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Physiology

BLOOD

1. Functions of plasma proteins include


a. Defense against bacterial infection.
b. Transport of oxygen.
c. Coagulation of blood.
d. Maintenance of colloid osmotic pressure.
e. Transport of glucose.

2. Regarding tissue macrophages


a) Are derived from neutrophils.
b) Has a half life of 72 hrs.
c) Are activated by lymphokines.
d) Are phagocytic.
e) Secrete colony stimulating factors.

3. True / False
a) Heparin inhibits action of vitamin K.
b) Fibrinolysis is done by plasmin.
c) Extrinsic pathway is activated by collagen.
d) Collagen is known to activate platelets.
e) Prothrombin time is prolonged in platelet defects.

4. True / False
a) Antibodies for ABO antigens are of IgM type.
b) An Rh – person cannot have the D antibody unless his/her blood has been exposed to cells containing the Rh+
antigen.
c) Antigens of the ABO group are present in cells other than RBC s.
d) If the mother is already sensitized, administration of Rhogam vaccine is ineffective in preventing haemolytic
disease of the new born.
e) A person with AB blood group has both A& B agglutinins in his plasma.

5. Regarding neutrophils,
a) Are phagocytic.
b) Produced exclusively in red bone marrow.
c) Characterristically increased in allergic reactions.
d) Are increased in pyogenic(pus forming) infections.
e) Contain myeloperoxidase.
f) Contain NADPH oxidase enzyme.

6. Christmas disease differs from classical haemophilia A in that in Christmas disease


a) Bleeding time increases.
b) Prothrombin time increases.
c) Carried by an X linked gene.
d) Produce platelets with inferior quality.
e) Can be cured by giving a healthy persons’serum.

7. Regarding erythropoiesis
a) Erythropoietin is primarily secreted in the kidney.
b) Erythropoietin increase significantly at high altitudes.
c) In severe renal failure erythrpoiesis is affected.
d) Hb is synthesized in mature RBCs.

8. True / False
a) Red cell life span in the circulation is 120 days.
b) Hb synthesis occurs in mature RBCs.
c) Vit B 12 deficiency is known to cause macrocytic anaemia.
d) HbF contains 2a & 2y chains.
e) HbF has a higher affinity for O2 than does HbA.

9. True / False regarding platelets,


a) Production is facilitated by thrombopoietin.
b) Adhesion occurs to exposed collagen in vessels via integrins on the cell membrane.
c) Activation is inhibited by ADP.
d) When activated stick to other platelets.
e) When decreased in number clot retraction is impaired.

10. Which of the following is/are componenet/s of the intrinsic clotting pathway?
a) Factor XII.
b) Fibrinogen.
c) Ca2+.
d) Plasmin.
e) Factor VII.

11. True / False


a) Eosinophils contain granules that stain with basic dyes.
b) Macrophages are antigen presenting cells.
c) Neutrophils produce toxic oxygen metabolites.
d) Neutrophils may be increased in acute bacterial infections.

12. A person with blood type B


a) is likely to have agglutinin A in saliva.
b) is best transfused with B-.
c) could not have a father with AO genotype.
d) will have agglutinin B in plasma.
e) will have agglutinin D in plasma.

13. Regarding leukocytes


a) Monocytes are phagocytic.
b) Basophil granules contain IgE.
c) Alveolar macrophages belong to the reticular endothelial system.
d) Cellular respiration will increase in neutrophils in bacterial infections.
e) Eosinophilia is known to occur in parasitic infections.

14. True /False


a) Lymphocytes are formed in the bone marrow
b) Deficiency of factor VII causes haemophilia.
c) Haematocrit is a good indicator of blood loss after a haemorrhage.
d) Erythropoeisis occurs in the liver in adults.
e) Thyroxine & folic acids are required for erythropoiesis.

15. Regarding Platelets


a) Production is stimulated by colony stimulating factor.
b) Adhesion to the damaged vessels is via integrins.
c) Aggregation is inhibited by thromboxane A2.
d) Adhesion requires an increase in the metabolic activity.
e) Platelet derived growth factor stimulates wound healing.

16. True /False


a) During fetal life erythropoiesis occurs exclusively in extra medullary tissue.
b) Iron deficiency is known to cause hypochromic cells.
c) Erythropoiesis is stimulated by androgens.
d) When erythropoiesis is increased reticulocyte count increases in peripheral blood.
e) Hypoxia stimulates erythropoiesis.

17. Regarding the constituents of blood and their functions,


a) RBC-synthesis of Hb.
b) Neutrophils-phagocytosis.
c) B lymphocytes-humoral immunity.
d) Albumin-transport of bilirubin.
e) SHBG-transport of progesterone.

18. True or false regarding AB Rh- woman with no history of blood transfusions or previous pregnancy.
a) Rh- man can be her biological father if mother is AB Rh-.
b) Her RBCs have both A and B antigens.
c) Her plasma contains A antibodies.
d) Her plasma contains D antibodies.
e) Should be given Rhogam within 72 hrs after delivery if she delivers O RH- baby.

19. True /False


a) Splenectomy is a recognized cause of thrombocytopenia.
b) Platelet formation is facilitated by thrombopoietin.
c) Binding of platelets to collagen activates platelets.
d) Asprin is known to decrease thromboxane formation in platelets.
e) Prothrombin time increases in bleeding disorders due to platelet defects.

20. WOTF leads to an increase in eosinophils


a) Parasites.
b) Allergy.
c) Viral infections.
d) Pancytopenia.
e) Tuberculosis.

21. Regarding albumin


a) Regulates pH of blood.
b) Prevents apoptosis of blood cells.
c) Bilirubin transport.
d) Participates in clotting response.
e) Regulates body temperature.

22. Following activated clotting factors are inhibited when binding of antithrombin III is facilitated by heparin
a) Ia.
b) IXa.
c) IIa.
d) XIa.
e) VIIa.

23. True /False


a) Rate of production of platelets from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow is increased by thrombopoietin.
b) A person with blood group O-ve has agglutinogens A & B.
c) Dense granules of platelets contain clotting factors and platelet derived growth factor(PDGF).
d) Abnormal shape of RBCs in hereditary spherocytosis is due to the presence of abnormal spectrin chains in the
membrane.

24. Fibrinogen
a) Is a clotting factor.
b) Facilitates rou leaux formation of RBC.
c) Is the main protein responsible for plasma oncotic pressure.
d) Produced from B lymphocytes.
e) Concentration is increased during pregnancy.

25. Following occurs in the activation of neutrophils.


a) Increased cellular respiration.
b) Secretion of immunoglobulins.
c) Generation of oxygen free radicals.
d) Release of histamine.
e) Chemotaxis.

26. Erythrocytes,
a) are responsible for the major part of blood viscosity.
b) contain the enzyme carbonic anhydrase.
c) metabolize glucose to produce CO2 and H2O.
d) swell to bursting point when suspended in 0.9% saline.
e) deform as they pass through the capillaries.

27. Normal blood clotting requires,


a) Inactivation of heparin.
b) Inactivation of plasmin.(fibrinolysin)
c) Calcium ions.
d) An adequate intake of vitamin K.
e) An adequate intake of vitamin C.

28. True or False regarding an AB+ woman with no previous blood transfusion or pregnancy.
a) Her red cells have A & B antigens.
b) Her plasma has A antibodies.
c) Her plasma has D antibodies.
d) Should be given Rhogam within 72 hours after delivery if she delivers O- baby.
e) Her red cells have D antigens.

29. Breakdown of erythrocytes in the body,


a) occurs when they are 6-8 weeks old.
b) Takes place in the reticulo endothelial cells.
c) Yields iron most of which is excreted in the urine.
d) Yields bilirubin which is carried by plasma proteins to the liver.
e) Is required for the synthesis of bile salts.

30. Blood
a) makes up about 7% of body weight.
b) Forms a high percentage of body weight in fat than in thin people.
c) Volume can be calculated by multiplying plasma volume by the haematocrit.(expressed as a percentage)
d) Volume rises after water is drunk.
e) Expresses serum when it clots.

31. The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin


a) is affected by prothrombin.
b) is followed by polymerization of fibrin monomers.
c) is inhibited by heparin.
d) is reversed by plasmin. (fibrinolysin

32. Haemolytic disease of the new born,


a) Affects mainly babies of Rh + mothers.
b) Occurs mainly in babies who lack D agglutinogen.
c) Causes jaundice which clears rapidly after birth.
d) Can be treated by transfusing the affected baby with Rh + blood.
e) Can be prevented by injecting the mother with anti D agglutinins just after delivery.
f) Development of the nervous signs from bilirubin is very unlikely due to protection from blood brain barrier.

33. True or False


a) Defects in spectrin in the RBC membrane cause hereditary spherocytosis.
b) Neutrophils are concerned with the first line of defense against infection.
c) Eosinophils are abundant in the mucosa of the GI tract.
d) Basophils contain histamine.
e) The circulating time of monocytes is pproximately 3 days.

34. True or False


a) Binding of platelets to collagen activates platelets.
b) Splenectomy is a known cause of thrombocytosis.
c) Electron dense granules of platalets contain PDGF.
d) Activated factors II,VII,IX,X are inhibited via the heparinprothrombin complex.
e) Thrombomodulin-thrombin complex is active in the cerebral microcirculation.

35. Monocytes
a) Originate from precursor cells in lymph nodes.
b) Can increase in number when their parent cells are stimulated by factors released from activated lymphocytes.
c) Unlike granulocytes do not migrate across capillary walls.
d) Can transform into large multinucleated cells in certain chronic infections.
e) Manufacture IgM.

36. Red cell formation is increased


a) By giving vitamin B12 injections to healthy people on a normal diet.
b) In blood donors one week after a blood donation.
c) In patients with haemolytic anaemia.
d) By giving injections of erythropoietin to ephrectomized patients.
e) In patients who have a raised reticulocyte count.

37. True or False


a) The fetal haemopoiesis occurs exclusively in extramedullary tissues.
b) In children haemopoiesis occurs exclusively in flat bones.
c) Most of the haemopoietic marrow cells belong to the myeloid series.
d) Neutrophils and monocytes arise from the same precursor cells.
e) Mature lymphocytes are mainly formed in the bone marrow.
f) Erythropoiesis is affected in chronic renal failure.

38. True or False


a) Streptokinase activates the fibrinolytic system.
b) Warfarin inhibits the action of vitamin B12.
c) Factor IX deficiency results in haemophilia B.
d) Prothrombin time increases in patients with thrombocytopenia.
e) APTT is used to test the extrinsic pathway of clotting.

39. True or False


a) Packed cell volume is reduced markedly in anaemia.
b) Thrombocytopenic purpura is due to abnormal circulatory platelets.
c) Secretion of erythropoietin is increased by hypoxia.
d) Thrombopoietin facilitates the megakayocyte maturation.
e) Microcytic hypochromic anaemia is due to cyanocobalamine deficiency.

40. True or False


a) Rh individual has D agglutinins.
b) In immunoglobulin molecules chains are joined by disulphide bonds.
c) Rhogam contains immunoglobulin for antigen D.
d) Erythropoietin is a steroid hormone.
e) Hypoxia stimulates secretion of erythropoietin from kidney.

41. True or False


a) Reticulocytes contain remnants of cellular components.
b) Stem cell factor facilitates the conversion of pluripotent stem cells to committed stem cells.
c) Medullary haemopoiesis begins before birth.
d) Tissue macrophages present processed antigens to B lymphocytes.
e) Lymphocytes can transform into plasma cells.

42. Platelets assist in arresting bleeding by,


a) Releasing factors promoting blood clotting.
b) Adhering together to form plugs when exposed to collagen.
c) Stimulating contraction of the smooth muscle cells in the blood vessel wall.
d) Releasing factors causing vasoconstriction.
e) Activating the fibrinolytic system.

43. Erythropoiesis is stimulated by


a) Hypoxia.
b) Androgens.
c) Estrogens.
d) Catecholamines.
e) Erythropoietin.

44. Vitamin K is necessary for


a) Factor I.
b) Factor VIII.
c) Factor IX.
d) Factor X.
e) Protein C.

45. Following changes take place during maturation of erythroid precursor.


a) Reduction in cell size.
b) Division of nuclei.
c) Synthesis of Hb.
d) Cytoplasm becomes eosinophilic.
e) Synthesis of mitochondria.

46. Erythropoietin
a) is a circulating lipoprotein.
b) is secreted mainly by the kidney.
c) increases in hypoxia.
d) increases in polycythemia rubra vera.
e) stimulates the formation of precursor cells of macrophages from uncommitted cells.

47. T/F
a) IgA has 5 units.
b) In mucosa secretion, IgA function is more important than IgG function.
c) IgA binds to most cells.
d) IgM passes through placenta.
e) During a second parasite infection level of IgG increases slowly.
f) G-CSF is needed for the apoptosis of erythroid precursors.
g) Reticulocytes have nuclei.
h) Erythropoietin is synthesized by macrophages in bone marrow.
i) Memory B cells are necessary for primary immune response.
j) Cytotoxic T cells inhibit helper T cell activity
k) Antibodies produced by T lymphocytes are specific for a particular antigen
l) Antibodies neutralize the antigens directly by covering the toxic sites of antigens

48. Reticulocytes;
a) Are nucleated.
b) Have a basophilic cytoplasm.
c) Count is increased following treatment of iron deficiency anemia.
d) Multiply to produce mature red blood cells.
e) Cytoplasm contains remnants of cellular components.

49. When the neutrophils are activated;


a) Toxic oxygen metabolites are formed.
b) Mobility is decresed.
c) Cytokines are released.
d) Oxygen consumption is increased.
e) Cellular division is accelerated.

50. T-helper cells


a) Synthesize lymphokines
b) Cause differentiation of B cells
c) Increase the number of cytotoxic T cells
d) Produce immunoglobulins
e) Inhibit suppressor T cells

51. Haematocrit is lead to be increased in


a) Dengue hemorrhagic fever.
b) Pregnancy.
c) Prolonged vomiting
d) Sickle cell disease.
e) Chronic renal defect.

52. In vitamin B12 deficiency


a) Nuclear maturation in developing RBC is decreased.
b) Hypochromic anemia is seen.
c) Nuclear lobulation in neutrophils is decreased.
d) MCV is increased.
e) Haemolysis in RBC is increased.

53. Neutrophils
a) Is the largest type of WBC in blood.
b) Count is increased in allergy.
c) Release protease enzyme when activated.
d) Produce oxygen free radicals when activated.
e) Inhibits platelet aggregation.

54. Regarding blood grouping


a) Person with o+ blood group have agglutinogen
b) A person with blood group AB has agglutinogen B
c) Haemolytic disease of the new born is seen in ABO incompatibility between the mother and the newborn
d) Rh- mothers are treated with anti D antibody after delivery
e) Rh antigen is present in tissue fluid

55. True or False,


a) Serum contains fibrinogen.
b) Gama globulin are synthesized by plasma cells.
c) Immunoglobulin enhance roulex formation of erythrocytes.
d) Haemopoiesis takes place in yellow marrow.
e) Thrombopoietine CSF is a steroid.

56. The developing stage & specific growth factors for their differentiation are correctly matched,
a) Magakaryocyte progenitor – Thrombopoietine.
b) CFUBesophil – IL -6
c) CFUM – G-CSF
d) CSF Eosinophyl- IL-5
e) Erythrocyte progenitor – M-CSF

57. Packed cell volume is increased in,


a) Iron deficiency anemia.
b) Dengue haemorrhagic fever.
c) Severe diarrhoea.
d) Pregnancy.
e) Polycythemia.

58. When a neutrophil is activated,


a) Its motor activity is increased.
b) O2 uptake is increased.
c) Anti microbial proteins are released from granules.
d) Produce oxygen free radicals.
e) Metalloproteinases are released in to surrounding tissues

59. Regarding immunoglobulins,


a) IgG is a pentamer.
b) IgA is the most predominant Ig in plasma.
c) IgE releases histamines from basophils.
d) IgM crosses the placenta.
e) IgD is present in interstitial secretions.

60. Antithrombin III – Heparin complex inhibits,


a) Iia
b) VIIa
c) Ixa
d) Xa
e) XIIa

61. True or False?


a) Liver is the main site for hemopoisis in fetal life.
b) GCSF enhances phagocytosis of bacteria by active neutrophil.
c) Erythropoietin facilitates formation of platelets from megakaryocytes.
d) IL 5 facilitates differentiation of basophils.
e) IgM Is a pentamer.
f) Activated partial prothrombin time test check intrinsic pathway.

62. Thrombopoietin
a) Is produced in the live
b) Promotes maturation of erythroid progenitors
c) Is necessary for cytoplasmic granulation of megakaryocytes
d) Increases the rate of formation of platelets
e) Is necessary for the degranulation of neutrophils

63. Packed cell volume ( PCV) is increased in


a) pregnancy
b) Dengue haemorrhage fever
c) Severe diarrhea
d) High altitudes
e) Anaemia

64. when the erythroid progenitor cells acquire maturity


a) Increase in size
b) Haemoglobin synthesis increased
c) Biconcave disc shape acquired
d) Mitochondria production is increased
e) Ferrous absorption is increased in central nervous system

65. Helper T cells


a) Secrete lymphokines
b) Increased when infected with AID
c) Proliferation of cytotoxic T cells
d) Decrease the growth of suppressor T cells

2014
1. Erythropoietin enhance the followings in erythroid progenitors
a) Proliferation
b) Haemoglobin Synthesis
c) Apoptosis
d) Nuclear Maturation
e) Mitochondrial Formation

2. Microcytic hypochromic red blood cells can be seen in


a) Iron Deficiency
b) Thalassemia
c) RBC membrane defects
d) Vitamin B12 Deficiency
e) Folic Acid Deficiency

3. Regarding immunoglobulin (Ig)


a) IgA is present is external Secretions
b) IgE activates immediate hypersensitive reactions
c) IgG activates compliment systems
d) IgG is permeable through placenta
e) IgM is protein secondary is produced in secondary immune response

4. Which of the followings are affected by Von Willebrand Factor disease?


a) vWF affects platelet response
b) Maintain the level of factor VII
c) Take part in formation of platelet plug
d) Activated factor X of intrinsic pathway
e) Activate factor XII by contact process

5. Eosinophilia is a feature in
A. Tuberculosis
B. Filariasis
C. Dengue fever
D. Hook worm infestation
E. Allergy
SEQ1
a) Explain the formation of platelet plug.
b) Explain the Physiology of using the prolonged Prothrombin time test to diagnose chronic liver disease.

SEQ2
a) 2.1 Briefly explain the role of plasma proteins in maintenance of a constant volume of interstitial fluid.
b) 2.2 Explain the physiological basis of using urinary test for the differentiation of haemolytic jaundice and
obstructive jaundice.

2015

1) Functional adaptation of RBC for O2 transport,


a) Biconcave shape.
b) Absence of nucleus.
c) Polysaccharides on plasma membrane.
d) 1/3 of RBC is filled with Haemoglobin.
e) Presence of mitochondria.

2) Erythropoietin promotes,
a) Release of reticulocytes to the circulation.
b) Synthesis of transferrin receptors.
c) Synthesis of Haemoglobin.
d) Apoptosis of red blood cells.
e) Differentiation of erythroblasts.

3) Neutrophils,
a) Are the most abundant leukocytes in health.
b) Have a longer half life in comparison to erythroblasts in circulation.
c) Neutrophils are the first line of defence against parasites.
d) Are primary mediators of allergic reactions.
e) Decrease in viral infections.

4) True/false,
a) Unsensitised woman with Rh (-) ve RBCs has anti-D antibodies.
b) A person with Bombay blood group has H antigens on his RBCs.
c) New-born with blood group A has antibody B in his plasma at birth.
d) Addition of anti-B antibody to group AB RBC cells cause agglutination.
e) Rh (+) ve person has antigen D in his saliva.

5) The physiological processes that contribute to the healing of aninfected wound within the first 24 hours include,
a) Compliment cascade activated through classical pathway.
b) Local increase in vascular permeability.
c) Local vasodilation.
d) Neutrophil chemotaxis.
e) Neutrophils engulf the pathogens by phagocytosis.

6) Aquired immunity is differed from innate immunity by,


a) Formation of memory T cells.
b) Formation of memory B cells.
c) Antigen specificity.
d) Cytokines are released.
e) IgM mediated long term response.

2016

1. Regarding Thrombosis
A) Occurs in both arteries & veins
B) Its trigged by damage to intima of the blood vessels.
C) Waffarin can prevent it.
D) Thrombi is lysed by asprin.
E) Protein C deficiency is a cause.
2. Innate immune response
A) Occurs in 10 to 14 weeks.
B) Is mediated by citokines.
C) Include non specific enzyme recognition.
D) Its leads to activation of the complementary system.
E) Activation of complement system.

3. Factors that need to keep blood in fluid form in vessels


A) Prostaglandines
B) Antithrombin III
C) Von willebrand factor
D) Plasmin
E) Thrombomodulin

4. The following factors decrease in folate deficiency


A) Number of RBC
B) MCV
C) MCH

5. Regarding heamolitic diseases of a new born


A) Related to mother with Rh+ blood.
B) Antibodies for D antigen form immediately after mother is sentizied.

SEQ
1. Briefly explain why,
a) Prothrombin time is prolonged in chronic liver heparin as an anticoagulant.(40) (AL2006 main)
b) Rhogam is administered to a Rh(-) mother microcytic hypochromic anaemia in total following delivery of a Rh(+)
baby.(50)

2. Explain the physiological basis for the following;


a) Macrocyticanaemia in a patient who had total to an Rh – mother within 48 hrs after delivery.(40)
b) Prolonged APTT in a patient with Haemophilia treatment in myocardial infarction.(30)

3. A 45 yr. female was admitted to hospital with a chronic renal failure. On clinical examination she was found to be
anaemic & oedematous. A.Explain the physiological basis of anaemia and oedema in this patient.(50)

4. Explain briefly the role of platelets in haemostasis.

5. Explain the extrinsic pathway of clotting.(35)

6. Write briefly on; a. Erythropoietin b. Functions of neutrophils (30) (AL1994rep).

7)
a) Describe the role of platelets in logical basis of haemostasis.(30)
b) Briefly outline the fibrinolytic mechanism.(40)
c) Give the physiological basis of the prolonged prothrombin time seen in liver disease.(40)

8. Give the physiological basis for prolonged prothrombin time seen in biliary obstruction.(50)

9.Briefly describe the role of the kidney in erythropoiesis.(35) (AL2000 rep)

10.Give the physiological basis for the excessive in bleeding seen in a patient with haemophilia A.(50)

11. Give an account of the role of vitamin B12 in erythropoiesis.(35) (AL2001 main)

12.Explain the role of a. Erythropoietin in red cell formation.(40) b. Platelets in haemostasis(35) (AL2001rep)

13.Write briefly on the functions & regulation of erythropoietin.(50)


14. Briefly explain the mechanism of action of heparin as an anticoagulant(40)

15.Explain briefly the physiological basis of microcytic hypochromic anaemia in total gastrectomy(30)

16 Give the physiological basis for giving Rhogam

17.Explain the physiological basis of asprin in myocardial infarction.(30)

18. Explain the role of neutrophils in bacterial infections(30)

19. Explain the physiological basis of prolonged APTT in haemophilia A

20. Briefly explain the physiological basis of using recombinant erythropoietin in renal failure.(40)

21.Explain briefly the physiological basis of microcytic hypochromic anaemia

22.A boy was admitted to the hospital with prolonged severe bleeding following a tooth extraction. Results of the
investigations performed.
Bleeding time -5 minutes (Ref.range 1-6 minutes)
Platelet count -250 000/microliter (Ref. range 150000-300 000)
Prothrombin time -12 seconds (Ref. range 12-15 seconds)
APTT -70 seconds (Ref. range 30-40 seconds)
The boy mentioned that his uncle also had bleeding problems.
a) What is the likely diagnosis? (10)
b) Briefly explain how the above mentioned information helped you in arriving at the diagnosis.(50)
c) Briefly explain the physiological basis of prolonged bleeding time in vonWillebrand disease. (40)

23.Briefly explain,
a) Why the neutrophils are considered as the first line of defense against bacterial infections.(60)
b) The physiological basis of microcytic hypochromic anaemia in iron deficiency.

24. Briefly describe the physiological basis for the following.


a) Macrocytic megaloblastic anaemia in vitamin B12 deficiency. (60)
b) Abnormal platelet response in vonWillebrand disease. (40)

25.A 20 year old female presented with pallor and tiredness. Investigations revealed the following.
Haemoglobin concentration 7.0 g/dl (11.5-15.5g/dl)
Mean Corpuscular Volume(MCV) 65 fl (80-96 fl)
Mean Corpuscular HbConcentration (MCHC) 20 g/dl (32-35 g/dl)
a) What is the above haematological abnormality? (5)
b) What is the most likely cause for the above abnormality? (5)
c) Give the physiological basis for the above(30) (AL2008 main)

26.
a) Explain the physiological basis of prolonged prothrombin time in chronic liver disease. (80)(AL2009 CAT1)
b) List the functions of erythropoietin(20)(AL2009 CAT1)

27. Draw a flow chart showing the physiological basis for intravenous streptokinase injection in the treatment of
myocardial infarction (30marks)(AL2009 IBSS)

28.Explain the physiological basis of the following. Giving anti-Rh antibodies to an Rh-negative mother after delivering an
Rhpositive baby. (60 marks)(AL2009 REPEAT)

29.Explain the role of erthyropoetin hormone in erythropoesis (2012 AL IBSS main)

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