Answer Test 8

MALUKA IAS PUNJAB PCS TEST SERIES TEST- 8 ANS
1. Solution- a 4. Solution- d
Explanation- Explanation-
Second statement is incorrect because it consists of only Both the statements are incorrect.
elected members of legislative assemblies of the states.
A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the
Nominated members participate in the impeachment of President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a
President of India. proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval.
The nominated members of both of Houses of Parliament, Further, the President must revoke a proclamation if the
the nominated members of the state legislative assemblies, LokSabha (and not Parliament) passes a resolution
the members (both elected and nominated) of the state disapproving its continuation.
legislative councils (in case of the bicameral legislature) and
the nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of Source-
Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the election of the
President. Indian Polity by Laxmikant
Where an assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be Chapter- 17 (President)

qualified to vote in presidential election, even if fresh
5. Solution- b
elections to the dissolved assembly are not held before the
presidential election.
Explanation-
Source-
The primary object of an adjournment motion is to draw the
attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public
Indian Polity by Laxmikant
importance having serious consequences and in regard to
Chapter- 17 (President) which a motion or a resolution with proper notice will be too
late.
2. Solution- b
The matter proposed to be raised should be of such a
Explanation- character that something very grave which affects the whole
country and its security has happened and the House is
First is incorrect. It is not required for the President to required to pay its attention immediately by interrupting the
dissolve the State Legislative Assembly in the event of normal business of the House.
proclamation of President’ Rule, he may either suspend or
dissolve it. Source-
Third is incorrect. There is no mention about local bodies in Indian Polity by Laxmikant
case of proclamation of local bodies, so again that too is not
necessarily the consequence of the proclamation of Chapter- 22 (Parliament); Page no. 22.15
President’s Rule.
6. Solution- a
Source-
Explanation-
 The advisory jurisdiction of the Court invoked through
Chapter- 17 (President) Presidential References, is governed by Article 143 of the
Constitution.
3. Solution- d  Under Article 143 of the Constitution of India, the
President is empowered to refer to the Supreme Court
Explanation- any matter of law or fact.
 The opinion of the Court may be sought in relation to
Fourth option is correct. issues that have arisen or are likely to arise.
 A Presidential Reference may be made in matters that
All four are the parts of the union executive of India.
are of public importance and where it is expedient to
Source- obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court.
 The Court may refuse to answer all or any of the queries
Indian Polity by Laxmikant raised in the Reference.
Chapter- 17 (President) Source- Indian Polity by Laxmikant
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Chapter- 25 (Supreme Court); Page no. 25.7 Explanation-
7. Solution- c First statement is incorrect. The Centre may withhold or

decline to produce a document if it is considered prejudicial
Explanation- to the safety or interest of the state. The Speaker has the final
word on any dispute over calling for evidence against a
Both the statements are correct. person or production of a document.
The ‘Council of States’ which is also known as RajyaSabha, a Second statement is incorrect. The Public Accounts
nomenclature that was announced by the chair in the House Committee of Parliament is supposed to conduct a detailed
on the 23rd August, 1954 has its own distinctive features. The examination of the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-
origin of the second Chamber can be traced to the Montague- General (CAG), who scrutinises the yearly accounts of the
Chelmsford Report of 1918. government.
The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the creation Source- Indian Polity by Laxmikant
of a ‘Council of State’ as a second chamber of the then
legislature with a restricted franchise which actually came Chapter- 23 (Parliamentary Committees)
into existence in 1921. The Governor-General was the ex-
officio President of the then Council of State. 10. Solution- b
If RajyaSabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less Explanation-

than two-thirds of members present and voting saying that it
is “necessary or expedient in the national interest” that Judicial Powers of the Parliament includes-
Parliament should make a law on a matter enumerated in the
State List, Parliament becomes empowered to make a law on • Impeachment of President for violation of constitution
the subject specified in the resolution, for the whole or any
• Removal of judges of Supreme Court and High court
part of the territory of India.
• Removal of Vice- President
Source-
• Punish members for breach of privileges like sitting in the
house when the member knows he is not an eligible member,
Chapter- 22 (Parliament); Page no. 22.9 serving as member before taking oath etc.
8. Solution- d Subject to the provisions of this Constitution, Parliament

may by law regulate any matter relating to or connected with
Explanation- the election of a President or Vice-President but it does not
come under judicial power of Parliament.
First is incorrect. President takes an oath to preserve, protect
and defend the constitution. Source-
OATH OR AFFIRMATION BY THE PRESIDENT Indian Polity by Laxmikant
Every President and every person acting as President or Chapter- 22 (Parliament)

discharging the functions of the President shall, before
entering upon his office, make and subscribe in the presence 11.Solution- c
of the Chief Justice of India or, in his absence, the senior
Explanation-
most Judge of the Supreme Court available, an oath or
affirmation in the following form, that is to say—
Second statement is incorrect. As per Article 75 (4) Before a
Minister enters upon his office, the President shall
“I, A.B., do that I will faithfully execute the office of President
administer to him the oaths of office and of secrecy according
(or discharge the functions of the President) of India and will
to the forms set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule.
to the best of my ability preserve, protect and defend the
Constitution and the law and that I will devote myself to the
Source- Indian Polity by Laxmikant
service and well-being of the people of India”.
Chapter- 22 (Parliament)
12. Solution- c
Appendix IV Oath by the Constitutional and other
Authorities Explanation-
9. Solution- b
First statement is incorrect. The provision of joint sitting is It regulates the programme and time table of the House. It
applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to allocates time for the transaction of legislative and other
money bills or Constitutional amendment bills. business brought before the House by the government.
Second statement is correct. The joint sitting of the The LokSabha committee consists of 15 members including
Parliament is called by the President and is presided over by the Speaker as its chairman.
the Speaker or, in his absence, by the Deputy Speaker of the
LokSabha or in his absence, the Deputy-Chairman of the In the RajyaSabha, it has 11 members including the
RajyaSabha. Chairman as its ex-officio chairman.
Third statement is correct. A joint sitting of both Houses is Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions-
presided over by the LokSabha Speaker and only a simple
majority is needed to get a bill passed, which is then It classifies the bills and allocates time for the discussion of
immediately sent to the President for his assent. bills and resolutions introduced by private members (other
than ministers). This is a special committee of the LokSabha
Source- Indian Polity by Laxmikant and consists of 15 members including the Deputy Speaker as
its chairman.
The RajyaSabha does not have such a committee. The same
13. Solution- d function in the RajyaSabha is performed by the business
advisory committee of that House.
Explanation-
Fourth is incorrect. Business Advisory – Speaker and
Chairman of the LokSabha and RajyaSabha respectively Chapter- 23 (Parliamentary Committees)
Public Accounts Committee- 14. Solution- c
Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is one of the standing Explanation-

parliamentary committees, which was first established in
1921 under the Government of India Act 1919 provisions. Third option is correct.
Member- 22 (15- LokSabha and 7- RajyaSabha) Absolute Veto-
The members are “elected” by members of Parliament It refers to the power of the President to withhold his assent
amongst themselves via a system of proportional to a bill passed by the Parliament.
representation by means of single transferable vote; so that
all parties get due representation in it. Members are elected Suspensive Veto-
for a period of one year. A minister cannot be a member of
The President exercises this veto when he returns a bill for
PAC.
reconsideration of the Parliament. However, if the bill is
Committee on Public Undertakings- passed again by the Parliament with or without amendments
and again presented to the President, it is obligatory for the
Committee on Public Undertakings examines the reports and President to give his assent to the bill.
accounts of the PSUs and the CAG audit reports related to
PSUs. This committee was established in 1964 on Pocket Veto-
recommendations of Krishna Menon Committee.
In this case, the President neither ratifies nor rejects nor
Member- 22 (15- LokSabha and 7- RajyaSabha) returns the bill, but simply keeps the bill pending for an
indefinite period.
These members are elected by the members of parliament
from amongst themselves via principle of proportional There is no Qualified Veto in the case of Indian President.
representation by means of a single transferable vote, so that
Source-
all parties get due representation. Term of the members is
one year. However, the chairman of this committee,
Introduction to the Constitution of India by DD Basu
appointed by LokSabha speaker is always from LokSabha. A
minister cannot become chairman of this committee also. Chapter 11 (The Union Executive); Page no. 203
Business Advisory Committee- 15. Solution- a
Explanation-
Second statement is incorrect because pardoning power of (a) A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty,
the President is independent of the Judiciary. agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar
instrument.
(b) A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, etc., which
Chapter- 17 (President); Page no. 17.12 specifically provides that the said jurisdiction does not extent
to such a dispute.
16. Solution- d
(c) Inter-state water disputes.
Explanation-
(d) Matters referred to the Finance Commission.
The above mentioned are situational discretionary powers of
President not Constitutional. (e) Adjustment of certain expenses and pensions between the
Centre and the states.
President has no constitutional discretion, he has some
situational discretion. In other words, the President can act (f) Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature between the
on his discretion (that is, without the advice of the ministers) Centre and the states.
under the following situations:
(g) Recovery of damages by a state against the Centre.
I. Appointment of Prime Minister when no party has a
clear majority in the LokSabha or when the Prime Source- Introduction to the Constitution of India by DD Basu
Minister in office dies suddenly and there is no obvious
successor Chapter- 22 (The Supreme Court); Page no. 332
II. Dismissal of the council of ministers when it cannot
prove the confidence of the LokSabha 19. Solution- a
III. Dissolution of the LokSabha if the council of ministers
Explanation-
has lost its majority
Third statement is incorrect.
 There is a difference between the writ jurisdiction of the
Chapter- 17 (President); Page no. 17.14
Supreme Court and that of the high court. The Supreme
17. Solution- c Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the
Fundamental Rights and not for other purposes.
Explanation-  The high court, on the other hand, can issue writs not
only for the enforcement of the fundamental rights but
First statement is incorrect. also for other purposes.
 It means that the writ jurisdiction of the high court is
The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of the wider than that of the Supreme Court. But, the
Supreme Court. However, it makes the following three Parliament can confer on the Supreme Court, the power
provisions in this regard- to issue writs for other purposes also.
1. He holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. Any Source- Indian Polity by Laxmikant
question regarding his age is to be determined by such
authority and in such manner as provided by Chapter- 25 (Supreme Court)
Parliament.
2. He can resign his office by writing to the president. 20. Solution- d
3. He can be removed from his office by the President on
the recommendation of the Parliament. Explanation-
Source- Introduction to the Constitution of India by DD Basu All of the above are correct.
Chapter- 22 (The Supreme Court); Page no. 328 Appellate Jurisdiction of Supreme Court-
18. Solution- a Supreme Court has not only succeeded the Federal Court of
India but also replaced the British Privy Council as the
Explanation- highest court of appeal. The Supreme Court is primarily a
court of appeal and hears appeals against the judgements of
Second and fourth are incorrect. the lower courts. It enjoys a wide appellate jurisdiction which
can be classified under four heads:
The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to the
following- (a) Appeals in constitutional matters.
(b) Appeals in civil matters. Explanation-
(c) Appeals in criminal matters. First statement is incorrect. The Vice-President is elected by
the members of an electoral college consisting of the
(d) Appeals by special leave members of both Houses of Parliament. This Electoral
College is different from the electoral college for the election
Source- Indian Polity by Laxmikant of the President in the following two respects:
Chapter- 25 (Supreme Court); Page no. 25.6 1. It consists of both elected and nominated members of
the Parliament (in the case of President, only elected
21. Solution- b
members).
2. It does not include the members of the state legislative
Explanation-
assemblies (in the case of President, the elected
Second option is correct. members of the state legislative assemblies are
included).
Quo-Warranto –
Second statement is correct. He/ She acts as the ex-officio
 It means ‘by what authority or warrant’. Chairman of RajyaSabha. In this capacity, his/ her powers
 It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of and functions are similar to those of the Speaker of
claim of a person to a public office. LokSabha.
 It prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.
Third statement is incorrect. A formal impeachment is not
 The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive
required for his removal. He can be removed by a resolution
public office of a permanent character created by a
of the RajyaSabha passed by an absolute majority (ie, a
statute or by the Constitution.
majority of the total members of the House) and agreed to by
 It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or the LokSabha. But, no such resolution can be moved unless
private office. at least 14 days’ advance notice has been given.
 Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any
interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved Source- Indian Polity by Laxmikant
person.
Chapter- 18 (Vice President)
24. Solution- d
Chapter- 7 (Fundamental Rights), Page no. 7.18
Explanation-
22. Solution- a
Fourth option is correct.
Explanation-
Eleventh Amendment Act, 1961
First statement is correct. The Prime Minister is appointed
by the President, while the other ministers are appointed by 1. Changed the procedure of election of the vice president by
the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. This providing for an electoral college instead of a joint meeting of
means that the President can appoint only those persons as the two Houses of Parliament.
ministers who are recommended by the Prime minister.
2. Provided that the election of the president or vice
Second statement is incorrect. The ministers shall hold office president cannot be challenged on the ground of any vacancy
during the pleasure of the President. The council of ministers in the appropriate electoral college.
shall be collectively responsible to the LokSabha.
Tenth Amendment Act, 1961
Third statement is incorrect. Parliament consists of both
RajyaSabha and LokSabha. Article 75 clearly states that the Incorporated Dadra and Nagar Haveli in the Indian Union
council of ministers is collectively responsible to the
LokSabha. This means that all the ministers own joint Nineteenth Amendment Act, 1966
responsibility to the LokSabha for all their acts of omission
Abolished the system of Election Tribunals and vested the
and commission.
power to hear election petitions in the High Courts.
Twenty-First Amendment Act, 1967
Chapter- 20 (Central Council of Ministers)
Included Sindhi as the 15th language in the Eight Schedule
23. Solution- d
Chapter- 18 (Vice President) Source- Indian Polity by Laxmikant
25. Solution- d Chapter- 22 (Parliament); Page no. 22.9
Explanation- 28. Solution- c
Fourth option is correct. The first three committees are Explanation-

chaired by the Prime Minister and the last one by the Home
Minister. Both the statements are correct.
1. The Political Affairs Committee deals with all policy In addition to the members of a House, every minister and
matters pertaining to domestic and foreign affairs. the attorney general of India have the right to speak and take
2. The Economic Affairs Committee directs and part in the proceedings of either House, any joint sitting of
coordinates the governmental activities in the economic both the Houses and any committee of Parliament of which
sphere. he is a member, without being entitled to vote. There are two
3. Appointments Committee decides all higher level reasons underlying this constitutional provision-
appointments in the Central Secretariat, Public
Enterprises, Banks and Financial Institutions. 1. A minister can participate in the proceedings of a House, of
4. Parliamentary Affairs Committee looks after the which he is not a member. In other words, a minister
progress of government business in the Parliament. belonging to the LokSabha can participate in the proceedings
of the RajyaSabha and vice-versa.
2. A minister, who is not a member of either House, can
Chapter- 21 (cabinet committees); Page no. 21.2 participate in the proceedings of both the Houses. It should
be noted here that a person can remain a minister for six
26. Solution- b months, without being a member of either House of
Parliament.
Explanation-
First statement is incorrect. The office of ‘whip’ is mentioned
neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the Chapter- 22 (Parliament); Page no. 22.13
House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the
conventions of the parliamentary government. 29. Solution- b
Second statement is correct. Every political party, whether Explanation-

ruling or Opposition has its own whip in the Parliament. He
is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant First and Second pairs are incorrectly matched.
floor leader. He is charged with the responsibility of ensuring
A starred question (distinguished by an asterisk) requires an
the attendance of his party members in large numbers and
oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow.
securing their support in favour of or against a particular
issue. He regulates and monitors their behaviour in the
An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a written
Parliament. The members are supposed to follow the
answer and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow.
directives given by the whip. Otherwise, disciplinary action
can be taken. A short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice
of less than ten days. It is answered orally.
Chapter- 22 (Parliament); Page no. 22.11
27. Solution- c
30. Solution- b
Explanation-
Explanation-
Third option is correct.
Second option is correct.
The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in
India in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of Substantive Motion: It is a self-contained independent
India Act of 1919 (Montague– Chelmsford Reforms). proposal dealing with a very important matter like
impeachment of the President or removal of Chief Election
At that time, the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were called
Commissioner.
the President and Deputy President respectively and the
same nomenclature continued till 1947.
Substitute Motion: It is a motion that is moved in Source- Indian Polity by Laxmikant

substitution of an original motion and proposes an
alternative to it. If adopted by the House, it supersedes the Chapter- 22 (Parliament); Page no. 22.24
original motion.
33. Solution- d
Subsidiary Motion: It is a motion that, by itself, has no
meaning and cannot state the decision of the House without Explanation-
reference to the original motion or proceedings of the House
Closure Motion- It is a motion moved by a member to cut
Library Committee-
short the debate on a matter before the House. If the motion
is approved by the House, debate is stopped forthwith and
This committee considers all matters relating to library of the
the matter is put to vote.
Parliament and assists the members in utilising the library’s
services. It consists of nine members (six from LokSabha and
three from RajyaSabha).
31. Solution- a
Chapter- 23 (Parliamentary Committees)
Explanation-
34. Solution- a
First option is correct.
Explanation-
The budget goes through the following six stages in the
Second statement is incorrect. This is a special committee of
Parliament-
the LokSabha and consists of 15 members including the
1. Presentation of budget Deputy Speaker as its chairman.
2. General discussion.
3. Scrutiny by departmental committees
4. Voting on demands for grants
Chapter- 23 (Parliamentary Committees)
5. Passing of appropriation bill
6. Passing of finance bill 35. Solution- a
Source- Indian Polity by Laxmikant Explanation-
Chapter- 22 (Parliament); Page no. 22.23 First statement is incorrect. The Speaker of LokSabha is the
ex-officio President of all the Forums except the
32. Solution- c
Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health
wherein the Chairman of RajyaSabha is the ex-officio
Explanation-
President and the Speaker is the ex-officio Co-President.
Additional Grant It is granted when a need has arisen during
Chapter- 24 (Parliamentary Forums)
the current financial year for additional expenditure upon
some new service not contemplated in the budget for that
36. Solution- b
year.
Explanation-
Excess Grant It is granted when money has been spent on
any service during a financial year in excess of the amount First statement is incorrect.
granted for that service in the budget for that year.
Vote of Credit It is granted for meeting an unexpected

demand upon the resources of India, when on account of the
magnitude or the indefinite character of the service, the
demand cannot be stated with the details ordinarily given in
a budget.
Exceptional Grant It is granted for a special purpose and

forms no part of the current service of any financial year.
38. Solution-d
Explanation-
High Courts don’t have original jurisdiction.
Chapter- 25 (Supreme Court); Page no. 25.5
39. Solution- d
Explanation-
All the statements are correct regarding qualifications of
Chapter- 22 (Parliament); Page no. 22.15 High Court judge.
37. Solution- b There is no minimum age fixed for high Court judges, and
unlike in Supreme Court, there is no provision for
Explanation- appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of a high
court.
 The Appropriation Bill becomes the Appropriation Act
after it is assented to by the President. This act Source- Introduction to the Constitution of India by DD Basu
authorises (or legalises) the payments from the
Consolidated Fund of India. Chapter- 23 (High Court; Page no. 348)
 This means that the government cannot withdraw
money from the Consolidated Fund of India till the 40. Solution- c
enactment of the appropriation bill. This takes time and
usually goes on till the end of April. But the government Explanation-
needs money to carry on its normal activities after 31
Amendments that seek to change federal provisions of the
March (the end of the financial year).
Constitution will be first passed in the two houses separately
 To overcome this functional difficulty, the Constitution
by absolute and special majority and then also need to be
has authorised the LokSabha to make any grant in
ratified by legislatures of at least half of the states by
advance in respect to the estimated expenditure for a
resolutions. Only after this, the bill will be sent for
part of the financial year, pending the completion of the
presidential assent.
voting of the demands for grants and the enactment of
the appropriation bill. This provision is known as the These provisions relate to certain matters concerning the
‘vote on account’. It is passed (or granted) after the federal structure or of common interest to both the Union
general discussion on budget is over. and the States viz., the
 It is generally granted for two months for an amount
equivalent to one-sixth of the total estimation. While a  election of the President (articles 54 and 55);
vote-on-account deals only with the expenditure side of  the extent of the executive power of the Union and the
the government’s budget, an interim Budget is a States (articles 73 and 162);
complete set of accounts, including both expenditure  the High Courts for Union territories (article 241);
and receipts.
 The Union Judiciary and the High Courts in the States
 There is no such provision that interim budget is used by
(Chapter IV of Part V and Chapter V of Part VI);
caretaker government only.
 the distribution of legislative powers between the Union
 An Interim Budget gives the complete financial
and the States (Chapter I of Part XI and Seventh
statement, very similar to a full Budget.
Schedule);
 While the law does not debar the Union government
 The representation of States in Parliament; and the
from introducing tax changes, normally during an
provision for amendment of the Constitution laid down
election year, successive governments have avoided
in article 368.
making any major changes in income tax laws during an
Interim Budget. Source- Introduction to the Constitution of India by DD Basu
Chapter- 11 (Union Executive) cannot be called in question on the ground that he ought or
ought not to have acted in his discretion.
41. Solution- c
This implies that the governor has constitutional discretion
Explanation- in cases such as-
Third option is correct.  Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the

President.
The council of ministers are appointed by the Governor on
 Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s
the advice of the Chief Minister
Rule in the state.
Articles 163-164 deals with Council of Ministers (CoM) in  While exercising his functions as the administrator of an
states adjoining union territory if he has been given additional
charge of that territory.
Article 163: Council of Ministers to aid and advice Governor
Source-
(1) There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief
Minister at the head to aid and advice the Governor in the Indian Polity by Laxmikant
exercise of his functions, except in so far as he is by or under
Chapter- 26 (Governor)
this Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of
them in his discretion. 43. Solution- c
(2) If any question arises whether any matter is or is not a Explanation-
matter as respects which the Governor is by or under this
Constitution required to act in his discretion, the decision of Both the statements are correct.
the Governor in his discretion shall be final, and the validity
of anything done by the Governor shall not be called in While Money Bill deals exclusively with taxation, borrowing
question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have and expenditure; Finance Bill has a broader coverage.
acted in his discretion.
Both Money Bill and Finance Bill require certificate by the
(3) The question whether any, and if so what, advice was speaker.
tendered by Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired
into in any court. Source-
Indian Polity by Laxmikant Chapter- 22 (Parliament)
Chapter- 28 (State Council of Ministers) 44. Solution- d
42. Solution- d Explanation-
Explanation- All of the statements are correct.
First statement is incorrect because the only qualifications  Article 370 in Part XXI of the constitution grants a
for appointment as Governor are that he should be a citizen special status to Jammu and Kashmir.
of India and must have completed the age of thirty-five years.  The Jurisdiction of the Parliament of India in relation to
Jammu and Kashmir is confined to the matters
Second statement is incorrect. Article 163 provides for a enumerated in the Union List, and also the concurrent
council of ministers with the chief minister at the head to aid list.
and advice the governor in the exercise of his functions  There is no State list for the State of Jammu and
except the discretionary ones. If any question arises whether Kashmir.
a matter falls within the governor’s discretion or not, the  At the same time, while in relation to the other States,
decision of the governor is final and the validity of anything the residuary power of legislation belongs to Parliament,
done by him cannot be called in question on the ground that in the case of Jammu and Kashmir, the residuary powers
he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion. belong to the Legislature of the State, except certain
matters to which Parliament has exclusive powers such
Third statement is correct. The Constitution has further
as preventing the activities relating to cession or
made it clear that if any question arises whether a matter
secession, or disrupting the sovereignty or integrity of
falls within the governor’s discretion or not, the decision of
India.
the governor is final and the validity of anything done by him
Emergency
ND
53/6 2 FLOOR OLD RAJENDER NAGAR NEAR KAROL BAGH METRO STATION DELHI
 Initially, Article 356 and 357 did not apply to India. Explanation-
However, these two articles related to suspension of the
Constitutional machinery in the state have been All of the above are correct.
extended to the state by the Amendment Order of 1964.
However, Failure means failure of the constitution In the following matters, the powers and status of the council
machinery as set up by the Constitution of the State and are broadly equal to that of the assembly:
not the provisions in part VI of the Constitution of the
 Introduction and passage of ordinary bills. However, in
India. As a result, where the failure of the Constitutional
case of disagreement between the two Houses, the will of
machinery takes place in Jammu & Kashmir, two types
the assembly prevails over that of the council.
of Proclamation may be made
 Approval of ordinances issued by the governor.
 The President’s Rule under Art. 356 of the Indian
Constitution (as in the case of the other States of the  Selection of ministers including the chief minis ter.
Indian Union) Under the Constitution the, ministers including the chief
minister can be members of either House of the state
 The Governor under section 92 at the Constitution of
legislature. However, irrespective of their membership,
J&K for which there is no counterpart in any other State
they are responsible only to the assembly.
of India.
 Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies
 The Union of India has no power to declare Financial
like State Finance Commission, state public service
Emergency under Article 360 in the state.
commission and Comptroller and Auditor General of
Amendment of the Constitution India.
 The provisions of Article 368 of the Constitution of India Source-

are not applicable for the amendment of the State
Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir.
 The Jammu & Kashmir assembly by two third majority Chapter- 29 (State Legislature)
amend its own constitution (except in those matters that
are related to relationship of the State with the Union of 47. Solution- b
India)
 The Union has no power to suspend the Constitution of Explanation-
J&K.
First pair is incorrect. The Vice President can be removed by
Source- a resolution by the members of the RajyaSabha. To move
such resolution, a 14 days’ notice is to be given. Such a
Indian Polity by Laxmikant resolution, though passed by the RajyaSabha only, but must
be agreeable to the LokSabha. There is no need of
Chapter- 32 (Special Status of Jammu and Kashmir) impeachment of Vice President for removal.
45. Solution- c Cases where the effective majority is used:
Explanation- 1. Removal of Vice-president in RS – Article 67(b).
The Supreme Court’s exclusive original jurisdiction extends 2. Removal of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of LokSabha and
to all cases Between the Government of India and the States State Legislative Assembly.
of India.
Special Majority as Per Article 368
Between Government of India and states on side and one or
more states on other side cases between different states; But Special majority as per article 368 requires a majority of
interstate water disputes are comes under state jurisdiction. 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than
River waters use / harnessing are included in states 50% of the total strength of the house. This type of majority
jurisdiction (entry 17 of state list, Schedule 7 of Indian is used for most of the Constitutional amendment bills. To
Constitution). pass a constitution amendment bill in RajyaSabha, in
addition to getting the support of 123 members, the bill
Hence, fourth is incorrect. should be favoured by more than 2/3rd of the members
present and voting.
Source-
Cases where special majority as per article 368 is used:
 To pass a constitutional amendment bill this does not
Chapter- 25 (Supreme Court)
affect federalism.
46. Solution- d  Removal of judges of SC/HC.
 Removal of CEC/CAG. o 1/12th members are elected by an electorate of

 Approval of national emergency requires special University Graduates.
majority as per Article 368 in both houses. o 1/12th members are elected by the electorate consisting
 Resolution by the state legislature for the of the secondary school teachers (3 year experience)
creation/abolition of Legislative Council (Article 169). o 1/6th members nominated by the Governor on the basis
of their special knowledge / practical experience in
Source- literature, art, science, cooperative movement or social
service.
For the first 4 categories mentioned above, the election is
Chapter- 22 (Parliament) held in accordance with the system of proportional
representation by means of a single transferable vote and
48. Solution- d
secret ballot method. The above representation can be
changed by parliament of India by law.
Explanation-
Source-
First and Second statements are contradictory, if second is
correct; first must be incorrect.
Second statement is correct. Constitution has adopted the
Chapter- 29 (State Legislature)
system of territorial representation for the election of
members to the LokSabha. In it, every member of the 50. Solution- a
legislature represents a geographical area known as a
constituency. From each constituency, only one Explanation-
representative is elected i.e., a single-member constituency.
The Supreme Court and the High Courts can exercise this
Third statement is incorrect. Proportional representation, power on two conditions — (1) whether the law or the
tries to ensure that the election results are as proportional as executive action which has come under scrutiny falls within
possible, by curbing the inconsistency between the share of the competence of the authority that has framed it, and (2)
seats and votes. It ensures that smaller parties get whether it is consistent with Part III of the Constitution
representation in the legislature, particularly when they have dealing with the Fundamental Rights.
a broad base across constituencies. It also encourages new
parties to emerge and more women and minorities to contest Second statement is incorrect. The Supreme Court has been
for political power. given the power to decide whether a law passed by the
Parliament or the State legislatures and the executive
Fourth statement is incorrect. There are two kinds of decisions taken by the Central or State government is
proportional representation, namely, single transferable vote constitutional or not.
system and list system.
Source-
In India, the first kind is adopted for the election of members
to the RajyaSabha and state legislative council and for Indian Polity by Laxmikant
electing the President and the Vice-President.
Chapter- 30 (High Court)
Source-
51. Solution- d
Explanation-
All the statements are correct.
49. Solution- d
First statement is correct because Prime Minister of India
Explanation- allocates portfolios among the ministers but cannot make
rules regarding them. President can make rules regarding
In legislative Council, there are 5 different categories of them.
representation.
The prime Minister may call for the resignation of any
o 1/3rd of the total membership is elected by the minister at any time. In case the minister refuses, the prime
electorates consisting of the members of the self minister may advice the President to dismiss the minister.
Governing bodies in the state such as Municipalities, This is also called the “Rule of Individual Responsibility”.
District Boards etc.
o 1/3rd members are elected by the members of the The Prime Minister is the Ex-officio chairman. The
Legislative assembly of the State permanent members of the governing council are all the state
Chief Ministers, the chief ministers of Delhi and Puducherry, Parliamentary Affairs, who selects a protem speaker. The
the Lieutenant Governor of Andaman and Nicobar, and a appointment has to be approved by the president.
vice chairman nominated by the Prime Minister.
Second statement is correct. Whenever LokSabhais
Source- dissolved, the Speaker continues to remain in office until
immediately before the first meeting of LokSabha after it is
Indian Polity by Laxmikant reconstituted.
Chapter- 19 (Prime Minister) Third statement is incorrect. There are many persons who
are elected as Pro-tem speaker and then speaker.
52. Solution- d
For example, Ganesh VasudevMavalankar and
Explanation- SomnathChatterjeeetc
First statement is correct. The representatives of each State Source-

and two Union territories are elected by the elected members
of the Legislative Assembly of that State and by the members Indian Polity by Laxmikant
of the Electoral College for that Union Territory, as the case
may be, in accordance with the system of proportional Chapter- 22 (Parliament)
representation by means of the single transferable vote.
54. Solution- d
Second statement is correct. The RajyaSabha election in
Gujarat highlighted the procedural matrix of the ‘open ballot’ Explanation-
system under Rule 39AA of the Conduct of Election Rules of
1961. This says that a voter may show his/her marked ballot First statement is incorrect. First statement is incorrect. High
paper to the authorised representative of his/her political Courts in India are part of integrated judicial machinery not
party before dropping it into the ballot box. state judicial machinery.
Third statement is correct. The Election Commission had The High Courts are the principal civil courts of original
issued a circular in January 2014 that the provisions of jurisdiction in each state and union territory. These courts
NOTA be included in the RajyaSabha elections too, after it have jurisdiction over a state, a union territory or a group of
was included as one of the options in the Electronic Voting states and union territories.
Machines in 2013.
Second statement is incorrect. The High Courts of Bombay,
From 2014 onwards, biennial elections to the Madras and Calcutta have the mechanism for intra-court
RajyaSabhahave been held in 16 States, and 25 bye-elections appeals to a division bench of the same court.
to the RajyaSabha have been held, according to the EC
Third statement is incorrect. High Courts also enjoy the
circular issued on August 2, 2017. In all these elections,
powers of judicial review on state list and Union list as well
instructions regarding NOTA have been applicable.
as.
Fourth statement is incorrect. If a voter (MLA) defies the
The High Court can also exercise judicial review in addition
party directive and votes for someone else or uses NOTA
to administrative control over the lower courts within its
option, he cannot be disqualified as a legislator. But the party
limits.
is free to take disciplinary action including expulsion.
Article 226 empowers the High Courts to issue directions or
Source-
orders or writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental
Indian Polity by Laxmikant Rights and for any other purpose.
Chapter- 22 (Parliament) Article 227 vests in the High Courts the power of
superintendence over all courts and tribunals within their
53. Solution- b respective territorial jurisdictions (except military courts or
tribunals).
Explanation-
Fourth statement is correct. Supervisory Jurisdiction - High
First statement is incorrect. Usually the senior most court has the power of superintendence over all courts and
members by political experience is selected as Speaker pro- tribunals within its territorial jurisdiction except military
tem. courts or tribunals. It also has power to transfer the cases
from other subordinate courts in the state to itself. (227).
After a general election and the formation of a new
government, a list of senior LokSabha members prepared by Source-
the Legislative Section is submitted to the Minister of
Indian Polity by Laxmikant • Cabinet Committees are an organisational device to reduce

the enormous workload of the Cabinet. They also facilitate
Chapter- 30 (High Court) in-depth examination of policy issues and effective
coordination.
55. Solution- d
• They are extra-constitutional in emergence. In other words,
Explanation- they are not mentioned in the Constitution. However, the
Rules of Business provide for their establishment.
First statement is incorrect. East Asia Summit is a forum
held annually by leaders of Asia Pacific countries. ASEAN is • They are of two types—standing and ad hoc. The former are
part of East Asia Summit. of a permanent nature while the latter are of a temporary
nature. The ad hoc committees are constituted from time to
It brings together 18 states, including the United States,
time to deal with special problems. They are disbanded after
China, India, Russia, Australia, New Zealand, Japan, and
their task is completed.
South Korea in addition to the ten members of ASEAN.
• They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the
Second statement is correct. The aims and purposes of
exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation.
ASEAN are:
Hence, their number, nomenclature, and composition varies
from time to time.
I. To accelerate the economic growth, social progress and
cultural development in the region through joint
• They are based on the principles of division of labour and
endeavours in the spirit of equality and partnership in
effective delegation. • Their membership varies from three to
order to strengthen the foundation for a prosperous and
eight. They usually include only Cabinet Ministers. However,
peaceful community of Southeast Asian Nations;
the non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their
II. To promote regional peace and stability through abiding
membership.
respect for justice and the rule of law in the relationship
among countries of the region and adherence to the • They not only include the Ministers in charge of subjects
principles of the United Nations Charter; covered by them but also include other senior Ministers.
III. To promote active collaboration and mutual assistance
on matters of common interest in the economic, social, • They are mostly headed by the Prime Minister. Sometimes
cultural, technical, scientific and administrative fields; other Cabinet Ministers, particularly the Home Minister or
IV. To provide assistance to each other in the form of the Finance Minister, also acts as their Chairman. But, in
training and research facilities in the educational, case the Prime Minister is a member of a committee, he
professional, technical and administrative spheres; invariably presides over it.
V. To collaborate more effectively for the greater utilisation
of their agriculture and industries, the expansion of their • They not only sort out issues and formulate proposals for
trade, including the study of the problems of the consideration of the Cabinet, but also take decisions.
international commodity trade, the improvement of However, the Cabinet can review their decisions.
their transportation and communications facilities and
the raising of t he living standards of their peoples; LIST OF CABINET COMMITTEES
VI. To promote Southeast Asian studies; and
VII. To maintain close and beneficial cooperation with 1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
existing international and regional organisations with 2. Cabinet Committee on Prices
similar aims and purposes, and explore all avenues for 3. Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
even closer cooperation among themselves. 4. Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
5. Cabinet Committee on Security
Third statement is correct. ASEAN countries have reached a 6. Cabinet Committee on World Trade Organisation (WTO)
consensus on “protection and promotion” of the rights of Matters
migrant workers but not on the issues of South China Sea 7. Cabinet Committee on Investment
8. Cabinet Committee on Unique Identification Authority
https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/act- of India (UIDAI) related issues
east-policy-northeast-india-china-us-trade-foreign-policy- 9. Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
not-acting-east-5294765/ 10. Cabinet Committee on Accommodation.
56. Solution- c Source-
Explanation- Indian Polity by Laxmikant
Features of Cabinet Committee Chapter- 21 (Cabinet Committees)
57. Solution- d
Explanation- the amount of demand. The members from particular parties

or coalitions may bring their own cut motions.
First statement is incorrect as 1/6th members are nominated
by the Governor on the basis of their special knowledge / Third statement is incorrect. Constitution says that no money
practical experience in literature, art, science, cooperative shall be withdrawn from the consolidated fund of India
movement or social service. except under the appropriation made by law. Thus, the
Appropriation Bill authorizes the amount which can be
In legislative Council, other different categories of drawn out of the Consolidated Fund of India for meeting the
representation is given below- expenditures. But there is no exception.
 1/3rd of the total membership is elected by the Fourth statement is correct. RajyaSabha does not vote on
electorates consisting of the members of the self Demands for Grants of various Ministries – a matter
Governing bodies in the state such as Municipalities, exclusively reserved for LokSabha – no money, however, can
District Boards etc. be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India unless
 1/3rd members are elected by the members of the the Appropriation Bill has been passed by both the Houses.
Legislative assembly of the State
 1/12th members are elected by an electorate of Source-
University Graduates.
 1/12th members are elected by the electorate consisting
of the secondary school teachers (3 year experience)
Second statement is incorrect. The legislative council is
59. Solution- a
permanent body but 1/3rd of its member retire every 2 years.
First statement is correct because as per Article 85 The
The power of abolition and creation of the State legislative
President shall form time to time summon each House of
council is vested in Parliament of India as per article 169. But
Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit,
again, to create or to abolish a state legislative council, the
but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in
state legislative assembly must pass a resolution, which must
one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the
be supported by majority of the strength of the house and
next session
2/3rd majority of the present and voting (Absolute + Special
Majority). Second statement is incorrect. To align the Parliamentary
sessions with the advancing of Budget Date, the Budget
The resolution to create and abolish a state legislative council
Session of Parliament for 2018 has started from February 1,
is to be assented by the President also.
2018 not January 1, 2018
Third statement is incorrect. Money Bills originate only in
Third statement is incorrect. It is the duty of Indian
Assembly. After they are passed in the Assembly it is sent to
President to summon each House of the Parliament from
the Council.
time to time.
Source-
Source-
58. Solution- c
60. Solution- d
Explanation-
Explanation-
The budget consists of two types of expenditure- the
First statement is incorrect.
expenditure 'charged' upon the Consolidated Fund of India
and the expenditure 'made' from the Consolidated Fund of Second statement is also incorrect because recommendations
India. The charged expenditure is non-votable by the are not binding
Parliament, that is, it can only be discussed by the
Parliament, while the other type has to be voted by the Accordingly, a parliamentary committee means a committee
Parliament. that:
Second statement is incorrect. After the budget is presented 1. Is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the
in Parliament and discussions over it are completed, the Speaker /Chairman
members get an opportunity to move cut motions to reduce
2. Works under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman
3. Presents its report to the House or to the Speaker / and is a “subversion of democratic legislative processes”
Chairman since it represents an effort to overreach the legislative body.
4. Has a secretariat provided by the LokSabha / RajyaSabha Source-
The consultative committees, which also consist of members Indian Polity by Laxmikant
of Parliament, are not parliamentary committees as they do
not fulfil above four conditions. Chapter- 26 (Governor)
Source- 63. Solution- c
Indian Polity by Laxmikant Explanation-
Chapter- 23 (Parliamentary Committees) Both the statements are correct.
61. Solution- b Indian Judiciary is an integrated and unified system.
Explanation- The Indian Judiciary is organised in a hierarchical form.
First and third options are incorrect because Article 194 deals At the bottom there are numerous NyayaPanchayats and at
with Powers, privileges, etc., of the Houses of Parliament and the apex there is the Supreme Court.
of the members and committees thereof
According to the Constitution of India, the role of the
Second option is correct i.e. Privileges are enjoyed Supreme Court of India is that of a centralised court,
collectively by the house as well as individually by the protector of the Constitution and the highest court of appeal.
members.
The Indian judiciary is famous for being independent and
Fourth option is incorrect because both the houses have non-partisan.
different committees. Both LokSabha and RajyaSabha have
their Committee on Privileges. The LokSabha committee has. The judiciary is to apply law equally to all irrespective of
15 members, while the RajyaSabha committee has 10 status, wealth, religion and gender. Thus, judiciary as an
members. The members are nominated by the Speaker / organ of the government presents striking difference from
Chairman as the case may be. the legislature and the executive.
Source- Source-
Indian Polity by Laxmikant Introduction to the Constitution of India by DD Basu
Chapter- 22 (Parliament) Chapter- 21 (Organisation of the Judiciary in General)
62. Solution- c 64. Solution- d
Explanation- Explanation-
First statement is incorrect. 44th Constitutional Amendment First and second statements are correct while third statement
Act reopened the possibility for the judicial review of the is incorrect because a person should be recommended by the
President’s decision to promulgate an Ordinance. High Court for appointment.
Third option is correct. Just as the President of India is The appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in
constitutionally mandated to issue Ordinances under Article a state are made by the governor of the state in consultation
123, the Governor of a state can issue Ordinances under with the high court.
Article 213, when the state legislative assembly (or either of
Source-
the two Houses in states with bicameral legislatures) is not in
session. The powers of the President and the Governor are
broadly comparable with respect to Ordinance making.
However, the Governor cannot issue an Ordinance without Chapter- 31 (Subordinate Courts)
instructions from the President in three cases where the
assent of the President would have been required to pass a 65. Solution- b
similar Bill.
Explanation-
Fourth is incorrect because recently Supreme Court said re-
promulgation of ordinances is constitutionally impermissible
 First statement is correct. The impeachment charges can Chapter 11 (The Union Executive); Page no. 203
be initiated by either House of Parliament
 These charges should be signed by one-fourth members 67. Solution- a
of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days’
Explanation-
notice should be given to the President. After the
impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two-
First option is correct.
thirds of the total membership of that House, it is sent to
the other House, which should investigate the charges. According to Article 71 of the Constitution, all doubts and
 Second statement is incorrect. The nominated members disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a
of either House of Parliament can participate in the President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and
impeachment of the President though they do not decided by the Supreme Court. Further, according to section
participate in his election 14 of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act,
 The elected members of the legislative assemblies of 1952, an election petition can be filed before the Supreme
states and the Union Territories of Delhi and Court.
Puducherry do not participate in the impeachment of the
President though they participate in his election. Source-
 Third statement is correct. The President has the right to
appear and to be represented at such investigation. If the Introduction to the Constitution of India by DD Basu
other House also sustains the charges and passes the
Chapter 11 (The Union Executive); Page no. 203
impeachment resolution by a majority of two-thirds of
the total membership, then the President stands
68. Solution- d
removed from his office from the date on which the
resolution is so passed. Explanation-
Source-  First is correct. The council has no effective say in the

ratification of a constitutional amendment bill. In this
respect also, the will of the assembly prevails over that of
Chapter- 17 (President) the council.
 Second is correct. A Money Bill can be introduced only
66. Solution- a in the assembly and not in the council.
 Third is correct. The final power of passing an ordinary
Explanation- bill also lies with the assembly. At the most, the council
can detain or delay the bill for the period of four months
First statement is correct while second statement is incorrect. —three months in the first instance and one month in
the second instance. In other words, the council is not
In a representative democracy the President is always
even a revising body like the RajyaSabha; it is only a
indirectly elected is not necessary for example, Russia
dilatory chamber or an advisory body.
The parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’  Fourth is correct. The council can only discuss the
model of government, responsible government and cabinet budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants
government. The Constitution establishes the parliamentary (which is the exclusive privilege of the assembly).
system not only at the Centre but also in the states.
Source-
The features of parliamentary government in India are:
(a) Presence of nominal and real executives;
(b) Majority party rule,
69. Solution- d
(c) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,
Explanation-
(d) Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
 First option is correct. It is an Indian innovation in the
(e) Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister, field of parliamentary procedures and has been in
existence since 1962.
(f) Dissolution of the lower House (LokSabha or Assembly).  Second option is correct. The zero hour starts
immediately after the question hour and lasts until the
Source- agenda for the day (i.e., regular business of the House) is
taken up.
 Third option is also correct. Unlike the question hour, Indian Polity by Laxmikant
the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of
Procedure. Thus it is an informal device available to the Chapter- 22 (Parliament)
members of the Parliament to raise matters without any
prior notice. 71. Solution- c
 Fourth is incorrect. Whenever Presiding Officers of the
Explanation-
houses give directions to the Government or the
Minister/Minister of State for Parliamentary Affairs Third option is incorrect. An amendment made to the
gives assurances on certain issues raised during ‘Zero Constitution of India does not apply to the state unless it is
Hour’ in the two Houses, the important extracts from extended by a presidential order.
the proceedings of the Houses relating to such matters
are sent by the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs to the Source-
Minister concerned on the same day for such action as
may be deemed necessary by the department. Indian Polity by Laxmikant
 Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs also sends relevant
extracts from the proceedings relating to the matters Chapter- 32 (Special Status of Jammu and Kashmir)
raised during Zero Hour in the two Houses on which no
72. Solution- a
directions or assurances are given, to the department
concerned for information and such action as may be
Explanation-
deemed necessary. The department may examine such
matters and, if deemed necessary, send replies to the Third statement is incorrect as Money Bills can be
members under intimation to the Ministry of introduced in the Parliament only with his prior
Parliamentary Affairs. recommendation.
Source- Ordinary bills can be introduced in either house of

Indian Polity by Laxmikant Parliament either by a minister or by any other member.
The executive powers and functions of the President are:
70. Solution- c
(a) All executive actions of the Government of India are
Explanation- formally taken in his name.
First statement is incorrect. The leader of the largest (b) He can make rules specifying the manner in which the
Opposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of the orders and other instruments made and executed in his name
total strength of the House is recognised as the leader of the shall be authenticated.
Opposition in that House.
(c) He can make rules for more convenient transaction of
Second statement is correct. The Central Government shall business of the Union government, and for allocation of the
appoint the Director of CBI on the recommendation of a said business among the ministers.
three-member committee consisting of the Prime Minister as
Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the LokSabha and (d) He appoints the prime minister and the other ministers.
the Chief Justice of India or Judge of the Supreme Court They hold office during his pleasure.
nominated by him.
(e) He appoints the attorney general of India and determines
The CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central his remuneration. The attorney general holds office during
Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than the pleasure of the President.
two vigilance commissioners.
(f) He appoints the comptroller and auditor general of India,
They are appointed by the president by warrant under his the chief election commissioner and other election
hand and seal on the recommendation of a three-member commissioners, the chairman and members of the Union
committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the Public Service Commission, the governors of states, the
Union minister of home affairs and the Leader of the chairman and members of finance commission, and so on.
Opposition in the LokSabha.
(g) He can seek any information relating to the
Third statement is also correct. If a single party cannot administration of affairs of the Union, and proposals for
muster the desired strength, a coalition of parties can jointly legislation from the prime minister.
behave as largest opposition in order to appoint Leader of
Opposition. (h) He can require the Prime Minister to submit, for
consideration of the council of ministers, any matter on
Source-
which a decision has been taken by a minister but, which has 74. Solution- d
not been considered by the council.
Explanation-
(i) He can appoint a commission to investigate into the
conditions of SCs, STs and other backward classes. All of the above are correct.
(j) He can appoint an inter-state council to promote Centre– The term is used in Article 102 (1)(A) of the Indian
state and interstate cooperation. Constitution which bars a member of the Indian Parliament
from holding an office that would give its occupant the
(k) He directly administers the union territories through opportunity to gain a financial advantage or benefit. It refers
administrators appointed by him. to a post under central/state government which yields
salaries, perks and other benefits.
(l) He can declare any area as scheduled area and has powers
with respect to the administration of scheduled areas and The actual amount of profit gained during the violation has
tribal areas. no bearing on its classification.
Source- India had the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification)

Act, 1950, 1951, and 1953 exempting certain posts from being
Introduction to the Constitution of India by DD Basu recorded as offices of profit. All these Acts were replaced by
the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959. By
Chapter 11 (The Union Executive) virtue of section 3 of the said Act, certain offices did not
disqualify their holders from being members of Parliament.
73. Solution- c
The law was again amended in 2006.
Explanation-
The representatives cannot hold an office of profit under
Both the statements are correct.
section 9 (A) of the Representation of People Act and Article
191 (1)(A) of the Constitution also.
The office of the President of India is the creation of the
constitution.
Source-
Article 53 says that the executive power of the union shall be
vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either
directly or through officers subordinates to him in Chapter 11 (The Union Executive)
accordance with this constitution.
75. Solution- a
Constitution under Article 55 also prescribes the manner of
election of the President. The President of India is elected by Explanation-
indirect election that is by an electoral college, in accordance
with the system of proportional representation by means of First option is correct. The provision of joint sitting is
the single transferable vote. applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to
money bills or Constitutional amendment bills. In the case of
As far as practicable, there shall be uniformity of a money bill, the LokSabha has overriding powers, while a
representation of the different states at the election, Constitutional amendment bill must be passed by each
according to the population and the total number of elected House separately.
members of the legislative assembly of each state and parity
shall also be maintained between the states as a whole and Source-
the union.
This second condition seeks to ensure that the votes of the
states, in the aggregate, in the electoral college for the Chapter- 22 (Parliament)
election of the President, shall be equal to that of the people
of the country as a whole. In this way, the President shall be a 76. Solution- d
representative of the nation as well as a representative of the
Explanation-
people in the different states.
First statement is correct. According to Article 246(1),
Source-
“Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to
Introduction to the Constitution of India by DD Basu any of the matters enumerated in List I in the Seventh
Schedule” to the Constitution. (List II enumerates the powers
Chapter 11 (The Union Executive) of State Legislatures and List III enumerates subjects upon
which both the Parliament and State Legislatures can make 7. Restored some of the powers of the Supreme Court and
laws.) high courts.
8. Replaced the term ‘internal disturbance’ by ‘armed
Entry 14 in List I read: “Entering into treaties and rebellion’ in respect of national emergency.
agreements with foreign countries and implementing of 9. Made the President to declare a national emergency only
treaties, agreements and conventions with foreign countries.” on the written recommendation of the cabinet.
This means that Parliament can make laws with respect to 10. Made certain procedural safeguards with respect to
this matter. national emergency and President’s rule.
11. Deleted the right to property from the list of
Second statement is correct. The President at any time can Fundamental Rights and made it only a legal right.
order that the whole or part of a schedule area ceases to be a 12. Provided that the fundamental rights guaranteed by
scheduled area. Thus, the President of India has the power to Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a
declare an area as scheduled area and also the power to national emergency.
declare a scheduled area to be ceased to be known as 13. Omitted the provisions which took away the power of
scheduled area. Further, President can also by order alter the the court to decide the election disputes of the president,
boundaries of the scheduled areas. However, to change the the vice-president, the prime minister and the Speaker
boundary of a scheduled area, the president is required to of the LokSabha.
consult the Governor of the state in which the area is located.
No separate law / act is needed to establish, change Source-
boundaries or discontinue a scheduled area.
Third statement is correct. As per Article 249, When a
resolution is passed by the RajyaSabha by two-thirds Appendix- Constitutional amendments at glance
majority making it lawful for the Parliament to legislate on a
subject mentioned in the State List in national interest 78. Solution- d
Fourth statement is incorrect because only Parliament has Explanation-

the power to make laws on the state subjects when National
Emergency is in force. All the statements are correct.
The state can make any law or can take any executive action 42nd Amendment of Indian Constitution (1976)-
abridging or taking away the six Fundamental Rights
 It amended articles 31, 31C, 39, 55, 74, 77, 81, 82, 83,
guaranteed by Article 19.
100, 102, 103, 105, 118, 145, 150, 166, 170, 172, 189, 191,
Source- 192, 194, 208, 217, 225, 226, 227, 228, 311, 312, 330,
352, 353, 356, 357, 358, 359, 366, 368 and 371F.
Indian Polity by Laxmikant  It inserted articles 31D, 32A, 39A, 43A, 48A, 131A, 139A,
144A, 226A, 228A and 257A and parts 4A and 14A. It
Chapter- 29 (State Legislature) also amended Schedule 7.
 The preamble has been amended to substitute the words
77. Solution- a “SOVEREIGN DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC”, with the
words “SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR
Explanation-
DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC” and the words “unity of the
1. Restored the original term of the LokSabha and the state Nation” was substituted with “unity and integrity of the
legislative assemblies (i.e., 5 years)." Nation.”
2. Restored the provisions with regard to quorum in the  The scope of article 31C was widened to cover all the
Parliament and state legislatures. directive principles laid down in the Constitution.
3. Omitted the reference to the British House of Commons Earlier Article 31C saved only laws giving effect to the
in the provisions pertaining to the parliamentary directive principles of State policy specified in article
privileges. 39(b) and 39(c).
4. Gave constitutional protection to publication in  New directives was added by new articles 39A, 43A, 48A
newspaper of true reports of the proceedings of the which, respectively, provide for equal justice and free
Parliament and the state legislatures. legal aid to economically backward classes, participation
5. Empowered the president to send back once the advice of workers in the management of industries, and
of cabinet for reconsideration.But, the reconsidered protection and improvement of environment and
advice is to be binding on the president. safeguarding of forests and wildlife.
6. Deleted the provision which made the satisfaction of the  New article 31D provides for the making of a
president, governor and administrators final in issuing Parliamentary law to prevent or prohibit anti national
ordinances. activity and anti-national associations. Further it was
provided that article 31D will not be deemed to be void
on the ground that it takes away or abridges any of the 75th Amendment Act, 1994: Provided for the establishment
fundamental rights conferred by article 14, article 19 and of rent tribunals for the adjudication of disputes with respect
article 31. to rent, its regulation and control and tenancy issues
 New article 32A was added to provide that the Supreme including the rights, title and interest of landlords and
Court will have no jurisdiction to decide the tenants.
constitutional validity of a State law in any writ
proceedings under article 32. 83rd Amendment Act, 2000: Provided that no reservation in
 New Part IVA containing article 51A was added to panchayats need be made for S Cs in Arunachal Pradesh. The
provide lists of fundamental duties of citizens. total population of the state is tribal and there are no SCs.
 Article 74(1) was amended to make the President to act
18th Amendment Act, 1966: Made it clear that the power of
in accordance with the advice of the Council of
Parliament to form a new state also includes a power to form
Ministers.
a new state or union territory by uniting a part of a state or a
 Article 77 and article 166 relating to the Union
union territory to another state or union territory.
government and State government have been amended
to provide that no court or other authority will be Source-
entitled to require the production of any rules framed for
the transaction of Government business. Indian Polity by Laxmikant
 Article 102(1)(a) was amended to provide that a person
will be so disqualified if he holds any such office of profit Appendix- Constitutional amendments at glance
under the Government of India or the Government of
any State as is declared by Parliamentary law to 80. Solution- b
disqualify offices will vest in Parliament instead of in the
Explanation-
State Legislature.
 It amended the articles 83 and 172 to increase the
Special Powers of RajyaSabha-
duration of the LokSabha and every Legislative
Assembly from five to six years during a situation of RajyaSabha represents the federal principle in Indian polity.
emergency. Members of RajyaSabha do not represent any constituency
 It provided the Union Government to deploy personnel like the
of armed forces in any state to deal with a ‘grave
situation of law and order’ Members of LokSabha; they represent a particular State/
 It curtailed the power of the Supreme Court and High Union Territory. Being the federal chamber of Parliament of
Court with regard to the issue of writs and judicial India, it enjoysthe following special powers under the
review. Constitution:
 Supremacy of the Parliament was established by this
42nd CAA with regard to the amendment of the (i) Article 249 of the Constitution provides that RajyaSabha
Constitution. Article 368 has been amended to provide may pass a resolution, by a majority of not less than two-
that no constitutional amendment will be called in thirds of the Members present and voting to the effect that it
question in any court on any ground. is necessary or expedient in the national interest that
 It transferred subjects like forests, education, weights Parliament should make a law with respect to any matter
and measures except establishments of standards, enumerated in the State List. Then, Parliament is empowered
protection of wild animals and birds from the State List to make a law on the subject specified in the resolution for
to the Concurrent List. New entry 20A was added in the whole or any part of the territory of India. Such a
Concurrent List which is “Population control and family resolution remains in force for a maximum period of one
planning”. year but this period can be extended by one year at a time by
passing a further resolution.
Source-
(ii) Under Article 312 of the Constitution, if RajyaSabha
Indian Polity by Laxmikant passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds
of the Members present and voting declaring that it is
Appendix- Constitutional amendments at glance necessary or expedient in the national interest to create one
or more All India Services common to the Union and the
79. Solution- d State, Parliament has the power to create by law such
services.
Explanation-
(iii) Under the Constitution, President is empowered to issue
69th Amendment Act, 1991: Accorded a special status to the Proclamations in the event of national emergency (Article
Union Territory of Delhi by designing it as the National 352), in the event of failure of constitutional machinery in a
Capital Territory of Delhi. The amendment also provided for State (Article 356), or in the case of financial emergency
the creation of a 70-member legislative assembly and a 7- (Article 360).
member council of ministers for Delhi.
Normally, every such proclamation has to be approved by Third statement is also correct. In terms of the stock market,
both Houses of Parliament within a stipulated period. Under a prolonged trade deficit could have adverse effects. If a
certain circumstances, however, RajyaSabha enjoys special country has been importing more goods than it is exporting
powers in this regard. If a Proclamation is issued at a time for a sustained period of time, it is essentially going into debt.
when LokSabha takes place within the period allowed for its Over time, investors will notice the decline in spending on
approval, then the Proclamation can remain effective if a domestically produced goods, which will hurt domestic
resolution approving it, is passed by RajyaSabha. producers and their stock prices.
Source- https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/what-is-
current-account-deficit-and-why-does-it-
Indian Polity by Laxmikant matter/article24842306.ece
Chapter- 22 (Parliament) 84. Solution- c
81. Solution- b Explanation-
Explanation- First statement is correct. Housing and Food items are the
major contributor to Consumer Price Index.
Second statement is incorrect because National Green
Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the Second statement is also correct. The Wholesale Price Index
National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and (WPI) is the price of a representative basket of wholesale
expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental goods. The index basket of the WPI covers commodities
protection and conservation of forests and other natural falling under the three major groups namely Primary
resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to Articles, Fuel and Power and Manufactured products. It
environment and giving relief and compensation for damages influences stock and fixed price markets.
to persons and property and for matters connected therewith
or incidental thereto. Third and fourth statements are incorrect. Services are not
covered under the WPI while they are covered under CPIs.
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/more-river- Even, service price inflation has a greater influence on CPIs.
stretches-critically-polluted-cpcb/article24963681.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/wholesale-
82. Solution- c inflation-drops-to-four-month-low-of-453-in-
august/article24944403.ece
Explanation-
85. Solution- d
Explanation-
The Uttar Pradesh Police are set to launch a first of its kind
dial-FIR scheme in the country where a common man can Both the statements are incorrect.
register regular crimes without going to a police station even
as it is preparing an online photographic dossier of criminals There will be a uniform premium of only 2% to be paid by
that will be provided to policemen on 22,000 new i-pads. farmers for all Kharif crops and 1.5% for all Rabi crops. In
case of annual commercial and horticultural crops, the
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/tp- premium to be paid by farmers will be only 5%. The premium
otherstates/up-to-launch-first-ever-dial- rates to be paid by farmers are very low and balance
fir/article24963895.ece premium will be paid by the Government to provide full
insured amount to the farmers against crop loss on account
83. Solution- d of natural calamities.
Explanation- There is no upper limit on Government subsidy. Even if

balance premium is 90%, it will be borne by the Government.
First statement is correct. A deficit in the current account
leads to depletion of foreign currency assets as these assets
are used as a source to fund deficit which forms part of
capital account. Depletion of foreign currency assets reduces
money supply which in turn results to liquidity issues.
Second statement is correct. The demand for the country's

assets, including the country's government bonds will
decrease. Hence, national currency will gradually lose value
relative to other currencies.
First statement is incorrect because National Anti-

Profiteering Authority (NAA) will not be a Constitutional
body.
The NAA is a five member body viz. one chairman and four
technical members. The chairman, who heads NAA, is a
senior officer of the level of secretary to the Government of
India. There are four Technical Members from the Centre
and/or the States. The authority will operate for two years.
The GST Act itself contains provision for anti-profiteering

measures. The Act recommend for the setting up of an
institutional mechanism to ensure that the full benefits of
price reluctant factors (i) the input tax credits and (ii)
reduced GST rates on supply of goods or services, made from
time to time will be passed on to the consumers.
Besides the NAA, the GST law also proposes for other
institutional arrangements: a Standing Committee, Screening
Committees in every State and the Directorate General of
Safeguards in the Central Board of Excise & Customs
(CBEC). All these bodies will work together on the anti-
profiteering front.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/covering-the- When the NAA certify that there is anti-profiteering in a

last-field/article24962281.ece specific case, it can order the supplier/business concerned to
reduce its prices or return the undue benefit availed by it
86. Solution- d along with interest to the recipient of the goods or services. If
the undue benefit cannot be passed on to the consumer, it
Explanation- can be ordered to be deposited in the Consumer Welfare
Fund. In extreme cases, the NAA can impose a penalty on the
All the statements are correct. defaulting business entity and even order the cancellation of
its registration under GST.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/the-rupee-
problem/article24962268.ece https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-
business/consumers-get-gst-helpline/article24796237.ece
87. Solution- b
89. Solution- d
Explanation-
Explanation-
First statement is correct as the transfer payments which
include the remittances, gifts and grants are the part of the Fourth option is correct.
capital account of the Balance of Payments. Any increase in
them would likely lead to a surplus in the current account. Reverse charge is a mechanism where the recipient of the
goods and/or services is liable to pay GST instead of the
Second statement is incorrect. All the international supplier.
purchases and sales of assets such as money, stocks, bonds
etc. are recorded under the capital account.
Third statement is correct as fall in global oil prices will

reduce imports which will increase the current account
surplus.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/where-goes-the-
rupee/article24962273.ece
88. Solution- a
Explanation-
First and second statements are incorrect.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/transforming-
agriculture/article24962014.ece
92. Solution- d
Explanation-
All of the above are correct.
External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) includes

commercial bank loans, buyers’ credit, suppliers’ credit,
securitized instruments such as Floating Rate Notes and
Fixed Rate Bonds etc., credit from official export credit
agencies and commercial borrowings from Multilateral
Financial Institutions.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/government
Normally, the supplier of goods or services pays the tax on -moves-to-stabilise-rupee/article24950247.ece
supply. In the case of Reverse Charge, the receiver becomes
liable to pay the tax, i.e., the chargeability gets reversed. https://m.rbi.org.in/Scripts/FAQView.aspx?Id=120#q6
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/lo 93. Solution- c

keshwarri-sk/why-reverse-charge-mechanism-must-
stay/article24391492.ece Explanation-
90. Solution- d The principal tributaries joining the river are the Yamuna,
the Ramganga, the Ghaghra, the Gandak, the BurhiGandak,
Explanation- the Kosi, the Mahananda and the Sone. Chambal and Betwa
are also the two other important sub-tributaries.
Tributaries
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a committee of the
Central Bank in India (Reserve Bank of India), headed by its  Left- Ramganga, Gomti, Karnali, Gandaki, Kosi,
Governor, which is entrusted with the task of fixing the Mahananda
benchmark policy interest rate (repo rate) to contain  Right- Yamuna, Tamsa, Son, Punpun
inflation within the specified target level.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is the body of the states/shapoorji-pallonji-bags-major-project-to-clean-
RBI, headed by the Governor, responsible for taking the
ganga/article24949782.ece
important monetary policy decision about setting the repo
rate. Repo rate is ‘the policy instrument’ in monetary policy 94. Solution- b
that helps to realize the set inflation target by the RBI.
Explanation-
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/where-goes-the-
rupee/article24962273.ece Second option is correct.
91. Solution- d  In an attempt to combat human trafficking, the West

Bengal government has rolled out a scheme,
Explanation- Swayangsiddha, in different districts of the State.
 Swayangsiddha, which means self-reliance, will be
executed by the West Bengal Police.
The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) is specialized  The scheme aims to empower young boys and girls to
agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts make informed choices so that they are less vulnerable
to defeat hunger. to trafficking and child marriage.
As of August 2018, The FAO has 197 member states, https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/tp-

including the European Union, Niue and The Cook Islands otherstates/bengal-scheme-to-combat-human-
(States in free-association with New Zealand), and the Faroe trafficking/article24951445.ece
Islands and Tokelau, which are associate members
95. Solution- b
Explanation-
Second statement is incorrect.
Under the Act, one of the requirements for citizenship by

naturalisation is that the applicant must have resided in
India during the last 12 months, and for 11 of the previous 14
years.
The Bill relaxes this 11 year requirement to six years for

persons belonging to the same six religions and three
countries.
http://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/the-citizenship-
amendment-bill-2016-4348/
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/indias-shrinking-
democratic-space/article24949467.ece
96. Solution- c
Explanation-
First statement is incorrect because Doklam is a narrow

plateau lying in the tri-junction region of Bhutan, China and
Source= 15 September 2018- The Hindu (Article- Progress
India.
amid inequality; Page no.11)
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/doklam-final-
99. Solution- b
report-lauds-government/article24949748.ece
Explanation-
97. Solution- b
The South Asia Sub regional Economic Cooperation (SASEC)
Explanation-
Program, set up in 2001, brings together Bangladesh,
Second statement is incorrect. The constitution has not fixed Bhutan, India, Maldives, Myanmar, Nepal, and Sri Lanka in a
the tenure of a judge of the Supreme court or Chief Justice of project-based partnership to promote regional prosperity by
India. improving cross-border connectivity, boosting trade among
member countries, and strengthening regional economic
The President has appointed Justice RanjanGogoi as the cooperation.
46th Chief Justice of India. He is the first Chief Justice of
India from Assam. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/why-bimstec-
summit-matters-pm-narendra-modi-5333363/
https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-
national/justice-gogoi-to-be-next-cji/article24951127.ece 100. Solution- d
98. Solution- c Explanation-
Explanation- All the statements are incorrect.
1) Coverage and entitlement under Targeted Public

Distribution System (TPDS): Upto 75% of the rural
population and 50% of the urban population will be
covered under TPDS, with uniform entitlement of 5 kg
per person per month. However, since Antyodaya Anna
Yojana (AAY) households constitute poorest of the poor,
and are presently entitled to 35 kg per household per
month, entitlement of existing AAY households will be
protected at 35 kg per household per month.
2) State-wise coverage: Corresponding to the all India
coverage of 75% and 50% in the rural and urban areas,
State-wise coverage will be determined by the Central
Government. The then Planning Commission (now NITI
Aayog) has determined the State-wise coverage by using
the NSS Household Consumption Survey data for 2011- http://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2018/sep

12. /05/state-government-distributes-free-led-bulbs-to-
3) Subsidised prices under TPDS and their revision : Food- national-food-security-act-families-ahead-of-election-
grains under TPDS will be made available at subsidised 1867725.html
prices of Rs. 3/2/1 per kg for rice, wheat and coarse
grains for a period of three years from the date of
commencement of the Act. Thereafter prices will be as
fixed by the Central Government from time to time, not
exceeding MSP. It has been decided by the Government
to continue the above mentioned subsidized prices upto
June, 2018.
4) In case, any State’s allocation under the Act is lower than
their current allocation, it will be protected upto the
level of average offtake under normal TPDS during last
three years, at prices to be determined by the Central
Government. Existing prices for APL households i.e. Rs.
6.10 per kg for wheat and Rs 8.30 per kg for rice has
been determined as issue prices for the additional
allocation to protect the average offtake during last three
years.
5) Identification of Households: Within the coverage under
TPDS determined for each State, the work of
identification of eligible households is to be done by
States/UTs.
6) Nutritional Support to women and children: Pregnant
women and lactating mothers and children in the age
group of 6 months to 14 years will be entitled to meals as
per prescribed nutritional norms under Integrated Child
Development Services (ICDS) and Mid-Day Meal
(MDM) schemes. Higher nutritional norms have been
prescribed for malnourished children upto 6 years of
age.
7) Maternity Benefit: Pregnant women and lactating
mothers will also be entitled to receive maternity benefit
of not less than Rs. 6,000.
8) Women Empowerment: Eldest woman of the household
of age 18 years or above to be the head of the household
for the purpose of issuing of ration cards.
9) Grievance Redressal Mechanism: Grievance redressal
mechanism at the District and State levels. States will
have the flexibility to use the existing machinery or set
up separate mechanism.
10) Cost of intra-State transportation & handling of food
grains and FPS Dealers' margin: Central Government
will provide assistance to States in meeting the
expenditure incurred by them on transportation of food
grains within the State, its handling and FPS dealers’
margin as per norms to be devised for this purpose.
11) Transparency and Accountability: Provisions have been
made for disclosure of records relating to PDS, social
audits and setting up of Vigilance Committees in order
to ensure transparency and accountability.
12) Food Security Allowance: Provision for food security
allowance to entitled beneficiaries in case of non-supply
of entitled food grains or meals.
13) Penalty: Provision for penalty on public servant or
authority, to be imposed by the State Food Commission,
in case of failure to comply with the relief recommended
by the District Grievance Redressal Officer.

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MALUKA IAS PUNJAB PCS TEST SERIES TEST- 8 ANS

Where an assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be Chapter- 17 (President)

Chapter- 17 (President) Source- Indian Polity by Laxmikant

Chapter- 25 (Supreme Court); Page no. 25.7 Explanation-

7. Solution- c First statement is incorrect. The Centre may withhold or

If RajyaSabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less Explanation-

8. Solution- d Subject to the provisions of this Constitution, Parliament

OATH OR AFFIRMATION BY THE PRESIDENT Indian Polity by Laxmikant

Every President and every person acting as President or Chapter- 22 (Parliament)

Public Accounts Committee- 14. Solution- c

Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is one of the standing Explanation-

Member- 22 (15- LokSabha and 7- RajyaSabha) Absolute Veto-

Business Advisory Committee- 15. Solution- a

(b) Appeals in civil matters. Explanation-

Chapter- 18 (Vice President) Source- Indian Polity by Laxmikant

25. Solution- d Chapter- 22 (Parliament); Page no. 22.9

Explanation- 28. Solution- c

Fourth option is correct. The first three committees are Explanation-

Second statement is correct. Every political party, whether Explanation-

Substitute Motion: It is a motion that is moved in Source- Indian Polity by Laxmikant

Source- Indian Polity by Laxmikant Explanation-

Vote of Credit It is granted for meeting an unexpected

Exceptional Grant It is granted for a special purpose and

Source- Indian Polity by Laxmikant

Chapter- 22 (Parliament); Page no. 22.24

Fourth option is correct.

High Courts don’t have original jurisdiction.

Source- Indian Polity by Laxmikant

Chapter- 25 (Supreme Court); Page no. 25.5

Third option is correct.  Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the

Source- Indian Polity by Laxmikant

Indian Polity by Laxmikant Chapter- 22 (Parliament)

Chapter- 28 (State Council of Ministers) 44. Solution- d

42. Solution- d Explanation-

Explanation- All of the statements are correct.

 The provisions of Article 368 of the Constitution of India Source-

45. Solution- c Cases where the effective majority is used:

Explanation- 1. Removal of Vice-president in RS – Article 67(b).

 Removal of CEC/CAG. o 1/12th members are elected by an electorate of

First statement is correct. The representatives of each State Source-

Indian Polity by Laxmikant • Cabinet Committees are an organisational device to reduce

56. Solution- c Source-

Explanation- Indian Polity by Laxmikant

Features of Cabinet Committee Chapter- 21 (Cabinet Committees)

Explanation- the amount of demand. The members from particular parties

4. Has a secretariat provided by the LokSabha / RajyaSabha Source-

Source- 63. Solution- c

Indian Polity by Laxmikant Explanation-

Chapter- 23 (Parliamentary Committees) Both the statements are correct.

61. Solution- b Indian Judiciary is an integrated and unified system.

Explanation- The Indian Judiciary is organised in a hierarchical form.

Indian Polity by Laxmikant Introduction to the Constitution of India by DD Basu

Chapter- 22 (Parliament) Chapter- 21 (Organisation of the Judiciary in General)

62. Solution- c 64. Solution- d

Source-  First is correct. The council has no effective say in the

Source- Ordinary bills can be introduced in either house of

Source- India had the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification)

Fourth statement is incorrect because only Parliament has Explanation-

Chapter- 22 (Parliament) 84. Solution- c

81. Solution- b Explanation-

Explanation- There is no upper limit on Government subsidy. Even if

Second statement is correct. The demand for the country's

First statement is incorrect because National Anti-