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Q: The Elections Act 2017 was adopted in which month?

A. August 2017
B. September 2017
C. October 2017
D. November 2017
X: The Act was adopted on the 2nd of October, 2017.

Q: The Elections Act 2017 has the following feature(s),


A. It extends to the whole of Pakistan
B. It shall come into force from 1st November 2017
C. It extends to the whole of Pakistan, barring former FATA
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
X: The two salient features of the Act are that i) it extends to the whole of Pakistan, and that ii) it
shall come into force at once. Among the options given, only option ‘A’ has one of the actual
features. Hence, it is the correct answer.

Q: In the Elections Act 2017, there are ___ requirements that must be fulfilled by a scholar in order to
be considered an ‘aalim’.
A. Three
B. Four
C. Two
D. Five
X: There are two criteria that must be fulfilled, one relates to the education of the scholar and the
other relates to the number of years of experience they possess.

Q: In order to be considered an ‘aalim’ according to the Elections Act 2017, a scholar must possess a
degree/sanad of at least ___ years of education.
A. 14
B. 16
C. 18
D. 14 to 16
X: One of the requirements to be considered an aalim according to the Act is that the scholar must
possess a degree or sanad of at least 16 years of education.

Q: In the Elections Act 2017, an ‘aalim’ refers to a scholar who holds at least ___ years of experience in
teaching and/or researching in principles and philosophy of Islam and Islamic law.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 15
D. 25
X: According to the act, a scholar must possess at least 20 years of experience in the mentioned
fields in order to be considered an aalim.

Q: “Applicable local government law” means an Act of ___ or of a Provincial Assembly for establishment
of a local government and includes an Ordinance.
A. The Parliament of Pakistan
B. The Senate of Pakistan
C. The Cabinet of Pakistan
D. The National Assembly of Pakistan
X: According to the Act, “applicable local government law” means an act of the Majlis-e-Shoora
(The Parliament), or of a Provincial Assembly.

Q: The exact term used in the Act to refer to an election held to fill a casual vacancy is ___.
A. Bi-election
B. By-election
C. Bye-election
D. Special-election
X: Although ‘by-election’ is also a term used to refer to such an election, but the specific
spelling/term used in the Act is bye-election, and is hence the correct answer.

Q: ‘Code’, in the Act, refers to the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 (Act __ of 1898).
A. III
B. IV
C. V
D. VI
X: The Code of Criminal Procedure refers to Act V (five) of 1898.
Q: In the Act, the “Commissioner” means,
A. Chief Election Commissioner appointed under Article 213
B. Acting Chief Election Commissioner appointed under Article 216
C. Both Chief Election Commissioner appointed under Article 213 and an Acting Chief Election
Commissioner appointed under Article 216
D. Both Chief Election Commissioner appointed under Article 213 and an Acting Chief Election
Commissioner appointed under Article 217
X: The Act includes the Chief Election Commissioner appointed under Article 213, and includes an
Acting Chief Election Commissioner appointed under Article 217. Option ‘C’ mentions an incorrect
article number for the Acting Chief. Hence, option ‘D’ is the correct answer.
Q: Which of the following is TRUE with regards to “Election Agents” under this Act?
A. It refers to a person appointed by a candidate as his election agent
B. It may refer to the candidate themselves too
C. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
X: Under the Act, an Election Agent may refer to a person appointed by the candidate as their
election agent, and, where no such appointment is made, the candidate acting as his own election
agent. Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: Under the Act, what does “election expenses” refer to?


A. Any expenditure incurred before, during and after an election
B. Any expenditure incurred during an election
C. Any expenditure incurred before and during an election
D. Any expenditure incurred during and after an election
X: According to section 1 point (xv) of the Act, election expenses refers to the expenses incurred
and payments made etc, before, during, and after an election. Hence, option ‘A’ is correct.

Q: An “electoral area” in rural areas, according to the Act, refers to which of the following?
A. Any area with a population of no more than 200 people
B. A census block
C. A township
D. None of the above
X: According to the Act, in rural areas, an electoral area refers to a village or a census block. Hence,
option ‘B’ is the correct answer.

Q: With regards to urban areas, how many different definitions of “electoral area” exist?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
X: In urban areas, an electoral area may refer to i) a municipal ward or census block. If there is none
of these, then ii) a well-defined Mohallah or a street. But where the ward or census block,
Mohallah or street is too big, iii) a well-defined part thereof. Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: With regards to urban “election areas”, which of the following is not to be divided except under
exceptional circumstances?
A. Ward
B. Census block
C. Mohallah
D. Street
X: As per the Act, “a census block shall not be divided except in exceptional circumstances for
reasons to be recorded” (section 2 point no. xvi, a, III). Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: Under the Act, ___ means a person authorized by the Commission to observe the conduct of an
election.
A. Election Overseer
B. Election Observer
C. Election Official
D. Election Officer
X: As per section 2 point (xvii) of the Act, “election observer” means a person authorized by the
Commission to observe the conduct of an election. Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: Which of the following can be termed as an “election official”?


A. District Returning Officer
B. Assistant Presidential Officer
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D. None of the above
X: The title “Assistant Presidential Officer” is incorrect. The correct term is Assistant Presiding
Officer. Only option ‘A’, District Returning Officer, is among those that are counted as election
officials, and is hence the correct answer.

Q: “Electoral Rolls” includes the electoral rolls prepared under the ___.
A. Electoral Rolls Act 1974 (XIX of 1974)
B. Electoral Rolls Act 1975 (XIX of 1975)
C. Electoral Rolls Act 1974 (XXI of 1974)
D. Electoral Rolls Act 1975 (XXI of 1975)
X: An “electoral roll”, as per section 2 point (xx) of the Act, refers to “an electoral roll prepared,
revised or corrected under this Act and includes the electoral rolls prepared under the Electoral
Rolls Act 1974 (XXI of 1974) …”. Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: Under the Act, “Government” means which of the following?


A. Local government
B. Provincial Government
C. Federal Government
D. All of the above
X: As per section 2 point (xxii), “Government” refers only to the Federal Government of Pakistan.
Q: What is the exact term used in the Act to refer to the Federal Government, a Provincial Government
or a local government?
A. ‘all government’
B. ‘all Government’
C. ‘any government’
D. ‘any Government’
X: The exact term used in the Act (section 2 point xxii) is ‘any Government’ (with a capital G).
Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: Which of the following is NOT included in “government dues and utility expenses”?
A. Dues whose recovery has been stayed by a tribunal
B. Dues whose recovery has been stayed by NAB
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’
X: According to the Act, such expenses do include “the government dues and utility expenses the
recovery of which has been stayed by any order of a court; or tribunal” (section 2 point xxiii).
Hence, option ‘A’ is correct.

Q: Under the Act, "loan", means any loan, advance, credit or finance obtained or written off on or after
___.
A. 31st December, 1985
B. 31st December, 1995
C. 31st December, 2005
D. 31st December, 2015
X: Section 2 point (xxiv) of the Act states that loan "means any loan, advance, credit or finance
obtained or written off on or after 31st December, 1985 but shall not include the loan the recovery
of which has been stayed by a court or tribunal”. Hence, option ‘A’ is correct.

Q: Which of the following does NOT refer to “Member”?


A. Member of an Assembly
B. Member of the Election Commission
C. Member of the Senate
D. Member of a local government
X: Section 2 point (xxvi) of the Act states that “Member” refers to “member of an Assembly, the
Senate or a local government”. Hence, option ‘B’ is the answer.
Q: “National Database and Registration Authority” means the National Database and Registration
Authority constituted under ____.
A. The National Database and Registration Authority Ordinance, 2001 (VIII of 2001)
B. The National Database and Registration Authority Ordinance, 1990 (VIII of 1990)
C. The National Database and Registration Authority Ordinance, 2000 (VII of 2000)
D. The National Database and Registration Authority Ordinance, 2000 (VIII of 2000)
X: Section 2 point (xxvii) states that ““National Database and Registration Authority” means the
National Database and Registration Authority constituted under the National Database and
Registration Authority Ordinance, 2000 (VIII of 2000)”. Option ‘C’ incorrectly states “VII of 2000”
instead of “VIII of 2000”. Hence, option ‘D’ is the correct answer.

Q: In addition to participation in elections for any elective public office or for membership of a
legislative body, what other activity does a “political party” engage in (according to the Act)?
A. Constructing political support
B. Disseminating political opinion
C. Influencing political opinion
D. Engineering political opinion
X: As per the Act, a “political party” refers to “an association of citizens or a combination or group
of such associations formed with a view to propagating or influencing political opinion …” (section 2
point xxviii). Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: Under the Act, “Presiding Officer” means ___.


A. Presiding Officer appointed under this Act for a polling station
B. An Assistant Presiding Officer performing the functions of a Presiding Officer
C. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
X: As per section 2 point (xxxi), a “Presiding Officer” means both, an appointed Presiding Officer for
a polling station, as well as an Assistant Presiding Officer performing the functions of a Presiding
Officer. Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: “Provisional” means ___ and not final.


A. Unofficial
B. Tentative
C. Proposed
D. Under review
X: Section 2 point (xxxii) of the Act states “provisional” refers to “unofficial and not final”. Hence,
option ‘A’ is correct.
Q: A “returned candidate” means a candidate who has been declared ___.
A. Rejected
B. Elected
C. Unelected
D. None of the above
X: As per section 2 point (xxxiv), such a candidate refers to a “candidate who has been declared
elected as a Member under this Act”. Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: ____ means a person appointed under this Act to hear and dispose of claims and objections and
applications for corrections relating to the electoral rolls.
A. Revising Officer
B. Revising Authority
C. Revising Official
D. Revising Agent
X: As per section 2 point (xxxv) of the Act, such a person is referred to as “Revising Authority”.
Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: How many criteria must be fulfilled in order to be considered a “technocrat” under this Act?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. Two compulsory and one optional
X: In order to be considered a “technocrat”, two criteria must be fulfilled. One of which is regarding
the education of a person, while the other is about work experience (as per section 2 point xxxix, a-
b).

Q: Which one of the following is included in the criteria to be considered a “technocrat”?


A. Possessing a 16 year education with an HEC recognized degree
B. Having a record of international achievements
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’
X: This is a tricky question. As per the Act, a technocrat must have 16 years of education recognized
by the HEC (this marks option ‘A’ as correct, and rules out option ‘D’), work experience of 20 years,
and a record of achievements at the national or international level. Option ‘B’ mentions
achievements only at the international level, hence it is incorrect. This rules out option ‘C’.
Therefore, option ‘A’ is the only valid option.
Q: Under the Act, a candidate whose nomination paper has been accepted is termed as ___.
A. Valid Candidate
B. Accepted Nominated Candidate
C. Validly Nominated Candidate
D. None of the above
X: As per section 2 point (xl), ““validly nominated candidate” means a candidate whose nomination
paper has been accepted”. Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: How many different definitions of a “voter” are there in relation to an Assembly or a local
government?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
X: As per section 2 point (xli, a), a “voter” in relation to an Assembly or a local government, is a
person who is enrolled as a voter on the electoral roll of any electoral area in a constituency.
Hence, option ‘A’ is correct.

Q: How many different definitions of “voter” are there in relation to the Senate?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
X: There are three different definitions based on whether it is for election to a seat from i) a
Province, ii) the Islamabad Capital Territory, or iii) the (now former) Federally Administrated Tribal
Areas. Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: The procedure of the Election Commission of Pakistan is regulated by ___.


A. The National Assembly
B. The Parliament
C. The Election Commission itself
D. The Senate
X: Section 2 subsection 1 states that “In the performance of its functions, and duties and exercise of
its powers, the Commission shall regulate its own procedure.” Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.
Q: A matter shall be placed for decision before the full Commission, comprising all its members, in
which of the following scenarios?
A. Where the members attending the proceedings of the Commission are three and there is
difference of opinion amongst them
B. Where the members attending the proceedings of the Commission are four and they are
equally divided in their opinion
C. Any of the above
D. None of the above
X: Section 3 subsection 3 clause a of the act states that such a step is to be taken “(a) where the
members attending the proceedings of the Commission are four and they are equally divided in
their opinion; or (b) where the members attending the proceedings of the Commission are three
and there is difference of opinion amongst them.” The ‘or’ in the sentence indicates that this step
shall be taken in any of these two scenarios. Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: Under the Act, the Commission shall have the power to issue such directions or orders as may be
necessary for the performance of its functions and duties. This does NOT include,
A. An order for doing complete justice in any matter pending before it
B. An order for the purpose of securing the attendance of any person or the discovery or
production of any document
C. An order for the cancellation of any relevant document
D. All of the above
X: As per section 4 subsection 1, “The Commission shall have the power to issue such directions or
orders as may be necessary for the performance of its functions and duties, including an order for
doing complete justice in any matter pending before it and an order for the purpose of securing the
attendance of any person or the discovery or production of any document”. Hence, option ‘C’ is
correct.

Q: A direction or order issued by the Commission necessary for the performance of its functions and
duties shall be executed as if it had been issued by the ___.
A. The Senate
B. The Parliament
C. The High Court
D. The Supreme Court
X: As per section 4 subsection 2 of the Act, “Any such direction or order shall be enforceable
throughout Pakistan and shall be executed as if it had been issued by the High Court.” Hence,
option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: Under the Act, It shall be the duty of all executive authorities in the ___ and in the ___ to render such
assistance to the Commissioner and the Commission in the discharge of his or its functions as may
be required by the Commissioner or the Commission.
A. The Parliament, The Senate
B. The National Assembly, The Provinces
C. The Federation, The Senate
D. The Federation, The Provinces
X: As per section 5 subsection 2, “It shall be the duty of all executive authorities in the Federation
and in the Provinces to render such assistance to the Commissioner and the Commission …”.
Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: For the performance of the Commission’s functions, which of the following shall make their staff
available to the Commission?
A. The Federal Government
B. Each Provincial Government
C. The Judiciary, in consultation with the CJP
D. All of the above
X: As per section 5 subsection 3 of the Act, the Federal Government, the Provincial Governments,
and the Judiciary (if the Commission decides to utilize judicial officers, and with consultation from
the CJP), shall make their staff available to the Commission. Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: Under the Act, the Commissioner shall constitute benches to hear and decide complaints,
applications, petitions or appeals filed before it. How many members shall be part of such benches?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Three or more
D. Four or more
X: According to section 6 subsection 3, “The Commissioner shall constitute benches comprising
three or more members of the Commission to hear and decide complaints, applications, petitions
or appeals filed before it under this Act”. Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: Which of the following entities are NOT included in the list of entities that may, upon request of the
Commission, requisition a vehicle, vessel or other means of transportation as is needed or is likely
to be needed for the purpose of transporting to and from any polling station ballot boxes or other
election material?
A. A Provincial Government
B. The Federal Government
C. Deputy Commissioner
D. All of these are included in the list
X: As per section 7, subsection 1, “A Provincial Government, deputy commissioner, political agent
or head of district administration, by whatever name called, shall, upon a request made in this
behalf by the Commission …”. Since this does not include the Federal Government, hence, option
‘B’ is correct.
Q: The Commission shall have the power to stop the polls at polling stations due to large scale
malpractices. Which of the practices are included in this?
A. Coercion
B. Intimidation
C. Pressures
D. All of the above
X: As per section 8 (a), “the Commission may stop the polls at one or more polling stations at any
stage of the election if it is convinced that it shall not be able to ensure the conduct of the election
justly, fairly and in accordance with law due to large scale malpractices, including coercion,
intimidation and pressures, prevailing at the election.” Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: Commission may presume that the women voters have been restrained through an agreement from
casting their votes and may declare, polling at one or more polling stations or election in the whole
constituency, void, if the turnout of women voters is less than ___ percent.
A. Five
B. Ten
C. Fifteen
D. Twenty
X: As per section 9’s ‘explanation’, “If the turnout of women voters is less than ten percent of the
total votes polled in a constituency, the Commission may presume …”. Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: Under section 9, “Power of the Commission to declare a poll void”, it is stated that notwithstanding
the publication of the name of a returned candidate under section 98, the Commission may
exercise its powers for the recasting of votes before the expiration of ___ days after such
publication.
A. Fifteen
B. Thirty
C. Sixty
D. Ninety
X: As per section 9 subsection 3, “the Commission may exercise the powers conferred on it by sub-
section (1) before the expiration of sixty days after such publication.” Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: Any person aggrieved by a declaration of the Commission under the section relating to the
declaration of a poll as void, may, within ___ days of the declaration, prefer an appeal to the ___
Court.
A. Fifteen, High
B. Fifteen, Supreme
C. Thirty, High
D. Thirty, Supreme
X: Section 9 subsection 5 states that such a person “within thirty days of the declaration, prefer an
appeal to the Supreme Court.” Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: The section “Power to punish for contempt”, states that the Commission may exercise the same
power as the ___ Court to punish any person for contempt of court.
A. District
B. High
C. Supreme
D. Federal Shariat
X: Section 10 states that the Commission “may exercise the same power as the High Court to
punish any person for contempt of court.” Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: Under the Act, the remuneration payable to the Commissioner, members and other officers and staff
of the Commission and all administrative expenses and other expenditure relating to the
Commission shall be expenditure charged upon the ___.
A. Electoral Consolidated Fund
B. National Consolidated Fund
C. Federal Consolidated Fund
D. None of the above
X: Section 11 subsection 1 states that all such expenditures shall be “expenditure charged upon the
Federal Consolidated Fund, within the meaning of Article 81.” Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: With regards to the section titled “Measures for training and public awareness”, which of the
following is NOT one of themes that the Commission shall conduct public awareness programmes
and media campaigns about?
A. Importance of maximum voter enrolment and participation in elections
B. Dissemination of information regarding procedure of casting vote
C. Guidance regarding ideal candidate selection criteria
D. Importance of maintaining the integrity of the electoral process
X: As per section 12 (c), the Commission may conduct such programmes “regarding the importance
of maximum voter enrolment and participation in elections, especially by women, dissemination of
information regarding procedure of casting vote, and the importance of maintaining the integrity of
the electoral process.” Hence, option ‘C’ is the correct choice.

Q: The functions of the ‘transparent results management system’ does NOT include,
A. Expeditious counting of results
B. Tabulation, compilation of results
C. Transmission, dissemination, publication of results
D. All of these are included
X: As per section 13 subsection 1, “The Commission shall establish a transparent results
management system for expeditious counting, tabulation, compilation, transmission, dissemination
and publication of results in the official Gazette and on the website of the Commission.” Hence,
option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: Under the Act, the ____ shall immediately take snapshot of the Result of the Count and, as soon as
connectivity is available and it is practicable, electronically send it to the Commission.
A. Returning Officer
B. Presiding Officer
C. District Returning Officer
D. Assistant Presiding Officer
X: As per section 13 subsection 2, “The Presiding Officer shall immediately take snapshot of the
Result of the Count and, as soon as connectivity is available and it is practicable, electronically send
it to the Commission ...”. Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: Under the Act, the Returning Officer shall compile the provisional results forthwith and, on or before
____ the day immediately following the polling day.
A. 12:00 am
B. 01:00 am
C. 02:00 am
D. 03:00 am
X: As per section 13 subsection 3, “The Returning Officer shall compile the provisional results
forthwith and, on or before 2.00 a.m. the day immediately following the polling day.” Hence, option
‘C’ is correct.

Q: Which of the following shall the Returning Officer electronically send to the Commission?
A. Scanned copy of the provisional results
B. Scanned copy of the Integrated Statement of the Results of the Count
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D. Neither ‘A’ and ‘B’
X: Section 13 subsection 4 (a) and (b) states that the Returning Officer shall send “(a) scanned copy
of the provisional results compiled under sub-section (3); and (b) scanned copies of the
Consolidated Statement of the Results of the Count …”. Option ‘B’ incorrectly states ‘Integrated
Statement’ instead of the Consolidated Statement of Results of the Count. Therefore, option ‘A’ is
correct.

Q: Regarding the documents that the Returning Officer shall send to the Commission, he/she shall send,
A. Scanned copies of all documents
B. Original copies of all documents
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D. Send scanned copies only if original copies cannot be sent due to some reason
X: Section 13 subsection 4 (a),(b) state that the Returning Officer shall electronically send scanned
copies of the documents, and then subsection 5 states that the Officer shall also send original
copies through swift means. Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: The Commission shall prepare the ‘Action Plan’ at least ___ before the general election is due to be
held.
A. One year
B. Six Months
C. Five Months
D. Four Months
X: Section 14 subsection 1 states that “The Commission shall, at least four months before the
general election is due to be held on expiry of the term of an Assembly.” Hence, option ‘D’ is
correct.

Q: Which of the following is NOT included in the ‘Action Plan’?


A. Allocation of symbols
B. Arrangements for election observers
C. Introduction of any new technology
D. All of the above are included
X: As per section 13 subsection 4 clauses (d), (i), and (j), all three are included in the Action Plan.
Hence, option ‘D’ is the answer.

Q: Under the Act, the Commission shall, within ___ days after the end of every calendar year, publish a
report of its activities for the year and send the report to the Federal Government and each
Provincial Government.
A. Thirty
B. Sixty
C. Ninety
D. One hundred and twenty
X: Section 16 subsection 1 states that the report is to be published within ninety days. Hence,
option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: The seats reserved for women and non-Muslims in the National Assembly and in each Provincial
Assembly are as per Articles ___ and ___, respectively.
A. 51, 106
B. 50, 105
C. 53, 106
D. 51, 105
X: Section 18 subsections 1 and 2 state that the reserved seats for women and non-Muslims in the
National and Provincial assemblies are as per Articles 51 and 106, respectively. Hence, option ‘A’ is
correct.

Q: Under the Act, a Province shall be a single constituency for all seats reserved for ___ which are
allocated to each Province in Article 51.
A. Persons with disabilities
B. Women
C. Non-Muslims
D. None of the above
X: Section 19 subsection 2 states that “A Province shall be a single constituency for all seats
reserved for women which are allocated to each Province in Article 51.” Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: With regards to the delimitation of constituencies, as far as possible, variation in population of


constituencies of an Assembly or a local government shall not ordinarily exceed __ percent.
A. Five
B. Ten
C. Fifteen
D. Twenty
X: Section 20 subsection 3 states that “As far as possible, variation in population of constituencies
of an Assembly or a local government shall not ordinarily exceed ten percent.” Hence, option ‘B’ is
correct.

Q: Any amendments, alterations or modifications in the preliminary list of constituencies made by the
Commission (as per received representations) shall, within a period of ___ days from the last date
fixed for making representation, publish in the official Gazette and on its website, the final report
and list of constituencies showing the areas included in each constituency.
A. Fifteen
B. Twenty
C. Thirty
D. Sixty
X: As per section 21 subsection 4, “The Commission shall, after hearing and considering the
representations, if any, received by it, make such amendments, alterations or modifications in the
preliminary list of constituencies published under sub-section (1) as it thinks fit or necessary, and
shall, within a period of thirty days …”. Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.
Q: The preparation, revision, correction and amendment of the electoral rolls for an electoral area or
group of electoral areas is a responsibility of the ___.
A. Presiding Officer
B. Assistant Presiding Officer
C. Registration Officer
D. Assistant Registration Officer
X: As per section 24 subsection 1, “The Commission shall appoint a Registration Officer for an
electoral area or group of electoral areas for the purpose of preparation, revision, correction and
amendment of the electoral rolls.” Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: Under the Act, a person shall be entitled to be enrolled as a voter in an electoral area if he,
A. Is not declared by a competent court to be of unsound mind
B. Does not possess dual nationality
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’
X: As per section 26 subsection 2 (a) to (e), only option ‘A’ is listed in the list of attributes in order to
be enrolled as a voter. Hence, option ‘A’ is correct.

Q: The preliminary electoral rolls prepared under section 26 shall be published and displayed by the
Registration Officer for a period of not less than ___ days.
A. Twenty
B. Thirty
C. Sixty
D. Ninety
X: According to section 28 “The preliminary electoral rolls prepared under section 26, together with
a notice inviting claims, objections and applications for corrections, if any, with respect thereto,
shall be published and displayed by the Registration Officer for a period of not less than thirty
days.” Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: Which of the following is the title of the official appointed for receiving and deciding claims,
objections and applications for correction of the preliminary electoral rolls for any electoral area or
group of electoral areas.
A. Receiving Authority
B. Rectifying Authority
C. Revising Authority
D. Referral Authority
X: As per section 29, “The Commission shall appoint a Revising Authority for any electoral area or
group of electoral areas, for the purpose of receiving and deciding claims, objections and
applications ...” Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.
Q: The responsibility of the correction of electoral rolls falls on the ___.
A. Revising Authority
B. Presiding Officer
C. Assistant Presiding Officer
D. Registration Officer
X: As per section 34 (a) and (b), the said responsibility is of the Registration Officer in accordance
with the decision of the Revising Authority. Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: The publication of the final electoral roll for each electoral area is the responsibility of the ___.
A. Registration Officer
B. Presiding Officer
C. Revising Authority
D. Assistant Registration Officer
X: As per section 35, “After making additions, deletions, modifications or corrections, if any, under
section 34, the Registration Officer shall publish, in the prescribed manner and form, the final
electoral roll for each electoral area.” Hence, option ‘A’ is correct.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a reason for the periodic revision of the electoral roll by the
Registration Officer?
A. So as to include the name of any qualified person whose name does not appear in such roll
B. So as to delete the name of any person who has died or who is or has become disqualified for
enrolment; or
C. For correcting any entry or for supplying any omission in such roll
D. All of these are valid reasons
X: As per section 35 clauses (a), (b), and (c), all three of the reasons stated in options ‘A’ to ‘C’ are
valid reasons for the revision. Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: Under what condition(s) shall the roll for an electoral area or part of electoral area shall stand
cancelled and that a fresh electoral roll be prepared?
A. Due to any gross error or irregularity in or in the preparation of an electoral roll
B. Changes in the limits of that electoral area
C. Large scale displacement of population due to a natural calamity
D. All of the above
X: As per section 38, all of the above mentioned reasons from options ‘A’ to ‘C’ are valid reasons for
a preparation of a fresh electoral roll. Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.
Q: No revision, correction or transfer be made with respect to an electoral roll during the period
beginning ___ before the day on which the term of an Assembly or a local government is due to
expire.
A. Fifteen days
B. Thirty days
C. Forty five days
D. Sixty days
X: As per section 39 subsection 1, “No revision of or correction in an electoral roll of an electoral
area or inclusion or transfer … shall be made nor shall any order under section 38 be made in
respect of any electoral roll during the period beginning thirty days before the day on which the
term of an Assembly or a local government is due to expire …”. Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: The Commission shall inform the general public about the cutoff date for revisions, corrections, or
transfers regarding electoral rolls through which means from the following?
A. Website
B. Press Release
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’
X: As per section 39 subsection 3, “The Commission shall, through press release and its website,
inform the general public about the cut-off date for revision of or correction …”. Hence, option ‘C’ is
correct.

Q: The maintenance of the electoral rolls, as revised and corrected, is the responsibility of the __.
A. Registration Officer
B. Revising Authority
C. Assistant Registration Officer
D. Presiding Officer
X: As per section 41 subsection 1, “An electoral roll as revised and corrected shall be maintained by
the Registration Officer in the prescribed manner …”. Hence, option ‘A’ is correct.

Q: Revised and corrected electoral rolls are open to inspection for whom?
A. The Chief Election Commissioner only
B. The Registration Officer and Revising Authority only
C. The general public
D. All members of the Commission
X: Section 41 subsection 1 states that “An electoral roll as revised and corrected shall be
maintained by the Registration Officer in the prescribed manner and shall be kept open to public
inspection; and any person, on payment of prescribed fee, may obtain copies of the electoral roll.”
Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.
Q: When do electoral rolls for any electoral area come into force?
A. Immediately upon publication
B. 24 hours after publication
C. 48 hours after publication
D. Neither of the above
X: Section 42 states that “The electoral roll for any electoral area prepared under this Act shall
come into force immediately upon its final publication and shall remain in force until revised.”
Hence, option ‘A’ is correct.

Q: The authority in charge of any register of births and deaths shall submit relevant information
regarding deceased persons from that register on prescribed form to the Registration Officer
concerned on ___ basis.
A. Monthly
B. Bimonthly
C. Biannually
D. Quarterly
X: Section 43 states that “the person in charge of any register of births and deaths in a local
government or other authority shall submit relevant information regarding deceased persons from
that register on prescribed form to the Registration Officer concerned on quarterly basis.” Hence,
option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: A person shall not be enrolled –


A. On the electoral roll for any electoral area more than twice
B. On the electoral rolls for more than two electoral areas
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’
X: Section 45 clauses (a) and (b) state that a person shall not be enrolled on an electoral roll for any
electoral area more than once, and on the electoral rolls for more than one electoral area. Which
means neither of the options from ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct. Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: Where the variation in the disaggregated data highlighting the difference in number of registered
men and women voters is more than __ percent in a constituency, the Commission shall take
special measures to reduce such variation.
A. Five
B. Seven
C. Ten
D. Fifteen
X: Section 47 subsection 2 states that when the variation in the disaggregated data is more than ten
percent, the Commission shall take steps to reduce such variation. Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.
Q: Which of the following are included in the measures that shall be taken to reduce variation in
disaggregated data highlighting the difference in number of registered men and women voters?
A. Action to expedite the issuance of National Identity Cards for women of such constituency
by NADRA
B. Action to encourage women, especially from the lower socioeconomic strata to register as
voters
C. Both ‘A’ an ‘B’
D. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’
X: Section 47 subsection 3 states that “The measures referred to in sub-section (2) shall include
action to expedite the issuance of National Identity Cards for women of such constituency by
National Database and Registration Authority and for their enrolment as voters in the relevant
electoral rolls by the Commission.” Hence, option ‘A’ is the only one listed as a measure and is the
correct answer.

Q: Which of the following groups are NOT included in the sections of society for which special measures
shall be taken by the Commission to register them in the electoral rolls as voters?
A. Persons with disabilities
B. Non-Muslims
C. Transgender citizens
D. All of these are included
X: Section 48 subsection 1 states that “The Commission shall take special measures for registration
of non-Muslims, persons with disabilities and transgender citizens in the electoral rolls as voters.”
Hence, option ‘D’ is the correct choice.

Q: As stated in the Act, which of the following groups is NOT an option for the appointment of a District
Returning Officer?
A. From amongst its own officers subject to availability
B. By selection from a list of officers provided only by the Government
C. From the subordinate judiciary in consultation with the Chief Justice of the concerned High
Court
D. All of these are possible options for the said purpose
X: Section 50 subsection 1 clause (c) states “by selection from a list of officers provided by the
Government or a Provincial Government.” Hence, option ‘B’, which mentions only the Government
and does not mention a Provincial Government, is not included in the options. It is hence the
correct answer.

Q: How many constituencies shall a Returning Officer be appointed to?


A. One
B. Two
C. One, but may be appointed for more in exceptional circumstances.
D. Two, but may be appointed for more in exceptional circumstances.
X: Section 51 subsection 2 states that “person shall not be appointed as Returning Officer for more
than one constituency, save in exceptional circumstances, for reasons to be recorded.” Hence,
option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: The Returning Officer has to submit a list of Presiding Officers to the District Returning Officer at least
___ days before the polling day.
A. Twenty
B. Thirty
C. Sixty
D. None of the above
X: Section 53 subsection 3 states that “The Returning Officer shall, at least thirty days before the
polling day, submit to the District Returning Officer for approval a list of such Presiding Officers.”
Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: Which of the following is responsible for conducting the polls and maintaining order at the polling
station?
A. Returning Officer
B. Polling Officer
C. Presiding Officer
D. Assistant Presiding Officer
X: Section 54 subsection 3 states that “A Presiding Officer shall conduct the poll in accordance with
the provisions of this Act and the Rules and shall be responsible for maintaining order at the polling
station and shall report to the Returning Officer any fact or incident which may affect the conduct
or fairness of the poll.” Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: Any election official appointed by the Commission shall remain under the control, superintendence
and discipline of the Commission for what time period?
A. From the date of appointment or deputation till publication of the name of the returned
candidate in the official Gazette.
B. From the date of appointment or deputation till at least a week after the closing of the polls.
C. From the date of appointment or deputation till at least one month after the publication of the
name of the returned candidate in the official Gazette.
D. None of the above.
X: Section 55 subsection 1 states that “An election official appointed or deputed to perform duties
in connection with an election shall be deemed to be under the control, superintendence and
discipline of the Commission for the period commencing on and from the date of appointment or
deputation till publication of the name of the returned candidate in the official Gazette.” Hence,
option ‘A’ is correct.
Q: Which of the following is NOT a listed reason included in the reasons for which an election official
may be suspended?
A. Influences or attempts to influence in any manner the polling staff or a voter
B. Interferes or attempts to interfere with a voter when he casts his vote
C. Obstructs, or prevents, or attempts to obstruct or prevent, the conduct of a fair and impartial
poll
D. All of these are listed reasons
X: Section 55 subsection 3 clauses (a) to (c) clarify that all of the reasons stated from options ‘A’ to
‘C’ are listed as reasons for the same. Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: Enquiry Officers must complete their enquiry proceedings regarding election officials charged with
malpractice within ___ days of reference to him, and submit the enquiry report to the Commission
within ___ days of the completion of the enquiry.
A. Thirty, Seven
B. Thirty, Ten
C. Fourteen, Seven
D. Fourteen, Ten
X: Section 55 subsection 5 states that “The Enquiry Officer or Authorized Officer shall complete
enquiry proceedings under the Efficiency and Discipline Rules as applicable to the election official
concerned or under this Act within thirty days of the reference to him and shall submit the enquiry
report to the Commission within seven days of the completion of the enquiry.” Hence, option ‘A’ is
correct.

Q: The ___ has the responsibility to announce the date or dates of the general elections.
A. The Commissioner
B. The President
C. The Prime Minister
D. The President, if the Prime Minister is not available for the same
X: Section 57 subsection 1 states that “The President shall announce the date or dates of the
general elections after consultation with the Commission.” Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: The last date for filing of appeals against acceptance or rejection of nominations is the ___ day
following the last date for the scrutiny of nominations or, if that day is a public holiday, the next
succeeding day which is not a public holiday.
A. Eighth
B. Tenth
C. Fifth
D. Fourth
X: Section 57 subsection 2 clause (d) states that “the last date for filing of appeals against
acceptance or rejection of nominations, which shall be the fourth day following the last date for the
scrutiny of nominations or, if that day is a public holiday, the next succeeding day which is not a
public holiday.” Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: Within one week after appointment of ___ Officers, the Commission shall provide, in the prescribed
format, a list of proposed polling stations for each constituency to the said officer of that
constituency.
A. Returning Officer
B. Polling Officer
C. Presiding Officer
D. Assistant Presiding Officer
X: Section 59 subsection 1 states that “Within one week after appointment of Returning Officers,
the Commission shall provide, in the prescribed format, a list of proposed polling stations for each
constituency to the Returning Officer of that constituency indicating the electoral areas assigned to
each polling station and publish the list on its website.” Hence, option ‘A’ is correct.

Q: As far as practicable, not more than ___ voters shall be assigned to a polling station and not more
than ___ voters shall be assigned to a polling booth.
A. Six hundred, three hundred
B. Twelve hundred, six hundred
C. One thousand, five hundred
D. Twelve hundred, three hundred
X: Section 59 subsection 3 states that “As far as practicable, not more than twelve hundred voters
shall be assigned to a polling station and not more than three hundred voters shall be assigned to a
polling booth, and reasons for any deviation shall be recorded in writing.” Hence, option ‘D’ is
correct.

Q: The preliminary list of polling stations, inviting objections and suggestions, if any, to be filed within
twenty-one days of its publication, shall be published outside the office of which official(s)?
A. Presiding Officer
B. Returning Officer
C. Assistant Presiding Officers
D. District Returning Officer
X: Section 59 subsection 4 (c) states that “Within fifteen days of the receipt of the list of polling
stations, the Returning Officer shall publish outside his office the preliminary list of polling stations,
inviting objections and suggestions, if any, to be filed within twenty-one days of its publication.”
Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.
Q: Which of the following may NOT be a premise for the location of a polling station?
A. Any Government building
B. Any private educational institute
C. Any premise which belongs to a candidate
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
X: Section 59 subsection 10 states that “A polling station shall be situated in any Government
building in the constituency and, where no Government building is available, a polling station may
be established in a building owned by a private educational institution registered with the
concerned education authorities.” And subsection 11 states that “A polling station shall not be
located in any premises which belongs to or is under the direct or indirect control of a candidate.”
Hence, only option ‘C’ is a premise which may not be used, and is the correct answer.

Q: A surveillance camera may be installed at a polling station on the declaration of the ___ about a
polling station being highly sensitive.
A. Returning Officer
B. Presiding Officer
C. District Returning Officer
D. The Commissioner
X: Section 59 subsection 12 states that “While finalizing the list of polling stations of a constituency,
if the District Returning Officer declares a polling station as highly sensitive, the Commission may, in
addition to appropriate security measures as may be taken, install or direct any Government to
install a surveillance camera in each polling booth of such polling station to record poll proceedings,
counting of vote process and preparation of results by the Presiding Officer.” Hence, option ‘A’ is
correct.

Q: Every candidate for Member must make a declaration that he fulfils the qualifications specified in
Article __ and is not subject to any of the disqualifications specified in Article __ for being elected as
a Member.
A. 63, 62
B. 62, 63
C. 62, 64
D. 63, 64
X: Section 60 subsection 2 clause (a) states that a candidate must make “a declaration that he has
consented to the nomination and that he fulfils the qualifications specified in Article 62 and is not
subject to any of the disqualifications specified in Article 63 for being elected as a Member.” Hence,
option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: Every candidate for Member must present a statement of his assets and liabilities and of his spouse
and dependent children as on the preceding ___ day of June on Form B.
A. 1st
B. 15th
C. 20th
D. 30th
X: Section 60 subsection 2 clause (d) states that a candidate must present “a statement of his assets
and liabilities and of his spouse and dependent children as on the preceding thirtieth day of June on
Form B.” Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: Authorization in favor of an advocate shall be attested by which of the following?


A. A Notary appointed under the Notaries Ordinance 1961 (XIX of 1961)
B. An Oath Commissioner appointed under the Oaths Act, 1873 (X of 1873)
C. Any Government servant in basic pay scale 17 and above
D. All of the above
X: The ‘Explanation’ for section 60 subsection 3 states that “Authorization in favor of an advocate
shall be attested by a Notary appointed under the Notaries Ordinance 1961 (XIX of 1961) or an
Oath Commissioner appointed under the Oaths Act, 1873 (X of 1873) or any Government servant in
basic pay scale 17 and above.” Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: With regards to nomination, the Returning Officer shall NOT do which of the following?
A. Make the nomination papers along with annexures open to inspection by election officials only
B. Issue unofficial copies of these documents in such manner and on payment of such fee as may
be prescribed
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D. Neither ‘A’ and ‘B’
X: Section 60 subsection 7 clauses (a) and (b) state that the Returning Officer shall “(a) make the
nomination papers along with annexures open to inspection by the public; and (b) issue certified
copies of these documents in such manner and on payment of such fee as may be prescribed.”
Hence, neither of options ‘A’ and ‘B’ is correct, making option ‘D’ the correct answer.

Q: The Returning Officer shall not accept a nomination paper for election to a seat in the National
Assembly unless a sum of ___ thousand rupees is deposited by the candidate or by any person on
his behalf.
A. Twenty
B. Twenty five
C. Thirty
D. Thirty five
X: Section 61 subsection 1 states that “the Returning Officer shall not accept a nomination paper
unless a sum of thirty thousand rupees for election to a seat in the National Assembly … is
deposited by the candidate or by any person on his behalf.” Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.
Q: The Returning Officer shall not accept a nomination paper for election to a seat in the Provincial
Assembly unless a sum of ___ thousand rupees is deposited by the candidate or by any person on
his behalf.
A. Twenty
B. Twenty five
C. Thirty
D. Thirty five
X: Section 61 subsection 1 states that “the Returning Officer shall not accept a nomination paper
unless … a sum of twenty thousand rupees for election to a seat in the Provincial Assembly is
deposited by the candidate or by any person on his behalf.” Hence, option ‘A’ is correct.

Q: The deposit amount that a candidate is to submit to the Returning Officer may be submitted via
which of the following means?
A. In cash with the Returning Officer; or
B. Through bank draft drawn in favor of the Returning Officer; or
C. In cash in a specified account with any branch of the National Bank of Pakistan, receipt of
which should be produced before the Returning Officer
D. All of the above
X: According to section 61 subsection 1 clauses (a) to (c), the amount may be deposited “(a) in cash
with the Returning Officer; or (b) through bank draft drawn in favor of the Returning Officer; or (c)
in cash in a specified account with any branch of the National Bank of Pakistan, receipt of which
should be produced before the Returning Officer.” Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: The Appellate Tribunal to which a candidate may file an appeal against the decision of the Returning
Officer rejecting or accepting a nomination paper shall consist of a person who is a Judge of ___.
A. A District Court
B. A High Court
C. The Supreme Court
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
X: Section 63 subsection 1 states that “A candidate or the objector may, within the time specified
by the Commission, file an appeal against the decision of the Returning Officer rejecting or
accepting a nomination paper to an Appellate Tribunal constituted for the constituency consisting
of a person who is a Judge of a High Court appointed by the Commission in consultation with the
Chief Justice of the High Court concerned.” Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: A contesting candidate may retire from the election by notice in writing signed by him and delivered
to the Returning Officer on any day not later than ___ days before the polling day by the candidate
himself or by an advocate authorized in writing by the candidate.
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
X: Section 72 subsection 1 states that “A contesting candidate may retire from the election by
notice in writing signed by him and delivered to the Returning Officer on any day not later than four
days before the polling day by the candidate himself or by an advocate authorized in writing by the
candidate.” Hence, option ‘A’ is correct.

Q: Which of the following is NOT required to be carried out before issuing a ballot paper to a voter?
A. The number and name of the voter as entered in the electoral roll shall be called out
B. The entry relating to the voter on the electoral roll shall be struck off to indicate that a ballot
paper has been issued to him
C. He shall be required to receive a personal mark, made with indelible ink, on any finger or
thumb of the right hand as indicated by the Commission
D. All of these are required to be carried out
X: Section 84 subsection 4 clause (c) states that “he shall be required to receive a personal mark,
made with indelible ink, on any finger or thumb of either hand as indicated by the Commission.”
Hence, option ‘C’ is the answer since it mentions ‘right hand’ instead of ‘either hand’ as stated in
clause (c).

Q: Where a poll is stopped, the Returning Officer shall immediately report the circumstances to __.
A. The District Returning Officer
B. The Commissioner
C. The Commission
D. None of the above
X: Section 88 subsection 2 states that “Where a poll has been stopped under sub-section (1), the
Returning Officer shall immediately report the circumstances to the Commission and the
Commission shall direct a fresh poll at that polling station unless it is satisfied that the result of the
election has been determined by the polling that has already taken place at that polling station,
along with the result of the polling at other polling stations in the same constituency.” Hence,
option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: The Presiding Officer shall not allow any person to be present at the count other than which of the
following?
A. Election officials on duty in connection with the poll
B. The contesting candidates
C. Election agents of the contesting agents
D. All of the above
X: Section 90 subsection 3 states that “The Presiding Officer shall not allow any person to be
present at the count other than election officials on duty in connection with the poll, the contesting
candidates, their election agents and polling agents or any other person authorized by the
Commission.” Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a point listed in the list of items to be included in the Ballot Paper
Account?
A. The number of Challenged Ballot Papers
B. The number of issued and un-issued ballot papers
C. the number of Spoilt Ballot Papers
D. All of the above are included
X: Section 90 subsection 11 clauses (a) to (f) state that “the number of un-issued ballot papers” are
to be included in the Account, not the number of issued ballot papers as is mentioned in option ‘B’.
Hence, option ‘B’ is the answer.

Q: Which of the following may cast their votes by postal ballot?


A. A person appointed by the Returning Officer, including police personnel, for the performance
of any duty in connection with an election at polling station other than the one at which he is
entitled to cast his vote
B. A person detained in a prison or held in custody
C. A person quarantined in the event of a health and safety issue
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
X: Section 93 subsection 1 clauses (a) to (d) mention the persons who may be allowed to vote via
postal ballot, however, there is no mention of a situation such as that presented in option ‘C’.
Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: An “Overseas Pakistani” refers to someone who is working or residing abroad permanently or


temporarily for not less than ___.
A. Two years
B. One and half years
C. One year
D. Six months
X: Section 94 subsection 2 states that “In this section, ‘Overseas Pakistani’ means a citizen of
Pakistan under the Pakistan Citizenship Act, 1951 (II of 1951) or holder of National Identity Card for
Overseas Pakistanis under the National Database and Registration Authority ordinance, 2000 (VIII
of 2000) who is working or residing abroad permanently or temporarily for not less than six
months.” Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: Where, after consolidation of the Results of the Count, there is equality of votes between two
contesting candidates, the Returning Officer shall declare both the candidates as returned and each
one of them shall be entitled to represent his constituency in the respective Assembly for half of its
term of office. What determines which candidate shall serve for the first half?
A. The educational qualification of the candidates
B. The number of years of prior political experience, if any
C. Drawing of a lot
D. None of the above
X: Section 97 subsection 2 states that “The Returning Officer shall draw a lot in respect of the
returned candidates referred to in sub-section (1) to determine as to who shall serve as Member of
the Assembly for the first half of its term of office ...”. Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: On receipt of the Final Consolidated Result from the Returning Officer, the Commission shall, within
__ days from the date of the poll, publish in the official Gazette the name of the contesting
candidate who has received the highest number of votes and stands elected.
A. Seven
B. Ten
C. Fourteen
D. Fifteen

X: As per section 98 subsection 1 states that “On receipt of the final consolidated result from
the returning officer, the commission shall, within fourteen days from the date of the poll,
publish in the official gazette the name of the contesting candidate who has received the
highest number of votes and stands elected.” Hence, option C is correct.

Q: ____ means a specially designed bag approved by the Commission, having one or more indicators
which, if breached, can reasonably be expected to provide visible evidence that tampering has
occurred.
A. Tamper-indicative bag
B. Tamper-proof bag
C. Temper-evident bag
D. Tamper-evident bag
X: The ‘Explanation’ in section 99 subsection 1 states that ““Tamper-evident bag” means a specially
designed bag approved by the Commission, having one or more indicators which, if breached, can
reasonably be expected to provide visible evidence that tampering has occurred.” Option ‘C’
incorrectly spells the bag as temper-evident instead of tamper-evident. Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: Under the Act, the Commission may conduct pilot projects for utilization of electronic voting
machines and biometric verification system in bye-elections to assess which of the following about
these machines?
A. Technical efficacy
B. Financial feasibility
C. Security
D. All of the above
X: Section 103 states that “The Commission may conduct pilot projects for utilization of electronic
voting machines and biometric verification system in bye-elections in addition to the existing
manual procedures for voter verification, casting and counting of votes to assess the technical
efficacy, secrecy, security and financial feasibility of the electronic voting machines and biometric
verification system.” Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: A candidate contesting election on a seat reserved for women or non-Muslims shall, along with the
nomination papers and its annexures, submit to the Returning Officer which of the following
documents?
A. A copy of the party list of the candidate’s political party for such seats
B. A copy of the candidates educational documents
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’
X: Section 104 subsection 7 states that “A candidate contesting election on a seat reserved for
women or non-Muslims shall, along with the nomination papers and its annexures, submit to the
Returning Officer appointed by the Commission in this behalf, (a) a copy of the party list of the
candidate’s political party for such seats; (b) declarations and statements in support of the
nomination; and (c) proof of deposit of the fee required for filing nomination papers.” Hence, only
option ‘A’ lists an actual document to be submitted under the Act, and is the correct answer.

Q: With regards to conducting of election to the Senate, the ___ shall effectively conduct an election
under this Act and the Rules.
A. District Returning Officer
B. Returning Officer
C. Presiding Officer
D. Assistant Presiding Officer
X: Section 106 subsection 1 states that “A Returning Officer shall effectively conduct an election
under this Act and the Rules.” Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: Candidates for elections to the Senate must submit a sum of twenty thousand rupees either in cash
to the Returning Officer or submit it ___.
A. At any branch of the National Bank of Pakistan
B. At a Government Treasury
C. A sub-Treasury
D. Any of the above
X: Section 111 subsection 1 states that “the Returning Officer shall not accept a nomination paper
unless (a) a sum of twenty thousand rupees is deposited in cash by the candidate or by any person
on his behalf at the time of its delivery; or (b) it is accompanied by a receipt showing that a sum as
aforesaid has been deposited by the candidate or by any person on his behalf at any branch of the
National Bank of Pakistan or at a Government Treasury or sub-Treasury.” Hence, option ‘D’ is
correct.
Q: With regards to election to the Senate, for the purpose of the disposal of an appeal, the Commission
shall have the same powers as are vested in a court under the.
A. Code of Civil Procedure, 1905 (Act V of 1905)
B. Code of Civil Procedure, 1906 (Act V of 1906)
C. Code of Civil Procedure, 1907 (Act V of 1907)
D. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (Act V of 1908)
X: According to section 126 “For the purpose of the disposal of an appeal, the Commission shall
have the same powers as are vested in a court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (Act V of
1908).” Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: The term of office of a Member of the Senate shall commence ___ after the names of the persons
elected to the Senate are notified by the Commission.
A. On the date of the first meeting of the Senate held
B. One day before the first meeting of the Senate held
C. One day after the first meeting of the Senate held
D. None of the above
X: As per section 129 subsection 1, “The term of office of a Member of the Senate shall commence
on the date of the first meeting of the Senate held after the names of the persons elected to the
Senate are notified by the Commission.” Hence, option ‘A’ is correct.

Q: For election to the Senate, the election expenses of a contesting candidate shall not exceed ___
rupees.
A. One million
B. One million and five hundred thousand
C. Two million
D. Two million and five hundred thousand
X: Section 132 subsection 3 clause (a) states that the election expenses of a contesting candidate
shall not exceed “one million and five hundred thousand rupees for election to a seat in the
Senate.” Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: For election to the National Assembly, the election expenses of a contesting candidate shall not
exceed ___ rupees.
A. One million
B. Two million
C. Three million
D. Four million
X: Section 132 subsection 3 clause (b) states that the election expenses of a contesting candidate
shall not exceed “four million rupees for election to a seat in the National Assembly.” Hence, option
‘D’ is correct.
Q: Every Member of an Assembly and Senate shall submit to the Commission, on or before ___ each
year, a copy of his statement of assets and liabilities including assets and liabilities of his spouse and
dependent children as on the preceding thirtieth day of June on Form B.
A. 1st of July
B. 1st of January
C. 31st of December
D. 30th of December
X: Section 137 subsection 1 states that “Every Member of an Assembly and Senate shall submit to
the Commission, on or before 31st December each year, a copy of his statement of assets and
liabilities including assets and liabilities of his spouse and dependent children as on the preceding
thirtieth day of June on Form B.” Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: For settling a dispute related to election to an Assembly or the Senate, the Election Tribunal shall
comprise of which of the following?
A. A person who is or has been a judge of a District Court
B. A person who is or has been an Additional District Judge
C. A person who is or has been a judge of a High Court
D. A person who is or has been a judge of the Supreme Court
X: Section 140 subsection 2 clause (a) states that the Election Tribunal shall comprise “in the case of
an election to an Assembly or the Senate, a person who is or has been a Judge of a High Court.”
Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: An election petition regarding an election dispute shall be presented to the Election Tribunal within
___ days of the publication in the official Gazette of the name of the returned candidate.
A. Thirty
B. Thirty five
C. Forty
D. Forty five
X: Section 142 subsection 1 states that “An election petition shall be presented to the Election
Tribunal within forty-five days of the publication in the official Gazette of the name of the returned
candidate and shall be accompanied … such amount as may be prescribed.” Hence, option ‘D’ is
correct.

Q: If an election petition is not finally decided within one hundred and twenty days, further
adjournment sought by a party shall be granted only on payment of special costs of ___ rupees per
adjournment.
A. Ten thousand
B. Twenty thousand
C. Thirty thousand
D. Thirty five thousand
X: Section 148 subsection 6 clause (a) states that “If an election petition is not finally decided within
one hundred and twenty days— (a) further adjournment sought by a party shall be granted only on
payment of special costs of ten thousand rupees per adjournment and adjournment shall not be
granted for more than three days.” Hence, option ‘A’ is correct.

Q: ___ shall, if an Election Tribunal requires, assist the Tribunal at the hearing of an election petition in
such manner as it may require.
A. A High Court Judge
B. A Supreme Court Judge
C. The Advocate General for a province
D. The Attorney General for Pakistan
X: Section 152 states that “The Advocate-General for a Province shall, if an Election Tribunal
requires, assist the Tribunal at the hearing of an election petition in such manner as it may require.”
Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: An appeal against the decision of an Election Tribunal in respect of an election petition challenging
election to an Assembly or Senate has to be filed to ___.
A. A District Court
B. The High Court
C. Either ‘A’ or ‘B’
D. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’
X: Section 155 subsection 1 states that “Any person aggrieved by the final decision of the Election
Tribunal in respect of an election petition challenging election to an Assembly or Senate may,
within thirty days of the date of the decision, appeal to the Supreme Court.” Hence, option ‘D’ is
correct since neither of the options from ‘A’ to ‘B’ lists the Supreme Court.

Q: The Election Tribunal shall declare the election as a whole to be void if it is satisfied that the result of
the election has been materially affected by reason of—
A. The failure to comply with the provisions of this Act or the Rules in connivance with the
returned candidate
B. The prevalence of extensive corrupt or illegal practices at the election
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D. Either ‘A’ or ‘B’
X: Section 158 states that “The Election Tribunal shall declare the election as a whole to be void if it
is satisfied that the result of the election has been materially affected by reason of—(a) the failure
to comply with the provisions of this Act or the Rules in connivance with the returned candidate; or
(b) the prevalence of extensive corrupt or illegal practices at the election. Hence, option ‘D’ is
correct.
Q: A person is guilty of the offence of corrupt practice if he,
A. Causes or attempts to cause any person present and waiting to vote at the polling station to
depart without voting
B. Calls upon or persuades any person to vote, or to refrain from voting, for any candidate on the
ground that he belongs to a particular religion, province, community, race, caste, bradari, sect
or tribe
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ qualify as valid offences of corruption
D. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’ qualify as valid offences of corruption
X: Section 167 clauses (b) and (c) state that a person is guilty of the offence of corruption if he “(b)
calls upon or persuades any person to vote, or to refrain from voting, for any candidate on the
ground that he belongs to a particular religion, province, community, race, caste, bradari, sect or
tribe; (c) causes or attempts to cause any person present and waiting to vote at the polling station
to depart without voting.” Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: A person is guilty of ___, if he votes or applies for a ballot paper for voting, as some other person
whether that other person is living or dead or fictitious.
A. Impersonation
B. Personation
C. Identity Theft
D. Neither of the above
X: Section 169 states that “A person is guilty of personation, if he votes or applies for a ballot paper
for voting, as some other person whether that other person is living or dead or fictitious.” Hence,
option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: If a person takes possession of a polling station or a polling booth or a place fixed for the poll and
allows his supporters to exercise their right to vote while preventing others from free exercise of
their right to vote, he is guilty of what offence?
A. Capturing a polling station or booth
B. Possessing a polling station or booth
C. Hampering a polling station or booth
D. Interfering at a polling station or booth
X: Section 171 clause (b) states that “a person is guilty of capturing a polling station or polling booth
if he … (b) takes possession of a polling station or a polling booth or a place fixed for the poll and
allows his supporters to exercise their right to vote while preventing others from free exercise of
their right to vote.” Hence, option ‘A’ is correct.

Q: A person is guilty of the offence of illegal practice if he,


A. Votes or applies for a ballot paper for voting more than once in the same polling station
B. Votes or applies for a ballot paper for voting in more than one polling station for the same
election
C. Removes a ballot paper from a polling station during the poll
D. All of the above
X: Section 175 clauses (d) to (f) state that a person is guilty of this offence if he “(d) votes or applies
for a ballot paper for voting more than once in the same polling station; (e) votes or applies for a
ballot paper for voting in more than one polling station for the same election; (f) removes a ballot
paper from a polling station during the poll.” Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: No person shall convene, hold or attend any public meeting, or promote or join in any procession,
within the area of a constituency or, in the case of the Senate election, a Province, during a period
of __ hours ending at midnight following the conclusion of the poll for any election in that
constituency or Province.
A. Twenty four
B. Forty eight
C. Seventy two
D. Ninety six
X: Section 182 states that “No person shall convene, hold or attend any public meeting, or promote
or join in any procession, within the area of a constituency or, in the case of the Senate election, a
Province, during a period of forty-eight hours ending at midnight following the conclusion of the
poll for any election in that constituency or Province.” Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: A person guilty of the offence of illegal practice shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term
which may extend to __ years or with fine which may extend to __ hundred thousand rupees or
with both.
A. One, one
B. One, two
C. Two, one
D. Two, two
X: Section 183 states that “A person guilty of the offence of illegal practice shall be punishable with
imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years or with fine which may extend to one
hundred thousand rupees or with both.” Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: An election official shall be guilty of breach of official duty, if he, in the conduct or management of an
election or maintenance of order at a polling station does which of the following?
A. Persuades any person to give his vote
B. Influences in any manner the voting of any person
C. Any of the above
D. None of the above
X: According to section 186 clauses (a) and (c) a person shall be guilty of such if he “(a) persuades
any person to give his vote … (c) influences in any manner the voting of any person.” Hence, option
‘C’ is correct.
Q: If a person is enrolled on the electoral roll for any electoral area more than once or on the electoral
rolls for more than one electoral area, the person or any Registration Officer, who knowingly enrolls
a voter for more than once, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to
___ months or with fine not exceeding ___ hundred thousand rupees or with both.
A. Six, one
B. Six, two
C. 12, one
D. 12, two
X: Section 189 states that “If a person is enrolled on the electoral roll for any electoral area more
than once or on the electoral rolls for more than one electoral area, the person or any Registration
Officer, who knowingly enrolls a voter for more than once, shall be punishable with imprisonment
for a term which may extend to six months or with fine not exceeding one hundred thousand
rupees or with both.” Hence, option ‘A’ is correct.

Q: An officer exercising the powers of a civil or criminal court, or an officer of the Armed Forces, or an
officer performing a duty in connection with an election, who is authorized by the Commission in
this behalf may exercise the powers of a ___ of the first class under the Code in respect of the
offences of personation, or capturing of polling stationer polling booth.
A. High Court Judge
B. Magistrate
C. Sessions Judge
D. None of the above
X: Section 193 clause (a) states that such a person under these circumstances shall “exercise the
powers of a Magistrate of the first class under the Code in respect of the offences of personation,
or capturing of polling station or polling booth …”. Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: A Police Officer may arrest without warrant, notwithstanding anything contained in the Code, any
person who commits personation or an offence under the Act, if the ___ directs him to arrest such
person.
A. District Returning Officer
B. Returning Officer
C. Presiding Officer
D. Assistant Presiding Officer
X: According to section 194, a “Police Officer may (a) arrest without warrant, notwithstanding
anything contained in the Code, any person who (i) commits personation or an offence under
section 183 if the Presiding Officer directs him to arrest such person …”. Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: Under the Act, which of the following are listed as punishable under the Pakistan Penal Code?
A. Attacks the polling station or polling booth
B. Brings a weapon (whether concealed or hidden) to the polling station or booth
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’
X: Based on section 196 subsection 1 clauses (a) to (g), only option ‘A’ lists an activity included in
the list of offences. Hence, option ‘A’ is correct.

Q: For offences punishable under the Pakistan Penal Code, the ___ shall send a copy of the First
Information Report to the Court of competent jurisdiction.
A. Provincial Election Commissioner
B. Head of District Police
C. Inspector General Police
D. None of the above
X: Section 196 subsection 2 states that “The Head of District Police shall send a copy of the First
Information Report to the Court of competent jurisdiction and shall submit to the Provincial
Election Commissioner periodical report about the progress in investigation of the case.” Hence,
option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: Which of the following are acts that political parties shall not do, under the Act?
A. Promote sectarian, regional or provincial hatred or, animosity
B. Impart any military or para-military training to its members or other persons
C. Propagate any opinion, or act in a manner prejudicial to the fundamental principles enshrined
in the Constitution
D. All of the above
X: According to section 200 subsection 2 clauses (a) to (f), all acts listed from options ‘A’ to ‘C’ is
listed in prohibited acts for political parties. Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: Which of the following is NOT included in the list of items that the constitution of a political party
must have?
A. The aims and objectives of the political party
B. Organizational structure of the political party at different levels
C. Membership fee to be paid by the members, if applicable
D. All of the above are included
X: Section 201 subsection 1 clauses (a) to (f) list all the items present in options ‘A’ to ‘C’. Hence,
option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: Under the Act, which of the following is NOT true with regards to membership of political parties?
A. A person shall not be a member of more than one political party at a time.
B. A political party shall encourage marginalized groups such as persons with disabilities to
become its members
C. A political party shall encourage women to become its members.
D. All of the above
X: In section 203, none of the subsections from 1 to 5 mention encouragement for membership
towards marginalized groups such as persons with disabilities. Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: A political party while making the selection of candidates on general seats shall ensure at least ___
per cent representation of women candidates.
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
X: Section 206 states that “A political party shall make the selection of candidates for elective
offices, including membership of the Majlis-e-Shoora (Parliament) and Provincial Assemblies,
through a transparent and democratic procedure and while making the selection of candidates on
general seats shall ensure at least five per cent representation of women candidates.” Hence,
option ‘C’ is correct.

Q: A political party shall, within ___ days from completion of the intra-party elections, submit a
certificate signed by an office-bearer authorized by the Party Head, to the Commission to the effect
that the elections were held in accordance with the constitution of the political party and this Act to
elect the office-bearers at the Federal, Provincial and local levels, wherever applicable.
A. Five
B. Seven
C. Fourteen
D. Ten
X: Section 209 subsection 1 states that “A political party shall, within seven days from completion of
the intra-party elections … wherever applicable.” Hence, option ‘B’ is correct.

Q: A political party has to submit to the Commission within ___ days from the close of a financial year, a
consolidated statement of its accounts audited by a Chartered Accountant.
A. Seven
B. Ten
C. Thirty
D. Sixty
X: Section 210 subsection 1 states that “A political party shall, in such manner as may be prescribed,
submit to the Commission within sixty days from the close of a financial year, a consolidated
statement of its accounts audited by a Chartered Accountant on Form D.” Hence, option ‘D’ is
correct.
Q: A political party shall furnish to the Commission the list of contributors who have donated or
contributed an amount equal to or more than __ hundred thousand rupees to the political party for
its election campaign expenses.
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Five
X: Section 211 subsection 1 states that “A political party shall furnish to the Commission the list of
contributors who have donated or contributed an amount equal to or more than one hundred
thousand rupees to the political party for its election campaign expenses.” Hence, option ‘A’ is
correct.

Q: Where a political party is dissolved, under the Act, what happens to any member of such political
party, if he is a member of the Majlis-e-Shoora (Parliament), a Provincial Assembly or a local
government?
A. He shall complete his term as an Independent
B. He shall be disqualified for the remaining term
C. He may nominate his own replacement
D. Either ‘A’ or ‘B’ depending on the circumstances
X: Section 213 subsection 1 states that “Where a political party is dissolved under section 212, any
member of such political party, if he is a member of the Majlis-e-Shoora (Parliament), a Provincial
Assembly or a local government, shall be disqualified for the remaining term to be a member of the
Majlis-e-Shoora (Parliament), Provincial Assembly or local government.” Hence, option ‘B’ is
correct.

Q: Which of the following is NOT included in the list of items that must be included in the application by
a political party for allocation of a symbol of its choice?
A. Address of the head office of the political party
B. The list of symbols applied for in order of preference
C. Symbol or symbols if any allocated to the political party during the previous general elections
D. All of these are included
X: Section 216 clauses (a), (b), and (d) mention all the items listed in options ‘A’ to ‘C’. Hence,
option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: With regards to conduct of elections to the local governments, and as the case may be, a union
council includes,
A. A union committee
B. A village council
C. A neighborhood council
D. All of the above
X: The ‘Explanation’ for section 221 subsection 1 states that “A union council includes a union
committee, a village council or, as the case may be, a neighborhood council.” Hence, option ‘D’ is
correct.

Q: Which of the following shall NOT be done by the caretaker Government?


A. Perform its functions to attend to day-to-day matters which are necessary to run the affairs of
the Government
B. Assist the Commission to hold elections in accordance with law
C. Restrict itself to activities that are of routine
D. Transfer public officials unless it is considered expedient and after approval of the
Commission
X: Section 230 subsection 2 states the activities that a caretaker government shall not do. Clause (f)
of this section state that such a government shall not “transfer public officials unless it is considered
expedient and after approval of the Commission.” Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

Q: Which of the following from a caretaker government is responsible for submitting a statement of
assets and liabilities to the Commission?
A. The Prime Minister
B. A Chief Minister
C. A Minister
D. Any of the above
X: Section 230 subsection 3 states that “The Prime Minister, Chief Minister or a Minister or any
other members of a Caretaker Governments shall, within three days from the date of assumption of
office, submit to the Commission a statement of assets and liabilities ...” Hence, option ‘D’ is
correct.

Q: Which of the following laws is NOT included in the list of laws repealed under this Act?
A. The Senate (Election) Act, 1975 (Act No. LI of 1975)
B. The Allocation of Symbols Order, 2002.
C. The Political Parties Order, 2002(Chief Executive’s Order No.18 of 2002)
D. All of these have been repealed
X: Section 241 state the laws which have been repealed. In it, the clauses (c), (h), and (g) state the
laws mentioned from options ‘A’ to ‘C’, respectively. Hence, option ‘D’ is correct.

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