NMC CBT MOCK TEST 2

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1. What is the purpose of The NMC Code?
It outlines specific tasks or clinical procedures
It ascertains in detail a nurse's or midwife's clinical expertise
It is a tool for educating prospective nurses and midwives

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2. When do you gain consent from a patient and consider it
valid?
Only if a patient has the mental capacity to give consent
Only before a clinical procedure
None of the above

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3. At what stage of the nursing process does the revision of
the care plan occur?
Assessment
Planning
Implementation
Evaluation

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4. You can delegate medication administration to a student
if:
The student was assessed as competent
Only under close, direct supervision
The patient has only oral medication

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5. A patient recently admitted to hospital, requesting to
self administer the medication, has been assessed for
suitability at Level 2 This means that:
 The registrant is responsible for the safe storage of the medicinal products and the
supervision of the administration process ensuring the patient understands the
medicinal product being administered
The patient accepts full responsibility for the storage and administration of the
medicinal products
None of the above - The registrant is responsible for the safe storage of the
medicinal products. At administration time, the patient will ask the registrant to open
the cabinet or locker. The patient will then self-administer the medication under the
supervision of the registrant

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6. In a patient with hourly monitoring, when does a nurse
formally document the monitoring?
Every hour
When there are significant changes to the patient’s condition
At the end of the shift

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7. What is primary care?
The Accident and Emergency Room
GP practices, dental practices, community pharmacies and high street optometrists
First aid provided on the street

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8. What infection control steps should not be taken in a
patient with diarrhoea caused by Clostridium Difficile?
Isolation of the patient
All staff must wear aprons and gloves while attending the patient
All staff will be required to wash their hands before and after contact with the
patient, their bed linen and soiled items
Oral administration of metronidazole, vancomycin, fidaxomicin may be required
None of the above

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9. Independent Advocacy is:
Providing general advice
Making decisions for someone
Care and support work
 Agreeing with everything a person says and doing anything a person asks you to do
None of the above *

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10. Which of the following are not signs of a speed shock?
Flushed face
Headache and dizziness
Tachycardia and fall in blood pressure
Peripheral oedema

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11. Recommended preoperative fasting times are:
2-4 hours
6-12 hours
12-14 hours

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12. Compassion in Practice – the culture of compassionate
care encompasses:
Care, Compassion, Competence, Communication, Courage, Commitment - DoH –
“Compassion in Practice”
Care, Compassion, Competence
Competence, Communication, Courage
Care, Courage, Commitment

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13. Hospital discharge planning for a patient should start:
When the patient is medically fit
On the admission assessment
When transport is available

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14. Examples of offensive/hygiene waste which may be
sent for energy recovery at energy from waste facilities
can include:
Stoma or catheter bags - The Management of Waste from health, social and
personal care -RCN
 Unused non-cytotoxic/cytostatic medicines in original packaging
Used sharps from treatment using cytotoxic or cytostatic medicines
Empty medicine bottles

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15. Patient usually urinates at night Nurse identifies this
as:
Polyuria
Oliguria
Dysuria
Nocturia

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16. An overall risk of malnutrition of 2 or higher signifies:
Low risk of malnutrition
Medium risk of malnutrition
High risk of malnutrition

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17. The signs and symptoms of ectopic pregnancy except:
Vaginal bleeding
Positive pregnancy test
Shoulder tip pain
Protein excretion exceeds 2 g/day

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18. The use of an alcohol-based hand rub for
decontamination of hands before and after direct patient
contact and clinical care is recommended when:
Hands are visibly soiled
Caring for patients with vomiting or diarrhoeal illness, regardless of whether or not
gloves have been worn
Immediately after contact with body fluids, mucous membranes and non-intact skin

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19. In DVT TEDS stockings affect circulation by:
 increasing blood flow velocity in the legs by compression of the deep venous system
- thromboembolism-deterrent hose
decreasing blood flow velocity in legs by compression of the deep venous system

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20. What medications would most likely increase the risk
for fall?
Loop diuretic
Hypnotics
Betablockers
Nsaids

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21. Causes of diarrhoea in Clostridium Difficile are:
Ulcerative colitis - Ulcerative Colitis is a condition that causes inflammation and
ulceration of the inner lining of the rectum and colon
Hashimotos disease - Hashimoto’s disease, also called chronic lymphocytic
thyroiditis or autoimmune thyroiditis, is an autoimmune disease
Pseudomembranous colitis -pseudomembranous colitis (PMC) is an acute,
exudative colitis usually caused by Clostridium difficile. PMC can rarely be caused by
other bacteria,
Crohn’s disease - Crohn’s Disease is one of the two main forms of Inflammatory
Bowel Disease, so may also be called ‘IBD’. The other main form of IBD is a condition
known as Ulcerative Colitis

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22. What do you expect to manifest with fluid volume
deficit?
Low pulse, Low Bp
High pulse, High BP
High Pulse, low BP
Low Pulse, high BP

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23. Wound care management plan should be done with
what type of wound?
Complex wound
Infected wound
 Any type of wound

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24. Wound proliferation starts after?
1-5 days
3-24 days
24 days

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25. Barrier Nursing for C.diff patient what should you not
do?
Use of hand gel/ alcohol rub
Use gloves
Patient has his own set of washers
Strict disinfection of pt’s room after isolation

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26. When will you consider giving out information of the
patient to a police officer?
If he has a rank of an inspector
If safety of the public is at risk

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27. When should adult patients in acute hospital settings
have observations taken?
When they are admitted or initially assessed, A plan should be clearly documented
which identifies which observations should be taken and how frequently subsequent
observations should be done.
When they are admitted and then once daily unless they deteriorate.
As indicated by the doctor.
Temperature should be taken daily, respirations at night, pulse and blood pressure
4 hourly.

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28. Why are physiological scoring systems or early
warning scoring systems used in clinical practice?
 They help the nursing staff to accurately predict patient dependency on a shift by
shift basis.
The system provides an early accurate predictor of deterioration by identifying
physiological criteria that alert the nursing staff to a patient at risk.
These scoring systems are carried out as part of a national audit so we know how
sick patients are in the United Kingdom.
They enable nurses to call for assistance from the outreach team or the doctors via
an electronic communication system.

Question Title
29. You are caring for a patient who has had a recent head
injury and you have been asked to carry out neurological
observations every 15 minutes. You assess and find that
his pupils are unequal and one is not reactive to light. You
are no longer able to rouse him. What are your actions?
Continue with your neurological assessment, calculate your Glasgow Coma Scale
(GCS) and document clearly.
This is a medical emergency. Basic airway, breathing and circulation should be
attended to urgently and senior help should be sought.
Refer to the neurology team.
Break down the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale as follows: best verbal response V =
XX, best motor response M = XX and eye opening E = XX. Use this when you hand over.

Question Title
30. What are the professional responsibilities of the
qualified nurse in medicines management?
Making sure that the group of patients that they are caring for receive their
medications on time. If they are not competent to administer intravenous medications,
they should ask a competent nursing colleague to do so on their behalf.
The safe handling and administration of all medicines to patients in their care. This
includes making sure that patients understand the medicines they are taking, the reason
they are taking them and the likely side effects.
Making sure they know the names, actions, doses and side effects of all the
medications used in their area of clinical practice.
To liaise closely with pharmacy so that their knowledge is kept up to date.

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31. On checking the stock balance in the controlled drug
record book as a newly qualified nurse, you and a
colleague notice a discrepancy. What would you do?
Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren't found,
contact pharmacy to resolve the issue. You will also complete an incident form.
Document the discrepancy on an incident form and contact the senior pharmacist
on duty.
Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren't found
the police need to be informed.
Check the cupboard, record book and order book and inform the registered nurse or
person in charge of the clinical area. If the missing drugs are not found then inform the
most senior nurse on duty. You will also complete an incident form.

Question Title
32. It is important that patients are effectively fasted prior
to surgery in order to:
reduce the risk of vomiting.
reduce the risk of reflux and inhalation of gastric contents.
prevent vomiting and chest infections.
prevent the patient gagging.

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33. What are the principles of gaining informed consent
prior to a planned surgery?
Gaining permission for an imminent procedure by providing information in medical
terms, ensuring a patient knows the potential risks and intended benefits.
Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it, by providing
information, both verbally and with written material, relating to the planned procedure,
for them to read on

the day of planned surgery.

Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it, by informing them
about the procedure and highlighting risks if the procedure is not carried out.
Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it, by providing
information in understandable terms prior to surgery, allowing time for
answering questions, and inviting voluntary participation.

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34. Anti-embolic stockings an effective means of reducing
the potential of developing a deep vein thrombosis
because:
They promote arterial blood flow.
They promote venous blood flow.
They reduce the risk of postoperative swelling.
They promote lymphatic fluid flow, and drainage.

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35. What functions should a dressing fulfil for effective
wound healing?
High humidity, insulation, gaseous exchange, absorbent.
Anaerobic, impermeable, conformable, low humidity.
Insulation, low humidity, sterile, high adherence.
Absorbent, low adherence, anaerobic, high humidity.

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36. When would it be beneficial to use a wound care plan?
on initial assessment of wound
during pre-assessment admission
after surgery
during wound infection, dehiscence or evisceration

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37. Which of the following displays the proper use of
Zimmer frame?
using a 1 point gait
using a 2 point gait
using a 3 point gait
using a 4 point gait

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38. What are the signs and symptoms of shock during
early stage (stage 1-3)?
hypoxemia
 tachycardia and hyperventilation
hypotension
acidosis

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39. A patient just had just undergone lumbar laminectomy,
what is the best nursing intervention?
move the body as a unit
move one body part at a time
move the head first and the feet last
never move the patient at all

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40. Which of the following is a sign of dehydration in the
elderly?
diminished skin turgor
hypertension
anxiety attacks
pyrexia

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41. You walk onto one of the bay on your ward and noticed
a colleague wrongly using a hoist in transferring their
patient. As a nurse you will:
let them continue with their work as you are not in charge of that bay
report the event to the unit manager
call the manual handling specialist nurse for training
inform the relatives of the mistake

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42. Which of the following is not a component of end of life
care?
resuscitation and defibrillation
reduce pain
maintain dignity
 provide family support

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43. You are the named nurse of Mr Corbyn who has just
undergone an abdominal surgery 4 hours ago. You have
administered his regular analgesia 2 hours ago and he is
still complaining of pain. Your most immediate, most
appropriate nursing action?
call the doctor
assist patient in a comfortable position
give another dose
look for a heating pad

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44. Which of the following is a severe complication during
24 hrs post liver biopsy?
pain at insertion site
nausea and vomiting
back pain
bleeding

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45. Which of the following are signs of anaphylaxis?
swelling of tongue and rashes
dyspnoea, hypotension and tachycardia
hypertension and hyperthermia
cold and clammy skin

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46. Which of the following senses is to fade last when a
person dies?
hearing
smelling
seeing
speaking
Question Title
47. Mr Green, a COPD patient was sent home with oxygen
prescription at 2 litres per minute. He is dyspnoeic,
anxious and panicking when you visited him. What is your
most immediate nursing action to relieve dyspnoea?
Call the emergency department for ambulance
Increase O2 rate
Tell patient to calm down in a loud voice
Calmly instruct patient to do deep breathing

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48. You have observed an IV catheter insertion site w/
erythema, swelling, pain and warm? What VIP score would
you document on his notes?
5
2
3
4

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49. What is the best nursing action for this insertion site
(Q49. You have observed an IV catheter insertion site w/
erythema, swelling, pain and warm..)
start antibiotics
re-site cannula
call doctor
elevate

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50. How do you remove a negative pressure dressing?
Remove pressure then detach dressing gently
Get TVN nurse to remove dressing
remove in a quick fashion
ANSWERS.

1C 2A 3D 4B 5C 6A 7B 8E 9E 10D

11B 12A 13B 14A 15D 16C 17D 18C 19A 20B

21C 22C 23C 24B 25A 26B 27A 28B 29B 30B

31D 32B 33D 34B 35A 36A, C, D 37C 38A, B,C 39 A 40A

41B 42A 43B, C 44B 45A,B,D 46A 47D 48C 49B,D 50A