Name of the Examination - Summer Examination- 2020

Name of Subject- Land Laws

Class - LL.B III

1) Article 19(1)(f) of the Constitution guaranteed to all citizens the fundamental right to
a) Acquire & hold property
b) Dispose of property
c) Do business in any part of India
d) Both (a) & (b)
2) Article 31 of the Constitution provided that any State acquisition of property must only
be
a) upon enactment of a valid law
b) for a public purpose
c) upon payment of compensation
d) all the above
3) The Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act 1978, abolished
a) Article 19(1)(f)
b) Article 31
c) Articles 19(1) (f) & Article 31
d) Article 300A
4) The Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act 1978 inserted ____into a new chapter
IV of Part XII of the Constitution
a) Article 300A
b) Article 370
c) Article 300
d) Article 31(A)
5) ‘Acquisition and requisitioning of property’ was included as a subject in
a) The Concurrent List
b) State List
c) Central List
d) Residue powers of Central Government
6) _________ Amendment was passed shortly after the decision in the Bela Banerjee case
a) Twenty-Fifth
b) The Fourth
c) Forty Second
d) Forty Fourth
7) _________ Amendment was passed to oust judicial review of the adequacy of
compensation.
a) The First
b) The Fourth
c) The Twenty Fourth
d) The Forty Fourth
8) The Supreme Court in ____________made it clear that the ouster of judicial review on
questions of compensation was limited only to cases where the proposed acquisition of land
had a connection with a scheme of agrarian or land reform. In all other cases,
compensation payable under Article 31(2) should be market value compensation.
a) Thakur Amar Singhji v. State of Rajasthan
b) Ram Narain Medhi v. State of Bombay
c) KK Kochuni v. State of Madras
d) Atma Ram v. State of Punjab
9) Today, Right to property in India is
a) Fundamental Right
b) Constitutional Right
c) Legal Right
d) Human Right
10) After the formation of Maharashtra State uniform land revenue code called as
________ was formulated
a) Maharashtra Land Revenue Code 1966
b) Bombay Land Revenue Code,
c) Berar Land Revenue Code,
d) Central Provinces Land Revenue Code
11) At divisional level, _____________ is the controlling authority in all the matters
connected with land revenue administration in the division.
a) Commissioner holding the rank of secretary
b) Minister of Agriculture
c) District Collector
d) Additional Collector
12) _____________heads the district has to ensure prompt action in revenue matter like
correct computation of revenue, declaration of land revenue rates, review of agricultural
conditions, formation of urban, rural and survey areas.
a) Tehsildar
b) District collector
c) Commissioner
d) Assistant Commissioner
13) Under Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966, working of the taluka is supervised by
a) Tahsildar
b) Naib Tahsildar
c) Tahsildar assisted by Naib Tahsildar
d) Additional Collector
14) Under Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966, villages are under the charge of
a) Sarpanch
b) Talathi
c) Gram Sevak
d) Kotwal
15) At District level there is ________ in each district who maintains the record at district
level under Maharashtra Land Revenue Code.
a) Collector
b) District Inspector of Land Records
c) Tehsildar
d) City survey officer
16) In the cities there are________ who conduct measurement of land for correct
boundaries to identify each parcel of land.
a) City survey officers
b) Law enforcement officers
c) Municipality Officers
d) Land Acquisition Officers
17) At district level, _____is the ex-officio District Registrar
a) Collector
b) Additional Collector
c) Tehsildar
d) Registration Officer
18) At Taluka level, _____ maintain copies of every document registered with them.
a) Tehsildar
b) Sub-Registrar
c) Naib Tehsildar
d) Additional Tehsildar
19) _______ is the revenue officer at grass root level who keeps the record of the land
holdings and revenue in each village Under Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966.
a) Sarpanch
b) Talathi
c) Gram Sevak
d) Inspector
20) _______ established under Maharashtra Land Revenue Code hear appeals against the
orders of Revenue Officers relating to land revenue matter, tenancy, abolition of inams,
vatans and related matters.
a) Divisional Court
b) High Court
c) Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal
d) Maharashtra Administrative Tribunal
21) Who among the following is NOT a revenue officer?
a) Collector
b) Tahsildar
c) Circle Officer & Inspector
d) Inspector General of Police
22) Which is notified as a Revenue Year?
a) 1st April to 31st March
b) 1st January to 31st December
c) 1st August to 31st July
d) None of the above
23) ‘Saza’ means
a) A group of villages in a Taluka
b) Divisional revenue office
c) Sub-divisional office
d) City survey office
24) Who is/are revenue officers in Division?
a) Commissioner
b) Additional Commissioner
c) Assistant Commissioner
d) All the above
25) Appointments of revenue officers are made under which section(s) of Maharashtra
Land Revenue Code?
a) section 6
b) section 7
c) section 8
d) all of the above
26) Which is NOT correct about the Superintendent of Land Records?
a) He is a survey officer
b) He is a Revenue officer
c) He is advisor to collector on land records
d) He advises on maintenance of Records of Rights
27) Who is the village accountant Maharashtra Land Revenue Code?
a) Talathi
b) Gram Sewak
c) Kulkarni
d) Circle Inspector
28) Immediate superior of Talathi is
a) Gram Sewak
b) Zilla Parishad President
c) Tahsildar
d) Circle Inspector
29) Which sections of Maharashtra Land Revenue Code deal with provisions relating to
encroachment on Government Land?
a) Sections 50-53
b) Sections 40-42
c) Sections 36-40
d) Sections 19-22
30) In _______ the High Court held that under section 50 of Maharashtra Land Revenue
Code, the Collector is empowered to abate or remove any encroachment made on any land
/ property vested in State Government.
a) State of Bombay v. Fakir Umar
b) Babamiya Ahmed Shah v. Tahsildar, Beed
c) Yashwant Kulkarni v. State of Maharashtra
d) Popat Moti Rathod v. State of Maharashtra
31) The Supreme Court in ______ held that illegal encroachment on Gram Panchayat land
cannot be regularized.
a) Popat Moti Rathod v. State of Maharashtra
b) Jagpal Singh & others v. State of Punjab & others
c) State of Bombay v. Fakir Umar
d) Hinchal Tiwari v. Kamal Devi
32) The Collector has power to give permission
a) to convert the use of agricultural land for any non-agricultural purpose
b) to the change the use of land from one non-agricultural purpose to another non-agricultural
purpose
c) both (a) & (b)
d) none of these
33) Fixation and demarcation of boundaries include-
a) Village boundaries
b) Field boundaries
c) Survey Boundaries
d) All the above
34) When a dispute arises concerning the boundaries of a village, a survey number or sub-
division of a survey number _____ decides the disputes by holding formal inquiry
a) The Collector
b) The Tahsildar
c) The Talathi
d) The Survey Officer
35) Maharashtra Rent Control Act, 1999 extends to
a) The whole of the State of Maharashtra
b) The whole of the State of Maharashtra except Mumbai
c) The whole of the State of Maharashtra except Mumbai, Pune & Nagpur
d) none of these
36) Under Maharashtra Rent Control Act the court can fix the standard rent & permitted
increases
a) upon the application made to it for that purpose
b) in any pending suit or proceedings
c) both (a) & (b)
d) none of these
37) As per section 11 Maharashtra Rent Control Act, a landlord shall be entitled to make
an increase of ______ in the rent of the premises let for any purpose
a) 4 percent per annum
b) 4 percent per month
c) 10 percent per annum
d) 10 percent after every two years
38) Which section of Maharashtra Rent Control Act imposes upon a landlord a duty to
keep the premises in good and tenantable repair?
a) Section 10
b) Section 12
c) Section 13
d) Section 14
39) When eviction of tenant is sought on any of the grounds mentioned under section 16(1)
of Maharashtra Rent Control Act,
a) Advanced notice is required
b) No notice is required
c) Notice of 30 days is required
d) none of these
40) A tenant, before any repairs/ alterations of the structure must issue notice and obtain
written permission from the landlord
a) True
b) Partially true
c) False
d) Depends on case
41) Who is entitled to recover from his tenant the possession of any premises owned by him
on the ground that such premises are bona fide required by him for occupation by himself
or by any member of his family
a) Members of the armed forces of the Union
b) Scientists
c) successor-in-interest of both (a) & (b)
d) All the above
42) Under section 28 of Maharashtra Rent Control Act landlord is __________ the
premises let or given on license
a) Entitled to inspect
b) Not entitled to inspect
c) Entitled to inspect after giving prior notice to the tenant
d) Entitled to inspect any time
43) Can a landlord convert into commercial the premises meant to be residential?
a) Yes.
b) No, it is prohibited
c) Yes, anytime
d) None of these
44) Under section 31 of the Maharashtra Rent Control Act giving receipt for any amount
received from tenant is
a) Compulsory on every landlord
b) Optional on the landlord
c) Compulsory on some landlord
d) Compulsory if the tenant demands otherwise not
45) Under Maharashtra Rent Control Act, who is empowered to appoint Competent
Authority?
a) The State Government
b) The Central Government
c) Both the State & the Central Government
d) Either of them
45) Which is not correct about the person to be appointed as a competent authority
a) shall be official who is holding / has held office not lower in rank than that of a deputy
Collector
b) shall be holding / has held a post of civil judge, junior division
c) must be holding / has held a post of chief justice of High Court
d) has been for not less than five years an Advocate, enrolled under Advocates Act, 1961
46) The Competent Authority constituted under Maharashtra Rent Control Act
a) Is a Court
b) Is not a Court
c) is ADR mechanism
d) Is not a Court exercising powers under the Limitation Act, 1963.
47) The Competent Authority constituted under Maharashtra Rent Control Act
a) Is deemed to be public servant within the meaning of Sec. 21 of IPC
b) Is NOT deemed to be a public servant
c) Is deemed to be public servant in certain cases
d) Is NOT deemed to be a public servant in certain cases
48) All the proceedings before the Competent Authority constituted under Maharashtra
Rent Control Act shall be deemed to be judicial proceedings for the purpose of
a) Section 193 of IPC
b) Section 228 of IPC
c) both (a) & (b)
d) Section 2 of the IPC
49) Determination of the Standard Rent would depend upon
a) The provisions of the Maharashtra Rent Control Act
b) The circumstances off each case
c) Fair and / or just character of the amount involved
d) All the above
50) Which section of Maharashtra Rent Control Act deals with Permitted Increase in Rent
a) Section 10
b) Section 11
c) Section 20
d) Section 24
51) According to Section 16 of Maharashtra Rent Control Act, landlord may recover the
possession of any premises on the ground of
a) damage to the property
b) erection of permanent structure
c) subletting
d) all the above
52) In eviction proceedings under section 15 & 16 of Maharashtra Rent Control Act,
regular trial is required to be conducted by the Court
a) Specified in Section 33
b) Specified in Section 34
c) Specified in Section 39
d) Specified in Section 40
52) No appeal lies against the order of Competent Authority established under
Maharashtra Rent Control Act
a) Correct statement
b) False statement
c) Correct statement nonetheless a revision application can be filed against the same
d) Partly true
53) Competent Authority established under Maharashtra Rent Control Act is empowered
to
a) evict the tenant
b) pass an order for compensation made u/s 22, 23 & 24
c) only one of (a) or (b)
d) both (a) & (b)
54) The term ‘landlord’ means
a) The owner / freeholder
b) Head landlord
c) Agent receiving rent
d) all the above
55) The term ‘landlord’ also means ‘Agent receiving rent’ was observed in
a) Oakley v. Wilson
b) Barker v. Levinson
c) both (a) & (b)
d) none of the above
56) ‘Paying guest’ implies
a) a person is given a part of the premises on license
b) the person is not the member of the family of the licensor
c) the licensor also resides in the premises
d) all the above
57) Landlord is entitled to critically examine his premises was held in
a) Empeegee Portfolio Services Pvt. Ltd. V. Sharada Navinchandra Shah
b) Kamalabai Laxman Mutraj v. Bherumal Verimal Haran
c) in both (a) & (b)
d) in none of the above
58) Maharashtra Rent Control Act puts Bar of Jurisdiction on Civil Court in Section 47
a) True Statement
b) Partially true
c) False statement
d) In some cases
59) Landlord can temporary increase rent not exceeding 25 % of the Standard Rent
a) Yes always
b) No
c) Only when landlord has carried out structural repairs
d) Occasionally
60) The main purpose of provision of fixing Standard Rent is
a) To bring uniformity in rents
b) For deciding local tax rates
c) to provide remedy to weaker sections of tenants against exploitation by the landlord
d) to help State government in revenue collection
61) A party aggrieved by the order passed by the Tahsildar under section 140 of the MLR
Code
a) Can file an appeal u/s 257 of the Code
b) Can file a civil suit
c) both (a) & (b)
d) no appeal lies
62) The powers of review under section 258(2) of MLR Code are
a) Akin to the powers of review under Civil Procedure Code
b) Can be invoked only if the circumstances mentioned therein are satisfied
c) both (a) & (b)
d) very wide
63) Tahsildar while executing powers under the provisions of MLR Code
a) Does not have power to review
b) Does not have jurisdiction to review
c) Can review only with prior permission from the superior authorities/ officers
d) All the above
64) According to Section 262 of the MLR Code ____________ has the power to fix & levy
assessment for land revenue
a) The Collector
b) The Tahsildar
c) Civil Judge
d) all the above
65) As per Section 274 of MLR Code, an appeal lies to the Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal
against any decision or order passed
a) The Collector
b) Assistants of the Collector
c) Other subordinates exercising powers of the Collector
d) all the above
66) The headquarter of the Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal is in
a) Brihan Mumbai
b) Pune
c) Nagpur
d) Aurangabad
67) Who is the chief officer entrusted with local revenue administration at Taluka level?
a) Naib Tahsildar
b) Tahsildar
c) Additional Tahsildar
d) Circle Inspector
68) What are the N. A. purposes ?
a) Erecting any building which is not a ‘farm building’
b) Industrial purpose
c) Commercial Purpose
d) all the above
69) Under section 8 of the MLR Code, __________ has power to appoint survey officers for
fixing of boundary and boundary marks
a) The Collector
b) The State Government
c) The Central Government
d) The High Court
70) The first piece of legislation in India in respect of acquisition of property was
a) The Bengal Regulation 1 of 1824
b) Act XXVIII of 1839
c) Act XVII of 1850
d) Madras Act XX of 1825
71) Acquiring land without payment of compensation would have been arbitrary, violating
a) Article 14
b) Article 15
c) Article 19
d) Article 21
72) The SC in __________ held that The Land Acquisition Act, 1894 provides for the
assessment and payment of compensation
a) Ali Hassan v. Lt. Governor
b) Ram Jiyaman v. State of Uttar Pradesh
c) Waman Rao v. Union of India
d) Somawati v. State of Punjab
73) Land Acquisition Act, 1894 is a
a) Central Act
b) State Act
c) Both Central & State Act
d) neither Central nor State Act
74) In Somawati v. State of Punjab, the Supreme Court held that object of the Land
Acquisition Act was to empower the government to acquire land
a) Only for public purposes
b) For a company
c) If for a company, the purpose of the company should be directly connected with or for the
construction of some work which is likely to prove directly useful to the public land
d) all the above
75) Who can enact law relating to acquisition of property?
a) Union Government
b) State Government
c) Both Union & State Government
d) Neither Union nor State Government
76) Land Acquisition Act, 1894 was replaced by the Right to Fair Compensation and
Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act in
a) 2012
b) 2013
c) 2014
d) 2015
77) Under the Land Acquisition Act, the process of acquisition begins with a preliminary
notification on signaling the need to acquire the land
a) Notification is issued in the official gazette only
b) Notification is issued in two daily newspapers circulated in the concerned locality
c) Notification is issued both in official gazette as well as in two daily newspapers circulated in
the concerned locality of which at least one shall be in the regional language.
d) both (a) & (b)
78) The notification puts forward
a) The intention of the government to acquire land
b) Entitles the government officials to investigate and ascertain whether the land is suitable for
the purposes
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
79) An award of a collector is an offer of compensation made on behalf of the government.
a) Claimant may not accept the award or accept it with protest
b) Person not accepting the award or accepting with protest has a right make an application to the
Collector to refer the matter to the Civil Court for determination of market value of the land
acquired
c) both (a) & (b) are correct statements
d) only (b) is correct statement
80) Provision of Housing units in case of Displacement include
a) If a house is lost in rural areas, a constructed house shall be provided as per the Indira Awas
Yojana specifications. If any affected family in rural areas so prefers, the equivalent cost of the
house may be offered in lieu of the constructed house.
b) If a house is lost in urban areas, not less than 50 sq mts in plint area a constructed house shall
be given. If any such family in urban areas opts not take the house offered, may get one lakh fifty
thousand rupees as a one-time financial assistance.
c) Both (a) & (b) are correct statement
d) Both (a) & (b) are partially correct statement
81) When can the Collector take Possession of the Land under Acquisition process u/s 38?
a) After ensuring the full payment of compensation within the period of three months
b) After ensuring rehabilitation and resettlement entitlements are paid or tendered to the entitled
persons within a period of six months for the monetary part of rehabilitation and resettlements.
c) After the publication of notification showing the intension to acquire
d) both (a) & (b)
82) Which one is the incorrect Statement- under Land Acquisition Act, 1894
a) The land acquired for public purpose shall be used for the same
b) It is obligatory upon the State to return the land to the original land owner if it is not put to use
for what purpose the land is acquired.
c) The land acquired for a company first vests in the State and then is transferred to the company
on payment of amount or cost of acquisition
d) If the acquired land is no longer required by the company it should not be offered back to the
original owner
83) Under Land Acquisition Act, 1894 collector has power to acquire the land, in cases of
urgency from the date of preliminary notification without following the procedure
accorded in the section 5-A of the Act
a) For a period of three years
b) For a period of five years
c) For a period of seven years
d) For a period of ten years
84) Salus Populi est Supreme lex means
a) Supreme Court laws are better
b) People should pay great respect to welfare law
c) Regard for the public welfare is the highest law
d) Supreme law should be popular
85) Necessities Public a major est quam Privata means
a) Public necessity is greater than private necessity.
b) Necessity is basis of law
c) Law should be based on necessity
d) Majority should be consulted to make good law
86) In Kesvananda Bharati v. State of Kerala the court by 7:6 majority held that
a) Parliament can amend any provisions of the Constitution under its constituent power (Article
368)
b) It can ament Fundamental Rights also
c) The Parliament power to amend does not include the power to alter the basic structure or
frame work of the Constitution
d) All the above
88) Can a member of owner’s family become a tenant?
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) Through agreement only
d) Depends on case
89) Tenancy of any land stands terminated when tenant
a) Fails to pay the rent for any revenue year before the 31st day of the May
b) Has done any destructive or permanently injurious act to the land
c) has failed to cultivate it personally
d) all the above
90) Every appeal or application for revision under Tenancy Act shall be filed within a
period of
a) 60 days
b) 90 days
c) 30 days
d) 45 days
91) At present, which tenancy laws are in operation in Maharashtra?
a) Maharashtra Tenancy & Agricultural Lands Act (Vidarbha region)
b) Hyderabad Tenancy & Agricultural Lands Act
c) Maharashtra Tenancy & Agricultural Lands Act
d) all the above
92) Surrender of Tenancy Right by the Tenant
a) must be in writing
b) must be verified before the Mamlatdar
c) both (a) & (b)
d) none of these
93) Which is incorrect about the surrender of tenancy
a) It may not be voluntary
b) tenant understands the consequences of surrender
c) it must be writing
d) must be before mamlatdar
94) What is the duties of Mamlatdar?
a) to decide whether a person is an agriculturist
b) to decide whether a person is / was at any time is past a tenant
c) to determine the rates of the rent
d) all the above
95) Appeal against an order of the Agricultural Land Tribunal lie to
a) The Collector
b) District Civil Judge
c) High Court
d) Divisional Commissioner
96) Revision application against the order passed by the collector in appeal lies to
a) Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal
b) High Court
c) Supreme Court
d) Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal only on specified ground
97) What is the exclusive jurisdiction to try the matters arising out of Tenancy?
a) Agricultural Land Tribunal
b) Mamlatdar
c) Collector
d) all the above
98) Landlord’s right to terminate tenancy for cultivation includes
a) The tenant is not a permanent tenant
b) the land is required for bona fide personal cultivation & for non-agriculture purpose
c) both (a) & (b)
d) none of the above
99) Maharashtra Rent Control Act applies to premises let for the purposes of residence,
education, business, trade or storage in the areas specified in
a) Schedule I
b) Schedule II
c) Schedule III
d) Only Schedule I & Schedule II
100) 9th schedule along with Article 31B was added in 1951
a) through the first amendment in Indian Constitution
b) through the second amendment in Indian Constitution
c) through the third amendment in Indian Constitution
d) through the fourth amendment in Indian Constitution

Answer Keys
1) d) Both (a) & (b)
2) d) all the above
3) c) Articles 19(1) (f) & Article 31
4) a) Article 300A
5) a) The Concurrent List
6) b) The Fourth
7) b) The Fourth
8) c) KK Kochuni v. State of Madras
9) c) Legal Right
10) a) Maharashtra Land Revenue Code 1966
11) a) Commissioner holding the rank of secretary
12) b) District collector
13) c) Tahsildar assisted by Naib Tahsildar
14) b) Talathi
15) b) District Inspector of Land Records
16) a) City survey officers
17) a) Collector
18) b) Sub-Registrar
19) b) Talathi
20) c) Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal
21) d) Inspector General of Police
22) c) 1st August to 31st July
23) ‘Saza’ means
a) A group of villages in a Taluka
24) d) All the above
25) d) all of the above
26) b) He is a Revenue officer
27) a) Talathi
28) d) Circle Inspector
29) a) Sections 50-53
30) b) Babamiya Ahmed Shah v. Tahsildar, Beed
31) b) Jagpal Singh & others v. State of Punjab & others
32) c) both (a) & (b)
33) d) All the above
34) a) The Collector
35) a) The whole of the State of Maharashtra
36) c) both (a) & (b)
37) a) 4 percent per annum
38) d) Section 14
39) b) No notice is required
40) a) True
41) d) All the above
42) c) Entitled to inspect after giving prior notice to the tenant
43) b) No, it is prohibited
44) a) Compulsory on every landlord
45) a) The State Government
45) c) must be holding / has held a post of chief justice of High Court
46) d) Is not a Court exercising powers under the Limitation Act, 1963.
47) a) Is deemed to be public servant within the meaning of Sec. 21 of IPC
48) c) both (a) & (b)
49) d) All the above
50) b) Section 11
51) d) all the above
52) a) Specified in Section 33
52) c) Correct statement nonetheless a revision application can be filed against the same
53) d) both (a) & (b)
54) d) all the above
55) c) both (a) & (b)
56) d) all the above
57) c) in both (a) & (b)
58) a) True Statement
59) c) Only when landlord has carried out structural repairs
60) c) to provide remedy to weaker sections of tenants against exploitation by the landlord
61) c) both (a) & (b)
62) c) both (a) & (b)
63) d) All the above
64) a) The Collector
65) d) all the above
66) a) Brihan Mumbai
67) b) Tahsildar
68) d) all the above
69) b) The State Government
70) a) The Bengal Regulation 1 of 1824
71) a) Article 14
72) b) Ram Jiyaman v. State of Uttar Pradesh
73) a) Central Act
74) d) all the above
75) c) Both Union & State Government
76) b) 2013
77) c) Notification is issued both in official gazette as well as in two daily newspapers circulated
in the concerned locality of which at least one shall be in the regional language.
78) c) Both (a) & (b)
79) c) both (a) & (b) are correct statements
80) c) Both (a) & (b) are correct statement
81) d) both (a) & (b)
82) b) It is obligatory upon the State to return the land to the original land owner if it is not put to
use for what purpose the land is acquired.
83) a) For a period of three years
84) c) Regard for the public welfare is the highest law
85) a) Public necessity is greater than private necessity.
86) d) All the above
88) b) No.
89) d) all the above
90) a) 60 days
91) d) all the above
92) c) both (a) & (b)
93) a) It may not be voluntary
94) d) all the above
95) a) The Collector
96) d) Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal only on specified ground
97) d) all the above
98) c) both (a) & (b)
99) d) Only Schedule I & Schedule II
100) a) through the first amendment in Indian Constitution