INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT

INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only ONE answer for each item by
shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO
ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. Genuine key stolen from the owner.

a. Stolen key b. False key c. All of the above d. None of the above
2. Term used in England for lock pickers, safecrackers, and penetrators of restricted rooms or areas
a. Peterman b. Peterlock c. Peterpan d. None of the above
3. A state or quality of being secure, freedom from fear or danger, assurance, certainty.
a. Hazard b. Security Management c. Security d. Physical Security
4. The following are the basic principles of the security, except.
a. Command responsibility
b. Compartmentation
c. Security is the concern of all personnel
d. Balance between security and profit
5. Involve the installation of physical barriers, security lighting, use of vaults, locks and others.
a. Active measures b. Passive measures c. All of the above d. None of the above
6. Those that will deter man from committing such act of fear of being caught, charge in court or get dismissed
a. Active measures b. Passive measures c. All of the above d. None of the above
7. A system of barriers placed between the potential intruder and the objects/matter to be protected
a. Physical Security b. Physical barriers c. Human barriers d. Structural barriers
8. Probability of an event to happen that will lead to loss.
a. Threat b. Hazard c. Risk d. Vulnerability
9. An act or condition which results in a situation conducive to a breach of the protection system
a. Security Hazard b. Man Made Hazard c. Natural Hazard d. Threat
10. Is the importance of the firm which reference to the national economy and security.
a. Relative vulnerability
b. Relative criticality of operations
c. National Security
d. All of the above
11. A medium or structure which defines the physical limits of an installation.
a. Barrier b. Physical security c. Perimeter Barrier d. All of the above
12. Include mountains, rivers, seas, desserts or terrain difficult to traverse.
a. Structural Barrier b. Natural barrier c. Perimeter barrier d. All of the above
13. Type of perimeter barrier made of chain link designed with mesh openings not larger than two inches squares.
a. Wire fence b. Fence c. barrier d. All of the above
14. Addition overhang or barbed wire place on vertical perimeter fences.
a. Wire fence b. Fence c. Top guard d. Guard
15. Type of barbed wire that is formed in large coils.

a. Top guard b. Fence c. Wire Fence d. Concertina wire
16. Provided at main perimeter entrances to secure areas located out of the doors.
a. Entry stations b. Entrance c. Lock d d. Lock-up
17. Unobstructed area maintain on both sides of the perimeter barrier.
a. Zone b. Clear zone c. Zoning d. All of the above
18. Similar to continuous lighting but can be turned on manually or by special device or other automatic means.
a. Security lighting
b. Controlled lighting
c. Standby lighting
d. All of the above
19. Is a visual or audible signaling device, which initiates conditions of associated circuits.
a. Alarm b. Barrier c. Protective Alarm d. Annunciator
20. A fire fighting equipment which can be portable or in cart that is used to put out fire.
a. Fire Extinguisher b. Fire Alarm c. Fire devices d. All of the above
21. Class A fire is a fire Involving combustible liquids and gases.
a. True b. Falsec. Partially True d. Partially False
22. A fire which can be extinguished by a non-conducting extinguishing agent such as carbon dioxide or multi-
purpose dry chemical.
a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D
23. Protective device usually placed in the door, and window that can send notification when the opening and
closure occurs.
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a. Smoke detectors b. Grill c. Magnetic door contact d. Vibration contact
24. Devices mounted on barriers and are used primarily to detect an attack on the structure itself.
a. Magnetic door contact b. Vibration contact c. Grill d. All of the above
25. Defined as mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device designed to prevent entry to a building or
room.
a. Physical barrier b. Man made barrier c. Lock d d. All of the above
26. Warded Lock - is a type of lock that uses a set of obstructions, or wards, to prevent the lock from opening
27. Portable and detachable lock having a pivoted or sliding hasp which possess through a staple ring, or the like
and is made fast or secured.
a. Combination lock b. Pin Tumbler lock c. Padlock d. All of the above
28. A lock that requires manipulation of parts according to a predetermined combination code of numbers.
a. Pin tumbler lock b. Padlock c. Combination lock d. Disk tumbler lock
29. The title of the Republic Act 5487, as amended.
a. Private Security Guard Law
b. Private Security Agency Law
c. Private Security Detective Law
d. None of the above
30. The following are the requirements of an operator or manager of security agency, except.
a. Filipino citizen
b. Not be less than twenty six (26) years of age
c. College graduate and/or a commissioned officer in the inactive service or retired from the AFP or PNP
d. Has taken a course/seminar on Industrial Security Management and/or must have adequate training or
experience in security business
31. The following are the qualifications of the security guard, except.
a. Filipino citizen
b. High School graduate
c. Physically and mentally fit
d. At least eighteen (18) years of age but not more than fifty five (55) years old
32. The following are the qualifications of the Security Officer, except.
a. Filipino citizen
b. Holder of a Masters degree
c. Physically and mentally fit
d. Has graduated from a Security Officer Training Course or its equivalent
33. It is an act of baseness , vileness or depravity in the private and social duties which a man owes to his
fellowmen
a. Moral turpitude b. Integrity c. Honesty d. Morality
34. Security force maintained and operated by any private corporation utilizing any of its employees to watch
secure and guard its establishment
a. Government guard force
b. Security Agency guard force
c. Company guard force
d. None of the above
35. Private security agency/private detective agency/company security force/government security force is allowed
to possess firearms in excess of five hundred (500) units.
36. The numbers of security personnel to be maintained to secure regular license to operate by the private
security agency is a minimum of one hundred licensed private security personnel and a maximum of one
thousand.
37. A written order issued by a superior officer assigning the performance of private security/detective services
duties.
a. Mission Order b. Duty Detailed Mission c. Duty Detail Order d. All of the above
38. The allowed stocks of ammunition of the agency shall not exceed twenty five (25) rounds of ammunition per
unit of duly licensed firearms.
39. The following are the basis for the confiscation of firearms, except.
a. When the firearm is actually being used in the commission of a crime
b. When the firearm has just been used in the commission of a crime
c. When the firearm being carried by the security guard is unlicensed or a firearm is not authorized by law
and regulation for his use.
d. When the confiscation of the firearm is directed by the order of the prosecutor.
40. The following are the advantages of the company guard force, except.
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a. High caliber and receives higher salary
b. Provides better service
c. Can be trained to handle some of the more complex security duties
d. May be required to join the union;
41. The following are the advantages of the agency guard services, except.
a. Less expensive
b. Use is convenient
c. Large turnover
d. Less administrative and personnel problems
42. It is faith in oneself and his abilities.
a. Confidence b. Judgment c. Integrity d. Capability
43. It is ability to deal with others successfully without offending.
a. Confidence b. Judgment c. Cooperation d. Tactfulness
44. Any security guard may, incident to the arrest, search the person so arrested in the presence of at least three
(3) witnesses
a. True b. False c. Partially True d. Partially False
45. The following are the functions of the private detective, except.
a. Background Investigation.
b. Investigation of crime
c. Locating missing person
d. Conduct surveillance work;
46. In times of disaster the city or municipal council, may muster or incorporate the members of the agency or
agencies nearest the area of such disaster or calamity
47. The following are the grounds for the cancellation of security guard license, except.
a. Assisting or protecting criminals during on or off duty status
b. Providing confidential information to unauthorized person
c. Posted security guard found drunk or drinking intoxicating liquor
d. Rendering duty without firearms
48. Committed by any person, who with intent to gain but without violence, against, or intimidation of persons nor
force upon things shall take personal property of another without the latter consent
a. Robbery b. Theft c. Qualified Theft d. Simple Theft
49. It is an irresistible urge to steal items of trivial value.
a. The need or desire
b. The criminal tendency
c. The psychological need
d. All of the above
50. One who steals due to his inability to resist the unexpected opportunity and has a little fear of detection.
a. Pilferer b. Casual Pilferer c. Systematic Pilferer d. Shoplifter
51. It is a positive inimical acts.
52. Probability of an event to happen that will lead to loss.
53. The susceptibility of the plant or establishment to damage, loss, or disruption of operation due to various
hazard.
a. Relative vulnerability
b. Relative criticality of operations
c. Relative humidity
d. Relative security
54. A restricted area containing materials or operation of security interest;

a. Restricted area b. vault c. File Room d. Exclusion area
55. An area near or adjacent to limited or exclusive areas where entry is restricted.
a. Restricted area b. Exclusion area c. Controlled area d. Open area
56. Practical test or exercise of plans or any activity to test its validity, an operational readiness exercise
a. Dry run b. Exercises c. Drill d. All of the above
57. Authenticated list of personnel given to the security allowing entry to a compound or installation or part thereof
a. Employee List b. Access List c. Security List d. All of the above
58. Type of code system so that security personnel or any employee when forced by armed men intending to enter
an installation can five alarm by the use of certain words
a. Duress Code b. Coded Code c. List Code d. Secret Code
59. The process of investigation/validating the truthfulness of the existence of hazard to an individual
a. Assessment b. Vulnerability Assessment c.Threat Assessment d. All of the above
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60. Condition or state that danger has already occurred which resulted to loss of life/liberty
a. Disaster b. Calamity c. Emergency evacuation d. Emergency situation
61. An indication of something impending and usually undesirable or unpleasant, with an intention to inflict evil,
injury or damage on another
a. Threat b. Danger c. Hazard d. Vulnerability
62. Protection of personnel especially ranking official from any harm, kidnap, and others act.
a. Personnel Security b. Personal Security c. VIP Security d. All of the above
63. Mandated by law to provide protective security to government officials, foreign dignitaries, and private
individuals authorized to be given protection.
a. PSPG b. PSPD c. PSSD d. PSG
64. Exposure and teaching of employees on security and its relevance to their work.
a. Security drill b. Security Survey c. Security education d. Security program
65. It is deciding in advance what to do, how to do it, and who is to do it.
a. Security survey b. Planning c. Security education d. Policing
66. Refers to checklist, audits, or inventories of security conditions.
a. Security survey b. Security education c. Security Planning d. Security Risk
67. Distinctive identifying qualities which serve as an index to the essential or intrinsic nature of a person
a. Integrity b. Discretion c. Morals d. Reputation
68. The sum of traits that have been impresses by nature, education and habit upon the individual
a. Integrity b. Discretion c. Reputation d. Character
69. Opinion or estimation in which one is generally held. It is what a person is reported to be whereas character is
what a person is.
a. Integrity b. Reputation c. Morald. Character
70. It is an inquiry which aims to verify applicant’s information written at the applicants form.
a. Background Investigation
b. Pre background Investigation
c. Post Background Investigation
d. All of the above
71. It is an inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, integrity, morals, and loyalty of an individual in order to
determine a person’s suitability for appointment.
a. Personal Security
b. Personnel Security
c. Personnel Security Investigation
d. Post Security Investigation
72. It is done with employees about to abscond the company in order to help identify problems contributing to
employee turnover.
a. Interview b. Exit interview c. Farewell interview d. None of the above
73. Refers to the procedure followed, inquiries conducted, and criteria applied to determine the work suitability of a
particular applicant or the retention of a particular employee.
a. Personnel Security
b. Personal Security
c. Entrance interview
d. Exit interview
74. A cubicle in a building constructed a little lighter than a vault but of bigger size to accommodate limited people
to work on the records inside
a. Vault room b. Restricted area c. File room d. Exclusion area
75. A metallic container used for safekeeping of documents or small items in office or installation.
a. Safe b. Vault c. Cabinet d. All of the above
76. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistant container usually part of the building structure use to keep and
protect cash, documents and negotiable instruments
a. Safe b. Vault c. Cabinet d. File Room
77. This is an irreplaceable records , reproduction of which does not have the same value as the original;
a. Non essential document
b. Useful document
c. Vital document
d. Important document
78. This is a record, reproduction of which causes considerable expense and labor, or considerable delay.
a. Non essential document
b. Useful document
c. Vital document
d. Important document
79. Systematic program for gathering and analyzing information about competitor’s activities and general business
trends to further company’s goals.
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a. Competitive Intelligence
b. Strategic Intelligence
c. Intelligence
d. Line Intelligence
80. An Act prescribing the Intellectual Property Code and establishing the Intellectual Property Office
a. RA 8291 b. RA 8292 c. RA 8293 d. RA 8294
81. It may consist of any formula, pattern, device or compilation of information which is used in one’s business
and which gives one opportunity to gain an advantage over competitors who do not know or use it.
a. Trade secrets b. Patent c. Intellectual property d. All of the above
82. Information which some special way is related to the status, operations or activities of the possessor over
which the possessor asserts ownership.
a. Confidential information
b. Information
c. Proprietary information
d. Classified information
83. A grant given by the government to an inventor, conveying and securing to him the exclusive rights to make,
use and sell his invention.
a. Patent b. Intellectual property c. Ownership d. Proprietary
84. Part of physical security that deals primarily with the protection of processes, formulas, patents, and other
industrial and manufacturing activities from espionage, infiltration, loss, compromise or photocopying
a. Industrial security
b. Operational Security
c. Transmission Security
d. Document Security
85. Any information and material, the unauthorized disclosure of which would cause exceptionally grave damage
to the nation, politically, economically or militarily.
a. Restricted b. Secret c. Confidential d. Top Secret
86. Any information and materials, the unauthorized disclosure of which would be prejudicial to the interest or
prestige of the nation or governmental activity or would cause administrative embarrassment or unwarranted
injury.
a. Restricted b. Secret c. Confidential d. Top Secret
87. Term given to the requirement that the dissemination of classified matters be limited strictly to those persons
whose official duties require knowledge thereof.
a. Need to know b. Dissemination c. Classification d. Tagging
88. Refers to the grant of access to classified matter only to properly cleared persons when such classified
information is required in the performance of their official duties
a. Security Clearance b. Access c. Document Security d. Compartmentation
89. Is an administrative determination that an individual is eligible from a security standpoint for access to
classified matter of a specific category
a. Security Clearance b. Access c. Document Security d. Compartmentation
90. Any material that contains marks, symbols, or signs, either visible, partially visible or completely invisible that
may be presently or ultimately convey a meaning or message to someone.
a. Information b. Patent c. Document d. Property
91. A Circular issued by BSP concerning regulations on Bank protection.
a. Circular 620 b. Circular 621 c. Circular 622 d. Circular 623
92. An Act prohibiting the wiretapping in the Philippines.
a. RA 4197 b. RA 4198 c. RA 4199 d. RA 4200
93. The monitoring of telephone conversations by a third party, often by covert means.
a. Wiretapping b. Bugging c. Eavesdropping c. All of the above
94. The Court may allow any Law Enforcement Agency to conduct wiretapping in any offense under RPC.
95. Interception of communication using an electronic device
a. Eavesdropping b. Wiretapping c. Bugging c. Encoding
96. Security guard even not in duty can effect a warrantless arrest as long it is accordance in Rules of Court.
97. One of the basic principles of the security which states “cannot be delegated but the security tasks can be
assigned”.
a. Compartmentation
b. Security remain constant
c. Command responsibility
d. Concern of all personnel
98. An acts or conditions affecting the safe of operation of the facility. It includes sabotage, espionage.
a. Man made hazards b. Employee vulnerability c. Risk d. Natural phenomena
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99. One of the purposes of the perimeter barrier is to expose the perimeter of the area to be secured.
100. A house like structures above the perimeter barrier which increases the range of observation.
a. Top guard b. Wire Fence c. Towers d. Security lighting
ANSWER KEY IN SECURITY MANAGEMENT
1) B 48) B 95)C
2) A 49) C 96)A
3) C 50) B 97)C
4) D 51) A 98)A
5) A 52) C 99)B
6) B 53) A 100)C
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7) A 54) D
8) C 55) C
9) A 56) A
10) B 57) B
11) C 58) A
12) B 59) C
13) A 60) D
14) C 61) A
15) D 62) B
16) A 63) A
17) B 64) C
18) C 65) B
19) D 66) A
20) A 67) C
21) B 68) D
22) C 69) B
23) C 70) A
24) B 71) C
25) C 72) B
26) A 73) A
27) C 74) C
28) C 75) A
29) B 76) B
30) B 77)C
31) D 78)D
32) B 79)A
33) A 80)C
34) C 81)A
35) B 82)C
36) B 83)A
37) C 84)B
38) B 85)D
39) D 86)C
40) D 87)A
41) C 88)D
42) A 89)A
43) D 90)C
44) B 91)A
45) B 92)D
46) B 93)A
47) D 94)B
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Intelligence and Secret Service Reviewer 1
1. Knowledge of a possible or actual enemy or area of operations
acquired by the collection,evaluation and interpretation of
military information.
A. Combat intelligence
B. Police Intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. Counter intelligence

2. Knowledge of the enemy,weather and the terrain that is used
in the planning and conduct of tactical operations.
B. Police intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. Counter-intelligence

3. Activity pertains to all security control measures designed to
ensure the safeguarding of information against espionage,
personnel against subversion and installations or material
against sabotage.
B. Police intelligence
C. Military intelligence
D. Counter intelligence

4. Those which seek to conceal information from the enemy.
A. Passive counter intelligence measures
B. Active counter intelligence measures
C. Strategic intelligence
D. Tactical intelligence

5. Those that actively block the enemy's attempt to gain information
of enemy's effort to engage in sabotage or subversion.
A. Passive counter intelligence measures
B. Active counter intelligence measures
C. Strategic intelligence
D. Tactical intelligence

6. When the source of the information comes from a police
intelligence officer of long experience and extensive background,
the evaluation of reliability of information is labelled.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

7. When there is no adequate basis estimating the reliability of an
information,the evaluation of the reliability of the information is
labelled.
A. A
B. F
C. E
D. D

8. The current head of the PNP directorate for intelligence is
A. Catalino Cuy
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B. Cipriano Querol Jr.
C. Lina Sarmiento
D. Angelito Pacia

9. Knowledge in raw form is known as
A. Intelligence
B. Information
C. Awareness
D. Cognition

10.The resolving or separating of a thing into its component parts.
A. Analysis
B. Evaluation
C. Collation
D. Collection

Remember the ff: Intelligence and Secret Service

Methods of reporting information
A. Evaluation of reliability of information - indicated by a
letter as follows:
A - completely reliable
B - usually reliable - informant is of known integrity
C - fairly reliable
D - nor usually reliable
E - Unreliable
F - reliability not judge - no adequate basis estimating the
reliability of the source.
B. Evaluation of accuracy of information - indicated by

numerals as follows:

1 - confirmed by other agencies
2 - probably true
3 - possibly true
4 - doubtfully true
5 - improbable
6 - truth can not be judged
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. A
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. A

1. Technical air sampler sensors designed to sniff for hostile
substances or parties in a dark tunnel system.
A. Chemical sniffers
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B.Tunnel sniffers
C. Dog sniffers
D. Air sniffers

2. A major electronic communications line, usually made up
of a bundle of cables.
A. Cable line
B. Trunk line
C. Telephone line
D. DSL

3. A counter-surveillance ploy in which more than one target car
or target officer is being followed and they suddenly go in
different directions, forcing the surveillance team to make
instant choices about whom to follow.
A. ABC technique
B. Star-burst maneuver
C. AC technique
D. Sudden change maneuver

4. A chemical marking compound developed by the KGB to keep
tabs on the activities of a target officer. Also called METKA.
The compound is made of nitrophenyl pentadien (NPPD) and luminol.
A. Spy dust
B. Chemical dust
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Potassium nitrate

5. A ploy designed to deceive the observer into believing that an
operation has gone bad when, in fact, it has been put into
another compartment.
A. Burned
B. Deceiving
C. Spoofing
D. Misleading

6. The special disguise and deception tradecraft techniques developed
under Moscow rules to help the CIA penetrate the KGB's security
perimeter in Moscow.
A. Silver bullet
B. Golden bullet
C. Bronze bullet
D. Titanium bullet

7. Any form of clandestine tradecraft using a system of marks,
signs, or codes for signaling between operatives.
A. Ciphers
B. Signs
C. Signals
D. Code

8. Any tradecraft technique employing invisible messages hidden
in or on innocuous materials. This includes invisible inks and
microdots, among many other variations.
A. Secret writing
B. Secret message
C. Hidden message
D. Hidden writing

9. An apartment, hotel room, or other similar site considered
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safe for use by operatives as a base of operations or for a
personal meeting.
A. Meeting place
B. Dead drop
C. Drop
D. Safe house

10.When an operation goes bad and the agent is arrested.
A. Rolled up
B. Rolled down
C. Burned out
D. Burned down

Remember the ff: Intelligence and Secret Service
1. Sun Tzu - The Chinese general who wrote The Art of War
in about 400 b.c.
2. Smoking-bolt operation - A covert snatch operation in which

a special entry team breaks into an enemy installation and
steals a high-security device, like a code machine, leaving
nothing but the "smoking bolts."
3. Information - unprocessed information or raw data.
4. Intelligence information - Information gathered or received

which is of intelligence interests.
5. Intelligence community - It is an integrated and neatly

organized entity composed of units or agencies which have
intelligence interest and responsibilities.
6. Informant - is anyone who can furnish information.
7.Rolling car pickup - A clandestine car pickup executed so

smoothly that the car hardly stops at all and seems to
have kept moving forward.
8. Terms:
1. Wanted list - It is for crime suspects with warrant
of arrest.
2. Watch list - It is for those without warrant of arrest.
3. Target list - It is for organized crime groups.
4. PIR - Priority Intelligence requirement
5. OIR - Other intelligence requirements
6. SOR - Specific order request
9. R.A. 8551 - Placed PNP as support to the AFP in

Counter insurgency operations thru intelligence gathering.
10.The intelligence cycle (PNP Directorate for Intelligence)

1. Directing
2. Collecting
3. Processing
4. Dissemination and use
1. B
2. B
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3. B
4. B
5. C
6. A
7. C
8. A
9. D
10. A

1. Ancillary materials that are included in a cover story or deception
operation to help convince the opposition or casual observers that
what they are observing is genuine.
A. Walk-in
B. Warming room
C. Window Observing
D. Window dressing

2. A surveillance team usually assigned to a specific target.
A. Window observer
B. Window dressing
C. Stake-out team
D. Watcher team

3. A location out of the weather where a surveillance team can
go to keep warm and wait for the target.
A. Warming room
B. Rest room
C. Station room
D. Waiting room

4. A defector who declares his intentions by walking into an official
installation, or otherwise making contact with an opposition g
government, and asking for political asylum or volunteering to work
in place. Also known as a volunteer.
A. Enemy traitor
B. Asylum seeker
C. Enemy defector
D. Walk-in

5. The methods developed by intelligence operatives to conduct
their operations.
A. Trade craft
B. Operational technique
C. Trade secret
D. Operational secret

6. It focuses on subject or operations and usually short term.
A. Strategic intelligence
B. Counter intelligence
C. Tactical intelligence
D. Long-term intelligence

7. Concerns with the security of information,personnel,material
and installations.
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8. Deals with political,economic,military capabilities and vulnerabilities
of all nations.

9. Tradecraft techniques for placing drops by tossing them while
on the move.
A. Tosses
B. Dropping
C. Throwing
D. Drops

10.A dead drop that will be retrieved if it is not picked up by the
intended recipient after a set time.
A. Picked drop
B. Timed drop
C. Abandoned drop
D. Recovered drop

You may want to read the ff: intelligence and secret service
A. Four Axioms of intelligence

1. Intelligence is crucial to intel security
2. Intelligence is crucial to all types of operations
3. Intelligence is the responsibility of all intelligence agencies
4. Intelligence of the government must be superior
to that of the enemy.
B. Intelligence - product resulting from the collection,evaluation

analysis,integration and the interpretation of all available
information.
- is a processed information.
C. Data + analysis = Intelligence
D. Police intelligence - used in the preparation and execution of

police plans,polices and programs.
Answers: Intelligence and Secret Service
1. D
2. D
3. A
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. C
8. A
9. A
10. B
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POLICE PERSONNEL AND RECORDS MANAGEMENT
1. The act of preparing, organizing and directing the efforts of the members of the police force for
the
attainment of the police objectives refers to:
A. Management C. Police personnel management
B. Police management D. Personnel management
2. This management theory entails that good salary and incentives must be given to workers to
ensure their hard work, innovative action and good will. This management theory was
introduced
by Frederick Taylor:
A. Scientific management C. Theory X and Y
B. Bureaucratic model D. Administrative theory
3. Theories X and Y were introduced by:
A. Frederick Taylor C. Douglas McGregor
B. Henry Fayol D. Max Weber
4. The one regarded as the Father of Scientific management was:
A. Frederick Taylor C. Douglas McGregor
B. Henry Fayol D. Max Weber
5. It involves the determination and allocation of the men and women as well as the resource of an
organization to achieve pre-determined goals or objectives of the organization.
A. Organizing C. Staffing
B. Budgeting D. Directing
6. The the task of providing competent men to do the job and choosing the right men for the right
job. It involves good selection and processing of reliable and well-trained personnel.
A. Directing C. Planning
B. Staffing D. Directing
7. It involves the overseeing and supervising of the human resources and the various activities in
an organization to achieve through cooperative efforts the pre-determined goals or objectives of
the organization.
A. Controlling C. Directing
B. Reporting D. Controlling
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8. It involves the checking or evaluation and measurement of work performance and comparing it
with planned goals or objectives of the organization, and making the necessary corrective actions
so that work is accomplished as planned.
A. Controlling C. Directing
9. The making of detailed account of activities, work progress, investigations and unusual in order
to keep everyone informed or what is going on.
A. Reporting C. Directing
B. Staffing D. Controlling
10. The management function of working out in broad outline the things to be done and the
methods
of doing them refers to:
A. Organizing C. Staffing
B. Planning D. Directing
11. the forecasting in detail of the results of an officially recognized program of operations based
on the highest reasonable expectations of operating efficiency.
A. Controlling C. Budgeting
12. This is also known as fiscal planning:
A. Budgeting C. Allocating
B. Accounting D. All of them
13. This term means to utilize the elements or units of the PNP for purposes of protection of lives and
properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order, ensurance of public safety and
other synonymous functions:
A. Employ C. Assign
B. Deploy D. Recruit
14. Supply management and real property management is a responsibility of the:
A. Directorate for logistics C. Directorate for planning
B. Directorate for comptrollership D. Directorate for research
15. The PNP budget division is under the:
A. Directorate for logistics C. Directorate for planning
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B. Directorate for comptrollership D. Directorate for research
16. The city or municipal mayor has the authority to choose the city or municipal chief of police from
the
list of how many eligible candidates?
A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 5
17. The power of city and municipal mayors to direct, superintend, oversee and inspect PNP
members
in their respective jurisdiction is termed as:
A. Administrative supervision and control C. Supervision and control
B. Operational supervision and control D. Police personnel management
18. The orderly organized physical movement of PNP elements in their respective place of
assignment
refers to:
A. Employment C. Assignment
B. Deployment D. Coordination
19. The mobile strike force or augmentation unit in the PNP during special operations such as civil
disturbance control or anti-insurgency operations is the:
A. Special Action Force C. Regional Mobile Group
B. SWAT D. All of them
20. The process by which a police officer who is recruited into the service receives formal instruction
on
the job and performs actual job functions with periodic appraisal on his performance and
progress
refers to:
A. Basic recruit training C. Leadership training
B. Field training D. Development training
21. The appropriate in-service training for PO1, PO2 and PO3 is:
A. Police basic course C. Senior leadership course
B. Junior leadership course D. Officer candidate course
22. The appropriate in-service training for SPO1 and SPO2 is:
A. Police basic course C. Senior leadership course
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B. Junior leadership course D. Officer candidate course
23. The appropriate in-service training for SPO3 and SPO4 is:
A. Junior leadership course C. Officer candidate course
B. Senior leadership course D. Officer advance course
24. The appropriate training for a SPO4 who wants to be promoted to inspector is:
A. Junior leadership course C. Officer advance course
B. Senior leadership course D. Officer candidate course
25. MNSA or other allied master’s degree is a requirement for appointment as:
A. Chief inspector C. Senior superintendent
B. Superintendent D. Chief superintendent to director general
26. The process of measuring the performance of PNP members refers to:
A. Appraisal C. Assessment
B. Promotion D. Appointment
27. The Records Management Division is headed by a Commissioned Officer with the rank of:
A. Police Senior Superintendent C. Police Inspector
B. Police Superintendent D. Director General
28. The rating system in the PNP is based on the standards set by the:
A. DILG C. Congress
B. NAPOLCOM D. PNP Chief
29. The process of increasing the rank and responsibility of police members refers to:
A. Placement C. Promotion
B. Staffing D. Development
30. Promotion in the PNP shall be based on the following, except:
A. Seniority C. Availability of vacant position
B. Merit D. Backer
31. The least consideration for promotion is:
A. Seniority C. Availability of vacant position
B. Merit D. Backer
32. All appointees under the PNP lateral entry program unless otherwise severed by competent
authority shall serve the PNP for a minimum of how many years following their appointment?
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A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 5
33. The types of promotion in the PNP are the following, except:
A. Regular promotion C. Promotion by virtue of position
B. Special promotion D. None of them
34. Promotion by virtue of position is granted after:
A. 6 months C. 2 years
B. 1 year D. 3 years
35. Filing system in which the subjects are grouped into major headings, individual folders are filed
in alphabetical order behind each heading.
A. Encyclopedic Order C. Geographical
B. Chronological Order D. Numerical
36. The power of designating a police officer on a duty or function is vested on the following officer in
their respective levels, EXCEPT:
A. The PNP Chief C. The Chief of Police
B. The Regional Director D. None of them
37. The members of the PNP draw their salary from:
A. The national government
B. The local government unit in the place where they are assigned
C. The pork barrel of the senators
D. Any of them
38. The salary grade of PNP member is equal to that of a:
A. College professor C. Members of the PDEA
B. Public school teacher D. All of them
39. Monthly retirement pay in the PNP shall be how many percent of the base pay?
A. 50 C. 70
B. 60 D. 80
40. A folder containing a set of personal records and information pertaining to an individual member
of the PNP, which serves as basis in availing of service record, leave record, PNP ID, legal
beneficiaries, authentication of photocopies, etc.
A. 201 File C. Individual Personnel File
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B. PNP Personnel File D. a and b
41. This is otherwise known as traditional or classical system of management which entails control by
superior and obedience by subordinates:
A. Scientific management C. Administrative principle
B. Bureaucratic model D. Behavioral theory
42. The word bureaucracy was coined by Max Weber from the French word “bureau” which means
office of the Greek word “cracy” or “kratos” which means:
A. Management C. Power
B. Discipline D. Law
43. The group of management theories which emphasize the importance of interaction and
cooperation
among employees in enhancing productivity refers to:
A. Scientific management C. Administrative principle
B. System theory D. Behavioral theory
44. This refers to the ultimate purpose in which the organization exist which is achievable in along
span
of time:
A. Goal C. Plan
B. Objective D. Strategy
45. This function is considered as the backbone of the police organization. This includes patrol,
criminal
investigation, traffic and juvenile delinquency and vice control:
A. Line function C. Auxiliary function
B. Staff function D. Administrative function
46. This police function includes planning, research, legal advice, budgeting and educational
services. It
is designed to support the operational activities of the police organization:
A. Line function C. Auxiliary function
B. Staff function D. Administrative function
47. The following are included under the line function, except:
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A. Patrol C. Criminal investigation
B. Planning D. Traffic management
48. The organizational structure of the PNP is:
A. Line C. Matrix
B. Line and staff D. Committee type
49. The assignment of a particular worker to a particular task which fits most his ability known as:
A. Staffing C. Specialization
B. Deployment D. Employment
50. This represents the formal relationship among supervisors and subordinates in any given
organization.
This can be visualized as a ladder, with each rank representing a higher or lower level of authority,
and is depicted in a pyramidal structure.
A. Ranking C. Hierarchy of authority
B. Authority level principle D. Scalar principle
51. The maximum number of subordinates at a given position that a superior can effectively supervise
refers to his:
A. Authority C. Delegation of authority
B. Span of control D. Authority level principle
52. The conferring of an amount of power to command and control the behavior of employees in lower
positions by a supervisor to his immediate subordinate is known as:
A. Authority C. Assignment
B. Delegation of authority D. All of them
53. This is otherwise known as the “backbone” of any organization structure. This entails that
employees
should only have one superior or boss in order to ascertain that all of them are following one
command and aimed at attaining the same objectives and not to be confused if whom will they
going
to follow:
A. Chain of command C. Unity of command
B. Span of control D. Unity of objectives
54. It is the binding spirit that enhances teamwork and cooperation in the police organization.
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a. camaraderie b. esprit de corps c. morale d. brotherhood
55. This is done to increase efficiency and assimilate supervision among PNP members:
A. Salary increase C. Disciplinary action
B. Promotion D. Performance evaluation
56. The following are the considerations for promotion in the PNP, except:
A. Merit C. Availability of vacant position
B. Seniority D. None of them
57. The required time-in-grade for promotion from PO1 to PO2 is:
A. 1 year C. 5 years
B. 2 years D. It depends
58. The PNP performance evaluation is conducted:
A. Once a year C. Quarterly
B. Twice a year D. Every 2 years
59. The PNP performance evaluation result from January to June shall be submitted on the first week
of
July, then the PNP performance evaluation result from July to December shall be submitted on:
A. Last week of December of the same year
B. Third week of December of the same year
C. First week of January of the succeeding year
D. Same schedule as the first evaluation
60. The process of attracting candidates who have maximum qualifications to be eligible for selection
procedure.
A. Recruitment C. Selection
B. Screening D. a and c
61. The chairman of the Regional Screening Committe
A. Regional Director
B. Deputy Regional Director for Administration
C. Senior NAPOLCOM official with Salary Grade 24 or higher
D. NAPOLCOM Regional Director
62. This is considered as the best method of filing majority of records for its capability to save space:
A. Horizontal filing C. Box filing
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B. Vertical filing D. Spindle filing
63. The actual placement of documents and records in a storage container refers to:
A. Filing C. Indexing
B. Classifying D. Coding
64. This refers to the time interval when a record was created until its final disposition.
A. Life span C. Birth-through-death period
B. Record cycle D. All of them
65. This contains the findings of action taken by the investigation officer based on inquiries made and
by obtaining the available facts of the case:
A. Complaint sheet C. Arrest and booking report
B. Investigation report D. Administrative record
66. This is considered as the heart of any police record. It is used as basis for analysis of offenses
and
the methods by which they are committed:
A. Identification record C. Case record
B. Administrative record D. Miscellaneous record
67. The color of folder of PNP Personnel File (PPF) for Commissioned Officers
A. Red B. Green C. Blue d. Violet
68. The color of folder of PNP Personnel File (PPF) for Non-Commissioned Officers
A. Violet B. Blue C. Green D. Yellow
69. The color of folder of PNP Personnel File (PPF) for Non-Uniformed Personnel
A. Violet B. Blue C. Green D. Yellow
70. The original copy of the notice for wanted person shall be:
A. Given to the PNP director general
B. Given to the National Bureau of Investigation
C. Placed in the person’s wanted file of the police station
D. Given to the PNP regional director
71. One copy of the notice for wanted person shall be displayed at the:
A. Premises of the police station C. Rouge’s gallery
B. City hall D. Public places
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72. The process of screening out undesirable candidates in the PNP and appointing the most
qualified
refers to:
A. Staffing C. Appointment
B. Selection D. Recruitment
73. The following are the compositions of the screening committee for PNP regional applicants,
except:
A. The PNP regional director
B. The regional chief of the personnel division
C. NAPOLCOM representative
D. Member of the media
74. The examination conducted to exclude PNP applicants who are emotionally and mentally
unstable,
psychotic and suffering from mental disorders is:
A. Medical examination C. Neuro-psychiatric examination
B. Psychological examination D. Mental aptitude test
75. PO1 to SPO4 shall be appointed by the regional director for regional personnel and by the PNP
Chief for national head quarters’ personnel and attested by the:
A. Commission of Appointment C. National Police Commission
B. Civil Service Commission D. Professional Regulation Commission
76. Police inspector to superintendent shall be attested by the CSC as recommended by their
immediate
superior and appointed by the:
A. Commission on appointment C. PNP Chief
B. NAPOLCOM D. DILG Secretary
77. Senior Superintendent to PNP Director General shall be appointed by the President upon the
recommendation of the PNP Chief and endorsement by the Chairman of the CSC and the
confirmation of the:
A. President C. Commission on Appointment
B. Civil Service Commission D. NAPOLCOM
78. The PNP Director General shall be appointed by the President, subject to the confirmation of the
commission on appointment, from among the most senior PNP officers down to the rank of:
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A. Deputy Director General C. Chief Superintendent
B. Director D. Senior Superintendent
79. The award given to a PNP who distinguished himself but dies before the granting of the award is:
A. Police medal of valor C. Police service medal
B. Police medal of merit D. Posthumous award
80. Plans which are prepared to address primary police task
A. Tactical Plan C. Management Plan
B. Operation Plan D. Strategic Plan
81. Refers to the overall gross worth and capability of an individual to assume a higher post.
a. Time in Grade C. Performance
B. Seniority in Rank D. Potential
82. Total period acquired in a certain grade in permanent status
A. Time in grade C. Performance
B. Eligibility D. Seniority in Rank
83. The concise record containing vital information, necessary for the arrest of a crime suspect is
called:
A. Modus operandi file C. Intelligence summary
B. Investigation report D. Arrest shoot and booking report
84. The first step in police applicant selection is:
A. Preliminary interview C. Medical examination
B. Physical examination D. Physical agility test
85. The test conducted to determine if the PNP applicant possesses the required strength, speed
and
coordination necessary for police work is:
A. Medical examination C. Physical agility test
B. Physical examination D. Both b and c
86. The prime purpose of conducting background investigation for PNP applicant is:
A. To determine if he has the obligation to support a child or family
B. To determine from his relatives his mental sanity
C. To determine his reputation from various sources
D. All of them
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87. The following are agility tests for PNP applicants, except:
A. Push up C. Squat jump
B. Pull up D. None of them
88. The chairman of the Regional Screening Committee for PNP applicants is the:
A. Regional Chief of the Personnel Division
B. PNP Regional Director
C. NAPOLCOM Regional Director
D. Representative from the peace and order council
89. Appointment under the PNP waiver program is:
A. Temporary C. Permanent
B. Probationary D. Casual
90. The nature of appointment of a PNP applicant who passed the regular screening procedures is:
A. Temporary C. Probationary
B. Permanent D. Casual
91. Appointment upon finishing the required PNP field training program is:
A. Temporary C. Probationary
B. Permanent D. Casual
92. The required time in grade for promotion from PO1 to PO2 is:
B. 2 years D. 5 years
93. Officer with the rank of Senior Superintendent to Deputy Director General have a time in grade
of:
94. The required time in grade for promotion from SPO4 to Inspector is:
95. Complaint against members of the PNP IAS shall be brought to the office of the:
A. Inspector General C. DILG Secretary
B. PNP Chief D. Any of them
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96. Who among the following applicants under the waiver program is the priority for appointment?
A. A who is over aged
B. B who is under height
C. C who is more than 5kgs. Heavier than his standard weight
D. D who just earned 72 collegiate units
97. The document containing the thing to be done and the methods of doing them refers to:
A. Plan C. Tactic
B. Strategy D. Technique
98. The PNP Chief is the only person allowed to give command to the entire police organization in
adherence to the principle of:
A. Chain of command C. Span of control
B. Unity of command D. Delegation of authority
99. The examination conducted to exclude PNP applicants with mental disorders is:
A. Psychological examination C. Neuro-psychiatric examination
B. Medical examination D. Oral interview
100. This is conducted to determine the motivation of PNP applicants:
A. Panel interview C. Neuro-psychiatric examination
B. Psychological examination D. Medical Examination
POLICE ORGANIZATION and ADMINISTRATION with POLICE PLANNING
PINSP DONDON B MARIBBAY, PhD Crim, CSP
Dean/ Professor/Registered Criminologist
Board Review Lecturer
1. It refers to a group of trained personnel in the field of public safety administration engaged in the achievement of
goals and objectives that promote the maintenance of peace and order, protection of life and property,
enforcement of the laws and prevention of crimes.
a. Police Administration c. Organization
b. Police Organization d. administration
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2. It is defined as the process involved in ensuring strict compliance, proper obedience of laws and related statutes. It
focuses on the policing process or how law enforcement agencies are organized and managed in order to
achieve the goals of law enforcement in the most effective, efficient and productive manner.
a. Police Administration c. Organization
b. Police Organization d. administration
3. The determination in advance of how the objectives of the organization will be attained..
a. Directing c. Planning
b. Organizing d. Controlling
4. The task of providing competent men to do the job and choosing the right men for the job. It involves good selection
and processing of reliable and well-trained personnel.
a. Budgeting c. Controlling
b. Reporting d. Staffing
5. It involves the determination and allocation of personnel as well as the resources of an organization to achieve a
pre-determined goals or objectives of the organization.
6. The forecasting in detail of the results of an officially recognized program of operations based on the highest
reasonable expectations of operating efficiency.
7. The making of detailed account of activities, work progress, and investigations in order to keep everyone informed of
what is going on.
8. It involves the overseeing and supervising of the human resources and the various activities in an organization to be
achieved through cooperative efforts the pre-determined goals or objectives of the organization.
9. It involves the checking or evaluation and measurement of work performance and comparing it with planned goals
or objectives of the organization, and making the necessary corrective actions so that work is accomplished as
planned.
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10. This is a small tribal area, during the Anglo-saxon period policing, where every person was charged in keeping the
peace and each person was under the law represented by a policeman. This is also the forerunner of the word
“town”.
a. Scotland Yard c. Tun
b. Shires d. Bow Street
11. This was an ancient method of apprehending a criminal whereby a complainant goes to the middle of the village
and shout or blow his horn to call the village to assemble and run to the direction of the culprit, who when caught is
meted with punishment without giving him the opportunity to defend himself. This system was eventually changed
in a much later date, wherein once an offender was caught, he is brought before a royal judge, but again he cannot
defend himself since the only facts permitted to be presented and given weight by the said judge were his actual
capture at the crime scene or his possession of stolen items. This method slowly developed over a period of years.
The idea of letting the punishment fit the crime later came into consideration and the trial by ordeal was done to
determine the guilt or innocence of the suspect. The modern version of this method today is what we call “citizen’s
arrest”.
a. Bow Runners c. Citizen’s Arrest
b. Hue and Cry d. Trial by Ordeal
12. The policing system during the Norman period which was claimed as the forerunner of the word “sheriff”.
a. Shire c. Shire-rieve
b. Rieve d. Constabuli
13. The meaning of the word “constable or constabuli”.
a. Horse master c. a&b
b. Keeper of the horse d. None of the foregoing
14. A group of men whose task was to run errands for the Bow Street Court. This was considered as the first
organized foot patrol.
a. Bow Street Runners c. Constables
b. Praetorian Guards d. Merchant and Parochial Police
15. He is considered as the “father of modern policing” due to his contributions to the modernization of police force, for
his principles in policing which are still being used today and paving the way for the creation of one of the most
effective and efficient police organization in the world – “the Metropolitan Police Force famously known as the
Scotland Yard”.
a. Henry Fielding c. Henry T. Allen
b. Sir Robert Peel d. Cesare Lombroso
28
16. The famous Police Central Headquarters first established by Sir Robert Peel in London.
a. Court of the Star-chamber c. Scotland Yard
b. Camp Crame d. None of the foregoing
17. This police force, also called Scotland Yard established by Sir Robert Peel in London, was viewed as the first
organized police form.
a. Metropolitan Police Force c. Bow Street Runners
b. Sergent de Ville d. Merchant and Parochial Police
18. In this theory, law enforcers are regarded as “civil servants of the community or the people”, who rely on the
efficiency of their functions upon the express needs of the people especially in the preservation of public peace
and security. This theory prevails in the Philippines based on the existing laws, concepts and principles.
a. Home rule theory c. Old Concept
b. Continental theory d. Modern Concept
19. In this theory people have no share or have little participation with the duties or connection with the police
organization. Law enforcers are regarded as “servants of the state or higher authorities”.
20. This philosophy advocates that the yardstick of police efficiency is the increasing number of arrests, throwing
offenders to jail rather than trying to prevent them from committing crimes.
21. In this concept, police efficiency is measured by the decreasing number of crimes or absence of crimes. Its
objective is the welfare of the people and the society.
22. It means “a government of a city”. It is where the word “police” was derived.
a. Politia c. Politeia
b. Patrouiller d. Polisia
29
23. This was a body of rural police organized in each town and established by the Royal Decree of 1796. This act
provided that 5% of the able-bodied male inhabitants of each province were to be enlisted in the police
organization for three years.
a. Carabineros de Seguridad de Publica c. Guardia Civil
b. Cuadrilleros d. Cuerpo de Carabineros de Seguridad Publica
24. This was created by a Royal Decree issued by the Crown on February 12, 1852, to particularly relieve the Spanish
Peninsular troops of their work in policing the towns. They were mainly composed of Filipinos who worked under
the jurisdiction of the alcalde or mayors. They followed a military structure and received semi-military training yet
lacked other dimensions of today’s police service.
25. This was organized in 1712 for the purpose of carrying outlaws of the Spanish government. They were with
carbines as its name indicates. It was the earlier version of mounted riflemen in the history of the Philippine police
system.
26. An act passed on July 18, 1901 that provides for the organization and government of an Insular Constabulary.
a. Organic Act 157 c. Organic Act 70
b. Organic Act 175 d. Organic Act 765
27. An act passed on January 09, 1901 creating the Metropolitan Police Force in Manila.
a. Organic Act 157 c. Organic Act 70
b. Organic Act 175 d. Organic Act 765
28. On October 3, 1901, Insular Constabulary was renamed as Philippine Constabulary pursuant to Organic Act 255.
Who was the first Chief of the then Philippine Constabulary?
a. Sir Robert Peel c. Brigadier General Rafael Crame
b. General Howard Taft d. Lt. Col. Henry T. Allen
29. He was the first Chief of the Philippine Constabulary when the Constabulary, after 16 years of existence, was
placed under the Filipino leadership.
a. Col. Antonio P. Torres c. Brigadier General Rafael C. Crame
b. Gen. Fidel V. Ramos d. PDG Cesar P. Nazareno
30
30. The first Chief of the Manila Police Department after its creation pursuant to Organic Act 183 on July 31, 1901.
a. Col. George Curry c. Brigadier General Rafael C. Crame
b. General Howard Taft d. Lt. Col. Henry T. Allen
31. The first Filipino Chief of the Manila Police Department when it was taken-over by Filipinos.
32. This law is otherwise known as the Police Professionalization Act of 1966. This law was passed and approved by
Congress with end in view of professionalizing police service which serves as the Code of all local police
departments in the country. This is the same law that created the Police Commission which was later renamed as
the National Police Commission as a supervisory agency to oversee the training and professionalization of the
local police forces under the office of the President.
a. Republic Act 6975 c. Republic Act 8551
b. Republic Act 4864 d. Republic Act 9708
33. This law is otherwise known as the Integration Act of 1975. This law created the PC/INP – the Philippine
Constabulary as the nucleus and the Integrated Local Police as components, under the Ministry of National
Defense. This is the same law that provided for the transfer of the National Police Commission from the office of
the President to the Ministry of National Defense.
a. Republic Act 6975 c. Presidential Decree 421
b. Presidential Decree 482 d. Presidential Decree 765
34. What article and specific section of the 1987 Philippine Constitution that provides for the establishment and
maintenance of one police force which shall be national in scope but civilian in character that shall be
administratively controlled and operationally supervised by the National Police Commission?
a. Art. III, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
b. Art. VI, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
c. Art. XVI, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
d. Art. XVII, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
35. This law mandated the abolition of the PC/INP and gave birth to the new Philippine National Police, thus known as
the “PNP Law”.
36. Who are the principal authors of Republic Act 6975?
31
a. Senators Ernesto N. Maceda and Aquilino Pimentel
b. Congressmen Jose S. Cojuanco Jr and Rodrigo Gutang
c. a & b
d. Senators Orlando Mercado and Loren Legarda
37. The first Chief the Philippine National Police.
38. Pursuant to RA 6975, the tri-bureaus of the DILG are:
a. National Bureau of Investigation, Bureau of Correction and Bureau of Customs
b. Bureau of Immigration, Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency and Land Bureau
c. Philippine Navy, Philippine Marines and Coast Guard
d. Philippine National Police, Bureau of Fire Protection and Bureau of Jail Management & Penology
39. The premier educational institution for the training, human resource development and continuing education of all
personnel of the PNP, BFP and BJMP.
a. Philippine Public Safety College c. Philippine College of Criminology
b. National Defense College d. National Police College
40. This is also known in its short title as the “DILG Act of 1990”.
41. An Act establishing the PNP under the reorganized DILG.
42. This is known as the “PNP Reform and Reorganization Act of 1998”. It envisions the PNP to be a community and
service-oriented agency.
32
43. An Act enacted on August 12, 2009, extending for 5 years the reglamentary period for complying with the minimum
educational qualification for appointment to the PNP and adjusting the promotion system.
44. A principle in police organization that dictates that there should be only one person in complete command in a
particular situation or activity and that no person should report to more than one superior officer.
a. Chain of command c. Unity of command
b. Command responsibility d. Span of control
45. A principle in police organization that dictates that immediate commanders shall be responsible for the effective
supervision and control of their personnel and unit. It is the doctrine that provides commensurate accountability to
one who is vested with management or leadership function. The very purpose of this is to prevent cuddling of
erring members of the PNP.
46. It refers to the arrangement of officers from top to bottom on the basis of rank or position and authority. It is the
unbroken flow of command from top to bottom of the police organization.
47. The relationship between superiors and subordinates.
a. Delegation of authority c. Unity of command
b. Specialization d. Hierarchy of authority
48. It pertains to the conferring of certain specified authority by a superior to a subordinate.
49. The assignment of particular personnel to particular tasks which are highly technical and require special skills and
training.
50. Under RA 6975, who shall be automatically appointed as the ex-officio Chairman of the NAPOLCOM?
33
a. The secretary of the Department of Justice
b. The secretary of National Defense
c. The Chief of the Philippine National Police
d. The secretary of the Department of the Interior and Local Government
51. Under the above-mentioned law, who shall be automatically appointed as the ex-officio member of the
NAPOLCOM?
a. The secretary of the Department of Justice
b. The secretary of National Defense
c. The Chief of the Philippine National Police
d. The secretary of the Department of the Interior and Local Government
52. The following are the powers and functions of the DILG, EXCEPT:
a. Provide assistance towards legislation regarding law enforcement and public safety
b. Exercise administrative control and operational supervision over the PNP
c. Organize, train and equip primarily for the performance of police functions
d. Establish and prescribe rules, regulations and other issuances implementing laws on public order and
safety
53. This is in charge of the external security of our country as provided for under RA 6975.
a. Philippine National Police c. Philippine Coast Guard
b. Armed Forces of the Philippines d. National Bureau of Investigation
54. This is also in charge of the internal security of our country as provided for under RA 6975.
a. The Department of Justice
b. The Department of National Defense
c. a & b
d. The Department of the Interior and Local Government
55. Pursuant to RA 8551, the PNP through information gathering and performance of its ordinary police functions shall
support the AFP on matters involving suppression on insurgency only, except in cases where the President shall
call on the PNP to support the AFP in combat operations.
a. True c. Maybe
b. False d. No idea
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54. The PNP, BFP and BJMP, shall assist the AFP in times of national emergency, declared by congress, upon the
direction of the President
a. True c. Maybe
b. False d. No idea
55. It is an agency attached to the DILG for policy and program coordination.
a. PDEA c. MMDA
b. NAPOLCOM d. PLEB
56. What is the term of office of NAPOLCOM regular and full-time commissioners?
a. 4 years without reappointment or retention c. 6 years without reappointment or retention
b. 5 years without reappointment or retention d. 7 years without reappointment or retention
57. Which among the following is the power and function of the NAPOLCOM?
a. Provide assistance towards legislation regarding law enforcement and public safety
b. Exercise administrative control and operational supervision over the PNP
c. Organize, train and equip primarily for the performance of police functions
d. Establish and prescribe rules, regulations and other issuances implementing laws on public order and
safety
58. It decides cases on appeal from decisions rendered by officers other than the PNP Chief, the Mayor and the PLEB.
a. National Appellate Board c. Court of Appeals
b. Regional Appellate Board d. Kangaroo Court
59. It decides cases on appeal from decisions rendered by the PNP Chief.
a. National Appellate Board c. Court of Appeals
b. Regional Appellate Board d. Kangaroo Court
60. It refers to the primary law enforcement agency in the country?
a. Philippine National Police c. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
b. National Bureau of Investigation d. Armed Forces of the Philippines
61. Pursuant to its constitutional mandate, the Philippine National Police is:
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a. National in scope c. National in scope and Civilian in character
b. Civilian in character d. National in scope and Military in character
62. This means that the PNP is a nationwide government organization whose jurisdiction covers the entire breadth of
the Philippine archipelago.
63. This also means that the PNP is not a part of the military, although it retains some military attributes such as
discipline.
64. What is the position of the head of the Philippine National Police?
a. Deputy Chief PNP for Administration c. Chief Directorial Staff
b. Deputy Chief PNP for Operation d. Chief PNP
65. The highest ranking police official in the PNP organization.
66. What is the rank of the Chief PNP?
a. Police Deputy Director General c. Police Director General
b. Police Director d. Police Chief Superintendent
67. What is the term of office of the Chief PNP?
a. 4 years c. 6 years
b. 2 years d. 9 years
68. Can the term of office of the Chief PNP be extended? In what circumstances and who may extend it?
a. No, there’s no such law that provides for the extension of the term of office of the Chief PNP
b. Yes, by the President of the Philippines, in times of war or national emergency declared by congress and the
executive
c. Yes, by the Secretary of the DILG, in times of war or national emergency declared by congress and the
executive
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d. Yes, either by the Secretary of the DILG or the President of the Philippines, in times of war or national
emergency declared by congress and the executive
69. How many years may the President of the Philippines extend the term of office of the Chief PNP in times of war or
national emergency declared by congress and the executive itself?
a. 6 months to 1 year depending on the gravity of the situation

b. 2 years depending on the gravity of the situation c. 3
years depending on the gravity of the situation d. 4
years depending on the gravity of the situation
70. He is the second man in command with the rank of Police Deputy Director General.
71. He is the third man in command with the rank of Police Deputy Director General.
72. He is the fourth man in command with the rank of Police Deputy Director General.
a. Deputy Chief PNP for Administration c. The Chief Directorial Staff
73. Which among the following are the powers and functions of the Chief PNP?
a. Directs and controls tactical as well as strategic movements, deployments, placements, utilizations of the
PNP or any of its units and personnel, including equipment, facilities and other resources
b. Delegates to subordinate officials with respect to the units under their respective commands in accordance
with the rules and regulations prescribed by the commission
c. Issues detailed implementing policies and instructions regarding personnel, funds, properties, records,
correspondences and such other matters as may be necessary to effectively carry out the functions, powers
and duties of the bureau
d. All of the foregoing
74. The head of the Directorial Staffs with the rank of Police Deputy Director General.
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75. It exercises control, direction, coordination and monitoring of all PNP operations, including patrolling, conduct of
search, arrest and seizures, aviation security, maritime security, civil disturbance management, civil security and
traffic management; and prepares, coordinates and issues operational plans, orders and directives.
a. Directorate for Personnel and Records Management c. Directorate for intelligence b.

Directorate for Operations d. Directorate for Logistics
76. It develops policies, rules and procedures for logistical activities like procurement, planning, maintenance,
installation and transportation.

77. Formulates plans and policies, coordinates and supervises the performance of intelligence activities of the PNP;
evaluates and integrates all intelligence projects and efforts, and specifically provides intelligence information for
the use of the command group; and determines foreign intelligence objectives and directs and controls foreign
intelligence assignments.

78. Manages the recruitment and appointments of PNP personnel; plans for the transfer and assignment of personnel
as well as the adjustment of qualification standards; assesses personnel fitness and performance; and records,
processes and administers application of leaves and other benefits.
a. Directorate for Personnel and Records Management c. Directorate for intelligence

b. Directorate for Operations d. Directorate for Logistics
79. Plans, directs, coordinates and supervises the performance of police community relations programs, projects and
activities of the PNP.
a. Directorate for Police Community Relations c. Directorate for Research and Development
b. Directorate for Comptrollership d. Directorate for Integrated Police Operations
80. Undertakes financial management and internal auditing and management functions; prepares the PNP annual
budget and formulates policies, procedures and guidelines on auditing and accounting, reporting and general
financial management; and monitors the implementation of financial programs of the PNP.
81. Directs and supervises the conduct of inter-regional anti-criminality, counter-terrorism and counter-insurgency
against lawless elements which transcend regional boundaries and provides a system for the promotion of socio-
economic growth.
82. It reviews, studies and develops standards for weapons, clothings, transportations, communications, criminalistics
equipment and other materials for use of the PNP.
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83. Formulates policies, rules, procedures and standards for the conduct of investigation as well as research and
development efforts for improving or strengthening the delivery of investigation services; and directs monitors and
supervises all investigating units of the PNP.
a. Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
b. Directorate for Investigation & Detective Management
c. Directorate for Information and Communication Technology Management
d. Directorate for Plans
84. Develops plans for the PNP organizational and force development and for the conduct of research and
development projects; and performs project management functions for inter-agency and international initiatives for
the development of the PNP and for the performance of strategic programs and activities.
85. Formulates plans and policies on the career development of PNP members; formulates doctrines pertaining to
organization, administration and operations of PNP; and determines training requirements of the PNP personnel
and units and formulates training programs and directives for the purpose.
86. Assists the Chief PNP in policy formulation and managing information, electronics and communications technology
resources to promote, develop, and regulate integrated and strategic ICT systems, and reliable and efficient
communications infrastructure in support to the PNP mission.
87. It provides support for the security, management of traffic flows and maintenance of the national headquarters.
a. Engineering Service c. Training Service
b. Headquarters Support Service d. Legal Service
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88. It provides career and specialized training programs for PNP personnel in order to upgrade their professional
knowledge and skills necessary to cope with the challenges in public safety and social defense.
89. Formulates policies, plans and procedures in the management of engineering services, land utilization and on-
based or off-based housing activities.
90. Provides spiritual and counseling services for the moral growth of PNP personnel and their dependents.
a. Finance Service c. Logistics Support Service
b. Health Service d. Chaplain Service
91. It serves as the PNP legal counsel as well as represents the PNP in all criminal and civil actions before the courts
in coordination with the office of the Solicitor General. It also serves as adjudicative unit in the processing of claims
for benefits of retirees and separated PNP personnel.
92. Responsible for providing medical and dental services to the PNP personnel and their direct dependents and other
authorized civilians.
93. Responsible for disbursement of all funds of the PNP and the accounting of the same.
94. Responsible for the procurement, distribution and management of all the logistical requirements of the PNP
including firearms and ammunitions.
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95. Formulates and implements information technology policies, plans and programs of the PNP.
a. Information Technology Management Service c. Directorate for Plans
b. Communications and Electronic Service d. Personnel and Retirement Benefits Service
96. It operates, maintains and ensures coordination between and among PNP units and offices in the acquisition,
distribution and operation of communications and electronics facilities.
97. Responsible for the processing of claims and benefits of personnel PNP personnel, retirees and separated PNP
personnel and their direct dependents.
98. It is the primary unit responsible for the implementation of the pertinent laws on cybercrimes and anti-cybercrime
campaigns of the PNP and the national government. It focuses on cybercrime offenses, computer-related
offenses, and other content-related offenses such as cybersex, child pornography, unsolicited commercial
communication, and other related offenses.
a. Anti-Cybercrime Group c. Aviation Group
b. Anti-Kidnapping Group d. Highway Patrol Group
99. In coordination with the Airport authorities, it secures all the country’s airport against offensive and terrorist acts
that threaten civil aviation, exercise operational control and supervision over all agencies involved in airport
security operation and enforces all laws and regulations relative to air travel protection and safety.
100. The replacement of the old Police Anti-Crime and Emergency Response Force or PACER.
101. It is tasked with the enforcement of the provisions of RA 6539 otherwise known as the “Anti-Carnapping Act of
1972”.
102. It performs all police function over the Philippine territorial waters and rivers.
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a. Maritime Group c. Special Action Force
b. Intelligence Group d. Civil Security Group
103. Provides administrative services and general supervision over the organization, business operation and activities
of all organized private detectives and watchmen, security agencies and company guards’ forces.
104. It serves as the intelligence and counter-intelligence operating unit of PNP.
105. It functions as the mobile striking force or reaction unit to augment regional, provincial, municipal or city police
forces for civil disturbance control, counter-insurgency, hostage-taking rescue operations, and other special
operations.
106. It provides scientific and technical investigative aid and support to the PNP and other government investigative
agencies. It also provides crime laboratory examination, evaluation and identification of physical evidences
involved in crimes with primary emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical nature.
a. Police Security and Protection Group c. Police Community Relations Group
b. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group d. Crime Laboratory Group
107. This unit undertakes the monitoring, investigation and prosecution of all crimes involving economic sabotage,
and other crimes of such magnitude and extent as to indicate their commission by highly or professional criminal
syndicate or organization.
108. It provides security for government officials, visiting dignitaries and private individuals authorized to be given
protection.
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109. Implements PNP’s police community relations programs, and provides assistance to the regional, provincial,
district and city/municipal offices in their respective police community relations activities. This unit also accredits
volunteer Non-Government Organizations supportive of the PNP programs and relatedly assists trains, organizes,
directs and supervises such Non-Government Organizations.
110. The highest ranking police official in the Police Regional Office.
a. Chief Directorial Staff c. District Director
b. Regional Director d. Provincial Director
111. Each Police Regional Offices (PROs) except the National Capital Regional Police Office (NCRPO) are headed by
a Regional Director with the rank of:
112. The National Capital Regional Police Office (NCRPO) is also headed by a Regional Director with the rank of:
113. How many Police Regional Offices are there in the PNP?
a. 12 Police Regional Offices c. 16 Police Regional Offices
b. 14 Police Regional Offices d. 17 Police Regional Offices
114. The National Capital Regional Police Office (NCRPO) is divided into five (5) District Offices which are headed by:
a. Chief Directorial Staff c. District Directors
b. Regional Directors d. Provincial Directors
115. The five (5) District Offices are headed by District Directors with the rank of:
a. Police Deputy Director Generals c. Police Director General
b. Police Directors d. Police Chief Superintendents
116. It has jurisdiction over the cities of Caloocan, Malabon, Navotas and Valenzuela.
a. Northern Police District (NPD) c. Eastern Police District (EPD)
b. Southern Police District (SPD) d. Manila Police District (MPD)
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117. It has jurisdiction over the cities of Marikina, Pasig, San Juan and Mandaluyong.
a. Northern Police District (NPD) c. Eastern Police District (EPD)
b. Southern Police District (SPD) d. Manila Police District (MPD
118. This is formerly known as Western Police District, located in the city of Manila, and is popularly known as the
“Manila’s Finest”.
a. Quezon City Police District (QCPD) c. Eastern Police District (EPD)
119. This is formerly known as Central Police District, located in Quezon City.
120. It has jurisdiction over the cities of Paranaque, Pasay, Makati, Las Pinas, Muntinlupa, Taguig and Pateros.
121. The highest ranking police official in the Police Provincial Office.
122. At the provincial level, the PNP office is known as:
a. National Headquarters c. Police Provincial Office
b. Police Regional Office d. Police Station
123. Police Provincial Office is headed by:
124. The Police Provincial Office is headed by Provincial Director with the rank of:
a. Police Chief Superintendent c. Police Superintendent
b. Police Senior Superintendent d. Police Chief Inspector
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125. The highest ranking police official in a city or municipal Police Station Office.
a. Chief of Police c. District Director
126. At the city or municipal level, the PNP office is known as:
a. National Headquarters c. Police Provincial Office
b. Police Regional Office d. Police Station
127. Police Station Office is headed by:
a. Chief of Police c. District Director
128. The Police Station Office is headed by the Chief of Police with the rank of:
a. Police Chief Superintendent c. Police Superintendent
b. Police Senior Superintendent d. Police Chief Inspector
129. It is the systematic arrangement of the relationship of the members, positions, departments and functions or work
of the organization. It is comprised of functions, relationships, responsibilities and authorities of individuals within
the organization.
a. Line Structure c. Organizational Structure
b. Functional or Staff Structure d. Line and Staff Structure
130. This organizational structure is according to functions and specialization, and responsibilities of each member are
divided among authorities who are accountable to the higher authorities.
131. It is considered as the oldest and simplest kind of organizational structure. It is defined by its clear “chain of
command” from the highest to the lowest position in the organization which means that orders or commands must
come from the higher level of authority before it can be carried out.
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132. This type organizational structure is a combination of the line and functional structures. It combines the flow of
information from the line structure with the staff departments that serve, advise and support them. It is generally
more formal in nature and has many departments.
133. What kind of organizational structure does PNP is using?
a. Line Structure c. Line and Staff Structure
b. Functional or Staff Structure d. All of the foregoing
134. Police officers whose ranks range from Police Inspector to Police Director General:
a. Police Commissioned Officers c. PNP Non-Uniformed Personnel
b. Police Non-Commissioned Officers d. All of the foregoing
135. Civilian employees of the Philippine National Police:
136. Police officers whose ranks range from Police Officer 1 (PO1) to Senior Police Officer 4 (SPO4):
137. Their rank is higher the SPO4 but lower than Police Inspector or between SPO4 and Police Inspector.
a. PNPA Cadet c. PMMA Cadet
b. PMA Cadet d. ROTC Cadet
138. The standard manning level in rural areas is:
a. 1 police officer for every 500 residents c. 1 police officer for every 500 residents
b. 1 police officer for every 1000 residents d. 1 police officer for every 1,500 residents
139. The “rule of thumb” regarding the manning level of the police in urban areas:
a. 1 police officer for every 500 residents c. 1 police officer for every 500 residents
b. 1 police officer for every 1000 residents d. 1 police officer for every 1,500 residents
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140. What are the increased qualifications for Provincial Director under Section 20 of RA 8551?
a. Must hold a master’s degree in Public Administration, Sociology, Criminology, Criminal Justice, Law
Enforcement, National Security Administration, Defense studies, or other related Disciplines from a
recognized institute of learning
b. Members of the Bar with five years of law practice, Licensed Criminologist, or a graduate of the PNPA who
possesses the general qualification for initial appointment to the PNP
c. Letter a only
d. a & b
141. What are the increased qualifications for City Chief of Police under Section 20 of RA 8551?
a. Must be a graduate of Bachelor of Laws or has finished all required courses of a master’s degree program in
Public Administration, Sociology, Criminology, Criminal Justice, Law Enforcement, National Security
Administration, Defense studies, or other related Disciplines from a recognized institute of learning
c. Letter a only
d. a & b
142. What are the increased qualifications for Municipal Chief of Police under Section 20 of RA 8551?
a. Must have finished at least second year of Bachelor of Laws or has earned at least seventy-two units in
master’s degree program in Public Administration, Sociology, Criminology, Criminal Justice, Law
Enforcement, National Security Administration, Defense studies, or other related Disciplines from a
recognized institute of learning
c. a & b
d. Letter a only
143. The phase of getting as many applicants into process as possible or attracting candidates who possess the
minimum qualifications to be eligible for the selection procedure.
a. Screening or Selection Process c. Training Phase
b. Recruitment Phase d. All of the foregoing
144. The phase of eliminating undesirable applicants who do not meet the organization’s selection criteria.
a. Screening or Selection Process c. Training Phase
b. Recruitment Phase d. All of the foregoing
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145. Pursuant to RA 9708, PNP members who have just finished second year level or equivalent to 72 collegiate units
upon the effectivity of RA 8551 should be given how many years to obtain the minimum educational requirement
preferably in law enforcement related courses, to be reckoned from the date of its effectivity?
146. Pursuant to RA 9708, how many years of service are required for PNP members who have exhibited exemplary
performance as determined by the NAPOLCOM, to be exempted in complying with the said minimum educational
requirement preferably in law enforcement related courses?
a. 5 years of service c. 10 years of service
b. 6 years of service d. 15 years of service
147. What agency is authorized to administer the Entrance and Promotional Examinations for members of the PNP?
a. Civil Service Commission c. Both a & b
b. National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM) d. None of the foregoing
148. An examination taken by applicants to the PNP.
a. Police Entrance Examination c. Both a & b
b. Police Promotional Examination d. None of the foregoing
149. An examination taken by the in-service police officers as part of the mandatory requirements for promotion.
a. Police Entrance Examination c. Both a & b
b. Police Promotional Examination d. None of the foregoing
150. Who are exempted to take the Police Promotional Examination up to the rank of Police Superintendent since their
profession are considered relevant to law enforcement and police functions pursuant to NAPOLCOM
Memorandum Circular No. 2008-016?
a. Registered Criminologists c. Medical Doctors and Nurses
b. Members of the Bar (Lawyers) d. Both a & b
151. Appointed by the Chief of the PNP, as recommended by their immediate superiors, attested by the Civil
Service Commission.
a.Police Officer 1 to Senior Police Officer 4 (PO1 – SPO4)
b. Police Inspector to Police Superintendent (PINSP – PSUPT)
c. Police Senior Superintendent to Police Deputy Director General (PSSUPT – PDDG)
d. Police Director General (PDG)
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152. Appointed by the President upon recommendation of the chief PNP, with proper endorsement by the
Chairman of the Civil Service Commission and subject to confirmation by the Commission on Appointments.
153. Appointed by the PNP regional director for regional personnel or by the Chief of the PNP for the national
headquarters personnel and attested by the Civil Service Commission.
154. Appointed by the President from among the senior officers down to the rank of chief superintendent in
the service, subject to confirmation by the Commission on Appointments.
155. Status of appointment given to an applicant possessing the upgraded general qualifications for appointment, and
after completion by the newly recruited PO1s of the required PNP Field Training Program (FTP) for 12 months or 1
year (inclusive of the PSBRC) involving actual experience and assignment in patrol, traffic and criminal
investigation pursuant to RA 8551 and NAPOLCOM Memorandum Circular No. 2007-009.
a. Permanent Appointment c. Semi- Permanent Appointment
b. Temporary Appointment d. Semi- Temporary Appointment
156. Status of appointment given to an applicant under the waiver program due to educational and weight
requirements pending satisfaction of the requirements waived, and to the newly recruited PO1s pending
compliance of the required PNP Field Training Program (FTP) for 12 months or 1 year (inclusive of the PSBRC)
involving actual experience and assignment in patrol, traffic and criminal investigation pursuant to RA 8551 and
NAPOLCOM Memorandum Circular No. 2007-009.
a. Permanent Appointment c. Semi- Permanent Appointment
b. Temporary Appointment d. Semi- Temporary Appointment
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157. The process by which an individual police officer recruited into the service receives formal instruction on the job
for special and defined purpose and performs actual job functions with periodic appraisal on his performance and
progress. This is also known as the “On-the-job Training or OJT”.
a. Physical Fitness Test (PFT) c. Field Training Program (FTP)
b. Individual Performance Evaluation Report (IPER) d. Moral Recovery Program (MRP)
158. Which statement is true as regards to appointment under a waiver program?
a. Section 15 of RA 8551 provides for waivers for initial appointment to the PNP and mandated the
NAPOLCOM to promulgate rules and regulations to address other situations arising from the waiver entry
requirements.
b. The NAPOLCOM to issued NAPOLCOM Memorandum Circular No. 99-005 and NAPOLCOM Memorandum
Circular No. 2007-009 to address the issues and pursuant to NAPOLCOM Memorandum Circular No. 2007-
009, applicants who do not meet the required age, height or weight can apply for waiver only when the
number of qualified applicants fall below the quota that is determined at the end of the recruitment process.
c. In the year 2013, the NAPOLCOM issued again a new guidelines NAPOLCOM Memorandum Circular No.
2013-004 stating that applicants who do not meet the required age, height or weight should be given
opportunity to apply for waiver prior to the official start of or during the recruitment program when the number
of qualified applicants fall below the approved national or regional quota.
159. Which statement is true as regards to conditions on waivers for initial appointment to the PNP?
a. Waiver of the age requirement may be granted provided that the applicant shall not be less than twenty (20)
nor more than thirty-five (35) years of age. For purposes of this paragraph, one is considered to be not over
thirty-five years old if he has not yet reached his thirty-six (36) birthday on the date of the issuance of his
appointment.
b. Waiver of the height requirement may be granted to a male applicant who is at least 1 meter and 57
centimeters (1.57m) and to a female applicant who is at least 1 meter and 52 centimeters (1.52m). Provided,
that the minimum height requirement for applicants who belong to indigenous group duly certified by the
National Commission on Muslim Filipinos (NCMF) or the National Commission on Indigenous People (NCIP)
shall be 1.52m for male and 1.45m for female. Provide further that the Commission shall require said
applicants to submit appropriate proof of their membership in a certain indigenous group.
c. An applicant who is granted a weight waiver shall be given reasonable time not exceeding six (6) months
within which to comply with the said requirement.
160. What are the factors to be considered in the grant of waivers?
a. Possession of special skills in evidence gathering and safekeeping, cybercrime investigation, detection and
prevention, crime scene investigation, martial arts, marksmanship and similar special skills; special talents in
the field of sports, music or arts and culture
b. Extensive experience or training in forensic science and other legal, medical and technical services
c. Outstanding academic records and extra-curricular activities of the applicant during his school days, good
family background in law enforcement or socio-civic activities, recognized social standing in the community,
awards and commendations received, which should be indicated to the Commission En Banc that the
applicant can become a good member of the Philippine National Police
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161. The requirements shall be waived in the following order:
a. Age, weight and height c. Weight, age and height
b. Age, height and weight d. Height, age and weight
162. Pursuant to the new policy on Lateral Entry as provided for by the NAPOLCOM Memorandum Circular No. 2008-
006, who are the additional persons with highly technical qualifications who may be appointed as police
commissioned officers through lateral entry and shall commence with the rank of Police Inspector?
a. Teachers, Certified Public Accountants, and Journalists
b. Professors, Deans and Agriculturists
c. Information Technologists, Pilots and Psychologists
d. Medical Technologists, Radiologists and Call Center Agents
163. The upward movement from one classification or rank to another carrying higher benefit and more responsibility,
or the advancement of an employee from one position to another with an increase in duties and responsibilities as
authorized by law usually accompanied by an increase in salary. In short, it is the upgrading of ranks and/or
advancement to position of leadership.
a. Promotion c. Special promotion
b. Regular promotion d. Lateral Entry
164. Section 31 of RA 8551 provides that promotion for uniformed and non-uniformed personnel of the PNP shall be
based on:
a. Merits c. Service seniority
b. Availability of vacant positions d. All of the foregoing
165. A system that is gender fair and ensures that women members of the PNP enjoys equal opportunity to promotion
as that of men.
a. Salary Standardization c. a & b
b. Rationalized Promotion System d. All of the foregoing
166. This is considered in promotion when seniority is clearly and positively related to the job performance and all
other promotional factors are relatively equal among the candidates.
a. Merits c. Service seniority
b. Availability of vacant positions d. All of the foregoing
167. What agency is authorized to confirm all promotions in the PNP?
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a. Civil Service Commission c. Both a & b
b. National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM) d. None of the foregoing
168. A promotion granted to police officers meeting the mandatory requirements for position.
a. Regular Promotion c. Promotion by Virtue of Position
b. Special/Meritorious/Spot Promotion d. Posthumous Promotion
169. What are the requirements for promotion?
a. Educational Attainment and PLEB Clearance
b. Completion of appropriate Training Course and Eligibility
c. Time-in-Grade, and passing the psychiatric/psychological and drug test
170. The number of years required for a police officer to hold a certain rank before he can be promoted to the next
higher rank.
a. Educational Attainment c. Time-in-Grade
b. Completion of appropriate Training Course and Eligibility d. All of the foregoing
171. The required promotional examinations means:
a. Educational Attainment c. Time-in-Grade
b. Appropriate Training Course d. Appropriate Eligibility
172. No member of the PNP who has less than one (1) year of service before reaching the compulsory retirement age
shall be promoted to a higher rank or appointed to any other position, except:
173. Which statement is true as regards to regular promotion under RA 9708?
a. The institution of criminal action or complaint against a police officer shall not be a bar to promotion.
However, upon finding of probable cause, despite any challenge that may be raised against that finding
thereafter, the concerned police officer shall not be qualified for promotion.
b. If the case remains unsolved after two (2) years from the said determination of probable cause, he shall be
considered for promotion. In the event he is held guilty of the crime by final judgment, said promotion shall
be recalled without prejudice to the imposition of the appropriate penalties under the applicable laws, rules
and regulations.
c. If the complaint filed against the police officer is a crime involving, but not limited to, violation of human rights
punishable by reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment, and the court has determined that the evidence of
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guilt is strong, said police officer shall be completely not qualified for promotion during the pendency of the
said criminal case.
174. A promotion granted to police officers who have exhibited acts of conspicuous courage and gallantry at the risk of
his life above and beyond the call of duty.
175. Which among the following circumstances is considered a deed of personal bravery and self-sacrifice above and
beyond the call of duty, so conspicuous as to distinguish the act clearly over and above his comrades in the
performance of more than ordinary hazardous service?
a. Overwhelming number of enemies and firepower capability as against the strength of PNP operatives and
their firepower capability; or shoot-out in robbery hold-up incidents inside public places such as malls, inside
public utility vehicles and the like
b. Infiltration and penetration of the safe houses and hideouts of organized crime syndicates like kidnapping,
illegal drugs, carnapping, hijacking and terrorism
c. Conduct of rescue or disaster operations that resulted in the savings of lives and properties
176. What promotion is given to a police officer who distinguishes himself by exhibiting act of heroism in the face of an
armed enemy or in the conduct of rescue or disaster operations resulting in the loss of his life?
177. Which statement is true as regards to promotion by virtue position under RA 8551?
a. A PNP personnel designated to any key position whose rank is lower than that which is required for such
position shall, after six (6) months of occupying the same, be entitled to a rank adjustment corresponding to
the position
b. A personnel shall not be reassigned to a position calling for a higher rank until after two (2) years from the
date of his rank adjustment
c. A personnel designated to a position who does not possess the established minimum qualifications therefore
shall occupy the same temporarily for not more than six (6) months without reappointment or extension
178. Frequency of the Individual Performance Evaluation among the PNP members should be undertaken:
a. Every six (6) months covering the period from January to June and July to December
b. Annually from January to December
c. Monthly
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d. All year long
179. It refers to the process of measuring the performance of the PNP members. This is also called “Police Appraisal”.
a. Screening or selection process c. Field Training Program
b. Performance Evaluation System d. Recruitment process
180. What are the objectives of Police Performance Evaluation or Police Appraisal?
a. To provide an administrative effectiveness and efficiency in the performance of the mission and functions of
the PNP; and foster the improvement of individual efficiency, work ethics and behavioral discipline among
the PNP uniformed personnel
b. To advocate democratic principles and ideals and uphold the principle of supremacy of civilian authority over
the military; and provide a basis of professional growth and conferment of greater responsibility
c. To motivate the personnel in working to the fullest and exerting greater effort to improve themselves
181. What are the purposes of Police Performance Evaluation or Police Appraisal?
a. Serves as guide for promotion, salary increase, retirement and disciplinary actions
b. Increases productivity and efficiency of police works
c. Recognizes supervision; and informs the officer of the quality of his work for employment
182. It refers to the retirement or separation of PNP uniformed personnel from police service due to the attainment of
maximum tenure in a position, non-promotion, demotion in position or rank, relief, or other means of attrition
pursuant to RA 8551 and NAPOLCOM Memorandum Circular No. 2008-005.
a. Attrition c. Termination
b. Dismissal d. Separation
183. It refers to the maximum cumulative period for a PNP member to hold a particular position level.
a. Attrition by relief c. Maximum tenure in position
b. Attrition by demotion in position or rank d. Attrition by non-promotion
184. A PNP uniformed personnel who has been relieved from his position for just cause and has not been given an
assignment within two (2) years after his relief shall be separated or retired.
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185. A PNP uniformed or civilian personnel who is relieved and assigned to a position lower than what is established
for his grade in the PNP staffing pattern and was not assigned to a position commensurate to his grade within
eighteen (18) months after his demotion in position or rank shall be separated or retired.
186. It refers to the designation of PNP personnel to a position lower than what is established for his rank or grade in
the PNP staffing pattern.
a. Relief c. Separation
b. Demotion in position or rank d. Non-promotion
187. It refers to non-advancement to the next higher rank or position beyond the maximum prescribed period.
a. Relief c. Separation
b. Demotion in position or rank d. Non-promotion
188. A PNP uniformed personnel who have not been promoted for a continuous period of ten (10) years shall be
separated or retired.
189. A PNP uniformed personnel with at least five (5) years of accumulated active service shall be separated or retired
based on: inefficiency based on poor performance during the last two (2) successive annual rating periods;
inefficiency based on poor performance for three (3) cumulative annual rating periods; physical and/or mental
incapacity to perform police functions and duties; failure to finish the required career courses except for
justifiable reasons; refusal to take the periodical PNP physical fitness test without justifiable reasons; failure to
take the periodical PNP physical fitness test for four (4) consecutive periodic tests due to health reasons; failure
to pass the periodical PNP physical fitness test for two (2) cumulative periodic tests; or non-compliance with the
minimum qualification standards for the permanency of appointment.
a. Attrition by relief c. Attrition by other means
190. It refers to the inability of a PNP member to perform his duties and responsibilities due to physical defects as a
result of disease or injury as may be determined by the PNP Medical Screening Committee.
a. Physical incapacity c. Psychological incapacity
b. Mental incapacity d. Emotional incapacity
191. It refers to a condition where the PNP member is unable to exercise his reasoning faculties or incapable of
understanding and acting with discernment his duties and responsibilities as a result of illness or injury as may be
determined by the PNP Medical Screening Committee.
a. Physical incapacity c. Psychological incapacity
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b. Mental incapacity d. Emotional incapacity
192. It refers to the method of evaluating the physical condition of PNP members in terms of stamina, strength, speed
and agility.
a. Individual Performance Evaluation c. Psychological and Emotional Tests
b. Medical and Mental Tests d. Physical Fitness Test
193. A PNP member who is dismissed from the PNP through the different ways stated shall be retired if he has
rendered at least:
194. A PNP member who is dismissed from the PNP through the different ways stated shall be separated, unless he is
disqualified by law to receive benefits, if he has rendered at less than:
195. It refers to the termination of employment and official relations of a PNP member who rendered at least twenty
(20) years of active service in the government with payment of corresponding benefits.
a. Termination c. Retirement
196. It refers to the termination of employment and official relations of a PNP member who rendered less than twenty
(20) years of active service in the government with payment of corresponding benefits.
a. Termination c. Retirement
197. It pertains to any complaint initiated by a private citizen or his duly authorized representative on account of an
injury, damage or disturbance sustained due to an irregular or illegal act committed by a member of the PNP.
a. Criminal complaint c. Citizen’s complaint
b. Civil complaint d. Breach of Internal Discipline
198. Disciplinary authority where the offense is punishable by withholding of privileges, restriction to specified limits,
suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof, for a period of not exceeding fifteen (15) days.
a. Chief of Police c. People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)
b. City or Municipal Mayors d. National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM)
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suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof, for a period of not less than sixteen (16) days but
not exceeding thirty (30) days.
b. City or Municipal Mayors d. National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM
suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof, for a period exceeding thirty (30) days or dismissal.
b. City or Municipal Mayors d. National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM
201. Disciplinary authority for breach of internal discipline who may impose the administrative punishment of
admonition or reprimand, withholding of privileges, restriction to specified limits, suspension or forfeiture of salary,
or any combination thereof, for a period exceeding fifteen (15) days.
a. Chief of Police equivalent supervisors c. Regional Directors or equivalent supervisors
b. Provincial Directors or equivalent supervisors d. Chief of PNP or equivalent supervisors
202. Disciplinary authority for breach of internal discipline who may impose the administrative punishment of
or any combination thereof, for a period exceeding thirty (30) days.
203. Disciplinary authority for breach of internal discipline who may impose the administrative punishment of forfeiture
of salary or suspension, demotion, or dismissal, or any combination thereof, for a period exceeding one hundred
eighty (180) days.
b. Provincial Directors or equivalent supervisors d. Chief of the PNP
204.Disciplinary authority for breach of internal discipline who may impose the administrative punishment of
demotion, or any combination thereof, for a period exceeding sixty (60) days.
205. It refers to any offense committed by a member of the PNP involving and affecting order and discipline within the
police organization.
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b. Civil complaint d. Breach of Internal Discipline
206. It refers to an act or omission not involving moral turpitude but affecting the internal discipline of the PNP.
a. Grave offense c. Criminal offense
b. Minor offense d. Breach of Internal Discipline
207. The multiple filing of complaints either criminal or administrative involving the same cause of action to different
courts or quasi-judicial bodies.
a. Window shopping c. Forum shopping
b. Double jeopardy d. All of the foregoing
208. It refers to offenses where the maximum penalty is dismissal from the service.
b. Summary dismissal case d. Breach of Internal Discipline
209. Who among the following has summary dismissal power over the PNP members.
a. Regional Directors c. National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM
b. PNP Chief d. All of the foregoing
210. Which among the following cases shall be considered as ground for summary dismissal?
a. When the charge is serious and the evidence of guilt is strong
b. When the respondent is a recidivist or has been repeatedly charged and there are reasonable grounds to
believe that he is guilty of the charges
c. When the respondent is guilty of a serious offense involving conduct unbecoming a police officer.
211. A body created pursuant to RA 6975 to handle, investigate and decide citizen’s complaint against erring officers
and members of the PNP.
a. Ombudsman c. National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM
b. Philippine Public Safety College (PPSC) d. People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)
212. Who composes the PLEB?
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a. Any member of the sanggniang panlundsod/bayan chosen by his respective sanggunian
b. Any barangay chairman of the city or municipality concerned chosen by the association of barangay
chairmen
c. Three (3) other members who are removable only for cause to be chosen by the local peace and order
council from among the respected members of the community known for their probity and integrity, one of
whom must be a woman and the other must be a lawyer, or in his absence, a college graduate, or the
principal of the central elementary school in the locality
213. How many days, from the time the case has been filed, should the PLEB decide on it?
a. Within10 days c. Within 30 days
b. Within 15 days d. Within 60 days
214. Decisions from the PLEB involving demotion or dismissal from the service are appealable to?
a. Court of Appeals c. National Appellate Board of the NAPOLCOM
b. Regional Appellate Board of the NAPOLCOM d. People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)
215. It is an independent unit of the PNP tasked to improve the image of the police force through assessment,
analysis and evaluation of the character and behavior of the PNP personnel.
a. Legal Affairs Service c. Internal Affairs Service

b. Discipline, Law and Order Section d. NAPOLCOM
216. In which of the following cases may the IAS conduct automatic investigation?
a. Incidents where a police personnel discharges a firearm
b. Incidents where death, serious physical injury, or any violation of human rights occurred in the conduct of
police operation; or incidents where a suspect in the custody of the police was seriously injured
c. Incidents where evidence was compromised, tampered with, obliterated or lost while in the custody of the
police personnel; or incidents where the established rules of engagement have been violated
217. What is the rank of the head of the IAS, who is civilian and appointed by the President upon the recommendation
of the Chief PNP and endorsement by the NAPOLCOM?
a. Director General c. Brigadier General
b. Inspector General d. Lieutenant General
218. Personnel of the IAS, in addition to the allowances authorized under the existing laws are granted occupational
specialty pay which does not exceed:
a. 10% of their basic salary c. 50% of their basic salary

b. 25% of their basic salary d. 90% of their basic salary
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219. What are the entry qualifications to IAS?
a. At least five (5) years of experience in law enforcement
b. Have no derogatory service records
c. a & b
d. None of the foregoing
220. Decisions rendered by the National IAS may be appealed to:
b. Regional Appellate Board of the NAPOLCOM d. Ombudsman
221. Decisions rendered by the Area Office of IAS may be appealed to:
b. Regional Appellate Board of the NAPOLCOM d. National IAS office
222. Decisions rendered by the Provincial IAS should be forwarded to the area IAS office for review:
a. Within10 working days c. Within 30 working days
b. Within 15 working days d. Within 60 working days
223. It refers to the status of any PNP member who absents himself from work without approved leave of absence.
a. Tardiness c. Walk-out
b. Absences without official leave (AWOL) d. Absence
224. It is a ground for summary dismissal of a PNP member:
a. Continuous AWOL for 30 days or more c. Continuous AWOL for 60 days or more
b. Continuous AWOL for 15 days or more d. Continuous AWOL for 180 days or more
225. Formal administrative disciplinary appellate machineries of the NAPOLCOM which are tasked to hear cases on
appeal from the different disciplinary authorities.
a. Court of Appeals c. Disciplinary Appellate Board
b. Sandiganbayan d. Ombudsman
226. It decides cases on appeal from decisions rendered by the Chief PNP and the National IAS.
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a. Court of Appeals c. National Appellate Board
227. It decides cases on appeal from decisions rendered by the Regional Director, Provincial Director, Chief of Police,
the city or municipal mayors, and the PLEB.
a. Court of Appeals c. National Appellate Board
228. A PNP personnel shall be placed under preventive suspension for a period not exceeding ninety (90) days from
arraignment, if the offense is:
a. Grave offense where the penalty imposed by law is 6 years and 1 day or more
b. Less grave offense where the penalty imposed by law is 6 years and 1 day or more
c. Grave offense where the penalty imposed by law is 12 years and 1 day or more
d. Grave offense where the penalty imposed by law is 20 years and 1 day or more
229. A PNP personnel who has been terminated or separated from the service is entitled to reinstatement and
payment of salary, allowances and other benefits withheld from him by reason of such termination or suspension
upon:
a. Conviction c. a & b
b. Acquittal d. None of the foregoing
230. The improper performance of some act which might be lawfully done.
a. Neglect of duty c. Misconduct
b. Irregularities in the performance of duties d. Misdemeanor
231. The doing, either through ignorance, inattention or malice, of that which the officer had no legal right to do at all,
as where he acts without any authority whatsoever, or exceeds, ignores or abuses his powers.
232. The omission or refusal, without sufficient excuse, to perform an act or duty, which it was his legal obligation to
perform; it implies a duty as well as its breach and the fact can never be found in the absence of a duty.
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233. It refers to the concealment or distortion of truth in a matter of fact relevant to one’s office, or connected with the
performance of his duties.
a. Disloyalty to the government c. Violation of law
b. Dishonesty d. Incompetence
234. It presupposes conviction in a court of any crime or offense penalized under the RPC or any special laws or
ordinances.
235. It consists of abandonment or renunciation of one’s loyalty to the government of the Philippines or advocating the
overthrow of the government.
236. It refers to ignorance or lack of adequate knowledge and fitness for the satisfactory performance of police duties..
237. It imports the act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction, domination, or excessive use of authority.
a. Misconduct c. Oppression
238. It generally means wrongful, improper or unlawful conduct, motivated by premeditated, obstinate or intentional
purpose.
a. Misconduct c. Oppression
239. Women’s desks in all police stations were created by virtue of:
a. PD 765 c. RA 8551
b. RA 6975 d. RA 9708
240. The function of the Women’s desk is to administer and attend cases involving:
a. Crimes against chastity c. Abuses committed against women and their children
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b. Sexual harassment d. All of the foregoing
241. How many percent is reserved for women in the PNP’s annual recruitment, training and education quota?
a. 5% c. 15%
b.10% d. 20%
242. They are deputized representatives of the NAPOLCOM in their respective territorial jurisdictions.
a. Governors c. Barangay Chairmen
b. Mayors d. a & b
243. When is the operational supervision and control powers conferred to mayors by the NAPOLCOM is suspended
and temporarily given to the COMELEC?
a. 30 days before and after any national, local or barangay elections
b. 60 days before and after any national, local or barangay elections
c. 90 days before and after any national, local or barangay elections
d. 180 days before and after any national, local or barangay elections
244. It means the power to direct, superintend, and oversee the day-to-day functions of the police such as
investigation of crimes, crime prevention activities, and traffic control in accordance with the rules and regulations
promulgated by the NAPOLCOM.
a. Operational supervision and control c. Deployment
b. Employment d. All of the foregoing
245. It refers to the utilization of units or elements of the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties,
enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order, prevention of crimes, arrest of criminal offenders and
bringing the offenders to justice, and ensuring public safety.
246. It refers to the orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the PNP within the province, city
or municipalit5y for the purpose of employment.
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247. What is the status of the members of the PNP?
a. National Government employees c. Private employees
b. City government employees d. Provincial government employees
248. How many percent of the basic monthly salary is added as longevity pay to PNP personnel for every 5 years of
service which is reckoned from the date of his appointment?
a. 5% c. 15%
b.10% d. 20%
249. Aside from the Longevity pay, which shall not exceed 50% of the basic pay, what are the other allowances given
to PNP members?
a. Subsistence allowance and hazard pay c. Cost of living allowance and other allowances
b. Quarter’s, clothing and laundry allowances d. All of the foregoing
250. It refers to any impairment of the body which renders PNP members indefinitely incapable of substantially
performing the mandated duties and functions of his positions.
a. Total permanent physical disability c. Total permanent career disability
b. Total permanent emotional disability d. Total permanent psychological disability
251. A PNP member who is permanently and totally disabled as a result of injuries suffered or sickness contracted
during the performance of his duty as duly certified by the NAPOLCOM, upon finding and certification by the
appropriate medical officer, that the extent of the disability or sickness renders such member unfit or unable to
further perform the duties of his position is entitled to:
a. One (1) year salary c. a & b
b. Lifetime pension equivalent to 80% of his last salary d. No benefits
252. If a PNP member who has been retired under permanent total disability dies within 5 years from his retirement,
his surviving legal spouse or if there is none, the surviving dependents, or legitimate children are entitled to the
pension for the remainder of the:
b. 5 years d. Lifetime
253. It refers to services rendered as a personnel of the PNP.
a. Government service c. Private service
b. Self-service d. Active service
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254. The separation of PNP personnel from the service by reason of reaching the age of retirement, or upon
completion of certain number of years in active service.
a. Separation c. Termination
b. Retirement d. Dismissal
255. Separation of PNP members from the PNP upon reaching the age of retirement which is 56.
a. Compulsory or mandatory retirement c. Retirement
b. Optional retirement d. Dismissal
256. The NAPOLCOM may allow retention in the service for an unextendable period of one (1) year to PNP officials
whose rank is:
a. Police Chief Superintendent c. Police Deputy Director General
b. Police Director d. All of the foregoing
257. Separation from the PNP, upon request of the concerned PNP member and with the approval of the
NAPOLCOM, upon accumulation of at least 20 years of satisfactory active service.
a. Compulsory or mandatory retirement c. Retirement
b. Optional retirement d. Dismissal
258. Upon retirement, a PNP member is entitled to one (1) salary grade higher than the permanent grade last held for
purposes of retirement pay. Provided, that he has served for at least:
a. 1 year of active service in the permanent grade c. 2 years of active service
b. 1 year of active service in the temporary grade d. 10 years of active service
259. A PNP member who has availed optional retirement upon accumulating 20 years of active service is entitled to:
a.10 % of the base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade
b.30 % of the base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade
c.50 % of the base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade
d.90 % of the base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade
260. How many percent is added for every year of active service rendered beyond 20 years?
a. 5% c. 3%
b.10% d. 2.5%
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261. A PNP member who has rendered over 36 years of active service and is compulsory retired upon reaching the
age of 56 is entitled to:
a.10 % of the base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade
b.30 % of the base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade
c.50 % of the base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade
d.90 % of the base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade
262. A retired PNP personnel have the option to receive in advance and in lump sum his retirement pay for the first:
263. The payment of the retirement benefits in lump sum should be made within:
a. 3 months from the date of effectivity of retirement
b. 6 months from the date of effectivity of retirement
c. 9 months from the date of effectivity of retirement
d. 1 year from the date of effectivity of retirement
264. The retirement pay of PNP members is subject to adjustments based on the prevailing scale of base pay of PNP
members in the active service. This statement is:
a. True c. Not certain
b. False d. No idea
265. The salary of a PNP member is equivalent to the salary of a:
a. Professor c. Private school teacher
b. Public school teacher d. Public prosecutor
266. Any PNP member shall retire to the next higher rank for purposes of:
a. Separation pay c. Retirement pay
b. Talent fee d. All of the foregoing
267. What is the age of compulsory retirement in the PNP?
a. 50 c. 60
b. 56 d. 65
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268. What is considered as the highest medal in the PNP?
a. Medalya ng Kagitingan (PNP Medal of Valor)
b. Medalya ng Katapangan (PNP bravery Medal)
c. Medalya ng Katangitanging gawa (PNP Outstanding Achievement Medal)
d. Medalya ng Sugatang Magiting (PNP Wounded Personnel Medal)
269. This pertains to any tangible granted to an individual in recognition of acts of gallantry or heroism, meritorious
service or skill and proficiency.
a. Trophy c. Medal
b. Ribbon d. Award
270. It refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and ribbon, which constitutes the tangible evidence of an
award.
a. Decorations c. Medal
b. Trophy d. Award
271. Medalya ng Kagitingan or PNP Medal of Valor shall be awarded only by the:
a. Chief PNP c. President of the Philippines
b. Chief PNP, Regional Directors , and Directors of National Support Units d. DILG Secretary
272. Medalya ng Kabayanihan (PNP Distinguished Conduct Medal), and Medalya ng Katapatan sa Paglilingkod (PNP
Distinguished Service Medal), shall be awarded by the:
273. Medalya ng Kadakilaan (PNP Heroism Medal), Medalya ng Katangitanging asal (PNP Outstanding Conduct
Medal), Medalya ng Kagalingan (PNP Medal of Merit), Medalya ng Kasanayan (PNP Efficiency Medal), Medalya
ng Papuri (PNP Commendattion Medal), Medalya ng Sugatang Magiting (PNP Wounded Personnel Medal),
Medalya ng Ugnayang Pampulisya (Police Relations Medal), Medalya ng Mabuting asal (PNP Good Conduct
Medal), Medalya nf Paglilingkod sa Luzon (PNP Luzon Campaign Medal), Medalya ng Pagtulong sa Nasalanta
(PNP Disaster Relief and Rehabilitation Medal), Medalya ng Paglilingkod sa Visayas (PNP Visayas Campaign
Medal), Medalya ng Paglilingkod sa Mindanao (PNP Mindanao Campaign Medal) shall be awarded by the:
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274. Medalya ng Katapangan (PNP Bravery Medal), and Medalya ng Katangitanging Gawa (PNP Outstanding
Achievement Medal), Medalya ng Pambihirang Paglilingkod (PNP Special Service Medal) and Tsapa ng
Natatanging Yunit (PNP Unit Citation Badge) shall be awarded by the:
275. Otherwise known as the “Bureau of Fire Protection and Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
Professionalization Act of 2004”.
a. PD 765 c. RA 8551
b. RA 6975 d. RA 9263
276. The Bureau under the DILG that is responsible for the prevention and suppression of all destructive fires.
a. Philippine National Police c. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. Bureau of Fire Protection d. Philippine Public Safety College
277. What is the rank of the head of the BFP?
a. Police Director General c. Fire Director
b. Jail Director d. Inspector General
278. What is the rank of the head of the BJMP?
a. Police Director General c. Fire Director
b. Jail Director d. Inspector General
279. What is the position title of the head of the BJMP?
a. Chief of the Jail Bureau c. Chief of the PNP
b. Chief of the Fire Bureau d. President
280. What is the position title of the head of the BFP?
a. Chief of the Jail Bureau c. Chief of the PNP
b. Chief of the Fire Bureau d. President
281. The BFP regional offices are headed by Regional Directors for Fire Protection with the rank of:
a. Fire Chief Superintendent c. Fire Superintendent
b. Fire Chief Inspector d. Fire Senior Superintendent
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282. The BFP provincial offices are headed by Provincial Fire Marshal with the rank of:
a. Fire Chief Superintendent c. Fire Superintendent
283. The BFP city or municipal offices are headed by City or Municipal Fire Marshal with the rank of:
a. Fire Senior Inspector c. Fire Superintendent
284. The BJMP regional offices are headed by Regional Directors for Jail Management and Penology with the rank of:
a. Jail Chief Superintendent c. Jail Superintendent
b. Jail Chief Inspector d. Jail Senior Superintendent
285. The BJMP district offices are headed by District Jail Warden with the rank of:
a. Jail Chief Superintendent c. Jail Superintendent
286. The BJMP city or municipal offices are headed by City or Municipal Jail Warden with the rank of:
a. Jail Senior Inspector c. Jail Superintendent
287. The premier educational institution for the training, human resource development and continuing education of all
personnel of the PNP, BFP and BJMP.
a. National Police College c. PNP Regional Training Schools
b. Philippine national Police Academy d. Philippine Public Safety College
288. The premier educational institution for officers of the PNP, BFP and BJMP.
a. National Police College c. PNP Regional Training Schools
b. Philippine national Police Academy d. Philippine Public Safety College
289. Upon completion of the training, graduates of PNPA are conferred with the degree of:
a. Bachelor of Science in Criminology c. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety
b. Bachelor of Science in Criminal Justice d. Bachelor of Science in Engineering
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290. The law that created the Philippine National Police Academy as the primary component of the Philippine Public
Safety College.
a. PD 1184 c. RA 8551
b. RA 6975 d. RA 9263
291. The planning that is the responsibility of the legislative branch of the government.
a. Internal Policy Planning c. Procedural or Policy Plan
b. Broad External Policy Planning d. Operational Plan
292. The planning that is the responsibility of the Chief PNP and other Chiefs of the different Units or Headquarters
within their area of jurisdiction to achieve the objectives or mission of the police organization.
a. Internal Policy Planning c. Procedural or Policy Plan
b. Broad External Policy Planning d. Operational Plan
293. It involves planning for emergencies of a specific nature at known locations. They are developed in anticipation of
emergencies such as hostage-taking, jail-break, demonstrations and other similar incidents and totally
unanticipated circumstances.
a. Administrative or Management Plans c. Procedural or Policy Plan
b. Tactical Plans d. Operational Plan
294. It deals with procedures that have been outlined and officially adapted by all members of the unit under specified
circumstances. These are guidelines for action to be taken under specific circumstances and details.
295. It pertains to plans that relate to staffing, equipping, supplying and organizing. It includes information of the police
organizational mission statement, goals, and policies; the structuring of functions, authorities, and responsibilities;
the allocation of resources; personnel management; and other concerns which characters are prevalent
throughout the agency, examples assignments and trainings of personnel; recruitment; equipment and supply
procedures.
296. It is often called work plan. It describes specific action to be taken by line or operational units. It usually focuses
on a defined community need in a specific neighborhood.
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297. It requires action or assistance from persons and other private and governmental agencies outside the
department for accomplishing the primary goal of the organization. It involves coordination with other agencies;
examples are exchange of information on wanted persons, known drug syndicates, known organized crime
groups, and stolen vehicles.
b. Extra-Departmental Plans d. Operational Plan
298. Procedures that relate to reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest, stopping suspicious persons, receiving complaints,
touring beat and the investigation of crimes.
a. Headquarters Procedures c. Special Operating Procedures
b. Field Procedures d. Criminal Procedure
299. Procedures that involves coordinated actions on activity of several officers; it include duties of the dispatcher and
other personnel concerned which may be reflected in the duty manual.
300. Operational procedures of the special units charged with the searching and preservation of physical evidence at
the crime scene and accidents.
301. Standard Operating Procedure prescribing basic procedures to be observed by all PNP units and mobile patrol
elements in the conduct of visibility patrols.
a. SOP #3 - Siyasat c. SOP #5 – Ligtas (Anti-Kidnapping)
b. SOP #2 – Bantay Kalye d. SOP #1 – Police Beat Patrol Procedure
302. Standard Operating Procedure prescribing the guideline in the conduct of inspections to ensure police visibility.
303. Standard Operating Procedure prescribing the deployment of 85% of the PNP in the field to increase police
visibility and intensify anti-crime campaign nationwide.
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304. Standard Operating Procedure prescribing the guidelines in suppressing kidnapping activities..
305. This SOP prescribes the conduct of an all-out and sustained Anti-carnapping campaign to stop/minimize
carnapping activities, neutralize syndicated carnapping groups, identify/prosecute government personnel involved
in carnapping activities, and to effectively address other criminal activities related to carnapping.
a. SOP #6 – Anti-Carnapping c. SOP #9 – Anti-Hijacking/Highway Robbery
b. SOP #7 – Anti-Terrorism d. SOP #11 – Manhunt Bravo (Neutralization of Wanted Persons
306. This SOP sets forth the guidelines and concepts of operations to be observed in the conduct of anti-highway
robbery, hold-up and hijacking operations.
307. This SOP prescribes the operational guidelines in the conduct of operations against terrorists and other lawless
elements involved in terroristic activities.
308. This SOP sets forth the objectives and concepts of operations and tasks of all concerned units in the
neutralization of wanted persons.
309. This SOP sets forth the concepts of operations in the campaign against professional squatters and squatting
syndicates.
a. SOP #12 – Anti-Illegal Gambling c. SOP #14 – Jericho
b. SOP #13 – Anti-Squatting d. SOP #15 – Nena (Anti-Prostitution/Vagrancy)
310. This SOP sets forth the operational thrusts to be undertaken by the PNP that will spearhead the fight against all
forms of illegal gambling nationwide.
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311. This SOP sets forth the operational thrusts to be undertaken by the PNP that will spearhead the fight against
prostitution and vagrancy.
312. This SOP prescribes the operational guidelines to be undertaken by the National Headquarters of the PNP in the
establishment of a quick reaction group that can be detailed with the office of the Secretary of the DILG, with
personnel and equipment requirements of that reaction group supported by the PNP.
313. This SOP prescribes the procedure and manner of conducting an arrest, raid, search and seizure or search of
person, search of any premises and the seizure of properties pursuant to the Philippine Constitution, Rules of
Court and updated decisions of the Supreme Court.
a. SOP #17 – Guidelines in the Conduct of Arrest, Search and Seizure c. SOP #14 – Jericho
b. SOP #16 – Anti-Pornography d. SOP #15 – Nena (Anti-Prostitution/Vagrancy)
314. This SOP prescribes the guidelines to be followed by tasked PNP units in enforcing the ban on pornographic
pictures, videos and magazines.
a. SOP #17 – Guidelines in the Conduct of Arrest, Search and Seizure c. SOP #14 – Jericho
b. SOP #16 – Anti-Pornography d. SOP #15 – Nena (Anti-Prostitution/Vagrancy)
315. This master plan prescribes the grand strategy to be undertaken by the PNP units on crime prevention, control
and suppression, in the total fight against all forces of criminality.
a. Sandugo – PNP Internal Security Operations Master Plan
b.Sangyaman – PNP’s Master Plan to Help Protect and Preserve our Environment, Cultural Properties and
Natural Resources
c. Sandigan – Milenyo – Anti-Criminality Master Plan
d. Sangbanat – PNP’s Master Plan on Campaign against Illegal Drugs
316. This master plan sets forth the concept of operations, operational guidelines and tasks of all PNP units in the total
fight against illegal drugs; integrating/orchestrating the activities of all concerned National Government Agencies
in the conduct of anti-illegal drug campaign at the National down to barangay levels.
Natural Resources
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317. This serves as the long range and holistic master plan of the PNP in waging an internal security support
operations nationwide. Premised on the estimate of the national situation and other considerations, it prescribes
the counterinsurgency support strategy, operational concept, scheme of implementation, service support, and
coordinating instructions in order to accomplish the PNP’s internal security support mission.
Natural Resources
318. This master plan prescribes the guidelines to be followed by tasked PNP units in assisting lead government
agencies in the enforcement of laws over Philippine territorial waters, lakes, rivers, mountain ranges, forest, to
include laws and ordinances that have been set forth to preserve, protect and enhance our environment and
natural resources.
Natural Resources
319. This master plan sets forth the strategic concepts and operational guidelines, as well as contingency plan to
ensure the maintenance of peace and order during the year-round observance of holidays, which involve great
concern on the movements of the citizens, international, national and local meetings, conferences, events, and
rallies or mass actions in protest to wide range of issues.
Natural Resources
c. Sangingat – Milenyo – The PNP’s Master Plan on Security Coverage in the 3 rd Millennium
320. This master plan sets forth the strategic concepts and operational guidelines, and coordinating instructions to be
undertaken by the PNP on disaster management.
a. Saklolo – PNP Disaster Plan
Natural Resources
c. Sangingat – Milenyo – The PNP’s Master Plan on Security Coverage in the 3 rd Millennium
321. Activities of the PNP designed to preserve internal security against insurgents, secessionists and terrorists.
Among others, it includes territorial defense operations, intelligence, combat, military and police civil relations and
psychological operations.
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a. Internal security Operations c. Internal military Operations
b. External security Operations d. External military Operations
322. What is the term of office of the Chief PNP?
323. Can the term of office of the Chief PNP be extended? In what circumstances and who may extend it?
a. No, there’s no such law that provides for the extension of the term of office of the Chief PNP
b. Yes, by the President of the Philippines, in times of war or national emergency declared by congress and the
executive
c. Yes, by the Secretary of the DILG, in times of war or national emergency declared by congress and the
executive
d. Yes, either by the Secretary of the DILG or the President of the Philippines, in times of war or national
emergency declared by congress and the executive
324. How many years may the President of the Philippines extend the term of office of the Chief PNP in times of war or
national emergency declared by congress and the executive itself?
a. 6 months to 1 year depending on the gravity of the situation

b. 2 years depending on the gravity of the situation c. 3
years depending on the gravity of the situation d. 4
years depending on the gravity of the situation
325. He is the second man in command with the rank of Police Deputy Director General.
326. He is the third man in command with the rank of Police Deputy Director General.
327. He is the fourth man in command with the rank of Police Deputy Director General.
328. Which among the following are the powers and functions of the Chief PNP?
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a. Directs and controls tactical as well as strategic movements, deployments, placements, utilizations of the
PNP or any of its units and personnel, including equipment, facilities and other resources
b. Delegates to subordinate officials with respect to the units under their respective commands in accordance
with the rules and regulations prescribed by the commission
c. Issues detailed implementing policies and instructions regarding personnel, funds, properties, records,
correspondences and such other matters as may be necessary to effectively carry out the functions, powers
and duties of the bureau
329. The head of the Directorial Staffs with the rank of Police Deputy Director General.
330. It exercises control, direction, coordination and monitoring of all PNP operations, including patrolling, conduct of
search, arrest and seizures, aviation security, maritime security, civil disturbance management, civil security and
traffic management; and prepares, coordinates and issues operational plans, orders and directives.

331. It develops policies, rules and procedures for logistical activities like procurement, planning, maintenance,
installation and transportation.

332. Formulates plans and policies, coordinates and supervises the performance of intelligence activities of the PNP;
evaluates and integrates all intelligence projects and efforts, and specifically provides intelligence information for
the use of the command group; and determines foreign intelligence objectives and directs and controls foreign
intelligence assignments.

333. Manages the recruitment and appointments of PNP personnel; plans for the transfer and assignment of
personnel as well as the adjustment of qualification standards; assesses personnel fitness and performance; and
records, processes and administers application of leaves and other benefits.
a. Directorate for Personnel and Records Management c. Directorate for intelligence

b. Directorate for Operations d. Directorate for Logistics
334. Plans, directs, coordinates and supervises the performance of police community relations programs, projects and
activities of the PNP.
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335. Undertakes financial management and internal auditing and management functions; prepares the PNP annual
budget and formulates policies, procedures and guidelines on auditing and accounting, reporting and general
financial management; and monitors the implementation of financial programs of the PNP.
336. Directs and supervises the conduct of inter-regional anti-criminality, counter-terrorism and counter-insurgency
against lawless elements which transcend regional boundaries and provides a system for the promotion of socio-
economic growth.
337. It reviews, studies and develops standards for weapons, clothings, transportations, communications, criminalistics
equipment and other materials for use of the PNP.
338. Formulates policies, rules, procedures and standards for the conduct of investigation as well as research and
development efforts for improving or strengthening the delivery of investigation services; and directs monitors and
supervises all investigating units of the PNP.
339. Develops plans for the PNP organizational and force development and for the conduct of research and
development projects; and performs project management functions for inter-agency and international initiatives for the
development of the PNP and for the performance of strategic programs and activities.
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340. Formulates plans and policies on the career development of PNP members; formulates doctrines pertaining to
organization, administration and operations of PNP; and determines training requirements of the PNP personnel
and units and formulates training programs and directives for the purpose.
341. Assists the Chief PNP in policy formulation and managing information, electronics and communications
technology resources to promote, develop, and regulate integrated and strategic ICT systems, and reliable and
efficient communications infrastructure in support to the PNP mission.
342. It provides support for the security, management of traffic flows and maintenance of the national headquarters.
343. It provides career and specialized training programs for PNP personnel in order to upgrade their professional
knowledge and skills necessary to cope with the challenges in public safety and social defense.
344. Formulates policies, plans and procedures in the management of engineering services, land utilization and on-
based or off-based housing activities.
345. Provides spiritual and counseling services for the moral growth of PNP personnel and their dependents.
346. It serves as the PNP legal counsel as well as represents the PNP in all criminal and civil actions before the
courts in coordination with the office of the Solicitor General. It also serves as adjudicative unit in the processing of
claims for benefits of retirees and separated PNP personnel.
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347. Responsible for providing medical and dental services to the PNP personnel and their direct dependents and
other authorized civilians.
348. Responsible for disbursement of all funds of the PNP and the accounting of the same.
349. Responsible for the procurement, distribution and management of all the logistical requirements of the PNP
including firearms and ammunitions.
350. Formulates and implements information technology policies, plans and programs of the PNP.
351. It operates, maintains and ensures coordination between and among PNP units and offices in the acquisition,
distribution and operation of communications and electronics facilities.
352. Responsible for the processing of claims and benefits of personnel PNP personnel, retirees and separated PNP
personnel and their direct dependents.
353. It is the primary unit responsible for the implementation of the pertinent laws on cybercrimes and anti-cybercrime
campaigns of the PNP and the national government. It focuses on cybercrime offenses, computer-related
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offenses, and other content-related offenses such as cybersex, child pornography, unsolicited commercial
communication, and other related offenses.
354. This police force, also called Scotland Yard established by Sir Robert Peel in London, was viewed as the first
organized police form.
a. Metropolitan Police Force c. Bow Street Runners
b. Sergent de Ville d. Merchant and Parochial Police
355. In this theory, law enforcers are regarded as “civil servants of the community or the people”, who rely on the
efficiency of their functions upon the express needs of the people especially in the preservation of public peace
and security. This theory prevails in the Philippines based on the existing laws, concepts and principles.
356. In this theory people have no share or have little participation with the duties or connection with the police
organization. Law enforcers are regarded as “servants of the state or higher authorities”.
357. This philosophy advocates that the yardstick of police efficiency is the increasing number of arrests, throwing
offenders to jail rather than trying to prevent them from committing crimes.
358. This law is otherwise known as the Integration Act of 1975. This law created the PC/INP – the Philippine
Constabulary as the nucleus and the Integrated Local Police as components, under the Ministry of National
Defense. This is the same law that provided for the transfer of the National Police Commission from the office of
the President to the Ministry of National Defense.
a. Republic Act 6975 c. Presidential Decree 421
b. Presidential Decree 482 d. Presidential Decree 765
359. What article and specific section of the 1987 Philippine Constitution that provides for the establishment and
maintenance of one police force which shall be national in scope but civilian in character that shall be
administratively controlled and operationally supervised by the National Police Commission?
a. Art. III, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
b. Art. VI, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
c. Art. XVI, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
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d. Art. XVII, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
360. This law mandated the abolition of the PC/INP and gave birth to the new Philippine National Police, thus known
as the “PNP Law”.
361. This law originally created the Police Commission that later on became the National Police
Commission.
a. RA 6040 c. RA 6975
b. RA 4864 d. PD 765
362. He was first Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary, to whom the national headquarters of the PNP was
named after.
a. Antonio Torres c. Rafael Crame
b. Henry T. Allen d. Emilio Aguinaldo
363. Integrated act of 1975 that established the Integrated National Police (INP), which is composed of the PC as
the Nucleus and the Integrated Local Police forces as components.
a. RA. 4864 c. P.D. 765
b. Act 175 d. R.A 6975
364. As a civilian in character, it is a non-military organization, nor is any position thereof that shall be occupied by
any active member of the AFP, whose administration is governed by the Department of Interior and Local
Government through the office of the NAPOLCOM, and its personnel qualification and security of tenure
government by the Civil Service Law.
a. NBI c. PDEA
b. PNP d. NAPOLCOM
365. It is the Agency of the Government Attached to the DILG for policy and program coordination where the Chief
holds the position as ex-officio member and the Secretary of the DILG as ex- officio Chairperson.
a.PNP c. NBI
b. NAPOLCOM d. PPSC
366. What is the role of the PNP on matters involving the suppression of insurgency and serious threats to national
security?
a. The AFP operating through the area commander is the one primarily responsible on matters involving
insurgency and other serious treats to national security.
b. The PNP is relieved of the primary role towards insurgency and other serious treats to national
security.
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c. The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP in insurgency – affected areas.
d. All of these
367. The NAPOLCOM is composed of:
a. Chairperson
b. Four (4) Regular Commissioners (three from the civilian sector who are neither an active member nor
former members of the Police or Military and one from the law enforcement sector, and at least one of
them shall be a women).
c. Chief of the PNP as ex – officio member
368. What power does the NAPOLCOM exercise over the PNP?
a. Administrative Control and Operational supervision
b. For Planning and Program formulation
c. Examination and audit PNP
d. Establishment of uniform crime reporting
369. The term of office of the four (4) Regular Commissioners _____.
a. Four years without re appointment c. Three years with reappointment
b. Six years without re appointment d. Two years with reappointment
370. R.A. 6975 provides that on the average nationwide, the manning levels of the PNP in urban areas shall be
approximately in accordance with a police- to- population ratio of _______.
a. One policeman for every seven hundred inhabitants.
b. One policeman for every five hundred inhabitants.
c. One policeman for every one thousand- five hundred inhabitants.
d. One policeman for every one thousand inhabitants.
371. The PNP shall be headed by Chief who shall be assisted by two (2) deputy chief that ______.
a. One for operation and one for administrative
b. One for peace and order and one for administrative
c. One for peace and order and one for operation
d. One for operation and one for Supervision.
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372. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board, except:
a. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the respected members of
the community.
b. Any barangay captain of the city/ municipality concerned chosen by the association of barangay
captains.
c. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglunsod
d. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of the Philippines
373. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence with the rank of ______.
a. Senior Police Officer I c. Police Officer 3
b. Police Inspector d. Police Senior Inspector
374. An appeal filed with the NAPOLCOM regional appellate board shall be decided within ______ days from
receipt of the appeal:
a. fifty c. twenty
b.Thirty d. sixty
375. The provincial governor shall choose the provincial director from a list of _______ eligible recommended by
the PNP regional director:
a. six c. five
b. Three d. four
376. PO1 to SPO4 shall be appointed by the regional director for regional personnel and by the PNP Chief for
national headquarters’ personnel and attested by the _______.
a. Commission of Appointment c. National Police Commission
b. Civil Service Commission d. Professional Regulation Commission
377. The one who exercises the power to revoke, for cause, licenses issued to security guards.
a. Chief PNP c. Secretary, DILG
b. Undersecretary for Peace and Order d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
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378. What is the rank of the PNP cadet?
a. Police Inspector c. between SPO4 and Inspector
b. Higher than SPO4 and Inspector d. both b and c
379. They are exempted to undergo the PNP Field Training Program, taking into consideration that their four- year
course includes academic subjects on core police function such as patrol, traffic and criminal investigation, and
on- the- job training in urban and rural areas.
a. Graduates of PCCR c. Holders of Master’s Degree
b. Graduates of PNPA d. Any criminology graduate
380. An award given in case an individual who distinguishes himself or herself dies before the granting of the
awards.
a. Medal of Valor c. post – mortem award
b. Posthumous Award d. 21 gun – salute
381. PO1 Pulos T. Agay is a recipient of the PNP Medal of Valor. What kind of promotion will he receive?
a. Regular promotion c. Posthumous promotion
b. Special promotion d. Temporary promotion
382. PO1 Pining Garcia was appointed to the police service on August 23, 2013. What is the current status of PO1
Garcia as a member of the PNP?
a. Permanent c. Probationary
b. Temporary d. Casual
383. Senior Superintendent to PNP Director General shall be appointed by the President upon the recommendation
of the PNP Chief and endorsement by the Chairman of the CSC and the confirmation of the _______.
a. President c. Commission on Appointment
b. Civil Service Commission d. NAPOLCOM
384. The following are the appropriate eligibilities for Police Officer 1, except:
a. Honor Graduates pursuant to P.D. 907
b. Licensed Criminologists pursuant to R.A. 6506
c. Bar and PRC Board Passers pursuant to R.A. 1080
d. Holder of a Master’s Degree pursuant to CHED Memorandum Order
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385. A doctrine that imposes commensurate accountability to those who are vested with leadership and
management functions which purpose is to the erring PNP members.
a. Command Responsibility c. Chain of Command
b. Unity of Command d. Delegation of Authority
386. The primary purpose of conducting background investigation for PNP applicants is _______.
a. To determine if he has the obligation to support a child or family
b. To determine from his relatives his mental sanity
c. To determine his reputation from various sources
d. All of them
387. The purposes of performance evaluation are the following, except:
a. It serves as a guide for promotion, salary increase or Disciplinary action
b. It increase efficiency
c. It informs the police officer of the quality of his improvement
d. None of them
388. PO1 kenneth Totnak entered the police service at the age of 25. How long will he be in the police service
before reaching the compulsory age of retirement?
389. Members of the Bar and Licensed Criminologist whose profession are germane to law enforcement and police
functions are no longer required to take promotional examinations up to the rank of _________.
a. Police Inspector c. Police Director
b. Police Superintendent d. Police officer 1
390. The PNP entrance and promotional examinations are administered by ______.
a. Philippine National Police c. National Police Commission
b. Civil Service Commission d. Philippine College of Criminology
391. PO1 Pogi entered the police service on August 1, 2013 at the age of 21. Considering that PO1 Pogi is an ideal
police officer, how old he be, before he becomes Chief Inspector?
a. 35 years old c. 52 years old
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b. 47 years old d. 49 years old
392. The PNP performance evaluation result from January to June shall be submitted on the first week of July, and
then the PNP performance evaluation result from July to December shall be submitted on ______.
a. Last week of December of the same years c. First week of January of the succeeding year
b. Third week of December of the same years d. Same schedule as the first evaluation
393. Two or more persons forming an organization must identify first the reason for establishing such organization.
They must identify the organization’s _______.
a. Strategy c. Mission
b. Vision d. Objective
394. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:
a. Establish objectives and standards c. Require completed work
b. Count the number of supervisors d. Define authority and responsibility
395. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the agency’s mission are the _____. personnel.
a. Staff c. Management
b. Supervision d. Line
396. The number of subordinates that can be supervised directly by one person tends to _____.
a. Increase as the physical distance between supervisor and subordinate as well as between individual
subordinates increases
b. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge and experience of the subordinate
c. Increase as the level of supervision progresses for the first line supervisory level to the management level
397. PNP in – service training programs are under the responsibility of the ____.
a. PNP Directorate for Plans
b. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
c. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
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d. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
398. This means controlling the direction and flow of decisions through unity of command from top to bottom of
organization.
a. Audit c. Coordination
b. Monitoring d. Authority
399. Shield in the PNP Badge symbolizes:
a. Education c. Protection
b. Core values d. Integrity
400. The National Headquarters of the PNP is based in:
a. Camp Castaneda c. Camp Vicente Lim
b. Camp Olivas d. Camp Crame
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INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT

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INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT

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INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT

1. Genuine key stolen from the owner.

15. Type of barbed wire that is formed in large coils.

54. A restricted area containing materials or operation of security interest;

ANSWER KEY IN SECURITY MANAGEMENT

Remember the ff: Intelligence and Secret Service

B. Evaluation of accuracy of information - indicated by

Intelligence and Secret Service Reviewer 3

Remember the ff: Intelligence and Secret Service

2. Smoking-bolt operation - A covert snatch operation in which

3. Information - unprocessed information or raw data.

4. Intelligence information - Information gathered or received

5. Intelligence community - It is an integrated and neatly

6. Informant - is anyone who can furnish information.

7.Rolling car pickup - A clandestine car pickup executed so

9. R.A. 8551 - Placed PNP as support to the AFP in

10.The intelligence cycle (PNP Directorate for Intelligence)

Intelligence and Secret Service Reviewer 2

A. Four Axioms of intelligence

B. Intelligence - product resulting from the collection,evaluation

C. Data + analysis = Intelligence

D. Police intelligence - used in the preparation and execution of

Answers: Intelligence and Secret Service

attainment of the police objectives refers to:

A. Management C. Police personnel management

B. Police management D. Personnel management

A. Scientific management C. Theory X and Y

B. Bureaucratic model D. Administrative theory

3. Theories X and Y were introduced by:

A. Frederick Taylor C. Douglas McGregor

B. Henry Fayol D. Max Weber

4. The one regarded as the Father of Scientific management was:

A. Frederick Taylor C. Douglas McGregor

B. Henry Fayol D. Max Weber

of doing them refers to:

12. This is also known as fiscal planning:

B. Accounting D. All of them

other synonymous functions:

14. Supply management and real property management is a responsibility of the:

A. Directorate for logistics C. Directorate for planning

B. Directorate for comptrollership D. Directorate for research

15. The PNP budget division is under the:

A. Directorate for logistics C. Directorate for planning

list of how many eligible candidates?

in their respective jurisdiction is termed as:

A. Administrative supervision and control C. Supervision and control

B. Operational supervision and control D. Police personnel management

disturbance control or anti-insurgency operations is the:

A. Special Action Force C. Regional Mobile Group

B. SWAT D. All of them

A. Basic recruit training C. Leadership training

B. Field training D. Development training

A. Police basic course C. Senior leadership course

B. Junior leadership course D. Officer candidate course

A. Police basic course C. Senior leadership course

A. Junior leadership course C. Officer candidate course

B. Senior leadership course D. Officer advance course

A. Junior leadership course C. Officer advance course

B. Senior leadership course D. Officer candidate course

A. Chief inspector C. Senior superintendent

B. Superintendent D. Chief superintendent to director general

A. Police Senior Superintendent C. Police Inspector

B. Police Superintendent D. Director General