Đề 4

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the others in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. attract B. argument C. apply D. vacancy
Question 2. A. eliminate B. expedition C. separate D. preparation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress is placed
differently from that of the others in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. conservationist B. prohibition C. deforestation D. disappointed
Question 4. A. approximate B. congratulate C. psychological D. Biography
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet that completes each of the following questions.
Question 5. The Smiths Rome for this weekend
A. have been to B. have gone to C. have been in D. was to
Question 6. Brian walks to work because he likes to keep fit
A. seldom B. always C. never D. hardly
Question 7. pipelines are expensive to build, they are relatively cheap to operate and maintain
A. because B. that C. although D. despite
Question 8. I can’t hear every word in her lecture. I wish she would
A. speak clearer B. speak clearlier C. speak more clearer D. speak more clearly
Question 9. A kim to working in the evenings but now he enjoys it.
A. wasn’t used B. isn’t used C. will get used D. didn’t use
Question 10. When the boys won the tennis match, they were very pleased with
A. their B. them C. themselves D. theirs
Question 11. - I’m right, ?
A. are I B. aren’t I C. am I D. am not I
Question 12. She be forty years old! She looks much younger.
A. needn’t B. can’t C. mustn’t D. won’t
Question 13. He went to the airport a taxi.
A. by B. in C. on D. with
Question 14. The old lady was exhauted after the long walk
A. very B. completely C. extremely D. particularly
Question 15. I do not believe that John will get here on time. He is always late and the does not
change its spots.
A. tiger B. lion C. leopark D. zebra
Question 16. For a short while, I managed to catch of the President entering the place.
A. vision B. notice C. view D. sight
Question 17. As the hospital had been careless with its hygiene procedures, the patient found she had
been with a harmful virus.
A. suspected B. infected C. rejected D. detected
Question 18. The development company approval from the council for their plans for a new
shopping centre.
A. pleased B. begged C. sought D. searched
Question 19. - Have you been waiting here long?
+
A. as long as it takes B. I didn’t C. not really D. long time no see
Question 20. - “A bat can hear from a long distance.” “ ”
A. You bet B. Yes, good hearer
D. You know a bat well C. No, you can be so sure
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 21. One often expends far more energy in marathon run than expected
A. exhausts B. consumes C. spends D. reserves
Question 22. We left New York when I was six; so my recollections of it are rather faint.
A. clear C. ambiguous B. explicable D. unintelligible
Make the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 23. He decided not to buy the fake watch and wait until he had more money.
A. genuine B. counterfeit
C. cheap D. unattractive
Question 24. I only have time to tell you the main idea of it, not the details.
A. fist B. gist C. twist D. list
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. Technology improved rapidly during World War II and played a crucial role in determining
how the war came to an end
A. it was necessary to develop new technologies during World War II, or else the war would have been
worse.
B. World War II ended in the way it did largely due to the rapid technological developments in the
course of it
C. the role of technological development in bringing a swift end to World War II is undeniable.
D. if technology hadn’t improved so quickly during World War II, it would have lasted longer than it
did
Question 26. this switch must not be touched on any account.
A. on no account this switch be touched.
B. on any account must you not touched this switch.
C. on no account must this switch be touched.
D. on any account this switch must be touched.
Question 27. by some it is supposed that bad luck may be avoided by locking on wood
A. if bad luck is coming, it will be destroyed provided that one knocks on wood.
B. there are some people who believe that it is bad luck to avoid knocking on wood
C. bad luck is said to be preventable by knocking on wood sometimes.
D. that knocking on wood can keep bad luck away is believed by some people
28. I can’t come to your party. I’m too busy.
A. I’m too busy not to come to your party B. I am not enough free to come to your party
C. So busy am I that I cannot come to your party D. So busy I am that I cannot come to your party
29. The teacher encouraged him. As a result, he took part in the contest.
A. thanks to the teacher’s encouragement, he took part in the contest
B. thanks to the teacher’s encouragement, he would have taken part in the contest
C. if the teacher did not encourage him, he wouldn’t have taken part in the contest
D. if it had been for the teacher’s encouragement, he wouldn’t have taken part in the contest
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
Question 30. The need (A) for (B) a well rounded education was an idea (C) espoused by the Greeks (D)
in time of Socrates.
Question 31. Those (A) who have never been (B ) abroad (C) is eager to see how (D) different the other
cultures
Question 32. With (A) its (B) strong claws and its many (C) protruding tooth a gopher(D) is an excellent
digger.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Long ago, Chinese people didn’t say, “How are you” when they met each other or saw their friends. They
said,” (33) you eaten your rice today?”. Eating rice (34) such an important part of daily life in
China!
Rice is still one of the (35) important kinds of food in the modern world. Nearly half the people that
live on our planet eat it every day and in some countries, an adult cats more than 100 kilos of rice each
year.
We think that people first (36) rice in India. In China, people began eating rice about 5,000 years
ago. Rice wasn’t eaten in North America until 17th century, but many Americans prefer to eat pasta these
days (37) only eat about 2 kilos of rice per year.
Question 33. A. did B. have C. were D. are
Question 34. A. been B. was C. be D. is
Question 35. A. most B. both C. much D. best
Question 36. A. grew B. grown C. grow D. growing
Question 37. A. if B. because C. and D. but
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 45.
On July 16, 1969, America launched the Apollo 11, Lunar Landing Mission from Kennedy Space Center.
This was a 363-foot-tall space vehicle, the five engines of which on the Saturn V rocket generated 7.5
million pounds of thrust. Twelve minutes after the launch, the astronauts were in orbit 120 miles above
the Earth. At a speed of 17,400 mph, they began their four-day journey to the moon. They had nearly a
quarter of a million miles to go.
On July 20, 1969, Neil Amstrong descended from the lunar module ladder. Just prior to taking his first
step on the moon, Armstrong pilles on a special ring, causing a TV camera to automatically deploy. as he
stepped into the moon’s surface, he proclaimed, “That’s one small step for man, one giant leap for
mankind.” However, Armstrong inadvertently omitted the “a” before “man”. This error slightly changed
the meaning of what was to become known as Armstrong’s famous statement.
Question 38. What is the passage mainly about?
A. the first manned mission to the moon B. how fast the rocket traveled
C. the first man in space D. the reason Neil Armstrong is so famous
Question 39. The word “they” in the passage refers to
A. Apollo 11 B. astronauts C. Americans D. engines
Question 40. The word “deploy” in the passage is closet in meaning to
A. photograph B. begin working C. stop functioning D. light up
Question 41. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The Life of Neil Armstrong B. The History of space travel
C. The story of Apollo 11 D. The John F.Kenedy center
Question 42. It can be inferred that Armstrong’s statement was important because
A. Neil Armstrong was a great speaker
B. this was the first time America had sent people into space
C. they were the first words to be spoken on the moon
D. the statement was spoken from the lunar module ladder
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answers sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Generally, in order to be preserved in the fossil record, organisms must possess hard body parts such as
shells or bones. Soft, fleshy structures are quickly destroyed by predators or decayed by bacteria. Even
hard parts left on the surface for any length of time will be destroyed, therefore, organisms must be buried
rapidly to escape destruction by the elements and to be protected against agents of weathering and
erosion. Marine organisms thus are better candidates for fossilization than those living on the land
because the ocean is typical the site of sedimentation, whereas the land is largely the site of erosion. The
beds of ancient lakes were also excellent sites for rapid burial of skeletal remains of freshwater organisms
and skeletons of other animals, including those of early humans, Ancient swaps were particularly
plentiful with prolific growths of vegetation, which fossilized in abundance. Many animals became
trapped in bogs overgrown by vegetation. The environment of the swaps kept bacterial decay to a
minimum, which greatly aided in the preservation of plants and animals. The rapidly accumulating
sediments in flood plains, deltas, and stream channels buried freshwater organisms, along with other
plants and animals that happened to fall into the water.
Only a small traction of all the organisms that have ever lived are preserved as fossils. Normally, the
remains of a plant or animal are completely destroyed through predation and decay. Although it seems
that fossilization is common for some organisms, for others it is almost impossible. For the most part of,
the remains of organisms are recycled in the earth, which is fortunate because otherwise soil and water
would soon became depleted of essential nutrients. Also, most of the fossils exposed on Earth’s surface
are destroyed by weathering processes. This make for an incomplete fossil record with poor or no
representation of certain species. The best fossils are those composed of that form the vast majority of
unaltered fossils. Calcite and aragonite also contributed to a substantial number of fossils of certain
organisms.
Question 43. The word “agents” is closest in meaning to
A. examples B. causes C. areas D. dangers
Question 44. The fact that the “land is largely the site of erosion” is significant because
A. erosion is less destructive than sedimentation
B. fossils are most common in areas subject to erosion
C. erosion contributes to the destruction of skeletal remains
D. few organisms live in areas that experience extensive erosion
Question 45. The best fossils are those
A. consist of Calcite and aragonite B. from hard parts of animals or plants
C. still in the shape of the original animal or plant D. animals or plants common for fossilization
Question 46. Why does the author mention “aragonite” in the last line?
A. To argue that certain fossils are more informative than others.
B. to explain why fossils are rare
C. To illustrate the kinds of inorganic hard parts that can form fossils
D. To compare aragonite fossils and calcite fossils.
Question 47. It can be inferred that flood plains, deltas, and stream channels are similar in which of the
following ways?
A. Rapid sedimentation in such locations makes it difficult to locate fossils
B. Such locations are likely to rich sources of fossils.
C. Fossilized human remains are only rarely found in such locations
D. Animals rather than plants have been preserved at such locations.
Question 48. Why are marine organisms good candidates for fossilization?
A. It take longer for them to be preserved
B. They have more fleshy structures than land organisms
C. The water environment speeds the decay caused by bacteria
D. It is likely that they will be buried rapidly
Question 49. According to the passage, an organisms without hard body parts
A. is not heavy enough to sink below the surface B. is not attractive to predators
C. is not likely to appear in the fossil record D. takes a long time to decay
Question 50. FAccording to the passage, why were the remains of organisms trapped in swamps better
preserved for the fossil record than those that were not?
A. The swamp environment reduced the amount of bacterial decay
B. Swamp waters contained higher amounts of materials such as calcium carbonate
C. There were fewer sediments in swamps than in other bodies of water
D. Swamp vegetation accelerated the decomposition of organisms

Đề 5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Questions 1. A. Tremendous B. Luminous C. Enormous D. autonomous
Questions 2. A. Majesty B. Mature C. Machine D. majority
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Questions 3. A. passion B. discussion C. expression D. decision
Questions 4. A. crisis B. oases C. goose D. horse
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Questions 5. Robert Klein received the 1980 Nobel prize in economics for pioneering the useful of
computers to forecast economic activities.
A. received B. for pioneering C. useful of D. activities
Questions 6. The British national anthem, calling “God Save the Queen”, was a traditional song in the
18th century.
A. national anthem B. calling C. was D. traditional song
Questions 7. It is time the government helped the employed to find some jobs.
A. time B. helped C. employed D. some jobs
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Questions 8. to continue my studies, I decided to become a dress designer.
A. I didn't wish B. Not wished C. Wishing not D. Not wishing
Questions 9. I always have my shoes on Sundays.
A. shining B. shone C. shined D. to shine
Question 10. Psychologists have observed that a large part of the activity is beyond one's
awareness.
A. brain that B. brainless C. brain's D. brain whose
Question 11. There are more and more people died AIDS.
A. on B. from C. at D. of
Question 12. Please don’t talk so loudly while I am studying. Actually, .
A. I’d rather you not talk loudly while I am studying.
B. I’d rather you didn’t talk loudly while I was studying.
C. I’d rather you don’t talk loudly while I am studying.
D. I’d rather you didn’t talk loudly while I am studying.
Question 13. One man outside his own country is tipped to become the new president.
A. little knowing B. to know little C. little known D. to be little known
Question 14. I visited last year, is a nice city.
A. New York that B. New York, where C. New York, which D. New York, in which
Question 15. He to the doctor after the accident, but he continued to play instead.
A. should have gone B. must have gone C. couldn’t go D. didn’t have to go
Question 16. It was a bit embarrassing when the teacher caught us
A. cheat B. cheating C. to cheating D. to cheat
Question 17. If you want a car with an automatic gear box, this particular will suit you well.
A. sample B. model C. produce D. stock
Question 18. After hours of bargaining with the salesman, Jake bought the jacket for a of the
original price.
A. fraction B. piece C. part D. spot
Question 19. After his death, the house to his eldest son.
A. went B. belonged C. came D. A & B
Question 20. I forgot this is a non-smoking area. There is no place for me to put my cigarette .
A. butt B. leftovers C. stick D. remains
Question 21. That’s the trouble with the night shift. It your private life too much.
A. breaks in B. breaks into C. breaks through D. breaks up
Question 22. “I am very much obliged to you for helping my family.” - “ ”
A. My pleasure. B. That’s all right C. You’re welcome D. A & C are correct
Question 23. A. Could I speak to Susan please?
B. .
A. Talking B. Speaking C. Calling D. Answering
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Yes, we went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out.
A. every single day B. every other day C. every second day D. every two days
Question 25. Mr. Young, general manager of the emergency response division of AMSA, said that the
debris was spotted along a busy shipping route and could be containers that had fallen off cargo vessels.
A. seen B. collected C. shot D. analyzed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 26. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the
surplus.
A. large quantity B. excess C. small quantity D. sufficiency
Question 27. She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. married B. divorced C. separated D. single
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer for each of the blanks from 36 to Question 50.
In the late 1930s, a group of leading American scientists seeking dinosaur fossils made some noteworthy
(28) . Although one of their expeditions discovered no fossils, it proved nonetheless historic
expedition, which took place along the banks of the Paluxy river in Texas, something extraordinary was
revealed: a dinosaur track, clearly distinguishable in the rock. These dinosaur footprints (29)
their preservation to the salts and mud that covered them and then hardened into rock,
before coming to light 100 million years later. Tracks like these are (30) to experts. There
have been great gaps in scientists’ understanding of dinosaur behavior, and so such footprints are useful
since they provide direct evidence of how dinosaurs actually moved. Scientists have used these and (31)
footprints to determine how quickly different species walked, concluding that many kinds
of dinosaur must have travelled in (32) .
Question 28. A. observation B. finds C. finding D. surveys
Question 29. A. thank B. result C. owe D. derive
Question 30. A. costly B. rare C. invaluable D. unique
Question 31. A. different B. the others C. other D. another
Question 32. A. bunches B. herds C. sets D. masses
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
There is a common expression in the English language referring to a blue moon. When people say that
something happens “only once in a blue moon,” they mean that it happens only very rarely, once in a
great while. This expression has been around for at least a century and a half; there are references to this
expression that date from the second half of the nineteenth century. (5) The expression “a blue moon” has
come to refer to the second full moon occurring in any given calendar month. A second full moon is not
called a blue moon because it is particularly blue or is any different in hue from the first full moon of the
month. Instead, it is called a blue moon because it is so rare. The moon needs a little more than 29 days to
complete the cycle from full moon to full moon. Because every month except February has more than 29
days, every month will have at least one full moon (except February, which will have a full moon unless
there is a full moon at the very end of January and another full moon at the very beginning of March). It is
on the occasion when a given calendar month has a second full moon that a blue moon occurs. This does
not happen very often, only three or four times in a decade. The blue moons of today are called blue
moons because of their rarity and not because of their color; however, the expression “blue moon” may
have come into existence in reference to unusual circumstances in which the moon actually appeared
blue. Certain natural phenomena of gigantic proportions can actually change the appearance of the moon
from Earth. The eruption of the Krakatao volcano in 1883 left dust particles in the atmosphere, which
clouded the sun and gave the moon a bluish tint. This particular occurrence of the blue moon may have
given rise to the expression that we use today. Another example occurred more than a century later.
When Mount Pinatubo erupted in the Philippines in 1991, the moon again took on a blue tint.
Question 33. This passage is about
A. an idiomatic expression B. an unusual color
C. a month on the calendar D. a phase of the moon
Question 34. How long has the expression “once in a blue moon” been around?
A. For around 50 years B. For less than 100 years
C. For more than 100 years D. For 200 years
Question 35. A blue moon could be best described as
A. a full moon that is not blue in color B. a new moon that is blue in color
C. a full moon that is blue in color D. a new moon that is not blue in color
Question 36. The word “hue” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. shape B. date C. color D. size
Question 37. Which of the following might be the date of a “blue moon”?
A. January 1 B. February 28 C. April 15 D. December 31
Question 38. How many blue moons would there most likely be in a century?
A. 4 B. 35 C. 70 D. 100
Question 39. According to the passage, the moon actually looked blue
A. after large volcanic eruptions B. when it occurred late in the month
C. several times a year D. during the month of February
Question 40. The expression “given rise to” in the passage could be best replaced by
A. created a need for B. elevated the level of
C. spurred the creation of D. brighten the color of
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as important to me
as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related?
Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions, and is
something that you can use to improve or change your emotions. The color that you choose to wear either
refects your current state of being, or reflects the color or emotion that you need.
The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of course they
also affect anyone who comes in contract with you, but you are the one saturated with the color all day!
I even choose items around me based on their color. In the morning, I choose my clothes based on the
color or emotion that I need for the day. So you can consciously use color to control the emotions that you
are exposed to, which can help you to feel better.
Color, sound, and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they are meant to
move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your energy in motion. Also,
flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the fastest way to be healthy is to
be open to your real feelings. Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to inhibit your emotions.
Question 41. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Colors can help you become healthy.
B. Colorful clothes can change your mood
C. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other
D. Colors are one of the most exciting.
Question 42. Which of the following can be affected by color?
A. Your need for thrills B. Your appetite C. Your friend's feelings D. Your mood
Question 43. According to this passage, what creates disease?
A. Wearing the color black B. Ignoring your emotions
C. Being open to your emotions D. Exposing yourself to bright colors
Question 44. The term "they" in paragraph 3 refers to
A. none of these B. colors C. people D. emotions
Question 45. Why does the author mention that color and emotions are both vibrations?
A. Because vibrations make you healthy
B. Because they both affect how we feel.
C. To prove the relationship between emotions and color.
D. To show how color can affect energy levels in the body.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 46. They would never have accepted his money if they had known his plan.
A. They knew what he wanted to do, so they refused his money.
B. They agreed with his wishes because they were glad to have his money.
C. They took the money he offered them without realizing his purposes.
D. They didn’t know his plan and never took the money from him.
Question 47. The sooner we solve this problem, the better it will be for all concerned.
A. It would be better for all concerned if we can solve this problem soon.
B. If all concerned are better, we can solve this problem soon.
C. If we could solve this problem soon, it would be better for all concerned.
D. If we can solve this problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
Question 48. He admitted having stolen my money.
 A. He confessed having stolen my money.
B. He confessed that he had stolen my money.
C. He lied to me to steal my money.
D. He made a confession on having stolen the money.
Question 49. His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious
institution.
A. His academic record at high school was poor because he didn’t apply to that prestigious
institution.
B. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that prestigious
institution.
C. Failing to apply to that prestigious institution, his academic record at high school was poor
D. His academic record at high school was poor; as a result, he failed to apply to that prestigious
institution.
Question 50. Our children are hard on furniture.
A. Our children hardly use the furniture. B. Our children dislike the furniture.
C. Our children want to replace the furniture. D. Our children treat the furniture roughly.

Đề 6
Choose the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the
following questions.
Question 1. A. attacks B. medals C. concerns D. fingers
Question 2. A. suggestion B. question C. perfection D. digestion
Choose the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the
following questions.
Question 3. A. phonetic B. dynamic C. eccentric D. rhetoric
Question 4. A. marine B. machine C. malign D. canine
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 5. Next week when there a full moon, the ocean tides will be higher.
A. will be B. will have been C. is being D. is
Question 6. the light rain, the baseball game will not be cancelled unless the other team concedes.
A. However B. Although C. In spite D. Despite
Question 7. The explosion was of such that it was heard five miles away.
A. intensiveness B. intensity C. intense D. intensification
Question 8. The crew worked so hard; they finished the entire project three days of schedule.
A. forward B. onward C. ahead D. atop
Question 9. My director is angry with me. I didn’t do all the work I last week.
A. should have done B. may have done C. needn’t have done D. must have done
Question 10. The steak looked tender, but it was as tough as .
A. a belt B. a saddle C. old boots D. rubber
Question 11. On hearing the news she fainted and it was half an hour before she again.
A. came up B. came round C. came over D. came forward
Question 12. His lack of qualifications was taken as a sign of a youth.
A. misused B. misbehaved C. misspent D. mistaken
Question 13. Michael looked upset and surprised when by his mother today.
A. scolding B. to scold C. having scolded D. scolded
Question 14. She came in covered in mud, so I bathed her and her in new clothes.
A. wearing B. put C. wore D. dressed
Question 15. Our father suggested to Da Nang for this summer holiday.
A. to going B. going C. go D. to go
Question 16. she was under the weather, I wouldn’t have asked her to join us.
A. If had I known B. If I knew C. If I hadn’t known D. Had I known
Question 17. of the hundred members of the club was given a souvenir.
A. All B. Each C. Either D. Neither
Question 18. Marie Curie was the first and only woman two Nobel Prizes.
A. who win B. that wins C. to have won D. to be won
Choose the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions
Question 19. In the 1980s TV viewers began to hook up videocassette players to their TVs.
A. combine B. connect C. fasten D. blend
Question 20. The police have not had time to complete their investigations, but they have concluded
tentatively that the explosion was caused by a bomb.
A. temporally B. intentionally C. certainly D. hesitantly
Choose the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 21. Humans can use language deceptively by telling lies or half-truths.
A. in an honest way B. in a dishonest way C. for a serious purpose D. at the wrong time
Question 22. Tired of being a tiny cog in a vast machine, he handed in his resignation.
A. an important person B. a large piece of equipment
C. a small group of people D. a significant instrument
Choose the option that best completes each of the following exchanges
Question 23. Ben: “You didn’t go to school yesterday, did you?”
Jasmine: “ . I saw you, but you were talking to someone”
A. No, I didn’t B. Yes, I didn’t C. Let me see D. I went
Question 24. Mother: “How come you didn’t tell me that you would quit your job?”
Lisa: “ .”
A. I’d love to tell you now
B. Because I knew that you would make a fuss about it
C. I have no idea
D. Because I’m so bored with it
Read the following passage and choose the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the blanks.
Education is more important today than ever before. It helps people acquire the skills they need for such
everyday (25) as reading a newspaper or managing their money. It also gives them the
specialized training they may need to (26) for a job or career. For example, a person must meet
certain educational requirements and obtain a license or certificate before he can practice law or medicine.
Many fields, like computer operation or police work, (27) satisfactory completion of special
training courses.
Education is also important because it helps people get more out of life. It increases their knowledge and
understanding of the world. It helps them acquire the skills that make life more interesting and enjoyable,
such as the skills needed to participate in a sport, paint a picture, or play a musical (28) . Such
education becomes increasing important as people gain more and more leisure time. Education also helps
people adjust to change. This habit has become necessary because social changes today take place with
increasing speed and affect the lives of more and more people. Education can help a person understand
these changes and provide him (29) the skills for adjusting to them.
Question 25. A. works B. jobs C. actions D. activities
Question 26. A. do B. prepare C. make D. work
Question 27. A. requires B. requiring C. require D. to require
Question 28. A. appliance B. equipment C. instrument D. device
Question 29. A. with B. for C. in D. to
Read the following passage choose the correct answer to each of the question.
Around 365 B.C. in ancient Greece, the great teacher Plato told a story about a place called Atlantis. Plato
described Atlantis as a continent in the Atlantic Ocean. He said it had been the home of a powerful people
who were destroyed when the continent was swallowed by the sea.
Ever since Plato’s time, people have wondered if the story about Atlantis was really true. Was there ever
such a place as Atlantis? During the Middle Ages, many people believed in the legend of Atlantis. Some
men even made voyages to find the “lost continent”. Later, most people believed Atlantis to be just a
myth. Scientists could find no evidence to show that such a place had ever existed.
Ideas change in time, however, for now some scientists think that Atlantis might have been a real place. A
Greek professor has offered a new theory. He says that Atlantis was not a continent in the Atlantic Ocean
but an island called Thera in the Aegean Sea. The professor says that 3,500 years ago much of Thera
collapsed into the sea when a volcano erupted. He thinks that before the explosion Thera had been the
home of a people called Minoans. The Minoans were sea traders who ruled the Aegean Sea from 2,000
B.C. to 1,250 B.C.
Scientist who have come to investigate Thera have found an ancient city buried beneath volcanic ash and
stone. It appears that the people who lived in the city had an advanced civilization. They were probably
Minoans.
Is Thera the “lost continent” of Atlantis? No one may ever know for certain. Atlantis may remain a riddle
without an answer.
Question 30. According to Plato, Atlantis was in the .
A. Atlantic Ocean B. Pacific Ocean C. Red Ocean D. Aegean Sea
Question 31. The word in paragraph 3 that means “fell down” is .
A. collapsed B. existed C. erupted D. rode
Question 32. A lot of people in the Middle Ages .
 A. thought that Atlantis was only a myth B. found some evidence about the “lost continent”
C. made voyage to visit Atlantis D. believed in the existence of Atlantis
Question 33. Who were the ancient Minoans?
A. scientists B. sea traders C. teachers D. Greek professors
Question 34. Which statement seems true for the passage?
A. Plato was a Greek teacher who lived in Atlantis. B. There are different theories about Atlantis.
C. There are no different theories about Atlantis. D. Everyone knows where the lost continent is.
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
It is hard to get any agreement on the precise meaning of the term “social class”. In everyday life, people
tend to have a different approach to those they consider their equals from that which they assume with
people they consider higher or lower than themselves in the social scale. The criteria we use to “place” a
new acquaintance; however, are a complex mixture of factors. Dress, way of speaking, area of residence
in a given city or province, education and manners all play a part.
In Greece, after the sixth-century B.C., there was a growing conflict between the peasants and the landed
aristocrats, and a gradual decrease in the power of the aristocracy when a kind of “middle class” of traders
and skilled workers grew up. The population of Athens, for example, was divided into three main classes
which were politically and legally distinct. About one-third of the total were slaves, who did not count
politically at all, a fact often forgotten by those who praise Athens as the nursery of democracy. The next
main group consisted of resident foreigners, the “metics”, who were freemen, though they too were
allowed no share in political life. The third group was the powerful body of “citizens”, who were
themselves divided into sub-classes.
The medieval feudal system, which flourished in Europe from the ninth to the thirteenth century, gave
rise to a comparatively simple system based on birth. Under the King, there were two main classes - lords
and “vassals”, the latter with many subdivisions.
In the later Middle Ages; however, the development of a money economy and the growth of cities and
trade led to the rise of another class, the “burghers” or city merchants and mayors. These were the
predecessors of the modern middle class. Gradually high office and occupation assumed importance in
determining social position, as it became more and more possible for a person born to one station in life
to move to another. This change affected the town more than the country areas, where remnants of
feudalism lasted much longer.
Question 35. According to the passage, people evaluate others’ position by which following factors
EXCEPT .
A. the place they live B. the job they do
C. their dress D. the way in which they behave towards other people
Question 36. The author implies that slaves in Greece in the sixth century B.C. .
A. were not allowed to count votes at elections B. were not politically significant
 C. controlled one-third of the democratic votes D. were kept ignorant as a political measure
Question 37. The word “remnants” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. opponents B. remains C. torn clothing D. garments
Question 38. It can be indicated from the passage that the decline of the Greek aristocracy’s power in the
sixth century B.C. .
A. caused international conflict in the area
B. lasted for only a short time
C. was assisted by a rise in the number of slaves
D. coincided with the rise of a new “middle class” of traders and peasants
Question 39. The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to .
A. freeman B. slaves C. metics D. citizens
Question 40. The author implies that Athens is often praised as the nursery of democracy .
A. because even very young children could vote
B. in spite of its heavy independence on slave labor C. even though slaves were allowed to vote
D. because its three main classes were politically and legally distinct
Question 41. The word “predecessors” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. supporters B. ancestors C. descendants D. authorities
Question 42. The passage is mainly about
A. the human history
B. the modern society
C. the social life in ancient Greece
D. the division of social classes in the ancient world
Choose the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Developing new technologies are time-consuming and expensive.
A. Developing B. technologies C. are D. time – consuming
Question 44. Excepting for the graduate students, everyone will have to take the tests on the same day.
A. Excepting for B. graduate C. will have to D. the tests
Question 45. Don’t let that old rascal take you along with his clever talk – none of it is true.
A. Don’t let B. take you along C. clever talk D. of it
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. Friendly though he may seem, he’s not to be trusted.
A. He’s too friendly to be trusted.
B. However he seems friendly, he’s not to be trusted.
C. He may have friends, but he’s not to be trusted.
D. However friendly he seems, he’s not to be trusted.
Question 47. “You’re always making terrible mistakes”, said the teacher.
 A. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
C. The teacher complained about his students making terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
Question 48. When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.
A. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.
B. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.
C. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.
D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.
Choose the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following
questions. Question 49. All possible means have been used to prevent air
pollution. The sky is still not clear.
A. Every possible means has been used to prevent air pollution, yet the sky is still misty.
B. The sky is still cloudy due to the fact that all possible means have been used to prevent
air pollution.
C. To prevent air pollution, every possible means has been used, and so the sky is still not
clear.
D. Every possible means has been used to prevent air pollution so that the sky can be
clearer.
Question 50. She spent all her money. She even borrowed some from her father.
A. Not only did she spend all her money but she borrowed some from her father as well.
B. As soon as she borrowed some money from her father, she spent it all.
C. Not only did she spent all her money but also she borrowed some from her father.
D. Hardly had she borrowed some money from her father when she spent it all.