1.

A test for the hydrolysis of esculin in the presence of bile is especially useful in
identifying species of the genus: *
1/1
Corynebacterium
Listeria
Enterococcus
 
Staphylococcus
Feedback
Differentiation of Enterococci and group D Streptococci is traditionally based on the ability of the
organisms to hydrolyze the glycoside esculin to esculetin and dextrose. The esculetin reacts with an
iron salt to form a dark brown precipitate surrounding the colonies. (p. 253)

Bailey and Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition

 
2. A patient with a history of antibiotic use presents with diarrhea. Upon endoscopy, a
pseudomembrane or plaque was observed. The most likely associated organism is: *
1/1
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
Streptococcus pyogenes
Clostridium difficile
 
Feedback
The definitive diagnosis of C. difficile–associated diarrhea is based on clinical criteria combined with
laboratory testing. Visualization of a characteristic pseudomembrane or plaque on endoscopy is
diagnostic for pseudomembranous colitis and, with the appropriate history of prior antibiotic use,
meets the criteria for diagnosis of antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis. (p. 958)

Bailey and Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition

 
3. Which of the following is bound on the cytoplasmic membrane of Staphylococcus
aureus which has a high affinity for the Fc receptor on IgG molecules as well as
complement? *
1/1
M protein
Protein A
 
PVL
Hyaluronidase
Feedback
S. aureus produces a surface protein, known as protein A. This protein is bound to the cytoplasmic
membrane of the organism and has a high affinity for the Fc receptor on IgG molecules as well as
complement. This provides a mechanism for the organisms to bind the immune active molecules,
decreasing the ability for clearance of the organism from the site of infection. (p. 233)

Bailey and Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition

 
4. Abiotrophia spp. (formally known as nutritionally variant streptococci) will not grow
on blood or chocolate agars unless supplied with: *
1/1
Pyridoxal
 
Hemin
Vitamin B12
Cysteine
Feedback
Abiotrophia and Granulicatella will not grow on blood or chocolate agars unless pyridoxal (vitamin
B6) is supplied either by placement of a pyridoxal disk, by cross-streaking with Staphylococcus, or
by inoculation of vitamin B6–supplemented culture media. (p. 253)

Bailey and Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition

 
5. Which of the following statements is incorrect? *
1/1
S. pyogenes is the only species of beta-hemolytic streptococci that will give a positive PYR
reaction.
S. agalactiae is able to hydrolyze hippurate and is positive in the CAMP test.
S. pneumoniae is resistant to optochin.
 
None of the above
Feedback
A zone of 14 to 16 mm is considered susceptible and presumptive identification for Streptococcus
pneumoniae. (p. 222)

Bailey and Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition

 
6. A gram-positive coccus that is catalase positive, lysostaphin susceptible, and
modified oxidase negative is best identified as a member of the genus: *
0/1
Micrococcus
 
Stapylococcus
Streptococcus
Pediococcus

Correct answer
Stapylococcus
Feedback
Modified oxidase: Staphylococcus (-), Micrococcus (+)
Lysostaphin test: Staphylococcus (S), Micrococcus (R)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon, p. 317

 
7. An infant was brought to the emergency room appearing limp and “floppy”. The
mother stated that she has just started to introduce table foods to her baby’s diet. A
few days prior, she noted her baby to be constipated and to have diminished suckling
and crying. This condition was most likely caused by: *
0/1
Spoiled milk consumption
Respiratory droplets
Consumption of raw honey
All of the Above
 
Correct answer
Consumption of raw honey
Feedback
Infant botulism, unlike that in adults, follows ingestion of C. botulinum spores. Honey contaminated
with the C. botulinum spores is the food most commonly associated with infant botulism. Once
ingested, the spores germinate and the vegetative cells then colonize the colon and subsequently
produce toxins. (p. 508)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
8. The etiologic agent most commonly associated with septicemia and meningitis of
newborns is: *
1/1
Streptococcus agalactiae
 
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus bovis group
Feedback
S. agalactiae, group B, infections usually are associated with neonates and are acquired before or
during the birthing process. The organism is known to cause septicemia, pneumonia, and meningitis
in newborns. (p. 252)

Bailey and Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition

 
9. The etiologic agent of erysipelas is: *
1/1
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
Streptococcus pyogenes
 
Listeria monocytogenes
Feedback
Erysipelas is caused by Group A Streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes). Primarily involves the
dermis and most superficial parts of the subcutaneous tissue; lesions are painful, red, swollen, and
indurated; patients are febrile, and regional lymphadenopathy (swollen glands) is often present;
lesion has a marked, well-demarcated, raised border (p. 965)

Bailey and Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition

 
10. The production of H2S is one characteristic used to differentiate which of the
aerobic gram-positive bacilli? *
0/1
Corynebacterium
Lactobacillus
Nocardia
 
Erysipelothrix

Correct answer
Erysipelothrix
Feedback
Erysipelothrix sp. is the only catalase-negative, gram-positive non-spore-forming rod that produces
hydrogen sulfide (H2S) when inoculated into triple sugar iron (TSI) agar. (p. 293)

Bailey and Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition

 
11. Which one of the following is not appropriate when describing Mycoplasma
hominis? *
0/1
Urease negative
 
Produces large colonies with a characteristic fried egg appearance
Stained with Dienes
Produces hemolytic, pinpoint colonies that stains with Gram Stain

Correct answer
Produces hemolytic, pinpoint colonies that stains with Gram Stain
Feedback
On conventional blood agar, strains of M. hominis, but not of U. urealyticum, produce nonhemolytic,
pinpoint colonies that do not stain with Gram stain. (p. 532)

Bailey and Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition

 
12. What compound is only found in Gram-positive bacteria? *
1/1
Peptidoglycan
Teichoic acid
 
Capsule
Outer Membrane
Feedback
Other components of the gram-positive cell wall that penetrate to the exterior of the cell are teichoic
acid (anchored to the peptidoglycan) and lipoteichoic acid (anchored to the plasma membrane).
These two components are unique to the gram-positive cell wall. (p. 8)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
13. Which of the following stains the metachromatic granules of Corynebacterium
diphtheriae? *
1/1
Leifson
Ziehl-Neelsen
Methylene blue
 
Calcofluor white stain
Feedback
Leifson: Flagella
Calcofluor white stain: Bronchoalveolar fungi and some parasitic cysts
Ziehl-Neelsen: Sediments for mycobacteria (concentrated smears), Partial acid-fastness of Nocardia
spp.

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon, p. 130

 
14. Which Shigella species ferments mannitol and is ONPG and orntihine
decarboxylase positive? *
1/1
Shigella dysenteriae
Shigella flexneri
Shigella sonnei
 
Shigella boydii
Feedback
S. sonnei is the only ODC (+) among the four Shigella species.
S. dysenteriae is the only Shigella spp. among the four that does not ferment mannitol.

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon, p. 443

 
15. Which of the following statements regarding Yersinia enterocolitica is incorrect? *
0/1
Y. enterocolitica grows better with cold enrichment.
Motility is clearly noted at 25° C but not at 35° C.
 
CIN agar is a selective medium used to detect the presence of Y. enterocolitica.
The organism cannot be isolated on routine isolation media.
None of the Above

Correct answer
The organism cannot be isolated on routine isolation media.
Feedback
Y. enterocolitica morphologically resembles other Yersinia spp., which appear as gram-negative
coccobacilli with bipolar staining. The organism also grows on routine isolation media, such as SBA
and MAC agar. (p. 445)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
16. Yersinia pestis and Yersinia enterocolitica are both: *
1/1
Indole negative
Methyl red positive
Phenylalanine deaminase negative
All of the Above
 
A and B only
Feedback
TABLE 19-10: Differentiation of Selected Species within the Genus Yersinia (p. 446)
Y. pestis and Y. enterocolitica; Indole positive, Methyl Red positive, Phenylalanine deaminase
negative

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
17. Which of the following differentiates Proteus vulgaris from Proteus mirabilis? I.
Indole II. H2S on TSI III. Phenylalanine deaminase test IV. Methyl Red *
1/1
I, II, IV
I, IV
All of the Above
I only
 
Feedback
Indole Test: Proteus vulgaris (+) Proteus mirabilis (-)
Methyl Red, PAD Test, H2S on TSI: Both (+)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
18. A positive Simmons citrate test is seen as a: *
1/1
Blue color
 
Green color
Yellow color
Red color
Feedback
The citrate test determines whether an organism can use sodium citrate as a sole carbon source.
Simmons citrate medium is frequently used to determine citrate utilization. In addition to citrate, the
test medium contains ammonium salts as the sole nitrogen source. Bacteria able to use citrate will
use the ammonium salts, thereby releasing ammonia. The alkaline pH that results from use of the
ammonium salts changes the pH indicator (bromthymol blue) in the medium from green to blue. (p.
189)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
19. Steam autoclave's setting includes: *
1/1
121°C, 15 psi, 15 minutes
 
101°C, 25 psi, 15 minutes
125°C, 15 psi, 25 minutes
112°C, 10 psi, 10 minutes
Feedback
An autoclave is essentially a large pressure cooker. Moist heat in the form of saturated steam under
1 atmosphere (15 psi [pounds per square inch]) of pressure causes the irreversible denaturation of
enzymes and structural proteins. Items such as media, liquids, and instruments are usually
autoclaved for 15 minutes at 121°C. (p. 40)

Bailey and Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition

 
20. Which of the following is not a characteristic of this bacterium which is associated
mainly with UTIs predominantly in female adolescents and young women? *
0/1
Gram-positive cocci
Coagulase positive
Novobiovin resistant
 
None of the Above

Correct answer
Coagulase positive
Feedback
Staphylococci that do not produce coagulase are referred to as coagulase-negative staphylococci
(CoNS). The most clinically and commonly recovered significant species in this group are S.
epidermidis and S. saprophyticus. S. saprophyticusis associated mainly with urinary tract infections
(UTIs), predominantly in female adolescents and young women. (p. 318)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
21. Alpha-hemolysis is seen on blood agar plate as: *
1/1
No change in agar
Clear area around colony
Greenish discoloration of area around colony
 
Small area of intact red blood cells around colony surrounded by a wider zone of complete
hemolysis
Feedback
Beta: Clear area around colony
Gamma: No change in agar
Alpha-prime: Small area of intact red blood cells around colony surrounded by a wider zone of
complete hemolysis

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon, p. 332

 
22. An organism produces a double hemolysis on egg yolk agar. This is due to what
toxin? *
0/1
Alpha toxin
Beta toxin
Hyaluronidase
 
Exotoxin A

Correct answer
Alpha toxin
Feedback
Large, irregular-shaped colonies on sheep blood agar demonstrating a double zone of beta-
hemolysis can be identified as C. perfringens due to α-Toxin or lecithinase (p. 523)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
23. Obligate intracellular organisms: I. Chlamydia II. Mycoplasma III. Rickettsia IV.
Viruses *
0/1
I, II, III, IV
 
IV only
All except II
II, IV

Correct answer
All except II
Feedback
Mycoplasmas are are generally slow-growing, highly fastidious, facultative anaerobes requiring
complex media containing cholesterol and fatty acids for growth. (p. 565)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
24. A patient presents with hematuria and hypertension as a case of PSGN. Which of
the following tests is used to document prior impetigo? *
0/1
CBC
ASO Titer
 
Anti-DNAse B
Elek Test

Correct answer
Anti-DNAse B
Feedback
Acute glomerulonephritis sometimes occurs after a cutaneous or pharyngeal infection with S.
pyogenes. Some immunologic tests used to detect infection with S. pyogenes include ASO, anti-
DNase, antistreptokinase, and antihyaluronidase titers. High titers of ASO antibody develop in about
85% of the cases of rheumatic fever, but the titers and percentages of patients with streptococcal
wound infections and poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis who develop ASO antibodies are
significantly lower. Thus when these diseases are suspected in patients who do not show an
elevation in ASO titers, additional serologic tests directed at other streptococcal enzymes should be
performed; antibody to DNase-B is the most valuable. (p. 224, 335)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
25. Which of the manifestations is part of the clinical picture of the tertiary stage of
syphilis? *
1/1
Soft chancre
Gummas
 
Condyloma lata
Hard chancre
Feedback
Symptoms of tertiary syphilis include the development of granulomatous lesions (gummas) in skin,
bones, and liver (benign tertiary syphilis). (p. 544)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
26. All of the following bacteria have capsules EXCEPT: *
1/1
Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aerigunosa
All are encapsulated
 
Feedback
All are encapsulated. (pp. 32, 435, 486)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
27. Thayer-Martin agar contains the following antibiotics, EXCEPT: *
1/1
Nystatin
Trimethoprim
 
Vancomycin
Colistin
None of the Above
Feedback
MTM differs from the original Thayer-Martin formulation by the addition of trimethoprim, which
prevents Proteus spp. from swarming. (p. 987)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
28. Which of the following is used as a prophylactic treatment to prevent gonococcal
(Neisseria gonorrhoeae) conjunctivitis in newborns? *
1/1
Erythromycin
 
Bacitracin
Silver nitrate drops
All of the Above
Feedback
Silver nitrate (1% eyedrop solution) has been used as a prophylactic treatment to prevent
gonococcal (Neisseria gonorrhoeae) conjunctivitis in newborns. (p. 69-70)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
29. BCYE medium is used to isolate: *
0/1
Corynebacterium diphtheria
Bordetella pertussis
 
Legionella pneumophila
Listeria monocytogenes

Correct answer
Legionella pneumophila
Feedback
Buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE) agar with L-cysteine is best for Legionella isolation. (p. 417)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
30. On what phase of the bacterial growth curve does beta-Lactam antibiotics act
on? *
1/1
Lag phase
Log phase
 
Stationary phase
Death phase
Feedback
When the growth of a bacterial culture is plotted during balanced growth, the resulting curve shows
four phases of growth: (1) a lag phase, during which bacteria are preparing to divide, (2) a log
phase, during which bacteria numbers increase logarithmically, (3) a stationary phase, in which
nutrients are becoming limited and the numbers of bacteria remain constant (although viability may
decrease), and (4) a death phase, when the number of nonviable bacterial cells exceeds the number
of viable cells. (p. 14)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
31. Psittacosis is a lower respiratory infection in humans caused by contact with what
animal? *
0/1
Rodents
 
Dogs
Birds
Cats

Correct answer
Birds
Feedback
Chlamydophila psittaci is the cause of psittacosis among psit-tacine birds, also known as ornithosis
or parrot fever. (p. 558)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
32. Class III biologic safety hood provides the highest level of personal protection. It is
the most common in microbiology laboratories. *
1/1
First statement is correct, Second statement is incorrect
 
First statement is incorrect, Second statement is correct
Both statements are correct
Both statements are incorrect
Feedback
Class II biologic safety hood is the most common in microbiology laboratories. (p. 79)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
33. Which biosafety cabinet is being described? 30% Recirculated through HEPA,
70% exhausted *
0/1
II, A1
II, B1
I, B2
 
II, A2

Correct answer
II, B1
Feedback
II, A1: 70% recirculated, 30% exhausted
I, B2: No recirculation
II, A2: Similar to II A1 but has 100 lfm intake air velocity

Clinical Chemistry Techniques, Principles, Correlations 6th Edition, Bishop, p. 78

 
34. Which of the following species of Bacillus is nonmotile? *
0/1
B. cereus
 
B. anthracis
Both
Neither

Correct answer
B. anthracis
Feedback
B anthracis: nonmotile
B. cereus: motile

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon, p. 371

 
35. Which of the following correctly describes Escherichia coli O157:H7 on
MacConkey-sorbitol agar? *
0/1
Lactose fermenter
Sorbitol fermenter
 
Lactose nonfermenter
Sorbitol nonfermenter

Correct answer
Sorbitol nonfermenter
Feedback
MacConkey-sorbitol (MAC-SOR): Same as regular MacConkey except D-sorbitol is substituted for
lactose. Sorbitol-negative organisms are clear and may indicate E. coliO157:H7. (p. 316)

Bailey and Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition

 
36. Ethylhydrocupreine HCl susceptibility is a presumptive test for the identification
of: *
0/1
Viridans streptococci
 
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus pneumoniae

Correct answer
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Feedback
In the optochin test, a filter paper disk containing optochin (ethylhydrocuprein hydro-chloride) is
added to the surface of an SBA plate that has just been inoculated with an α-hemolytic
streptococcus. A zone of inhibition greater than 14 mm with a 6-mm disk or a zone of inhibition
greater than 16 mm with a 10-mm disk is considered susceptible and a presumptive identification of
S. pneumoniae. (p. 348)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
37. A beta-hemolytic, catalase and esculin hydrolysis-positive, gram-positive bacteria
was isolated. Growth was also observed in 6.5% NaCl. This is most likely: *
0/1
Listeria monocytogenes
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Streptococcus agalactiae
Enterococcus faecalis
 
Correct answer
Listeria monocytogenes
Feedback
Refer to TABLE 16-2: Differentiation of Listeria monocytogenes and Other Gram-Positive Bacteria
(p. 361)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
38. Fecal cultures are inoculated on thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose agar
specifically for the isolation of: *
1/1
Shigella
Salmonella
Vibrio
 
Campylobacter
Feedback
TCBS: A highly selective medium to recover Vibrio spp., including Vibrio cholerae, from stool and
food (p. 849)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
39. Neisseria lactamica closely resembles Neisseria meningitidis but can be
differentiated from it by its ability to metabolize: *
1/1
Maltose
Glucose
Lactose
 
Sucrose
Feedback
N. meningitidis produces acid from glucose and maltose.
N. lactamica produces acid from glucose, lactose, and maltose.

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon, p. 385

 
40. An oxidase-negative, gram-negative bacillus that produces an alkaline slant and
acid butt on triple sugar iron (TSI) agar is able to ferment which of the following
carbohydrates? *
1/1
Glucose only
 
Glucose and lactose and/or sucrose
Lactose only
Lactose and sucrose, but not glucose
Feedback
Expected Results:
Alkaline slant/no change in the butt (K/NC): glucose, lactose, and sucrose nonutilizer; this may also
be recorded as K/K(alkaline slant/alkaline butt)

Alkaline slant/acid butt(K/A):glucose fermentation only

Acid slant/acid butt(A/A):glucose, sucrose, and/or lactose

Bailey and Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition, p. 228

 
41. Which of the following nonphotochromogen slow grower Mycobacteria species will
be ruled out if niacin is negative? *
1/1
Mycobacterium gastri
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
 
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
Mycobacterium xenopi
Feedback
M. tuberculosis is niacin positive. Other choices are niacin negative. Refer to FIGURE 26-8:
Schematic diagram for the identification of slowly growing Mycobacterium spp. (p. 596)
Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
42. All of the following are rapidly growing mycobacteria, EXCEPT: *
1/1
M. fortuitum
M. chelonae
M. smegmatis
M. scrofulaceum
 
Feedback
The three most important rapidly growing mycobacteria causing human infections are M. chelonae,
M. abscessus, and M. fortuitum. (p. 584)

M. scrofulaceum: slow-grower scotochromogen

M. smegmatis and M. phlei: rapid-grower scotochromogens (p. 597)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
43. Which of the following antibiotics is affected, mostly seen with P. aeruginosa, by
concentration of cations in the environment? *
0/1
Sulfonamide
 
Tetracycline
Aminoglycosides
Erythromycin

Correct answer
Aminoglycosides
Feedback
Aminoglycoside activity is also affected by the concentration of cations in the environment, such as
calcium and magnesium (Ca++ and Mg++). This effect is most notable with P. aeruginosa. Calcium
and magnesium cations compete with the aminoglycosides for negatively charged binding sites on
the cell surface. If the positively charged calcium and magnesium ions outcompete aminoglycoside
molecules for these sites, the amount of the drug taken up is decreased and antimicrobial activity is
diminished. (p. 161)

Bailey Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition

 
44. Which of the following test results is most helpful in categorizing an isolate as a
member of the Tribe Proteeae? *
0/1
MR (-), VP (+)
Urease positive
 
Able to ferment lactose
PAD (+)

Correct answer
PAD (+)
Feedback
Phenylalanine deaminase (PAD) agar is used to detect an organism’s ability to deaminate
phenylalanine. A positive reaction is most useful for distinguishing Proteus, Providencia,and
Morganella spp. from other members of the family Enterobacteriaceae.

Mahon's Diagnostic Microbiology, p. 991

 
45. Which of the following exhibits a gliding motility? *
1/1
Campylobacter
Capnocytophaga
 
Listeria
Proteus
Feedback
Capnocytophaga spp.: Colonies are small to medium size, opaque, shiny, nonhemolytic, pale beige
or yellowish color, has a gliding motility may be observed as outgrowths from the colonies or as a
haze on the surface of the agar

Refer to TABLE 31-4: Colonial Appearance and Characteristics on 5% Sheep Blood Agar

Bailey and Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition, p. 400

 
46. What is the appearance of the colonies of Shigella spp. in XLD agar? *
1/1
colorless colonies
 
yellow colonies
red colonies with black centers
colorless colonies with black centers
Feedback
XLD agar is selective and differential for Shigella spp. and Salmonella spp. Enteric pathogens, such
as Shigella spp., do not ferment these carbohydrates, so their colonies remain colorless. Colonies of
Salmonella spp. are also colorless on XLD, because of the decarboxylation of lysine, which results
in a pH increase that causes the pH indicator to turn red. These colonies often exhibit a black center
that results from Salmonella spp. producing H2S. (p. 88)

Bailey Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition

 
47. An organism that can live and grow in reduced concentrations of oxygen but
prefers an anaerobic environment is known as a/an: *
0/1
Capnophile
Obligate anaerobe
Facultative anaerobe
 
Aerotolerant anaerobe

Correct answer
Aerotolerant anaerobe
Feedback
Facultative anaerobe: Multiplies equally well in the presence or absence of O2

Aerotolerant anaerobe: Reduced concentrations of O2 (anaerobic system and a microaerophilic

environment)

Obligate anaerobe: Strict anaerobic environment (0% O2)

Capnophile: 5%-10% CO2

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon, p. 504

 
48. Which of the following produces a toxin similar to Shiga toxin produced by Shigella
dysenteriae? *
0/1
EIEC
 
ETEC
EHEC
EAEC

Correct answer
EHEC
Feedback
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC, VTEC, or STEC):
Virulence Factor: Toxin similar to Shiga toxin produced by Shigella dysenteriae. Most frequently
associated with certain serotypes,such as E. coli O157:H7

Bailey Scott's Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition, p. 310

 
49. Which of the following correctly describes the violet pigment, violacein produced
by Chromobacterium violaceum? I. Ethanol-soluble II. Ethanol-insoluble III. Water-
soluble IV. Water-insoluble *
0/1
I, III
 
II, IV
I, IV
II, III

Correct answer
I, IV
Feedback
C. violaceum is motile with polar flagella and, as its name implies, produces a violet pigment (about
91% of the time). The pigment, violacein, is ethanol-soluble and water-insoluble. (p. 496)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon

 
50. What step in the Gram stain distinguishes between gram-positive and gram-
negative organisms? *
0/1
Fixing of the cells to the slide using heat
Decolorization using acetone alcohol
Counterstaining using Safranin
 
Application of Gram's Iodine

Correct answer
Decolorization using acetone alcohol
Feedback
Bacteria with thick cell walls containing teichoic acid retain the crystal violet–iodine complex dye
after decolorization and appear deep blue; they are gram-positive bacteria. Other bacteria with
thinner walls containing lipopolysaccharides do not retain the dye complex; they are gram-negative
bacteria. (p. 130)

Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition, Mahon