The document appears to be a sample test containing multiple choice questions related to Indian law. The questions cover topics like the Indian Constitution, Code of Civil Procedure, Transfer of Property Act, and Indian Contract Act. Some example questions ask about which states are included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, orders of CPC related to indigent persons and documents, and provisions of the Transfer of Property Act regarding "clog on redemption" and "holding over".
The document appears to be a sample test containing multiple choice questions related to Indian law. The questions cover topics like the Indian Constitution, Code of Civil Procedure, Transfer of Property Act, and Indian Contract Act. Some example questions ask about which states are included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, orders of CPC related to indigent persons and documents, and provisions of the Transfer of Property Act regarding "clog on redemption" and "holding over".
The document appears to be a sample test containing multiple choice questions related to Indian law. The questions cover topics like the Indian Constitution, Code of Civil Procedure, Transfer of Property Act, and Indian Contract Act. Some example questions ask about which states are included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, orders of CPC related to indigent persons and documents, and provisions of the Transfer of Property Act regarding "clog on redemption" and "holding over".
Option No. 1. In Which case an 2 Only (a) & (b) (a),(b)& (c) Only (c) & (d) (b),(c)&(d) amendment in the constitution, shall also be required to be ratified by the Legislatures of not less than one half of the States to the effect where such an amendment is in respect of (a) Article 54, 55, 73, 162, or Article 241 (b) Any of the lists in the 7th schedule (c) Representation of states in parliament (d) Provisions relating to part XII chapter-I 2. Which among the following 3 (a),(b)&(c) Only (a) Only (d) Only (b) is not fundamental right- (a) Right to equality (b) Right to freedom of religion (c) Right to constitutional remedies (d) Equal justice & free legal aid 3. In the Sixth schedule of the 4 Meghalaya Mizoram Tripura Manipur Indian Constitution, provisions with regard to administration of tribal areas of some states have been made. Which of the following states is not included therein- 4. Article 17 of Indian 3 Education Health Abolition of Food guarantee constitution deals with…… untou- chability 5. Criminal Procedure Code is 3 Central List State list Concurrent list Residual List subject of which list of Constitution of India? 6. Under Civil Procedure, Code 4 For For For the For framing of a court may not issue a elucidating ascertaining assessing the issue commission- any matter in the market amount of dispute value of any any mesne property profits or damages 7. Under which of the following 2 Order- Order-XXXIII Order-XXXII Order-XXXIV Orders of C.P.C. provisions XXXII(A) regarding a suit by indigent persons has been given- 8. Under order 43 of Civil 4 An order to An order An order on When the Procedure Code, against set aside or rejecting an an objection subordinate court has exercised its which order an appeal shall refusing to objection to to the draft jurisdiction illegally not lie- set aside a the draft of a of a or with material sale document document irregularity 9. Which Provision (Order) of 3 Order 5 CPC Order 10 CPC Order 16 CPC Order 21 CPC Civil Procedure Code deals with summons and attendance of witness? 10. Which Provision (Order) of 1 Order 13 CPC Order 5 CPC Order 17 CPC Order 24 CPC Civil Procedure Code deals with production, impounding and return of documents 11. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1 Not Impliedly Expressly None of these A litigant having a grievance expressly barred and of civil nature has a right to barred impliedly institute a Civil suit if barred cognizance is……… 12. Under Civil Procedure code, 3 Plaintiff The plaintiff If property in If defendant defendant can ask for threatens threatens to dispute in a threatens the temporary injunction against the dispose off suit is in plaintifee to the plaintiff if……….. defendant to the property danger of dispose off the dispossess with a view being property him from the to wasted, suit property defrauding damaged or his creditors alienated by the plaintiff 13. Under CPC 1908, on death of 2 Shall abate Shall not May abate May abate with either parties to the suits abate with the the consent of between the conclusion of permission of the other party the hearing and the the Court pronouncing of the judgement, the suit………. 14. Under Civil procedure code, 4 Vice- Ministers of Judges of Chairman Union who is not exempted from President of Union and Supreme Public service commission personal appearance in the India States Court and Civil Court? High Courts. 15. Under order 32 Rule 1 of 3 Juvenile Civil Indian Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act Civil Procedure Code a minor Justice Act Procedure Majority Act means a person who has not Code attained his majority within the meaning of……….. 16. Transfer of Property Act:- 3 It is an It is a It can be Any condition Which among the following absolute statutory fettered by contained in mortgage deed, is false statement about the right right any which obstructs the term “Clog on redemption” condition right of redemption will be null and void 17. Transfer of Property Act:- 3 The lease The lease is The lease The lease becomes What is the effect of becomes renewed becomes void extinguished “Holding over”? illegal 18. Transfer of Property Act:- 2 Registered Registered Registered gift Registered sale Which of the following do exchange will deed deed not convey title? deed Is not entitled Is entitled to Has conditional 19. Within the meaning of 2 entitlement to value None of these section 51 of the Transfer of to value of value of of improvements Property Act , 1882 the improvements improvements transferee: 20. Which section T.P. Act 4 S.126 S.127 S.128 S.129 preserves the rule of Mohammedan Law and excludes the applicability of S.123 to T.P. Act which mandates that the gift of immovable property must be effected by a registered instrument as stated there in- 21. Which of the following is not 4 Obligation of Responsibility Quantum Novation a quasi contract? person of finder of meruit enjoying goods benefit of non gratuitous act. 22. Indian Contract Act:- ‘A’ 2 Yes No To the extent None of these contracts to sell and deliver of the loss 500 bales of cotton to ‘B’ on caused a fixed day. ‘A’ knows nothing of B’s breaks his promise and ‘B’, having no cotton is obliged to close his mill. Is ‘A’ responsible for the loss caused to ‘B’ by the closing of Mill? 23. Indian Contract Act:- ‘X’ hires 1 Liable Not Liable Liable to the None of these a carriage of ‘Y’. The carriage extent of is unsafe though ‘Y’ is not 50% aware of it and ‘X’ is injured. For the injury to ‘X’, ‘Y’ is- 24. Indian Contract Act:- ‘A’ 3 Only Against Only Against Against ‘B’ or Neither against enters into a contract with ‘C’ ‘B’ ‘C’ or both ‘B’ nor ‘C’ ‘B’ to sell him 100 bales of cotton, and afterwards discovers that ‘B’ was acting as agent for ‘C’. For the price of the cotton ‘A’ may sue……. 25. Under Indian Contract Act, 3 An offer An An invitation Counter offer goods displayed in a ship acceptance to offer window with a prize label will amount to- 26. An injunction granted during 3 Perpetual Mandatory Temporary Permanent the pendency of the suit u/s injunction injunction Injunction Injunction 37 of Specific Relief Act, 1963 is: 27. Under Specific relief Act, 1 To prevent To prevent, To prevent a When the when injunction can be the breach of on the continuing plaintiff has no breach in which granted a contract ground of the plaintiff has personal the nuisance, an acquiesced: interest in the performance act of which matter. of which it is not would be reasonably specifically clear that it enforced: will be a nuisance: 28. As per section 40 of the 1 Cancel it in Cancel it in Cannot None of these Specific Relief Act, where an part and whole cancel its any instrument is evidence of allow it to part different rights or different stand for the obligations the court may in residue a proper case- 29. The grant of decree of 1 Discretionary Mandatory Arbitrary Obligatory specific performance for the court is: 30. Under Limitation Act, which 2 The day from Time taken by Time taken Time taken for of the following shall not be which the the advocate to obtain obtaining leave counted for computation of period is to to prepare judgment/or to sue as an period of limitation:- be counted memorandum der/ award indigent person of appeal 31. A fresh period of limitation 1 Signed Signed after Oral Oral agreement shall be computed from the before expiration of agreement after expiration of time when the expiration of prescribed before prescribed period acknowledgement was…….. prescribed period expiration of prescribed period period 32. Whether a court can grant 1 No. Yes. With the With the extension of period of permission of consent of both limitation under section 5 on High Court parties the ground of ‘sufficient cause’ in case of an application under order XXI of the C.P.C. 33. If after the tenant has 3 Two Months 3 Months 1 Month 6 Months delivered possession on or before the date specified in the order under clause (g) or clause (h) of sub section (1) of section 12 of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, landlord fails to commence the work of repairs or building or rebuilding within…………. of the specified date on an application made to it, Court may order landlord to place the tenant in occupation of the accommodation or part thereof. 34. Under Which section M.P. 3 Section 12(1) Section 12(2) Section 13(2) Section 13(6) Accommodation Control Act 1961 is provided for fixation of provisional rent? 35. MP Accommodation Control 1 3 Months 6 Months 1 year 1 Month Act:- If a landlord receives any rent in excess of the standard rent as fixed by the Rent Controlling Authority he shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to- 36. Which one is not the correct 4 Which is Which is Which is Which is owned answer:- The government owned by owned by owned by any by any cultural may, by notification exempt any any religious charitable institution any accommodation from all educational institution institution or any of the provisions of institution the MP Accommodation Control Act- 37. MP Accommodation Control 1 One year Two Year Three Years Five years Act:- No suit for the eviction of a tenant shall be maintainable on the grounds specified under 12(1)(e) or 12(1)(f), unless a period of…………. Has elapsed from the date of acquisition. 38. Which Revenue Officer is 1 Tahsildar Sub Collector Civil Judge class- competent to take action Revenue Divisional II under section 248, 250 MP Officer LRC 39. Under MP Land Revenue 4 Only the Only right of Only other All of these Code. Who is not a Revenue right to way easement what right of village entered irrigation in Wajib-ul-arz record? 40. Under Section 113 of MP 2 Tahsildar Sub Revenue Collector Land Revenue Code. Who is Divisional Inspector not a Revenue clerical errors Officer which have been made in the record of rights may at any time be corrected by the……….. 41. According to section 57 MP 4 Sub- Collector Civil Court State Land Revenue Code. Who is divisional government not a Revenue where a officer dispute arises between the state government and any person in respect of any right under sub-section (1) such dispute shall be decided by the- 42. According to MP Land 2 Naib Revenue Settlement Assistant Revenue Code. Who is not a Tahsildar Inspector Officer Superintendents Revenue Land Records 43. Under Indian Evidence Act 2 Communications Communications Official Professional made during made by a communications Communications 1872, which among the marriage witness who is following does not come unable to communicate under the category of verbally privileged communications? 44. Which section of Indian 1 Section-6 Section-7 Section-8 Section-9 Evidence Act principle of “Res gestae” is enshrined? 45. Under Indian Evidence Act 4 Document Document Document Document 1872, what is not a Primary made by made by made by copies of Evidence? printing Lithography Photography common original 46. Indian Evidence Act 1872:- 3 (a) incorrect (b) incorrect Both correct Both Incorrect (a) ‘A’ agrees absolutely (b) correct (a) correct in writing to pay ‘B’ Rs. 1,000 on the 1st March, 2010. The fact that, at the same time the oral agreement was made that the money should not be paid till the 31st March, cannot be proved. (b) ‘A’ Sells ‘B’ a horse and verbally warrants him sound. ‘A’ gives ‘B’ a paper in these words “Bought of ‘A’, a horse for Rs. 500” ‘B’ may prove the verbal warranty. 47. Under Section 45 of 4 A Conclusive Is not Is not Is not a Evidence Act Opinion of Proof. relevant admissible conclusive expert witness is.. proof. 48. Presumption as to electronic 2 85 85–A 85–B 85–C agreements is provided in section……….of Evidence Act 49. A dying declaration under 2 Only when it Even when it Only when it Only when it is Sec. 32 of the Indian is reduced in is made to a is made to a made to a Evidence Act is admissible in writing police officer Judicial Executive evidence Magistrate Magistrate 50. ‘A’ is charged with travelling 2 Prosecution Accused Complainant Prosecution on a railway without a ticket. witness Under the Indian Evidence act, the burden of proving that he had ticket is on- 51. Under Indian Evidence Act, 2 Is irrelevant Can be acted Cannot be Has no 1872 the statement of upon acted upon evidentiary hostile witness value 52. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1 If they are If they are If they are If they are tried confession of one accused is tried jointly tried jointly tried for the for different admissible in evidence for the same for different same offence offences and against co-accused offence offences but not also not jointly jointly 53. Under section-230 of the 4 The coin The A metal used Lumps of Indian Penal Code, 1860 denominate ‘Farrukhabad for the time unstamped which of the following is not d as the Rupees’ being as Metal used a or has not been a “Coin”:- company’s money and money rupees stamped and issued by the authority of some state or sovereign power. 54. Under Indian Penal Code,, 2 To convey a To make an Censure Publication of which of the following caution imputation passed in reports of amounts to defamation:- intended for concerning a good faith by proceedings of good of company or person court. person, to an having lawful whom association authority conveyed or or collection over others for public of persons as good. such. 55. ‘A’ without any excuse fires a 2 S. 299IPC S.300IPC S.304IPC S.304AIPC loaded cannon into a crowd of person and kills one of them. Although he may not have had a premeditated design to kill any particular individual. ‘A’ committed office of………… 56. After Criminal Law 4 376(2)(g) 376B 376C 376D (Amendment) 2013 to the Indian Penal Code the offence of Gang rape is punishable under section 57. Removal of Ornaments 3 Robbery Theft under An offence An offence dishonestly from the body of under section 378 under section 416 of the deceased person is………. section 392 of IPC section 404 IPC of IPC of IPC 58. Section 511 of Indian Penal 3 Attempt to Attempt to Attempt to Attempt to Code, will applies to……… commit commit commit theft commit robbery murder suicide 59. Under Indian Penal Code, 3 Necessary Not Necessary None of these which of the statement that the act necessary that the represents the correct abetted must that the act person position of law? To be abetted must abetted must constitute abetment it is…….. committed be have the committed. same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor 60. Indian Penal Code: - ‘A’ cuts 4 Robbery Criminal Extortion Theft down a tree on ‘B’s land with breach of the intention of dishonestly trust taking the tree out of B’s possession, without B’s consent. Which offence is committed by ‘A’? 61. Under Indian Penal Code, a 2 Unmarried Married Any woman Unmarried married man commits woman woman except his woman without adultery if he has intercourse other than wife her consent with a/an his wife 62. Indian Penal Code:- ‘A’ 3 Mischief Cheating Forgery Falsification of prepares a mark sheet with accounts an intention to get a job thereby he committed the offence of- 63. Under Criminal Procedure 2 One months 3 months 6 months 1 year Code, the maximum term of imprisonment awardable in a “Summary trial is”…….. 64. Under Criminal Procedure 1 Demands Issues a Hold an Sells property Code, which irregularity security to search inquest under section vitiate proceedings & shall keep the warrant under 458 or Section be void if any Magistrate, under section 176 459 Cr.P.C. not being empowered by section 94 law………. Cr.P.C. 65. Under Criminal Procedure 1 If the offence If the offence If the offence If the offence is Code, the period of is punishable is punishable is punishable punishable with limitation for taking with with with imprisonment cognizance of any offence imprisonmen imprisonmen imprisonmen for a term not shall be three years…….. t for a term t for a term t for a term exceeding 1 exceeding exceeding exceeding year one year but one year but one year but not not not exceeding exceeding 7 exceeding 10 three years years years 66. In MP offence under section 3 Judicial Chief Judicial Court of Chief 317 & 318 of IPC is triable by Magistrate Magistrate session Metropolitan which Court……… First Class Magistrate 67. Who among the following is 4 Wife living in Major Both All of these not entitled to claim adultery. married Husband and maintenance under section daughter wife living 125 of Cr.P.C? who can not separately by maintain mutual herself consent. 68. When can a trial court 1 Where Where Where Where accused release an accused on bail, accused is no accused is no accused is no is no bail and under section 389 (3) of bail and bail and bail and imprisonment is Cr.P.C. after conviction? imprisonmen imprisonmen imprisonmen not exceeding 2 t is not t is not t is not years exceeding 3 exceeding 5 exceeding 4 years years years 69. An application filed under 4 Released Discharged Convicted Acquitted A section 257 of Criminal Procedure Code is allowed, so the accused will be- 70. Who can withdraw a case 2 The State Public Public District from the prosecution under Government Prosecutor Prosecutor Magistrate section 321, Cr.P.C. incharge of a incharge of a case of with case even the without permission permission of Court of Court 71. Can a person discharged 2 No he can’t He can be No since Yes by the under section 258 of be tried tried with principle of consent of the Criminal Procedure Code be the consent double State tried again for the same of the court jeopardy Government offence by which he would be was applicable discharged 72. An executive magistrate is 2 15 days 7 days 60 days 90 days empowered to grant remand u/s 167 Cr.P.C. for a maximum period of- 73. Offence under the 2 Sessions Judicial Executive Judicial Negotiable instrument act Judge Magistrate Magistrate Magistrate are triable by- first class Second class 74. Offence under Negotiable 2 Cognizable & Non Cognizable & Non Cognizable Instrument Act: compoundab Cognizable & Non & non le compoundab compoundab compoundable le le 75. Which section provides that 3 Section 137 Section 141 Section 147 Section 149 the offences under the negotiable Instrument Act are compoundable- 76. Which one is the open 4 MP Kerala Goa Sikkim defecation free state in India? 77. In which state Garampani 2 Gujarat Assam Nagaland Sikkim sanctuary is located? 78. Bansagar dam is situated on 1 Sone Ghambal Parvati Banganga the river………. 79. One Nautical Mile is equal to 4 1005 Meter 1250 meter 1575 Meter 1852 Meter 80. Who won the Gold Medal for 1 Devendra Mariyappan Varun Singh Jitu Rai Men’s Jabelin Throw Rio Jhajharia Thangavelu Bhati Paralympics games 2016 for India? 81. What is ‘TEJAS’ 4 Air of writing Remote Space First Indian on stone operated launching made fighter aircraft vehicle plane 82. What is ‘Lithotripsy’? 2 Art of Breaking of Carbon Branch of Writing on Kidney stone dating of calligraphy stone through stone waves 83. What is the maximum fixed 4 220 230 238 250 strength of Rajya Sabha? 84. World Consumer right day is 3 9 November 5 September 15 March 10 December observed every year on…….. 85. Who among the following 3 Kalidasa Charaka Panini Aryabhat wrote Sanskrit grammar? 86. Who won the first ever 3 PV Sindhu Dipa Sakshi Malik Saina Nehwal Olympic Medal for women’s Karmakar wrestling in Rio Olympic for India? 87. Which one of the following 4 Yamuna Mumbai- Western Agra-Lucknow Expressway is the longest in Expressway Pune Expressway Expressway India? Expressway 88. What is not found in animal 1 Cell wall of Nucleus Mitochondria Ribosome cell? cellulose 89. Where in Madhya Pradesh 2 Pachmarhi Khajuraho Orchha Gwalior All India Classical Dance Festival is organized every year? 90. The Ozone Layer restricts 4 Visible light Infrared X-ray and radiation gamman 91. Full form of URL is- 1 Uniform Uniform Uniform Uniform resource resource link registered resource lab Locater Link 92. IC chips used in computers 1 Silicon Chromium Operating Platform are made of- System Software Software 93. Word Processing Spread 1 Application System Operating Platform Sheet and ‘Photo Editing are Software Software System Software example of’- Software 94. Computer Speed is 4 TB MB KB MIPS measured in which of the following 95. Servers are computers that 3 Mainframe Super Network Client provide resources to other Computer computers connected to a………. 96. Find out the correct 1 Falsehood Heinous Ruined Composed Antonym for the word ‘Veracity’ 97. ………. The cover of darkness, 3 In, over In, along Under, up Through, upon the enemy crept……….. 98. Word which best express the 1 Vague Tiny Insignificant Inadequate meaning of the “Nebulous” 99. What does the Phrase ‘In 3 In point of In one’s As distinct In the end one’s true colours’ mean- favour from what one pretends to be 100. Find the correct spelt word- 3 Aquisition Acquizition Acquisition Acquisision
University of Mumbai Law Academy'S 5 Fresher'S Moot Court Competetion, 2019 University of Mumbai Law Academy'S 5 Fresher'S Moot Court Competetion, 2019