TRƯỜNG THTP CHUYÊN HÙNG VƯƠNG – PHÚ THỌ

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT MÔN TIẾNG ANH

KHỐI: 10
SECTION I. LISTENING (50/200)
PART 1. A Japanese girl and a housing officer are talking about her
homestay family. The housing officer takes some details from the girl.
For questions 1-5, complete the following form with NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10
points)

PERSONAL DETAILS FOR HOMESTAY APPLICATION

First name 1. ______________________
Family name Yuichini
Gender Female
Age 28
Passport 2. ______________________
number
Nationality Japanese
Course 3. ______________________
enrolled
Length of the 4. ______________________
course
Homestay time 5. ______________________

PART 2. You will hear an interview with a professional athlete called

Ann Brown.
For questions 6-10, choose the best answer (A, B or C). (10 points)

6. What does Ann say about her performance in the world

championships?
A. She was disappointed not to win.
 B. She wishes she'd been more prepared.
C. She did better than she'd been expecting to.
7. How does Ann feel about the place where she trains?
A. She finds it quite boring.
B. She enjoys looking at the scenery.
C. She pays little attention to where she is.
8. What is Ann's attitude towards the other competitors in races?
A. She avoids close social contact with them.
B. She's made a few good friends amongst them.
C. She finds it easy to talk to them when she has to.
9. How does Ann feel about being recognized in public?
A. She's relaxed about it.
B. She finds the attention exciting.
C. She dislikes signing autographs.
10. When thinking about the future, Ann _______.
A. plans around five years in advance.
B. admits to worrying about getting injured.
C. remains focused on winning important races

PART 3. You will hear two neighbors, a woman, Natasha, and a man.
Colin, talking about running.
For question 11-15, decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect.
If it is correct, write T for True. If it is incorrect, write F for False.
Write your answer in the space given. (10 points)

11. Natasha has decided to take the day off work to go running.
___________
 12. Colin found running to work was bad for his health.
___________
13. Natasha would like to wear her sports clothes at work.
___________
14. Natasha will run in the big race because she hopes to win it.
___________
15. Colin and Natasha will prepare for the big race together.
___________

PART 4. You will hear a singer called Tim Tanner who sings with his
twin brother Sam Tanner, talking about their lives and career.
For questions 16-25, complete the sentences. (20 points)
Singing twins: Tim and Sam Tanner
The name of the talent competition which the twins won is
(16)______________________.
Tim is exactly (17)______________________ older than Sam.
The twins were born in the month of (18)______________________.
The main physical difference between Tim and Sam is their
(19)_____________________.
Tim has a less (20)______________________ personality than Sam.
At school, both Tim and Sam were good at (21)___________________.
Sam started taking (22)_______________ lessons when he was thirteen.
The fact that the twins share the same (23)_____________________
sometimes leads to arguments.
Tim says a key part of the twins' image is the (24)___________________
they wear.
The title of the twins’ next album is (25)______________________.
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (50/200)
PART 1. Choose the best answer to each of the following questions.
Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. The comtemporary dialogue for me struck a slightly _______ note.
A. disembodied B. discordant C. dismissive
D. disconcerting
2. We decided to celebrate by going out and painting the town ________.
A. red B. purple C. gold D. brown
3. The series became so popular that it was moved to the ________ time
spot of 8 pm.
A. leading B. prime C. main D. major
4. The current economic _______ is very good for small businesses.
A. disposition B. whirlwind C. climate D.
daze
5. He hit the other boy reluctantly as his friends __________ him on.
A. happened B. egged C. ground D. played
6. The actors gave a very ________ performance, and the critics expressed
their disapproval in their reports the following day.
A. pie-in-the-sky B. run-of-the-mill
C. good-for-nothing D. behind-the-scene
7. He was _________ devastaled by the news.
A. utterly B. extremely C. deeply D.
immensely
8. The Red Cross is ________ an international aid organization.
A. intriguingly B. intrusively C. intrinsically D.
intrepidly
9. I know it’s got his name on the cover, but he used a ________.
A. corrrespondent B. model C. ghost writer D. fellow
10. Our lecturer _________ the importance of taking clear notes.
A. responded B. reiterated C. retained D.
recruited
11. Suppose she _______ that outrageous story circulating aroundthe
office, she’d be furious.
A. has heard B. would hear C. were heard D. had heard
12. People can make themselves walkon nails or through fire. It’s a
question of mind over ______.
A. body B. material C. matter D. facts
13. Our plan to start our own business seem ________to failture.
A. doomed B. fated C. compelled D.
designed
14. ________ my buying tuna if you detest eating fish.
 A. Is it any good B. As well as
C. It’s not much use D. There is nothing good
15. We welcome the new regulations, which become________ on the first
of next month.
A. effective B. efficient C. efficacious D. effete
16. The chemicals spilled over the road and left drivers ________ for
breath.
A. suffocating B. inhaling C. gasping D. wheezing
17. It is impossible to miss the ______ of the Generation X in America.
A. manifestation B. advancement
C. initiation D. acknowledgement
18. He has been trying to improve his grades but instead, they have
remained as ______ as possible.
A. static B. on coming C. parasitic D. virtual
19. They go to the seaside _____ they should be disturbed by the noise of
the city.
A. in order B. for C. so that D. lest
that
20. I haven’t got the time to do my own work, ______ help you with yours.
A.leaving B. let alone C. apart D. aback
aside

PART 2. Identify and correct 10 errors in the passage. Write your

answer in the numbered boxes (10 points)
The first self-service stores open in America in the 1920s but they didn’t
catch up in Europe until later, when the French forged ahead with their
massive hypermarkets. Britain lagged behind. For the first self-service shop
and the first supermarket were opened in the early 1940s, it was thought
that British housewives did not particularly want proficiency and speed.
Surveys showed that while American shoppers complained most about
delays in check-out queues. British ones rejected to being pushed and
shoved by other customers.
The essence of supermarket shopping is impersonality, with no
meditating salesman between seller and goods, only the ‘silent persuaders’
of packaging and display. Besides, there is a current trend towards
‘boutiques’, with personal service, within supermarkets – the butcher, the
baker, the fishseller – and small specialist shops and farmers’ markets are
doing a comeback in Britain. In france, where every self-respecting
provincial town, ringed by supermarkets, retains their specialist food shops
and weekly street market, the traditional co-exists with the ancient.
PART 3. Fill in the blanks with proper prepositions or adverbial
particles. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10 points)
Put the right prepositions into the gaps:
1. We met each other at the meeting ______ coincidence.
2. No one can function properly if he or she is deprived _______ adequate
sleep.
3. The concert was given ______ the auspices of the Y.M.C.A.
4. When he suddenly brought ______ the subject of genetic engineering,
there was an embarrassed silence.
5. After she ate the chocolates, her face broke ______ in a rash.
6. The situation is very confusing in that country and calls _______
diplomacy.
7. No witness of the accident has come _______ yet.
8. You shouldn’t have sent Peter that Valentine’s card. I think you’ve
scared him ______.
9. The police are trying to crack _____ on drunken drivers.
10. He was very upset when the boss pushed him ______ and promoted a
new comer to the assistant’s job.

PART 4. Fill in each blank with the most suitable form of the word in
brackets. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10 points)
Rafflesia is a rare parasitic plant species found in Southeast Asia.
Rafflesia has been 1.(LIKE) to a fungus because it lacks chlorophyll and is
incapable of phontosynthesis. Perhaps the only part of Rafflesia that is
discernible as distinctly plant-like is the flower, which is said to be the
world’S largest.
Many 2.(BOTANY) have been keen to discover why the flower is so
large, so they recently conducted 3.(MOLECULE) analysis on the plant.
This resulted in the 4.(REVEAL) that it has evolved almost 80 times from
its origin as a tiny bud to today's seven-kilo mega-bloom. Although this 5.
(ORDINARY) transformation took tens of millions of years, such an 6.
(EVOLUTION) spurt is still one of the most dramatic size changes ever
reported. Such growth rates in humans would be 7.(COMPARE) to us being
146 metres tall today.
The plant is also unusual in another way. Its smell is extremely 8.
(PLEASE) but this horrible trait attracts such 9.(POLLINATE) as flies. It is
thought that Rafflesia’s huge flower helps radiate the smell over long 10.
(DISTANT).

SECTION III: READING COMPREHENSION (50/200)

PART 1: Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or
D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10
points)
In Europe, Midsummer Night's Eve, also known as St John's Eve,
occurs on June 23rd. It originates from the pagan celebrations of the
summer solstice which were held on June 21 st. On that night throughout
Europe bonfires were lit along hillsides to (1)_____ the shortest night of the
year. It must have looked as if some kind of violent insurrection was taking
place down the coast of Scotland and England, but these signal fires in fact
had a very important purpose. Bones of farm animals (2)_____ the previous
autumn were burned and, when the fires had (3)_____, the remaining ash
was put to good use: it was spread on the fields to enrich the land and
ensure a good harvest. The word 'bonfire' is (4)_____ from 'bone fire'.
In Brazil too St John's Eve means bonfires and fireworks. Another
quaint tradition involves the (5)_____ of small paper hot-air balloons,
although they are prohibited by law in the cities because of the fire (6)_____.
Bonfires mark the beginning of spring rather than the summer in Sweden
and are lit on the last night of April. In the Swedish Midsummer's Eve
(7)_____, held on June 24th, a large pole, decorated with flowers and leaves,
is placed in the ground.
Thistles also have a significant role in the celebration of
Midsummer's Night in Europe. In the past they were thought to (8)_____
witches. The pretty, prickly plant was nailed over barn doors and used in
wreaths, the circular shape being a symbol of the turning of the seasons.
Wheels laced with straw and soaked in pitch were lit from the bonfires and
then rolled down hills.
There is less risk of fire in a (9)_____ tradition to many Slavic
countries. Young women and girls float little baskets of flowers and lighted
candles down streams. Local boys swim out to (10)_____ a basket, find the
girl it belongs to and claim a dance at the town's Midsummer's Eve Party.

1. A. celebrate B. honour C. commemorate D. commiserate

2. A. revised B. assassinated C. slaughtered D. sacrificed
3. A. doused B. extinguished C. smothered D. gone out
4. A. derived B. developed C. evolved D. decayed
5. A. landing B. launching C. propelling D. ejecting
6. A. certainty B. peril C. jeopardy D. hazard
7. A. tradition B. custom C. ceremony D. practice
8. A. deflect B. ward off C. attract D. avert
9. A. unique B. common C. mutual D. prevalent
10. A. salvage B. rescue C. set free D. liberate
PART 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each
space. Use only ONE word in each space. (15 points)
Psychologists are interested in the reasons why some people like taking
part in risky sports. (1) ____ they studied people who were learning to jump
from a plane with a parachute, they found that parachutists’ bodies (2)
______ large amounts of two hormones, adrenaline and nor adrenaline, just
(3)_____they made their jump.
These hormones help to prepare us for any sudden activity. Adrenaline
increases the (4)______ rate and provides more sugar for the muscles, while
nor adrenaline does make us react more quickly. (5)_____, nor adrenaline
also stimulates a part of the brain which controls feelings of pleasure. Some
psychologists (6)_____ concluded that it is a feeling of pleasure caused by
this hormone which makes (7)_____ people want to participate in dangerous
sports.
Another possible reason is the level of arousal (8)_____ part of the brain.
According to some psychologists, the brain tries to maintain a certain level
of arousal. They believe that people who normally have a low level of
arousal (9)____ for excitement and new experiences in order to stimulate
themselves, whereas people who usually have a high level of arousal try to
avoid risks and unfamiliar (10)_____ in order not to become overexcited. If
the psychologists are right, people with a low arousal are the ones who
enjoy participating in dangerous sports and activities.

PART 3. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer A, B, C
or D. Write your answer in the space provided. (10 points)
There are only a few clues in the rock record about climate in the
Proterozoiccon. Much of our information about climate in the more recent
periods of geologic history comes from the fossil record, because we have a
reasonably good understanding of the types of environment in which many
fossil organisms flourished. The scarce fossils of the Proterozoic, mostly
single-celled bacteria, provide little evidence in this regard. However, the
rocks themselves do include the earliest evidence for glaciation, probably a
global ice age.
The inference that some types of sedimentary rocks are the result of
glacial activity is based on the principle of uniformitarianism, which posits
that natural processes now at work on and within the Earth operated in the
same manner in the distant past. The deposits associated with present-day
glaciers have been well studied, and some of their characteristics are quite
distinctive. In 2.3-billion-year-old rocks in Canada near Lake Huron (dating
from the early part of the Proterozoic age), there are thin laminae of fine-
grained sediments that resemble varves, the annual layers of sediment
deposited in glacial lakes. Typically, present-day varves show two-layered
annual cycle, one layer corresponding to the rapid ice melting and
sediment transport of the summer season,and the other, finer-grained,
layer corresponding to slower winter deposition. Although it is not easy to
discern such details in the Proterozoic examples,they are almost certainly
glacial varves. These fine-grained, layered sediments even contain
occasional large pebbles or “dropstones,” a characteristic feature of glacial
environments where coarse material is sometimes carried on floating ice
and dropped far from its source, into otherwise very fine grained sediment.
Glacial sediments of about the same age as those in Canada have been
found in other parts of North America and in Africa, India, and Europe.
This indicates that the glaciation was global, and that for a period of time in
the early Proterozoic the Earth was gripped in an ice age.
Following the early Proterozoic glaciation, however, the climate appears
to have been fairly benign for a very long time. There is no evidence for
glaciation for the next 1.5 billion years or so. Then, suddenly, the rock
record indicates a series of glacial episodes between about 850 and 600
million year ago, near the end of the Proterozoiccon.

1. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?

A. How patterns in rock layers have been used to construct theories about
the climate of the Proterozoic age
B. What some rare fossils indicate about glacial conditions during the late
Proterozoic age
C. The varying characteristics of Proterozoic glacial varves in different
parts of the world
D. The number of glacial episodes that the Earth has experienced since the
Proterozoic age
2. According to the passage, the fossil record of the Proterozoic con is_______
A. highly regarded because it preserves the remains of many kinds of
organisms
B. less informative than the fossil record of more recent periods
C. very difficult to interpret due to damage from bacteria
D. more useful to researchers than other aspects of the rock record
3. The word “scarce” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______
A. ancient    
B. tiny    
C. available    
D. rare
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the principle of
uniformitarianism indicates that______
A. similar conditions produce similar rock formations
B. rock layers in a given region remain undisturbed over time
C. different kinds of sedimentary rocks may
D. each continent has its own distinctive pattern of sediment layers
5. The word “resemble” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_______
A. result from        
B. penetrate
C. look like        
D. replace have similar origins
6. According to the passage, the layers in varves are primarily formed
by________
A. fossilized bacteria    
B. pieces of ancient dropstones
C. a combination of ancient and recent sediments
D. annual cycles of sediment transport and deposition
7. The phrase “the other” in paragraph 2 refers to another_______
A. annual cycle        
B. glacial lake
C. layer of sediment        
D. season
8. According to the passage, the presence of dropstones indicates that______
A. the glacial environment has been unusually server
B. the fine-grained sediment has built up very slowly
C. there has been a global ice age
D. coarse rock material has been carried great distances
9. Why does the author mention Canada, North America, Africa, India, and
Europe in bold lines?
A. To provide evidence for the theory that there was a global ice age in the
early Proterozoic eon
B. To demonstrate the global spread of dropstones
C. To explain the principles of varve formation
D. To illustrate the varied climatic changes of the Proterozoic con in
different parts of the globe
10. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
A. fossil record
B. laminae
C. varves        
D. glacial episodes
PART 4. The reading passage below has SIX paragraphs, A-F. Reading
the passage and do the tasks below. (15 points)
Money Transfers by Mobile
A. The ping of a text message has never sounded so sweet. In what is
being touted as a world first, Kenya’s biggest mobile operator is
allowing subscribers to send cash to other phone users by SMS.
Known as M-Pesa, or mobile money, the service is expected to
revolutionise banking in a country where more than 80% of people
are excluded from the formal financial sector. Apart from
transferring cash – a service much in demand among urban Kenyans
supporting relatives in rural areas – customers of the Safaricom
network will be able to keep up to 50,000 shillings (£370) in a
“virtual account” on their handsets.

B. Developed by Vodafone, which holds a 35% share in Safaricom, M-

Pesa was formally launched in Kenya two weeks ago. More than
10,000 people have signed up for the service, with around 8 million
shillings transferred so far, mostly in tiny denominations. Safaricom’s
executives are confident that growth will be strong in Kenya, and
later across Africa. “We are effectively giving people ATM cards
without them ever having to open a real bank account,” said Michael
Joseph, chief executive of Safaricom, who called the money transfer
concept the “next big thing” in mobile telephony.

C. M-Pesa’s is simple. There is no need for a new handset or SIM card.

To send money, you hand over the cash to a registerred agent –
typically a retailer – who credits your virtual account. You then send
between 100 shillings (74p) and 35,000 shillings (£259) via text
message to the desired recipient – even someone on a different
mobile network – who cashes it at an agent by entering a secret code
and showing ID. A commission of up to 170 shillings (£1.25) is paid
by the recipient but it compares favourably with fees levied by the
major banks, whose services are too expensive for most of the
population.
 D. Mobile phone growth in Kenya, as in most of Africa, has been
remarkable, even among the rural poor. In June 1999, Kenya had
15,000 mobile subscribers. Today, it has nearly 8 million out of a
population of 35 millions, and the two operators’ networks are as
extensive as the access to banks is limited. Safaricom says it is not so
much competing with financial services companies as filling a void. In
time, M-Pesa will allow people to borrow and repay money, and
make purchases. Companies will be able to pay salaries directly into
workers’ phones – something that has already attracted the interest
of larger employers, such as the tea companies, whose workers often
have to be paid in cash as they do not have bank accounts. There are
concerns about security, but Safaricom insists that even if someone’s
phone is stolen, the PIN system prevents unauthorised withdrawals.
Mr. Joseph said the only danger is sending cash to the wrong mobile
number and the recipient redeeming it straight away.

E. The project is being watched closely by mobile operators around the

world as a way of targeting the multibillion pound international cash
transfer industry long dominated by companies such as Western
Union and Moneygram. Remittances sent from nearly 200 million
migrant workers to developing countries totalled £102 billion last
year, according to the World Bank. The GSM Association, which
represents more than 700 mobile operators worldwide, believes this
could quadruple by 2012 if transfers by SMS become the norm.
Vodafone has entered a partnership with Citigroup that will soon
allow Kenyans in the UK to send money home via text message. The
charge for sending £50 is expected to be about £3, less than a third of
what some traditional services charge.

The text has 5 paragraphs (A – E). Which paragraph contains each

of the following pieces of information?
1. A possible security problem
2. The cost of M-Pesa
3. An international service similar to M-Pesa
4. The fact that most Kenyans do not have a bank account

Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE

WORDS from the text for each gap
 5. Safaricom is the _________________ mobile phone company in Kenya.
6. An M-Pesa account needs to be credited by ______________.
7. Companies like Moneygram and Western Union have ______________ the
international money transfer market.

Do the statements on the next page agree with the information

given in Reading Passage 1? write
TRUE if the information in the text agrees with the
statement
FALSE if the information in the text contradicts the
statement
NOT if there is no information on this
GIVEN

8. Most Kenyans working in urban areas have relatives in rural areas.

9. So far, most of the people using M-Pesa have used it to send small
amounts of money.
10. M-Pesa can only be used by people using one phone network.

SECTION IV: WRITING (50/200)

PART 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it
means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 points)
1. If the weather is fine, we may go camping at the weekend.
-> Weather ________________________________________________.
2. Brenda doesn’t get on well with her next-door neighbor any more.
-> Brenda has ______________________________________________.
3. It would have been possible for Jane to take us in her car.
-> Jane ___________________________________________________.
4. Tim had no idea what he was letting himself in for.
-> Little __________________________________________________.
5. The plain clothes officer’s boots showed he was a policeman.
-> The plain clothes policeman’s real ____________________________.

PART 2. Rewrite the following sentences with the given word. The
given words can’t be changed. (10 points)
1. These rainy Monday morning make me feel miserable. (GET)
_________________________________________________________.
2. You have said exactly the right thing. (NAIL)
_________________________________________________________.
3. He maintained his position against his adversary. (GROUND)
_________________________________________________________.
 4. Since she met that boy, she’s been thinking only about him.
(WRAPPED)
_________________________________________________________.
5. My husband will be angry when I tell him. (ROOF)
_________________________________________________________.

PART 3. Writing a paragraph. (30 points)

“Teenagers should have part-time jobs in preparation for their
future.”
Do you agree with this statement? Write a paragraph of 180-200
words to state your viewpoint.