I. For questions 1-5, complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 points) Ratner Athletics Centre A yearly membership costs (1) …………………………… Features of offered include: the Emily Pankhurst (2) …………………………… the Dalton (3) …………………………… personal (4) …………………………… at an extra charge Hours: 6 a.m. to (5) …………………………… on weekdays and 6 a.m. to 9 p.m. on weekends II. You will hear an interview with a woman called Emma Stoneham, who works as a manager in the horse racing industry. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10 points) 1. What does Emma say about her qualifications? A. She chose to study certain subjects against her father's wishes. B. She decided to do courses that dealt directly with horse racing. C. She did a postgraduate course that few people knew about. D. She was fortunate to be accepted on a specialist course. 2. How does Emma feel about what she calls the 'big names' in horse racing? A. She resents having to plan her events to suit them. B. She respects the contribution they make to the sport. C. She believes that they shouldn't receive special treatment. D. She accepts that she needs to put on particular events to attract them. 3. What does Emma particularly enjoy about race days? A. the range of people she meets B. the enthusiasm of her colleagues C. the challenge of dealing with the unexpected D. the pleasure of seeing people enjoying themselves 4. How did Emma feel after cancelling the midwinter race meeting? A. worried that inadequate precautions had been taken B. angry that bad weather hadn't been predicted C. satisfied that she'd made the right decision D. grateful for the good advice she'd received 5. As a result of cancelling the meeting, Emma has had to ______. A. put on additional race meetings B. make changes to her financial planning C. sell some land belonging to the racecourse D. postpone making improvements to facilities III. You will hear part of a public meeting held to discuss plans for a new town. I ndicate whether you think each statement is True (T) or False (F). (10 points) STATEMENTS TRUE FALSE 1. The meeting will decide which team will develop the area. 2. The first objector suggests the meeting is a waste of time. 3. Mrs West is against the idea of new towns in general. 4. Mrs. Thomas is worried about Metcalf becoming a tourist attraction. 5. Mr Lester persuades the meeting that the development is a good idea. IV. You will hear a student, Hannah Jorden, giving a short talk on the topic of soil. Complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap. (20 points) Hannah has found out that people have used soil as a (1) ______ for thousands of years. Hannah says that the increase in (2) ______ is putting pressure on the way we use soil. Pollutants from waste in the soil can enter the (3) ______ and can affect both plants and humans. Hannah has found evidence showing that waste pollution reduces the number of (4) ______ in the soil. The main cause of inorganic pollution is the (5) ______ which takes place in many countries. Hannah is interested in the fact that organic pollutants can directly affect the (6) ______ in humans. Hannah gives the example of (7) ______ as a natural cause of acid rain. Hannah has found that soil erosion caused by (8) ______ has been of interest to the media. Soil has become less fertile owing to the method known as (9) ______. The gradual extension of cultivation is in favour due to (10) ______. PART II: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (50 points) I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points) 1. On the surface, his decision seems like a mistake, but looking at the big ____, it was the right choice. A. multi-talented B. superstition C. routine D. picture 2. It's difficult for a teacher to ______ her students' interest for a whole semester. A. sustain B. resist C. account for D. recognize 3. Although I explained the situation he didn't seem to ______ the degree of danger he was in. A. seize B. grab C. catch D. grasp 4. In many places in Wales we found that place-names in English had been ______ with green paint - the work of ardent Welsh Nationalists. A. suppressed B. disguised C. obliterated D. destroyed 5. When he turned up in a ______ new sports car, I thought he must have won the football pools! A. glittering B. glowing C. shimmering D. gleaming 6. The candidate still expects to be re-elected ______ the results of the latest opinion poll. A. apart B. without C. nevertheless D. notwithstanding 7. Look at this plant. Someone has broken the stem. Well I never! A. I can’t believe it! B. It’s nothing to do with me! C. I’m sure it will recover! D. I didn’t do it! 8. Of course you won't become more intelligent if you eat a lot of fish - that's just an old ______ tale. A. maids' B. ladies' C. mothers D. wives' 9. Not until Kentucky's Mammoth Cave had been completely explored in 1972 ______. A. when was its full extent realized B. that its full extent was realized C. was its full extent realized D. the realization of its full extent 10. We are prepared to overlook the error on this occasion ______ your previous good work. A. with a view to B. thanks to C. in the light of D. with regard to 11. Living by the ocean really ______ your ______. Once you've lived there, you never want to leave. A. came in - heart B. get in - heart C. get in - blood D. came in - blood 12. There is no ______ for hard work and perseverance if you want to succeed. A. alternative B. substitute C. equivalent D. imitation 13. Does Sheila work full time at the supermarket? - No, only ______ when they need extra staff. A. in and out B. on and off C. by and by D. up and around 14. Those campers are really ______. They have no idea how to set up a tent. A. white B. blue C. green D. black 15. The investigation was instigated ______ the Prime Minister. A. on the part of B. consequence of C. subsequent to D. at the behest of 16. They were ______ tempted to relieve the shopkeeper of his three juiciest looking apples. A. sorely B. utterly C. badly D. powerfully 17. Because of the baby boom of the 1980s, preschools in the U.S. have proliferated. A. changed in philosophy B. become more expensive C. become more crowded D. increased in numbers 18. Tim: ‘______? You look so concerned.’ - Terry: ‘My final exam is coming.’ A. What for B. How do you feel C. What’s up D. Where did it go 19. The word ‘put’ rhymes with ______ A. suit B. foot C. cut D. blood 20. Trade ______ from bad to worse and staff ______ redundant now. A. has gone - are being made B. have gone - is made C. went - has made D. had gone - are made II. Read the following text which contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) Lines 1 Electromagnetic fields (EMFs) are produced any time an electric current runs through a wire or 2 an appliance. Wherever you find electricity, you will find EMFs. In today electrical environment, 3 EMFs are everywhere. Atlantic Gas & Electric has detected them near power generations, around 4 radio and transmission stations, under power lines, and near electrical outlets, lights, office 5 equipment and computer terminals. 6 The idea that electromagnetic fields could be dangerous to your health is entirely new. Soviet 7 scientists began reporting on them as early as 1972 when they noticed that switchyard workers 8 who were regularly exposed high levels of electromagnetic fields near the Omsk Power Station 9 experienced strange health effects. There were increasing levels of heart disease, nervous 1 disorders, and blood pressure changes, as long as recurring headaches, fatigue, stress and chronic 0 depression. 1 Today, power companies cannot avoid the EMF issue. Medical evidence has taken it to the fore. 1 Concerned citizens have effectively organized themselves to attract the attention of the medium, 1 their public officials and, in one instance, the management of the Oakville Power Authority. Their 2 goal is to identify the EMF problem clearly, target their objectives carefully, then make their 1 demands known as the Public Utilities Commission. If enough reports reach the Commission, it 3 will become clear that these are not isolated instances. Citizens must demand that utility 1 companies prove there is a strong need to put through more power lines in residential 4 neighborhoods. 1 5 1 6 1 7 1 8 1 9 Your answers: No. Lines Mistake Corrections No. Lines Mistake Corrections 1. 6. 2. 7. 3. 8. 4. 9. 5. 10. II. Fill each blank with a suitable preposition. (10 points) 1. If you are an ambitious person, you want to succeed in life and get ___ of other people. 2. Quick action by the police prevented fighting from breaking ___ between rival groups of fans after the football match. 3. The group rounded ___ the concert with their greatest hits. So everyone went home happy. 4. Mrs. Harris has died, and six people now lay claim ___ her house. 5. I really can’t understand why you always find fault with me. Stop making digs ___ me. 6. The children are ___ a cloud because of their bad behaviour. 7. Martin needs to get a grip ___ his finances if he’s not to face serious difficulties with the bank. 8. I can hold his failure ___ him because he never tried for a passing grade. 9. We had ___ in St. Louis for two hours, waiting for a plane to Seattle. 10. Can you put that CD on, please. I work better with music ___ the background. IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered spaces provided. (10 points) At the first recess a large boy approached him, hit him hard in the face. They fought and Francis was beaten (1. DISASTER) ______. However small boys are not skilled fighters, and though he was hurt and (2. SHAKE) ______, he suffered no serious damage. But after recess he sat at his desk, (3. WRETCH) ______ and aching, and Miss Mc Gladdery was angry with him because he was (4. (ATTENTION) ______. Miss Mc Gladdery was fifty-nine, and she was soldiering through her teaching career until, at sixty-five, she would be able to retire and, with God's help, never see any of her former pupils again. A strong Scots (5. GROUND) ______, and thirty years at Carlyle Rural School, had made her an expert (6. DISCIPLINE) ______. A short, fat, (7. PLACE) ______ woman, she ruled her three groups not with a rod of iron, but with a leather strap that was issued by the school board as the ultimate instrument of (8. JUST) ______. She did not use it often; she had only to take it from a drawer and lay it across her desk to quell any ordinary disobedience. When she did use it, she displayed a strength that even the biggest, most (9. LOUT) ______ boy dreaded, for not only did she flail his hands until they swelled to red, aching paws, but she tongue-lashed him with a (10. VIRTUE) ______ that threw her classes into an ecstasy of silent delight. PART III. READING (60 points) I. For questions 1–10, read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points) THAT SWEET SMELL OF SUCCESS There is a revolution in the retail world that cannot fail to attract shoppers’ noses. In the latest marketing ploy, smells are created in laboratories to be wafted around stares in order to (1) ______ the unsuspecting into spending more money. Secret (2) ______ of the 'designer' smells are going on in more than a hundred stores across Britain, including bookshops, petrol stations and a chain clothes shops. The tailor-made aromas include coconut oil in travel agents (to (3) ______ exotic holidays), and leather in car showrooms (to suggest lasting quality). Marketing Aromatics, a camp any specializing in this area, believes that odours are under-used as a marketing (4) ______. Until now the most frequent application has been in supermarkets where the smell from in-store bakeries has been blown among the (5) ______ to boost sales of fresh food. "We are taking things one stage further," said David Fellowes, the company’s commercial director. "We can build on customer loyalty by making customers (6) ______ a particular smell with a particular store. It is not intrusive. If it were it would defeat the object.” The smells are designed to work on three levels: to relax shoppers by using natural smells such as peppermint; to (7) ______ memories using odours such as a whiff of sea breeze; and to encourage customer loyalty by using a corporate perfume 'logo' to express a company's (8) ______. Dr George Dodd, scientific adviser to Marketing Aromatics, believes smells can affect people's moods. "It is a very exciting time. Smells have enormous (9) ______ to influence behaviour," he said. Critics say retailers are resorting to subliminal advertising. "Not telling consumers that this is happening is an (10) ______ invasion of their privacy. People have the right to know," said Conor Foley of Liberty, the civil liberties association. 1. A. entice B. trap C. force D. deceive 2. A. analyses B. investigations C. operations D. trials 3. A. remember B. arouse C. evoke D. desire 4. A. tool B. advertisement C. gadget D. gimmick 5. A. walkways B. gangways C. corridors D. aisles 6. A. join B. associate C. bond D. merge 7. A. take off B. bring back C. get through D. make up 8. A. picture B. feature C. attraction D. image 9. A. strength B. concentration C. potential D. ability 10. A. unjustified B. undeserving C. unlicensed D. unofficial II. For questions 1–10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points) Electromagnetic Fields The largest land mammal alive today is the elephant. Today, there are two kinds of elephants - the African elephant and the Indian elephant. (1) ______, this has not always been the case. Until about 10,000 years ago, there was another group, the mammoths, which unfortunately are now (2) ______. Mammoths, which lived in the intense cold of northern Russia and North America, looked very similar to modern elephants. A difference, of course, is that adult mammoths had a double layer of long hair (3) ______ their whole bodies. Some scientists point a (4) ______ at humans as the factor responsible for the extinction of the mammoths - supposedly (5) ______ mammoth bones have been found in places where humans lived. However, thanks to recent evidence, many researchers now believe changes in weather is a (6) ______ accurate explanation for the extinction of mammoths. The climate changed, and with it, the types of plants (7) ______ changed. This in (8) ______ affected the mammoths, which now had trouble finding food. The changes in climate probably took place quite suddenly, and in fact, whole mammoths have been found perfectly (9) ______ in the ice. Because mammoths and modern elephants are somewhat similar, some scientists think it might be possible to bring (10) ______ the animals by mixing DNA taken from frozen mammoths with that of an elephant. III. For questions 1–10, read the text below and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points) Continents and ocean basins represent the largest identifiable bodies on Earth. On the solid portions of the planet, the second most prominent features are flat plains, elevated pla teaus, and large mountain ranges. In geography, the term "continent" refers to the surface of continuous landmasses that together comprise about 29.2% of the planet's surface. On the other hand, another 5 definition is prevalent in the general use of the term that deals with extensive mainlands, such as Europe or Asia, that actually represent one very large landmass. Although all continents are bounded by water bodies or high mountain ranges, isolated mainlands, such as Greenland and India-Pakistan areas are called subcontinents. In some circles, the distinction between continents and large islands lies almost exclusively in the size of a particular landmass. 1 The analysis of compression and tension in the earth's crust has determined that continental 0 structures are composed of layers that underlie continental shelves. A great deal of disagreement among geologists surrounds the issue of exactly how many layers underlie each landmass because of their distinctive mineral and chemical composition. It is also quite possible that the ocean floor rests on the top of unknown continents that have not yet been explored. The continental crust is believed to have been formed by means of a chemical reaction when, lighter materials separated 1 from heavier ones, thus settling at various levels within the crust. Assisted by the measurements of 5 the specifics within crust formations by means of monitoring earthquakes, geologists can speculate that a chemical split occurred to form the atmosphere, sea water, and the crust before it solidified many centuries ago. Although each continent has its special features, all consist of various combinations of components that include shields, mountain belts, intracratonic basins, margins, volcanic plateaus, 2 and blockvaulted belts. The basic differences among continents lie in the proportion and the 0 composition of these features relative to the continent size. Climatic zones have a crucial effect on the weathering and formation of the surface features, soil erosion, soil deposition, land formation, vegetation, and human activities. Mountain belts are elongated narrow zones that have a characteristic folded sedimentary organization of layers. They are typically produced during substantial crustal movements, which generate faulting and mountain building. When continental 2 margins collide, the rise of a marginal edge leads to the formation of large mountain ranges, as 5 explained by the plate tectonic theory. This process also accounts for the occurrence of mountain belts in ocean basins and produces evidence for the ongoing continental plate evolution. 1. What does this passage mainly discuss? A. Continental drift and division B. Various definitions of the term "continent" C. Continental structure and crust D. Scientific analyses of continental crusts 2. According to the passage, how do scientists define continents? A. As masses of land without divisions B. As extensive bodies of land C. As the largest identifiable features D. As surficial compositions and ranges 3. In the first paragraph, the word "bounded" is closest in meaning to ______. A. covered B. convened C. delimited D. dominated 4. The author of the passage implies that the disagreement among scientists is based on the fact that ______. A. each continent has several planes and shelves B. continents have various underlying layers of crust C. continents undergo compression and experience tension D. continents have different chemical makeup 5. The word "specifics" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______. A. specialties B. speculations C. exact details D. precise movements 6. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ______. A. sea water B. the atmosphere C. the crust D. a chemical split 7. The author of the passage implies that ______. A. it is not known exactly how the continental crust was formed B. geologists have neglected the exploration of the ocean floor C. scientists have concentrated on monitoring earthquakes. D. the earth's atmosphere split into water and solids 8. According to the passage, what are the differences in the structure of continents? A. The proportional size of continents to one another B. Ratios of major components and their comparative size C. The distinctive features of their elements D. Climatic zones and their effect on the surface features 9. In the last paragraph, the phrase "This process" refers to ______. A. continental collision B. mountain ranges C. the rise of margins D. plate tectonic theory 10. The author of the passage implies that ______. A. the process of mountain formation has not been accounted for B. mountain ranges on the ocean floor lead to surface mountain building C. faulting and continental margins are parts of plate edges D. the process of continent formation has not been completed
IV. For questions 1–10, read the following passage.
Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i-ix in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points) List of Headings i. A business-model approach to education ii. The reforms that improved education in Finland iii. Educational challenges of the future iv. Ways in which equality is maintained in the Finnish education system v. The benefits of the introduction of testing vi. An approach that helped a young learner vii. Statistical proof of education success viii. Support for families working and living in Finland ix. The impact of the education system on Finland's economy Why Are Finland's Schools Successful? The country's achievements in education have other nations doing their homework A. At Kirkkojarvi Comprehensive School in Espoo, a suburb west of Helsinki, Kari Louhivuori, the school's principal, decided to try something extreme by Finnish standards. One of his sixth-grade students, a recent immigrant, was falling behind, resisting his teacher's best efforts. So he decided to hold the boy back a year. Standards in the country have vastly improved in reading, math and science literacy over the past decade, in large part because its teachers are trusted to do whatever it takes to turn young lives around. 'I took Besart on that year as my private student,' explains Louhivuori. When he was not studying science, geography and math, Besart was seated next to Louhivuori's desk, taking books from a tall stack, slowly reading one, then another, then devouring them by the dozens. By the end of the year, he had conquered his adopted country's vowel-rich language and arrived at the realization that he could, in fact, learn. B. This tale of a single rescued child hints at some of the reasons for Finland's amazing record of education success. The transformation of its education system began some 40 years ago but teachers had little idea it had been so successful until 2000. In this year, the first results from the Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA), a standardized test given to 15-year-olds in more than 40 global venues, revealed Finnish youth to be the best at reading in the world. Three years later, they led in math. By 2006, Finland was first out of the 57 nations that participate in science. In the latest PISA scores, the nation came second in science, third in reading and sixth in math among nearly half a million students worldwide. C. In the United States, government officials have attempted to improve standards by introducing marketplace competition into public schools. In recent years, a group of Wall Street financiers and philanthropists such as Bill Gates have put money behind private-sector ideas, such as charter schools, which have doubled in number in the past decade. President Obama, too, apparently thought competition was the answer. One policy invited states to compete for federal dollars using tests and other methods to measure teachers, a philosophy that would not be welcome in Finland. 'I think, in fact, teachers would tear off their shirts,' said Timo Heikkinen, a Helsinki principal with 24 years of teaching experience. 'If you only measure the statistics, you miss the human aspect.' D. There are no compulsory standardized tests in Finland, apart from one exam at the end of students' senior year in high school. There is no competition between students, schools or regions. Finland's schools are publicly funded. The people in the government agencies running them, from national officials to local authorities, are educators rather than business people or politicians. Every school has the same national goals and draws from the same pool of university-trained educators. The result is that a Finnish child has a good chance of getting the same quality education no matter whether he or she lives in a rural village or a university town. E. It's almost unheard of for a child to show up hungry to school. Finland provides three years of maternity leave and subsidized day care to parents, and preschool for all five-year-olds, where the emphasis is on socializing. In addition, the state subsidizes parents, paying them around 150 euros per month for every child until he or she turns 17. Schools provide food, counseling and taxi service if needed. Health care is even free for students taking degree courses. F. Finland's schools were not always a wonder. For the first half of the twentieth century, only the privilege a got a quality education. But In 1963, the Finnish Parliament made the bold decision to choose public education as the best means of driving the economy forward and out of recession. Public schools were organized into one system of comprehensive schools for ages 7 through 16. Teachers from all over the nation contributed to a national curriculum that provided guidelines, not prescriptions, for them to refer to. Besides Finnish and Swedish (the country's second official language), children started learning a third language (English is a favorite) usually beginning at age nine. The equal distribution of equipment was next, meaning that all teachers had their fair share of teaching resources to aid learning. As the comprehensive schools improved, so did the upper secondary schools (grades 10 through 12). The second critical decision came in 1979, when it was required that every teacher gain a fifth-year Master's degree in theory and practice, paid for by the state. From then on, teachers were effectively granted equal status with doctors and lawyers. Applicants began flooding teaching programs, not because the salaries were so high but because autonomous decision-making and respect made the job desirable. And as Louhivuori explains, 'We have our own motivation to succeed because we love the work.' Your answers: 0. Paragraph A: vi. (example) 1. Paragraph B: 2. Paragraph C: 3. Paragraph D: 4. Paragraph E: 5. Paragraph F: Complete the notes below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer. The school system in Finland PISA tests In the most recent tests, Finland's top subject was (6) ………………… History 1963: A new school system was needed to improve Finland's (7) …………………………… Schools followed (8) …………………………… that were created partly by teachers. All teachers were given the same (9) ……………………………… to use. 1979: Applicants were attracted to the (10) …………………………… that teaching received. PART IV. WRITING (40 points) I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the one printed before it. (10 points) 1. There is no question of my lending you my mobile phone. On ………………………………………………………………….... 2. I have frequently made stupid mistakes like that. Many's ………………………………………………………………. 3. Tom reckoned that his success was due to incredible luck. Tom put ……………………………………………………………... 4. I was the one charged with breaking the news to him. It fell ………………………………………………………………… 5. People are persuaded by adverts to spend more than they can afford. Adverts tempt ………………………………………………………. II. Rewrite the sentences below in such a way that their meanings stay the same. You must use the words in capital without changing their forms. (10 points) 1. Our children are crazy about Korean singers. HEAD …………………………………………………………………. 2. Were you at all worried about telling the truth. MISGIVINGS …………………………………………………………………. 3. He was shouting as loud as he could. TOP …………………………………………………………………. 4. The company have been reviewing their recruitment policy for the last three months. REVIEW …………………………………………………………………. 5. The prisoner was recaptured as he rushed towards the gate. DASH ………………………………………………………………….
Hội Các Trường Chuyên Vùng Duyên Hải Và Đồng Bằng Bắc Bộ Thpt Chuyên Nguyễn Trãi Tỉnh Hải Dương Đề Thi Chọn Học Sinh Giỏi Lần Thứ Xi Môn: Tiếng Anh - Khối 10
Hội Các Trường Chuyên Vùng Duyên Hải Và Đồng Bằng Bắc Bộ Trường Thpt Chuyên Nguyễn Trãi Tỉnh Hải Dương Đề Thi Chọn Học Sinh Giỏi Lần Thứ Xi Môn: Tiếng Anh - Khối 10