartilage
smear? C. Primitive neuroepithlium
A. Parakeratosis D. Osteoblast
B. Koilocytosis KEY: C
C. Acanthosis
D. Apoptosis 67. What proportion of solid nests in
KEY: B endometrioid carcinoma will merit FIGO
Grade 3?
61. If an ovarian mass is solid and necrotic A. > 50%
and microscopy reveals complex delicate B. > 90%
papillae and psammoma bodies, it is: C. > 40%
A. Serous carcinoma D. > 75%
B. Mucinous carcinoma KEY: A
C. Yolk sac tumor
D. Endometrioid carcinoma 68. An 82-year-old man has had
KEY: A progressively worsening lower back,
bilateral hip, and right shoulder pain for the
62. Which is a characteristic of partial mole past 6 years. Imaging showed narrowing of
that a complete mole does not have? joint spaces with adjacent bony sclerosis. A
A. With an embryo biopsy of the iliac crest was done. This
B. Trophoblastic proliferation showed sclerotic bone with unusually
C. Hydropic villi prominent cement lines, appearing like a
D. Trophoblastic atypia jigsaw puzzle. What is the most likely
KEY: A diagnosis?
A. Osteosarcoma
63. Which ovarian benign epithelial B. Osteoblastoma
neoplasm is solid? C. Paget Disease
A. Mucinous. D. Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis
B. Seromucinous. KEY: C
C. Serous
D. Brenner 69. A 75-year-old woman loses her balance
KEY: D and falls to the floor. She immediately has
marked pain in the right hip. Imaging on
64. Which of the following is most likely to admission shows a right femoral neck
present as bilateral solid adnexal masses? fracture. Bone mass is shown to be 2.5
A. Krukenberg tumor standard deviations below mean peak bone
B. Fibroma mass in young adults. What would be the
C. Granulosa cell tumor expected mineral content of the bony
D. Dysgerminoma trabeculae of these patients?
KEY: A A. Increased
B. Decreased
65. Which of the following ovarian tumors is C. Normal
most likely to be associated with D. Indeterminate
endometrial hyperplasia or carcinoma? KEY: C
A. Immature teratoma
B. Dysgerminoma
C. Granulosa cell tumor
D. Mucinous cystadenoma
KEY: C

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70. A 75 year old male noticed slowly
enlarging dark brown patches and macules
on his trunk over the past 20 years. One of
the lesions is excised, and microscopic
examination shows sheets of basaloid cells
which surround keratin-filled cysts. This
lesion is sharply demarcated from the
surrounding epidermis. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Melanoma
B. Seborrheic keratosis
C. Actinic keratosis
D. Dysplastic nevus
KEY: B
71. A 39 year old female comes in for
consult multiple pruritic papules that are
purple in color on both elbows. Skin biopsy
showed a bandlike infiltrate of lymphocytes
at the dermoepidermal junction, which was
noted to have sawtooth-like appearance,
and associated with degeneration of basal
keratinocytes. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Lichen planus
B. Psoriasis
C. Pemphigus vulgaris
D. Actinic keratosis
KEY: A
72. A 6-year-old boy with generalized
edema passes smoky urine. A subsequent
renal biopsy is largely unremarkable. No
deposits are found on immunofluorescence.
This is most probably a case of:
A. Post-streptococcal GN
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Minimal change disease
D. Membranous GN
KEY: C
73. A 15-year-old patient with chronic active
hepatitis (positive serum HBeAg) developed
rapid decline in renal function. A renal
biopsy showed more than 50% of glomeruli
with epithelial crescents. This is obviously a
case of:
A. Rapidly progressive GN
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Post-infectious GN
D. Membranoproliferative GN
KEY: A
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MOCKBOARD EXAM in PATHOLOGY
Department of Pathology
74. If a child suddenly develops edema,
hematuria, proteinuria, and high systemic
blood pressure two weeks after a throat
infection by a strain of nephritogenic
streptococcus, what mechanism of immune
tissue destruction would you expect:
A. Membrane attack complex formation
B. Killer lymphocyte activation
C. Complement activation
D. Molecular mimicry
KEY: C
75. “Wire-loop” lesions seen in the renal
biopsy of a known lupus patient result from:
A. Glomerular hypercellularity
B. Diffuse subendothelial immune deposits
C. Mesangial expansion
D. Parietal epithelial cell proliferation
KEY: B
76. A patient experiencing sudden
development of gross hematuria (with red
cell urine casts and 1+ proteinuria),
hypertension, oliguria and azotemia most
probably has:
A. Nephritic syndrome
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Chronic renal failure
D. End-stage renal disease
KEY: A
77. A 30-year-old female who complains of
dysuria and frequency is noted to be slightly
febrile with right costovertebral
angle tenderness. Urinalysis showed
numerous pus cells and microscopic
hematuria. Without proper treatment, the
course of this condition is:
A. Spontaneous remission
B. Unavoidable bilateral kidney involvement
C. Potential kidney scarring
D. Recurrent gross hematuria
KEY: C
78. Which of the following is the most likely
cause of hepatocellular carcinoma?
A. Chronic hepatitis B infection
B. Smoking
C. Aflatoxin
D. Nitrates
KEY: A
8 | PATHOLOGY
 MOCKBOARD EXAM in PATHOLOGY
Department of Pathology

79. Which of the following microscopic 85. In beta thalassemia, which of the
evidence of hepatic injury is considered following chains tend to form tetramers and
potentially reversible? appear as inclusions in the red blood cells
A. Apoptotic hepatocytes when subjected to special staining?
B. Bridging necrosis A. Alpha
C. Fibrosis connecting portal tracts B Beta
D. Bile accumulation in hepatocytes C. Delta
KEY: D D. Gamma
KEY: A
80. The initial effect of alcoholism in the
liver is: 86. TRUE of cherry red spot in Tay Sachs
A. Fatty change disease:
B. Hepatitis A. Hemorrhage in the choroid layer
C. Cirrhosis B. Telangiectatic changes in the choroid
D. Hepatoma layer
KEY: A C. Normal choroid layer
D. Normal ganglion cell layer
81. Which of the following markers would KEY: C
suggest that the patient is a chronic
hepatitis B carrier? 87. Which vitamin/mineral deficiency is
A. Hepatitis B surface antigen correctly paired?
B. Hepatitis B core antigen A. Vitamin A – osteomalacia
C. Hepatitis E antigen B. Iodine – dental caries
D. Hepatitis B surface antibody C. Vitamin D – scurvy
KEY: A D. Copper – muscle weakness
KEY: D
82. Von Recklinghausen’s disease is
characterized microscopically by 88. Exogenous chemicals in the
proliferation of this element in skin and environment in air, water, food, and soil
subcutaneous tissues that may be absorbed into the body through
A. Microfibrils inhalation, ingestion, and skin contact are
B. Elastin called:
C. Collagen A. Solvents
D. Fibroblast B. Xenobiotics
KEY: D C. Toxic metabolites
D. Poison
83. This feature can be used to differentiate KEY: B
Type 2 from Type 1 neurofibromatosis:
A. Neural tumors 89. The infiltration of inflammatory cell
B. Lisch nodules infiltrates beyond the limiting plate into the
C. Cafe au lait spots hepatic lobule is termed:
D. Increased risk of tumors A. Lobular hepatitis
KEY: B B. Confluent necrosis
C. Interface hepatitis
84. Inflammatory carcinoma of the breast is D. Bridging necrosis
a consequence of: KEY: C
A. Granulomatous inflammation secondary
to fat necrosis
B. Obstruction of the dermal lymphatics
C. Secondary bacterial infection
D. Release of tumor necrotic factor
KEY: B

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90. A 60 year old male died due to massive
hematemesis. He had jaundice, palmar
erythema and a known alcoholic. Liver
biopsy will most likely show:
A. Thickened hepatic plates with loss of
reticulin framework
B. Hepatic nodules separated by bands of
fibrosis
C. Confluent necrosis and severe periportal
inflammation
D. Interface hepatitis with predominance of
plasma cells
KEY: B
91. Which of the following is consistent with
a diagnosis of osteochondroma?
A. Mosaic pattern of bone trabeculae
B. Randomly interconnecting trabeculae of
woven bone prominently rimmed by a single
layer of osteoblasts
C. Cap composed of benign hyaline cartilage
with newly made bone forming the inner
portion of the head and stalk of the lesion
D. Curvilinear trabeculae of woven bone
with a “Chinese character” appearance and
lacks osteoblastic rimming
KEY: C
92. A 75-year-old woman loses her balance
and falls to the floor. She immediately has
marked pain in the right hip. Imaging on
admission shows a right femoral neck
fracture. Bone mass is shown to be 2.5
standard deviations below mean peak bone
mass in young adults. What would be the
expected mineral content of the bony
trabeculae of these patients?
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Normal
D. Indeterminate
KEY: C
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MOCKBOARD EXAM in PATHOLOGY
Department of Pathology
93. Which of the following statements about
achondroplasia is TRUE?
A. This leads to an underdeveloped thoracic
cavity, so individuals die at birth due to
respiratory insufficiency
B. This is a type I collagen disease that
leads to affected individuals having too little
bone and extreme skeletal fragility
C. This condition is associated with changes
in longevity, intelligence, and reproductive
status in affected individuals
D. This is an autosomal dominant disorder
that causes reduction in the proliferation of
the chondrocytes in the growth plate
KEY: D
94. Which of the following is most
suspicious for a melanoma?
A. Symmetrical lesion, diameter of 4 mm
B. Pigmented lesion with regular borders
C. Homogenously dark brown in color
D. Present at birth, but noticed a recent
change in appearance and size
KEY: D
95. A 38 year old male noted a small, flesh-
colored nodule on his upper trunk, since 6
weeks prior to consult. The lesion is
umbilicated, and a curdlike material can be
expressed from the center. Skin biopsy
showed ellipsoid, homogeneous,
cytoplasmic inclusion in cells of the stratum
granulosum and the stratum corneum.
Which of the following infectious agents
most likely produced this lesion?
A. Molluscum contagiosum
B. Human papillomavirus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Histoplasma capsulatum
KEY: A
96. Which histomorphologic changes can
commonly be seen in both asthma and
chronic bronchitis?
A. Mucus gland hyperplasia
B. Severe airway remodeling
C. Airway scarring
D. Obliteration of bronchioles
KEY: A
10 | PATHOLOGY
 MOCKBOARD EXAM in PATHOLOGY
Department of Pathology

97. A positive Kernig and Brudzinski sign

indicate which pathologic brain finding?
A. Brain infarct
B. Encephalitis
C. Meningeal irritation
D. Tonsillar herniation
KEY: C

98. Which affected area of the brain is

responsible for the manifestation of polyuria
and polydipsia in the patient with CNS TB?
A. Temporal cortex
B. Basal ganglia
C. Cerebellum
D. Hypothalamus
KEY: D

99. A 30 year old male complained of

severe abdominal pain, a day after a night
of heavy alcohol drinking. He expired in the
emergency room and autopsy was done.
Which of the following best supports acute
pancreatitis as the cause of death?
A. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
B. Normal levels of amylase and lipase
C. Fat necrosis in the omentum and
mesentery
D. Peritoneal fluid with atypical cells forming
glands
KEY: C

100. A 53-year-old factory worker has been

experiencing vague epigastic pain. He
consulted a gastroenterologist and later
tested positive for urease test. Endoscopy
with biopsy of which part will best yield the
causative agent:
A. Antrum
B. Body and Fundus
C. Cardia
D. Lower esophagus
KEY: A

UST FMS ONLINE MEDICAL BOARD REVIEW 2021 11 | PATHOLOGY