MDs Test 1 - Removed

PG MOCKTEST KU full syllabus-II (18th
JULY,2020)
Welcome to the Mock Test for PG-entrance exam in dentistry organized by the authors of
MCQs for Dental Science" in association with instagram
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TEAM TARGET MCQS FOR DENTAL SCIENCE
1. The glucose content of CSF is markedly reduced in which of the following (1 point)
types of meningitis EXCEPT?
◯ Acute pyogenic ( Bacterial ) Meningitis
⚫ Acute lymphocytic ( Viral ) Meningitis
◯ Chronic ( Tubercular ) Meningitis
◯ All of the above
Explanation:
Ans B
The normal glucose content of CSF is 50 – 80 mg/dl and it is markedly raised in case of bacterial
and tubercular meningitis. The normal protein content of CSF is 15 – 45 mg/dl and it is markedly
raised in all types of meningitis.
2. Which of the following is the most common site of peptic ulcer ? (1 point)
◯ Gastroesophageal junction
◯ Antrum of stomach
⚫ Proximal duodenum
◯ Distal segment of stomach
Explanation:
Ans C
Peptic ulcer is most common in first part of duodenum and is four type more common in first
part of duodenum than in stomach. Antrum of stomach is the second common site followed by
gastroesophageal junction.
3. The most common type of thyroid gland neoplasia is ? (1 point)

◯ Follicular carcinoma
◯ Medullary carcinoma
◯ Anaplastic carcinoma
⚫ Papillary carcinoma
Explanation:
Ans D
Papillary carcinoma is most common neoplasia of thyroid gland accounting 70 – 75 % of total

cases followed by follicular which is more common in middle and old age people.
4. Men II consists of all of the following Except: (1 point)

◯ Pheochromocytoma
◯ Medullary Ca of thyroid
⚫ Neuromas
◯ Pituitary adenoma
Explanation:
Ans D
Men I is also known as Wermer's syndrome which involves simultaneous hyperfunctioning of

Parathyroid, Pancreas and Pituitary ( 3P)
MEN II
MEN II A ( Sipple syndrome )
Pheochromocytoma
Medullary Ca of thyroid
Parathyroid hyperplasia
MEN II B
Medullary Ca of thyroid
Pheochromocytoma
Neuromas
5. All of the following are the features of Nephrotic syndrome Except ? (1 point)
⚫ Presence of hematuria
◯ Heavy proteinuria
◯ Generalized odema
◯ Absence of oliguria
Explanation:
Ans A
Hematuria is present in nephritic syndrome not nephrotic .

Nephrotic Syndrome Nephritic Syndrome
1. Heavy Proteinuria Mild or no proteinuria
1. No Hematuria Hematuria present
1. Severe hypoalbuminemia Absent
1. Generalized Odema ( anascara ) is Puffiness of face is seen without generalized

seen odema
1. Hyperlipidemia is present Absent
1. Hypertension absent Present
1) Oliguria is not seen Oliguria ( <300 ml/day ) is present
6. Steven's Johnson Syndrome is which type of adverse drug reaction: (1 point)

◯ Type I
◯ Type II
⚫ Type III
◯ Type IV
Explanation:
Ans C
1. Type I – Hypersensitivity reaction

2. Type II – Cytotoxic reaction - Thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia, SLE
3. Type III – Retarded, Arthus reactions - Serum sickness, polyarthritis nodosa, Steven-
Johnson’s syndrome
4. Type IV – Delayed Hypersensitivity reaction - Contact dermatitis, Photosensitization.
7. First choice drug for the treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis is (1 point)

◯ Cyclosporine
◯ Azathioprine
◯ Leflunomide
⚫ Methotrexate
Explanation:
Ans D
Methotrexate is DMARD of first choice and the standard treatment for most patients including
the cases of juvenile RA.
8. Drug of choice for hypertensive emergencies in pregnancy is (1 point)

⚫ Hydralazine
◯ Sodium nitroprusside
◯ Methyldopa
◯ Clonidine
Explanation:
Ans A
Sodium nitroprusside is a drug of choice for hypertensive emergencies.
Antihypertensive to be avoided during pregnancy
 Diuretics
 ACE inhibitors
 AT1 antagonists.
 Nonselective blockers
 Sodium nitroprusside
Antihypertensives found safer during pregnancy
 Hydralazine
 Methyldopa
 Cardioselective Beta blockers and those with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)
example: atenolol, metoprolol etc.
 Dihydropyridine CCBs
 Prazosin and clonidine
9. Antitubercular drug contraindicated in renal failure is (1 point)
◯ Pyrazinamide
◯ Rifampicin
◯ Isoniazid
⚫ Streptomycin
Explanation:
Ans D
It is the first clinically effective drug against tuberculosis and acts only on extracellular bacilli.
Most nephrotoxic drug so it is contraindicated in case of renal failure.
10. Which of the following drug follows first order kinetics? (1 point)
◯ Alcohol
◯ Tolbutamide
⚫ Paracetamol
◯ Phenytoin
Explanation:
Most of the drugs follow first order elimination kinetics except Alcohol, methanol, Theophylline,
Tolbutamide, Phenytion.
 First Order Kinetics
A constant fraction of the drug is eliminated per unit of time.
For example, if 800 mg of a drug is administered and its half-life is 1 hr, then the amount of drug
remaining in the blood after each hour will be as follows:
800mg→ 400mg→ 200mg→ 100mg→ 50mg… and so on
 Zero Order Kinetics

A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time.There is no fixed half-life for the drug. For
example, if 500 mg of drug is administered and 100 mg is eliminated every hour, the amount of
drug after each hour is: 500mg→ 400mg→ 300mg→ 200mg→ 100mg
11. Titanium based implants have the favor in the implant dentistry in (1 point)
comparison to the other metals because
◯ Titanium is more susceptible to corrosion
◯ Titanium is 5.6 times stronger than bone
⚫ Titanium forms oxide layer when exposed to air
◯ Titanium does not react to room temperature air and normal tissue fluids.
Explanation:
Ans C Ref. Contemporary Implant Dentistry Carl E. Misch 3rd ed Page no 262
Titanium oxidizes ( Passivates ) upon contact with room temperature air and normal tissue fluids
as titanium is very reactive to oxygen to form titanium oxide ( TiO2). This reactivity is very
favorable to the dental implant devices. In the absence of interfacial motions or adverse tissue
conditions, this passivated surface condition minimizes biocorrosion phenomena.
12. Which type of bone plays a stabilization role in initial healing of endosseous (1 point)
implants?
⚫ Woven bone
◯ Lamellar bone
◯ Bundle bone
◯ Composite bone
Explanation:
Ans B Ref. Contemporary Implant Dentistry Carl E. Misch 3rd ed Page no 267
Because woven bone is more piable than the mature lamellar bone, it is more forgiving to the
relative micromotion associated with interface healing
Lamellar bone is the principle load bearing bone of an adult skeleton. It is the predominant
component of cortical and trabecular bone. In adults it forms relatively slowly and have a highly
organized matrix and are densely mineralized.
Bundle bone is a characteristic of ligament and tendon attachment along bone forming surfaces.
Composite bone is the lamellar bone deposited in woven bone matrix. It is formed during the
rapid growth and wound healing.
13. Best method for the sterilization of ceramic based implant system is (1 point)
◯ Autoclave
⚫ Dry heat
◯ Ethylene oxide gas
◯ Glutareldehyde
Explanation:
Ans B Ref. Contemporary Implant Dentistry Carl E. Misch 3rd ed Page no 267
Exposure to stream sterilization results to the measurable decrease in strength, scratches or

notches may results in the fracture initiation site, chemical solution leaves residues, and hard and
rough surfaces may sometimes abrade other materials upon contact. Dry heat sterilization with a
clean atmosphere is recommended for most ceramics.
14. About ……………… of the compacta adjacent to the implant interface dies (1 point)
postoperatively despite optimal surgical technique.
◯ 0.25 mm
◯ 0.50 mm
◯ 0.75 mm
⚫ 1.00 mm
Explanation:
Ans D Ref. Contemporary Implant Dentistry Carl E. Misch 3rd ed Page no 348
This is probably due to the inflammation and relatively poor collateral circulation within the
cortical bone. But dead bone is not the useless tissue. It provides initial structural support during
initial healing phase. However it is replaced by the vital bone to strengthen the interface on the
later stage of healing.
15. According to the Implant prosthodontic classification, Misch 1988 FP – 2 (1 point)
represents
◯ Fixed prosthesis which replaces only crown
◯ Fixed prosthesis which replaces both crown and root
⚫ Fixed prosthesis which replaces crown and portion of root
◯ Fixed prosthesis which replaces missing crown, gingival color and portion of the
edentulous site
Explanation:
Ans C Ref. Contemporary Implant Dentistry Carl E. Misch 3rd ed Page no 45
16. First arch syndrome is (1 point)

◯ Pierre robin syndrome
◯ Teacher collin's syndrome
◯ Down's syndrome
⚫ Both a and b
Explanation:
Ans D Ref. Orban's histology and Embryology 13th ed page no 18
Pierre Robin Syndrome is characterized by
 Micrognathia
 Cleft palate
 Glossoptosis
Teacher Collin's Syndrome is characterized by
 Autosomal dominant trait of malar hypoplasia ( Cheek bone not developed )

 Colobomas
 Mandibular hypoplasia
 Deformed external ears
17. Which of the following statement is not correct ? (1 point)

⚫ Enamel rod direction is parallel to dentin.
◯ Length of rod greater than thickness due to tortuous or wavy course.
◯ Bodies of rods are nearer occlusal and incisal surface whereas tails points cervically.
◯ Diameter of rod from DEJ to surface in the ratio 1:2
Explanation:
Ans A Ref. Orban's histology and Embryology 13th ed page no 45
These rods measure about 5 µm in breadth and 9 µm in length. Rods of this shape can be packed
tightly together. The ‘bodies’ of the rods are nearer occlusal and incisal surfaces, whereas the
‘tails’ point cervically. They are approximately parallel to the long axes of the rods in their
‘bodies’ or ‘heads’ and deviate about 65 degrees from this axis as they fan out into the ‘tails’ of
the prisms.
18. All of the following are age changes of dentin EXCEPT ? (1 point)
◯ Increase in peritubular dentin and dentin sclerosis.
◯ Increase in number of dead tracts
⚫ Increase in dentinal permeability
◯ Increase in hardness of dentin
Explanation:
Ans C Ref. Orban's histology and Embryology 13th ed page no 89

19. Most numerous cell type in pulp is (1 point)
◯ Odontoblast
⚫ Fibroblast
◯ Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
◯ Pulpal stem cells
Explanation:
Ans B Ref. Orban's histology and Embryology 13th ed page no 95
Odontoblasts are the second most prominent cell in the pulp.
20. Melanin is stored in (1 point)

⚫ Melanosomes
◯ Melanophores
◯ Melanocytes
◯ Melanoblast
Explanation:
Ans A Ref. Orban's histology and Embryology 13th ed page no 205
Melanin produced by the melanocytes are transferred through their dendritic process to the
adjacent basal cell keratinocytes which store the pigment in the form of melanosomes.
21. Ductile fracture means (1 point)

◯ Fracture due to ductility of metal
◯ Fracture due to reduction in the diameter of metal
⚫ Fracture due to cold working
Explanation:
Ans C Ref. Phillip's Dental Materials 5th ed Page no 402
The fracture of a metal during cold working is called ductile fracture. When a ductile alloy
fractures under tension there is a reduction in the diameter of the metal (necking down) of the
fracture site prior to fracture. Ductile fracture sites are characterized by a dimpled morphology.
22. Immediate pouring of impression is most critical in (1 point)

⚫ Condensation silicon
◯ Addition silicon
◯ Polyether
◯ Polysulphide
Explanation:
Ans A Ref. Phillip's Dental Materials 5th ed Page no 154
Ethyl alcohol is a by-product of the condensation setting reaction. Its subsequent evaporation
accounts for much of the contraction that takes place in the setting impression so casts are poured
immediately after making impression in the mouth.
23. If the calcination process occurs under pressure in a 30% calcium chloride (1 point)
solution or in the presence of more than 1% of sodium succinate, the
resulting hemihydrate crystals will be shorter and thicker than those
produced in a closed container. This type of gypsum producing product is
called
◯ Dental Stone
⚫ Dental stone with high strength
◯ Dental stone with high strength and expansion
◯ Dental plaster
Explanation:
Ans B Ref. Phillip's Dental Materials 5th ed Page no 154
Type IV stone or Dental stone with high strength is also known as modified α-hemihydrate or
die stone.
24. Which of the following is synthetic waxes ? (1 point)

◯ Carnauba wax
⚫ Castor wax
◯ Candelila wax
◯ Paraffin wax
Explanation:
Ans B Ref. Basic Dental Materials J.J Manappallil 3rd edition Page no 230
25. ADA specification number 12 suggests that the dough forming time should be (1 point)
not more than
◯ 20 minutes
◯ 30 minutes
⚫ 40 minutes
◯ 50 minutes
Explanation:
Ans C Ref. Phillip's Dental Materials 5th ed Page no 478
The time required for the resin mixture to reach a doughlike stage is termed the dough-forming
time.
26. Passive impression technique was proposed by (1 point)

⚫ Richardson
◯ Henry Page
◯ Carole Jonas
◯ Boucher
Explanation:
Ans A Ref. Nallaswamy 1nd edition Page no 46
Passive impression technique was first proposed by Richardson and later popularized by Henry
page. Passive impression means mucostatic or pressureless impression technique.
Mucompressive impression technique was given by Carole Jones and Selective pressure
impression technique was given by Boucher.
27. In Burning mouth syndrome, which is the most affected site ? (1 point)
◯ Buccal mucosa
◯ Soft Palate
◯ Floor of mouth
⚫ Tongue
Explanation:
Ans D Zarb 13th edition page no 28
Although tongue is most frequently affected site, BMS can occur in lips, buccal mucosa and
floor of the mouth.
28. A patient with complete denture presents with angular chelitis. The review of (1 point)
medical examination revealed Vitamin B12 deficiency is not a factor. The
possible predisposing factor is
◯ Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion
⚫ A closed or insufficient vertical dimension of occlusion
◯ Improper balance of the occlusion
◯ Poor contour of the denture base
Explanation:
Ans B Ref. Mosbys Review of NBDE Part II Sample questions
29. The most important reason for retaining healthy roots and prescribing an (1 point)
over denture rather than extractions and conventional complete denture is;
⚫ To preserve the alveolar bone
◯ An over denture is easier to construct rather than a complete denture
◯ An apparent ease with which the patient adapts to an over denture
◯ To retain some degree of proprioception from the healthy periodontal ligament of the
roots
Explanation:
Ans A Ref. Winkler's 2nd ed Page 385
30. The most common manifestation of ageing in tongue is (1 point)

◯ Atrophy of filiform papilla
◯ Hypertrophy of filiform papilla
⚫ Complete depapillation of tongue
◯ Depapillation of filiform papilla only
Explanation:
Ans C Ref. Winkler 2nd edition page no 445
Depapillation usually begins at the apex and lateral borders. Fissuring of tongue is also common.
There is also reduction in number of taste buds resulting in diminished sensation of tongue.
31. For a maxillary premolar that requires an esthetic crown due to cuspal (1 point)
fracture when endodontic treatment is performed, the better prognosis would
be for
⚫ Buccal cusp fracture
◯ Palatal cusp fracture
◯ The prognosis is already compromised when either cusp are fractured
◯ Prognosis is same for fracture of either cusp
Explanation:
Ans A Ref. Rosenstiel 5th edition page no: 79
Patient presenting with buccal cusp fracture has a better prognosis than palatal cusp because
esthetic crown (either all ceramic- or metal ceramic) requires a wide buccal shoulder preparation,
which will significantly weaken the remaining buccal cusp whereas remaining palatal cusp can
be prepared conservatively.
32. Copper band impression procedure is especially useful for situation in which (1 point)
◯ Impression of single tooth is to be made
⚫ Impression of several prepared tooth is to be made
◯ When the finish line is sub gingival
◯ When the finish line is supragingival
Explanation:
Ans: B Ref. H.Shillingburg 4th edition: 272
If several teeth have been prepared, the likelihood of capturing all the finish lines in one
impression decreases as the number of prepared teeth increases so copper band impression gives
a good solution. Copper band impression also can be used for making the impression of single
teeth.
33. The margin during try in of crown for cementation is considered to be open if (1 point)
the gap is greater than
◯ 30 µm
◯ 40 µm
⚫ 50 µm
◯ 60 µm
Explanation:
Ans: C Ref. H.Shillingburg 4th edition: 390
This means the tip of sharp explorer can be inserted between the restoration and tooth.
34. The following feature of preparation provides maximum retention and (1 point)
resistance
◯ Short walls with narrow diameter
⚫ Long walls with narrow diameter
◯ Short walls with large diameter
◯ Long walls with larger diameter
Explanation:
Ans: B Ref. H.Shillingburg 4th edition: 135
Long walls with narrow diameter of tooth preparation provides maximum retention and
resistance of tooth preparation, such preparation will have short rotational radius for the arc of
displacement and the incisal portion of axial walls that resist displacement of crown.
35. For resistance form and better stress distribution which of the following post (1 point)
is best indicated
◯ Metal
◯ Ceramic
⚫ Glass Fiber
◯ Amalgam
Explanation:
Ans: C Ref. Rosenstiel 5th edition page no: 289
Glass fiber post have an elastic modulus similar to that of dentin, also has lower stress
concentration than other post because glass fiber when cemented with resin cement acts as a
single unit termed as monoblock.
36. All of the following are considered to be basic rules for occlusal rest design (1 point)
when fabricating a removable partial denture except:
◯ The rest should minimise the tilting action of the appliance
◯ The rest must be placed so that it will prevent movement of the appliance in a cervical
direction
◯ The rest should transmit stress down the long axis of the abutment
⚫ The rest must have sharp angles to permit maximum retention
Explanation:
McCracken's Removable Partial Prosthodontics, 13th edition, Page no 58
Occlusal Rests
-Outline rounded triangular shape with apex towards centre
-Should be as long as it is wide and base of triangle should be 2.5mm wide for both premolars
and molars
-Reduction of 1.5mm in marginal ridge usually necessary to provide adequate rigidity and
strength
-Floor should be apical to the marginal ridge and should be concave or spoon shaped
-Angle between occlusal rest and the vertical minor connector should be less than 90 degrees in
order to direct the occlusal forces along the long axis of the tooth and also to prevent slippage of
the prosthesis away from the abutment teeth.
37. Tripoding is the method used (1 point)

◯ For keeping clasp assemblies at 3 point contact
◯ For recording the relation of the cast to the surveyor
◯ To determine the areas on the tooth where the gingivally approaching clasp, occlusal rest
of the reciprocal arm are going to be placed
⚫ To have a reproducible position of cast on the surveyor
Explanation:
McCracken's Removable Partial Prosthodontics, 13th edition, Page no 130, Fig 11-5
38. In the mesial rest, guide plane and I-bar design(RPI), reciprocation is (1 point)
achieved by:
◯ flexible plating
⚫ Minor connector
◯ Major conector
◯ Guide planes not extended around the vertical lines of abutments
Explanation:
McCracken's Removable Partial Prosthodontics,13th Edition,Page no 74
The proximal plates in conjunction with the minor connector supporting the rests provides the
stabilizing and reciprocal elements of the clasp assembly.
39. All of the following are advantages of the gingivally approaching clasps as (1 point)
compared to occlusally approaching clasp, except :
◯ Less distortion of coronal contours
◯ Less tooth contact
⚫ Less bothersome to vestibular tissues
◯ Esthetically superior in most cases
Explanation:
Stewart's Clinical Removable Partial Denture Prosthodontics,4th Edition,Page no 78
 -The approach arm of infrabulge clasp must not impinge on the soft tissues adjacent to
the abutment. It is not desirable to provide relief under the approach arm ,however,the
tissue surface must be smooth and polished.
 -Circumferential clasp is preferred to bar clasp because of its stabilizing ability but has
some disadvantages.
 -Only when retentive undercut can be approached better or esthetics is required, bar clasp
can be used
 -More tooth surface is covered because of its occlusal origin
 -On some tooth like buccal surface of mandibular tooth and lingual surface of maxillary
tooth, occlusal approach may increase the width of occlusal table
40. A device that relieves the abutment teeth, to which a fixed or removable (1 point)
partial denture is attached, of all or part of the forces generated by occlusal
function is called as:
◯ Pontic
⚫ Stress breaker
◯ Minor connector
◯ Retainer
Explanation:
Page no 111, McCracken's Removable Partial Prosthodontics, 13th edition,
Definition by Glossary of Prosthodontic Terms -9
41. Health Records survey data is an example of which type of source of data? (1 point)
◯ Primordial
◯ Primary
⚫ Secondary
◯ Tertiary
Explanation:
Essentials of Public Health dentistry by Soben Peter,5th Edition ,Page no 384,Page no 595
-Health records survey data is the most economical method of collecting the data.
 Primary data: Obtained by the investigator himself.Also called as First hand

information.
 Secondary data: the data already recorded is utilised to serve the purpose of objective of
the study
42. Loss of follow up (which is inevitable) in case control studies due to causes (1 point)
like death, migration or loss of interest is known as
◯ Abrasion
◯ Abfraction
◯ Exclusion
⚫ Attrition
Explanation:
Essentials of Public Health dentistry by Soben Peter,5th Edition, Page no 78
43. Which of the following is not an index for Oral Hygiene assessment? (1 point)
⚫ Moller's Index
◯ Glass Index
◯ Volpe-Manhold Index
◯ Calculus Surface Index
Explanation:
44. Dentists participating in the delta plan are paid 90th percentile whereas non- (1 point)
participating dentists are paid:
◯ 30th
⚫ 50th
◯ 100th
◯ 15th
Explanation:
 -Participating dentists are provided with payment at 90th percentile of fees

 -Non-participating dentists are paid at a considerably lower percentile than than 90th,
often at median or 50th percentile.
45. Exotic disease means that a disease: (1 point)

⚫ which is imported in a country in which they do not otherwise occur
◯ is constantly present in a given population group
◯ is prevalent among animals
◯ occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy
Explanation:
Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 24th Edition,Page no 98
 Exotic disease: e.g Rabies in UK

 Epidemic: Occurs in a community in excess of expected occurrence
 Endemic: Constant presence of a disease within a geographic area or population group.
 Sporadic: The disease occurs irregularly,haphazardly from time to time and generally
infrequently.
 Pandemic : usually affects a large proportion of the population
46. In Colorimetric Snyder test, colour of the indicator dye Bromocresol green, (1 point)
changes from green to yellow within 24 hours. The caries activity can be
interpreted as
⚫ Marked activity
◯ Definite activity
◯ Limited activity
◯ No activity
Explanation:
Colorimetric Snyder Test
24 hours 48 hours 72 hours

Color Yellow Yellow Yellow
Caries activity Marked activity Definite activity Limited activity
Color Green Green Green
Caries activity Continue test Continue test Inactive
47. Chemotherapy in oral cancer falls under which of the following (1 point)
◯ Health promotion
◯ Early diagnosis and prompt treatment
⚫ Disability limitation
◯ rehabilitation
Explanation:
Tertiary prevention of oral cancer:
A. Disability Limitation
-Chemotherapy
-Radiotherapy
-Surgery
B. Rehabilitation
-Maxillofacial and Removable Prosthodontics
-Plastic Surgery
-Speech Therapy
48. A study was conducted to assess the nickel level in the saliva of the patients (1 point)
undergoing fixed orthodontic treatment before and after the placement of
appliance.Test of significance for the study would be
◯ Unpaired test
⚫ Paired test
◯ Chi-Square Test
◯ ANOVA
Explanation:
Paired 't' test is applied to the paired data of independent observations from one sample only
when each individual gives a pair of observations.
49. Mode is that value in a series of observations that occurs with greatest (1 point)
frequency.It can be calculated using the formula(where M.D-Mean
Deviation,S.D -Standard Deviation)
◯ 3M.D-2S.D
◯ 3S.D-2M.D
⚫ 3Median -2Mean
◯ 3Mean-2Median
Explanation:
50. Concentration of fluoride is highest in (1 point)

◯ Enamel
◯ Dentin
⚫ Cementum
◯ Pulp
Explanation:

-The concentration of fluoride in cementum is higher than that of any skeletal or dental tissue
because it is very thin and all of it is therefore near to the tissue surface and so accessible to the
fluoride present in blood.
-Amount of fluoride in cementum is 4500 ppm,fluoride content in cementum increases with age
51. In a cariogram, Bacteria are represented by (1 point)

◯ Green
◯ Dark blue
⚫ Red
◯ Yellow
Explanation:
Page no 163, McDonald and Avery’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent 10th edition
In a cariogram,
 Red-for bacteria
 Dark blue -for diet
 Light blue-for susceptibility related factors
 Yellow -for circumstances
 green-for chance of avoiding caries
52. Eruption sequestrum is made up of (1 point)

◯ A tiny spicule of non-viable bone
◯ Dentin andcementum
◯ Osteogenic and odontogenic issue
⚫ Any of above
Explanation:
-Eruption sequestrum is tiny spicule of non-viable bone overlying the crown of an erupting
permanent molar just before or immediately after the emergence of the tips of the cusps through
the oral mucosa. It can also be composed of dentin, cementum, odontogenic and osteogenic
tissue.
-Seen occasionally at the time of eruption of first permanent molar
53. Among the primary teeth, the problem of ankylosis is most commonly seen (1 point)
with
⚫ Mandibular molars
◯ Mandibular incisors
◯ Maxillary incisors
◯ Maxillary molars
Explanation:
-Ankylosis of an anterior primary teeth does not occur unless there has been trauma
-Metallic sound on percussion is diagnostic of ankylosed and traumatically intruded tooth.

Ankylosed tooth are also called as submerged tooth.
At least three theories have been proposed for ankylosis
 There might be interrelationship between congenital absence of permanent tooth and the
ankylosed primary tooth
 Occurrence in siblings following familial pattern
 Normal resorption process is interrupted by periods of inactivity or rest. A reparative
process follows periods of resorption. In the course of this reparative phase, solid union
occurs between the bone and the primary tooth
54. All are features of Mongoloid child except (1 point)

◯ Bridges of nose depressed
◯ Mental retardation
◯ Delayed eruption of primary teeth
⚫ Eyes slope downward
Explanation:
Features of children with Down's Syndrome
 -All are features of child with Down’s syndrome except that eyes slope upwards.
 -Orbits are small,the eyes slope upwards and the bridge of the nose is more depressed
than normal
 -''Lap''ear with absent or flat helix
 -Mental retardation
 -Smaller jaws that contribute to tendency of protrusion of tongue and dental crowding
both of which compromise the development of good occlusion
 -Tongue tends to be larger than normal
55. Contraindication to the use of Eruption guidance appliance is all except (1 point)
◯ Poor oral hygiene status of the child
◯ There is no proper patient and parent cooperation
⚫ To prevent the space loss during the eruption of first permanent molar
◯ Medical conditions like blood dyscrasias, immunosuppression, congenital heart defects
Explanation:
Page no 430, , McDonald and Avery’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent 10th edition
56. While preparing tooth for stainless steel crowns, should the depth of (1 point)
reduction of proximal surface be similar to the reduction of buccal and
lingual surface
◯ Yes, reduction of all walls is similar
⚫ No proximal reduction is greater to allow the crown to pass the contact area
◯ No, because of lateral constriction, lingual surface greatest reduction
◯ All undercuts uniformly removed so that the crown can be seated
Explanation:
Page no198, McDonald and Avery’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent 10th edition
-Near vertical reductions on the proximal surfaces and carried out gingivally until the contact
with the adjacent tooth is broken and the explorer can be passed freely in the space between
prepared and the adjacent tooth.
-It is usually not necessary to reduce the buccal and lingual surfaces, in fact undercuts
are necessary in these for retention of contoured crowns.
57. A 8 years old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent (1 point)
central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed; presents for treatment 3
hours later following traumatic injury. Which of the following should be
considered?
⚫ Remove the surface 1-2mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide
◯ Place calcium hydroxide directly in the exposed pulp
◯ Pulpotomy using Formocresol
◯ Pulpectomy and immediate root filling
Explanation:
Shobha Tandon, Second edition Page no 407
CVEK partial pulpotomy using calcium hydroxide or MTA for apexogenesis. Indicated when the
exposure is less than 3 mm and time is less than 48 hours.
58. The gingiva of a child is diagnosed on the basis of all except (1 point)
◯ Contour of gingival papilla
◯ Sulcus depth
⚫ Contourof Nasmyth membrane
◯ Tight filling of gingival collar
Explanation:
 -Gingival colour in children is more reddish due to increased vascularity and thinner
epithelium.
 -Less stippled or smoother than that of adult.
 -Probing depths around primary teeth approximately 2 mm in adults 2 -3 mm
 -Periodontal ligament in children wider than in adults
 -Alveolar bone surrounding the primary dentition has lesser trabeculae, less calcification
and large marrow spaces
 -Primary enamel cuticle(aka Nasmyth's membrane)
o It is a thin membrane of tissue also known as reduced enamel epithelium
produced by the ameloblasts,that covers the tooth once it has erupted.It is usually
worn away by mastication and cleaning.
59. A child consumes a toxic dose of fluoride (1 point)

◯ Induce vomiting
◯ Give a lot of fluids
◯ Give a lot of fluids and sodium bicarbonates
⚫ Give milk, calcium tablets or magnesium tablets
Explanation:
Page no 557, Soben Peter
Ca in milk and magnesium can chelate the F minimizing the absorption so reducing the side
effects
60. The extraction of maxillary deciduous molars in 5 years old child. You should (1 point)
use
◯ Mostly towards the apex pressure and some movement
◯ Rotation
◯ Distalpressure and movement
⚫ Labio lingual movement
Explanation:
More buccal movement to avoid fracturing the buccally curved palatal root
61. Egocentricism and animism are seen in which stage? (1 point)

◯ Sensorimotor
⚫ Pre-operational
◯ Concrete-operational
◯ Formal-operational
Explanation:
Shobha Tandon ,1st edition, Page no 130 , Pedodontics by Muthu
Jean Piaget Cognitive Theory (1952)
I. Sensorimotor stage (0-2 years)
II.Period of Conceptual Intelligence
a. Pre-operational stage(2-7 years)
b.Concrete operational(7-11 years)
c.Formal operational stage (12-15 years)
-In the early stages of conceptual intelligence, the child’s world is ego-centered and has limited
ability to share another person’s viewpoint (egocentricism)
62. Which one of the following actions are to be performed in Early Mixed (1 point)
Dentition Stage (Stage 3) of management of clefts?
◯ Fabrication of obturator
◯ Surgical lip and palate closure
⚫ Secondary alveolar bone grafts
◯ Orthognathic surgical procedures
Explanation:
McDonald and Avery's Dentistry for Child and Adolescents,10th Edition,Page no 490
Stages in management of clefts
1.Stage I(Infant Appliance stage)-Birth to 18months
-Fabrication of obturator
-Presurgical orthopaedics
-Management of airway obstruction
-Cheiloplasty
-Maxillary orthopaedics
-Bone grafting of alveolar cleft defects
-Palatoplasty
II. Stage II(Primary Dentition Stage)-18 months to 5 years
-Adjustment of obturator
-Check on eruption pattern and timing
-Restoration of decayed teeth
III. Stage III(Late Primary or early Mixed Dentition Stage)-6 to 10 or 11 years of age
-Secondary alveolar cleft bone graft
IV. Permanent Dentition Stage-12 to 18 years of age
-Cosmetic Surgery
63. ’’You’’ messages (e.g. If you do not stand still, we would have to hold your (1 point)
hands) are considered as ‘roadblocks to communication’ as they undermine
the rapport between dentist and the patient. Instead, a paediatric dentist uses
‘I won’t be able to fix your teeth, if you don’t stand still’. Which type of
approach is the dentist practising?
◯ Aversive conditioning
◯ Voice control
◯ Negative reinforcement
⚫ Problem ownership
Explanation:
64. According to the caries risk assessment chat for children 6 years of age and (1 point)
younger, A child patient with low salivary flow rate and more than 1
interproximal lesions may be considered as
◯ Low risk
◯ Moderate risk
◯ Moderately high
⚫ High risk
Explanation:
Caries Risk assessment for children 6 years of age or younger
A.High Risk patients
Biological factors
-Patient of low socioeconomic status
-Patient has more than 3 between meal sugar containing snacks or beverages per day
Clinical findings
-More than 1 interproximal lesions

-Patient has low salivary flow
-Patient has active white spot lesions or enamel defects
B.Moderate Risk
Biological factors
-Patient has special health care needs
-Patient is recent immigrant
Clinical Findings
-Has defective restoration
-Is wearing an intraoral appliance
C.Low Risk
Protective Factors
-Patient receives optimal fluoridated drinking water
-Brushes teeth daily with fluoridated toothpaste
-receives topical fluoride from health professional
-Receives additional home measures(e.g. xylitol)
65. The presence of distal step occlusion most often leads to development of (1 point)
which type of molar relation in the permanent dentition?
◯ Class I
⚫ Class II
◯ ClassIII
◯ None of the above
Explanation:
The posiibility of class I relationship is virtually non-existent.
Mild mesial step-Class I
Exaggerated mesial step -Class III
66. Viruses can be cultured in all except (1 point)

◯ Chick embryo
⚫ Blood agar
◯ Guinea pigs
◯ Cell culture
Explanation:
Ananthanarayan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology,9th Edition, Page no 434
Three methods for cultivation of viruses
a. Inoculation into animals: white mice, guinea pigs, rabbits, ferrets
b.Embryonated eggs(Inoculation can be done into into chorioallantoic membrane ,allantoic

cavity, amniotic sac or yolk sac)
c. Tissue culture:Can be organ culture, explant culture, cell culture
67. On a clostridium stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a (1 point)
◯ Bunch of grapes
◯ Chain of beads
⚫ Drumstick
◯ Safety pin
Explanation:
-Bacillus of Clostridium has straight axis, parallel sides and rounded ends. It occurs singly and
occasionally in chains.
-Clostridium spores are spherical,terminal and bulging giving the characteristic 'Drumstick'
appearance
68. ‘Staphylococcal scalded Skin Syndrome’ is caused by (1 point)

◯ Hemolysin
⚫ Epidermolytic toxin
◯ Coagulase
◯ Enterotoxin
Explanation:
-SSSS is an exfoliative skin disease in which the outer layer of epidermis is separated from the
underlying tissues.
-The severe form of SSSS is known as Ritter’s disease.
69. Babes-Earnst granules are metachromatic granules seen in (1 point)

◯ Bordetella Pertusis
◯ Treponema pallidum
◯ Mycobacterium tuberculosis
⚫ Corynebacterium Diptheriae
Explanation:
Granules located at the poles of the bacilli when stained with Loeffler's methylene blue,the
granules take up a bluish purple colour and are hence called metachromatic granules.
Aka -Volutin granules
-Babes -Earnst granules
70. String test is performed for the identification of (1 point)

⚫ Vibrio species
◯ Aeromonas species
◯ P. shigelloids
◯ all ofthe above
Explanation:
-Vibrio colonies may be identified by 'String Test'
-A loopful of the growth is mixed with a drop of 0.5% sodium deoxycholate in saline on a
slide.If the test is positive ,the suspension loses its turbidity,becomes mucoid and forms the
string when the loop is drawn away slowly from the suspension.
71. ’Pulsus Tardus ‘ is seen in cases of (1 point)
◯ Left Ventricula failure
◯ Aortic Regurgitation
◯ Paroxymal Tachycardia
⚫ Aortic Stenosis
Explanation:
Harrison Principles of Internal Medicine 20th edition,1805
-The carotid arterial pressure rises slowly to a delayed peak -pulsus parvus et tardus
Pulsus alterans (characterized by strong and weak beat occurring alternately)
-Left ventricular failure
-Paroxysmal tachycardia
-Toxic myocarditis
72. Osmotic Fragility of RBCs is increased in case of (1 point)

◯ Sickle Cell Anaemia
⚫ Hereditary Spherocytosis
◯ Thalassemia
◯ Chronic Lead Poisoning
Explanation:
Davidson’s Principles and Practice of Medicine ,22nd edition, Page no 1028
Autosomal disease with deficiency of Spectrin, a red cell membrane protein.Erythrocytes are
spherical(Spherocytes) which are more susceptible to osmotic lysis.
Clinical Features:
Jaundice, spleenomegaly, cholelithiasis, bone changes due to bone marrow hypertrophy

73. Primary causes of adrenocortical insufficiency can be all of the following (1 point)
except
◯ Autoimmune disease
◯ Bilateral adrenalectomy
◯ Metastatic carcinoma
⚫ Hypothalamic or pituitary disease
Explanation:
Davidson’s Principles and Practice of Medicine ,22nd edition Page no 777
A. Primary causes(Increase in ACTH)
Addison's Disease
Common causes
-Autoimmune
-Tuberculosis
-HIV/AIDS
-Metastatic carcinoma
-Bilateral adrenalectomy
Rare causes
-Lymphoma
-Intraadrenal hemorrhage
-Amyloidosis
-Haemochromatosis
B. Secondary causes (Decrease in ACTH)
-Withdrawl of suppressive glucocorticoid therapy
-Hypothalamic or pituitary disease
74. Syndrome involving triad of sinusitis, bronchiectasis and situs inversus is (1 point)
◯ Youngs Syndrome
⚫ Kartagener's Syndrome
◯ Apert Syndrome
◯ Charcot Triad
Explanation:
Kartagener's Syndrome
A rare autosomal recessive genetic ciliary disorder comprising the triad of situs inversus,chronic
sinusitis and bronchiectasis. The basic problem lies in the movement of cilia,leading to recurrent
chest infections,ear/nose/throat symptoms and infertility
75. One among the following is a feature of nephritic syndrome (1 point)

◯ Hypercoagulability
◯ Hypercholesteremia
⚫ Hypertension
◯ Proteinuria
Explanation:
Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine,22nd edition,Page no 475
Nephritic Syndrome
-Hematuria(Red or brown urine)
-Oedema and generalized fluid retention
-Hypertension
-Oliguria
Nephrotic Syndrome
-Overt proteinuria(More than 3.5 g per day)
-Hypoalbuminemia
-Oedema and generalized fluid retention
76. All of the following are methods for age estimation in adults except (1 point)
◯ Dentin Translucency by Bang andRamn
⚫ Demirjian's method
◯ Gustafson's method
◯ Krager and Grupe method
Explanation:
Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology,8th Edition,Page no 729
Age estimation methods
For children
-Schour and Masssler's method
-Demirjian's method
For adults
-Gustafson's method
-Dentin Translucency method by Bang and Ramn
-Age estimation by incremental lines of cementum (Kagerer and Grupe)
-Age estimation by pulp to tooth area ratio(Cameriere and associates)

-
77. Bite mark generated due to getting bitten by incisor teeth would have (1 point)
⚫ Rectangular shape
◯ Point shape
◯ Triangular shape
◯ Rhomboidal shape
Explanation:
Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology,8th edition, Page no 734
Incisors -Rectangular marks
Canines-Triangular or rectangular
Premolars and molars-Spherical or point shaped
78. How many grades have been assigned to assess each of 6 variables in age (1 point)
estimation method given by Gustafson?
◯3
⚫ 4
◯5
◯6
Explanation:
Shafer's textbook of Oral Pathology, 8th edition, Page no 729
Four grades ranging from 0-3
e.g A tooth can have any one of the four grades for attrition(A0, A1, A2, A3) and similar for all
other variables.
79. Male mandible differs from female mandible in all of the following except (1 point)
⚫ Presence of more obtuse gonial angle
◯ Square shaped chin
◯ Large and broad ascending ramus
◯ Increased mandibular body height
Explanation:
Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology,8th edition,Page no 725
Features Male Female

General Large, broad, ascending ramus Small, narrow, ascending ramus
Condyle Large Small
Shape of chin Square Rounded/pointed
Gonial angle Less obtuse More obtuse
Body height High symphysis Low symphysis
80. Bilateral labial rotation of the distal margins of the distal margins of the (1 point)
maxillary central incisors is considered as which of these non-metric dental
traits?
◯ Shovellingof incisors
⚫ Winging of incisors
◯ Carabelli's trait
◯ Impaction trait
Explanation:
Shafer's Textbook of Oral Pathology, 8th edition,Page no 724
Winging of incisors
Winging is an indirect crown trait characterized by the bilateral labial rotation of the distal
margins of maxillary central incisors.The incisal edges of the central incisors taken together
appears 'V' shaped from the occlusal aspect
81. Neurotransmitter in Frey's syndrome is: (1 point)
⚫ Acetylcholine
◯ Serotonin
◯ Epinephrine
◯ Nor-epinephrine
Explanation:
[Marx and Stern oral pathology 1st edition 41]
The facial sympathetic system is unique in that its neurotransmitter is acetylcholine, which
allows the cholinergic parasympathetic fibers to functionally excite these normally sympathetic
receptors to produce sweating and flushing.
82. Cannon disease is: (1 point)

⚫ Autosomal dominant
◯ Autosomal recessive
◯ X-linked disease
◯ Syndrome of unknown etiology
Explanation:
[Nevile South Asia 1st edition 691]
White sponge nevus (Cannon disease) is a rare genodermatosis that is inherited as Autosomal
dominant trait displaying high degree of penetrance and variable expressivity.
83. Abluminal cells can form which cell in pleomorphic adenoma: (1 point)
◯ Mucinous cells
⚫ Plasmacytoid
◯ Salivary mucin
◯ Oncocytes
Explanation:
[Nevile 1st edition 447]
Histologically, salivary gland basically comprise ducts and acini, which consist of four types of
cells; ductal, acinar, myoepithelial and basal.
Myoepithelial and basal cells are located on basement membrane side surrounding the
luminal cells, and are thus called abluminal cells.
Plasmacytoid cells represent the most distinctive form of modified myoepithelial cells, they are
oval-shaped with homogenous eosinophilic hyaline cytoplasm.
84. Rumpel leede phenomenon is: (1 point)

◯ Test for infectious mononucleosis
⚫ Test for capillary fragility
◯ Folic acid absorption test
◯ Test for Lymphogranuloma venereum
Explanation:
Rumpel leede phenomenon or torniquet test determines capillary fragility.
85. The ability to enlarge a blister in the direction of the periphery by applying (1 point)
mechanical pressure on the roof of the intact blister spreading of a blister
into a clinically normal skin when lateral pressure is applied on the edge of a
blister is:
◯ Nikolsky sign
◯ Hoagland sign
⚫ Asboe-Hansen sign
◯ Jellinek sign
86. A patient is complaining of generalized microabscess in oral mucosa with (1 point)

history of use of new toothpaste. The histopathology shows exocytosis annd
neutrophil infiltration. The appropriate treatment option is:
◯ Systemic Antibiotic and NSAIDS
⚫ Beclomethasone Mouth Rinse
◯ Fluconazole
◯ Systemic Antifungal
87. 'Fleur-de-lys' term is used for: (1 point)

◯ Denticle
◯ Odontome
⚫ Dens invaginatus
◯ Supernumerary tooth
Explanation:
[More CB, Patel HJ (2012) 147]
H. M. Worth has described two types of dens in dente: first is a root dilation resembling an open
umbrella and other one is Fleur-de-lys which resembles the French emblem.
88. Which one of the following shows "Blueberry lips" ? (1 point)

◯ Cyanotic heart disease
⚫ MEN syndrome
◯ Albright syndrome
◯ Gardner syndrome
Explanation:
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B or Multiple mucosal neuroma is an autosomal dominant

disorder caused due to RET mutation is characterized by medullary thyroid cancer (MTC) and
pheochromocytoma. The disorder can also include mucosal neuromas, which are often located
on the lips and tongue. The thickened lips are known as Blueberry lips.
89. A 36 year old woman reported with history of exposed bone in the posterior (1 point)
alveolus with history of multiple myeloma probably has:
◯ Osteomyelitis
◯ Osteoradionecrosis
⚫ Bisphosphonate related necrosis
◯ Recurrence of multiple myeloma
Explanation:
[Byung-Do Lee et al, 2015 Sep 199]
There have been several case reports of bisphosphonate related osteoradionecrosis in patients of
multiple myeloma, therefore one is inclined to give it a probable diagnosis of the same.
90. A 50 year old man was admitted for myocardial infarction. Ten days later, he (1 point)
developed paralysis of the right side of the body. The most common cause is:
◯ Thrombus of right ventricle
⚫ Thrombus of mitral valve
◯ Thrombus of pulmonary valve
◯ Embolus of portal vein
Explanation:
Paralysis of the right side of the body requires blockade (thrombus) in the brain/brain vessels.
Thromnus of the mitral valve is the only location where embolus formation and its subsequent
lodgement in the brain vessels can be a cause of brain tissue infarction and paralysis.
91. Hurter and Driffield curve is for: (1 point)

◯ NITI wires
◯ Dental caries
⚫ Dental radiograph
◯ Stainless steel
Explanation:
[Radiology for dental professional by Herbt H 9th edition 499]
The Hurter and Driffield curve is a plot that shows the relationship between film exposure and
its resultant density.
92. The facial root of premolar appears to be distal to the lingual root in X-ray. (1 point)
What will be the direction of projection ?
◯ Changed vertical direction of projection
◯ X-ray projected from distal side
⚫ X-ray projected from mesial side
◯ Changing the tube film distance
Explanation:
[White & Pharoah 5th edition 91]
It is based on the SLOB rule according to which buccal objects move in opposite direction while
lingual objects move in same direction.
93. Vertical radiolucent line between central incisor and lateral incisor is: (1 point)
◯ Artifact
◯ Fracture line
⚫ Nutrient canal
◯ Sinus
Explanation:
[White & Pharoah 5th edition 185]
Nutrient canals carry a neurovascular bundle and appear as radiolucent lines of fairly uniform
width. They are most often seen on mandibular periapical radiographs running vertically from
the inferior dental canal directly to the apex of a tooth or into the interdental space between the
mandibular incisors.
94. A radiograph of the mandibular anterior teeth in a patient reveals (1 point)

radiolucencies above the apices of right lateral and central incisors. No
restorations or cavities are present. There is no pain or swelling and the pulps
are vital. The diagnosis is:
◯ Peiapical granuloma
◯ Radicular cyst
⚫ Cementoblastoma
◯ Chronic abscess
Explanation:
[White & Pharoah 6th edition 432-434]
Options A, C and D are associated with non-vital teeth.
95. Mushroom head deformity is seen in: (1 point)

◯ Thalassemia
⚫ Sickle cell anemia
◯ Aplastic anemia
◯ G6PD deficiency
Explanation:
[Burket 9th Edition 434]
Sickle cell disease is most common cause of osteoradionecrosis of femoral head in children in
later life seen radiographically as epiphyseal-metaphyseal overlap, mushroom head deformity.
96. Weber Fechner law states that: (1 point)

◯ Simply a law of projection
⚫ Magnitude of stimulus strength perceived is approximately proportional to the log of
intensity of stimulus strength
◯ Threshold of receptor is directly proportional to stimulus strength
◯ Threshold of receptor is in-directly proportional to stimulus strength
Explanation:
[Ganong 22nd Edition 152-154]
Weber-Fechner law:
The encoding of intensity of stimulus is related to the rate of impulse discharge in the sensory
nerve fibres. Weber Fechner law states that- intensity of response of a receptor is directly
proportional to logarithmic increase in the intesity of stimulus. During the stimulation of a
receptor, if the response given by the receptor is to be doubled, the strength of stimulus must be
increased 100 times.
97. The processing of short term memory to long term memory is done in: (1 point)
◯ Prefrontal cortex
⚫ Hippocampus
◯ Neocortex
◯ Amygdala
Explanation:
[Ganong 22nd Edition 269]
Hippocampus is the site in brain where short term memory is converted into long term memory.
98. Valve of Hasner is present at: (1 point)

◯ Stensons duct
◯ Common bile duct
⚫ Nasolacrimal duct
◯ Maxillary sinus
Explanation:
Valve of Hasner is a fold of mucous membrane at the lower end of nasolacrimal duct. It prevents
air from being blown back from the nose into the lacrimal sac.
99. Sphygmomanometer reading can be correct only when: (1 point)

◯ Deflation is 5-10 min Hg per heart beat
◯ Cuff is slightly full on applying to patient's arm
◯ The cuff width is 25% of the diameter of the patient's arm
⚫ Length of the bladder encircle 80% of the patient's arm
Explanation:
The inflatable bladder inside the cuff should have an ideal width of at least 40% of the mid arm
circumference and a cuff length that is 80-100% of the arm circumference.
100. The most significant immediate result of lowered serum calcium is: (1 point)
◯ Weakened heart action
◯ Decalcification of bones
◯ Decalcification of teeth
⚫ Hyperirritability of nerves and muscles
Explanation:
[Sembulingam 4th Edition 374]
When the concentration of the ionized calcium is lowered, the more immediate effect is
hyperirritability of the neuro-muscular system results.
101. Wh ich of the following bone does not articulate with maxilla ? (1 point)
◯ Vomer
⚫ Sphenoid
◯ Ethmmoid
◯ Zygoma
Explanation:
[Textbook of Anatomy I. B. Singh 126]
Each maxilla articulates with nine bones: two of the cranium, seven facial bones.
 Two cranial bones: Frontal and Ethmoid

 Seven facial bones: Nasal, Zygomatic, Lacrimal, Inferior concha, Palatine, Vomer and
adjacent fused maxilla
102. Pain in ethmoid sinusitis is carried by: (1 point)
◯ Lacrimal nerve
⚫ Nasociliary nerve
◯ Infratrochlear nerve
◯ Frontal nerve
103. Medial squint is caused by paralysis of: (1 point)

◯ Occulomotor nerve
⚫ Abducens nerve
◯ Optic Nerve
◯ Trochlear nerve
Explanation:
Medial squint means there is paralysis of lateral rectus muscle which carries out lateral
movement of eye. Lateral rectus is supplied by abducens nerve.
104. The growth and development in the craniofacial region occurs in the (1 point)
following order:
⚫ The head first, then width of face and length (or) depth of face afterwwards
◯ The width of face, then head and length (or) depth of face afterwards
◯ The length (or) depth of face then width of face and the head
◯ The head first, length (or) depth of face and then width of face
105. Th e anterior triangle occupy the side of the neck in front of sternomastoid (1 point)
muscle. Each triangle presents boundaries in front:
◯ Anterior median line of the neck extending from symphysis menti to suprasternal notch
◯ The midline of the neck
⚫ Midline of the neck upto the sternoclavicular joint
◯ Posterior border of thyroid gland
Explanation:
[BDC H & N 4th Edition 119]
106. Leukemia inhibiting factor, which is responsible for bone resorption and (1 point)
then releasing calcium ions from hydroxyapatite into the blood, is secreted
by
⚫ Osteoblast
◯ Osteoclast
◯ Fibroblast
◯ Monocytes
Explanation:
Ans: A (Ref: Carranza 11th ed)
Leukemia inhibiting factor (LIF), secreted by osteoblasts, coalesce monocytes into

multinucleated osteoclasts, which then resorb bone, releasing calcium ions from hydroxyapatite
into the blood.
107. The turnover time for junctional epithelium is (1 point)

⚫ 1-6 days
◯ 10-14 days
◯ 14-21 days
◯ 21-30 days
Explanation:
The following have been reported as turnover times for different areas of the oral epithelium in
experimental animals: palate, tongue, and cheek, 5 to 6 days; gingiva, 10 to 12 days, with the
same or more time required with age; and junctional epithelium, 1 to 6 days
108. The periodontal pathogen involved in the etiology of tonsillitis is (1 point)
◯ P. gingivalis
◯ A. Acomitans
◯ T denticola
⚫ P intermedia
Explanation:
Ans: D (Ref: Carranza 11th ed)
 Streptococcus salivarius and Streptococcus mitis are the first and most dominant oral
microbes to colonize the oral cavity of newborn infants.
 More than 500 different species are capable of colonizing the adult mouth.
 Periodontal pathogens that are involved in the etiology of tonsillitis are Fusobacterium
nucleatum and Prevotella intermedia.
 One gram of plaque (wet weight) contains approximately 1011 bacteria.
109. Untrue about Primary Trauma from occlusion (1 point)

◯ Supracrestal fibres are not affected
◯ No apical migration of Junctional epithelium
◯ No pocket formation
⚫ May manifest as gingivitis in early cases
Explanation:
 Primary trauma from occlusion occurs if trauma from occlusion is considered the primary
etiologic factor in periodontal destruction.
 In primary TFO, supracrestal gingival fibers are not affected and therefore prevent apical
migration of the junctional epithelium.
110. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is not characterized by (1 point)

◯ ballooning degeneration
◯ Tzanck cells
⚫ Acanthosis
◯ Multinucleated cells
Explanation:
Ans: C (Ref: Carranza 11th ed)
 The virus targets the epithelial cells, which show “ballooning degeneration” that consists
of acantholysis, nuclear clearing, and nuclear enlargement. These cells are called Tzanck
cells.
 Infected cells fuse, forming multinucleated cells, and intercellular edema leads to
formation of an intraepithelial vesicles
111. "Calculus control toothpastes,” also referred to as “tartar control (1 point)

to othpastes,” contain
◯ Diphosphates
⚫ Pyrophosphates
◯ Triple phosphates
◯ Zinc phosphates
Explanation:
Ans: B (Lindhe, 5th ed)
 “Calculus control toothpastes,” also referred to as “tartar control toothpastes,” contain

pyrophosphates and have been shown to reduce the deposition of new calculus on teeth.
 Dentifrice with pyrophosphates has been shown to reduce the formation of new
supragingival calculus by 30% or more.
 Pyrophosphate-containing toothpastes do not affect subgingival calculus formation or
gingival inflammation.
112. The use of antibiotics to treat plaque induced gingival diseases is (1 point)
◯ Done after scaling and root planing
◯ Done before scaling and root planing
◯ Done before and after scaling and root planing
⚫ Contraindicated
Explanation:
The use of antibiotics to treat gingival diseases is contraindicated since it is a local infection
that can be easily treated with scaling and appropriate home care by the patient
113. Th e most accurate way of evaluating the effectiveness of root planning is by (1 point)
◯ Inspect the root surface with an instrument for root smoothness
⚫ Evaluate the soft tissues 10-14 days later
◯ Use air for visual inspection
◯ Activate a curette against root surface and listen for a high pitched sound which indicates
smooth, hard surface
Explanation:
Ans: B
114. Swelling after periodontal surgical procedures (1 point)

◯ The swelling generally begins 1 to 2 hours after the operation and subsides gradually in 3
or 4 days
⚫ The swelling generally begins 1 to 2 days after the operation and subsides gradually in 3
or 4 days
◯ If occurs, never apply moist heat over the operated area
◯ Is a warning sign of surgical failure
Explanation:
Ans: B (Ref: Carranza 11th ed)
 Swelling is not unusual, particularly in areas that required extensive surgical procedures.
 The swelling generally begins 1 to 2 days after the operation and subsides gradually in 3
or 4 days.
 If this occurs, apply moist heat over the operated area.
115. Wh ich of the tooth is most frequently involved hypercementosis? (1 point)
◯ Maxillary bicuspid
◯ Mandibular bicuspid
⚫ Mandibular molars
◯ Maxillary molars
Explanation:
Ans: c [OP Neville 3rd ed 96]
Hypercementosis (cemental hyperplasia) is a nonneoplastic deposition of excessive cementum

that is continuous with the normal radicular cementum. In a study of more than 22,000
affected teeth, the mandibular molars were affected most frequently, followed by the
mandibular and maxillary second premolars and mandibular first premolars. In this study, a
2.5:1 mandibular predominance was noted.
116. Electrosurgery or radiosurgery uses electrical (radio) currents in the range (1 point)
of
◯ 1.0-1.5 million cycles per second, or megahertz
⚫ 1.5 to 7.5 million cycles per second, or megahertz
Explanation:
117. Wi dening of PDL space in Scleroderma is due to: (1 point)

◯ Deposition of collagen fiber
⚫ Deposition of collagen and oxytalan fibers
◯ Deposition of collagen and reticulin fibers
◯ Deposition of oxytalan and reticulin fibers
Explanation:
Ans: b [Shaffer’s OP 7th ed 841]
118. Wh ich of the following flap increases the width of the attached gingiva? (1 point)
◯ Modified Widman flap
◯ Undisplaced flap
⚫ Apically displaced flap
◯ Both A and C
Explanation:
 It preserves or increases the width of the attached gingiva by transforming the previously
unattached keratinized pocket wall into attached tissue.
 This increase in the width of the attached gingiva is based on the apical shift of the
mucogingival junction, which may include the apical displacement of the muscle
attachments.
119. A 18 years old boy presents with dislodged amalgam restoration wrt 36. (1 point)
The IOPA demonstrates the well-circumscribed radiopaque mass of
sclerotic bone surrounding and extending below the apex of mesial root.
Along with this, an intact lamina dura and widened PDL are other
additional radiographic features. What is your diagnosis?
◯ Cementoblastoma
◯ Hypercementosis
◯ Periapical cemental dysplasia
⚫ Condensing osteitis
Explanation:
Ans: d [Shaffer’s OP 7th ed 495]
Condensing osteitis arises most commonly in children and young adults and rarely in older
individuals. The tooth most commonly involved is the mandibular first molar, which presents a
large carious lesion.
The periapical radiograph demonstrates the pathognomonic, well-circumscribed radiopaque mass
of sclerotic bone surrounding and extending below the apex of one or both roots. The entire root
outline is nearly always visible, with an intact lamina dura. Periodontal ligament space is
widened and this is an important feature in distinguishing it from the benign cementoblastoma
that may closely resemble it radiographically.
120. Hand instruments are preferred over the rotary instruments in (1 point)
◯ Vertical grooving
◯ Radicular blending
◯ Flattening interproximal bone
⚫ Gradualizing marginal bone
Explanation:
121. A 34 years female presents with pale brown to deep chocolate (1 point)
colour pigmentation over buccal mucosa along with gingiva, tongue and ips.
lBiopsy shows acanthosis with silver-positive granules. Other findings are
low diurnal plasma cortisol and ACTH levels, and elevated level of BUN.
What is your diagnosis?
⚫ Addison’s disease
◯ Cushing’s syndrome
◯ Cushing’s disease
◯ MEN
Explanation:
Ans: a [Shaffer’s OP 7th ed 656]
122. Concentration of EDTA used for root conditioning is (1 point)

◯ 15%
◯ 17%
⚫ 24 %
◯ 30 %
Explanation:
 24% EDTA (pH 6.7) is used for 15

seconds
123. All of the following diseases are pathologically granulomatous, except: (1 point)
◯ Tuberculosis
⚫ Behcet’s syndrome
◯ Cat scratch disease
◯ Hodgkin’s disease
Explanation:
124. Th e technique of attaining expansion of the free gingival graft by alternate (1 point)
i ncisions in opposite sides of the graft is called
◯ Classical technique
⚫ Accordion technique
◯ Strip technique
◯ combination epithelial-connective tissue strip technique
Explanation:
Ans: B (Ref: Carranza 11th ed)
The accordion technique,
 described by Rateitschak et al, attains expansion of the graft by alternate incisions in

opposite sides of the graft. (see what accordion means on google image)
 This technique increases the donor graft tissue by changing the configuration of the
tissue.
The strip technique,
 developed by Han et al , consists of obtaining two or three strips of gingival donor tissue
about 3 to 5 mm wide and long enough to cover the entire length of the recipient site
 These strips are placed side by side to form one donor tissue and sutured on the recipient
site.
125. Wh ich of the ulcerative disease once considered as a separate disease- (1 point)
Sutton’s disease?
◯ Recurrent aphthous minor
⚫ Recurrent aphthous major
◯ Recurrent herpetiform ulceration
◯ Recurrent ulcer ass. with Behcet’s syndrome
Explanation:
Recurrent aphthous major, which is now believed to be simply a more severe form of recurrent
aphthous minor but which was thought at one time to represent a separate disease entity known
as periadenitis mucosa necrotica r ecurrens (Mikulicz’s scarring aphthae or Sutton’s disease).
126. The anti-inflammatory or protective mediators is/are (1 point)

⚫ IL-10
◯ IL-1α
◯ IL-1β
◯ IL-6
Explanation:
The elevations in the proinflammatory or destructive mediators in response to bacterial challenge

are counterbalanced by elevations in antiinflammatory or protective mediators such as the
cytokines IL-4 and IL-10, as well as other mediators, such as IL-1ra (receptor antagonist), and
tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases (TIMPs).
If an imbalance occurs, with excessive levels of the pro-inflammatory or destructive mediators

present in the host tissues, tissue destruction will ensue in the susceptible host.
Another potential target for host modulation could entail the use of pharmacologic agents, which
either mimic or result in elevations of endogenous anti-inflammatory or protective mediators.
127. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (1 point)

⚫ SIRS is a form of bacteraemia
◯ Bradycardia is not a component of SIRS
◯ Severe sepsis is a sepsis with evidencence of one or more organ failure
◯ IL-6 and TNFα plays a major role in septic manifestation
Explanation:
Ans: a [Baily & Love 25th ed 38]
Definitions of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and sepsis
SIRS
Two of:
 hyperthermia (>38°C) or hypothermia (< 36°C)

 tachycardia (>90min–1, no β-blockers) or tachypnoea (> 20 min–1)
 white cell count >12×109l–1 or <4× 109 l–1
 Sepsis is SIRS with a documented infection
Severe sepsis or sepsis syndrome is sepsis with evidence of one or more organ failures
[respiratory (acute respiratory distress syndrome), cardiovascular (septic shock follows
compromise of cardiac function and fall in peripheral vascular resistance), renal (usually acute
tubular necrosis), hepatic, blood coagulation systems or central nervous system]
Septic manifestations and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) are mediated by the
release of cytokines such as the interleukins (IL-6), tumour necrosis factor alpha (TNFα) and
other substances released from polymorphonuclear and phagocytic cells.
128. Which of the following is not a component of Carnoy’s fixative? (1 point)
⚫ Ascorbic acid
◯ Acetic acid
◯ Ethyl alcohol
◯ Chloroform
Explanation:
Ans: a [Pathology Practical Book- Harsh Mohan 3rd ed 8]
129. IV fluid resuscitation is appropriate for any adult with a burn greater than: (1 point)
◯ 10% TBSA
⚫ 15% TBSA
◯ 20% TBSA
◯ 25% TBSA
Explanation:
Ans: b [Baily & Love 25th ed 382]
Fluids for resuscitation
■In children with burns over 10% TBSA and adults with burns over 15% TBSA, consider the
need for intravenous fluid resuscitation
■ If oral fluids are to be used, salt must be added
■ Fluids needed can be calculated from a standard formula
■ The key is to monitor urine output
130. Th e most common location of the squamous cell carcinoma in oral cavity is: (1 point)
◯ Dorsal surface of tongue
⚫ Ventral surface of tongue
◯ Hard palate
◯ None of the above
Explanation:
Ans: b [Robin’s Basic Pathology 9th ed 554]
The most common sites are ventral surface of tongue, floor of mouth, lower lip, soft palate, and
gingiva.
131. Wh at is the normal ICP value? (1 point)

◯ 2-4 mmHg
◯ 4-6 mmHg
⚫ 8-12 mmHg
◯ 12-16 mmHg
Explanation:
Ans: c [Baily & Love 25th ed 307]
132. On histologic examination of biopsy from parotid gland demonstrates cords, (1 point)
sheets, and cysts lined by squamous cells, mucous cells, and
intermediate cells. What is your diagnosis?
◯ Adenocarcinoma
◯ Cystadenoma
⚫ Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
◯ Warthin’s tumor
Explanation:
Ans: c [Robin’s Basic Pathology 9th ed 557]
133. The most common causative microorganism/s of maxillary sinusitis is/are: (1 point)
⚫ Streptococcus pneumoniae and Hemophilus influenza
◯ Streptococcus pyogens and Hemophilus influenza
◯ Streptococcus pyogens and Hemophilus ducreyi
◯ Streptococcus pnemoniae and Hemophilus ducreyi
Explanation:
Ans: a [Baily & Love 25th ed 682]
134. Ze bra bodies are found in: (1 point)

◯ Gaucher’s disease
◯ Glycogen storage disease
⚫ Niemann pick disease type A and B
◯ Glactosemia
Explanation:
Ans: c [Robin’s Basic Pathology 9th ed 557]
135. Wh ich of the viral infection is most common after organ transplantation? (1 point)
◯ HSV
⚫ CMV
◯ EBV
◯ HIV
Explanation:
Ans: b [Baily & Love 25th ed 1416]
The risk of viral infection is highest during the first 6 months after transplantation and the most
common problem is CMV infection. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection is another common
after transplantation.
PTLD (post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder) is an abnormal proliferation of B
lymphocytes, usually in response to Epstein–Barr virus infection.
136. Maximum recommended adult dose of epinephrine in any 30 minute period (1 point)
i n a patient with history of myocardial infarction is-
◯ 0.02 mg
◯ 0.2 mg
⚫ 0.04 mg
◯ 0.4 mg
Explanation:
Ans: c (Contemporary 6th ed 10)
Maximum recommended adult dose in healthy patient is 0.2 mg, i.e. 5 fold of 0.04
137. Wh ile suturing the curved needle is held: (1 point)

◯ At the tip of the needle
◯ At the base of the needle
⚫ Two third of the distance from the tip of the needle
◯ Two third of the distance from the base of the needle
Explanation:
Ans: c (Contemporary 6th ed 73)
The curved needle is held approximately two thirds the distance between the tip and base of the
needle. This allows enough of the needle to pass through the tissue while allowing the needle
holder to grasp the needle in its STRONG portion to prevent bending of the needle or dulling the
tip.
138. Flap dehiscence can be prevented by (1 point)

◯ Releasing incision on the two sides of the flap
⚫ Approximating the edges of the flap over healthy bone by gently handling
◯ By making wider apex than base
◯ Gently wiping with the moist cotton during the longer period of surgery
Explanation:
Ans: b (Contemporary 6th ed 39)
139. Th e minimum height of bone required for implant in anterior mandible: (1 point)
◯ 4 mm
⚫ 6 mm
◯ 8 mm
◯ 10 mm
Explanation:
Ans: b [PETERSON'S PRINCIPLES OF ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY 2ND ED

195]
Indication for bone augmentation of the anterior mandible in a patient with less than 6 mm of
bone height. Patients with greater than 6 mm of bone height can do well with implants without
bone augmentation.
140. All of the following are indication for removal of impacted mandibular 3rd (1 point)
molar, except:
◯ Preventition of jaw fracture in contact sports
◯ Management of unexplained pain
◯ Prevention of root resorption of adjacent teeth
⚫ None of the above
Explanation:
Ans: d [PETERSON'S PRINCIPLES OF ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY 2ND ED

142]
An impacted third molar presents an area of lowered resistance to fracture in the mandible and is
therefore a common site for fracture.
Occasionally patients complain of jaw pain in the area of an impacted third molar that has neither
clinical nor radiographic signs of pathology. In these situations removal of the impacted third
molar frequently results in resolution of this pain.
141. Wh ich of the following space infection has the highest risk to airway and (1 point)
other vital structures?
◯ Submasseteric
◯ Submandibular
⚫ Lateral pharyngeal
◯ Pterigomandibular
Explanation:
Ans: c [PETERSON'S PRINCIPLES OF ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY 2ND ED

280]
Severity Scores of Fascial Space Infections Severity Score
Anatomic Space
Severity score = 1(low risk to airway or vital structures)
 Vestibular
 Subperiosteal
 Space of the body of the mandible
 Infraorbital Buccal
Severity score = 2 (moderate risk to airway or vital structures)
 Submandibular
 Submental
 Sublingual
 Pterygomandibular
 Submasseteric
 Superficial temporal
 Deep temporal (or infratemporal)
Severity score = 3 (high risk to airway or vital structures)
 Lateral pharyngeal
 Retropharyngeal
 Pretracheal
Severity score = 4 (extreme risk to airway or vital structures)
 Danger space (space 4)

 Mediastinum
 Intracranial infection
The severity score for a given patient is the sum of the severity scores for all of the spaces
involved by cellulitis or abscess, based on clinical and radiographic examination.
142. The most common complication after endoscopic sinus surgery is: (1 point)
◯ Recurrent epistaxis
◯ Reccurent sinusitis
◯ Olfactory dysfunction
⚫ Synechia formation
Explanation:

309]
The most common complication after endoscopic sinus surgery is the formation of synechiae,
observed in approximately 8%.Although these may be asympto
matic, they may also contribute to ostial stenosis and obstruction and, ultimately, the need for
revision surgery.
143. Tripod fracture involves following bones (1 point)
◯ Zygomatic, maxillary and frontal

◯ Zygomatic, maxillary, and temporal
⚫ Zygomatic, maxillary, frontal and temporal bone
◯ Zygomatic, maxillary, frontal and ethmoidal bone
Explanation:
Ans: c (Neelima Malik 4th 533) Fracture of zygomatic complex is also known as tripod fracture
144. If you are planning for presurgical orthodontics prior to orthognathic (1 point)
surgery, which of the following statement is incorrect?
⚫ Class II elastics are used in class II patients
◯ Class II elastics are used in class III patients
◯ Class III elastics are used in class II patients
◯ Class III elastics are used to upright the mandibular incisors
Explanation:
Ans: a (Neelima Malik 4th ed 425)
For presurgical orthodontics, class III elastics in class II patients to upright or retract the
mandibular incisors and help to procline the maxillary incisors or left in the original position.
Reverse is done in Class III cases with class II elastics.
145. Which of the following is/are the simplest form of alveoplasty? (1 point)
⚫ Compression of the lateral walls of the extraction socket
◯ Minor recontouring of alveolar bone
◯ Removal of sharp bones with rongeurs
Explanation:
Ans: a (Contemporary 6th ed 204)

146. Cleft orthognathic surgery is generally undertaken at (1 point)
◯ 10 weeks of age
◯ 9-18 months of age
◯ 6-9 years of age
⚫ 14-18 years of age
Explanation:

845]
Staged Reconstruction of Cleft Lip and Palate Deformities

Procedure Timing
Cleft lip repair After 10 weeks

Cleft palate repair 9–18 months
Pharyngeal flap or pharyngoplasty 3–5 years or later based on speech development
Maxillary/alveolar reconstruction with 6–9 years based on dental development

bone grafting
Cleft orthognathic surgery 14–16 years in girls, 16–18 years in boys

Cleft rhinoplasty After age 5 years but preferably at skeletal
maturity; after orthognathic surgery when
possible
Cleft lip revision Anytime once initial remodeling and scar

maturation is complete but best performed after
age 5 years
147. Block anesthetic technique is preferred over infiltration during biopsy (1 point)
because
◯ Infiltration doesn’t provide adequate anesthesia for biopsy
◯ Block anesthetic techniques are easier than infiltration
⚫ Infiltrated anesthetic solution can cause distortion of the cellular architecture of the
specimen
Explanation:
Ans: c (Contemporary 6th ed 434/435)
148. Resection of tumour without disruption of the continuity of bone is known (1 point)
as
⚫ Marginal resection
◯ Partial resection
◯ Total resection
◯ Composite resection
Explanation:
Ans: a (Contemporary 6th ed 459)
149. Among the treatment guidelines proposed by Marx (1992 ), which one of the (1 point)
following is indicated to enhance microvascular reperfusion?
◯ Disrupt infectious foci
◯ Debride necrotic tissue or sequestra
◯ Drain and irrigate the region
⚫ Decortication of 1 to 2 cm beyond the area of involvement
Explanation:
Ans: d [Neelima Malik 4th ed 895/900]
The treatment guidelines for acute or chronic OML (Marx, 1992)
1. Disrupt infectious foci

2. Debride any foreign bodies, necrotic tissue, or sequestra
3. Culture and identify specific pathogens for eventual definitive anitibiotic treatment
4. Drain and irrigate the region
5. Begin empiric antibiotics based on Gram stain
6. Stabilize calcified tissue regionally
7. Consider adjunctive treatments to enhance microvascular reperfusion: (a) Trephination,
and (b) Decortication. These may be accomplished during debridement, (c) Vascular
flaps (muscle), and (d) Hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) therapy.
8. Reconstruction: As necessary following resolution of infection.
150. Which of the following is not a surgical approaches to TMJ? (1 point)

◯ Dingmans’s approach
◯ Blair’s approach
◯ Thoma approach
⚫ Keen’s approach
Explanation:
Ans: d (Neelima Malik 4th 352)
Keen’s approach is an intraoral buccal vestibular approach used to gain access in zygomatic
complex fracture. Other options are the preauricular approach to gain access to TMJ.
Surgical approaches to TMJ
1. Submandibular (Risdon’s) approach

2. Postramal (Hind’s) approach
3. Postauricular approach
4. Endaural approach
5. Preauricular approach:
6. Dingman’s
7. Blair’s
8. Thoma’s
9. Popwich’s modification of AL- Kayat and Bramley’s
10. Hemicoronal approach
11. Coronal or bicoronal approach
151. First pass metabolism of nitrous oxide inhalational gas occurs in (1 point)
◯ Plasma
◯ Liver
◯ Kidney
⚫ None
Explanation:
Ans: d [Short Textbook of General Anesthesia- Ajay Yadav 6th ed 95]
It is not metabolized in human body
152. All of the following are the cause of inadequate reversal of anesthesia, except (1 point)
◯ Shock
⚫ Hyperthyroidism
◯ Renal failure
◯ Hepatic failure
Explanation:
Ans: b [Short Textbook of General Anesthesia- Ajay Yadav 6th ed 133]
Hypothyroidism is the cause of inadequate reversal of anesthesia due to decrease metabolism. In

hyperthyroidism, metabolism increases.
153. Which of the following nerve block is also called true mandibular nerve (1 point)
block?
⚫ Gow - Gates mandibular nerve block
◯ Vazorani – Akinosi nerve block
◯ Inferior alveolar nerve block
◯ Inferior alveolar + long buccal + lingual nerve block
Explanation:
Ans: a (Malamed 5th ed 237)

154. Wh ich of the following is not a part of the prefilled cartridge? (1 point)
◯ Cylindrical glass tube
◯ Stopper
⚫ Harpoon
◯ Diaphragm
Explanation:
Ans: c (Malamed 5thed 103)
Harpoon is a part of metal aspirating syringe.
155. EMLA ( Eutectic mixture of local anaesthetic ) is a combination of – (1 point)

◯ Lidocaine and epinephrine
◯ Lidocaine and bupivacaine
◯ Lidocaine and procaine
⚫ Lidocaine and prilocaine
Explanation:
(Malamed 5thed 110) 5% lidocaine + 5 % prilocaine = EMLA
156. True about odontopathic bacteria (1 point)

◯ Unerupted teeth in humans can develop dental caries
◯ There is no role of antibiotics in reducing caries as antibiotics do not neutralize acids
◯ Lesions similar to dental caries cannot be demonstrated in vitro
⚫ Oral bacteria do not occur in solitary colonies
Explanation:
Ans: D (Ref: Sturdevants 5th ed, page no 69)
 Teeth free from bacterial infection, either in germfree animals or unerupted teeth in
humans, do not develop caries.
 Oral bacteria do not occur as solitary colonies,but as members of a complex community
inbiofilm
 Antibiotics are effective in reducing caries in animals and humans.
 Oral bacteria can demineralize enamel in vitro and produce lesions similar to naturally
occurring caries.
157. Cusp capping is considered if (1 point)

◯ extension from a primary groove toward the cusp tip is no more than half the distance
⚫ extension is one half to two thirds of the distance
◯ extension is more than two thirds of the distance
◯ extension is 1/4th of the intercuspal distance
Explanation:
Ans: B (ref: Sturdevants 5th edition page number 302, fig 6.27)
Rule for cusp capping: If extension from a primary groove toward the cusp tip is no more than
half the distance,no cusp capping;if this extension is one half to two thirds of the distance,
consider cusp capping; if the extension is more than two thirds of the distance, usually cap the
cusp.
158. Instrument formula of a Bin-angle spoon excavator is 13-7-14. The primary (1 point)
cutting edge angle is
◯ 25.2 degrees
◯ 14 degrees
◯ 50 degrees
⚫ 90 degrees
Explanation:
Ans: D (Ref: sturdevants 5th ed page no.329)
 If the primary cutting edge is locally perpendicular to the blade, a three-number code
is used.
 First number represents: width of the blade or primary cutting edge in tenths of a
millimeter (1.3 mm)
 2nd digit: blade length in millimeters (7 mm)
 3rd digit: blade angle, relative to the long axis of the handle in clockwise centigrade
(14/100*360=50 degrees). This number is always 50 or less.
159. Th e direction of polymerization shrinkage of the light cure composite is (1 point)

◯ Towards the centre of the mass
⚫ Towards the light source
◯ Away from the centre of the mass
◯ Away from the light source
Explanation:
Ans: B (Ref: Sturdevants 5th ed, page no 505)
 Direction of polymerization shrinkage for self cured materials is generally centralized

(toward the center of the mass).
 Recent study shows light cure composites do not shrink towards the light, but that the
direction is predominantly determined by cavity shape and bond quality
160. The root-surface cavosurface angle should be beveled for (1 point)

◯ Amalgam
◯ Composite
◯ porcelain
⚫ Intracoronal cast metal restorations
Explanation:
ans: D (ref: Sturdevants 5th edition page number 314)
when a preparation has extended onto the root surface (no enamel present),the root-surface
cavosurface angle should be either 90 degrees (for amalgam, composite, or porcelain
restorations) or beveled (for intracoronal cast metal restorations).
161. Gingival cavosurface for amalgam is beveled at an angle of (1 point)

⚫ 15-20 degrees
◯ 30-40 degrees
◯ 90 degrees
◯ 140-150 degrees
Explanation:
Ans: A ((Ref: Sturdevants 5th ed)
 Class II amalgam: 15-20 degrees gingival bevel

 Cast metal: 140-150 degrees cavosurface bevel
162. Th e bur depth for class V tooth preparation pulpally is (1 point)

◯ 1.5 mm at the gingival and 2.0 mm at the incisal
⚫ 0.8 mm at the gingival and 1.25 mm at the incisal
Explanation:
Ans: C (ref: Sturdevants 5th edition page number 302/303)
 During the initial tooth preparation, the bur depth is usually no deeper than 0.8 to
1.25mm pulpally from the original (when unaffected) tooth surface.
 The lesser axial wall depth (0.8mm) is at a gingival wall without an enamel portion (i.e.,
the margin is on the root surface).
 The correct axial wall depth at the occlusal (incisal) wall is that which provides a 0.5 -mm
extension into dentin (the remainder being enamel)
163. Wh ich instrument is specifically designed for carrying MTA? (1 point)

◯ Pegasus carrier
◯ Hu-Friedy carrier
⚫ Dovgan carrier
◯ Plastic carrier
Explanation:
ANS: C (Grossman’s Endodontic Practice; 13th edition)
164. Th e subgingival fracture line that extends below the level of alveolar crest (1 point)
belongs to
◯ Class I
◯ Class II
⚫ Class III
◯ Class IV
Explanation:
ANS: C (Grossman’s Endodontic Practice; 13th edition; page 423)
Heithersay and Morile Classification of Subgingival fractures:
 Class I: Fracture line does not extend below the level of attached gingiva
 Class II: Fracture line extends below the level of attached gingival, but not below the
level of alveolar crest
 Class III: Fracture line extends below the level of alveolar crest
 Class IV: Fracture line is within the coronal third, but extends below the level of alveolar
crest
165. Wh ich one of the following is not true regarding principle motion of (1 point)
i nstrumentation?
◯ In step-back technique, Coronal instrumentation with reaming motion and apical
instrumentation with circumferential filing.
◯ In step- down technique, the principle motion of instrumentation is reaming motion.
⚫ In step- back technique, the principle motion of instrumentation is filing motion.
◯ In hybrid technique, Coronal instrumentation with reaming motion and apical
instrumentation with circumferential filing.
Explanation:
ANS: C (Grossman’s Endodontic Practice; 13th edition; page 315)

166. Endotec II tips are used in (1 point)
⚫ Warm lateral compaction technique
◯ Warm vertical compaction technique
◯ Thermoplasticized injection technique
◯ Continuous wave technique
Explanation:
ANS: A (Grossman’s Endodontic Practice; 13th edition; page 356)
The Endotec II device was developed by Martin. It is a battery-powered, heat-controlled

spreader/plugger that ensures complete thermo-softening of any type of gutta percha.The device
is placed beside the master cone and activated followed by placement of an unheated spreader in
the space previously occupied by heat carrier.
167. Te vdek sutures used for endodontic microsurgeries are usually removed (1 point)
after
◯ 24-36 hours
⚫ 48-72 hours
◯ 72-96 hours
◯ 7 days
Explanation:
ANS: B (Grossman’s Endodontic Practice; 13th edition; page 468)
Tevdek sutures are the first braided polyester suture. They are one-third stronger than silk and
are coated with impregnated Teflon, originally designated for cardiac surgery due to their
strength and low friction while moving through tissue and due to their nonstick surface that
causes less bacterial adhesion. Sufficient healing should have occurred after 48 hours for suture
removal, however, it should not be left longer than 96 hours due to ‘wicking’ effect that may
cause post-operative infection
168. Wh at is the approximate length of penetration into the dentin by the (1 point)
bacterial cells from the main root canal?
◯ 200 µm
⚫ 300 µm
◯ 400 µm
◯ 500 µm
Explanation:
ANS: B (Cohen’s Pathways of Pulp; 11th edition; page 604)
Dentinal tubule infection can occur in about 70% to 80% of the teeth evincing apical
periodontitis lesions
169. What type of current is used by Electric Pulp test? (1 point)

◯ Alternating current
◯ Interrupted Alternating current
◯ Direct current
⚫ Interrupted Direct current
170. In mandibular incisors, the ferrule is longer on (1 point)

⚫ Labial aspect
◯ Lingual aspect
◯ Proximal aspect
◯ Equal in all sides
Explanation:
ANS: A (Grossman’s Endodontic Practice; 13th edition; page 404)
In maxillary incisors, the ferrule is longer in the palatal aspect.

171. Sickle cell anemia, a sickling disease of red blood cells, results from the (1 point)
substitution of
⚫ glutamate by valine at the sixth position in the β subunit of hemoglobin
◯ valine by glutamate at the sixth position in the β subunit of hemoglobin
◯ proline by glycine at the sixth position in the β subunit of hemoglobin
◯ glycine by proline at the sixth position in the β subunit of hemoglobin
Explanation:
Ans: A ( Lippincotts Biochemistry, 5th ed, page no 4 )
172. Which of the following amino acid is not the constituent of collagen fibres? (1 point)
◯ Glycine
◯ Proline
◯ Hydroxyproline
⚫ Lysine
Explanation:
Ans: D (Lippincotts Biochemistry, 5th ed, page no 45 )
Collagen is rich in proline and glycine, both of which are important in the formation of the triple-
stranded helix. The glycine residues are part of a repeating sequence, –Gly–X–Y–, where X is
frequently proline and Y is often hydroxyproline (but can be hydroxylysine). Thus, most of the α
chain can be regarded as a polytripeptide whose sequence can be represented as (–Gly–Pro–
Hyp–).
173. Th e optimum temperature for most human enzymes is between 35 and (1 point)
40°C. What would happen to the reaction velocity if the temperature is
in creased above 40 degrees?
◯ Increase
⚫ Decrease
◯ No effect of temperature
◯ First decrease slightly and then increase
Explanation:
Ans: B (Lippincotts Biochemistry, 5th ed, page no 45 )
The reaction velocity increases with temperature until a peak velocity is reached. This increase is
the result of the increased number of molecules having sufficient energy to pass over the energy
barrier and form the products of the reaction.
Further elevation of the temperature results in a decrease in reaction velocity as a result of

temperature-induced denaturation of the enzyme. The optimum temperature for most human
enzymes is between 35 and 40°C. Human enzymes start to denature at temperatures above 40°C.
174. The glucose transporter associated primarily with the transport of fructose (1 point)
is
◯ GLUT-2
◯ GLUT-2
◯ GLUT-4
⚫ GLUT-5
Explanation:
Ans: D (Lippincotts Biochemistry, 5th ed, page no 97 )
GLUT-1, GLUT -3, and GLUT-4 are primarily involved in glucose uptake from the blood. In
contrast, GLUT-2, which is found in the liver and kidney, can either transport glucose into these
cells when blood glucose levels are high, or transport glucose from these cells when blood
glucose levels are low (for example, during fasting). [Note: GLUT-2 is also found in pancreatic β
cells.] GLUT-5 is unusual in that it is the primary transporter for fructose (instead of glucose) in
the small intestine and the testes.
175. Wh ich one of the following reactions is unique to gluconeogenesis? (1 point)

◯ Lactate → pyruvate
◯ Phosphoenolpyruvate → pyruvate
⚫ Oxaloacetate → phosphoenolpyruvate
◯ Glucose 6-phosphate → fructose 6-phosphate
Explanation:
Ans: C (Lippincotts Biochemistry, 5th ed, page no 124 )
The other reactions are common to both gluconeogenesis and glycolysis.
176. In which of the following analysis measurement of lower incisors is not (1 point)
done:
◯ Stanley Kerber
⚫ Huckaba
◯ Moyer's
◯ Tanaka & Johnson
Explanation:
ANS: B [OP Kharbanda 2nd Edition 176]
Huckaba developed a method for overcoming the effect of radiographic distortions while
measuring the permanent canines and premolars MD width, using an equation relating the
measures of erupted teeth to their radiographic images in order to obtain the proportional
dimensions of unerupted teeth.
177. Wi tch's Chin is seen in all except: (1 point)

◯ Ptosis of mentalis
◯ Loss of muscle attachment
⚫ Increased vertical dimension
◯ Long term edentulous and without denture
Explanation:
ANS: C [Bouchers 13th Edition 48]
Where the patient has a complete upper denture and only anterior mandibular teeth remaining, so
called combination syndrome or Kelly's syndrome may be evident. Loss of vertical dimension of
occlusion and dramatically altererd facial esthetics, giving rise to a Witch's chin (Option C is
wrong).
178. For finishing abrasives between _______ _ _ is used: (1 point)

◯ 2-8 microns
⚫ 8-20 microns
◯ 18-32 microns
◯ 30-42 microns
Explanation:
ANS: B [Phillip's Science of Dental Materials, 11th Edition 356]
Finishing provides a relatively blemish free, smooth surface. It is usually accomplished with 18-
30 fluted carbide burs or abrasives between 8-20 microns.
179. What is true regarding In-ovation-L ? (1 point)

⚫ Self ligating bracket system
◯ Computer control 3-D bracket
◯ Clear Aligner system
◯ Not recalled
Explanation:
ANS: A [Dentsply orthodontics Self ligating brackets]
In-Ovation L from Dentsply is Self-Ligating Lingual Bracket.
180. Katz classification of malocclusion is based on: (1 point)

◯ Incisor
◯ Canine
◯ Molar
⚫ Premolar
Explanation:
ANS: D [OP Kharbanda 2nd Edition 42]
Katz(1992) based his classification using pre-molars as a reference landmark.
181. Bone resorption around a tooth apically will shift the centre of (1 point)
resistance_____ _ _ ?
◯ Coronally
◯ At CEJ
⚫ Apically
◯ Remain same
Explanation:
ANS: C [OP Kharbanda 2nd Edition 357]
The centre of resistance of a tooth is a point on the tooth where a single force would produce
translation, i.e. all points on the tooth moving in parallel straight lines. The centre of resistance
(CRes) of a healthy tooth is about 2/5th the length of the root from the alveolar crest to the apex.
Center of resistance varies with:
 Root length
 Alveolar bone height. Shift apically in case of alveolar bone loss
 The root morphology- single or multirooted teeth
182. Parameter not used to measure degree of retrusion or protrusion of lower (1 point)
ja w:
◯ Facial angle
◯ ANB
⚫ Facial axis angle
◯ Na-Pog perpendicular
Explanation:
Facial axis angle: This angle is formed by the intersection of basion-nasion line and the facial
axis. The angle describes the direction of growth of mandible at chin. A larger angle indicates
horizontal direction of mandibular growth while a smaller angle is suggestive of more vertical
growth. Facial axis angle remains stable in a normally growing child or reduces a little.
183. Facial index value of 81 is: (1 point)

⚫ Euryprosopic
◯ Mesoprosopic
◯ Leptoprosopic
◯ Hyperleptoprosopic
Explanation:
ANS: A [Gurkerrat Singh 2nd Edition 68]
184. All of the following are First order bends except: (1 point)
◯ Lateral Inset
◯ Toe-in bend
⚫ Tip Bend
◯ Molar offset
Explanation:
Tip bends (Mesio-distal movements) are Second order bends.
185. Safety valve mechanism is: (1 point)

◯ The anteroposterior increment in the maxilla at 14 years
◯ Increase in the mandibular inter-canine width at 14 years
◯ Increase in the mandibular height at 12 years
⚫ Increase in the maxillary inter-canine width at 12 years
Explanation:
ANS: D [Textbook of Orthodontics by Sridhar Prem Kumar 1st Edition 20]
In both males and females, the maxillary intercanine dimension serves as a safety valve
mechanism to control mandibular growth during pubertal growth spurts, where there is a basal
horizontal mandibular growth partly unmatched by the growth of maxilla, as the mandibular
grows downward and forward. The maxillary intercanine dimension adjusts as the mandibular
dentition is brought forward, thus eliminating the flush terminal plane relation or residual class II
tendencies.
186. Not true about lip bumper: (1 point)

◯ Distalization of molar
◯ Distolingual rotation of molar
⚫ Ligual tipping of incisors
◯ Buccal displacement of deciduous molars
Explanation:
ANS: C [Profit 4th Edition 478]
With the lip bumper, a labial appliance fitted to tubes on the molar teeth, the idea is that the
appliance presses against the lip, which creates a distal force to tip the molars posteriorly without
affecting the incisors.
187. A 21 year old male healthy patient reported with a prognathic mandible, (1 point)
intraorally he has anterior crossbite and class III molar relationship,
cephalometrically has an SNA of 78 degrees, SNB of 89 degrees: What
would be the treatment of choice for the adult class III skeletal malocclusion
with prominent chin?
◯ Functional appliance
◯ Fixed orthodontics
◯ Functional Jaw orthopedic correction
⚫ Surgical orthodontics
Explanation:
ANS: D
Normal SNA angle is 82 degrees and SNB is 80 degrees with ANB angle of 2 degrees. In this
case the ANB is -11 degrees, which means the patient is having severe class III. This
malocclusion can be corrected with surgical orthodontics keeping also the age (21) in mind
where growth is almost completed.
188. Niroj, a 13-year old child has a severe thumb-sucking habit. On examination (1 point)
he has a class-II malocclusion, anterior open bite with an over-jet of 12mm.
His cephalogram will show:
◯ Normal anterior and posterior facial heights
⚫ Increased anterior facial height and normal posterior facial height
◯ Increased posterior facial height and normal anterior facial height
◯ Increased posterior facial height and increased anterior facial height
Explanation:
ANS: B
189. Dr Bikram, Dr Saroj, Dr Kanchan and Dr Milan did model analysis by (1 point)
Johnson and Tanaka; Moyer's; Stanley and Kerber and Wits analysis.
Wh ich one will give the best results ?
◯ Johnson and Tanaka
◯ Moyer's
⚫ Stanley and Kerber
◯ Wits
Explanation:
ANS: C
Stanley-Kerber method will give the best prediction of tooth size followed by Tanaka Johnson
and Moyer's analysis.
190. Ideally, functional appliance to treat the mandibular deficiency of skeletal (1 point)
class II in case of girls should be given during:
◯ Deciduous dentition
◯ Early mixed dentition
⚫ Late mixed dentition
◯ Permanent dentition
Explanation:
ANS: C [Bhalajhi 3rd Edition 333]
Best period for myofunctional therapy is the late mixed dentition period.
191. Ex posure time for cidex is: (1 point)

◯ ≥ 30 minutes
◯ ≥ 15 minutes
⚫ ≥ 10 minutes
◯ ≥ 5 minutes
Explanation:
Ans: c [Contemporary 5th ed 65]
192. Dosage of sublingual nitriglycerin tablet – (1 point)

⚫ 0.15 – 0.9 mg
◯ 0.4 mg – 1.2 mg
◯ 0. 2– 0.8 mg
◯ 5 – 80 mg
Explanation:
Ans: a (Medical Emergencies in Dental Office, Malamed 6thed 444)
Sublingual spray: 0.4 mg, Transdermal patch: 0.2-0.8 mg every 12h, IV: 5-200 mcg/min
193. Urgent CT scan is mandatory for a patient with mild head injury, if: (1 point)
◯ GCS <14 at any point
◯ One episode of vomiting
⚫ Age >65 years old
Explanation:
Ans: c [Baily & Love 25th ed 303]
NICE guidelines for computerised tomography (CT) in head injury
■ Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) <13 at any point
■ GCS 13 or 14 at 2 hours
■ Focal neurological deficit
■ Suspected open, depressed or basal skull fracture
■ Seizure
■ Vomiting > one episode
Urgent CT head scan if none of the above but:
■ Age >65
■ Coagulopathy (e.g. on warfarin)
■ Dangerous mechanism of injury (CT within 8 hours)
■ Antegrade amnesia >30 min (CT within 8 hours)

194. Immediate cardiac defbrilation is necessary for all, except (1 point)
◯ Ventricular fibrillation
◯ Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
◯ When cause of cardiac arrest is tachyarrythmia
⚫ Pulseless electrical activity
Explanation:
Ans: d [Davidson’s Principles & Practice of Mediciene 22nd ed 558/559]
195. Antidote for benzodiazepine overdose is (1 point)

◯ IV/IM Naloxane 0.4 mg/ml
⚫ IV Flumazenil 0.1 mg/ml (2 ml)
◯ IV Pheniramine maleate 22.5-45 mg
◯ Diazepam 10 mg oral
Explanation:
Ans: b [Neelima Malik 4th ed 1059]
196. Wh ich of the following is an example of antisialogogue used to control (1 point)

moisture during orthodontic bonding?
◯ Epinephrine
◯ Betamethasone dipropionate
⚫ Banthine
◯ Paracetamol
Explanation:
Antisialogogue decreases salivary secretions. Anticholinergic agent such as Atropine,

Scopolamine, Glycopyrolate, pro-banthine, Banthine, decrease the saliva flow before dental
procedures.
Probanthine produces significant xerostomia with 15-30 mg as single oral dose one half to one
hour prior to dental procedure.
197. The drug most likely to cause harmful interaction in patient taking warfarin (1 point)
is
⚫ Metronidazole
◯ Ampicillin
◯ NSAIDS
◯ Nystatin
Explanation:
Although a popular oral anticoagulant, warfarin has important drug interactions that could occur
in the dental practice setting, the most significant being with metronidazole. There have been
several reports of significant bleeding in patients taking warfarin with concomitant use of
metronidazole.
Warfarin consists of two stereoisomers, S(-) and R(+). It is hypothesised that metronidazole
inhibits the metabolism of one of the stereoisomers, leaving the more potent stereoisomer in
circulation, and therefore leading to a prolonged and dangerously enhanced anticoagulant effect.
Interestingly, if metronidazole is unavoidable then current research advises warfarin reduction
should be between one-third and one-half of the established patient dose.
198. An extracted tooth is discarded in which bag? (1 point)

⚫ Yellow
◯ Red
◯ Black
◯ Blue
Explanation:
Anatomical wastes should be kept in a yellow plastic bag.

199. A lecture is carefully prepared presentation of facts and ideas by a qualified (1 point)
person. In lectures of group dental health education, not more than 5 points
are discussed with total number of participants not more than
⚫ 30
◯ 60
◯ 90
◯ 120
Explanation:
Ans: A (Ref: Soben Peter, 5th ed, page no 124)
The duration of talk should not be more than 15-20 minutes
200. Not a principle of medical ethics (1 point)

⚫ maleficence
◯ Beneficience
◯ Autonomy
◯ Veracity
Explanation:
Ans: A (Soben Peter, 5th ed)
It should be non-maleficence.
SOME OF THE ERRORS OF THE PREVIOUS MOCK TEST (2020/J ULY

11TH ) ARE CORRECTED IN THE FOLLOWING SECTION:
81) For the For the 5 units pier abutment restoration
a) The keyway of the connector should be placed in the mesial contour of pier
abutment and the key placed on distal side of mesial pontic.
b) The keyway should be placed within the distal contour of pier abutment and key
placed on the mesial side of distal pontic.
c) The keyway should be placed within the distal contour of mesial abutment and key
placed on the mesial side of proximal pontic.
d) The key way should be placed within the distal contour of distal pontic and key
placed on mesial side of distal pontic.
In mock test answer was presented as Option C

Correct Answer: B Ref. H Shillingburg 3 rd ed page no 96
118) The method of repayment where patient pays a percent of total cost
a) Loan
b) Co – Incurance
c) Reasonable fee
d) Fee for Service
Wrong answer :
C Correct
answer : B
Ref Soben Peter 5th ed page no 504
105) Among the first line drugs used for the treatment of Tuberculosis, least
hepatotoxic is
a. Isoniazid
b. Pyrizinamide
c. Rifampicin
d. Streptomycin
Wrong answer :
C Correct
answer: D
( Except streptomycin all of the above drugs are hepatotoxic, Isoniazid and
pyrizinamide are more potent but the most hepatotoxic is Pyrizinamide )
We are extremely sorry for the inconvenience caused due to these errors. We will
appreciate your feedback regarding the quality of the test. Please feel free to point our
mistakes if there are any.
THANK YOU!
We want to thank
Dr. Deepak Kumar Roy (consultant, endodontics, KMCTH)
Dr. Megha Pradhan Joshi (HOD, Dept. of Pedodontics, KMCTH)
Dr. Junu Lohani (consultant, Prosthodontics, KMCTH)
And all the faculties of KMCTH who are constantly helping us in making these tests possible.
We also want to thank,

Dr. Pratima Adhikari (KMCTH)
Dr. Riti Gupta (KMCTH)
Dr. Shreya Kayastha (KUMS)
Dr. Sanjeev Bhandari (KDCH)
For their helping hands and constant support in making this test possible.
CORE TEAM (TEAM TARGET MCQS IN DENTAL SCIENCE)
Dr. Niroj Bhattarai

Dr. Ankit Jaiswal
Dr. Saroj Pant
Dr. Milan Rai
Dr. Bikram Karki Chhetri
Dr. Kanchanmala Gautam

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PG MOCKTEST KU full syllabus-II (18th

Please read the instructions carefully

1. Choose the best option.

We wish you All the Best.

TEAM TARGET MCQS FOR DENTAL SCIENCE

3. The most common type of thyroid gland neoplasia is ? (1 point)

Papillary carcinoma is most common neoplasia of thyroid gland accounting 70 – 75 % of total

4. Men II consists of all of the following Except: (1 point)

Men I is also known as Wermer's syndrome which involves simultaneous hyperfunctioning of

MEN II A ( Sipple syndrome )

Hematuria is present in nephritic syndrome not nephrotic .

1. No Hematuria Hematuria present

1. Severe hypoalbuminemia Absent

1. Generalized Odema ( anascara ) is Puffiness of face is seen without generalized

1. Hypertension absent Present

1) Oliguria is not seen Oliguria ( <300 ml/day ) is present

6. Steven's Johnson Syndrome is which type of adverse drug reaction: (1 point)

1. Type I – Hypersensitivity reaction

7. First choice drug for the treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis is (1 point)

8. Drug of choice for hypertensive emergencies in pregnancy is (1 point)

Sodium nitroprusside is a drug of choice for hypertensive emergencies.

Antihypertensive to be avoided during pregnancy

Antihypertensives found safer during pregnancy

Most nephrotoxic drug so it is contraindicated in case of renal failure.

 First Order Kinetics

A constant fraction of the drug is eliminated per unit of time.

800mg→ 400mg→ 200mg→ 100mg→ 50mg… and so on

 Zero Order Kinetics

Exposure to stream sterilization results to the measurable decrease in strength, scratches or

Ans C Ref. Contemporary Implant Dentistry Carl E. Misch 3rd ed Page no 45

16. First arch syndrome is (1 point)

Ans D Ref. Orban's histology and Embryology 13th ed page no 18

Pierre Robin Syndrome is characterized by

Teacher Collin's Syndrome is characterized by

 Autosomal dominant trait of malar hypoplasia ( Cheek bone not developed )

17. Which of the following statement is not correct ? (1 point)

Ans A Ref. Orban's histology and Embryology 13th ed page no 45

Ans C Ref. Orban's histology and Embryology 13th ed page no 89

Ans B Ref. Orban's histology and Embryology 13th ed page no 95

Odontoblasts are the second most prominent cell in the pulp.

20. Melanin is stored in (1 point)

Ans A Ref. Orban's histology and Embryology 13th ed page no 205

21. Ductile fracture means (1 point)

Ans C Ref. Phillip's Dental Materials 5th ed Page no 402

22. Immediate pouring of impression is most critical in (1 point)

Ans A Ref. Phillip's Dental Materials 5th ed Page no 154

24. Which of the following is synthetic waxes ? (1 point)

Ans C Ref. Phillip's Dental Materials 5th ed Page no 478

26. Passive impression technique was proposed by (1 point)

Ans A Ref. Nallaswamy 1nd edition Page no 46

Ans D Zarb 13th edition page no 28

Ans A Ref. Winkler's 2nd ed Page 385

30. The most common manifestation of ageing in tongue is (1 point)

Ans C Ref. Winkler 2nd edition page no 445

Ans A Ref. Rosenstiel 5th edition page no: 79

Ans: B Ref. H.Shillingburg 4th edition: 272

Ans: C Ref. H.Shillingburg 4th edition: 390

Ans: B Ref. H.Shillingburg 4th edition: 135

Ans: C Ref. Rosenstiel 5th edition page no: 289

McCracken's Removable Partial Prosthodontics, 13th edition, Page no 58

-Outline rounded triangular shape with apex towards centre

37. Tripoding is the method used (1 point)

McCracken's Removable Partial Prosthodontics,13th Edition,Page no 74