417 PDF Thi

CCNA 200-125 417Q
Number: 200-125
Passing Score: 810
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 1.0
Editor by Vô Thần !!!

LoL: Wolf_HL
Exam
QUESTION 1
Which definition of a default route is true?
A. a route to the exact /32 destination address

B. a route used when a route to the destination network is missing
C. a dynamic route learned from a server
D. a route that is manually configured
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which value must you configure on a device before EIGRP for IPv6 can start running?
A. process ID
B. loopback interface
C. public IP address
D. router ID
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. blocking
C. forwarding
D. desirable
E. on
F. auto
Correct Answer: DEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?
A. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches

B. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch
E. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Which feature is configured by setting a variance that is at least two times the metric?
A. path selection
B. equal cost load balancing
C. path count
D. unequal cost load balancing
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 6
When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router, which three router configuration checks you
must perform? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the router firmware is up-to-date.

B. Verify that a default route is configured
C. Verify that the router interface IP address is correct
D. Verify that the router and the host use the same subnet mask
E. Verify that the route appears in the routing table.
F. Verify that the DNS is configured correctly.
Correct Answer: CDE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which three statements about link-state routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. Updates are sent to a broadcast address

B. OSPF is a link-state protocol.
C. Routes are updated when a change in topology occurs.
D. It uses split horizon.
E. Updates are sent to a multicast address by default.
F. RIP is a link-state protocol.
Correct Answer: BCE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 8
What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)
A. on
B. desirable
C. client
D. auto
E. forwarding
F. transparent
Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been
completed?
A. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.

B. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
C. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change
D. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which state does the port-channel interface enter when LACP is misconfigured on the interface?
A. disabled
B. errdisable
C. enabled
D. forwarding
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 11
When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, how does the interface respond when it
receives a BPDU?
A. It goes into an errdisable state

B. It continues operating normally.
C. It goes into a down/down state
D. It becomes the root bridge for the configured VLAN
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which two statements about MPLS are true? (Choose two.)
A. It uses labels to separate and forward customer traffic.

B. It encapsulates all traffic m an IPv4 header
C. It provides automatic authentication.
D. It can carry mutiple protocols, including IPv4 and IPv6
E. It tags customer traffic using 802.1q
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 13
Which statement about recovering a password on a Cisco router is true?
A. It requires a secure SSLVPN connection.

B. A factory reset is required if you forget the password.
C. It requires physical access to the router
D. The default reset password is cisco.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. You determine that Computer A cannot ping Computer B.
A. The default gateway address for Computer B is incorrect
B. The subnet mask for Computer B is incorrect
C. The subnet mask for Computer A is incorrect
D. The default gateway address for Computer A is incorrect
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 15
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which three options are switchport configurations that can always avoid duplex mismatch errors between
two switches? (Choose three.)
A. Set both sides of the connection to full duplex

B. Set one side of the connection to auto negotiate and the other side to half duplex
C. Set one side of the connection to auto-negotiate and the other side of full duplex
D. Set both sides of the connection to auto negotiate
E. Set both sides of the connection to half duplex
F. Set one side of the connection to full duplex and the other side to half duplex
Correct Answer: ADE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 17
For which two reasons might you choose chassis aggregation instead of stacking switches? (Choose two.)
A. to increase the maximum port count

B. to avoid the use of a centralized configuration manager
C. to increase the number of device in use
D. to avoid relying society on Ethernet interfaces
E. to allow host-swapping modules
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 18
Which task must you perform to enable an IOS device to use DNS services?
A. Configure the relay agent information option

B. Configure a name server.
C. Configure a relay agent information reforwarding policy
D. Configure manual bindings
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 19
Which two statements about configuring an EtherChannel on a Cisco switch are true? (Choose two.)
A. The interfaces configured in the EtherChannel must operate at the speed and duplex mode.
B. The interfaces configured in the EtherChannel must be on the same physical switch.
C. The interfaces configured in the EtherChannel must be part of the same VLAN or trunk.
D. The interfaces configured in the EtherChannel must have same STP port path cost
E. An EtherChannel can operate in Layer 2 mode only.
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 20
Which two statements about Cisco Discovery Protocol are true? (Choose two.)
A. It runs on the data link layer only

B. It uses SNMP to share device information to an external server.
C. It is used to initiate a VTP server and client relationship.
D. It uses TLVs to share device information
E. It runs on the network layer and the data link layer.
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 21
Which two criteria must be met to support the ICMP echo IP SLA? (Choose two.)
A. The destination device must support the echo protocol

B. The source device must be a Cisco device but the destination device can be from any vendor.
C. A default gateway must be configured for the Source and destination devices
D. The Source and destination devices must be Cisco devices.
E. The source device must be running Layer 2 services.
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 22
Which two statements about EUl-64 addressing are true? (Choose two.)
A. The addresses includes the hex digits FFFE after the first 24 bits of the interface MAC address
B. A 96-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address
C. A 64-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address.
D. The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the last 24 bits of the interface MAC address
E. A locally administered addresses has the universal/local bit set to 0.
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 23
If you change the weight and distance parameters on a device with an established BGP neighbor, which
additional task must you perform to allow the two devices to continue exchange routers?
A. Reset the BGP connections on the device.

B. Reset the gateway interface.
C. Clear the IP routes on the device
D. Change the weight and distance settings on the other device to match
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 24
Which two statements about IPV6 anycast addresses are true? (Choose two.)
A. They are allocated from the IPv6 broadcast address space

B. They use the prefix FC00::/8
C. They receive packets on the closest interface that is discovered by the routing protocol.
D. They are allocated from the IPv6 unicast address space.
E. They are used in conjuction with the source-specific multicast for IPv6
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 25
Which two QoS tools can provide congestion management? (Choose two.)
A. PQ
B. CAR
C. FRTS
D. CBWFQ
E. PBR
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 26
Which two features can you enable on a switch to capture and analyze frames that transit an interface?
(Choose two.)
A. SNMP
B. IP SLA
C. SPAN
D. NetFlow
E. RSPAN
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 27
Which two characteristics of an ICMP echo-based IP SLA are true? (Choose two.)
A. It can use RSPAN to report network statistics to a designated remote port.

B. It aggregates traffic statistic for reporting on a configuration basis.
C. It requires a remote device to log and rnaintain collected data.
D. It generates continuous traffic to monitor network performance
E. It measures traffic to determine the reliability of a connection from a Cisco router to a designated end
device.
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 28
Which two benefits of implementing a full-mesh WAN topology are true? (Choose two.)
A. reliability
B. improved scalability
C. reduce jitter
D. redundancy
E. increased latency
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 29
Which two addresses are defined as private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. 10.172.76.200
B. 172.15.2.250
C. 192.169.32.10
D. 172.31.255.100
E. 12.17.1.20
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 30
Which two statements about stacking Cisco switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. Each switch manages its own MAC address table

B. When a new master switch is elected It queries the previous master for its running configuration
C. The administrator can create only one stack of switch of switches in a network which is under the same
administrative domain
D. The administrator can add additional switches to the stack as demand increases
E. It enables the administrator to manage multiple switches from a single management interface.
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 31
Which technology allows a large number of private IP addresses to be represented by a smaller number of
public IP addresses?
A. NAT
B. NTP
C. RFC 1918
D. RFC 1631
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 32
Which two statements about stateful firewalls in an enterprise network are true? (Choose two.)
A. They are most effective when placed in front of the router connected to the Internet.
B. They can track the number of active TCP connections
C. They are more susceptible to Dos attacks than stateless firewalls.
D. They can filter HTTP and HTTPS traffic in the inbound direction only
E. They can use information about previous packets to make decisions about future packets
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 33
Which protocol does ipv6 use to discover other ipv6 nodes on the same segment?
A. NHRP
B. NDP
C. ARP
D. CLNS
E. TCPv6
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 34
In which STP state does MAC address learning take place on a PortFast-enabled port?
A. forwarding
B. learning
C. discarding
D. listening
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 35
What is the most efficient subnet mask for a point to point ipv6 connection?
A. /32
B. /48
C. /64
D. /127
E. /128
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 36
Which two pieces of information can be shared with LLDP TLVs? (Choose two)
A. spanning-tree topology
B. access-list configuration
C. routing configuration
D. device type
E. device management address.
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 37
After you configure the ip dns spoofing command globally on a device, under which two conditions is DNS
spoofing enabled on the device? (Choose two.)
A. All configured IP name server addresses are removed

B. The no ip domain lookup command is configured
C. The ip dns spoofing command is disabled on the local interface
D. The DNS server queue limit is disabled.
E. The ip host command is disabled.
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 38
Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?
A. inside public
B. outside global
C. inside global
D. inside local
E. outside local
F. outside public
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 39
Which two statements about LLDP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is a Cisco-proprietary technology
B. It uses mandatory TLVs to discover the neighboring devices.
C. It functions at Layer 2 and Layer 3.
D. It enables systems to learn about one another over the data-link layer.
E. It is implemented in accordance with the 802.11 a specification
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Which commands can you can enter to verify that a router is synced with a configured time source?
A. ntp authenticate
B. show ntp authenticate
C. show ntp associations
D. ntp associations
E. ntp server timer
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 41
A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3.
What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.)
A. debug
B. informational
C. warning
D. error
E. emergency
F. critical
Correct Answer: DEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 42
What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access list?
A. It can disable the overload command.

B. It can lead to overloaded resources on the router
C. It prevents the correct translation of IP addresses on the inside network.
D. it can cause too many addresses to be assigned to the same interface.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 43
Which two benefits can you get by stacking Cisco switches? (Choose two.)
A. You can license the entire stack with a single master license
B. Each switch in the stack handles the MAC table independently from the others.
C. You can add or remove switches without talking the stack down.
D. The stack enables any active member to talk over as the master switch if the existing master fails.
E. Each switch in the stack can use a different IOS image.
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 44
Which configuration register value can you set on a Cisco device so that it ignores the NVRAM when it
boots?
A. 0x2124
B. 0x2102
C. 0x2142
D. 0x2120
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 45
What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?
A. capture
B. get
C. response
D. trap
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 46
A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The
company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet
Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate
addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A. 255.255 255.0
B. 255.255.248.0
C. 255.255.255.128
D. 255.255.255.0
E. 255.255.255.224
F. 255.255.255.192
Correct Answer: CF
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 47
Which NAT function can map multiple inside addresses to a single outside address?
A. PAT
B. ARP
C. TFTP
D. SFTP
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 48
Which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83d:4079::/64 are true? (Choose three)
A. The global ID is 14920bf83d

B. The global ID is 4079
C. The address is a unique local address
D. The subnet ID is 4079
E. The address is a link-local address
F. The subnet ID is 14920bf83d
Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 49
What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?
A. community strings
B. CBC-DES
C. HMAC-SHA
D. HMAC-MD5
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit
A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this
design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?
A. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

B. This design will function as intended
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
E. Spanning-tree will need to be used
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 51
Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 2002:7654:A1AO:61:81AF:CCC1
B. FECO:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
C. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
D. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 52
Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit.
Which three ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth?
(Choose three.)
A. Switch C - Fa0/1
B. Switch A - Fa0/0
C. Switch B - Fa0/0
D. Switch A - Fa0/1
E. Switch B - Fa0/1
F. Switch C - Fa0/0
Correct Answer: CDE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 53
Which command can you enter to display duplicate IP addresses that the DHCP server assigns?
A. show ip dhcp binding 10.0.2.12

B. show ip dhcp conflict 10.0.2.12
C. show ip dhcp server statistics
D. show ip dhcp database 10.0.2.12
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 54
A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this network use
to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses?
A. 192.168.1.64/27
B. 192.168.1.56/27
C. 192.168.1.64/26
D. 192.168.1.56/26
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 55
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run
RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port
roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root

B. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
C. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
F. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
Correct Answer: CEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 56
If the devices produced the given output, what is the cause of the EtherChannel problem?
A. There is an MTU mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces.
B. SW1's Fa0/1 interface is administratively shut down.
C. There is an encapsulation mismatch between SW1 's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces
D. There is a speed mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 57
Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
A. NHRP
B. IPv6 stateless autoconfiguratlon
C. DHCP
D. IPv6 stateful autocorfiqurauon
E. ISATAP tunneling
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 58
Which two types of NAT addresses are used in a Cisco NAT device? (Choose two.)
A. inside private
B. outside private
C. inside local
D. external global
E. inside global
F. external local
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 59
Which three commands are required to enable NTP authentication on a Cisco router? (Choose three).
A. ntp authentication-key
B. ntp authenticate
C. ntp max-associations
D. ntp peer
E. ntp trusted-key
F. ntp refclock
Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 60
Which two IP SLA operations can you use to measure the end-to-end response time for all IP traffic
between a Cisco router and an end device?
A. UDP echo
B. UDP Jitter
C. TCP connect
D. ICMP path echo
E. ICMP path Jitter
F. ICMP echo
Correct Answer: AF
Section: (none)
Explanation
httpsJ/www.cisco.com/den/usltd/docs/ios-xmllios/ipsla/configuration/15-mt/sla-15-mt-book/
sla_icmp_echo.html
QUESTION 61
Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)
A. Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping.
B. Utilizing Syslog improves network performance.
C. There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP trap
messages.
D. A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log fies without using router disk space.
E. A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.
F. The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems.
Correct Answer: CDE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 62
Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.)
A. FE80::/8 is used for link-local unicast

B. FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast
C. 2001::1/127 is used for loopback addresses.
D. FECO::/10 is used for IPv6 broadcast
E. FF00:/8 is used for IPv6 multicast
F. FC00::/7 is used in private networks.
Correct Answer: BEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 63
Which logging command can enable administrators to correlate syslog messages with millisecond
precision?
A. logging host 10.2.0.21

B. logging buffered 4
C. no logging console
D. no logging monitor
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 64
Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. broadcast
B. anycast
C. podcast
D. multicast
E. allcast
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 65
Which statement is true?
A. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.

B. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.
C. The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA rs the root bridge for VLAN 20
D. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 66
Refer to the diagram
All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in
use in the network? (Choose three.)
A. The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses

B. The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
C. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128
D. The IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
E. The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address.
F. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192
Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 67
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-
in security mechanisms?
A. PPP
B. X.25
C. Frame Relay
D. HDLC
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 68
What is the authoritative source for an address lookup?
A. the ISP local cache

B. a recursive DNS search
C. the browser cache
D. the operating system cache
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 69
Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface Serial 0/2/0 has been configured
using HDLC encapsulation?
A. router#show platform
B. router#show interfaces Serial 0/2/0
C. router#show ip interface Serial 0/2/0
D. router#show ip interface brief
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 70
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment
B. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a
segment
C. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
D. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host
addresses and protocol-related control information
E. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control
information.
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 71
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted

B. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.
C. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP
D. The connection is established before data is transmitted.
E. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection
F. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device
Correct Answer: BDF
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 72
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly
connected Cisco devices?
A. cdp run
B. cdp enable
C. enable run
D. run cdp
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 73
In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written?
(Choose two.)
A. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B
B. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:572B
C. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:572B
D. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
E. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:572B
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 74
Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)
A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured

B. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself
C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
D. The ISP is blocking the traffic
E. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic
F. The tunnel interface is down.
Correct Answer: BCF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 75
Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
A. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth
B. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts
C. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
D. It is bandwidth-intensive.
E. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 76
Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS image to load into the router?
A. bootstrap
B. ROMMON mode
C. POST
D. mini-lOS
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 77
During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed?
A. the Active Discovery phase

B. the PPP Session phase
C. Phase 2
D. the Authentication phase
E. Phase 1
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 78
Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies

B. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
D. EIGRP, OSPF and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
E. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 79
Which type of device can be replaced by the use of subinterfaces for VLAN routing?
A. router
B. Layer 3 switch
C. Layer 2 switch
D. Layer 2 bridge
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 80
Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?
A. runts
B. deferred
C. late collisions
D. CRC errors
E. giants
F. no earner
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 81
What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same
network infrastructure.
B. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network
traffic.
C. Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1 Q trunks.
D. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the
same broadcast domain.
E. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same
network infrastructure.
F. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their
size.
G. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing
their size.
Correct Answer: ABF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 82
When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing table, how does it handle the packet?
A. It sends the packet to the gateway of the last resort

B. It discards the packet
C. It sends the packet over the route with the best metric.
D. It sends the packet to the next hop address
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 83
Refer to the exhibit. Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on the interface?
A. router#show ip protocols
B. router#show startup-config
C. router#show interface gig 0/1
D. router#show line
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 84
Which type of routing protocol operates by exchanging the entire routing information?
A. exterior gateway protocols

B. distance-vector protocols
C. path-vector protocols
D. link-state protocols
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 85
When troubleshooting client DNS issues, which two tasks must you perform? (Choose two)
A. Determine whether the hardware address is correct.

B. Determine whether the name servers have been configured.
C. Determine whether a DHCP address has been assigned.
D. Ping a public website IP address.
E. Ping the DNS server.
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 86
Which two steps must you perform on each device that is configured for IPv4 routing before you implement
OSPFv3? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a loopback interface.

B. Configure an autonomous system number.
C. Enable IPv6 on an interface.
D. Configure a router ID.
E. Enable IPv6 unicast routing.
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 87
Which functionality does split horizon provide?
A. It prevents routing loops in link-state protocols

B. It prevents routing loops in distance-vector protocols
C. It prevents Switching loops in distance-vector protocols.
D. It prevents switching loops in link-state protocols
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 88
Which statement about SNMPv2 is true?
A. Its privacy algorithms use MOS encryption by default

B. It requires passwords to be encrypted
C. Its authentication and privacy algorithms are enabled without default values.
D. It requires passwords at least eight characters in length
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 89
Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)
A. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted
B. They may indicate a duplex mismatch
C. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes
D. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.
E. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 90
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address
B. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwardinq decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3
address information
C. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain
one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will
have only one root port.
F. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains
Correct Answer: DEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 91
Which function does traffic shaping perform?
A. It buffers and queues excess packets

B. It drops packets to control the output rate.
C. It buffers traffic without queuing it
D. It queues traffic without buffering it
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 92
Which two options are fields is an Ethernet frame? (Choose two)
A. frame check sequence

B. destination IP address
C. source IP address
D. header
E. type
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 93
Which two statements about Ethernet standards are true? (Choose two.)
A. Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.2

B. Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.3
C. Ethernet 10BASE-T does not support full-duplex
D. When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CA, it terminates transmission as soon as a collision occurs
E. When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CD, it terminates transmission as soon as a collision occurs
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 94
Which symptom most commonly indicates that two connecting interfaces are configured with a duplex
mismatch?
A. an interface with a down/down status

B. collisions on the interface
C. the spanning-tree process shutting down
D. an interface with an up/down status
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 95
What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?
A. speed
B. trunk encapsulation
C. duplex
D. DTP negotiation settings
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 96
Which characteristics are representatives of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. exchanges routing tables with neighbors

B. calculates shortest path
C. utilizes frequent periodic updates
D. utilizes event-triggered updates
E. provides common view of entire topology
Correct Answer: BDE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 97
Which two statements about firewalls are true? (Choose two.)
A. They can be used with an intrusion prevention system

B. They can limit unauthorized user access to protected data
C. They can prevent attacks from the Internet only
D. They must be placed only at locations where the private network connects to the Internet
E. Each wireless access point requires its own firewall
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 98
Which port security mode can assist with troubleshooting by keeping count of violations?
A. protect
B. shutdown
C. restrict
D. access
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 99
When is a routing table entry identified as directly connected?
A. when the router is statically assigned to reach a specific network

B. when an interface on the router is configured with an IP address and enabled
C. when the network resides on a remote router that is physically connected to the local router
D. when the local router is in use as the network's default gateway
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 100
Which three options are types of IPv6 static routes? (Choose three.)
A. recursive static routes

B. redistributed static routes
C. fully specified static routes
D. directly connected static routes
E. injected static routes
F. dynamically specified static routes
Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 101
Which two options are requirements for configuring RIPv2 on an IPv4 network router? (Choose two.)
A. connecting RIP to a WAN interface

B. enabling RIP on the router
C. enabling automatic route summarization
D. enabling RIP authentication
E. allowing unicast updates for RIP
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 102
Refer to the exhibit. You have discovered that computers on the 19.168.10.0/24 network can ping their
default gateway, but they cannot connect to an resources on a remote network. Which reason tor the
problem is most likely true?
A. The OSPF area number is incorrect

B. The 192.168.12.0/24 network is missing from OSPF
C. The OSPF process ID is incorrect
D. An ARP table entry is missing for 192.168.10.0.
E. A VLAN number is incorrect for 192.168.10.0.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 103
Which two options are primary responsibilties of the APIC-EM controller?
A. it automates network actions between legacy equipment

B. it tracks license usage and Cisco IOS versions
C. it automates network actions between different device types.
D. it provides robust asset management
E. it makes network functions programmable
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 104
Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)
A. It authenticates against the user database on the local device.

B. It is enabled on Cisco routers by default
C. It can run on a UNIX server.
D. It uses a managed database
E. It is more secure than AAA authentication.
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 105
Which type of cable must you use to connect two devices with MDI interfaces?
A. rolled
B. straight-through
C. crossover
D. crossed
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 106
Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose two)
A. It requires only one IP address per VLAN

B. It reduce management overhead
C. It requires only three IP addresses per VLAN
D. It supports redundant configuration files
E. It supports HSRP VRRP and GLBP
F. Switches can be located anywhere regardless of their physical distance from one another.
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
httpsJ/www.9tutcom/switch-stacking-chassis-aggregation
QUESTION 107
Which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27?
A. Class D
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class A
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 108
Which option is the industry-standard protocol for EtherChannel?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol

B. LACP
C. DTP
D. PagP
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 109
Which statement about spanning-tree root-bridge election is true?
A. It is always performed automatically

B. Each VLAN must have its own root bridge
C. Every VLAN must use the same root bridge
D. Every root bridge must reside on the same root switch
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 110
Which two options are features of the extended ping command? (Choose two.)
A. It can send packets from a specified interface or IP address
B. It can count the number of hops to the remote host
C. It can send a specified number of packets
D. It can ping multiple hosts as the same time
E. It can resolve the destination host name
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 111
When you deploy Multiplelink PPP on your network, where you must configure the group IP address on
each device?
A. under the multi link interface

B. under the serial interface
C. under the routing protocol
D. in the global configuration
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 112
Which technology can provide security when connecting multiple sites across the internet?
A. MPLS
B. site-to-site VPN
C. DMVPN
D. EBGP
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 113
Which port security violation mode allows traffic from valid MAC addresses to pass but blocks traffic from
invalid MAC address?
A. shutdown
B. shutdown VLAN
C. restrict
D. protect
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 114
Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?
A. in the VLAN database

B. in the MAC address table
C. in the DHCP binding database
D. in the CAM table
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 115
Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric for the route from R1 to 192.168.10.1?
A. 90
B. 52778
C. 2
D. 110
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 116
Which two statements about data VLANs on access ports are true? (Choose two.)
A. Exactly one VLAN can be configured on the interface

B. They can be configured as host ports
C. Two or more VLANs can be configured on the interface
D. They can be configured as trunk ports
E. 802.1 Q encapsulation must be configured on the interface.
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 117
Which type of routing protocol operates by using first-hand information from each device's peers?
A. exterior gateway protocols

B. link-state protocols
C. distance vector protocols
D. path vector protocols
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 118
A BPDU guard is configured on an interface that has PortFast enabled. Which state does the interface
enter when it receives a BPDU?
A. blocking
B. listening
C. errdisable
D. shutdown
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 119
Which three options are the major components of a network virtualization architecture? (Choose three.)
A. path isolation
B. authentication services
C. network access control
D. network resilience
E. virtual network services
F. policy enforcement
Correct Answer: ACE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 120
Refer to the exhibit. Which command do you enter so that R1 advertises the Loopback0 interface to the
BGP peers?
A. network 172.16.1.32 0.0 0 31

B. network 172.16.1.0.0.0.255
C. network 172.16.1 32 255.255 255 224
D. network 172.16.1.33 mask 255.255.255.224
E. network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224
F. network 172.16.1.32 mask 0.0.0.31
Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 121
Which two statements about the extended traceroute command are true? (Choose two.)
A. it can use a specified TTL value

B. it can be repeated automatically at a specified interval
C. it can send packets from a specified interface or IP address
D. it can validate the reply data
E. it can use a specified ToS.
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 122
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)
A. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet

B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
D. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
E. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
F. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 123
Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains
B. They increase the size of collision domains
C. They simplify switch administration
D. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
E. They can enhance network security
F. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.
Correct Answer: DEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 124
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?
A. 0000.0C07.AC15
B. 0000.SE00.01A3
C. 0007.SE00.8301
D. 0007.8400.AE01
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 125
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a
Cisco switch?
A. 2 through 1005
B. 1 through 1002
C. 2 through 1001
D. 1 through 1001
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 126
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. disabled
B. listening
C. discarding
D. learning
E. forwarding
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 127
How should the FastEthemeto/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be
configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
A. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1

SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
B. the ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
C. SwitchX(config)# intertace fastethemet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# swllchport node trunk
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trun ... vlan 20
D. SwilchX(config)# interface fastethemet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 128
Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?
A. internet
B. network
C. transport
D. application
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 129
Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)
A. to reduce the complexity of router configuration

B. to reduce routing overhead
C. to confine network instability to single areas of the network
D. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
E. to speed up convergence
F. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
Correct Answer: BCE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 130
Which keyword enables an HSRP router to take the active role immediately when it comes online?
A. Preempt
B. Version
C. Priority
D. IP address
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 131
Which PPP subprotocol negotates authentcaton optons?
A. LCP
B. DLCI
C. NCP
D. SLIP
E. ISDN
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 132
Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two.)
A. FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards.

B. FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses.
C. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1
D. FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link
E. Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disabled
F. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5
Correct Answer: DF
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 133
Under which circumstance is a router on a stick most appropriate?
A. when the router must route a single subnet across a single physical link B
B. when the router must route a single subnet across multiple physical links
C. when the router must route multiple subnets across a single physical link
D. when the router must route multiple subnets across multiple physical links
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 134
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1 Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.

B. 802 1 Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity
C. 802.1 Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends
D. 802 1 Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces
E. 802.1 Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
Correct Answer: CDE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 135
Refer to the exhibit. If computer A is sending traffic to computer B. which option is the source IP address
when a packet leaves R1 on interface F0/1?
A. IP address of the R2 interface F0/1

B. IP address of computer A
C. IP address of computer B
D. IP address of the R1 interface F0/1
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 136
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A. There are seven collision domains in the network.
B. There are four collision domains in the network
C. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are five collision domains in the network
E. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
F. There are four broadcast domains in the network
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 137
Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features.

B. SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
C. SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP
D. SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP
E. SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP
F. SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 138
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.

B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12
C. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
D. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
E. If a global address is assigned to an interface then that is the only allowable address for the interface.
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 139
What is one benefit of PVST+?
A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops

B. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location to provide optmized bandwidth usage.
C. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network
D. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optmized per VLAN
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 140
Which command can you enter on a switch to determine the current SNMP security model?
A. show snmp group

B. show snmp pending
C. show snmp enginelD
D. snmp-server contract
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 141
What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a
spanning-tree topology?
A. VTP revision number

B. highest port priority number
C. lowest port MAC address
D. path cost
E. port priority number and MAC address
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Answer: D
QUESTION 142
Which option describes a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?
A. full-mesh capability
B. simplicity of configuration
C. low cost
D. flexibility of design
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 143
Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)
A. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval
B. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an adrnirustranve form of load balancing.
C. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses on the LAN.
D. The virtual IP address and virtual MAC+K44C address are active on the HSRP Master router.
E. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication
F. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on the same
LAN.
Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 144
Which option is the main function of congestion management?
A. discarding excess traffic

B. classifying traffic
C. queuing traffic based on priority
D. providing long term storage of buffered data
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 145
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two)
A. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes

B. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates
C. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors
D. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases
E. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router
F. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links
Correct Answer: FG
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 146
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router?
A. show interface status

B. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
C. show interface switchport
D. show ip interface brief
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 147
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
A. when there is a carrier

B. when the server grants access
C. when they receive a special token
D. when the medium is idle
E. when they detect no other devices are sending
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 148
Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?
A. It eliminates the need for a GSS

B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
C. It reduces the need for a backup data center
D. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 149
What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three.)
A. no broadcasts
B. complicated header
C. autoconfiguration
D. checksums
E. optional IPsec
F. plug-and-play
Correct Answer: ACF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 150
Which address block identifies all link-local addresses?
A. FF00::/8
B. FC00::/8
C. FE80::/10
D. FC00::/7
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 151
Router R1 has a static route that is configured to a destination network. A directty connected interface is
configured with an IP address in the same destination network. Which statement about R1 is true?
A. R1 prefers the directly connected interface

B. R1 refuses to advertise the dynamic route to the other neighbors
C. R1 sends a withdrawal notification to the neighboring router
D. R1 prefers the static route
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 152
How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing from the routing table?
A. it routes the packet to the default route

B. it discards the packet
C. it broadcasts the packet to each network on the router
D. it broadcasts the packet to each interface on the router
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 153
Which IEEE standard protocol is initated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast
A. 802.1W
B. 802.1Q
C. 802.1AD
D. 802.1D
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 154
What is the first step in the NAT configuration process?
A. Define inside and outside interfaces

B. Define global and local interfaces
C. Define pubic and private IP addresses
D. Define IP address pools
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 155
Which MAC protocol sets random timer to reattempt communication?
A. RARP
B. CSMA/CD
C. CSMA/CA
D. IEEE 802.1x
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 156
Which type of secure MAC address must be configured manually?
A. dynamic
B. bia
C. sticky
D. static
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 157
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing
departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new
VLAN on the switch?
A. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously

B. More collision domains will be created
C. IP address utilization will be more efficient
D. An addmonal broadcast domain will be created.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 158
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch
C. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
D. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 159
Which RPVST+ port state is excluded from all STP operations?
A. forwardinq
B. learning
C. blocking
D. disabled
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 160
To enable router on a stick on a router subinterface, which two steps must you perform? (Choose two.)
A. Configure an IP route to the VLAN destmatiion network.

B. Configure encapsulation dot1q
C. Configure the subinterface with an IP address.
D. Configure full duplex and speed
E. Configure a default to the route traffic between suomtertaces.
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 161
While troubleshooting a GRE tunnel interface issue, show interface command output displays tunnel status
up, but line protocol is down. Which reason for this problem is the most likely?
A. The route to the tunnel destination address is through the tunnel itself
B. The next hop server is misconfigured
C. The tunnel was just reset
D. The interface has been administratively shut down.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 162
Which command can you use to test whether a switch supports secure connections and strong
authentication?
A. Router>ssh-v2-I admin 10.1.1.1

B. Router#ssh-v1-I admin 10.1.1.1
C. Switch>ssh-v1-I admin 10.1.1.1
D. Switch#ssh-l admin 10.1.1.1
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 163
Which type of access list compares source and destination IP addresses?
A. Extended
B. Standard
C. IP named
D. Reflexive
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 164
Which command is needed to send RIPv2 updates as broadcast when configured for
RIPv2?
A. IP RIP V2-BROADCAST
B. version 2
C. ip rip recevie version 1
D. ip rip receive version 2
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 165
Which two statements about GRE tunnels are true?(choose two)
A. They can operate in tunnel mode and transport mod

B. They provide privacy, integrity, and authenticity
C. They encapsulate the payload
D. They allow multicast traffic to traverse WAN circuits
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 166
Which two descriptions of TACACS+ are true ?(choose two)
A. it can authorize specific router commands

B. it combines authentication and authorization
C. it encrypts only the password
D. it uses UDP as its transort protocol
E. it separates authentication, authorization, and accounting functions
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 167
Which two features can you enable on a switch to capture network traffic and measure
performance?(choose two)
A. SNMP
B. IP SLA
C. STP
D. ACL
E. SPAN
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 168
Which two features can mitigate spanning tree issues that are caused by broken fiber
cables on interswitch links?( choose two)
A. DTP
B. root guard
C. udld
D. tool guard
E. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 169
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three)
A. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 checksum field.

B. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers
C. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPV4 Fragmentation field
F. IPv6 header use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field
Correct Answer: ACE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 170
which utility can you use to identify redundant or shadow or shadow rules?
A. the ACL analysis tool in Cisco APIC-EM

B. the ACL trace tool in Cisco APIC-EM
C. the Cisco APIC-EM automation scheduler
D. the Cisco IWAN application
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 171
which two statement about link-state routing protocols are true?(choose two)
A. each router determines its own path to a destination

B. each router shares a database of known routes
C. each router maintains its own unique routing database
D. each router is aware only of its neighbor routers
E. link-state routing protocols use split horizon to avoid routing loops
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 172
which command can you enter on a switch to display the IP addresses associated with
connected devices?
A. show cdp traffic

B. show cdp neighbors detail
C. Show cdp neighbors
D. show cdp interface
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 173
which IPv6 address is the all router multicast group?
A. FF02::2
B. FF02::1
C. FF02::4
D. FF02::3
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 174
Refer to the exhibit The network administrator normally established a Telnet session with
the switch from host A. However, host A is unavailable The administrator's attempt to
telnet to the switch from host B fails but pings to the other two hosts are successful.
What is the issue?
A. The switch interfceconneded to the router is down

B. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned
C. Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet
D. The switch interfaces need to appropriate IP address assigned
E. Host 8 needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN1
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 175
After you configure a DHCP server on VLAN 10 to service clients on VLAN 20 ,clients on
vlan 10 are given IP address assignments, but clients on VLAN 20 fail to recevie IP
addresses , Which action must you take to correct the problem?
A. configure the DNS name option in the DHCP server configuration

B. configure a separate DHCP sever on server on VLAN20
C. configure a separate DHCP sever configuration
D. configure the default gateway in the DHCP server configuration
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 176
Refer to the exhibit The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or
green. Which three would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer
problem? (Choose three)
A. Ensure the switch has power

B. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and
switch ports.
C. Reboot all of the device
D. Reseat all cables
E. Ensure cable A. is plugged into a trunk port
F. Ensure that cables A and B are straight through cables.
Correct Answer: ADF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 177
Which IEEE mechanism is responsible for the authentication of devices when they
attempt to connect to a local network?
A. 802.1x
B. 802.2x
C. 802.3x
D. 802.11
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 178
which extended ping option do you use to specify the path that the packet traverses?
A. strict
B. verbose
C. record
D. timestamp
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 179
Which two statements about single and dual homed links are true? ( choose two)
A. Single-homed connections to a service provider can use either static routing or BGP
B. Dual-homed connections to a service provider most frequently use static routing
C. Dual-homed connections to multiple service providers can use OSPF or EIGRP for
load balancing
D. Single-homed connections to a service provider require OSPF or EIGRP
E. Dual-homed connection to multiple service providers typically use BGP
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 180
Which two circumstance can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor
adjacency? (Choose two.)
A. Mismatched hello timers and dead timers

B. Use of the same router ID on both devices
C. Mismatched autonomous system numbers
D. An ACL blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.10
E. Mismatched process IDs
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 181
Refer to the exhibit. Which two pieces of information can you determine from the EIGRP
topology table? ( Choose two.)
A. Each route has only one best path
B. Route 10.42.91.0/24 has a tag of 28160
C. Route 10.42.88.0/21 has an administrative distance of
28160
D. The RIGRP neighbor IP address is 10.111.253.216
E. The EIGRP neighbor IP address is 10.111.253.216
F. The reported distance of 10.0.0.0/8 is 0
Correct Answer: AF
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 182
Which layer of the TCP/IP model manages the transmission of binary digits across an
Ethernet Cable?
A. Physical
B. Transport
C. Network
D. Data link
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 183
Which value is included in the initial TCP SYN message?
A. An acknowledgment number
B. A sequence number
C. A TTL number
D. A session ID
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 184
A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific
username and password so that the user can access the entire network over the
internet. Which ACL can be used?
A. Extended
B. Standard
C. Reflexive
D. Dynamic
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 185
Which two approaches are common when troubleshooting network issues? (Choose
two.)
A. Policing
B. Layer-by-layer
C. Divide and conquer
D. Top-down
E. Round-robin
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 186
Which two values are needed to run the APIC-EM ACL Analysis tool? (Choose two.)
A. Periodic refresh interval

B. Destination port
C. Protocol
D. Source port
E. Destination address
F. Source address
Correct Answer: EF
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 187
What two actions can be taken to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router?
( Choose two.)
A. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process

B. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interface with the access-
group command
C. Administratively shut down the interface
D. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-
class-command
E. Physically secure the interface
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 188
in a CDP environment, What happens when the CDP interface on an adjacent device is
configured without an IP address?
A. CDP uses the IP address of another interface for that neighbor

B. COP operates normally, but is cannot provide any information for that neighbor
C. CDP operates normally, but it cannot provide IP address information for that
neighbor
D. CDP becomes inoperable on that neighbor
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 189
A. Source 192.168.20.10 and destination 192.168.20 1
B. Source 192.168/10/10 and destination 10.10.2.2
C. Source 10.10.1.1 and destination 10.10.2 2
D. Source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 190
A. The path through R2, because the EBGP administrative distance is 20
B. The path through R1, because the OSPF administrative distance 110
C. The path through R2, because the IBGP administrative distance is 200
D. The path through R2, because the EIGRP administrative distance is lower than the
OSPF and BGP adminisfrawe distance
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 191
Which feature or method can you use to isolate physical layer problems on a serial link?
A. Autonegotiation
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Loopback test
D. UDLD
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 192
Which two statements about DNS lookup operations are true? (Choose two.)
A. When the primary IP address of the destination is down, the DNS server can forward
the client to an alternate IP address
B. They use destination port 53
C. The client sends a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS
server
D. The client sends a request for a domain name to IP address resolution to the DNS
server
E. The DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 193
A. VLAN 40 is running the Per VLAN spanning Tree Protocol

B. The MAC address of the root bridge is aaaa.bbbb.cccc
C. The Fa0/11 role confirms that Switch Bis the root brodge for VLAN 40
D. Switch B is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface rotes are designated
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 194
Frame flooding can occur in which circumstance?
A. The source IP address is missing from the route table

B. The destination MAC address is missing from the CAM table
C. The source MAC address is rnissinq from the CAM table
D. The destination IP address is rnissinq from the route table
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 195
Which two statements about the routing table are true? (Choose two.)
A. It displays the distance and metric of the routes that it learns

B. It displays information about the successor and the feasible successor
C. It uses the> symbol to indicate the best route
D. It displays the metric and the reported distance of the routes that is learns
E. It uses letters such as 0, I, and D to identify how a route is learned
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 196
Which two statements about DMVPN are true? (Choose two.)
A. It creates point-to-point tunnels

B. It can operate in tunnel mode and transport mode
C. It uses a spoke-toOspoke model to create a broadcast network
D. It creates NBMA network
E. It uses NHRP to create Layer 3 to Layer 3 mappings
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 197
Which switching method helps mitigate late Collisions?
A. Fragment-free
B. Store-and-forward
C. Cur-through
D. Layer 3
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 198
What is the effect of PortFast on the MAC aging process?
A. It prevents fast aging of MAC addresses when IEEE 802.1 D is in use

B. It ignores the MAC aging timer when IEEE 802.1 D is in use
C. It ignores the MAC aging timer when RSTP is in use
D. It prevents fast aging of MAC addresses when RSTP is in use
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 199
What happens to new traffic that is sent to a destination MAC address after the MAC
aging time expires
A. It is queued
B. It is dropped
C. It is process switched
D. It is flooded
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 200
A. The mac address table will now have and additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
B. All frame arriving on 2950 Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be
forwarded out 0/1
C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch
D. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches
will not be forward out fa0/1
E. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb the first learned MAC address of
2950Switch will be forwarded our fa0/1
F. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1
Correct Answer: BF
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 201
Which technology supports multiple dynamic secure connection over an unsecure
transport network?
A. Site-to-site VPN
B. DMVPN
C. Client VPN
D. VPN
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 202
Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?
A. Hop Limit
B. Scan Timer
C. Hop Count
D. TTD
E. Flow label
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 203
Which statement about loopback testing on a route serial interface is ture?
A. Traffic is dropped with a hardware loopback, but traffic passes through the interface
with a software loopback
B. Traffic is dropped with a software loopback but traffic passes through the interface
with a hardware loopback
C. Traffic is dropped with both software loopbacks and hardware loopbacks
D. Traffic passes through the interface with both software loopback and hardware
loopbacks
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 204
Which statement about LLDP is true?
A. It is a Cisco proprietary protocol

B. It runs over the transport layer
C. It is configured in global configuration mode
D. The LLDP update frequency is a fixed value
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 205
which network appliance check the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is
legitimate?
A. The LAN controller
B. The firewall
C. The layer 2 switch
D. The load balance
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 206
Which adverse circumstance can occur when you connect full duplex devices to a
shared Ethernet hub?
A. A duplex mismatch
B. Excessive collisions
C. Alignment errors
D. Native VLAN mismatches
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 207
You are configuring a 100-Mb fast Ethernet connection between a PC and Switch.
Which action must you take to configure the speed one each of the two interfaces?
A. Set both interfaces to 100 Mb

B. Set the switch port to 100 Mb and the PC interface to auto-negotiate
C. Set both interfaces to auto-negotiate
D. Set the switch port to auto-negotiate and the PC interface to 100 Mb
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 208
When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command would you use
to verify which interface are affected by the ACL?
A. List ip interface
B. Show interface
C. Show ip interface
D. Show ip access-list
E. Show access-lists
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 209
Which two command sequences must you configure on a establish a layer 3 ether
channel with an open- standard protocol? (choose two)
A. interface port.channel 10
switchport
switchport mode trunk
B. interface Gigabit ethemet 0/0/1
channel -group 10 mode active
C. interface gigabit ethernet 0/0/1
channel -group 10 mode auto
D. interface port- channel 10
no switchort
ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0
E. interface gigabit ethernet 0/0/1
channel -group 10 mode on
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 210
Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group?
A. show hsrp
B. show interface
C. show standby
D. show sessions
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 211
Which technology provides chassis redundancy in a VSS environment?
A. multichassis ether channels

B. VRRP
C. stackwise
D. BFD
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 212
Which effect does the aaa new model configuration command have?
A. it configures the device to connect to a RADIUS server for AAA

B. it configures a local user on the device
C. it enables AAA service on the device
D. it associates a RADIUS server to an AAA group
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 213
Which command should you enter to configure a device as an NTP server?
A. ntp server
B. ntp authenticate
C. ntp master
D. ntp peer
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 214
Which command should you enter to configure a single port to prevent alternate ports
from becoming designated ports?
A. spanning-treeguard root
B. spanning-tree etherchannel misconflg
C. spanning-tree loopguard default
D. spanning-tree guard loop
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 215
Which two values can identify a switch stack on the network?( choose two)
A. the switch priority

B. the spanning tree priority
C. the management IP address of the device
D. the switch BIA
E. the bridge ID
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 216
Which chassis-aggregation technology combines two physical switches into one virtual
switch?
A. VRRP
B. stackwise
C. vss
D. LACP
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 217
After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional tasks you
consider? (choose two)
A. configure additional VLANs

B. configure additional security policies
C. deplay POE switches
D. deploy load balancers
E. configure multiple VRRP groups
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 218
Which two statements about the ip default network command are true ?(choose two)
A. it specifies the network that is used when the device cannot finds an exact match in
the routing table
B. it requires IP routing to be disabled on the device
C. it specifies the network that is used when the device finds an exact match in the
routing table
D. it requires IP routing to be enabled on the device
E. it can be configured on a layer 2 switch to specify the next hop
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 219
Which two pieces of information about a cisco device can cisco discovery protocol
communication (choose two)
A. the native VLAN

B. the trunking protocol
C. the spanning tree priorty
D. the spanning tree protocol
E. the VTP domain
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 220
Refer to the exhibit the server on this network is configured with an MTU of 9216, and
the two interface on router R 1 are configured for MTUs of 2000 and 3000, as shown,
what is the largest packet size that can pass between the workstation and the server?
A. 3000 bytes
B. 1500 bytes
C. 2000 bytes
D. 9216 bytes
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 221
Which two characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose
two.)
A. Utilizes event-triggered updates

B. Provides common view of entire topology
C. Calculates feasible path
D. Utilizes frequent periodic updates
E. Exchanges routing tables for its own routes with neighbors
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 222
Which prompt does a Cisco switch display when it is running in privileged exec mode?
A. switch#
B. switch>
C. switch(config}#
D. switch(config-lf)#
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 223
Which option is the primary purpose of traffic shaping?
A. limiting bandwidth usage

B. enabling policy-based routing
C. providing best-effort service
D. enabling dynamic flow identification
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 224
What are two advantages of static routing? (Choose two.)
A. It allows the administrator to control the path of traffic

B. It allows the network to respond immediately to changes
C. It can be implemented easily even in large environments
D. It cannot be used to load-balance traffic over multiple links
E. It produces minimal CPU load
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 225
Which benefit of implementing a dual-homed WAN connection instead of a single-homed
connection is true?
A. Only dual-homed connections enable an individual router to tolerate the loss of a

network link
B. Only dual-homed connections support OSPF in conjunction with BGP
C. Only dual-homed connections support recursive routing
D. Only dual-homed connections support split horizon with EIGRP
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 226
Under which two circumstances is a switch port that is configured with PortFast BPDU
guard error-disabled? (Choose two.)
A. when a single IP address is configured on the switch

B. when the switch receives a request for an IP address from an individual PC
C. when the switch receives a BPDU from a connected switch
D. when a connected server has more than one VLAN configured on its NIC
E. when a wireless access point running in bridge mode is connected to a switch
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 227
Which two commands can you use to verify an IP SLA? (Choose two.)
A. show ip sla statistics

B. show ip sla application
C. show ip sla reaction- configuration
D. show ip sla history
E. show ip sla configuration
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 228
For which routes does the distance bgp 10 50 70 command set the administrative
distance?
A. between BGP routes and IGP routes

B. for all BGP routes
C. for BGP external routes only
D. for BGP internal routes only
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 229
Which effect of the terminal monitor command is true?
A. It displays the configuration of the syslog server

B. It configures a syslog server
C. It puts the device into global configuration mode
D. It configures the device to log messages to the console.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 230
Which two differences between distance-vector and link-state routing protocols are true?
(Choose two)
A. Distance-vector routing protocols are less susceptible to loops than link-state

protocols
B. Only distance-vector routing protocols maintain identical topology tables on all
connected neighbors
C. Only distance-vector routing protocols send full routing table updates
D. Only link-state routing protocols use the Bellman-Ford algorithm
E. Link-state routing protocols offer faster convergence than distance-vector protocols
during network changes
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 231
Which command can you enter on a Cisco IOS device to enable a scheduled algorithm
that directs lookup calls to multiple DNS hosts?
A. ip domain lookup
B. ip domain list
C. ip name-server 192.168.10.14 192.168.10.15
D. ip domain round-robin
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 232
Which API uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different
hosts?
A. OpenFlovv
B. OpenStack
C. REST
D. OpFlex
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 233
Which two statements about IPv6 multicast addresses are true? (Choose two.)
A. They use the prefix FC80::/8

B. If the lifetime parameter is set to 1, the route is permanent
C. If the scope parameter is set to 5, the route is local to the node
D. They use the prefix FF00::/8
E. They identify a group of interfaces on different devices
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 234
Which tunneling mechanism embeds an IPv4 address within an IPv6 address?
A. Teredo
B. 6to4
C. ISATAP
D. GRE
E. 4to6
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 235
Which two services can be provided by a wireless controller? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 routing between wired and wireless devices

B. issuing IP addresses to wired devices
C. providing authentication services to users
D. managing interference in a dense network
E. mitigating threats from the Internet
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 236
You are configuring an IP SLA ICMP Echo operation to troubleshoot a network
connectivity issue. When do you enter an IP address to test the IP SLA?
A. when you define the ICMP Echo operation

B. when you verify the IP SLA operation
C. when you specify the test frequency
D. when you enable the ICMP Echo operation
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 237
On which combinations are standard access lists based?
A. source address and subnet mask

B. destination address and subnet mask
C. source address and wildcard mask
D. destination address and wildcard mask
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 238
Refer to the exhibit. Which two destination addresses will be used by Host A to send
data to Host C? (Choose two.)
A. the MAC address of Host C

B. the IP address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of the router's E0 interface
D. the MAC address of Switch 1
E. the MAC address of the router's E0 interface
F. the IP address of Host C
Correct Answer: EF
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 239
If all switches are configured with default values, which switch will take over when the
primary root bridge experiences a power loss?
A. switch 00E0.F908.6BE3
B. switch 0004.9A1A.C182
C. switch 0040.0BC0.90C5
D. switch 00E0.F726.3DC6
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 240
Which two server types are used to support DNS lookup? (Choose two.)
A. web server
B. ESX host
C. name resolver
D. authoritative name server
E. file transfer server
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 241
Refer to the exhibit. Host A cannot ping Host B. Assuming routing is property configured,
what is the cause of this problem?
A. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet
B. The address of SwitchA is a subnet address
C. HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway
D. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address
E. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can't be used
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 242
Which two advantages do dynamic routing protocols provide over static routing?
(Choose two.)
A. Dynamic routing protocols automatically adapt to reroute traffic if possible

B. Dynamic routing protocols are easier to manage on very large networks
C. Only dynamic routing is supported on all topologies that require multiple routers
D. Dynamic routing is more secure than static routing
E. Dynamic routing requires fewer resources than static routing
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 243
Which two statements about 1000BASE-T UTP cable are true? (Choose two.)
A. It uses four wires

B. Both ends of the cable can transmit and receive simultaneously
C. It is most appropriate for installations up to 1000 meters in length
D. It is most appropriate for installations up to 1000 feet in length
E. It uses four wire pairs
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 244
Which two neighbor types are supported in a BGP environment? (Choose two)
A. remote
B. external
C. autonomous
D. internal
E. directly attached
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 245
You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the
physical interface. Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least
disruptive way?
A. Reboot the router

B. Reload the OSPF process
C. Specify a loopback address
D. Save the router configuration
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 246
Which two values must you specify to perform an ACL-based Path Trace using APIC-
EM? (Choose two.)
A. source port
B. source interface
C. source IP address
D. destination port
E. destination IP address
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 247
Which command is configured on a switch to enable neighbor discovery in a
multivendor environment?
A. lldp transmit
B. cdp run
C. lldp run
D. lldp receive
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 248
Refer to the exhibit The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity
problems Which two configuration changes will correct the problems? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2

B. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224
C. Configure the gateway Host A as 10.1.1.1
D. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254
E. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2
F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 249
Refer to the exhibit. On R 1, which routing protocol is in use on the route to

192.168.10.1?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. IGRP
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 250
Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming
only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?
A. twelve
B. six
C. one
D. two
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 251
Which three elements are fields in a basic Ethernet data frame? (Choose three.)
A. Preamble
B. Frame Check Sequence
C. Version
D. Time to Live
E. Length/Type
F. Header Checksum
Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 252
Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command.
Which two network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose )
A. Network A- 172 16.3.48/26

B. Link A - 172.16.3.0/30
C. Link A- 172.16.3.40/30
D. Network A- 172.16.3.192/26
E. Link A - 172.16.3.112/30
F. Network A - 172.16.3.128/25
Correct Answer: BF
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 253
Which two benefits can you get by stacking Cisco switches? (Choose two.)
A. The stack enables any active member to take over as the master switch if the existing master fails
B. Each switch in the stack handles the MAC table independently from the others
C. You can add or remove switches without taking the stack down.
D. Each switch in the stack can use a different IOS image.
E. You can license the entire stack with a single master license
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 254
Refer to the exhibit. An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet. Which
interface command immediately removers the effect of ACL 102?
A. no ip access-list 102 in
B. no ip access-group 102 in
C. no ip access-group 102 out
D. no ip access-class 102 out
E. no ip access-class 102 in
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 255
A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
B. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice
VLAN.
C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface the switch learns new addresses, up
to the maximum
D. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
E. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running
configuration.
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 256
Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer?
(Choose three.)
A. Presentation
B. Session
C. data link
D. application
E. transport
F. network
Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 257
Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an IP enabled router interface?
A. router(config-router)#default-information originate
B. router(config)#Ip route 0.0.0 0 255.255 255 255 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0 0.0 GigabitEthemet0/1
D. router(config)#lp default-gateway GigabitEthernet0/1
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 258
Which two EtherChannel PAgP modes can you configure? (Choose two.)
A. Desirable
B. on
C. auto
D. active
E. Passive
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 259
Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?
A. SW1 (config-line)#exec-timeout 1 0
B. SW1 (config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
C. SW1 (config-line)#absolute-timeout 10
D. SW1 (config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 260
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator must establish a route by which the London workstations
can forward traffic to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to accomplish this?
A. Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10 .1. .1.1
B. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to Manchester
C. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester
D. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the London router
E. Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172 .16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2.
Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 261
Refer to the exhibit. Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The eO interface on Router C is down.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
B. Router C will send a Source Quench message type
C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached
D. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type
E. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached
F. Router C will send a Router Selection message type
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 262
Which three features are represented by the letter A in AAA authentication? (Choose three.)
A. Accessibility
B. Authority
C. Accountability
D. Authorization
E. Authentication
F. Accounting
Correct Answer: DEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 263
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0
network The network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port issued the show ip
route command, and was able to ping the server. Based on the output of the show ip route command and
the topology shown in the graphic, what is the cause of the failure?
A. The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated.

B. The routing table on Coffee has not updated
C. The network has not fully converged
D. A static route is configured incorrectly.
E. The FastEthemet interface on Coffee is disabled
F. IP routing is not enabled.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 264
Which three options are types of layer 2 network attacks? (Choose three.)
A. ARP attacks
B. Spoofing attacks
C. botnet attacks
D. DDOS attacks
E. VLAN hopping
F. brute force attacks
Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 265
Which address prefix does OSPFv3 use when multiple IPv6 addresses are configured on a single
interface?
A. the prefix that administrator configures for OSPFv3 use

B. all prefixes on the interface
C. the lowest prefix on the interface
D. the highest prefix on the interface
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 266
Refer to the exhibit. A technician ha installed Switch B and needs to configure it for remote access from the
management workstation connected Switch A. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 267
Which option is the master redundancy scheme for stacked switches?
A. 1:N
B. 1+N
C. N:1
D. 1:1
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 268
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed to the Internet the same as public IP addresses

B. They are less costly than public IP addresses
C. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts
D. They can be assigned to devices not requiring Internet connections
E. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 269
What is the default Syslog facility level?
A. local7
B. local5
C. local4
D. local6
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 270
Which two functions can be performed by a local DNS server? (Choose two.)
A. assigning IP addresses to local clients
B. copying updated IOS images to Cisco switches
C. forwarding name resolution requests to an external DNS server
D. resolving names locally
E. transferring split horizon traffic between zones
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 271
Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true? (Choose two.)
A. They can manage mobility policies at a system wide level

B. They must be configured through a GUI over HTTP or HTTPS
C. They can simplify the management and deployment of wireless LANS
D. They are ideal for small wireless networks
E. They rely on external firewalls for WLAN security
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 272
Which condition indicates that service password-encryption is enabled?
A. The local username password is in clear text in the configuration

B. The local username password is encrypted in the configuration
C. The enable secret is in clear text m the configuration
D. The enable secret is encrypted m the configuration.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 273
Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted password and EXEC mode
user privileges?
A. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password O 083140501A48

B. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 83140501A48
C. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 PASSWORD1
D. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password O PASSWORD1
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/security/command/reference/fsecur_r/srfpass.html
QUESTION 274
A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an
IOS image. What function does the router perform next?
A. It checks the configuration register

B. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions
C. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server.
D. It loads the first image file in flash memory.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
https://www.9tut.com/cisco-router-boot-sequence-tutorial
QUESTION 275
A. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.

B. Check the duplex mode for SwicthC's fa0/1 port
C. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.
D. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 276
A. It configures the native VLAN.

B. It configures an active management interface
C. It configures the default VLAN.
D. It configures an inactive switch virtual interface.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 277
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port Gi0/2
B. Switch3, port Gi0/1
C. Switch3, port fa0/12
D. Switch3, port fa0/1
E. Switch4, port fa0/11
F. Switch4, port fa0/2
Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 278
Which WAN topology is most appropriate for a centrally located server farm with several satellite branches?
A. Full mesh
B. point- to-point
C. star
D. hub and spoke
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 279
Which two statements about the tunnel mode ipv6ip command are true? (Choose two.)
A. It specifies IPv4 as the encapsulation protocol.

B. It specifies that the tunnel is a Teredo tunnel
C. It specifies IPv6 as the encapsulation protocol.
D. It specifies IPv6 as the transport protocol
E. It enables the transmission of IPv6 packets within the configured tunnel.
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 280
Which two tasks does a router perform when it receives a packet that is being forwarded from one network
to another? (Choose two.)
A. It examines the MAC address table for the forwarding interface

B. It removes the Layer 2 frame header and trailer
C. It examines the routing table for the best path to the destination IP address of the packet
D. It encapsulates the Layer 2 packet
E. It removes the Layer 3 frame header and trailer.
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 281
Which two statements about northbound and southbound APls are true? (Choose two.)
A. Both northbound and southbound APls allow program control of the network
B. Only northbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer
C. Both northbound and southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
D. Only northbound APls allow program control of the network.
E. Only southbound APls allow program control of the network
F. Only southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer
Correct Answer: DF
Section: (none)
Explanation
http://blog.webwerks.in/data-centers-blog/southbound-vs-northbound-sdn-what-are-the-differences
QUESTION 282
Which type of MAC address is aged automatically by the switch?
A. Static
B. Automatic
C. Dynamic
D. Manual
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 283
Which two statements about floating static routes are true? (Choose two.)
A. They are dynamic routes that are learned from a server.

B. They are used as backup routes when the primary route goes down
C. They are used when a route to the destination network is missing
D. They have a higher administrative distance than default static route administrative distance
E. They are routes to the exact /32 destination address.
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 284
Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three)
A. Router>boot flash:c 180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124--6T.bin

B. Router(config)#boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin
C. Router(config)#boot system tftp c7300-Js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin
D. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
E. Router(config)#bool bootldr bootflash:c4500-Jk9s-mz .122.23f.bin
F. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advtpservicesk9-mz .124-24.T4.bin
Correct Answer: BCF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 285
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. one or more backup virtual routers

B. exactly one active router
C. exactly one standby active router
D. one or more standby routers
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/thread/52557
QUESTION 286
Which two facts about configuring EIGRPv6 are true? (Choose two.)
A. If you change the interface bandwidth the EIGRPv4 metric is affected

B. The variance command for EIGRPv6 is independent of EIGRPv4
C. The router ID must be an IPv6 address.
D. If you change the interface delay, the EIGRPv4 delay remains unchanged.
E. You must configure neighboring devices with the same IPv6 hello-interval eigrp value
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 287
Which technology is a critical component of a cloud-based architecture?
A. DNS
B. IPv6
C. DHCP
D. MPLS
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 288
You are implementing WAN access for an enterprise network while running applications that require a fully
meshed network, which two design standards are appropriate for such an environment? (Choose two.)
A. multiple MPLS VPN connections with dynamic routing

B. a centralized DMVPN solution to simplify connectivity for the enterprise
C. a collapsed core and distribution layer to minimize costs
D. a dedicated WAN distribution layer to consolidate connectivity to remote sites
E. multiple MPLS VPN connections with static routing
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 289
Which two statements about IGP and EGP routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF, EIGRP, and BGP are categorized as IGP routing protocols.

B. IGP routing protocols are used within internal networks.
C. Service providers use OSPF and IS-IS for intra-AS routing
D. Service provides use EGP and BGP for intra-AS routing
E. EGP routing protocols are used to connect multiple IGP networks
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 290
Which extended ping feature do you use to specify the path that the packet traverses?
A. Record
B. verbose
C. timestamp
D. strict
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 291
Cisco IOS supports which QoS models?
A. best-effort and integrated services

B. best-effort, integrated services and differentiated services
C. integrated services and differentiated services
D. best-effort and differentiated services
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 292
Which two functions describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose two.)
A. It supports HSRP, VRRP and GLBP

B. It reduces management overhead
C. It requires only one IP address per VLAN
D. It supports redundant configuration files
E. It requires only three IP addresses per VLAN
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 293
Which two statements about the ip subnet-zero command are true? (Choose two.)
A. It enables the network to make full use of the available IP address space
B. It specifies the broadcast IP addresses in the subnet
C. It is enabled by default on Cisco routers.
D. It must be configured each time you reboot a router.
E. It must be configured before you active NAT on a router.
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 294
Which file-system management command is used frequently when IOS backups, upgrades, and restores
are performed?
A. show file
B. show dir
C. copy
D. delete
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 295
Which command must you enter to switch from privileged EXEC mode to user EXEC mode on a Cisco
device?
A. configure terminal
B. disable
C. logout
D. enable
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 296
Which LLDP extension provides additional support for VoIP?
A. LLDP-VOIP
B. LLDP-MED
C. LLDPv3
D. TLV
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 297
Which two conditions can be used to elect the spanning-tree root bridge? (Choose two.)
A. the lowest system ID

B. the lowest switch priority
C. the highest port priority
D. the highest MAC address
E. the lowest MAC address
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 298
Which two statements about PAP authentication in a PPP environment are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is performed at the beginning of the session and Is repeated periodically for as long as the session is
maintained
B. It hashes the password before sending it
C. It sends the password in clear text
D. It uses a username with an MD5 password to authenticate
E. It is performed at the beginning of the session only
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 299
Which command must you enter to configure a DHCP relay?
A. ip dhcp relay
B. ip helper-address
C. ip dhcp pool
D. ip address dhcp
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 300
Which two values must you specify to define a static route? (Choose two.)
A. next-hop address or exit interface

B. destination network and mask
C. incoming interface
D. administrative distance of the route
E. source network and mask
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 301
Which two commands can you user to configure an LACP EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
A. channel-group 10 mode auto

B. channel-group 10 mode passive
C. channel-group 10 mode on
D. channel-group 10 mode desirable
E. channel-group 10 mode active
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 302
Which algorithm is used for the frame check sequence in an Ethernet frame?
A. CRC
B. MD5
C. AES-256
D. SHA-1
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 303
Which feature can cause a port to shut down immediately after a switch reboot?
A. PortFast
B. DTP
C. COPP
D. Port security
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 304
Which three statements describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose
three.)
A. to confine network instability to single areas of the network

B. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
C. to speed up convergence
D. to reduce the complexity of router configuration
E. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
F. to reduce routing overhead
Correct Answer: ACF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 305
Which two best practices protect your network from VLAN hopping attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Configure dynamic ARP inspection

B. Change the native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID
C. Assign all access ports to VLANs other than the native VLAN
D. Configure port security
E. Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 306
Which two statements correctly describe RADIUS? (Choose two.)
A. It can authorize specific router commands

B. It uses TCP as its transport protocol
C. It separates authentication, authorization, and accounting functions
D. It combines authentication and authorization
E. It encrypts only the password
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 307
Which protocol speeds up the MAC aging process?
A. 802.1D
B. RSTP
C. OSPF
D. RIP
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 308
You apply a new inbound access list to routers, blocking UDP packets to the HSRP group. Which two effect
does this action have on the HSRP group process? (Choose two)
A. HSRP redundancy fails

B. HSRP redundancy works as expected
C. The active router immediately becomes the standby router
D. The routers in the group generate duplicate IP address warnings
E. Both the active and standby routers become active
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 309
Which two statements about RFC 1918 address are true? (Choose two.)
A. They provide security to end users when the users access the Internet
B. They require Network Address Translation or Port Address Translation to access the Internet
C. They must be registered
D. They have reserved address space for Class A and Class B networks only
E. They increase network performance
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 310
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose
two.)
A. Two secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface

B. The interface dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses.
C. An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the
interface
D. The interface is error-disabled
E. A syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on
the interface
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 311
Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can you determine from the EIGRP topology table? (Choose two)
A. All successors are injecting into the routing table

B. The variance command must have issued to allow route 10.85.184.0 to have two successors
C. The reported distance value is greater than the feasible distance
D. If a route has more than one successor, only one route is injected into the routing table
E. The FD 28416 for route 10.242.0.148 is also the metric for the routing table
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 312
Refer to the exhibit. Which port security violation mode is configured on interface Fa0/1?
A. shutdown VLAN
B. protocol
C. restrict
D. shutdown
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 313
Which two tasks should you perform to begin troubleshooting a network problem? (Choose two.)
A. Define the problem as a set of symptoms and causes

B. Implement an action plan
C. Analyze the results
D. Gather all the facts
E. Monitor and verify the resolution
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 314
Which two facts must you take into account when you deploy PPPoE? (Choose two.)
A. An individual PVC can support one PPPoE client

B. DDR idle timers must be configured to support VPDN logging
C. You must manually configure IP addresses on the PPPoE interface
D. DDR is not supported
E. PPPoE supports a maximum of 10 clients per customer premises equipment
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 315
Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an EIGRP neighbor adjacency
(Choose two)
A. An ACL is blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.5

B. Both routers have the same router ID
C. The routers are on different subnets
D. The two routers have the same autonomous system number
E. The routers have mismatched K values
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 316
Which Rapid PVST+ port role provides a different path to the root bridge?
A. alternate
B. forwarding
C. designated
D. backup
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 317
Which two commands should you enter to prevent a Cisco device from sharing information with upstream
devices? (Choose two)
A. R1(config-if)#no cdp enable

B. R1(config-if)#no cdp run
C. R1(config)#no cdp enable
D. R1(config)#no cdp run
E. R1(config)#no cdp advertise-v2
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 318
Which two statements about PDU encapsulation are true? (Choose two.)
A. During encapsulation, each layer adds a header and trailer to the PDU from the layer below
B. PDU encapsulation takes place only at the transport layer
C. In the TCP/IP reference model, PDU encapsulation occurs on the network layer
D. During encapsulation. each layer adds a header and sometimes adds a trailer to the PDU from the layer
above
E. In the TCP/IP reference model, PDU encapsulation starts on the Internet layer with the date from the
application layer
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 319
Which two goals are reasons to implement private IPv4 addressing on your network? (Choose two)
A. Reduce the risk of a network security breach.

B. Comply with local law
C. Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers
D. Comply with PCI regulation
E. Conserve IPv4 addresses
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 320
Which QoS feature can drop traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?
A. weighted fair queuing

B. policing
C. shaping
D. FIFO
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 321
What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two.)
A. UDP maintains the connection state to provide more stable connections than TCP
B. UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic
C. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data
D. The CTL field in the UDP packet header enables a three-way handshake to establish the connection
E. UDP provides a built-in recovery mechanism to retransmit lost packets
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 322
Which two statements about the successor and feasible successor are true? (Choose two.)
A. The successor is the secondary route

B. The feasible successor has a lower metric than the successor
C. The successor is stored in the routing table
D. The successor is the primary route
E. The feasible successor is stored in both the topology table and the routing table
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 323
What is the easiest way to verify the Layer 3 path from a router to host 192.168.2.1?
A. Execute a ping from the router to host 192.168.2.1

B. Add a static route for host 192.168.2.1 to the routing table of the router.
C. Execute a traceroute from the router to host 192.168.2.1
D. Use Telnet to connect the router to host 192.168.2.1
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 324
Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)
A. it supports full command logging

B. it combines authentication and authorization to simplify configuration
C. It encrypts the password only
D. It uses TCP port 49
E. It uses UDP port 49
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 325
What are two reasons to use multicast to deliver video traffic, instead of unicast or broadcast? (Choose
two.)
A. It enables multiple clients to receive the video stream simultaneously

B. It provides reliable TCP transport.
C. It enables multiple clients to send video streams simultaneously
D. It enables multiple servers to send video streams simultaneously
E. It supports distributed applications
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 326
Which two commands should you enter to view the PID and serial number of a router? (Choose two)
A. show license feature

B. show license
C. show license status
D. show version
E. show license udl
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 327
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose
two)
A. It has dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses

B. Learned MAC addresses are deleted after five minutes of inactivity
C. It has dynamically learned three secure MAC addresses
D. The interface is error-disabled if packets arrive from a new unknown source address
E. The security violation counter increments if packets arrive from a new unknown source address
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 328
Which two actions must you take to correctly configure PPPoE on a client? (Choose two.)
A. Create a BBA group and link it to the dialer interface

B. Define a dialer interface
C. Create a dialer pool and bind it to the physical interface
D. Create a dialer pool and bind it to the virtual template
E. Define a virtual template interface
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 329
Which switching method checks for CRC errors?
A. cut-through
B. store-and-forward
C. fragment-free
D. Layer 3
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 330
After an FTP session to ftp.cisco.com fails, you attempt to ping the server. A ping to ftp.cisco.com also fails,
but a ping to the IP address of the server is successful. What is reason for the failed FTP session?
A. An ACL is blocking the FTP request

B. A firewall is blocking traffic from the FTP site
C. The Internet connection is down
D. The assigned DNS server is down
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 331
Which two address spaces are valid Class B IPv4 ranges that are non-routable to the Internet? (Choose
two)
A. 172.16.0.0 through 172.32.255.255

B. 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255
C. 10.0.0.0 through 10.0.255.255
D. 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255
E. 169.254.0.0 through 169.254.255.255
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 332
Which access layer threat mitigation technique provides security by acting as a filter between trusted and
untrusted traffic sources?
A. 802.1X
B. a nondefault native VLAN
C. dynamic packet inspection
D. DHCP snooping
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 333
Which task do you need to perform first when you configure IP SLA to troubleshoot a network connectivity
issue?
A. Verify the ICMP echo operation

B. Specify the test frequency
C. Schedule the ICMP echo operation
D. Enable the ICMP echo operation
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 334
Which two statements correctly describe the ping utility? (Choose two.)
A. It can identify the path that a packet takes to a remote device

B. It uses UDP
C. It uses ICMP
D. It can identify the source of an ICMP "time exceeded" message
E. It can verify connectivity to a remote device without identifying the path
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 335
Which two statements about an Ethernet frame source address are true? (Choose two.)
A. The address is 4 bits long

B. The address is 6 bytes long
C. The leftmost bit is always 0
D. The leftmost bit is always 1
E. The address is 4 bytes long
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 336
Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command
(Choose two)
A. The NTP version number of the peer

B. Whether the NTP peer is statically configured
C. The IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized
D. The configured NTP servers
E. Whether the clock is synchronized
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 337
Which command allows you to set the administrative distance for EIGRP for IPv6?
A. ipv6 summary-address eigrp

B. ipv6 bandwidth-percent eigrp
C. metric weights
D. ipv6 next-hop-self eigrp
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 338
Which IP address can send traffic to all hosts on network 10.101.0.0/16?
A. 224.0.0.1
B. 10.101.0.1
C. 10.101.255.255
D. 10.101.254.254
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 339
Which two technologies can combine multiple physical switches into one logical switch? (Choose two)
A. HSRP
B. VSS
C. GLBP
D. VRRP
E. StackWise
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 340
Which two benefits are provided by cloud resources to an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
A. flexibility
B. on-demand scalability
C. full control of infrastructure
D. easy access with low security
E. complexity at higher cost
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 341
Which plane handles switching traffic through a Cisco router?
A. performance
B. data
C. control
D. management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 342
Which frame type allows STP to compute the spanning-tree topology?
A. LSA
B. RSTP
C. LSP
D. BPDU
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 343
Which circumstance is a common cause of late collisions?
A. native VLAN mismatch

B. software misconfiguration
C. duplex mismatch
D. overloaded hardware queues
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 344
Which two features are compatible with port security? (Choose two.)
A. SPAN source port

B. SPAN destination port
C. DTP
D. EtherChannel
E. voice VLAN
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 345
Which two commands can you use to configure a PAgP EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
A. channel-group 10 mode auto

B. channel-group 10 mode on
C. channel-group 10 mode passive
D. channel-group 10 mode desirable
E. channel-group 10 mode active
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 346
Which command should you enter to configure a DHCP client?
A. ip helper-address
B. ip address dhcp
C. ip dhcp pool
D. ip dhcp client
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 347
Refer to the exhibit. If all routers on this network run RIPv2, which two configurations can you apply to
router R3 to produce this routing table? (Choose two)
A. router rip
version 2
network 192.168.3.0
network 192.168.4.0
network 192.168.23.0
passive-interface default
B. router rip
version 2
network 192.168.4.0
network 192.168.23.0
C. router rip
version 2
network 192.168.3.0
network 192.168.4.0
network 192.168.23.0
D. router rip
version 2
network 192.168.3.0
network 192.168.23.0
passive-interface default
E. router rip
version 2
network 192.168.3.0
network 192.168.4.0
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 348
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about router R1 are true? (Choose two.)
A. At least two IGP routing protocols are running on the router

B. The router is learning external OSPF and EIGRP routes
C. The router has two EIGRP neighbors and one OSPF neighbor
D. At least three IGP routing protocols are running on the router
E. The router has an OSPF Area 0 adjacency with the device at 10.82.4.42
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 349
Refer to the exhibit. Which two events occur on the interface, if packets from an unknown source address
arrive after the interface learns the maximum member of secure MAC address? (Choose two)
A. The security violation counter does not increment

B. The port LED turns off
C. The interface drops traffic from unknown MAC addresses
D. A syslog message is generated
E. The interface is error-disabled
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 350
What is the maximum number of switches that StackWise can support in on stack??
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 6
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 351
Which two cable specifications can support 1-Gbps Ethernet? (Choose two)
A. RG-11
B. Category 6
C. RG-6
D. Category 3
E. Category 5e
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 352
Which value is used to build the CAM table?
A. destination MAC address

B. source MAC address
C. destination IP address
D. source IP address
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 353
Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two.)
A. It supports CIDR and VLSM

B. It sends periodic updates via broadcast
C. It uses the Bellman-Ford routing algorithm
D. It does not support clear text authentication, similar to RIPv1
E. It stores RIP neighbor adjacency information in a neighbor table
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 354
Which two statements about UTP cables are true? (Choose two)
A. Category 6 Ethernet cables are appropriate for installations of up to 200m

B. Category 6a Ethernet cable can transmit up to 10 Gbps
C. Category 5e Ethernet cables support speeds up to 1000 Mbps
D. All Ethernet cable types from Category 1 through Category 6 are suitable for transmitting data in the
appropriate environments
E. Category 5 Ethernet cables support speeds up to 1000 Mbps beyond 100m
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 355
Which keyboard shortcut can you use to exit the System Configuration Dialog on a Cisco network device
and return to privileged EXEC mode without making changes?
A. Ctrl-C
B. Ctrl-Alt-Delete
C. Ctri-V
D. Shift-Esc
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 356
Which two statements about static routing are true? (Choose two)
A. It allows the administrator to determine the entire path of a packet

B. Its default administrative distance is lower than EIGRP
C. It provides only limited security unless the administrator performs additional configuration
D. Its initial implementation is more complex then OSPF
E. It allows packets to transit a different path if the topology changes
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 357
Which two pieces of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? (Choose two)
A. which neighbor adjacencies are established

B. the length of time that a route has been known
C. whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured
D. whether an ACL was applied inbound or outbound to an interface
E. the EIGRP or BGP autonomous system
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 358
What is the minimum Ethernet frame size?
A. 64 bytes
B. 1500 bytes
C. 1024 bytes
D. 32 bytes
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 359
Drag the cable on the left the purpose for witch it is best salted on the right (Not all option are used)
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 360
Drag and drop the IPv6 IP addresses from the left onto the correct types on the right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 361
Drag and drop the DNS lookup commands from the left onto the correct effects on the right
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 362
Drag and drop the IEEE standard cable names from the left onto the correct cable on the right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 363
Drag and drop the DHCP client states from the left into the standard order in which the client passes
through them on the right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 364
Drag and drop the BGP components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 365
Drag and drop the CSMA components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 366
Drag and drop the values in a routing table from the left onto the correct meanings on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 367
Drag and drop the QoS features from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 368
Drag and drop the extended traceroute options form the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:

5
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 369
Drag and drop the protocols from the left onto the correct IP traffic type on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 370
Drag and drop the STP features from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 371
Drag and drop the PPPoE message types from the left into the sequence in which PPoE messages are
sent on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 372
Drag and drop the switching concepts from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 373
Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the correct IP traffic on the
right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 374
Drag and drop the benefits of a Cisco Wireless LAN controller from the left onto the correct examples on
the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 375
Match the terms on the left with the appropriate OSI layer on the right (Not all options are used)
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 376
A user is unable to connect to the Internet. Based on the layered approach to troubleshooting and beginning
with the lowest layer, drag each procedure on the left to its proper category on the right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 377
Drag the security features on the left to the specefic security risk they help protect against on the right. (Not
all option are use)
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 378
Drag the security features on the left to the specific security risks they help protect against on the right. (Not
all option are use)
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 379
Drag and drop the network features or functions from the left on to the planes on which they operate on the
right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 380
Drag and drop each cable type from the left on to the type of connection for which it is the best suits in the
right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 381
Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the correct IPv6 address type on the right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 382
Drag and drop the application protocols from the left on to the transport protocols that it uses on the right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 383
You are connecting a variety devices on your network. Drag and drop the combination of devices from the
left on to the correct cable types on the right
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 384
Drag and drop the Ethernet terms from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 385
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 386
Drag and drop the BGP terms from t he left onto the correct description on the right
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 387
A. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch
B. There is a Layer 2 issue, an encapsulation mismatch on serial links
C. There is an area ID mismatch
D. The R3 router ID is configured on R4
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 388
A. There is a missing network command in the OSPF process on R5
B. There is an area ID mismatch
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch
D. There is a PPP authentication issue, a password mismatch
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 389
A. R1 ethernet0/1 configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25, configure no ip ospf hello-
interval 25
B. Enable OSPF for R1 ethernet0/1, configure ip ospf 1 area 0 command under ethernet0/1
C. R1 ethernet0/1 is shutdown, configure no shutdown command
D. R2 ethernet0/1 and R3 ehternet0/0 are configured witch a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25,
configure no ip OSPF hello-interval 25
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 390
A. The R3 router ID is configure on R6
B. There is a PPP authentication issue, the username is not configured on R3 and R6
C. There is an area ID mismatch
D. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 391
A. R4 has been incorrectly configured to be in another AS, so it does not peer with R5
B. The loopback addresses haven't been advertised, and the network command is missing on R4
C. Automatic summarization is enabled, so only the 10.0.0.0 network is displayed
D. The interfaces are shutdown so they are not being advertised
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 392
A. The traffic is unequally load-balanced over R2 and R3
B. The traffic goes through R3
C. The traffic is equally load-balanced over R2 and R3
D. The traffic goes through R2
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 393
A. The passive-interface command is enadbled
B. The K values mismatch
C. The network command is missing
D. The AS does not match
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 394
A. The network statement is missing on R1
B. The IP address that is configured on the Lo 1linterface on R4 is incorrect
C. The loopback interface is shutdown on R5
D. The network statement is missing on R5
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 395
A.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 396
A. On R, the interface that is connected to R3 is in shutdown condition
B. On R3, DHCP is not enabled on the interface that is connected to R2
C. On R3, the interface that is connected to R2 is in shutdown condition
D. On R2, the network statement in the DHCP pool configuration is incorrectly configured
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 397
A. R2 router Ethernet interface that is connected to R1 is placed in shutdown condition
B. The IP address that is used in the NTP configuration on R2 router is incorrect
C. R1 router Ethernet interface that is connected to R2 is placed in shutdown condition
D. The NTP server command not configured on R2 router
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 398
A. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R1 is blocking the traffic sourced from Server1 network
B. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R2 is blocking the traffic sourced from R2 LAN network
C. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R1 is blocking the traffic sourced from R2 LAN network
D. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R2 is blocking the traffic sourced from Server1 network
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 399
A. NAT translation statement incorrectly configured
B. Interesting traffic for NAT ACL is incorrectly configured
C. NAT configurations on the interface are incorrectly configured
D. Only static NAT translation configured for the server, missing Dynamic NAT or Dynamic NAT
overloading for internal networks
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 400
1.Which will fix the issue and allow only ping to work while keeping telnet disabled?
A. Remove access-group 106 in form interface fa0/0 and add access-group 104 in
B. Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 115 in
C. Remove access-group 102 out from interface s0/0/0 and add access-group 114 in
D. Correctly assign an IP address to interface fa0/1
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 401
A. Attempts to telnet to the router would fail
B. It would allow all traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network
C. IP traffic would be passed through the interface but TCP and UDP traffic would not
D. Routing protocol updates for the 10.4.4.0 network would not be accepted from the fa0/0 interface
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 402
A. Only traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network would pass through the interface
B. FTp, FTP-DATA, echo, and www would work but telnet would fail
C. Telnet and ping would work but routing updates would fail
D. No host could connect to RouterC through s0/0/1
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 403
A. The Router is missing subinterface configuration
B. The IP address is misconfigured on the primary router interface
C. The Trunk is not configured on the L2SW1 switch
D. The VLAN encapsulation is misconfigured on ther router subinterfaces
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 404
A. Default route pointing to ISP router is configured with AD of 255
B. Default route pointing to ISP router is not configured on Router R1
C. Router R1 configured as DHCP client is not receiving default route via DHCP from ISP router
D. The next hop router address for the default route is incorrectly configured
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 405
A. RIPv2 routing updates are suppressed between R2 and R3 using passive interface feature
B. No issue that is identified, this behavior is normal since default route propagated into RIPv2 domain by
Router R1
C. RIPv2 not enable on R3
D. RIPv2 enabled on R3, but R3 LAN network that is not advertised into RIPv2 domain
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 406
A. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses RIPv2 instead static route because
the static route AD that is configured is higher than the AD of RIPv2
B. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses RIPv2 instead static route because
the static route AD that is configured is 255
C. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses static route instead RIPv2 because
the static route AD that is configured is less than the AD of RIPv2
D. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses static route instead RIPv2 but the
traffic is forwarded to the ISP instead of the internal network
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 407
A. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the Branch1 serial interfaces

B. The IP addess is misconfigured on PPP multilink interface on the Branch1 router
C. The Branch1 serial interfaces are placed in a shutdown condition
D. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the R1 serial interfaces
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 408
A. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the R2 router
B. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the R2 router
C. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the Branch2 router
D. The status route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the Branch2 router
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 409
A. PPP encapsulation is not configured on Branch3 and R1
B. A PPP chap hostname mismatch is noticed between Branch3 and R1
C. A PPP chap password mismatch is noticed between Branch3 and R1
D. The PPP chap hostname and PPP chap password commands are missing on the Branch3 router
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 410
A. The Branch3 LAW network 192.168.10.0/24 is not advertsed into the EIGRP network
B. The Branch2 LAN network 192.168.11.0/24 is not advertsed into the EIGRP network
C. Tunnel keepalives are not configured for the tunnel0 interface on Branch2 and R2
D. PPP CHAP is authentication configured between Branch1 and R1
E. PPP PAP is authentication configured between Branch2 and R1
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 411
A. EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to AS mismatch between routers R1 and R2
B. EIGRP packets were blocked by the inbound ACL on R1
C. EIRGP neighbor relationship was not formed due to k values mismatch between routers R1 and R2
D. IP address was misconfigures between the R1 and R2 interfaces
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 412
A. The primary path has more link delay configured then secondary path which causes EIGRP to choose
the secondary path
B. EIGRP packets were blocked by the inbound ACL on Branch2
C. The network 192.168.11.0/30 was not advertised into EIGRP on Branch2
D. The IP addess was misconfigured between the Branch2 and R2 interfaces
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 413
A. The tunnel source loopback0 interface is not advertised into EIGRP in R3
B. The EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to EIGRP packets blocked by the inbound ACL on
R3
C. The tunnel source loopback0 interface is not advertised into EIGRP in Branch1
D. The EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to the IP addess being misconfigured between
the R2 and R3 interfaces
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 414
A. Branch2 LAN netwodk 172.16.11.0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network
B. Branch2 LAN network 172.16.10.0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network
C. R3 server farm2 network 10.20.30.0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network
D. Branch1 LAN network 172.16.12.0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 415
A.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 416
A.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 417
A.
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation

417 PDF Thi

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

417 PDF Thi

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

CCNA 200-125 417Q

Editor by Vô Thần !!!

A. a route to the exact /32 destination address

Correct Answer: DEF

A. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches

A. Verify that the router firmware is up-to-date.

Correct Answer: CDE

A. Updates are sent to a broadcast address

Correct Answer: BCE

Correct Answer: ABD

A. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.

A. It goes into an errdisable state

A. It uses labels to separate and forward customer traffic.

A. It requires a secure SSLVPN connection.

A. Set both sides of the connection to full duplex

Correct Answer: ADE

A. to increase the maximum port count

A. Configure the relay agent information option

A. It runs on the data link layer only

A. The destination device must support the echo protocol

A. Reset the BGP connections on the device.

A. They are allocated from the IPv6 broadcast address space

A. It can use RSPAN to report network statistics to a designated remote port.

A. Each switch manages its own MAC address table

A. All configured IP name server addresses are removed

Correct Answer: DEF

A. It can disable the overload command.

A. The global ID is 14920bf83d

Correct Answer: ACD

A. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

Correct Answer: CDE

A. show ip dhcp binding 10.0.2.12

A. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root

Correct Answer: CEF

Correct Answer: ABE

Correct Answer: CDE

A. FE80::/8 is used for link-local unicast

Correct Answer: BEF

A. logging host 10.2.0.21

Which statement is true?

A. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.

A. The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses

Correct Answer: ABC

A. the ISP local cache

A. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted

A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured

Correct Answer: BCF

A. the Active Discovery phase

A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies

Correct Answer: ABF

A. It sends the packet to the gateway of the last resort

A. exterior gateway protocols

A. Determine whether the hardware address is correct.

A. Configure a loopback interface.

A. It prevents routing loops in link-state protocols

A. Its privacy algorithms use MOS encryption by default

Correct Answer: DEF

A. It buffers and queues excess packets

A. frame check sequence

A. Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.2

A. an interface with a down/down status

A. exchanges routing tables with neighbors

Correct Answer: BDE