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Chapter 1

Introduction
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Chapter 1

Introduction

Psychological Test

Psychological tests are written, visual, or verbal evaluations administered to assess the

cognitive and emotional functioning of children and adults. Psychological testing is the

administration of psychological tests. Psychological tests are administered by trained

evaluators. A person's responses are evaluated according to carefully prescribed guidelines.

Scores are thought to reflect individual differences in the construct the test purports to measure.

The science behind psychological testing is psychometrics.

According to Anastasi and Urbina, psychological tests involve observations made on a

"carefully chosen sample of an individual's behaviour." A psychological test is often designed to

measure unobserved constructs, also known as latent variables. Psychological tests can include a

series of tasks or problems that the respondent has to solve. Psychological tests can

include questionnaires and interviews, which are also designed to measure unobserved

constructs. Questionnaire- and interview-based scales typically differ from psychoeducational

tests, which ask for a respondent's maximum performance. Questionnaire- and interview-based

scales, by contrast, ask for the respondent's typical behaviour. Symptom and attitude tests are

more often called scales. A useful psychological test/scale must be both valid (i.e., there is

evidence to support the idea that the test or scale measures what it is purported to measure and

"how well it does so") and reliable (i.e., internally consistent or give consistent results over time,

across raters, etc.).


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Purpose

Psychological tests are used to assess a variety of mental abilities and attributes,

including achievement and ability, personality, and neurological functioning. For children,

academic achievement, ability, and intelligence tests may be used as tools in school placement,

in determining the presence of a learning disability or a developmental delay , in identifying

giftedness, or in tracking intellectual development. Intelligence testing may also be used with

teens and young adults to determine vocational ability (e.g., in career counselling).

Personality tests are administered for a wide variety of reasons, from diagnosing

psychopathology (e.g., personality disorder, depressive disorder) to screening job candidates.

They may be used in an educational setting to determine personality strengths and weaknesses.

Instruction for Psychological Tests

Psychological testing requires a clinically trained examiner. All psychological tests

should be administered, scored, and interpreted by a trained professional, preferably a

psychologist or psychiatrist with expertise in the appropriate area. Psychological tests are only

one element of a psychological assessment. They should never be used as the sole basis for a

diagnosis. A detailed clinical and personal history of the child and a review of psychological,

medical, educational, or other relevant records are required to lay the groundwork for

interpreting the results of any psychological measurement.

Cultural and language differences among children may affect test performance and may result in

inaccurate test results. The test administrator should be informed before psychological testing

begins if the test taker is not fluent in English and/or belongs to a minority culture. In addition,

the child's level of motivation may also affect test results.


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Types of psychological test

There are several broad categories of psychological tests:

Achievement Test. Achievement tests are tests that assess an individual's knowledge in a

subject domain. Academic achievement tests are designed to be administered by a trained

evaluator to an individual or a group of people. During achievement tests, a series of test items is

presented to the person being evaluated. A score on a test is believed to reflect achievement in a

school subject. Many achievement tests are norm-referenced. The person's responses are scored

according to standardized protocols and the results can be compared to the responses of a

norming group after the test is completed.

Some achievement tests are criterion referenced, the purpose of which is find out if the

test-taker mastered a predetermined body of knowledge rather than to compare the test-taker to

everyone else who is taking the test. The Kaufman Test of Educational Achievement is an

example of an individually administered achievement test for students.

Intelligence Test. The intelligence test is a group of different questions, whose purpose

is to determine the level of intelligence of the tested person. The average IQ is 100.

A questionnaire or series of exercises designed to measure intelligence. There are many

types of intelligence tests, and they may measure learning and/or ability in a wide variety of

areas and skills. Scores may be presented as an IQ (intelligence quotient), as a mental age, or on

a scale.

Aptitude Test. Psychological tests have been designed to measure specific abilities, such

as clerical, perceptual, numerical, or spatial aptitude. Sometimes these tests must be specially

designed for a particular job, but there are also tests available that measure general clerical and
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mechanical aptitudes, or even general learning ability. An example of an occupational aptitude

test is the Minnesota Clerical Test, which measures the perceptual speed and accuracy required

to perform various clerical duties. A widely used aptitude test in business is Wonderlic Test.

There are aptitudes that are believed to be related to specific occupations and are used for career

guidance as well as selection and recruitment.

Personality Test. Personality tests and inventories evaluate the thoughts, emotions,

attitudes, and behavioural traits that comprise personality. The results of these tests can help

determine a child's personality strengths and weaknesses, and may identify certain disturbances

in personality, or psychopathology. Tests such as the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality

Inventory for Adolescents (MMPI-A) and the Millon Pre-Adolescent Clinical Inventory III (M-

PACI), are used to screen children for specific psychopathologies or emotional problems.

Another type of personality test is the projective personality assessment . A projective test asks a

child to interpret some ambiguous stimuli, such as a series of inkblots. The child's responses

provide insight into his or her thought processes and personality traits. For example, the

Holtzman Ink blot Test (HIT) uses a series of inkblots that the test subject is asked to identify.

Another projective assessment, the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), asks the child to tell a

story about a series of pictures. Some consider projective tests to be less reliable than objective

personality tests. If the examiner is not well-trained in psychometric evaluation, subjective

interpretations may affect the evaluation of these tests.

Characteristics of Psychological Test

Five main characteristics of a good psychological test are as follows:


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Reliability. Reliability refers to the degree to which a test is consistent and stable. In

other words, reliability is the extent to which a test is effectively measuring what is intended to

measure. A test is said to be reliable if it is consistent within itself and across time.

As used in psychometric, the term “reliability” basically means consistency. Test

reliability is the consistency of scores obtained by the same persons when retested with the

identical test or with an equivalent form of the test. Reliability may be checked by comparing the

scores obtained by the same test takers at different times, with different sets of items, with

differed examiners or scores, or under any other relevant testing condition. It is essential to

specify the type of reliability and the method employed to determine it, because the same test

may vary in these different aspects. The number and nature of persons on whom reliability was

checked should likewise be reported. With such information, test users can predict whether the

test will be about equally reliable for the group with which they expect to use it, or whether it is

likely to be more reliable or less reliable.

Validity. It refers to extent to which the test measures what it intends to measure. For

example, when an intelligent test is developed to assess the level of intelligence, it should assess

the intelligence of the person, not other factors. Validity explains us whether the test fulfils the

objective of its development. There are many methods to assess validity of a test.

Undoubtedly the most important question to be asked about any psychological test

concerns its validity that is, the degree to which the test actually measures what it purports to

measure. Validity provides a direct check on how well the test fulfils its function. The

determination of validity usually requires independent, external criteria of whatever the test is

designed to measure.
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Norms. Norms refer to the average performance of a representative sample on a given

test. It gives a picture of average standard of a particular sample in a particular aspect. Norms are

the standard scores, developed by the person who develops test. The future users of the test can

compare their scores with norms to know the level of their sample. There are four types of

norms:

 Age norms

 Grades norms

 Percentile norms

 Standard scores norms

Norms help in interpretation of scores. In the absence of norms, no meaning can be added to the

scores obtained on the test.

Standardization. It refers to the consistency or uniformity of the conditions and

procedure for administering a test. To achieve standardization, people must be tested under

uniform conditions. Standardization implies uniformity of procedure in administering and

scoring the test. If the scores obtained by different persons are to be comparable, testing

conditions must obviously be the same for all.

The formulation of directions is a major part of the standardization of a new test. Such

standardization extends to the exact material employed, time limits, oral instructions, preliminary

demonstrations, way of handling queries from test takers and every other details of the testing

situation.

Another important step in the standardization of a test is the establishment of norms. As

its name implies, a norm is a normal or average performance. In the process of standardization, a
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test, it is administrated to a large, representative sample of the type of persons for whom it is

designed. This group known as the standardization sample serves to establish the norms.

Practicability. A test must be practicable from the point of view of the time taken in its

completion, length, scoring etc. in other words the test should not be lengthy and the scoring

method must not be difficult or nor one which can be done by highly specialized persons.

Introduction of Achievement Test

An achievement test is a test of developed skill or knowledge. The most common type of

achievement test is a standardized test developed to measure skills and knowledge learned in a

given grade level, usually through planned instruction, such as training or classroom

instruction. Achievement tests are often contrasted with tests that measure aptitude, a more

general and stable cognitive trait. Achievement test scores are often used in an educational

system to determine the level of instruction for which a student is prepared. High achievement

scores usually indicate a mastery of grade-level material, and the readiness for advanced

instruction. Low achievement scores can indicate the need for remediation or repeating a course

grade.

One of the most well-known achievement tests is the SAT, which is often used by

college admission boards to determine who gets accepted to college. Unfortunately, schools

often use the SAT to predict how well students will learn (or perform) in college, which means

they are using an achievement test as though it was an aptitude test. (Anastasi, 1978)

The purpose of an achievement testing is to measure some aspect of the intellectual

competence of human beings: what a person has learned to know or to do. Teachers use

achievement tests to measure the attainments of their students. Employers use achievement tests
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to measure the competence of prospective employees. Professional associations use achievement

tests to exclude unqualified applicants from the practice of the profession. In any circumstances

where it is necessary or useful to distinguish persons of higher from those of lower competence

or attainments, achievement testing is likely to occur (Robert L. Ebel, 1986).

Historical Background

The standardized achievement test based on a normative sample was first developed by Rice in

1895. His spelling test of 50 words (with alternative form) was administered to 16000 students in

grade 4 through 8 across the country. Numerous other single subject matter test was made in the

first decade of 20th century, but it was not until the early 1920‟s that publication of test batteries

emerged in 1923, the Stanford achievement test at elementary level in 1925 the Ionic High

School Test. Since in 1940‟s there has been a movement toward testing in broader areas as well

as humanistic and natural sciences rather than in specialized single subject matter test. Now the

attention was directed towards study of skills, comprehension and understanding rather than

factual recall.

The uses of standardized tests started in 1970‟s “usually created by commercial test

publishers, standardized tests are designed to give a common measure of student‟s performance”.

Some popular standardized tests are California Achievement Test (CAT). Another type

of test also emerged in this era by the name, “Criterion Referenced Test”. A criterion referenced

test is one in which a student is checked that whether he or she has mastered the body of

knowledge.

In 1990‟s the direction changed, now the achievement testing became concerned with the

latent trait theory, item responses curve, and an assessment of learning achievement that is brief
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into the instructional process. Now the computer-based testing also started many of the test were

able to be administered on the computers and the scoring of the items was also done on the

computers-based tests.

Uses of Achievement Test

Achievement test serve numerous functions that are described in the following:

1. To determining how much an individual knows about a particular topic or how well he

can perform a particular skill.

2. The results of an achievement test inform the pupil and his parents about his academic

accomplishments.

3. Achievement test motivate students to learn.

4. Achievement tests result provides teachers and school administrators with information to

plan or modify the curriculum for a pupil or group of pupils.

5. Achievement test serves as a means of evaluating the instructional program and staff and

thus contributes to its improvement.

6. Achievement test are designed to identify the students of different categories such as

slow learners, gifted and average students etc. as result of which the teachers or guidance

workers would be able to provide remedial instruction and enrichment programme for the

students.

7. Achievement tests are intended to give promotion to the students to the next higher

classes or new courses considering the obtained result as a yard stick for promotion of the

structures.

8. Achievement tests are used to provide scholarships, awards or special award of merit to

the students those who perform better in the achievement tests.


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Limitations

Achievement tests have the following limitations:

1. In most of cases it is found that the subject masters are not good achievement test

constructors as they do not possess required knowledge about rules and regulations of

test construction as a result of which the prepared tests do not serve purposes.

2. Achievement tests like teacher made tests do lack validity and reliability which do not

serve expected purposes of test.

3. Achievement tests like short periodical tests sometimes discourage the students and

create disappointment among students.

4. Sometimes achievement tests do not give accurate result as they are affected by several

factors like health condition of students, outside disturbances at the time of examination

and mental condition of the students etc.

5. Achievement tests like essay tests do lack uniformity of scoring as they are subjective in

nature.

6. Achievement tests like standardized tests are time consuming as well as costly affair.

Types of Achievement Test

Achievement test can be classified into two types.

1. The standardized achievement test.

2. The teacher made class test.

The Standardized Achievement Tests. Standardized tests are carefully constructed tests

which have uniformity of procedure in scoring, administering and interpreting the test results.

Generally, these tests are “norm-referenced tests that measure the pupils‟ level of achievement in

various content.
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Special achievement test meant for measuring the achievement of pupils in some selected

areas may conveniently be grouped into two distinct groups.

 The diagnostic test

 The standardized end of course examination

The Diagnostic Test. The diagnostic tests are the tests whose primary purpose is to identify

the educationally retarded pupils and to suggest remedial programs for them. Such tests are

available in special areas like in the reading skills and mathematical skills.

The Stanford diagnostic test is an example of diagnostic test in the reading skills. The test is a

group test and is meant for elementary school pupils. The test is available forms at level 1, which

is meant for grades 2.5 to 4.5 and at level 2, which is meant for grades 4.5 to 8.5.

The Standardized End of Course Examination. Standardized end of course examinations

are the coordinated series of achievement test for different subject through at either school or at

college level.

Teacher Made Class Tests. Teacher-made tests are normally prepared and administered for

testing classroom achievement of students, evaluating the method of teaching adopted by the

teacher and other curricular programmes of the school. Teacher-made test is one of the most

valuable instruments in the hands of the teacher to solve his purpose. It is designed to solve the

problem or requirements of the class for which it is prepared. It is prepared to measure the

outcomes and content of local curriculum. It is very much flexible so that, it can be adopted to

any procedure and material. It does not require any sophisticated technique for preparation.

Following are the features of teacher made test:

1. The items of the tests are arranged in order of difficulty.


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2. These are prepared by the teachers which can be used for prognosis and diagnosis

purposes.

3. The test covers the whole content area and includes a large number of items.

4. Teacher-made tests may also be employed as a tool for formative evaluation.

5. Teacher-made tests are least used for research purposes.

Function. There are certain functions that are served by teacher made achievement test.

1. The tests provide motivation to the students.

2. These tests are used for diagnostic and construction purposes.

3. These tests are used to define the objectives of the teacher i.e. to make it clear to the

students what is required to study.

Various Steps in Construction of Teacher Made Class Test

A teacher-made test does not require a well-planned preparation. Even then, to make it

more efficient and effective tool of evaluation, careful considerations arc needed to be given

while constructing such tests. The following steps may be followed for the preparation of

teacher-made test:

a. Planning

Planning of the test is the first important step in the test construction. The main goal of

evaluation process is to collect valid, reliable and useful data about the student.

Undoubtedly the largest number of tests covering the content of specific courses or parts

is prepared by instructors for use in their class room. To avoid imbalances or disproportions of

item converge, we have to specify the content area. Such specifications should begin with an

outline of both the instructional objective of the course and the subject matter to be covered. To
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define objectives is the most important step in test construction. So, there are certain rules that

are followed in defining the objectives of the test.

a) Determining the purpose and objectives of the test, „as what to measure and why to

measure‟.

b) Deciding the length of the test and portion of the syllabus to be covered.

c) Specifying the objectives in behavioural terms. If needed, a table can even be prepared

for specifications and weightage given to the objectives to be measured.

d) Deciding the number and forms of items (questions) according to blueprint.

e) Having a clear knowledge and understanding of the principles of constructing essay type,

short answer type and objective type questions.

f) Deciding date of testing much in advance in order to give time to teachers for test

preparation and administration.

g) Seeking the co-operation and suggestion of co-teachers, experienced teachers of other

schools and test experts.

b. Different Objectives

Educational objectives were given by Bloom. The objectives which are for cognitive

process are six in number.

Knowledge. Recall, or recognition of terms, ideas, procedures, theories, etc.

Comprehension. Translate, interpret, extrapolate, but not see full implications or transfer

to other situations, closer to lateral translation.

Application. Apply abstractions, general, or methods to specific concrete situations.


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Analysis. Separation of a complex idea into its constituent parts and an understanding of

organization and relationship between the parts. Includes realizing the distinction between

hypothesis and fact as well as between relevant and extraneous variables.

Synthesis. Creative, mental construction of ideas and concepts from multiple sources to

form complex ideas into a new, integrated, and meaningful pattern subject to given constraints.

Evaluation. To make a judgment of ideas or methods using external evidence or self-

selected criteria substantiated by observations or informed rationalizations.

c. Preparation

In the achievement test we try to select content applicable to instructional objective or

doing so the teacher prepared a blue print which is called specification table. This table indicates

two things first it indicates for each content area and the relative importance of intellectual

activity in achieving the instructional objective. Second it indicates the relative emphasis of each

content area to the instructional objective.

As this step involves preparation of items, there are two types of items:

 Essay or free answer type item

 Structured response type item

Essay or free answer type item. An essay test may give full freedom to the students to write any

number of pages. The required response may vary in length. An essay type question requires the

pupil to plan his own answer and to explain it in his own words. The pupil exercises considerable

freedom to select, organise and present his ideas. Essay type tests provide a better indication of

pupil‟s real achievement in learning. The answers provide a clue to nature and quality of the

pupil‟s thought process.


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The essay questions are generally thought to be the traditional type of questions which

demand lengthy answers. They are not amenable to objective scoring as they give scope for halo-

effect, inter-examiner variability and intra-examiner variability in scoring. The following items

may be included in an essay test;

 What was the religious policy of Akbar?

 Why did the First War of Independence in 1857 fail?

Structured response type item. In this type of items, the responses are structured. The student is

required to choose one answer from two or more provided options. This type of item is called a

multiple-choice item. If two choices are given and the student selects one then this type of item is

called true-false items. The subject may match the stimulus item with response item and this type

is called matching items. If the subject is required to choose from more than two options then

this type of item is called a multiple-choice item.

The essential characteristics of objective type items are,

1. The student operates in a completely structured situation.

2. The student selects answer form limited number of given choices.

3. The sample of items is large.

4. Each item has a predetermined key.

Characteristics and Rules for Writing Multiple Choice Items

The multiple-choice items are the most flexible of the objective type items. It can be used

to appraise the achievement of any of the educational objectives that can be measured by a paper

and a pencil test, except for those relating to skill in written expressions and originality. The

multiple-choice items consist of two parts. Stem which presents the problem and the list of

possible answers or options. The stem of the item may be presented as a question or as an item
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must have at least three answer choices to be classified as a multiple-choice item. While

constructing multiple choice items following points should be follow,

1. Make sure that the stem of the item clearly formulates a problem.

2. Include in the stem only the material needed to make the problem clear and specific.

3. Include as much of the items as possible in a stem and keep the options small.

4. Use the negative only sparingly in the stem of the item.

5. Use novel material in formulating a problem to measure understanding.

6. Make sure that wrong answer choices are plausible.

7. Make sure that there is one and only correct answer.

8. The options such as “none of these or none of the above should be avoided.

9. Make sure that no unintentional clues to the correct answer are given.

10. Avoid the use of “all of these” in the typical multiple-choice item.

From the above discussion it should be quite clear that neither the free answer question, nor the

objective item is free from faults. All types and items have their own advantages and

disadvantages.

Important Theoretical Consideration in Choosing the Type of Items

1. The adequacy of the item type in eliciting the student‟s behaviour that we are trying to

measure at the test.

2. The degree of precession in the results of the test to achieve the purpose for which, the test

was given.

3. The freedom from irrelevant sources of variation that is derived in the results.
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4. Appropriateness to the age and development level of the students being tested.

There are number of situations in testing in which after considering all the issues, the test

constructor still has a choice between free answer type of a question and objective type of

question in these situations. Practical considerations may determine which type of question is

used. Among the practical considerations that influence the decision is the following one,

1. Time available for constructing the items and for scoring the test.

2. Number of people to be tested.

3. Method of the administration of the test.

4. Skill in writing different types of items.

Test Administration

In this stage we select the sample which should be representative of the whole

population then we administer the test to the sample and get their responses. Administration of

the test required specific knowledge.

Examiner Responsibility Before, During and After the Test Administration.

The important requirement for a good testing procedure is advance preparation of the

examiner i.e. examiner should prepare before what material should be used. In case of

performance test and individual test, all the material should be available beforehand. In the

administration purpose, for group test, proctors and examiners are required, so that each is fully

informed about the functions that he or she is required to perform. In individual as well as group

testing, it is the duty of examiner to motivate the examinees and relief their anxiety even the

personal characteristics of the examiners such as his or her age, sex, race, professional and socio
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economic status, training and experience, personality characteristics and appearance etc. all

influence the test score. It is the duty of the examiner that he motivates the examinees and

reduces anxiety, as high rate of anxiety, deteriorate the performance on the test. Moreover, the

examiner is also required to produce uniform and better testing conditions i.e. the testing room

should be suitably located

it should be well it and there should be no disturbance while the testing is going on and

the class, subject, time required, total marks and instruction on the paper before administering

the test.

Evaluation

After the administration of the test, it is scored by the examiner. Item analyses procedure

is involved in the scoring process. For item analyses the total score is used to determine how well

of each of item in the test function i.e. we want to determine how far guessing on one item

determine the student success on all the test items. Item can be analysed qualitatively in the

terms of their content and from and quantitatively in terms of their statistical procedure.

Quantitative analyses use principally the measurements of item difficulty and the item

discrimination. For calculating these two levels we administer and score the test. Then we

arrange all the obtained scores in a descending order. Finally, we pick 27% of those who scored

highest (upper group) and 27% of those who scored the lowest (lower group).
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Chapter 2

Planning and selection


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Chapter 2

Planning and Selection

The main objective of the present achievement test was to measure the students‟ ability to

recall skills and concepts for the subject being tested. With this information, teachers can see

each individual student's strengths and weaknesses and adjust instruction to close these learning

gaps between student populations (Gregory, 2004).

A good achievement test is a test which is able to measure subjects achievement based on

the learning objectives and learning competencies. There are some steps which are followed

while preparing this achievement test. Preparation of test specification, Construction of relevant

test item, Try out study, arranging the items in the test, Scoring and formation of item analysis

sheet, Improvement of the test on the basis of p and v values.

Blue print

A test blueprint defines the knowledge and skills you want to assess and will enable you

to build purpose-driven, successful assessments. A blueprint may also help in identify areas

where question pool may be lacking. In the present test, the table of specification was prepared

before constructing the test. It was made by writing the chapter numbers, chapter names, sub

topics of each chapter and the number of items included in test against each chapter in columns.

There were four chapters included in the test.

Selecting and writing test items

The major purpose of present achievement test was to develop a classroom achievement

test of Pak-studies for 10th class, which could follow the formal item analysis procedures as
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suggested by the psychometricians i.e., Anastasi & Urbina (1997). The purpose of the test is to

measure the factual knowledge and non-interpretive information; so objective items are used,

such as multiple choice items, which are highly flexible and used for all cognitive domains such

as factual, informative competence and comprehension. Keeping above instruction in mind 100

items were constructed.

Item domains

If a test's scores are to yield valid inferences about an examinee's mental attributes, its

items must reflect a specific psychological construct or domain of content. Without a strong

association between a test item and a psychological construct or domain of content, the test item

lacks meaning and purpose, like a mere free-floating thought on a page with no rhyme or reason

for being there at all. It‟s necessary to divide the items in the test equally into three domains i.e.

factual knowledge, information competence and comprehension.

In recall/factual knowledge, items can be answered based on simple recognition of basic

facts. In information competence, items require usage of information provided in written text.

Comprehension is the way in which ideas are organized into categories. Comprehension

questions are those that ask students to take several bits of information and put them into a single

category or grouping.
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Table no 1

Blue print

Chapter Chapter % age Selected Factual Information Comprehensive

no name of items items knowledge competence

40% 40% 20%

1 History of 25% 25 10 10 5

Pakistan II

2 Pakistan in 25% 25 10 10 5

World

Affairs

3 Economic 25% 25 10 10 5

Development

4 Society & 25% 25 10 10 5

Culture of

Pakistan

Total 100% 100 40 40 20


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Table no 2

Divisions of items in domains

Serial. No Factual knowledge Information Comprehensive

competence

1 1 4 7

2 2 13 10

3 3 16 23

4 5 19 28

5 6 20 34

6 8 22 39

7 9 26 43

8 11 29 44

9 12 30 46

10 14 31 47

11 15 33 53

12 17 35 65

13 18 36 68

14 21 37 72

15 24 38 76

16 25 41 80

17 27 42 89

18 32 45 98
25

19 40 48 99

20 49 50 100

21 51 52

22 56 54

23 57 55

24 60 58

25 62 59

26 64 61

27 67 63

28 69 66

29 70 71

30 73 77

31 74 79

32 75 82

33 78 83

34 81 86

35 84 90

36 85 91

37 87 92

38 88 95

39 93 96

40 94 97
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Chapter 3

Administration and scoring


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Chapter 3

Administration and Scoring

Sampling

A total sample of 40 female students of SSC (Ⅱ) Pakistan studies were taken from IMCG

G-10/2 Islamabad for current study.

Administration

Before administration of the test, we took information from the Head of Department. The

total time allowed for 100 items was 1hour 40 minutes, however most students finished it in one

hour. The students were instructed to do the best of their own abilities and not to cheat in the test

as the test was not for their evaluation. The questionnaire consisted of 100 items of factual

knowledge and information competence and comprehension in the form of multiple choice

questions.

The students were required to use a pen or ball point to solve the question paper. Students

were informed about the purpose of test to reduce their anxiety.

Scoring

The test named „Pakistan-studies achievement test ‟was scored according to the scoring

key. The scoring key consisted of correct answers, was made beforehand. The test was scored

according to all or none basis. The correct responses were marked 1 while incorrect ones are

marked 0. The left out items or double marked responses are also marked 0.
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Chapter 4

Item analysis
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Chapter 4

Item Analysis

Definition of Item Analysis

“Item analysis is a set of procedures that is applied to know the indices for truthfulness or
validity of items and it is technique through which those item which are valid and suited to the
purpose, are selected and the rest are either eliminated or modified to suit the purpose”. (Arum
Kumar, 1986)

Item analysis can be a powerful technique available to instructors for the guidance and
improvement of instruction.

Objectives of Item Analysis

Index of Difficulty

The difficult value of an item is defined as proportion or percentage of the examinees or


individuals who answer the item correctly. This proportion or percentage is known as index of
difficulty of an item. If an item is answered correctly by 90% of the examinees, it is obviously
that the item is relatively easy and answered by 90% of the examinees. The proportion passing
an item is inversely related to the difficulty of the item. The higher the percentage of getting the
item right the easier the item. For a dichotomous item the index of difficulty can be determined
by the following formula:

P = Ru +RL / Nu +NL

Where,

P = index of difficulty or p-value

Ru = no. of examinees who respond correctly in upper group

Rl = no. of examinees who respond correctly in lower group

Nu = no. of examinees in upper group


30

NL = no. of examinees in lower group

On the basis of p- value, 36 fall in the range of 0.4-0.6. Therefore, the leftover were discarded.

Index of Discrimination

Index of discrimination is that ability of item on the basis of which the discrimination or
distinction is made between superior and inferiors. The discrimination power of validity may be
defined as the extent to which success and failure on that item indicates the possession of traits
or achievement being measured. The next D method demands setting up of two extreme groups.
Once consisting of upper 11% and lower 11% of examinees. The following formula is used,

D = Ru – Rl / N

Where

D = index of discrimination or d-value

Ru = no of examinees who respond correctly in upper group

Rl = no. of examinees who respond in lower group

Nu = no. of examinees in upper group

NL = no. of examinees in lower group

D-Value of item selected for final version in the range of 0.4-0.6. This range shows that there is a
moderate discrimination between items, which are finally selected after item analysis.

Effectiveness of Distractors

Item analysis especially in multiple choice items aimed at determining the effectiveness of
distracters. Usually the number of examinees to each distracters of item in upper and lower group
is counted. Ordinarily for an item to be called good distracter must be answered by more
examinee of lower group but if the distracter is answered by more examinee in a higher group
the distracter is regarded to be of poor form.
31

Table no 3

Scores in descending order

Serial. Total Descending Serial. Total Descending Serial. Total Descending

No score order No score order No score order

1 14 65 19 36 38 37 53 25

2 18 61 20 36 37 38 57 23

3 23 57 21 37 36 39 61 18

4 25 53 22 38 36 40 65 14

5 28 49 23 38 36

6 29 46 24 40 35

7 30 46 25 40 35

8 31 45 26 40 34

9 31 45 27 40 32

10 31 44 28 41 32

11 31 43 29 41 32

12 32 41 30 43 31

13 32 41 31 44 31

14 32 40 32 45 31

15 34 40 33 45 31

16 35 40 34 46 30

17 35 40 35 46 29

18 36 38 36 49 28
32

Table no 4

Upper Group and Lower Group scores in descending order

Serial no Upper Group 27% Lower Group 27%

1 65 31

2 61 31

3 57 31

4 53 31

5 49 30

6 46 29

7 46 28

8 45 25

9 45 23

10 44 18

11 43 14
33

Chapter no 5

Item selection
34

Chapter 5

P and V values of items

Table no 5

Tables showing P and V values & percentages of 100 items

Item no 1:

A B C D* P V %

Upper group 7 3 1 0 0.09 -0.18 0

Lower group 1 4 4 2 18.18

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 2:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 1 1 9 0 0.73 0.18 81.8

Lower group 0 4 7 0 63.6

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6 and distractor d can be modified.

Item no 3:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 0 1 10 0 0.6 0.54 90.9

Lower group 4 3 4 0 36.4

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6 and distractor d can be modified.
35

Item no 4:

A B C D* P V %

Upper group 1 0 0 10 0.64 0.55 90.9

Lower group 1 4 2 4 36.36

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 5:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 1 1 7 2 0.4 0.5 63.63

Lower group 2 5 2 2 18.18

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 6:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 2 4 5 0 0.45 0 45.45

Lower group 1 4 5 1 45.45

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 7:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 0 11 0 0 0.8 0.36 100

Lower group 2 7 1 1 63.63

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.


36

Item no 8:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 1 7 3 0 0.45 0.36 63.64

Lower group 1 3 4 3 27.3

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 9:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 3 3 0 5 0.23 0.1 27.3

Lower group 2 6 3 0 18.2

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 10:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 1 1 8 1 0.55 0.4 72.73

Lower group 4 3 4 0 36.36

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 11:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 3 2 3 3 0.14 0.3 27.3

Lower group 0 4 2 5 0

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.


37

Item no 12:

A B C D* P V %

Upper group 3 0 6 2 0.18 0 18.18

Lower group 0 5 4 2 18.18

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 13:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 1 9 1 0 0.59 0.45 81.81

Lower group 3 4 2 2 36.36

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 14:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 1 5 4 1 0.32 0.3 45.45

Lower group 0 2 5 4 18.18

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 15:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 1 4 3 3 0.27 0 27.27

Lower group 3 5 3 0 27.27

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.


38

Item no 16:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 0 9 0 2 0.64 0.4 81.81

Lower group 1 5 3 2 45.45

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 17:

A B C D* P V %

Upper group 1 6 2 2 0.09 0.18 18.18

Lower group 2 3 6 0 0

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 18:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 1 1 9 0 0.55 0.55 81.81

Lower group 2 5 3 1 27.27

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 19:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 4 2 3 2 0.14 0.09 18.18

Lower group 3 1 4 3 9.09

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.


39

Item no 20:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 0 0 5 6 0.32 0.27 45.45

Lower group 2 3 2 4 18.18

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 21:

A B C D* P V %

Upper group 2 3 3 3 0.18 0.18 27.27

Lower group 0 8 2 1 9.09

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 22:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 1 8 2 0 0.54 0.4 72.72

Lower group 4 4 2 1 36.36

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 23:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 4 0 7 0 0.12 -0.3 0

Lower group 1 3 5 2 27.27

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.


40

Item no 24:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 1 4 3 3 0.05 0.09 9.09

Lower group 0 5 5 1 0

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 25:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 0 4 7 0 0.4 0.5 63.63

Lower group 2 4 2 3 18.18

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 26:

A B C D* P V %

Upper group 1 2 5 3 0.27 0 27.27

Lower group 4 3 1 3 27.27

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 27:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 2 6 3 0 0.5 0.2 54.54

Lower group 0 4 4 3 36.36

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.


41

Item no 28:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 1 3 4 3 0.14 0.27 27.27

Lower group 2 0 5 4 0

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 29:

A B C D* P V %

Upper group 0 6 2 3 0.18 0.18 27.27

Lower group 1 4 5 1 9.09

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 30:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 3 0 8 0 0.5 0.5 72.72

Lower group 3 4 3 1 27.27

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 31:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 2 1 6 2 0.5 0.1 54.54

Lower group 3 3 5 0 45.45

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.


42

Item no 32:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 3 4 4 0 0.23 0.1 27.27

Lower group 2 4 3 2 18.18

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 33:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 0 7 4 0 0.6 0 63.63

Lower group 1 7 3 0 63.63

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6 and distractor d can be modified.

Item no 34:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 9 1 1 0 0.5 0.6 81.81

Lower group 2 4 3 2 18.18

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 35:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 0 9 0 2 0.77 0.09 81.81

Lower group 2 8 0 1 72.72

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6 and distractor c can be modified.
43

Item no 36:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 7 2 2 0 0.27 -0.18 18.18

Lower group 4 4 3 0 36.36

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6 distractor d can be modified.

Item no 37:

A B C D* P V %

Upper group 0 2 0 9 0.6 0.4 81.81

Lower group 1 5 0 5 45.45

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6 and distractor c can be modified.

Item no 38:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 3 2 4 2 0.18 0.18 27.27

Lower group 1 5 4 1 9.09

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 39:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 9 0 2 0 0.68 0.27 81.81

Lower group 6 1 4 0 54.54

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6


44

Item no 40:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 2 7 1 1 0.68 -0.09 63.63

Lower group 0 8 3 0 72.72

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 41:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 1 2 6 2 0.4 0.4 54.54

Lower group 2 6 2 1 18.18

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 42:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 1 5 1 4 0.23 -0.27 9.09

Lower group 1 4 4 2 36.36

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 43:

A B C D* P V %

Upper group 0 3 0 8 0.5 0.5 72.72

Lower group 1 5 3 2 18.18

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.


45

Item no 44:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 0 3 3 5 0.41 -0.3 27.27

Lower group 4 6 0 1 54.55

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 45:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 1 10 0 0 0.72 0.4 90.91

Lower group 2 6 2 1 54.55

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 46:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 4 0 5 2 0.5 -0.09 45.45

Lower group 1 3 6 1 54.54

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 47:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 9 2 0 0 0.5 0.5 81.82

Lower group 3 6 2 0 27.27

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6 and distractor d can be modified.
46

Item no 48:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 9 2 0 0 0.5 0.5 81.82

Lower group 3 1 4 3 27.27

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 49:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 2 2 6 1 0.32 0.5 54.55

Lower group 2 6 1 2 9.09

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 50:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 4 1 6 0 0.41 0.3 54.55

Lower group 3 4 3 1 27.27

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 51:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 1 9 0 1 0.64 0.4 81.81

Lower group 2 5 4 0 45.45

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.


47

Item no 52:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 2 2 4 3 0.23 -0.09 18.18

Lower group 3 3 3 2 27.27

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 53:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 3 2 4 2 0.18 0.18 27.27

Lower group 1 8 2 0 9.09

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 54:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 2 0 7 2 0.5 0.4 63.64

Lower group 2 1 3 5 27.27

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 55:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 1 3 4 3 0.12 -0.1 9.09

Lower group 2 3 6 0 18.18

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.


48

Item no 56:

A B C D* P V %

Upper group 1 6 2 2 0.1 0.09 18.18

Lower group 0 7 3 1 9.09

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 57:

A B C D* P V %

Upper group 0 2 1 8 0.4 0.64 72.73

Lower group 2 5 3 1 9.09

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 58:

A B C D* P V %

Upper group 2 3 5 1 0.23 -0.27 9.09

Lower group 1 5 1 4 36.36

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 59:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 6 2 1 2 0.5 0.1 54.55

Lower group 5 4 0 2 45.45

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.


49

Item no 60:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 0 6 4 1 0 0 0

Lower group 0 2 8 1 0

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6 and distractor a can be modified.

Item no 61:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 0 3 6 2 0.4 0.4 54.55

Lower group 4 2 2 3 18.18

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 62:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 8 0 1 2 0.5 0.5 72.73

Lower group 2 4 5 0 18.18

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 63:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 5 4 1 1 0.2 0.5 45.45

Lower group 0 5 4 2 0

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.


50

Item no 64:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 2 4 4 1 0.4 0 36.36

Lower group 5 2 4 0

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 65:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 0 1 9 1 0.64 0.4 81.81

Lower group 1 4 5 1 45.45

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 66:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 1 3 2 5 0.18 0 18.18

Lower group 0 7 2 2 18.18

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 67:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 0 2 3 6 0.14 0.09 18.18

Lower group 1 1 6 3 9.09

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.


51

Item no 68:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 2 6 3 0 0.18 0 18.18

Lower group 2 5 3 1 18.18

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 69:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 1 10 0 0 0.5 0.7 90.91

Lower group 4 2 5 0 18.18

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6 and distractor d can be modified.

Item no 70:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 2 0 9 0 0.6 0.5 81.81

Lower group 2 4 4 1 36.36

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 71:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 1 3 3 4 0.32 -0.09 27.27

Lower group 4 0 4 3 36.36

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.


52

Item no 72:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 1 1 9 0 0.5 0.64 81.81

Lower group 1 7 2 1 18.18

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 73:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 1 5 5 0 0.5 -0.18 45.45

Lower group 1 3 7 0 63.63

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 74:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 1 4 4 2 0.4 -0.1 36.36

Lower group 2 2 5 2 45.45

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 75:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 3 2 3 3 0.27 -0.18 18.18

Lower group 1 4 5 1 36.36

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.


53

Item no 76:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 8 2 0 1 0.4 0.6 72.73

Lower group 1 2 6 2 9.09

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 77:

A B C D* P V %

Upper group 5 0 3 3 0.23 0.1 27.27

Lower group 5 2 2 2 18.18

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 78:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 1 6 3 1 0.4 0.4 54.55

Lower group 3 2 5 1 18.18

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 79:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 2 3 6 0 0.5 0.1 54.55

Lower group 2 4 5 0 45.45

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6 and distractor d can be modified.
54

Item no 80:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 6 1 2 2 0.4 0.4 54.55

Lower group 2 4 3 2 18.18

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 81:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 2 7 2 0 0.5 0.3 63.64

Lower group 2 4 5 0 36.36

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6 and distractor d can be modified.

Item no 82:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 10 0 1 0 0.6 0.6 90.9

Lower group 3 4 4 0 27.27

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6 and distractor d can be modified.

Item no 83:

A B C D* P V %

Upper group 0 2 1 8 0.5 0.5 72.73

Lower group 2 3 4 2 18.18

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.


55

Item no 84:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 2 0 9 0 0.6 0.4 81.82

Lower group 1 4 5 1 45.45

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 85:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 2 2 4 3 0.14 0.1 18.18

Lower group 1 5 3 2 9.09

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 86:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 2 5 4 0 0.4 0.18 45.45

Lower group 5 3 3 0 27.27

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 87:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 5 1 1 4 0.3 0.4 45.45

Lower group 1 5 4 1 9.09

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6


56

Item no 88:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 0 7 4 0 0.3 0.2 36.36

Lower group 1 5 2 3 18.18

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6

Item no 89:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 1 6 0 4 0.4 0.3 54.55

Lower group 3 3 5 0 27.27

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6

Item no 90:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 2 9 0 0 0.5 0.5 81.82

Lower group 2 3 5 1 27.27

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 91:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 3 2 3 3 0.3 -0.3 18.18

Lower group 1 5 4 1 45.45

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.


57

Item no 92:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 0 2 9 0 0.5 0.5 81.82

Lower group 2 3 3 3 27.27

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 93:

A B* C D P V %

Upper group 3 7 1 0 0.5 0.4 63.64

Lower group 3 3 4 1 27.27

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 94:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 3 0 6 2 0.5 0.2 54.55

Lower group 2 5 4 0 36.36

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 95:

A* B C D P V %

Upper group 8 2 1 0 0.4 0.6 72.73

Lower group 1 5 4 1 9.09

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.


58

Item no 96:

A B C D* P V %

Upper group 3 3 0 5 0.2 0.5 45.45

Lower group 5 2 4 0 0

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 97:

A B C D* P V %

Upper group 3 1 4 3 0.1 0.3 27.27

Lower group 3 2 6 0 0

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 98:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 0 2 7 2 0.4 0.55 63.64

Lower group 5 3 1 2 9.09

The item is selected as p and v value lie within 0.4-0.6.

Item no 99:

A B C* D P V %

Upper group 3 3 4 1 0.3 0.1 36.36

Lower group 2 4 3 2 27.27

. The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.


59

Item no 100:

A B C D* P V %

Upper group 8 2 0 1 0.1 0 9.09

Lower group 3 2 5 1 9.09

The item is rejected as p and v value doesn‟t lie within 0.4-0.6.


60

Table no 6

P and V values of selected items

Serial no. Item no P-value V-value

1 3 0.6 0.54

2 4 0.64 0.55

3 5 0.4 0.5

4 8 0.45 0.4

5 10 0.55 0.4

6 13 0.59 0.45

7 16 0.64 0.4

8 18 0.55 0.55

9 22 0.54 0.4

10 25 0.4 0.5

11 30 0.5 0.5

12 34 0.5 0.6

13 37 0.6 0.4

14 41 0.4 0.4

15 43 0.5 0.5

16 47 0.5 0.5

17 48 0.5 0.5

18 51 0.64 0.4

19 54 0.5 0.4
61

20 57 0.4 0.64

21 61 0.4 0.4

22 62 0.5 0.5

23 65 0.64 0.4

24 70 0.6 0.5

25 72 0.5 0.64

26 76 0.4 0.6

27 78 0.4 0.4

28 80 0.4 0.4

29 82 0.6 0.6

30 83 0.5 0.5

31 84 0.6 0.4

32 90 0.5 0.5

33 92 0.5 0.5

34 93 0.5 0.4

35 95 0.4 0.6

36 98 0.5 0.55
62

Appendix-B

Pakistan Studies Achievement Test

Pakistan Studies (SSC-Ⅱ)

Name: _________________ Total marks: 100

Date: __________________ Time allowed: 1 hour 45 min

Q. Circle the correct option i.e. A/ B/ C/ D. Each part carries one mark.

1. Mr. Bhutto issued an ordinance on

a. 16th January, 1972 b. 19th January, 1972 c. 1st January, 1972 d. 2nd January, 1972

2. According to _________ constitution, the parliament consists of two houses.

a. 1956 b. 1962 c. 1973 d. 1985

3. The tragedy of the world trade center was on

a. 17 Sep, 2001 b. 18 Sep, 2002 c. 11 Sep, 2001 d. 9 Sep, 2001

4. Islamic world‟s first women Prime Minister is

a. Fatima Jinnah b. Shah Nawaz c. Shazia Iqbal d. Benazir Bhutto

5. The government of Mian Muhammad Nawaz Sharif established Baitul Maal in

a. 1994 b. 1993 c. 1992 d. 1991

6. According to 1998 census, the population of the country reached over

a. 11 crore b. 12 crore c. 13 crore d. 14 crore

7. The main objective of Pakistan‟s Foreign Policy is to protect the

a. eastern border b. ideological border c. northern border d. security border


63

8. Dushanbe is located from Islamabad at a distance of

a. 400 km b. 500 km c. 550 km d. 600km

9. Mian Muhammad Nawaz Sharif government announced Agricultural Policy in

a. 1991 b. 1992 c. 1993 d. 1994

10. Privatisation process‟ aim was to end

a. illiteracy b. corruption c. poverty d. health problem

11. Bhutto‟s government announced the new labour policy on

a. 10th February, 1972 b. 11 th February, 1972

c. 12th February, 1972 d. 13 th February, 1972

12. Pak-Saudia Economic Commision was established in Riyadh in

a. 1992 b. 1994 c. 1996 d. 1998

13. Pakistan shares its __________ border line with China.

a. eastern b. northern c. western d. southern

14. When Pakistan came to existence, ________ of the population of Kashmir was Muslim.

a. 90% b. 80% c. 75% d. 60%

15. Justice (Retd) Rafiq Rarar was elected as President in

a. 1996 b. 1997 c. 1998 d. 1999

16. According to the constitution of 1973, National Assembly will have a tenure of

a. six years b. five years c. four years d. three years

17. Pakistan rejoined common wealth in

a. 1973 b. 1980 c. 1987 d. 1989

18. Samjhuta Express bombings happened in

a. 2005 b. 2006 c. 2007 d. 2008


64

19. The head of “Pakistan National Alliance” was

a. Muhammad Khan Junejo b. Maulana Mufti Mahmud

c. Ghulam Ishaq Khan d. Aftab Ahmad Sherpao

20. GDP stands for

a. Gross Development Project b. Grand Domestic Product

c. Gross Domestic Product d. Grand Development Project

21. Durand line is __________ long.

a. 980 km b. 1800 km c. 2200 km d. 2240 km

22. The world‟s highest mountain peak, Mount Everest is located in

a. Pakistan b. Nepal c. Switzerland d. Bhutan

23. Russia gave a generator and important equipment for electricity plant.

a. Hydro power plant b. Thermal power plant

c. Nuclear power plant d. Solar power plant

24. Shah Iran Visited to Pakistan in

a. 1950 b. 1951 c. 1954 d. 1956

25. People‟s Republic of China got its independence in

a. 1947 b. 1948 c. 1949 d. 1950

26. In 1961, Russia and Pakistan signed an agreement to explore

a. Gas b. Petrol c. Diesel d. Oil

27. The tragedy of Aqsa Mosque fire in

a. 1959 b. 1969 c. 1979 d. 1989


65

28. Bhutto‟s main goal was

a. ending of corruption b. betterment of the people

c. democracy in the country d. employment facilities

29. A department, Placement Bureau, was set up for providing __________ to the public.

a. education b. shelter c. health services d. employment

30. Which party gain victorial power in election of 1988?

a. PPP b. PML c. PMLN d. JUI

31. Pakistan provide every possible aid to china during its war with

a. Iran b. Afghanistan c. India d. Turkey

32. During Russian attack how many Afghan refugees were migrated to Pakistan?

a. 25 lakh b. 30 lakh c. 35 lakh d. 40 lakh

33. In 2002, for the first time in Pakistan, it was declared mandatory for a candidate to be

a. Intermediate b. Graduate c. Post-Graduate d. Doctorate

34. Pakistan culture reflects the

a. Islamic values b. Cultural values c. Social values d. Moral values

35. Shah Faisal visited to Pakistan, and constructed Faisal mosque and ______ university.

a. COMSATS b. Islamic c. Hamdard d. Quaid-e-Azam

36. The office of _________ Airways has been established in Karachi.

a. Azerbaijan b. Uzbekistan c. Tajikistan d. Kazakhstan

37. SAARC stands for

a. South Asian Association for Regional Communities

b. South Asian Association for Regional Conferences


66

c. South Asian Association for Regional Companies

d. South Asian Association for Regional Corporation

38. In election of 1977, _________ won with the great majority.

a. PPP b. PMLN c. PML d. JUI

39. Nationalization of banks and insurance companies proved very fruitful for the ________

stability of people of Pakistan.

a. economic b. social c. industrial d. political

40. Pakistan and Turkmenistan signed an agreement to lay a gas pipe line from

Turkmenistan to Quetta in

a. 1995 b. 1996 c. 1998 d. 1999

41. Larry presser introduced a constitutional amendment through which aid of all kinds was

stopped to _________ .

a. Iran b. Kashmir c. Pakistan d. Palestine

42. Which country extended complete support to Pakistan on Kashmir issue?

a. Iran b. China c. Turkey d. Saudi-Arabia

43. If any person __________ the constitution, he will be charged with high treason and

prosecuted accordingly.

a. enact b. revive c. enforce d. abrogates

44. „Pakistan National Alliance‟ aim was to fight against

a. PMLN b. PPP c. MQM d. JUI

45. In 1989, Dr. Abdul Qadeer Khan claimed that Pakistan had gained the capability to build

a. fighter aircraft b. atomic bomb c. missile d. drone


67

46. Pakistan extended technical cooperation to Saudi-Arabia and provided the valuable

services to it for defence and moderanization of its

a. civilians b. society c. army d. polices

47. International court of justice makes its decision according to the opinion of the _______

of the present members.

a. majority b. minority c. half d. one- third

48. Tajikistan‟s capital is

a. Dushanbe b. Berlin c. Istanbul d. Dhaka

49. Russia attacked on Afghanistan in

a. 1977 b. 1978 c. 1979 d. 1980

50. In 1985 bill, American Senate discontinued aid to the countries that developed

a. atomic weapons b. anti-tank aircrafts c. nuclear weapons d. hydrogen bombs

51. In 1959 – 60, the share of individual field in Pakistan GOP was ________.

a. 11.2 percent b.11.9 percent c. 12.3 percent d. 12.4 percent

52. In Mahmud Ghaznavi‟s era, a person named _______ actually prepared Pushto alphabet.

a. Ameer Krore b. Saifullah c. Maulvi Masaah d. Mirza Qaleech

53. __________ is mostly made in those areas where water is scarce and the process of

evaporation is more.

a.Wells b. Tube wells c. Karez d. Springs

54. Pakistan is included in the list of ____________ populated countries.

a. Average b. Least Densely c. Densely d. Most Densely

55. Haveli canal system is located in canals of .

a. River Chenab b. River Jhelum c. River Ravi d. River Sutlej


68

56. _________ were allocated for the fourth 5 plan (1970 – 75).

a. Rs.700 crore b. Rs.770 crore c. Rs.720 crore d. Rs.750 crore

57. The labour force of country which is approximately ______ is dependent on agriculture.

a. 41% b. 48% c. 46% d. 44%

58. In Khyber Pakhtunkhwa coal reserves are found only in .

a. Dir b. Chitral c. Hazara d. Hangu

59. According to population, __________ is largest province of Pakistan.

a. Punjab b. Sindhi c. K.P.K d. Balochistan

60. When did the new economic policy was announced?

a. April 1989 b. May 1971 c. July 1983 d. April 1955

61. A large part of our agricultural land is not cultivable due to _________ .

a. Lack of agricultural credit b. Lack of intensive cultivation

c. Water logging & Salinity d. Backwardness of farmers

62. ____________ was discovered in Pakistan in 1952.

a. Natural gas b. Salt c. Coal d. Iron ore

63. Justice AR Cornelius was the chief Justice of _________ court.

a. Supreme b. High c. Provincial d. District

64. When Muslim League (N) established its government?

a. 2002 b. 2005 c. 2013 d. 2010

65. Water from __________ is not suitable for crops as it produces water logging and

salinity in land.

a. Canals b. Karez c. Tube wells d. Rain


69

66. The Potohar Plateau in Pakistan is an ancient region of __________ production.

a. Oil b. Natural gas c. petroleum d. coal

67. Tobacco‟s total production in Pakistan per annum is __________tons.

a. 0.209 million b. 0.108 million c. 66.5 million d. 4.5 million

68. Pakistan is located in that region of monsoon climate where there is ________ rainfall.

a. Less b. high c. normal d. extremely high

69. The first dry-port of Pakistan was constructed in ____________.

a. Karachi b. Lahore c. Quetta d. Peshawar

70. According to the economic survey of Pakistan 2013-14, the literacy rate in Pakistan was.

a. 40% b. 50% c. 60% d. 70%

71. Ameer Khusro is considered to be an ancient poet of

a. Urdu b. Persian c. Hindi d. Saraiki

72. Pakistan is in list of those developing countries where the __________ is comprehended

as the basic pillar of economy.

a. Mineral b. Irrigation system c. Agriculture d. Industries

73. According to Indus water treaty in __________ 3 western rivers were Pakistan‟s share

while 3 eastern rivers went to India.

a. 1952 b. 1971 c. 1960 d. 1965

74. Faislabad has become _________ largest city of Pakistan due to industrial development.

a. 5th b. 4th c. 3rd d. 2nd

75. __________ % of Pakistan‟s population lives in Punjab.

a. 50 b. 54 c. 60 d. 64
70

76. Those areas where Industries are located, provide sources of _________.

a. Income b. Education c. Entertainment d. Health

77. In period of ____________ in 1971, Pakistan was surrounded by problems.

a. General Muhammad Zia-ul-Haq b. Muhammad khan Junejo

c. Muhammad Ayub khan d. Zulfiqar Ali Bhutto

78. According to facts and figures of 2013-2014, males constitute about _________ of total

population.

a. 46.35% b. 51.35% c. 55.35% d. 60%

79. The education from class 9 to class 10 is called ___________ education.

a. Primary b. Middle c. Secondary d. Higher secondary

80. Due to atomic blast in 1998, Pakistan had to face many ________ sanctions.

a. Economic b. Social c. Health d. Political

81. According to facts and figures of the economic survey of Pakistan 2013-2014, more than

______ tons of wheat was produced in Pakistan.

a. 27 million b. 25 million c. 21 million d. 20 million

82. Which is the biggest place for production of hydroelectric power?

a. Tarbela Dam b. Mangle Dam c. Warsak Dam d. Barotha Dam

83. In the preparation of phosphate fertilizer, ________ is used as a raw material.

a. Limestone b. Sulphur c. Marble d. Gypsum

84. In ________ constitution of Pakistan, rights of the minorities have been fully protected.

a. 1956 b) 1962 c. 1973 d. 1985

85. Baluchistan university started the Ph.D degree in the Balochi language in

a. 1960 b. 1961 c. 1962 d. 1963


71

86. In 1947, at the time of partition, Ferozpur headworks built on __________ and

Madhupur were given to India.

a. River Chenab b. River Sutlej c. River Ravi d. River Jhelum

87. The first census in the Indo-Pak subcontinent was held in

a. 1881 b. 1882 c. 1883 d. 1884

88. ___________ of the population of Pakistan lives in villages.

a. Half b. One-Third c. Two-Third d. Most

89. The only difference between the three accents in the pushto language is of the

a. Spelling b. Pronunciation c. Grammar d. Vocabulary

90. The ___________ nuclear electricity station was established in Chasham called

“Chashma Nuclear Power Plants”.

a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth

91. In the field of health, Doctor Ruth Pfau worked for the ___________ patients.

a. Schizophrenia b. Leprosy c. Depression d. O.C.D

92. Small industry means that industry which employs

a. 2 to 5 workers b. 2 to 7 workers c. 2 to 9 workers d. 3 to 9 workers

93. Pakistan is the _________ largest country in the world with respect to population.

a. 5th b. 6th c. 7th d. 8th

94. According to the economic survey of Pakistan 2013-2014, the population of Pakistan is

a. 187.02 millions b. 178.02 millions c. 188.02 millions d. 189.02 millions

95. Urdu is a Turkish word which means

a. Army b. Brave c. Reekhta d. War


72

96. In the whole of the Muslim world‟s local language, ___________ is the first language to

have translation of the Holy Quran.

a. Punjabi b. Pushto c. Balochi d. Sindhi

97. Sultan Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah was the ruler of ___________.

a. Lukhnow b. Walidecni c. Marsiya d. Golkanda

98. After 1857 war of independence, there was a prominent change in ________ conditions.

a. Economic and social b. Political and economic

c. Political and social d. Religious and social

99. The plain areas of Pakistan where the soil is very fertile and cultivable have _________

population.

a. Moderate b. Low c. Dense d. Normal

100. _________ is stronger than the other regional languages of Pakistan due to its old

cultural heritage.

a. Punjabi b. Balochi c. Pushto d. Sindhi


73

Table no 7

Scoring key

Item no Correct Item no Correct Item no Correct

options options options

1 D 19 B 37 D

2 C 20 C 38 A

3 C 21 D 39 A

4 D 22 B 40 B

5 C 23 B 41 C

6 C 24 A 42 C

7 B 25 C 43 D

8 B 26 D 44 B

9 A 27 B 45 B

10 C 28 B 46 C

11 A 29 D 47 A

12 D 30 C 48 A

13 B 31 C 49 C

14 B 32 A 50 C

15 C 33 B 51 B

16 B 34 A 52 B

17 D 35 B 53 A

18 C 36 B 54 C
74

55 A 78 B

56 D 79 C

57 D 80 A

58 D 81 B

59 A 82 A

60 A 83 D

61 C 84 C

62 A 85 A

63 A 86 B

64 C 87 A

65 C 88 C

66 C 89 B

67 B 90 B

68 A 91 B

69 B 92 C

70 C 93 B

71 C 94 C

72 C 95 A

73 C 96 D

74 C 97 D

75 B 98 C

76 A 99 C

77 D 100 D
75

Conclusion

The psychology achievement test was constructed from chapter 1-4 of the text book of SSC-Ⅱ

Pakistan Studies. The items (100 multiple-choice items) were prepared according to the objective

checking application of factual knowledge, information competence and comprehensive for 40

students. Out of 100 items, 36 items were selected finally because they were lying in the range of

P and V value (0.4-0.6). Rest of the items was rejected because of an inappropriate index of

difficulty and index of discrimination value after item analysis.


76

Appendix-C

Final Pakistan Studies Achievement test

Pakistan Studies (SSC-Ⅱ)

Name: _________________ Total marks: 100

Date: __________________ Time allowed: 1 hour 45 min

Q. Circle the correct option i.e. A/ B/ C/ D. Each part carries one mark.

1. The tragedy of the world trade center was on

a. 17 Sep, 2001 b. 18 Sep, 2002 c. 11 Sep, 2001 d. 9 Sep, 2001

2. Islamic world‟s first women Prime Minister is

a. Fatima Jinnah b. Shah Nawaz c. Shazia Iqbal d. Benazir Bhutto

3. The government of Mian Muhammad Nawaz Sharif established Baitul Maal in

a. 1994 b. 1993 c. 1992 d. 1991

4. Dushanbe is located from Islamabad at a distance of

a. 400 km b. 500 km c. 550 km d. 600km

5. Privatisation process‟ aim was to end

a. illiteracy b. corruption c. poverty d. health problem

6. Pakistan shares its __________ border line with China.

a. eastern b. northern c. western d. southern

7. According to the constitution of 1973, National Assembly will have a tenure of

a. six years b. five years c. four years d. three years


77

8. Samjhuta Express bombings happened in

a. 2005 b. 2006 c. 2007 d. 2008

9. The world‟s highest mountain peak, Mount Everest is located in

a. Pakistan b. Nepal c. Switzerland d. Bhutan

10. People‟s Republic of China got its independence in

a. 1947 b. 1948 c. 1949 d. 1950

11. Which party gain victorial power in election of 1988?

a. PPP b. PML c. PMLN d. JUI

12. Pakistan culture reflects the

a. Islamic values b. Cultural values c. Social values d. Moral values

13. SAARC stands for

a. South Asian Association for Regional Communities

b. South Asian Association for Regional Conferences

c. South Asian Association for Regional Companies

d. South Asian Association for Regional Corporation

14. Larry presser introduced a constitutional amendment through which aid of all kinds was

stopped to _________ .

a. Iran b. Kashmir c. Pakistan d. Palestine

15. If any person __________ the constitution, he will be charged with high treason and

prosecuted accordingly.

a. enact b. revive c. enforce d. abrogates


78

16. International court of justice makes its decision according to the opinion of the _______

of the present members.

a. majority b. minority c. half d. one- third

17. Tajikistan‟s capital is

a. Dushanbe b. Berlin c. Istanbul d. Dhaka

18. In 1959 – 60, the share of individual field in Pakistan GOP was ________.

a. 11.2 percent b.11.9 percent c. 12.3 percent d. 12.4 percent

19. Pakistan is included in the list of ____________ populated countries.

a. Average b. Least Densely c. Densely d. Most Densely

20. The labour force of country which is approximately ______ is dependent on agriculture.

a. 41% b. 48% c. 46% d. 44%

21. A large part of our agricultural land is not cultivable due to _________ .

a. Lack of agricultural credit b. Lack of intensive cultivation

c. Water logging & Salinity d. Backwardness of farmers

22. ____________ was discovered in Pakistan in 1952.

a. Natural gas b. Salt c. Coal d. Iron ore

23. Water from __________ is not suitable for crops as it produces water logging and

salinity in land.

a. Canals b. Karez c. Tube wells d. Rain

24. According to the economic survey of Pakistan 2013-14, the literacy rate in Pakistan was.

a. 40% b. 50% c. 60% d. 70%


79

25. Pakistan is in list of those developing countries where the __________ is comprehended

as the basic pillar of economy.

a. Mineral b. Irrigation system c. Agriculture d. Industries

26. Those areas where Industries are located, provide sources of _________.

a. Income b. Education c. Entertainment d. Health

27. According to facts and figures of 2013-2014, males constitute about _________ of total

population.

a. 46.35% b. 51.35% c. 55.35% d. 60%

28. Due to atomic blast in 1998, Pakistan had to face many ________ sanctions.

a. Economic b. Social c. Health d. Political

29. Which is the biggest place for production of hydroelectric power?

a. Tarbela Dam b. Mangle Dam c. Warsak Dam d. Barotha Dam

30. In the preparation of phosphate fertilizer, ________ is used as a raw material.

a. Limestone b. Sulphur c. Marble d. Gypsum

31. In ________ constitution of Pakistan, rights of the minorities have been fully protected.

a. 1956 b) 1962 c. 1973 d. 1985

32. The ___________ nuclear electricity station was established in Chasham called

“Chashma Nuclear Power Plants”.

a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth

33. Small industry means that industry which employs

a. 2 to 5 workers b. 2 to 7 workers c. 2 to 9 workers d. 3 to 9 workers

34. Pakistan is the _________ largest country in the world with respect to population.

a. 5th b. 6th c. 7th d. 8th


80

35. Urdu is a Turkish word which means

a. Army b. Brave c. Reekhta d. War

36. After 1857 war of independence, there was a prominent change in ________ conditions.

a. Economic and social b. Political and economic

c. Political and social d. Religious and social


81

Table no 8

Table showing scoring key of selected items

Item no Correct options Item no Correct options

1 C 19 C

2 D 20 D

3 C 21 C

4 B 22 A

5 C 23 C

6 B 24 C

7 B 25 C

8 C 26 A

9 B 27 B

10 C 28 A

11 C 29 A

12 A 30 D

13 D 31 C

14 C 32 B

15 D 33 C

16 A 34 B

17 A 35 A

18 B 36 C
82

References

http://www.healthofchildren.com/P/Psychological-Tests.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Psychological_testing

https://funpsychology.wordpress.com/psychological-testing/achievement-tests/
https://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/india-2/education-india-2/achievement-tests-for-students-
education/90050
https://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/statistics-2/teacher-made-test-meaning-features-and-uses-
statistics/92607
https://teaching.uncc.edu/services-programs/teaching-guides/course-design/blooms-educational-
objectives
https://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/statistics-2/essay-test-types-advantages-and-limitations-
statistics/92656

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