INTRO:

1. An Orthotist fabricating your prescribed device Most commonly made from molded polyethylene
or another type of plastic, either as one piece or as several pieces attached together by straps.
a. Soft Orthoses
b. Rigid Orthoses
c. Prosthesis
d. NOTA
2. External appliance worn to restrict or assist motion or to transfer load from one area of the body
to another.
a. Orthosis
b. Brace
c. Splint
d. A and B
e. A and C
3. Health care professional who designs, fabricates, and fits only shoes and foot orthoses.
a. Occupational Therapist
b. Physical Therapist
c. Orthotist
d. Pedorthist
4. Mass-Produced Orthoses: Permit the wearer to stand without crutch support. Provide the
youngster with considerable function and are less expensive and easier to don.
a. Only 1st statement is TRUE
b. Only 2nd statement is TRUE
c. Both statements are TRUE
d. Both statements are not TRUE
5. A physiatrist prescribed a device for your which is intended for temporary use. The orthosis that
your patient should receive should be:
a. Splint
b. Brace
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
6. Health care professional who designs, fabricates, and fits orthoses for the limbs and trunk.
a. Occupational Therapist
b. Physical Therapist
c. Orthotist
d. Pedorthist
7. During osthotic measurement your patient asks about the goals why you would
prescribed a Lower Extemity orthosis. Which of the following responses that should not
be included in the goals.
a. To assist weak segments
b. To apply traction
c. To immobilize
d. To to correct deformity
e. None of the Above

SHOE
8. The following is/are TRUE about Shoes EXCEPT:
a. Foundation of LE orthoses
 b. Transfer body weight to the ground and protect the wearer from the terrain and the
weather.
c. Each part contributes to the efficacy of orthotic management.
d. NOTA
9. The following is/are Major Parts of the Shoes EXCEPT:
e. Upper
f. Sole
g. Heel
h. NOTA
10. A part of the shoe that is located at strategic points and preserves the shape of the shoe.
i. Reinforcement
j. Upper
k. Heel
l. Sole
11. Anterior component of the upper which contains the lace stays and have eyelets for shoelaces.
m. Vamp
n. Quarter
o. Toe Spring
p. Toe Box
12. Portion of the shoe adjacent to the outer sole, under the anatomical heel.
q. Reinforcement
r. Upper
s. Heel
t. Sole
13. Longitudinal plate that reinforces the sole between the anterior border of the heel and the widest
part of the sole at the metatarsal heads.
u. Shank
v. Toe Boxing
w. Counter
x. Vamp
14. Protects the toes from stubbing and vertical trauma; high enough to accommodate hammer toes.
y. Shank
z. Toe Boxing
aa. Counter
bb. Vamp
15. Model over which the shoe is made. Refers to the shape of the shoe:
a. Last
b. Sole
c. Reinforcement
d. Heel
16. Broad, low heel provides greatest stability and distributes force between the back and front of the
foot most evenly. High heel transmits more stress to the metatarsals and knee.
a. Only 1st statement is TRUE
b. Only 2nd statement is TRUE
c. Both statements are TRUE
d. Both statements are not TRUE
17. The basic throat styles are blucher and balmoral. Blucher throat style are preferred for use with
most orthoses because they provide greater adjustability for changes in foot volume and do not
produce large opening.
a. Only 1st statement is TRUE
b. Only 2nd statement is TRUE
 c. Both statements are TRUE
d. Both statements are not TRUE
18. Stiffens the quarter and generally terminates at the anterior border of the heel.
a. Quarter
b. Counter
c. Toe box
d. Toe Spring
19. Portion of the shoe over the dorsum of the foot.
a. Reinforcement
b. Upper
c. Heel
d. Sole
20. Is considered as the fulcrum for push-off: Widest part of the sole that corresponds to metatarsal
heads.
a. Sole
b. Ball
c. Shank
d. Filler
21. Part of a shoe that facilitates toe-off:
a. Filler
b. Rocker bar
c. Ball
d. Toe spring
22. Refers to the inclination of the posterior surface of the heel from the vertical:
a. Toe spring
b. Toe box
c. Pitch
d. Counter
23. Oxford heel height is:
a. 1/8 inch
b. 10/8 inch
c. 6/8-8/8 inch
d. 12/8 inch
24. Common throat style for orthopedic shoes:
a. Balmoral
b. Lace-to-toe
c. Blucher
d. None of the above
25. Cuban Heel Height is:
a. 1/8 inch
b. 6/8-8/8 inch
c. 10/8 inch
d. 12/8 inch
26. Spring Heel Height is:
a. 1/8 inch
b. 6/8-8/8 inch
c. 10/8 inch
d. 12/8 inch
27. Your patient presents with felxible foot and this can be avoided by modifying the shoe. During
shgoe modificatiuon you noticed that her shoes has the highest typeof heel and classified it as:
a. Spring
 b. Oxford
c. Military
d. Cuban

Shoe modification
28. Your patient is scheduled for fitting of her shoe with the frequently prescribed external
modification that aims to alter the alignment of the rearfoot. The external shoe
modification that you expect to be done is:
a. Heel wedge
b. Thomas heel
c. Cushion Heel
d. UCBL
29. A patient comes to you with a a modified shoe that transfers stress from the metatarsal heads to
the metatarsal shafts and is effective in reducing plantar pressure. The most likely modification
that you would expect is:
a. Longitudinal Arch
b. Metatarsal pad
c. Metatarsal bar
d. Heel Spur Orthoses
30. Upon inspection a patient’s shoe, you noticed that there is a flat strip of firm material placed
posterior to the metatarsal heads. The attached external shoe modification described is:
a. Longitudinal Arch
b. Metatarsal pad
c. Metatarsal bar
d. Rocker bar
31. An external modification ensures that the patient wears the appropriate shoes and does
not reduce shoe volume. The client is limited to wearing the modified shoe, rather than
being able to choose from a wide selection of shoes.
a. Only 1st statement is TRUE
b. Only 2nd statement is TRUE
c. Both statements are TRUE
d. Both statements are not TRUE
32. A rocker sole is a curved external shoe modification. Rocker soles are also used to reduce
pressure on the metatarsal heads.
a. Only 1st statement is TRUE
b. Only 2nd statement is TRUE
c. Both statements are TRUE
d. Both statements are not TRUE
33. Internal modifications are added to the outsole by a pedorthist or a shoe repair person. External
modifications are made by adding materials directly to the insole board of a shoe.
a. Only 1st statement is TRUE
b. Only 2nd statement is TRUE
c. Both statements are TRUE
d. Both statements are not TRUE
34. A patient was evaluated and revealed that he has leg length discrepancy of greater than 1
inch. The most appropriate shoe modification for this patient is:
a. Shoe elevation
 b. Medial Heel wedge
c. Heel elevation
d. Lateral Heel wedge
35. An external shoe modification that would be appropriate for a patient exhibiting flexible subtalar
varus deformity is:
a. Cushion Heel
b. Lateral Heel Wedge
c. Medial Heel Wedge
d. Medial Sole Wedge
36. A PT makes a footwear recommendations to a patient that includes wearing shoes that are wider
with a large toe box and a flat heel. This type of recommendation would be MOST beneficial for
a patient diagnosed with:
a. Morton’s neuroma
b. Plantar fasciitis
c. Peroneal tenosynovitis
d. Tarsal tunnel syndrome
e. All of the above
37. A patient comes to you for correction of ankle valgus deformity. The most appropriate
recommendation for this patient is:
a. Medial wedge
b. Lateral wedge
c. Lateral T-strap
d. Thomas heel
38. External Modification used for patients with metatarsalgia EXCEPT:
a. Metatarsal Pad
b. Metatarsal Bar
c. Rocker Bar
d. None of the above
39. Internal Modification for Metatarsalgia applied distal to 1 st Metatarsal Head
a. Metatarsal Pad
b. U-shaped pad
c. Sesamoid Pad
d. Morton’s Extension
40. An internal modification ensures that the patient wears the appropriate shoes and does not reduce
shoe volume. The client is limited to wearing the modified shoe, rather than being able to choose
from a wide selection of shoes.
a. Only First statement is True
b. Only Second statement is True
c. Both statements are True
d. Both statements are False
41. Transfers stress from the metatarsal heads to the metatarsal shafts and is effective in reducing
plantar pressure.
a. Longitudinal Arch
b. Metatarsal pad
c. Metatarsal bar
d. Heel Spur Orthoses
42. Prescribed for patient with leg length discrepancy of less than 1 inch:
a. Shoe elevation
b. Medial Heel wedge
c. Heel elevation
 d. Lateral Heel wedge
43. The PT in an outpatient PT clinic receives an order to obtain a shoe orthotic for a patient. After
examining the px, the PT finds a stage I pressure ulcer on the first metatarsal head. Weight
bearing surfaces need to be transferred posteriorly. Which orthosis is the most appropriate for this
patient?
a. Scaphoid pad
b. Thomas heel
c. Metatarsal pad
d. cushion heel
44. Which of the following is the most appropriate orthotis for a patient with excessive foot pronation
during static standing?
a. Scaphoid pad
b. Metatarsal pad
c. Metatarsal bar
d. Rocker bar

AFO
45. Terminologies: encompass the shoe and terminate below the knee.
a. Foot Orthoses (FO)
b. Ankle- Foot Orthoses (AFO)
c. Knee-Ankle-Foot Orthoses (KAFO)
d. Hip-Knee-Ankle-Foot Orthoses (HKAFO)
46. Is a one-piece attachment that provides maximum stability of the orthosis on the shoe.
a. Solid Stirrup
b. Split Stirrup
c. Superstructure
d. Insert
47. Foot Orthoses is an appliance that apply forces to the foot. It enhances function by
relieving pain.
a. Only 1st statement is TRUE
b. Only 2nd statement is TRUE
c. Both statements are TRUE
d. Both statements are not TRUE
48. Medial–lateral motion can be controlled with a solid ankle AFO. Solid ankle AFO or a hinged
solid ankle AFO also controls frontal and transverse plane foot motion of children with cerebral
palsy to a limited extent.
a. Only 1st statement is TRUE
b. Only 2nd statement is TRUE
c. Both statements are TRUE
d. Both statements are not TRUE
49. Flexible flat foot can be realigned with a semirigid plastic insert. It also controls hindfoot valgus
and limits subtalar motion.
a. Scaphoid Pad
b. UCBL
c. Longitudinal Arch
d. Metatarsal Pad
50. Both inserts and internal modifications reduce shoe volume. Insert orthoses are also used to
relieve pain and activity limitation associated with pes cavus.
a. Only 1st statement is TRUE
b. Only 2nd statement is TRUE
c. Both statements are TRUE
d. Both statements are not TRUE
51. A plastic or metal insert or foot plate foundation has several advantages. Internal modifications
can be incorporated in it, the insert provides good control of the foot.
a. Only 1st statement is TRUE
b. Only 2nd statement is TRUE
c. Both statements are TRUE
d. Both statements are not TRUE
52. This AFO is design in which a single upright spirals from the footplate around the leg,
terminating in a proximal band.
a. Spiral AFO
b. Posterior Leaf Spring AFO
c. Plastic hinged AFO
d. Floor Reaction AFO
53. Appliances applied to the foot and placed inside or outside the shoe.
a. Foot Orthoses
b. Ankle-foot Orthoses
c. Knee-Ankle-foot Orthoses
d. Trunk-Hip-Knee-Ankle-Foot Orthoses
54. This orthosis slopes anteriorly to reduce load on the painful heel. It has a concave relief to
minimize pressure on the tender area.
a. Heel-Spur Insert
b. Metatarsal Pad
c. Longitudinal arch
d. Scaphoid Pad
55. Modification: positioned at the medial border of the insole with the apex between the
sustentaculum tali and the navicular tuberosity.
a. Scaphoid Pad
b. UCBL
c. Longitudinal Arch
d. Metatarsal Pad
56. Internal Modification used for metatarsalgia placed at the 3 rd Metatarsal:
a. Sesamoid pad
b. U-shaped pad
c. Cookie
d. Metatarsal bar
57. Your patient is experiencing drop foot secondary to a CVA. Ankle joints assists are used in
orthotics by utilizing springs to aid patient movement. What type of assist listed below would be
utilized in a stroke patient with drop foot?
a. DF assists
b. PF assists
c. Springwire PF assists
d. B and C
58. It is used for 1st-5th metatarsal head pain?
a. Sesamoid pad
b. Navicular pad
c. Metatarsal pad
 d. Scaphoid pad
59. Stabilizes and reduces excessive pressure on 1 st Metatarsal head:
a. UCBL insert
b. Heel cup
c. Sesamoid pad
d. Heel Seat
60. Component of an AFO EXCEPT:
a. Calf Band
b. T-strap
c. Shoe
d. Ankle Jt.
61. The lateral T-strap controls the:
a. Ankle varus deformity
b. Ankle valgus deformity
c. Knee varus deformity
d. Knee valgus deformity
62. Most common type of a shoe/foot attachment used for AFO:
a. Stirrup
b. Caliper
c. Shoe Insert
d. None of the above
63. Orthotic prescription for pes plano valgus, EXCEPT:
a. MLA support
b. UCBL insert
c. Medial Heel wedge
d. Reverse Thomas Heel
64. The therapist in an outpatient PT clinic receives an order to obtain a shoe orthotic for a patient.
After evaluating the patient, the therapist finds a stage I pressure ulcer on the first MT head.
Weight bearing surfaces need to be transferred posteriorly. Which orthotic is the most appropriate
for this patient?
a. Scaphoid pad
b. Thomas Heel
c. Metatarsal pad
d. Cushion Heel
65. A patient presents with dysfunction of the medial longitudinal arch due to depression of the
subtalar joint. The appropriate shoe insert for this patient is:
a. Scaphoid Pad
b. Heel Lift
c. Pad over transverse arch
d. Thomas Heel
66. Internal modification used for management of metatarsalgia EXCEPT:
a. Morton’s extension
b. U-shaped pad
c. Metatarsal Pad
d. Metatarsal Bar
67. Type of AFO Plastic Design that restricts all motion.
a. Solid ankle orthosis
b. Hemispiral Orthosis
c. PLS orthosis
d. Modified Orthosis
68. AFO Plastic Design that prevents both Plantarflexion and Dorsiflexion.
 a. Posterior Leaf Spring
b. Modified PLS
c. Spiral
d. Solid-ankle orthosis
69. Type of AFO Plastic Design that control equinovarus deformity.
a. PLS orthosis
b. Modified PLS
c. Spiral orthosis
d. Hemispiral orthosis
70. AFO Plastic Design used for maximum varus-valgus control.
a. Solid-Ankle Orthosis
b. Ankle c Flange Orthosis
c. Hemi-spiral
d. Spiral
71. The medial T-strap controls the:
a. Ankle varus deformity
b. Ankle valgus deformity
c. Knee varus deformity
d. Knee valgus deformity
72. The PT is treating a px who has suffered a recent stroke. There is a significant lack of
dorsiflexion in the involved LE and a significant amount of medial/lateral ankle instability. The
PT believes that an ankle foot orthosis (AFO) would be beneficial. Which of the following is an
appropriate AFO?
a. Solid AFO
b. Posterior leaf spring AFO
c. Hinged solid AFO65
d. Electrical stimulation aided AFO
73. An elderly patient has a diabetic neuropathy. Upon examination, the patient shows marked
mediolateral instability of the left ankle while walking. The patient has also fluctuating edema
and glove-and-stocking sensory loss in both of the lower extremities. The MOST approriate
orthotic aid is:
a. A double upright metal ankle foot orthosis
b. High-top shoes
c. A prefabricated plastic solid ankle foot orthosis
d. A spiral ankle-foot orthosis
74. A PT was to prescribe an orthotic device for a patient with equinovarus deformity. The type of
AFO Plastic Design that control controls such deformity is:
a. PLS orthosis
b. Modified PLS
c. Spiral orthosis
d. Hemispiral orthosis
75. A physical therapist evaluates a patient who has back pain and determines that the patient’s pes
planus is contributing to this pain. Which of the following orthotic interventions is MOST
appropriate for this patient?
a. Metatarsal pad
b. Solid-ankle-foot orthosis
c. Hinged ankle-foot orthosis
d. Longitudinal arch support
76. A PT examines a patient who complains of foot pain while jogging. The examination shows that
the patient has excessive foot pronation and forefoot varus. The therapist decides to try a
 temporary orthotic insert in the patient’s running shoes. Which of the following would be the
MOST appropriate orthotic insert?
a. A lateral forefoot post under the fifth metatarsal head
b. A lateral forefoot post under the calcaneus placing it in inverted position
c. A wedge placed under the instep of the medial foot just beneath the head of the talus
d. A medial post just proximal to the first metatarsal head
77. A patient has had left Achilles’ tendinitis for 6 weeks. No structural abnormalities are evident
upon examination of the patient. Which of the following supportive shoe insertsis MOST
appropriate for this patient?
a. Full-contact custom orthosis, left only
b. Off-the-shelf heel lift, left only
c. Off-the shelf heel lifts, bilaterally
d. full-contact custom orthoses, bilaterally
78. A physical therapist attempts to reduce a patient’s genu recurvatum using AFO. Which ankle
setting would be the most effective to achieve the therapist’s objective?
a. 5-10 degrees of dorsiflexion
b. Neutral
c. 5-10 degrees plantarflexion
d. 15-20 degrees planntar flexion
79. A 58 y/o female diagnosed with peripheral neuropathy returns from an appointment with an
orthotist and now wears a posterior leaf spring AFO. Which of the following clinical descriptions
would most warrant the use of this particular type of orthosis?
a. Weak plantar flexion during swing phase
b. Dimnished knee stability
c. Foot drop with multiplane instability
d. Foordrop without medial or lateral instability
80. A 46 y/o patient presents with a flat foot deformity with abductionof the forefoot in relation to the
weight bearing line. The forefoot is inverted to the varus position when inspected from the frontal
plane. Corrections for this deformity will not include:
a. Metatarsal bar
b. UCBL insert
c. Scaphoid pad
d. Thomas heel
81. A patient wearing AFO set in slight DF. If the orthosis was set in excessive DF, which of the
following would you expect to observe during the stance phase of gait?
a. Increased knee stability
b. Decreased knee stability
c. No effect on knee stability
d. Genu recurvatum
82. A 50 y/o male rehabilitating from a recent stroke has good strenght in the affected LE with the
exception of trace to poor strenght in the right ankle joint. The patient’s sensation is severely
impaired for deep pressure light touch, and sharp stimuli. The patient has also severe fluctuating
edema at the ankle. The most appropriate orthosis for the patient is:
a. Metal upright AFO
b. Polypropylene solid AFO
c. Prefabricated Posterior leaf spring
d. Metal upright KAFO
83. A patient with AFO demonstrates genu recurvatum during the stance phase of gait. Which action
would be the most appropriate to decrease the recurvatum?
a. Increase the PF stop
b. Increase the DF stop
 c. Allow full ROM on the ankle
d. Ankle joint position does not affect the recurvatum
84. A patient presents with an ankle heel pain and plantar pain with 10 degrees pes planus (rear foot)
must be prescribed with a:
a. Medial posting
b. Heel cup
c. Metatarsal pad
d. UCBL insert
85. During gait, a patient with hemiparesis drags his toes during swing. Upon further examination, he
has weak dorsiflexors ( able to lift the foot against gravity though. ½ range) and a grade 2 upon
examining tone in his plantar flexors using the Modifiead Ashworth Scale. An appropriate
orthotic modification to correct this problem is:
a. A dorsiflexion assist
b. Spiral AFO
c. A solid ankle foot orthosis
d. A dorsiflexion stop
86. A physical therapist consults an orthosist regarding the need for an ankle-foot-orthosis for a
patient. The patient has difficulty moving from sitting to standing when wearing a prefabricated
AFO. The therapist indicates the patient has poor strenght of the ankle, intact sensation and does
not have any edema or tonal influence. The most appropriate type of AFO for the client
incorporate
a. An articulation at the ankle joint
b. Tone reducing features
c. Metal uprights
d. Dorsiflexion assist spring
87. A patient is wearing a metal upright AFO. Upon evaluation, the patient has left knee instability
on left stance. The most possible reason for the deviation is that the AFO has:
a. Inadequate dorsiflexion stop
b. Inadequate plantar flexion
c. Inadequate knee lock
d. A long foot plate
88. A 38 year old patient presents with pain on the right Achilles tendon as well as on the plantar
aspect of the right heel. Pain developed insiduously and has now lasted several months. On gait
analysis, you observe abnormal supination through the stance phase of gait. Your best choice for
treatment is a:
a. UCBL insert
b. Cushion heel with a rearfoot valgus post
c. Flexible shoe insert with forefoor varus post
d. Metatarsal pad
89. A patient with multiple sclerosis has strong extensor spasticity and excessive plantar flexion. The
orthotic modification that would best control these problem is a:
a. Dorsiflesxion stop
b. Plantar flexion stop
c. Klenzak housing
d. Solid ankle foot orthosis
90. Your patient is experiencing drop foot secondary to a CVA. Ankle joints assists are used in
orthotics by utilizing springs to aid patient movement. What type of assist listed below would be
utilized in a stroke patient with drop foot?
a. DF assists
b. PF assists
c. Springwire PF assists
 d. B and C
91. A patient presents with dysfunction of the medial longitudinal arch due to depression of the
subtalar joint. The appropriate shoe insert for this patient except:
a. Scaphoid Pad
b. Heel Lift
c. Pad over transverse arch
d. Thomas Heel

KAFO
92. Most commonly used knee lock for KAFO, designed to control flexion:
a. Offset knee joint
b. Drop-ring lock
c. Pawl lock
d. Free motion

93. Individuals with more extensive paralysis or limb deformity may benefit from KAFOs. KAFO
consist of a shoe, foundation, ankle control, knee control, and superstructure.
a. Only 1st statement is TRUE
b. Only 2nd statement is TRUE
c. Both statements are TRUE
d. Both statements are not TRUE
94. Control knee in Frontal & Sagittal Plane EXCEPT:
a. Miami orthosis
b. Swedish Knee Cage orthosis
c. Three-way knee orthosis
d. Palumbo orthosis
95. Control knee in Frontal & Sagittal Plane EXCEPT:
a. Miami orthosis
b. Swedish Knee Cage orthosis
c. Three-way knee orthosis
d. Palumbo orthosis
96. Special orthosis used to control knee axial rotation.
a. CARS-UBC
b. Posterior leaf spring
c. Spiral Orthosis
d. Lenox-Hill orthosis
97. The idea of this orthosis is to stabilize the fracture site while allowing motion in the adjacent
joints & ambulation possible?
a. Standing frame orthosis
b. Fracture orthosis
c. Patellar tendon-bearing orthosis
d. Parapodium
98. palumboType of AFO that prevents Plantar flexion ONLY.
a. Posterior leaf spring
b. Modified PLS
c. Spiral orthosis
d. Hemispiral orthosis
99. Patient is a 24-yr. old male, status post ACL knee reconstruction. He will be returning to the ski
team next spring and will require bracing of the knee. Which of the braces listed is made from a
cast impression of the leg that provides rotational and medio-lateral stability to the knee joint?
a. Three-way stabilizer
b. Typical Knee orthosis
c. Swedish knee cage
d. Lenox-Hill brace
100. A brace prescribed for an abnormally tracking patella would be which of the following?
a. Lerman multi-ligamentous knee orthosis
b. Palumbo
c. Lenox Hill
d. Typical knee orthosis
101. The most common type of plastic designs used for weak dorsiflexors:
a. Posterior leaf spring
b. Hemispiral
c. Modified posterior lead spring
d. AFO c flange
102. Orthosis that controls Genurecurvatum:
a. Swedish Knee Cage
b. Three-Way orthosis
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
103. Type of Knee Jt. prescribed to patient’s with knee flexion contracture.
a. Drop-ring lock
b. Fan Lock / Multi angle lock
c. Serrated Lock
d. Pawl Lock
104. A patient with post-polio syndrome presents in your clinic with symptoms of myalgia and
increasing fatigue. He is wearing KAFO which he had for 10 years. When walking, you observe
that he rises up over the sound limb to advance the orthotic limb forward. Your BEST
intervention is to provide
a. A shoe lift on the orthotic side
b. An electric wheelchair with joystick
c. A shoes lift onthe sound side
d. A manual wheelchair with reclining back and elevating leg rests
105. While teaching apatient with knee ankle foot orthosis to climb the stairs, you observed
knee instability. Which of the following is not a possible cause of this gait deviation?
a. Inadequate knee lock
b. Knee flexion contracture
c. Weak hip abductors
d. Weak quadriceps
106. A patient is using a right KAFO. During orthotic checkout, you discover the height of the
medial upright is excessive. As she transfers weight to the orthotic leg during gait, you expect
that this patient will demonstrate:
a. Posterior trunk bending
b. Lateral bend towards the left
c. Lateral bend towards the right
d. Anterior trunk bending
107. A 47 years old patient with left hemiplegia is referred for orthotic examination.
Significant results of manual muscle testing include: hip flexion 3+/5, hip extension 3/5, knee
 flexion 3+/5, ankle dorsiflexion 2/5, and ankle inversion and eversion 1/5. Sensation is intactand
no abnormal tone is noted. The most appropriate orthosis for this patient is a:
a. KAFO with locked knee
b. Plastic articulating AFO
c. metal upright AFO lock in neutral
d. prefabricated posterior leaf orthosis
108. A patient is required for orthotic fitting with problem exhibited on the knee component.
The most commonly used knee lock for KAFO, designed to control flexion that can be utilized by
the patient is:
a. Offset knee joint
b. Drop-ring lock
c. Pawl lock
d. Free motion
109. Patient is a 24-yr. old male, status post ACL knee reconstruction. He will be
returning to the ski team next spring and will require bracing of the knee. Which of the
braces listed is made from a cast impression of the leg that provides rotational and medio-
lateral stability to the knee joint?
a. Three-way stabilizer
b. Typical Knee orthosis
c. Swedish knee cage
d. Lerman Orthosis

HKAFO
110. Constructed as belts that are worn around the pelvis between the iliac crests and
the greater trochanters.
a. Sacroiliac orthoses
b. Lumbosacral Corset
c. Soft Thoracic Corset
d. NOTA
111. This Orthosis is designed to help SCI patients stand and walk without additional
help.
a. Scott-Craig Orthosis
b. Parapodium
c. Swivel Walker
d. Standing frame
112. Component of HKAFO that controls rotation, abduction and adduction.
a. Pelvic Band
b. Silesian Belt
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
113. Special Orthosis that eliminates weight bearing on Femur and Knee:
a. Patellar-Tendon Bearing Orthosis
b. Ischial Weight Beraing Orthosis
c. Patten-Bottom Orthosis
d. None of the above
114. Special Orthosis that eliminates weight bearing on whole lower limb:
a. Patellar-Tendon Bearing Orthosis
b. Ischial Weight Beraing Orthosis
c. Patten-Bottom Orthosis
 d. None of the above
115. The traditional orthopedic sling, places the glenohumeral joint in a position of abduction
and internal rotation.It is also used for general posttraumatic or postsurgical immobilization.
a. Only First statement is True
b. Only Second statement is True
c. Both statements are True
d. Both statements are False

116. Special Orthosis that bears weight on Patellar Tendon and Ischial Tuberosity.
a. Patellar-Tendon Bearing Orthosis
b. Ischial Weight Beraing Orthosis
c. Patten-Bottom Orthosis
d. None of the above
117. The traditional orthopedic sling, places the glenohumeral joint in a position of adduction
and internal rotation.It is also used for general posttraumatic or postsurgical immobilization.
a. Only First statement is True
b. Only Second statement is True
c. Both statements are True
d. Both statements are False
118. You are designing an orthosis for a patient exhibiting with circumduction gait. Which
component of HKAFO should you consider to reinforce control of rotation, abduction and
adduction?
a. Pelvic Band
b. Silesian Belt
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
119. You are tasked to precribed a Special Orthosis that eliminates weight bearing on Femur
and Knee for a patient with osteoarthritis. Your best choice should be:
a. Patellar-Tendon Bearing Orthosis
b. Ischial Weight Beraing Orthosis
c. Patten-Bottom Orthosis
d. None of the above

UE

120. Orthotic device used for patients with Trigger Finger:

a. Silver Ring splint
b. PIP sleeves
c. Mallet sipover splint
d. Cock-up splint
121. A PT elects to utilize a wrist splint for a patient with a repetitive use disorder. The patient
is employed as a transcriptionist and spends up to 8 hrs. a day on a computer. The therapist
determines the patient’s wrist and hand are acutely inflammed and the patient classifies her
present pain as an 8 out of 10 on a visual analogue scale. The MOST appropriate type of splint
would be a:
a. Serial Splint
b. Dynamic Splint
c. Functional Splint
d. Resting Splint
122. Shoulder orthosis that place the shoulder in maximum abduction is called:
a. Gunslinger orthosis
b. Airplane splint
c. Holster orthosis
d. Balanced forearm orthosis
123. Orthotic device for boutonnière deformity:
a. Silver ring splint
b. PIP sleeve
c. Mallet slipover splint
d. Cock-up splint
124. The Functional Position of the Hand EXCEPT:
a. 20-30deg. Wrist extension
b. 40-45 deg. Metatarsophalangeal flexion
c. 45 deg. PIP flexion
d. Thumb abducted
e. None of the above
125. Humeral Cuff Sling prevents humeral internal and external rotation. It is used to reduce
shoulder subluxation or pain in individuals with significant upper limb weakness.
a. Only First statement is False
b. Only Second statement is False
c. Both statements are True
d. Both statements are False
126. Shoulder orthosis that place the shoulder in less than full abduction.
a. Airplane splint
b. Gunslinger orthoses
c. Holster orthoses
d. Both B and C
e. Both A and C
127. Orthotic device for CTS.
a. Silver ring splint
b. PIP sleeve
c. Mallet sipover splint
d. Cock-up splint

128. Humeral Cuff Sling does not prevent humeral internal and external rotation. It is used to
reduce shoulder subluxation or pain in individuals with significant upper limb weakness.
a. Only First statement is False
b. Only Second statement is False
c. Both statements are True
d. Both statements are False
129. The traditional orthopedic sling, places the glenohumeral joint in a position of
adduction and internal rotation.It is also used for general posttraumatic or postsurgical
immobilization.
a. Only First statement is True
b. Only Second statement is True
c. Both statements are True
d. Both statements are False
130. A therapist is instructing a patient in the use of a wrist-driven prehension orthotic. What
must be done to achieve opening of the involved hand?
a. Actively extend the wrist
 b. Passively extend the wrist
c. Actively flex the wrist
d. None of the above
131. A patient is referred to your clinic for orthotic measuremt to positin the hand in a neutral
position. With this, you have to measure then hand in the functional Position which includes the
following except:
a. 20-30deg. Wrist extension
b. 40-45 deg. Metatarsophalangeal flexion
c. 45 deg. PIP flexion
d. Thumb abducted
132. A PT elects to utilize a wrist splint for a patient with a repetitive use disorder. The
patient is employed as a transcriptionist and spends up to 8 hrs. a day on a computer. The
therapist determines the patient’s wrist and hand are acutely inflamed and the patient
classifies her present pain as an 8 out of 10 on a visual analogue scale. The MOST
appropriate type of splint would be a:
a. Serial Splint
b. Dynamic Splint
c. Functional Splint
d. Resting/ static Splint
133. A patient is needed to be positioned wherein the shoulder should be placed in maximum
abduction. The best orthotic device to use is:
a. Gunslinger orthosis
b. Airplane splint
c. Holster orthosis
d. Balanced forearm orthosis
134. The traditional orthopedic sling, places the glenohumeral joint in a position of abduction
and internal rotation. It is also used for general posttraumatic or postsurgical immobilization.
a. Only First statement is True
b. Only Second statement is True
c. Both statements are True
d. Both statements are False
135. Humeral Cuff Sling prevents humeral internal and external rotation. It is used to reduce
shoulder subluxation or pain in individuals with significant upper limb weakness.
a. Only First statement is False
b. Only Second statement is False
c. Both statements are True
d. Both statements are False
136. In choosing an orthosis for a patient that requires the glenohumeral joint to be placed in
less than full abduction, a physical therapist may choose to achieve this goal.
a. Airplane splint
b. Holster orthoses
c. Both A and C
d. Neither A nor B
137. A patient present with pain on wrist and tingling sensation on the first 3 digits of the
hand. The patient has been tested positive on Phalen’s test. The orthotic device that can be
prescribed to this patient in order to relieve the symptoms is:
a. Silver ring splint
b. PIP sleeve
c. Mallet sipover splint
d. Cock-up splint