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PRELIMS
QUIZ 1 LAB QUIZ : Hemodynamic disorders
1. 1. The most common site of origin for venous thrombi leading to pulmonary
embolism is:
a) Ascending aorta
b) Portal vein
c) Deep leg veins
d) Right atrium
2. Identify
ANSWER : Heart failure cells or hemosiderin-macrophages

3. 3. Major and frequent influence for thrombus formation is:

a) Fatty streak
b) Hypercoagulability
c) Endothelial damage
d) Alteration in blood flow
4. Identify the pointed and asterisk structure
ANSWER : MURAL THROMBI
 5. ANSWER: B. Arterial occlusion

QUIZ 2 : POST QUIZ : NEOPLASIA

1.A hallmark of this defect is microsatellite instability as encountered in hereditary nonpolyposis
colon cancer (HNPCC) syndrome (also known as Lynch syndrome).

a. Apoptosis
b. DNA excision repair
c. Homologous recombination repair
d. Mismatch repair
e. Translocation repair

2. A 69-year-old man, who is a chain-smoker, has had a cough and a 5-kg weight loss the past
3 months. He is afebrile. A chest radiograph is positive for hilar and mediastinal
lymphadenopathy. Laboratory studies show high serum calcium. Bronchoscopy shows a lesion
almost occluding the right main bronchus.
A surgical biopsy is attempted. Biopsy shows the microscopic image shown below.
Which of the following routes of tumor metastasis accounts for these findings?

a. Direct tumor extension

b. Hematogenous spread
c. Lymphatic spread
d. Seeding of body cavity

3. A 44-year-old sexually active woman undergoes a routine physical examination. There are no
abnormal findings. A Pap smear is obtained as part of the pelvic examination. Cytologically, the
cells obtained on the smear from the cervix show marked epithelial dysplasia, as shown below

Which of the following therapeutic options is most appropriate for this woman?

a. Antimicrobial therapy
b. Excision
c. Removal of affected ovary
d. Screening of family members
e. Watchful waiting and close clinical follow-up

4. a 10-year-old, previously healthy boy has had pain in the right leg for the past month. There is
no history of trauma or recent illness. On physical examination, there is warmth and tenderness
to palpation of the right lower thigh anteriorly, and the circumference of the right thigh is slightly
larger than that of the left. His temperature is 36.5° C.

A radiograph of the right leg shows a 6-cm expansile mass in the diaphyseal region of the right
lower femur that extends into the soft tissue and is covered by layers of reactive bone. A biopsy
of the mass is done and shown below

Which of the following translocations is associated with this condition?

a. (8;14)
b. (8;21)
c. (9;22)
 d. (11;14)
e. (11;22)

5. Name the malignant tumor derived from skeletal muscle

ANSWER : Rhabdomyosarcoma

QUIZ 3 : POST QUIZ : 4- CSF

1. Which among the CSF specimens below is highly diagnostic for a traumatic tap?

a. A CSF specimen where the blood is uniform throughout all three tubes

b. A CSF specimen where the blood is abundant in tube #1 and gradually diminishes
in tube #2 and #3.

2. Which is the correct order of collection of the three CSF tubes?

a. Chemistry/serology, hematology, microbiology

b. Microbiology, hematology, chemistry/serology

c. Chemistry/serology, microbiology, hematology

d. Microbiology, chemistry/serology, hematology

3. Which among the CSF specimen below is highly diagnostic of a cerebral haemorrhage?

a. a CSF specimen where the blood is uniform throughout all three tubes

b. a CSF specimen where the blood is abundant in tube #1 and gradually

diminishes in tube #2 and #3.

4. What stain is used to stain Cryptococcus neoformans?

a. Giemsa stain

b. Congo red

c. Hematoxylin and eosin

d. India ink

5. What is the most common test done on CSF?

a. Reticulocyte count

b. Platelet count
c. Leukocyte count

d. Protein count

LE 1

These are intracellular organelles containing ANSWER: Lysosomes

degradative enzymes that permit digestion of
a wide range of molecules (i.e. protein,
polysaccharides, lipids)
*
A. intracellular macrophages
B. endosomal caveolae
C. proteasomes
D. lysosomes

TRUE OR FALSE: The Golgi Apparatus ANSWER: True

repacks proteins generated from the RER to
be distributed to other intracellular organelles
or to extracellular sites.
*

TRUE
FALSE

Cell signaling pathways consists of the ANSWER:transposon signaling

following except::
*
A. paracrine signaling
B. endocrine signaling
C. transposon signaling
D. autocrine signaling

TRUE OR FALSE: ANSWER:FALSE

Platelet-derived growth factor is a chemotactic
growth factor to leukocytes and fibroblasts. It
also stimulates proliferation and extracellular
matrix synthesis.
*
TRUE
FALSE

The 3 major classes of cytoskeletal proteins ANSWER: Desmosomes

are the following, except:
*

A. actin microfilaments
 B. microtubules
C. desmosomes
D. intermediate filaments

These molecules are comprised of octamers ANSWER: Nucleosomes

of histone proteins encircled by base pairs
of DNA loops.
*
A. Nucleosomes
B. Histone
C. Chromosome
D. Chromatin

TRUE OR FALSE: Cytoplasmic-bound ANSWER: False

ribosomes on the cytosolic interface of the
Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum translate DNA
into mRNA.
*

TRUE
FALSE

TRUE OR FALSE: ANSWER:TRUE

The Transforming Growth Factor-B (TGF-B) is
a growth factor that facilitates chemotaxis for
leukocytes and fibroblasts and stimulates
extracellular matrix protein synthesis
*

TRUE
FALSE

The type of membrane transport that utilizes ANSWER:caveolae-mediated endocytosis

non-coated plasma membrane invaginations
associated with GPI-linked molecules. This
type of transport utilizes caveolin structural
proteins
*
A. caveolae-mediated endocytosis
B. receptor-mediated uptake
C. caveolin-mediated endocytosis
D. endosomal caveolae-mediated uptake
ANSWER: Blood

ANSWER: Skeletal muscle

ANSWER: Skin

ANSWER: Bone
ANSWER: Telophase

ANSWER: Adipose
ANSWER: Neurons

ANSWER: Mitochondrion
ANSWER: Stratified squamous

ANSWER: Neutrophils
 ANSWER: Metaphase

ANSWER: RBC

hi ANSWER: Chondrocytes
ANSWER: Blood
ANSWER: Nervous tissue

ANSWER: CARTILAGE
ANSWER: Basophils

ANSWER: Prophase
ANSWER: Nervous tissue
LE 2
Pathology Long Exam 8/26/22
CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER
1. A 30 year old who has recently lost his job has taken comfort in drinking lambanog. He
liver has become enlarged and a biopsy is performed. The histopathology report declares
steatosis. Which of the following is NOT true of this lesion?
a. Similar changes may be seen in his heart
b. The change can be reversed with a change in lifestyle
c. It is due to both a decrease in protein synthesis and increase in blood lipids
d. Fat cells have infiltrated his liver
2. Which cytokine leads to macrophage activation by the M1 pathway?
a. IFN-γ
b. TNF
c. IL-5
d. IL-17
3. Which of the following is not morphologic evidence of atrophy?
a. vacuolated cytoplasm
b. residual bodies
c. iron containing granules in cytoplasm
d. decrease in cellular components

4. In a patient with Hyperparathyroidism, calcium accumulation is seen in these organs,

EXCEPT
a. liver
b. kidney
c. stomach
d. lungs
5. A 51-year-old man has a history of chronic alcoholism. He is asymptomatic and able,
to perform work at his job with little difficulty. He has had no major illnesses. On physical
examination, there are no significant findings. Which of the following microscopic findings
in his liver is most likely to be present?
a. Cirrhosis
b. Compensatory hyperplasia
c. Fat necrosis
d. Fatty change
e. Lipofuscin pigments
6. Which of the following are seen in cells which are undergoing apoptosis?
a. cells becomes swollen
b. acute inflammatory cells infiltrate the tissue
c. the nucleus fragments
d. plasma membrane is disrupted with numerous holes
7. A 65-year-old man suffered a massive myocardial infarction that was complicated by
shock and prolonged hypotension. On arrival in the emergency department he was found
to have focal neurological signs in addition to features consistent with low-output cardiac
failure. Despite the best efforts of the medical team he died the next day. At autopsy, the
most likely change you would expect to see in a brain biopsy would be

a. Acute haemorrhagic change

b. Coagulative necrosis
c. Granulomatous change
d. Lacunar infarct
e. Liquefactive necrosis

8. A 35 y/o gunshot wound victim suffers from massive hemorrhage requiring fluid
resuscitation and multiple blood transfusions. He has developed hypovolemia causing
reduced blood flow to the renal tubular cells. Kidney biopsy reveals evidence of
karyorrhexis and karyolysis in renal tubular epithelial cells. Which of the following
biochemical events preceded these pathologic changes?
a. Activation of Na+/K+ ATPase
b. Decrease in intracellular calcium
c. Decrease in intracellular pH
 d. Increase in ATP production
e. Increase in extracellular sodium

9. A 70 year old male dies 3 days after having excruciating chest pain which traveled
down his left arm. Which of the following would the pathologist see in the heart on
autopsy? 1 point
a. accumulation of neutrophilic replacing the normal architecture of the heart
b. myocytes without nuclei
c. amorphic eosinophilic debris replacing myocytes
d. swollen myocytes with numerous vacuoles

10. A deficiency of which vitamin induces squamous metaplasia in the respiratory

epithelium.
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K

11. Which of the following is NOT considered a true adaptation but rather more of a repair
mechanism?
a. Myositis Ossificans ⇒ metaplasia
b. Barrett’s esophagus ⇒ metaplasia
c. Wart
d. Involution ⇒ atrophy
myositis ossificans - occasionally occurs after intramuscular hemorrhage. This type of
metaplasia is less clearly seen as an adaptive response, and may be a result of cell or tissue
injury.
 12. Which of the following is TRUE of ischemic injury?
a. It is rare type of cell injury due to decreased oxygen in the tissue
b. hemolytic anemia is one of the causes
c. Injury to tissues is greater than that caused by hypoxia
d. Anaerobic glycolysis provides energy needed for protection

13. Which process is controlled or aided by sirtuins?

a. hyperplasia
b. aging
c. accumulations
d. Necroptosis

14. Which organ is most often affected by chemical injury?

a. liver
b. stomach
c. brain
d. Thyroid
Rationale :
Chemical injury remains a frequent problem in clinical medicine and is a major limitation to drug
therapy. Because many drugs are metabolized in the LIVER, this organ is a major target of drug
toxicity. In fact, toxic liver injury is often the reason for terminating the therapeutic use or
development of a drug.
15. The operating room was kept at low temperature during surgeries. What is NOT a
mechanism of HYPOTHERMIA’s protection against hypoxic stress?

a. reduced metabolic demand of the cells

b. suppression of free radical formation
c. promotes neovascularization
d. inhibited inflammation
Rationale :
Protection against Hypoxic Stress
- Hypoxia inducible factor 1 ( HIF-1)
Promotes neovascularization
Enhances glycolysis
 Stimulates cell survival pathways
- Hypothermia
Reduces metabolic demand
Decreases cell swelling
Suppresses formation of free radicals
Inhibits inflammation

16. In a patient with multiple myeloma Russell Bodies, found inside of Mott cells, is due to an
accumulation of.
a. calcium
b. protein
c. lipids
d. exogenous pigments

17. Which of the following is due to the disturbance in Ca homeostasis when the cell is
stressed or injured?
a. permeability transition pore closes
b. enzymes become inactive
c. intracellular calcium activates caspases
d. Intracellular calcium levels become depleted

18. A 45-year-old woman with a chronic infective lesion on her leg underwent a
full-thickness biopsy of the lesion. During histological examination of this lesion a rim of
multinuclear giant cells is seen. The central region is most likely to show:
a. Caseous necrosis
b. Eosinophilic necrosis
c. Fibrinous necrosis
d. Foam cells
e. Pyogenic necrosis

19. A patient with hereditary cystinuria who presents with urolithiasis will most like have this
change in her ureter
a. hyperplasia
b. hypertrophy
c. metaplasia
d. Atrophy

20. A 72-year-old man with a history of recurrent fainting and difficulty on exertion undergoes
surgery for aortic valve disease. A hard, markedly deformed valve is observed and the
patient expires during surgery. The aortic valve at autopsy is shown in the image. Which
of the following pathologic changes is most likely present in this patient's valve?
a. Metastatic calcification
b. Atherosclerosis
c. Fibrinoid necrosis
 d. Dystrophic calcification
e. Coagulative necrosis

21. A 56 year old male, hypertensive has an enlarged heart on x-ray. Which of the following is
the most likely cause of this cardiomegaly?
a. hypertrophy
b. hyperplasia
c. inflammation
d. protein accumulation

22. What is the aspect of pathology in “The agent propagates and migrates down the
respiratory tract along the airways and a robust innate immune response is triggered"?
a. etiology
b. pathogenesis
c. molecular changes
d. clinical significance

23. The correct sequence for leukocyte recruitment in inflammation is (starting from the first
to the final step)
a. Adhesion, rolling, margination, diapedesis, chemotactic migration
b. Rolling, diapedesis, chemotactic migration, margination, adhesion
c. Margination, rolling, adhesion, diapedesis, chemotactic migration
d. Chemotactic migration, margination, rolling, adhesion, diapedesis

24. Which type of cell death is seen in Covid 19 and is attributed to cytokine storm?
a. ferroptosis
b. autophagy
c. pyroptosis
d. necroptosis
25. Vacuoles are seen in the liver cells of a diabetic patient. What stain can be used to help
determine the cause?
a. PAS
b. Prussian blue
c. Hematoxylin
d. Giemsa
26. A lung specimen sent to the laboratory reveals a cheesy white lesion. After fixing and
staining, the lesion appears as an amorphous area surrounded by a rim of fibroblasts,
lymphocytes and epithelioid cells. The diagnosis is
a. coagulative necrosis
b. caseous necrosis
c. gangrenous necrosis
d. liquefactive necrosis

27. The histopathology report of a patient with cancer reports “golden brown granules”.
They are due to increased lipid peroxidation. These granules are characteristically
a. perinuclear
b. intranuclear
 c. extracellular
d. peripherally located

28. Which of the following demonstrates serous inflammation?

a. Liver abscess
b. Blisters from burn
c. Bacterial meningitis
d. Peptic ulcers
29. Which of the following may be the cause of reperfusion injury?
a. Increased generation of ROS
b. Calcium efflux from injured cells
c. Decreased inflammatory response
d. Deactivation of complement system
30. The critical step in activation of complement is
a. Cleavage of C5
b. Binding of C1 to IgM
c. Formation of membrane attack complex (MAC)
d. Cleavage of C3

CP LEC LONG TEST 1

1. You are the doctor on duty at a small rural hospital in Kabacan city. A specimen of urine came
in from Cotabato City and has been stored at a refrigerator with a regulated temperature of
3-5 C. you will

a. Accept the specimen,

b. Reject the specimen

 c. Talk to the patient on the phone to instruct them to deliver another sample

d. Resign

2. A 15-year-old girl is going to collect her urine for the first time. How will you instruct her?

a. Instruct the patient to urinate first, wipe, catch the midstream specimen and
then submit.

b. Instruct the patient to inform the technician if she is menstruating

c. Instruct the patient to abstain from drinking tea and cola before the urinalysis
collection

d. All of the above

3. A decrease in normal daily urine volume

a. Oliguria

b. Anuria

c. Polyuria

d. Nocturia

4. A cessation of urine flow

a. Oliguria

b. Anuria

c. Polyuria

d. Nocturia

5. An increase in the nightly excretion of urine

a. Oliguria

b. Anuria

c. Polyuria
 d. Nocturia

6. An increase in daily urine volume

a. Oliguria

b. Anuria

c. Polyuria

d. Nocturia

7. The urine specimen submitted to you by a patient is 50 ml. you will

a. Accept the specimen

b. Reject the specimen

c. Instruct the patient to void again

d. None of the above

8. The causes of proteinuria can be divided into three groups EXCEPT:

a. Prerenal

b. Renal

c. Post renal

d. Perirenal

9. Protein is normally found in urine

a. True

b. False

(True ata ito?) Proteins can be found in normal urine but in small quantity

10. A patient taking Rifampicin for Tuberculosis complains of orange urine. You will instruct him
that:
 a. This is unexpected and advise him to follow up

b. This is expected because of his medications

c. This is something that should be monitored

d. This is an indication for a bladder ultrasound

11. A patient with liver cirrhosis gives you a sample of yellow brown urine. You know by gross
inspection that this is because of increased

a. Glucose

b. Ketones

c. Bilirubin

d. Phenols

12. Aromatic urine is due to

a. Normal urine

b. Bacterial composition

c. Ketones

d. Maple syrup urine disease

13. Which the urine samples is described as turbid?

a. The sample on the left

b. The sample on the right

c. Both
 d. Neither

14. Describe this urine sample

a. Clear

b. Hazy

c. Cloudy

d. Turbid

e. Milky

15. The urine sample of one of your patient is 1.030. This is considered:

a. Isosthenuric (1.010)

b. Hyposthenuric (<1.010)

c. Hypersthenuric (>1.010)

d. None of the above

16. You are instructing a renal disease patient to consume more eggs. You tell this because the
major serum protein found in normal urine is

a. Bence jones protein

b. Immunoglobulin
 c. Albumin

d. Tamm Horsefall protein

- Strasinger, p57

17. A patient on a ketone diet submits their urine. You know that one of these is NOT a ketone:

a. Acetone

Zwwwz. Acetic acid

c. Acetoacetic Acid

d. Beta Hydroxybutyric Acid

18. Which of the following will cause Myoglobinuria?

a. Renal calculi

b. Transfusion reactions

c. Crush syndrome

d. Hepatitis

19. A female is being treated for Cystitis. You expect her urine to be high in?

a. Blood

b. Ketones

c. Bilirubin

d. Nitrites
20. Identify (with arrow)

a. Bacterial colony

b. Trichomonas vaginalis

c. Epithelial cells

d. Renal Tubular Cells

21. The medicine used to induce sweating in the sweat test EXCEPT:

a. Mucicarmine

b. Pilocarpine

c. Miocarpine

d. Diocarpine

22. After performing a sweat test on a suspected case of cystic fibrosis. You
anticipate that the chloride levels in the sweat test will be:

a. Unaffected

b. Increased

c. Decreased

d. Normal

23. A patient presents to you with diarrhea, malnutrition and recurring Pseudomonas
infectious. You suspect that this patient has a mutation of which protein:
 a. CFTR

b. EGFR

c. CFTR gamma

d. None of the above

24. The results of the above patient’s sweat test yielded a result of 56 mmol/L. The
consultant then concludes that:

a. This a case of classic cystic fibrosis

b. This is not a case of cystic fibrosis

25. A man is asking for assistance on his specimen collection. He has been
abstaining from sex for 3 days but masturbated last night. You will instruct him to:

a. Wipe his urethra before his collection day

b. Instruct him to go home with a Silastic condom

c. Instruct him to note the collection amount is incomplete

d. Instruct him to repeat abstaining for a least 3 days to 5 days

26. A couple has been trying to conceive for the past 6 months. As a general
physician what is your best advice would be to:

a. Advise them to maintain a healthy diet and exercise regularly

b. Give the woman an ovulation kit and teach her how to use it

c. Instruct the couple to come back in 6 months if they are still unable to
conceive

d. Order a request for seminalysis

27. After observing the sperm under the microscope, you notice that the movement is
rapid, straight-line motility. This is:

A. Grade 0
B. Grade 1
C. Grade 2
D. Grade 3
E. / Grade 4
28. Some sperm move with no forward progression. This is:

Grade 2

29. Some sperm exhibit no movement at all. This is:

Grade 0

30. Some sperm have slower speed with some lateral movement. This is

Grade 3

LE 1 LABORATORY
PATHOLOGY LONG TEST

PATHOLOGY LONG TEST LABORATORY

PRELIMS-1ST SEMESTER – DR. ALVARADO

MULTIPLE CHOICE.

1. Which of the following are not classic signs of acute inflammation?

a. Rubor

b. Dolor

c. Collagen deposition

d. Loss of function

2. A patient with insidious fever, hemoptysis and recurrent URT1 has a lung parenchyma
granuloma pathologically assessed. What will the outer ring of the granuloma show?

a. Eosinophils

b. Lymphocytes

c. Necrosis
 d. Basophils

3. The steps of the inflammatory response includes the following, EXCEPT:

a. Recognition of the injurious agent

b. Recruitment of leukocytes

c. Repopulation

d. Vasodilatations

4. Which of the following is not a function of a function of inflammation?

a. Delivery of leukocytes

b. Concentration of toxins

c. Initiate repair process

d. Vasodilation

5. If you look at an acute inflammation episode with a light microscope, what would you find?

a. Keloid formation

b. Satellite formation

c. Collagen deposition

d. Leukocyte infiltration

6. Which of the following is the correct sequential order of the phases of healing

a. Remolding, inflammation, hemostasis, and repair

b. Inflammation, hemostasis, proliferation, and maturation

c. Hemostasis, inflammation, repair and remodeling

 d. Inflammation, maturation, proliferation, and hemostasis

7. Following a surgical wound the next thing to happen after clot formation is

a. Clot breakdown

b. Neutrophil migration to the incision edge

c. Epithelial spur develops

d. Contraction of the wound

8. Mr. Reyes is a 77 year old pedestrian who was hit by a motorcycle. He sustained a large
gaping wound over the left flank region, measuring 15 x 10cm in diameter. Which of the
following statements is FALSE?

a. The skin epithelium is able to regenerate to eventually cover the wound

b. Healing is by first (primary) intention, due to the nature of the wound

c. Wound contraction will play an important role, this is brought about by the
myofibroblasts

d. Debridement (removing dead and contaminated tissue) is important to promise

quicker healing, because infection because infection affects healing
 -Healed by 2nd intention

9. Delayed wound healing is seen in all aspect, EXCEPT;

a. Hypertension

b. Infection

c. Diabetes

d. Poor perfusion

10. Steps in scar formation includes the following, EXCEPT;

a. Inflammation

b. Cell proliferation

c. Arteriolar vasoconstriction ⇒ hemostasis

d. Formation of granulation tissue

11. Edema is due to:

a. Increases albumin in blood and decreased globin

b. Decreased albumin concentration in blood

c. Increased osmotic pressure

d. None of the above

12. Exudate occurs due to inflammation and increased capillary permeability, with the following
characteristics, EXCEPT;

a. Specific gravity >1.012

b. Increased LDH

c. Decreased LDH

d. Protein content > 3g/dl

13. Normal hemostasis includes of the following phases, EXCEPT;

a. Arteriolar vasodilation

b. Arteriolar vasoconstriction

c. Formation of platelet plug

d. Clot stabilization

14. Which of the following predisposes to thrombogenesis?

a. Stasis of blood

b. Endothelial injury

c. Turbulence of blood

d. All of them

15. Major and frequent influences for thrombus formation is:

 a. Fatty streak

b. Hypercoagulability

c. Endothelial damage

d. Alteration in blood flow

Match the following tissue types to their regenerative ability:

A. Stable tissue

B. Labile tissue

C. Permanent tissue

16. Liver - A ⇒ Stable

17. Gastric mucosa - A ⇒ Labile (epithelia)

18. Myocardium - C ⇒ Permanent

19. Hematopoietic cells - B ⇒ Labile

20. Neurons - C⇒ Permanent

TERM EXAM

MIDTERMS
QUIZ 1

LE 1

TERM EXAM

FINALS
QUIZ 1

LE 1

TERM EXAM