Simulasi

TOEFL 1

Simulasi TOEFL 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

Section 1
Listening Comprehension
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability
to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this
section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis
of what is stated or implied by the speakers you hear. You will not be allowed to
take any note or write in your test book.

Part A
Directions: In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people.
After each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The
conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question,
read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then,
on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Listen to an example. Sample Answer

On the recording, you hear: A B C D

(man) Jim’s been so difficult since he gave up smoking!

(woman) Yes, but it’ll make a new man of him in the long run.
(narrator) What does the woman mean?
In your test book, you read:
(A) Jim is beginning to act like an adult.
(B) Jim will eventually benefit from giving up cigarettes.
(C) Jim has been having a hard time since he started smoking.
(D) Jim is becoming a better long-distance runner.
From the conversation we know that Jim has recently stopped smoking, and that
the woman feels that this will eventually help him. The best answer, then, is (B),
“Jim will eventually benefit from giving up cigarettes.” Therefore, you should
choose answer (B).

2 Listening Comprehension
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1. (A) The fire started to attack the building.
(B) The firefighter stared at the attacker.
(C) The fire probably began at the top of the building.
(D) The firefighter started to attack the fire.
2. (A) The firefighters saved the homes for last.
(B) A firefighter saved the hillside last night.
(C) The homes on the hillside were burned.
(D) The houses weren’t destroyed.
3. (A) Wait at a drugstore.
(B) Go to a doctor’s office.
(C) Find a hospital.
(D) Look for some aspirin
4. (A) The final exam was harder than the others.
(B) There were no two exams rather than one.
(C) He thought the exam would be easier.
(D) The exam was not very difficult.
5. (A) See a lawyer.
(B) Come to an agreement.
(C) Sue the company.
(D) Go to court.
6. (A) He seemed to be rather hungry.
(B) She was quite angry at him.
(C) He was trying to hang posters.
(D) She believed he was mad.
7. (A) Chuck’s bank account has too much money in it.
(B) He thinks Chuck has the wrong kind of bank account.
(C) He thinks that Chuck is on his way home from the bank.
(D) There isn’t enough money in Chuck’s account.
8. (A) He thought the lesson didn’t matter.
(B) He couldn’t learn the lesson.
(C) He learned a massive number of details.
(D) He didn’t like most of his lesson.
9. (A) The librarian was quite reserved with the students for two days.
(B) Within two days the librarian had the books for the students.

Simulasi TOEFL 1 3
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(C) The librarian reserved the books for the students.
(D) The students put the books on hold for two days.
10. (A) After the earthquake, the insurance company came out to inspect the
damage.
(B) The insurance company insisted that the building be repaired to meet
earthquake safety standards.
(C) The inhabitants paid their premiums after the earthquake.
(D) The insurance company paid for the earthquake damage.
11. (A) She agrees that getting the car was not a good idea.
(B) She imagines that she would like to have a similar car.
(C) She thinks that the man is mistaken about the car.
(D) She thinks that the man has no imagination.
12. (A) The service at the hotel wasn’t too good.
(B) This hotel gave excellent service.
(C) The service at the hotel could have been improved.
(D) This hotel’s service was the same as the service at other hotel.
13. (A) She’d rather go running.
(B) She doesn’t want to go into the pool.
(C) She’ll change clothes quickly and go swimming.
(D) She needs a sweatsuit to go running.
14. (A) The attendant checked the oil in Mark’s car.
(B) Mark checked to see if he had enough oil in his car.
(C) Mark checked with the service station attendant.
(D) Mark wrote a check to pay for the oil.
15. (A) The interview is very important.
(B) He is worried about the interview.
(C) What he’s wearing to the interview is important.
(D) He is not concerned about the interview.
16. (A) He’s not feeling well.
(B) He’s rather sick of working.
(C) He’s feeling better today than yesterday.
(D) He’d really rather not answer the question.
17. (A) He thinks the bill is due in the middle of the month.
(B) The bill is approximately fifteen dollars.

4 Listening Comprehension
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(C) He knows when they should pay the bill.
(D) The bill is going to be fifteen days late.
18. (A) She was not capable of making such a long trip.
(B) She did not know about the reception.
(C) She was sorry that she could not attend.
(D) She was not able to go because she was tired.
19. (A) She’s told Matt he’ll go far.
(B) Matt has far from enough talent.
(C) She told Matt to roll farther.
(D) She believes Matt has the ability for the part.
20. (A) He thinks she will do a good job.
(B) He will impress everybody with the presentation.
(C) She has good reason to worry.
(D) She will be fine if she practices more.
21. (A) They are going on strike.
(B) They are lying down on the job.
(C) They are being released from their job.
(D) They are relaxing too much at the factory.
22. (A) He has been regularly using a computer.
(B) He communicates with a Boston company.
(C) He regularly goes to communities around Boston.
(D) He has been travelling back and forth to Boston.
23. (A) They are taking a boat trip together.
(B) The six chapters are all about the boat.
(C) Everyone has to do the same thing.
(D) The man will read while he’s on the boat.
24. (A) She has problems that others aren’t aware of.
(B) Others aren’t aware of her problems.
(C) She knows she’s been a problem.
(D) She doesn’t have a care in the world.
25. (A) The books were more expensive than two hundred dollars.
(B) She would like to buy the books.
(C) She cannot afford the price of the books.
(D) She has not purchased her books yet.

Simulasi TOEFL 1 5
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
26. (A) She’d like the man to delay his trip.
(B) She prefers the man leave e few minutes earlier than he planned.
(C) She wants to know if the man will stay in the market for only a few
minutes.
(D) She’d like to talk to the man for a few minutes.
27. (A) This math project was extremely complex.
(B) This math project was less complicated than the last.
(C) They seldom complete math projects.
(D) Complicated math projects are often assigned.
28. (A) The university accepted three students.
(B) None of the students is going to the university.
(C) John was not accepted.
(D) Two were not accepted.
29. (A) The man often drives too quickly.
(B) The police do not stop the man too much.
(C) The man drove rather slowly.
(D) The police should not stop the man so often.
30. (A) She should turn right on the second street.
(B) She is supposed to turn right at this stop sign.
(C) She should turn left at the stop sign after this one.
(D) She should turn left after she turns right.
 

6 Listening Comprehension
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

Part B
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each
conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions
will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose
the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and
fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write on your test book.
31. (A) Whether to introduce the metric system in the United States.
(B) How the metric system should be introduced in the United States.
(C) Which system is better—the English system or the metric system.
(D) How to convert measurements from the English system to the metric
system.
32. (A) Now the weather on radio and TV is reported exclusively in metrics.
(B) Road signs have miles marked on them, but not kilometers.
(C) Both the English system and the metric system are being used on signs,
packages, and weather reports.
(D) Grocery stores use only metrics for their packaging.
33. (A) He thought that a gradual adoption would be better for everyone.
(B) He thought that only metrics should be used.
(C) He thought that only the English system should be used.
(D) He thought that adults should use both systems, but that children should
be taught only the metric system.
34. (A) Unfriendly.
(B) Patronizing.
(C) Uninterested.
(D) Cooperative.
35. (A) She was sick.
(B) She couldn’t make up her mind as to which countries she should visit.
(C) She couldn’t think of a topic for her composition.
(D) She was totally disorganized.
36. (A) That she take a cruise.
(B) That she try to get organized.
(C) That she ride a camel.
(D) That she write about her trip.

Simulasi TOEFL 1 7
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
37. (A) Hungary
(B) North Africa
(C) Egypt
(D) The Holy Land
38. (A) To pack his bags for his trip.
(B) To write his own composition.
(C) He’s not feeling well.
(D) To pick up some photographs.
 

8 Listening Comprehension
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

Part C
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After each
talk, you will hear some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose
the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and
fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Here is an example.
On the recording, you hear:
(man) As president of the Spelunker Club, I would like to welcome our new members
and give you some of our club rules which will make your cave and pothole
exploration fun and a little less dangerous.
Because our interest in underground streams, stalactites and stalagmites, and
cave insects leads us into unknown places, we always explore in groups of
four or more people, two of whom should be experienced spelunkers. We begin
our adventure after obtaining permission to enter a particular place and after
telling someone outside our expected time of return.
Caves are cold and a trip may last as long as eight hours, so explorers must
wear plenty of warm clothing and pack a good supply of food.
Caves are also dark, so each member of the party must have a good light attached
to a miner’s helmet, extra batteries and bulbs, and, as a further precaution, a
few candles and matches in a waterproof container.
Now listen to a sample question.
(narrator) What is the speaker’s purpose?
In your test book, you read:
(A) To attract new members to the Spelunker’s Club.
(B) To gain permission to enter caves and potholes.
(C) To describe a typical trip through a cave.
(D) To give new members some useful information.

The best answer to the question, “What is the speaker’s purpose” is (D), “To give new
members some useful information.” Therefore, you should choose answer (D).
Now listen to another sample question.
(narrator) What can best be said about the guidelines referred to here?

Simulasi TOEFL 1 9
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
In your test book, you read:
(A) They are only important for the new members.
(B) They are important to the safety of all spelunkers.
(C) They must be followed in order to find cave insects.
(D) If followed, they eliminate any danger involved in spelunking.
The best answer to the question, “What can best be said about the guidelines
referred to here?” is (B), “They are important to the safety of all spelunkers.”
Therefore, you should choose answer (B).
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write on your test book.
39. (A) Science
(B) Art
(C) Literature
(D) Music
40. (A) They are completely different.
(B) They are somewhat similar but have an essential difference.
(C) They are exactly the same in all respects.
(D) They are unrelated.
41. (A) Objective
(B) Idealistic
(C) Philosophical
(D) Environmental
42. (A) Heredity
(B) Environment
(C) Idealism
(D) Natural laws
43. (A) The relationship between language and culture.
(B) The culture of Hopi society.
(C) American Indian cultures.
(D) The life of Benjamin Lee Whorf
44. (A) European languages.
(B) South American languages.
(C) American Indian languages.
(D) Computer languages.
45. (A) All languages are related.
(B) All American Indian languages are related.

10 Listening Comprehension
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(C) Language influences the manner in which an individual understands reality.
(D) Language and culture are not related
46. (A) The Sapir Hypothesis
(B) The Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis.
(C) The Sapir-Whorf-Boas Hypothesis.
(D) The American Indian Model of the Universe
47. (A) In Scout troops.
(B) In the British army.
(C) In boy’s camps.
(D) At Scout jamboree.
48. (A) Training boys as Scouts.
(B) Training members of the armed forces.
(C) Boy Scout camps.
(D) Book publishing.
49. (A) In 1920.
(B) When he was thirty-seven.
(C) In 1910.
(D) When he was eighty.
50. (A) Cook.
(B) Organizer.
(C) Author.
(D) Soldiers. 

Simulasi TOEFL 1 11
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

Section 2
Structure and Written Expression
Time – 25 minutes

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is

appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this
section, with special directions for each type.

Direction: Question 1 – 15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you

will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word
or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot
be seen.

Look at the following example,

Example 1
Vegetables are an excellent source vitamins. Sample Answer
(A) of A B C D
(B) has
(C) where
(D) that

The sentence should read, “Vegetables are an excellent source of vitamins.”

Therefore, you should choose answer (A).

Example 2
in history when remarkable progress was made within a relatively short
span of time. Sample Answer
(A) Periods A B C D
(B) Throughout periods
(C) There have been periods
(D) Periods have been

12 Structure and Written Expression

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
The sentence should read, “There have been periods in history when remarkable
progress was made within a relatively short span of time.” Therefore, you should
choose answer (C).
Now begin work on the questions.
1. Chemistry is the science of substance the science of energy.
(A) is physics
(B) or physics
(C) how physics
(D) and physics is
2. The Rocky Mountain goat of North America is not a true goat a goat
antelope.
(A) and
(B) but
(C) any
(D) yet
3. , Aza Griggs Chandler became a pharmacist in Atlanta, Georgia, where
he patented Coca-Cola in 1886.
(A) The private study of medicine and pharmacy.
(B) Medicine and pharmacy were studied privately
(C) After studying medicine and pharmacy privately
(D) He privately studied medicine and pharmacy
4. Recent estimate shows that more than two million bird-watchers in the
United States.
(A) there are among
(B) are there the
(C) there are
(D) among the
5. of newspaper nor the number of pages in an edition has ever been
standardized.
(A) The page size is neither
(B) Neither is the page size
(C) The page size, neither
(D) Neither the page size
6. Of the three common salicylates, .
(A) the presence of aspirin for the most therapeutic uses
(B) for most therapeutic uses aspirin preferred

Simulasi TOEFL 1 13
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
(C) preferring aspirin for most therapeutic uses.
(D) Aspirin is preferred for most therapeutic uses.
7. Nearly all trees have seeds that fall to the earth, take root, and eventually .
(A) generate new seeds
(B) new seeds generated
(C) by generating new seeds
(D) new seeds generated there
8. Ellis Haizlip began his stage career in Washington, D.C., supervised the
Howard University Players during their summer season.
(A) he was
(B) where he was
(C) was where he
(D) where he
9. The greater an object’s mass, the more difficult it is .
(A) to speed it up or slow it down
(B) it speeds up or slows down
(C) than speeding it up or slowing it down
(D) than speeding up or slowing down
10. Venus is perpetually covered by thick, opaque clouds the planet’s surface
from view.
(A) that they shield
(B) the shield is
(C) they shield
(D) that shield
11. brings about happiness has utility, according to the doctrine of
utilitarianism.
(A) It (C) Each
(B) Whatever (D) Why
12. An increase in nation’s money supply, without an accompanying increase in
economic activity, result in higher prices.
(A) tends (C) tending to
(B) tends the (D) will tend to
13. Symphonies, string quarters, and often have a sonata form.
(A) for instrumental solos long work
(B) works are long for instrumental solos

14 Structure and Written Expression

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
(C) long works for instrumental solos
(D) instrumental solos have long works
14. The impact of Thoreau’s “On the Duty of Civil Disobedience” might not have
been so far-reaching for Elizabeth Peabody, who dared to publish the
controversial issues.
(A) it not having been
(B) it is not being
(C) had it not been
(D) is it not being
15. within the algae began very early is evident.
(A) Evolution that was
(B) That evolution
(C) There was evolution
(D) Evolution

Direction: In question 16-40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases.
The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify
the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence
to be corrected. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and
fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Example 1
A ray of light passing through the center of a thin lens Sample Answer
A B
A B C D
keep its original direction.
C D

The sentence should read, “A ray of light passing through the center of a thin lens
keeps its original direction.” Therefore, you should choose answer (C).

Example 2
The mandolin, a musical instrument that has strings, Sample Answer
A B
A B C D
was probably copied from the lute, a many older
C D
instrument.

Simulasi TOEFL 1 15
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
The sentence should read, “The mandolin, a musical instrument that has strings,
was probably copied from the lute, a much older instrument.” Therefore, you
should choose answer (D).
Now begin work on the questions.
16. The purpose of inductive logic is to inferring general laws from
A B C
particular occurrences.
D
17. Everyone child in the United States must receive some form of educational
A B C
instruction.
D
18. The creation of mobile extremely greatly extended the limit of the art of sculpture.
A B C D
19. Most of we know that conductors direct their orchestras with a baton, but
A
how many are aware that they also direct with the faces, hands, and shoulders?
B C D
20. A desert area that has been without water for six years will still bloom when
A B C
rain will come.
D
21. The primary agents of community orientation in contemporary society are
A B
the family, the peer group, the class room, and the working.
C D
22. An internationally famous ballerina, Maria Tallchief demonstrated that the
A B
quality of ballet in the United States could equal those of the ballet in Europe.
C D
23. One of the essential features of the modern skyscraper is being the elevator.
A B C D

16 Structure and Written Expression

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
24. Accounting procedures can be development for any type of organization, not
A B C
simply for profit-making concerns.
D
25. A rabbit moves about by hoping on its hind legs, which are much longer and
A B C
more strong than its front legs.
D
26. Good puzzles provide an excellent way to explore the realm of thought abstract
A B C
best known to mathematicians.
D
27. Because their use dead matter as food, mushrooms hasten the return of
A B C D
nutrients to the soil.
28. The tough skin formed by dried linseed oil does not break or chip, and resistant
A B C D
to changes in the weather.
29. Between 1013 and 1916, journalism and lecturer Ida Bell Wells-Barnett served as
A B
a prohibition officer for the Chicago municipal court.
C D
30. On land a polar bear can brief outrun a reindeer.
A B C D
31. Today, flint has small importance as an industrial product.
A B C D
32. A major issue at the Constitutional of 1787 was the decision concerning the
A B
manner of election the president.
C D
33. Unlike another blood cells, white cells have a nucleus that enables them to
A B C
divide and reproduce.
D

Simulasi TOEFL 1 17
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
34. The valerian family includes more than 300 different kinds of perennial
A B
or annual herb and a few shrubs.
C D

35. Either humans and animals learn by experience, and what is learned influences
A B C
the planning and carrying out of simple actions.
D
36. Son of minister, Paul Robeson graduated first from Rutgers and then from
A B C D
Columbia University law school.
37. Dallas, Texas, has become a national hub of bank, fashion, manufacturing,
A B C
trade, and transportation.
D
38. Vibrantly woven Navajo rugs and tapestries are marks of elegant and taste
A B
in homes and art collections the world over.
C D
39. Lillian D. Wald was an ardent pacifist, and participants in peace movements
A B
held her in big regard.
C D
40. A bridge can be defined as a structure surmounting an obstacle such a river,
A B C
declivity, road, or railway.
D

18 Structure and Written Expression

3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3

Section 3
Reading Comprehension
Time—55 Minutes

Direction: In the rest of this section you will read several passages. Each one is
followed by a number of questions about it. You are to choose the one best answer,
(A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number
of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer
you have chosen.
Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is
stated or implied in that passage.
Read the following passage:
The rattles with which a rattlesnake warns of its presence are formed by
loosening interlocking hollow rings of hard skin, which make a buzzing sound
when its tail is shaken. As a baby, the snake begins to form its rattles from the
button at the very tip of its tail. Thereafter, each time it sheds its skin, a new ring
is formed. Popular belief holds that a snake’s age can be told by counting the
rings, but this idea is fallacious. In fact, a snake may lose its old skin as often as
four times a year. Also, rattles tend to wear or break off with time.

Example 1
A rattlesnake’s rattles are made of
(A) skin (C) wood
(B) bone (D) muscle
According to the passage, a rattlesnake’s rattle are made out of rings of hard skin.
Therefore, you should choose answer (A).

Example 2
How often does a rattlesnake shed its skin?
(A) Once every four year
(B) Once every four months
(C) Up to four times every year
(D) Four times more than other snakes

Simulasi TOEFL 1 19
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
The passage states that “a snake may lose its old skin as often as four times a year.”
Therefore, you should choose answer (C).
Now begin work on the questions.
Question 1 – 9
Line Magnesium is another mineral we now obtain by collecting huge
volumes of ocean water and treating it with chemicals, although originally
it was derived only from brines or from the treatment of such magnesium-
containing rocks as dolomite, of which whole mountain ranges are composed.
(5) In a cubic mile of seawater there are about four million tons of magnesium.
Since the direct extraction method was developed about 1941, production has
increased enormously. It was magnesium from the sea that made possible
the wartime growth of the aviation industry, for every airplane made in
Line the United States (and in most other countries as well) contains about half
(10) a ton of magnesium metal. And it has innumerable uses in other industries
where a light weight metal is desired, besides its long-standing utility as an
insulting material, and its uses in printing inks, medicines, and toothpaste.

1. What would the paragraph preceding this passage most probably have
been about?
(A) The distribution of magnesium
(B) Unusual qualities of magnesium
(C) A different mineral collected from seawater
(D) The use of chemicals in treating seawater
2. What is the main topic of this passage?
(A) Uses of seawater
(B) Treatment of seawater
(C) Chemical properties of magnesium
(D) Derivation and uses of magnesium
3. The word “derived” in line 3 could best be replaced by
(A) dug
(B) sought
(C) purchased
(D) obtained
4. According to the passage, magnesium was first obtained from
(A) rocks found on land
(B) great amounts of ocean water

20 Reading Comprehension
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
(C) the sea floor
(D) major industrial sites
5. The word “extraction” in line 6 is closely in meaning to
(A) disentanglement
(B) obtainment
(C) drilling
(D) exploration
6. According to the passage, which of the following was a direct consequence
of the new method of obtaining magnesium?
(A) The development of insulation materials
(B) Increased airplane production
(C) Improved medical facilities
(D) The development of cheap inks for printing
7. According to the passage, why is magnesium important to industry?
(A) It is strong.
(B) It conducts heat well.
(C) It weights little.
(D) It is inexpensive to produce.
8. “Enormously” in line 7 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) largely
(B) amountly
(C) extremely
(D) exceptionally
9. It can be inferred from the passage that during the past sixty-five years
the demand for magnesium has
(A) declined greatly
(B) remained stable
(C) increased slightly
(D) risen dramatically

Simulasi TOEFL 1 21
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
Question 10 –19
Line Russian-born Max Weber grew up in New York, studied art there, and
then went back to Europe to familiarize himself with contemporary artistic
developments. On returning to the United States Weber worked in the new
styles he had discovered in Paris and soon became recognized as a pioneer
(5) of American abstract painting. An example of his work at the National
Gallery of Art in Washington, D.C., is a 1915 painting entitles “Rush Hour,
New York.” Using abstract, geometrical forms, Weber has expressed the
movement, noise, and vibrancy of the great metropolis. The picture blends
Line elements of two European styles: cubism, which shows objects from a number
(10) of different angles of vision at the same time, and futurism, which portrays
speed and objects in motion. Forceful lines and spiky forms throughout
the composition convey the energy and vitality of the city. Weber expresses
the city’s diversity by juxtaposing forms with rounded and angular shapes
Line to suggest specific elements of the urban landscape: skyscrapers, flashing
(15) lights, and hurrying people.
10. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for this
passage?
(A) Cubism
(B) American Art
(C) Works of the National Gallery of Art
(D) An Innovative American Artist
11. The word “recognized” in line 4 could best be replaced by
(A) known
(B) authorized
(C) publicized
(D) established
12. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the
development of Weber’s art?
(A) It began as a hobby late in his life.
(B) It gradually inspired diversity among his European contemporaries.
(C) It evolved as one of America’s earliest examples of abstract painting.
(D) It came to represent the first purely American style.
13. The word “abstract” in line 7 is closely in meaning to
(A) blended lines
(B) geometrical forms

22 Reading Comprehension
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
(C) noisy expression
(D) unknown title
14. The painting discussed in the passage can be found in
(A) Paris, France
(B) Washington
(C) New York
(D) Moscow, Russia
15. “Rush Hour, New York” was completed in the
(A) early nineteenth century
(B) late nineteenth century
(C) early twentieth century
(D) late twentieth century
16. The mood of the painting “Rush Hour, New York” can be best described as
(A) depressing
(B) vigorous
(C) hostile
(D) cheerful
17. According to the passage, Weber uses the style of cubism when he
(A) shows an object simultaneously from many viewpoints.
(B) portrays objects with geometric exactness.
(C) leaves all human faces blank.
(D) represents all forms isolated within boxes.
18. “Vitality” in line 12 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) role
(B) essentialness
(C) importance
(D) liveliness
19. According to the passage, an element of futurism that Weber’s painting
displays is the
(A) impression of movement
(B) inclusion of many human forms
(C) portrayal of skyscrapers
(D) application of forceful colors

Simulasi TOEFL 1 23
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
Question 20 – 29
Line The United States court system, as part of the federal system of
government, is characterized by dual hierarchies: there are both state and
federal courts. Each state has its own system of courts, composed of civil
and criminal trial courts sometimes intermediate courts of appeal, and a
(5) state supreme court. The federal court system consists of a series of trial
courts (called district courts) serving relatively small geographic regions
(there is at least one for every state), a tier of circuit courts of appeal that
hear appeals from many district courts in a particular geographic region,
Line and the Supreme Court of the United States. The two court systems are to
(10) some extent overlapping, in that certain kinds of disputes (such as claim
that a state law is in violation of the Constitution) may be initiated in either
system. They are also to some extend hierarchical, for the federal system
stands above the state system in that litigants (person engaged in lawsuit)
Line who lose their cases in the state supreme may appeal their cases to the
(15) Supreme Court of the United States.
Thus, the typical court case begins in a trial court—a court of general
jurisdiction—in the state or federal system. Most cases go no further than
the trial court: for example, the criminal defendant is convicted (by a trial
Line or a guilty plea) and sentenced by the court and the case ends; the personal
(20) injury suit results in a judgment by a trial court (or an out-of-court settlement
by the parties while the court suit is pending) and the parties leave the court
system. But sometimes the losing party at the trial court cares enough about
the cause that the matter does not end there. In these cases, the “loser” at the
trial court may appeal to the next higher court.
20. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) Civil and criminal courts
(B) Typical court cases
(C) The court system in the United States
(D) The appeal court process
21. The possessive “its” in line 3 refers to
(A) state court
(B) federal court
(C) each state
(D) federal system

24 Reading Comprehension
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
22. According to the passage, district courts are also known as
(A) circuit courts
(B) supreme courts
(C) intermediate courts
(D) trial courts
23. In the last sentence of the first paragraph, the phrase “engaged in” could
be replaced by which of the following?
(A) committed to
(B) involved in
(C) attentive to
(D) engrossed to
24. The passage indicates that litigant who lose their cases in the state trial
court may take them to a
(A) different trial court in the same state
(B) court in a different geographic region
(C) federal trial court
(D) state supreme court
25. The expression “person engaged in lawsuit” in line 13 is closest in
meaning to which of the following?
(A) A litigant
(B) A prosecutor
(C) A lawyer
(D) A judge
26. It can be inferred from the passage that typical court cases are
(A) always appealed
(B) usually resolved in the district courts
(C) always overlapping
(D) usually settled by the Supreme Court
27. The word “convicted” in line 18 is closely in meaning to
(A) punishment assigned to a criminal
(B) declared to be guilty
(C) charged with an offence
(D) formally appealed
28. Which of the following is most likely to be the subject of the paragraph
following the passage?
(A) The process of an appeal
(B) Out-of-court settlement

Simulasi TOEFL 1 25
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 1 3 3 3 3
(C) The state court structure
(D) Sentencing procedures
29. Where in the passage does the author explain that some disputes coincide
partly?
(A) Line 3 – 5 (C) Line 9 – 12
(B) Line 5 – 9 (D) Line 17 – 22

Questions 30 – 39
Line As the South was beginning to find itself after the American Civil War,
the North, too, focused its interest on the lands below the Mason-Dixon
line. Northerners swarmed over the South: journalists, agents of prospective
investors, spectators with plans for railroads, writers anxious to expose
(5) themselves to a new environment.
One of these was Constance Fenimore Woolson, a young woman from
New Hampshire, a grandniece of James Fenimore Cooper, who like many
Northerners, was drawn to the unhappy South by affection, compassion,
Line admiration, or the charm of the life there. With her singular gift of minute
(10) observation and a talent for analysis, her imagination lingered over the
wrecked old mansions that stood near by, perhaps in ruined rice lands, amid
desolated fields and broken dikes. Such was the dwelling on the Georgia sea
island that sidled and leaned in Jupiter Lights with one of its roofless wings
Line falling into the cellar. After St. Augustine, Charleston especially attracted
(15) Miss Woolson, crumbling as it was but aristocratic still.
In a later novel, Horace Chase, one of the best of all her books, she
anticipated Thomas Wolfe in describing Asheville, in which the young
capitalist from the North who falls in love with the Southern girl sees the
Line “Lone Star” of future mountain resorts.
(20) Miss Woolson was a high conscious writer, careful, skillful, subtle,
with a sensitive, clairvoyant feeling for human nature, with the gift of
discriminating observation that characterized Howells and Henry James.
She was surely best in her stories of the South, fascinated as she was by its
Line splendor and carelessness, its tropical plants, flowers, odors and birds, and
(25) the pathos and beauty of the old order as she saw it in decay.
30. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
(A) The Rebuilding of the South
(B) Literature After the Civil War
(C) Thomas Wolfe’s Influence on Woolson
(D) Constance Fenimore Woolson and Her Works

26 Reading Comprehension
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 1 3 3 3 3
31. Which of the following are NOT mentioned in the passage as the kind
of people who went to the South after the Civil War?
(A) Railroad builders
(B) Newspaper writers
(C) Northern politicians
(D) Investment agents
32. The word “there” in line 9 refers to
(A) Mason-Dixon
(B) New Hampshire
(C) the North
(D) the South
33. The word “minute” in line 9 is closest in meaning to
(A) instant
(B) huge
(C) insignificant
(D) timely
34. According to the passage, Constance Fenimore Woolson was originally from
(A) St. Augustine
(B) Georgia
(C) Charleston
(D) New Hampshire
35. As it is used in the first sentence of the second paragraph, the word
“drawn” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) attracted
(B) sketched
(C) traced
(D) hauled
36. The expression “lingered over” in line 10 is closest in meaning to
(A) kept up with
(B) dwelled in
(C) pull to her side
(D) mourned at
37. “Roofless” in line 14 is closest in meaning to
(A) without surface cover
(B) indefinite limit
(C) unbroken part
(D) inexpensive ornament

Simulasi TOEFL 1 27
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 1 3 3 3 3
38. Why does the author mention Howells and James?
(A) To explain why Woolson chose writing as a career
(B) To suggest that Woolson was the object of discrimination
(C) To compare Woolson to some of her fellow writers
(D) To question modern opinion of Woolson’s abilities
39. In the last sentence of the passage, the words “its splendor” refers to the
splendor of
(A) observation
(B) human nature
(C) the South
(D) Woolson’s best story

Questions 40 – 50
Line Our multimillion nerve-cell central nervous system has its roots in the
scattered nerve cells of tiny, lowly organisms that lived in water half a billion
years ago. Nerve cells evidently first appeared in coelenterates—“hollow-gutted”
organism like hydra and the sea anemone. A coelenterate’s nerve network lacks
(5) any kind of centralized sense cells probably began with flatworms—the first
creature to possess a head. Specialized sense cells help flatworms respond more
flexibly than sea anemones to outside stimuli. But like most animals without a
backbone, flatworms act mostly by instinct and reflex.
Line Intelligent behavior remained impossible until the appearance of
(10) relatively big, complex types of brain—the types we find among the
backboned animals, or vertebrates. The tiniest fish have a larger brain than
the largest insect. But the development of a fish’s three-part brain reflects
that beast’s unintellectual priorities. Much of the forebrain deals only with
smell. The midbrain handles vision, the hindbrain, balance.
Line
(15) With early mammals the brain grew larger and more complex. Sense
coordination shifted from the midbrain to the forebrain, a developing
structure capped by a folded cerebrum to handle memory and learning.
Meanwhile the hindbrain gained a large cerebellum to coordinate
complicated movements.
Line
(20) Advanced mammals such as monkeys, apes, and human (the primates)
have brains derived from ancestors that took to living in the trees, where
vision mattered more than smell. Accordingly the once-big “smell” part of the
forebrain grew smaller, while the part that handles vision grew much larger.
40. With what topic is this passage mainly concerned?

28 Reading Comprehension
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 1 3 3 3 3
(A) The sensory organs of invertebrates
(B) The anatomy of tiny organism
(C) The origin of the brain and central nervous system
(D) The importance of vision for fish and advanced mammals
41. The word “its” in line 1 refers to
(A) cell
(B) nerve
(C) system
(D) organism
42. The hydra is a kind of
(A) flatworm
(B) coelenterate
(C) sea anemone
(D) nerve cell
43. It can be inferred from the passage that insects do not have
(A) brains
(B) backbones
(C) nerve cells
(D) reflexes
44. According to the passage, what helps to coordinate the complex physical
activity of a mammal?
(A) The cerebellum
(B) The forebrain
(C) The cerebrum
(D) The midbrain
45. What were the first creatures to possess heads?
(A) Sea anemones
(B) Flatworms
(C) Vertebrates
(D) Fish
46. The word “vision” in line 14 is closest in meaning to
(A) prediction
(B) visualization
(C) dream
(D) image

Simulasi TOEFL 1 29
 47. The word “shifted” in line 16 could be best replaced by
(A) moved
(B) set up
(C) removed
(D) modified
48. In the last paragraph, the phrase “took to” could be best replaced by
which of the following?
(A) began
(B) fled
(C) carried to
(D) became friendly toward
49. According to the passage, invertebrates respond to stimuli
(A) without conscious thought
(B) deliberately
(C) mindfully
(D) suspiciously
50. Where in the passage does the author mention animals that give birth of
the live young?
(A) Line 3 – 4
(B) Line 4 – 6
(C) Line 9 – 11
(D) Line 15

30 Reading Comprehension
Simulasi
TOEFL 2

Simulasi TOEFL 2 31
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

Section 1
Listening Comprehension
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability
to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this
section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis
of what is stated or implied by the speakers you hear. You will not be allowed to
take any note or write in your test book.

Part A
Directions: In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people.
After each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The
conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question,
read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then,
on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Listen to an example. Sample Answer

On the recording, you hear: A B C D

(man) Jim’s been so difficult since he gave up smoking!

(woman) Yes, but it’ll make a new man of him in the long run.
(narrator) What does the woman mean?

In your test book, you read:

(A) Jim is beginning to act like an adult.
(B) Jim will eventually benefit from giving up cigarettes.
(C) Jim has been having a hard time since he started smoking.
(D) Jim is becoming a better long-distance runner.

From the conversation we know that Jim has recently stopped smoking, and that
the woman feels that this will eventually help him. The best answer, then, is (B),
“Jim will eventually benefit from giving up cigarettes.” Therefore, you should
choose answer (B).

32 Listening Comprehension
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1. (A) The art professor is not one of his fans.
(B) His drawings were amazing.
(C) The catches that he made were fantastic.
(D) His sketches showed a fantasy world.
2. (A) The parents are going to stay up late.
(B) The parents have given Hannah allowance.
(C) Lately, the parents have not been so loud.
(D) Hannah does not have to go to bed early.
3. (A) Tom tended to dislike biology lab.
(B) Attendance wasn’t necessary at biology lab.
(C) Tom went to biology lab.
(D) There was tendency to require biology lab.
4. (A) The wait has taken close to an hour.
(B) They were stranded in their car.
(C) Most of people have been in line for hours.
(D) They made a line in the sand.
5. (A) On the playground (C) At a zoo
(B) In a parking lot (D) In a photo studio
6. (A) The car stalled on the road.
(B) Someone took the car.
(C) Rob sold his car.
(D) Rob heard someone steal his car.
7. (A) She just broke some eggs.
(B) They need to eat fast.
(C) She is serious about the boat.
(D) She has a choice to make.
8. (A) Twenty pairs of shoes are on sale.
(B) The shoe salesclerk spent twenty dollars on pears.
(C) The shoes cost twenty dollars.
(D) The shoe could be repaired for twenty dollars.
9. (A) The baby sister went to bed quite early.
(B) The children were forced to go to bed early.
(C) The baby-sitter made the bed after the children got up.
(D) The baby-sitter did not stay up late.

Simulasi TOEFL 2 33
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
10. (A) She was broke from skiing.
(B) She went skiing in spite of her accident.
(C) Her leg was hurt on a skiing trip.
(D) Her skis were broken in the mountains.
11. (A) The man should repeat what he said.
(B) The man said something foolish.
(C) She thinks that the food is the best she has ever tasted.
(D) She agrees that the food is pretty bad.
12. (A) She is very busy.
(B) She has lots of free time.
(C) It is not necessary to take out the trash.
(D) She will do it if she has time.
13. (A) The receptionist welcomed the businesspeople.
(B) The man created a shipping and receiving business.
(C) The businesspeople were rather greedy.
(D) The businesspeople greeted the receptionist.
14. (A) The doctor returned to the office.
(B) Jim asked the doctor to come to the office.
(C) The doctor will not return until next week.
(D) Jim was told to come back.
15. (A) She’s unable to take her vacation.
(B) Her vacation next week has been postponed.
(C) She’ll go on vacation next week.
(D) She’ll return from vacation in a week.
16. (A) She bought some sheets.
(B) She got a new piece of clothing.
(C) She couldn’t find anything because she’s too short.
(D) She was sure to greet her boss.
17. (A) The man should try to borrow some from a neighbor.
(B) The man should take a check to Tom.
(C) The man should work on his math assignment with Tom.
(D) The man should check behind the door.
18. (A) She doesn’t mind an hour more.
(B) She’d rather stay more than an hour.

34 Listening Comprehension
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(C) It’s better to stay than go.
(D) She prefers to leave.
19. (A) He knows the movie starts at 8:00.
(B) He is not quite sure when the movie begins.
(C) He thinks the start of the movie has been changed.
(D) He will start the movie himself at 8:00.
20. (A) She is taller than the others.
(B) She put her science project on top of the others.
(C) She has a really good head on her shoulders.
(D) She’s the best of them all.
21. (A) Her headache is getting worse.
(B) She felt better this morning than now.
(C) She seems to be feeling better now.
(D) She is just getting another headache now.
22. (A) If she could do the grocery shopping.
(B) If she prefers cooked vegetables or salad.
(C) If she could help prepare the salad.
(D) If she minds shopping for vegetables.
23. (A) The man doesn’t like eating in restaurants.
(B) She doesn’t really like that restaurant.
(C) Each of them has his own restaurant.
(D) Everyone has different tastes.
24. (A) It was fortunate that he was accepted.
(B) It’s good that he wasn’t admitted.
(C) Fortunately, the university didn’t admit him.
(D) It’s too bad he was rejected.
25. (A) The department did not change the requirement.
(B) She likes the new requirements.
(C) She changed her apartment just before graduation.
(D) She does not like the changes that the department made.
26. (A) The machines do not act very well.
(B) The machines don’t really bother her.
(C) She would like them to stop the noise.
(D) She wishes the machines would cut the wood.

Simulasi TOEFL 2 35
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
27. (A) She wants that job very much.
(B) No one is going to get the job.
(C) Everybody else wants that job as much as she does.
(D) She is not sure about taking the job.
28. (A) He often has long waits in Dr. Roberts’ office.
(B) He must wait patiently for Robert.
(C) Dr. Roberts is generally punctual.
(D) He doesn’t mind waiting for Dr. Roberts.
29. (A) He knew they had to prepare for the exam.
(B) They didn’t prepare for the exam.
(C) As soon as they knew about exam, they began to prepare for it.
(D) They knew that the preparation for the exam would take a lot of time.
30. (A) He had been somewhere else.
(B) He had been in the library.
(C) He had been working on his research project.
(D) He would start working on his project in five hours.
 

36 Listening Comprehension
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

Part B
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each
conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions
will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose
the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and
fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write on your test book.
31. (A) In a fabric store
(B) In a clothing store
(C) In an appliance store
(D) In a loundromat
32. (A) A formal dress
(B) Some linen fabric
(C) A graduation gift
(D) A dark suit
33. (A) It must be washed and ironed often.
(B) It only comes in size twelve suits
(C) It is more practical than pure linen.
(D) It does not require special care.
34. (A) She likes the fabric but not the weight.
(B) She thinks it is appropriate for the time of year.
(C) She thinks it is too severe.
(D) She would prefer to buy a dress that fits right.
35. (A) Nantucket (C) Her father’s restaurant
(B) Wood Hole (D) On the coast
36. (A) Wood Hole (C) His uncle’s restaurant
(B) New York (D) His father’s restaurant
37. (A) Sea birds (C) Whales
(B) Sharks (D) Crabs
38. (A) Because he will be visiting his grandparents.
(B) Because he will be working for his uncle.
(C) Because she will be working on a boat.
(D) Because she will be working in a laboratory.

Simulasi TOEFL 2 37
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

Part C
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After each
talk, you will hear some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose
the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and
fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Here is an example.
On the recording, you hear:
(man) As president of the Spelunker Club, I would like to welcome our new members
and give you some of our club rules which will make your cave and pothole
exploration fun and a little less dangerous.
Because our interest in underground streams, stalactites and stalagmites, and
cave insects leads us into unknown places, we always explore in groups of
four or more people, two of whom should be experienced spelunkers. We begin
our adventure after obtaining permission to enter a particular place and after
telling someone outside our expected time of return.
Caves are cold and a trip may last as long as eight hours, so explorers must
wear plenty of warm clothing and pack a good supply of food.
Caves are also dark, so each member of the party must have a good light attached
to a miner’s helmet, extra batteries and bulbs, and, as a further precaution, a
few candles and matches in a waterproof container.
Now listen to a sample question.
(narrator) What is the speaker’s purpose?
In your test book, you read:
(A) To attract new members to the Spelunker’s Club.
(B) To gain permission to enter caves and potholes.
(C) To describe a typical trip through a cave.
(D) To give new members some useful information.
The best answer to the question, “What is the speaker’s purpose” is (D), “To give
new members some useful information.” Therefore, you should choose answer
(D).
Now listen to another sample question.
(narrator) What can best be said about the guidelines referred to here?

38 Listening Comprehension
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
In your test book, you read:
(A) They are only important for the new members.
(B) They are important to the safety of all spelunkers.
(C) They must be followed in order to find cave insects.
(D) If followed, they eliminate any danger involved in spelunking.
The best answer to the question, “What can best be said about the guidelines
referred to here?” is (B), “They are important to the safety of all spelunkers.”
Therefore, you should choose answer (B).
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write on your test book.
39. (A) An animation festival
(B) A drama festival
(C) An exhibit featuring the Mona Lisa
(D) Mona Lisa Descending a Staircase
40. (A) Italian history
(B) Art history
(C) Sociology
(D) Architecture
41. (A) The Prince and the Princess
(B) Francis Bacon
(C) the Louvre
(D) KKED radio
42. (A) At the KKED radio station
(B) At the Art Exhibition Hall
(C) At the Palace of Fine Arts
(D) At the Historical Museum
43. (A) Modern American Authors
(B) United States History
(C) American Democracy
(D) Nineteenth-Century American Literature
44. (A) The death of Abraham Lincoln
(B) The beauty of American democracy
(C) The raising of plants
(D) The maturity of poetry
45. (A) It’s a poem about author.
(B) It’s a poem about Abraham Lincoln.

Simulasi TOEFL 2 39
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(C) It’s a collection of twelve poems that remained unchanged.
(D) It’s a volume of poetry that grew with its author.
46. (A) “Leaves of Grass”
(B) “Song of Myself”
(C) “When Lilacs Last in the Dooryard Bloomed”
(D) “American Democracy”
47. (A) Transcendentalism.
(B) Puritanism.
(C) Ralph Waldo Emerson.
(D) Nature.
48. (A) Seventeenth century
(B) Eighteenth century.
(C) Nineteenth century.
(D) Twentieth century.
49. (A) They stressed the importance of the individual.
(B) They supported the ideals of the Transcendental Club.
(C) They believed that society was more important than the individual.
(D) They established a commune at Brook Farm.
50. (A) A book by Emerson.
(B) A history of Puritanism.
(C) A novel by Nathaniel Hawthorne.
(D) A book by Thoreau.  

40 Listening Comprehension
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

Section 2
Structure and Written Expression

Time – 25 minutes

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is

appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this
section, with special directions for each type.
Direction: Question 1 – 15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you
will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word
or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot
be seen.
Look at the following example,

Example 1
Vegetables are an excellent source vitamins. Sample Answer
(A) of
A B C D
(B) has
(C) where
(D) that

The sentence should read, “Vegetables are an excellent source of vitamins.”

Therefore, you should choose answer (A).

Example 2
in history when remarkable progress was made within a relatively short
span of time. Sample Answer
(A) Periods
(B) Throughout periods A B C D
(C) There have been periods
(D) Periods have been

Simulasi TOEFL 2 41
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
The sentence should read, “There have been periods in history when remarkable
progress was made within a relatively short span of time.” Therefore, you should
choose answer (C).
Now begin work on the questions.
1. The biggest nail is the boat spike, more than a pound and is about fifteen
inches long. (C) its weights
(A) and weighs (B) how it weighs
(D) which weighs
2. Trumpeter Wynton Marsalis has won Grammy awards for recordings of
jazz and classical music.
(A) also (C) the two
(B) together (D) both
3. do not have webbed feet, gallinules are excellent swimmers.
(A) They (C) Even though they
(B) That they (D) It is when they
4. Mild forms of exercise can some of the loss of flexibility that accompanies
aging.
(A) stop (C) stopping
(B) to stop (D) be stopped
5. mirror the ideals and opinions of women in the United States in latter
part of the 1800’s.
(A) Whether the novels of Mary Jane Holmes
(B) The novels of Mary Jane Holmes
(C) Mary Jane Holmes wrote novels
(D) Why Mary Jane Holmes wrote novels
6. Pasteurization is a heating process bacteria in milk.
(A) kills (C) that it kills
(B) that kills (D) that kills it
7. Over the centuries, various theories have been advanced .
(A) the origin of alphabetic writing is explained
(B) of explaining the origin of alphabetic writing
(C) the explanation of the origin of alphabetic writing
(D) to explain the origin of alphabetic writing
8. What percentage of the populace is aware that in company the directors
hold only a small fraction of its share?

42 Structure and Written Expression

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
(A) a public typical (C) typical a public
(B) a typical public (D) public typical a
9. The second relationship between poet and poem a primary concern of
psychoanalytical critics in recent years.
(A) being (C) has been
(B) have (D) is having
10. the Atlantic Ocean crosses the equator, the trade winds cause a flow of
water to the west.
(A) Where (C) That
(B) And (D) At
11. X-rays are able to pass through objects and thus make details that are
otherwise impossible to observe.
(A) it visible (C) visible
(B) visibly (D) they are visible
12. general acceptance of photography as an artistic medium, most museums
today house collections of fine photographs.
(A) The (C) Only the
(B) Whereas the (D) With the
13. The higher the standard of living and the greater the national wealth, the .
(A) greater is the amount of paper is used
(B) greater amount of paper is used
(C) amount of paper is used is greater
(D) greater the amount of paper used
14. George H. Gallup, specialized in opinion polls and business survey.
(A) whose statistician (C) a statistician who
(B) a statistician, (D) as a statistician, he
15. The brown thrasher is not a particularly large or strong bird, equipped
for fighting.
(A) it is not (C) neither is
(B) but not (D) nor is it

Direction: In question 16-40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases.
The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify
the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence
to be corrected. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and
fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Simulasi TOEFL 2 43
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
Example 1
A ray of light passing through the center of a thin Sample Answer
A B A B C D
lens keep its original direction.
C D

The sentence should read, “A ray of light passing through the center of a thin lens
keeps its original direction.” Therefore, you should choose answer (C).

Example 2
The mandolin, a musical instrument Sample Answer
A
A B C D
that has strings, was probably copied from
B C
the lute, a many older instrument.
D
The sentence should read, “The mandolin, a musical instrument that has strings,
was probably copied from the lute, a much older instrument.” Therefore, you
should choose answer (D).

Now begin work on the questions.

16. Most mammals to maintain a relatively constant body temperature, regardless
A B C
of what the air temperature might be.
D
17. Rubidium exists only as it impurity in other minerals.
A B C D
18. African elephants are larger, fiercer, and difficulter to tame than Asian elephants.
A B C D
19. According to educators, students what are encouraged to study at home,
A B C
will improve their classroom performance.
D
20. Shorthand is a method of recording words rapid by using symbols or letters
A B C
to represent sounds.
D

44 Structure and Written Expression

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
21. All things consist of atoms or molecules, which be constantly moving.
A B C D
22. A jewel is an ornament fashioned from precious metals or stones, either alone
A B C
and in combination.
D
23. Survival in the desert has always depended in the availability of water.
A B C D
24. Rubber can be made too elastic that it will stretch more than nine times

its normal length.

A B C D
25. Heart Like a Wheel is the movie biography of Shirley Muldowney, a waitress
A B
from Schenectady, New York, whom became a successful hot-rod driver.
C D
26. Adult great blue herons stand four feet tallest.
A B C D
27. Soot is made up tiny particles, such as coal, wood, or oil, that are not burned.
A B C D
28. Surrealist artists they based their work on images derived from dreams
A B C
and the subconscious.
D
29. No specify rule governs the formation of abbreviations in writing; however,
A B C
certain ones have become standard.
E
30. Tooth decay is the most common disease of humanities.
A B C D
31. Jet propulsion can take place in a vacuum as long as oxygen is provision
A B
to burn the engine’s fuel.
C D

Simulasi TOEFL 2 45
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
32. Encyclopedias may be used to answer question, to solve problems, or to obtain
A B C
information.
D
33. Two circles are externally tangent when they lie on opposition side of a line
A B C
tangent to both of them.
D
34. Wampun serviced as money for Native Americans and colonists during
A B C
the early settlement of North America.
D
35. Sunlights cannot reach far beneath the ocean’s surface.
A B C D
36. Since their high vitamin and low calorie content, mushrooms are included in
A B C
certain diets.
D
37. Carrie Chapman Catt contributed a sophisticated political sense, a concentrated
A B
personal drive, and an administrative skills to the cause of woman suffrage.
C D
38. The pearls in edible clams and oysters are usually of poor quality and have
A B C
not commercial worth.
D
39. Fossils of plant that have been extinct for fifty million years have been found
A B C
in large deposits of amber near the Baltic Sea.
D
40. The increasing popularity of the motorcycle as a convenience, economical
A B
form of transportation has been just short of astounding.
C D

46 Structure and Written Expression

3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3

Section 3
Reading Comprehension
Time—55 Minutes

Direction: In the rest of this section you will read several passages. Each one is
followed by a number of questions about it. You are to choose the one best answer,
(A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number
of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer
you have chosen.
Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is
stated or implied in that passage.
Read the following passage:
The rattles with which a rattlesnake warns of its presence are formed by
loosening interlocking hollow rings of hard skin, which make a buzzing
sound when its tail is shaken. As a baby, the snake begins to form its rattles
from the button at the very tip of its tail. Thereafter, each time it sheds its skin,
a new ring is formed. Popular belief holds that a snake’s age can be told by
counting the rings, but this idea is fallacious. In fact, a snake may lose its old
skin as often as four times a year. Also, rattles tend to wear or break off with
time.

Example 1
A rattlesnake’s rattles are made of
(A) skin (C) wood
(B) bone (D) muscle
According to the passage, a rattlesnake’s rattle are made out of rings of hard
skin. Therefore, you should choose answer (A).

Example 2
How often does a rattlesnake shed its skin?
(A) Once every four year
(B) Once every four months

Simulasi TOEFL 2 47
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
(C) Up to four times every year
(D) Four times more than other snakes

The passage states that “a snake may lose its old skin as often as four times a year.”
Therefore, you should choose answer (C).
Now begin work on the questions.

Question 1 – 7
Line The tap dancer, like the flamenco performer, is basically an improviser.
Thus looking at tap one wants to savor the personality and inventiveness of
the individual. When Bill Robinson danced in the movies, his technical skill
and sophisticated rhythms could be heard as well as seen. The Nicholas
(5) Brothers ran up walls or the proscenium arch of the theater or jumped off
platforms and landed in splits on the floor. Peg Leg Bates, who had lost a
leg, made a specialty out of dancing with his wooden leg. Sandman Sims
scattered sand on the floor (as Fred Astaire did in one of his films) and
ever so softly, slid and turned in dances as soothing as lullabies.

1. According to the passage, in what way is a flamenco dancer similar to a

tap dancer?
(A) Both perform the same kinds of steps.
(B) Both rely on individual inventiveness.
(C) Both are trained in classical techniques.
(D) Both make very little noise.
2. The word “improviser” in line 1 is closest in meaning to
(A) sporadic inventor
(B) spontaneous performer
(C) explorer by chance
(D) gifted artist
3. The word “inventiveness” in line 2 could best be replaced by
(A) creativity (C) image
(B) reputation (D) performance

4. An aerobatic style of dancing was most closely associated with which of

the following performers?
(A) Peg Leg Bates (C) The Nicholas Brothers
(B) Bill Robinson (D) Fred Astaire

48 Reading Comprehension
 5. Possessive “his” in line 7 refers to
(A) Bates (C) Robinson
(B) Nicholas (D) Astaire
6. Which two dancers used sand in their routines?
(A) Robinson and Slims
(B) The Nicholas Brothers
(C) Bates and Robinson
(D) Sims and Astaire
7. The author implies which of the following about tap dancing?
(A) It is more complex than flamenco dancing.
(B) It is meant to be heard as well as seen.
(C) It became popular primarily because of the movies.
(D) It should be performed by at least two people.

Question 8 – 17
Line Even stranger than the lianas are the epiphytes, or the air plants. This large
group includes orchids, cacti, aroids, bromeliads. They flower high in the trees
without benefit of soil. There are also non-flowering lichens and mosses.
The air plants attach themselves to crannies in the branches of trees and
(5) lianas. Usually they put forth a fine meshwork of roots. These collect dust
and plant debris, and in time create a soil of their own. Often the roots also
harbor ants, which help build up the soil by their wastes and dead bodies.
Water is scarce for the air plants, so they are adapted, like desert plants,
Line to last through dry periods. When they do get water, they absorb it very
(10) quickly and conserve it carefully. Some send dangling roots down through
the canopy until they can take nourishment from the earth itself. Then they
may grow into large and burdensome trees on top of the trees on which
they started life. A few strangle their supporting tree by building their
Line own trunks around it. Others develop rosettes of overlapping leaves which
(15) catch and hold water; incidentally, these also serve as breeding places for
mosquitoes, frogs, and swarms of tiny invertebrates.

8. The paragraph preceding the passage most probably discussed

(A) lichens (C) desert plants
(B) lianas (D) tiny invertebrates
9. Which of the following is a type of epiphyte?
(A) Aroid (C) Mosquito
(B) Ant (D) Liana

Simulasi TOEFL 2 49
 10. The phrase “put forth” in line 5 could best be replaced by
(A) pierce (C) send out
(B) absorb (D) bring about
11. The word “these” in line 5 refers to
(A) air plants (C) branches
(B) crannies (D) roots
12. Where does young air plant often develop?
(A) Under the ground
(B) In an ant hill
(C) In the upper part of a tree
(D) In the upper layers of the atmosphere
13. According to the passage, how are air plants and desert plants similar?
(A) Both serve as breeding places for insect.
(B) Both grow in the same environment.
(C) Both have a fine meshwork of roots.
(D) Both have ways of saving water.
14. The world “dangling” in line 10 is closest in meaning to
(A) hanging (C) climbing
(B) vine (D) stringy
15. According to the passage, an air plant can be damaging to which of the
following forms of life?
(A) An ant (C) An orchid
(B) A mosquito (D) A tree
16. Rosettes of leaves help some air plants by
(A) conserving water
(B) taking nourishment from the earth
(C) creating soil
(D) repelling harmful insect
17. Which of the following statements is true of all epiphytes mentioned in
the passage?
(A) They are small.
(B) They can grow without soil.
(C) They have few roots.
(D) They have rosettes.

50 Reading Comprehension
Question 18 – 25
Line Sometimes certain eras or events from our past receive little or no
attention. This might be because there is little information available on these
subjects, or because the subjects are controversial or shameful, and we are
reluctant to face them. But when we ignore or deny a part of our past, we fail
(5) to learn the lesson that history can teach us, and we neglect people who are
part of that history. These people—and can become “invisible,” and in time
we can forget that they ought to be part of what we think of as history.
18. What is the author’s main point?
(A) History tends to repeat itself.
(B) Historians should not write about disputed matters.
(C) More people should study history.
(D) No part of history should be ignored.
19. The word “controversial” in line 3 could best be replaced by
(A) contentious (C) jovial
(B) affable (D) compliant
20. The word “them” in line 4 refers to
(A) eras (C) subjects
(B) events (D) controversies
21. The word “reluctant” in line 4 is closest in meaning to
(A) vigorous (C) bouncy
(B) indifferent (D) sluggish
22. “These people” in line 6 are the people
(A) who are part of the history
(B) who ignore a part of past
(C) that fail to learn a lesson
(D) that share little information
23. It can be inferred from the passage that the best motivation for studying
history is to
(A) learn from its past lessons
(B) appreciate the perspectives of writers of historical texts
(C) become more well-rounded students
(D) compare the life-styles of major historical characters
24. The word “invisible” in line 6 is closest in meaning to
(A) obvious (C) obscure
(B) unnoticeable (D) insubstantial

Simulasi TOEFL 2 51
 25. The author implies that the work of historians would be more valuable
if they
(A) asked current world leaders to write down their views of history
(B) included accounts of unpleasant events in their texts
(C) wrote psychological discussions about incidents in history
(D) emphasized a biographical viewpoint in history books
Questions 26 – 35
Line The science of meteorology is concerned with the study of the structure,
state, and behavior of the atmosphere. The subject may be approached from
several directions, but the scene cannot be fully appreciated from any one
vantage point. Different views must be integrated to give perspective to the
(5) whole picture.

One may consider the condition of the atmosphere at a given moment

and attempt to predict changes from that condition over a period of a few
hours to a few days ahead. This approach is covered by the branch of the
Line science called synoptic meteorology.
(10) Synoptic meteorology is the scientific basis of the technique of weather
forecasting by means of the preparation and analysis of weather maps and
aerological diagrams. The practical importance of the numerous applications
of weather forecasting cannot be overestimated. In serving the needs of
Line shipping, aviation, agriculture, industry, and many other interests and
(15) fields of human activity with accurate weather warnings and professional
forecast advice, great benefits are reaped in the form of saving of human life
and property and in economic advantages of various kinds. One important
purpose of the science of meteorology is constantly to strive, through
Line advanced study and research, to increase our knowledge of the atmosphere
(20) with the aim of improving the accuracy of weather forecasts.
The tools needed to advance our knowledge in this way are the
disciplines of mathematics and physics applied to solve meteorological
problems. The use of these tools forms that branch of the science called
dynamic meteorology.
26. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
(A) The Limitations of Meteorological Forecasting
(B) New Advances in Synoptic Meteorology
(C) Approaches to the Science of Meteorology
(D) The Basic of Dynamic Meteorology
27. The word “appreciated” in line 3 could best be replaced by
(A) understood (C) ascended
(B) welcomed (D) escalated

52 Reading Comprehension
28. The predictions of synoptic meteorologist are directly based on the
(A) application of the physical sciences
(B) preparation and study of weather maps
(C) anticipated needs of industry
(D) observations of commercial airline pilots
29. The word “perspective” in line 4 could best be replaced by
(A) review (C) knowledge
(B) analysis (D) belief
30. Which of the following is NOT referred to by the author as a field whose
needs are served by weather forecasting?
(A) Transportation (C) Farming
(B) Manufacturing (D) Sports
31. The word “given” in line 6 is closest in meaning to
(A) sent (C) evident
(B) firm (D) particular
32. The author implies that increased accuracy in weather forecasting will
lead to
(A) more fund allocated to meteorological research
(B) greater protection of human life
(C) a higher number of professional forecasters
(D) less-specialized forms of synoptic meteorology
33. The word “overestimated” in line 13 is closest in meaning to
(A) mistaken (C) less interpreted
(B) overrated (D) thoroughly thought
34. Which of the following statements best describes the organization of the
third paragraph of the passage?
(A) A procedure is explained and its importance is emphasized.
(B) Two contrasting views of a problem are presented.
(C) Recent scientific advancements are outlined in order of importance.
(D) A problem is examined and possible solutions are given.
35. In the last sentence of the passage, the phrase “these tools” refers to
(A) weather forecasts
(B) meteorological problems
(C) mathematics and physics
(D) economic advantages

Simulasi TOEFL 2 53
Questions 36 – 42
Line Lew Archer, the detective hero created by Ross Macdonald in The
Moving Target (1949), is more literary in his tastes than Mike Hammer, and
so more apt to muse on fate and the past than to create a political philosophy
out of the individualist fantasies of the present. In part, Archer owes his
(5) special sensitivity to the fact that his creator placed him in the hastily
thrown up world of California and the West Coast rather than in the grimy
eastern cities of Spillane and Hammer. Attuned to history as much as to
action. Archer is more fascinated by the past patterns of relationship that
Line erupt into the present than by the immediacies of violence and personal
(10) confrontation. Like other American naturalist, both Archer and Hammer
pride themselves on their ability to know all the parts of town and country.
But MacDonald explores what Spillane’s hero seems to spring from Hammett
and Hemingway, while MacDonald’s Archer owes his lineage to Chandler
and Faulkner.
36. What is the author’s main purpose in the passage?
(A) To explain the plot of The Moving Target
(B) To show the importance of setting in the detective novel
(C) To prove that Archer and Hammer are literary heroes
(D) To compare two characters in detective fiction
37. The word “literary” in line 2 could best be replaced by
(A) decipherable (C) fictional
(B) unfeigned (D) heartfelt
38. In the second sentence of the passage, the word “creator” refers to a
(A) fantasist (C) writer
(B) naturalist (D) philosopher
39. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be characteristic of an Archer
story?
(A) A violent argument (C) A concern with social class
(B) A California setting (D) A study of family relationships
40. The word “immediacies” in line 9 is closest in meaning to
(A) slight avoidance (C) careless negligence
(B) direct involvement (D) hopeless ignorance
41. Which of the following best describes MacDonald’s relationship to
Chandler and Faulkner?
(A) MacDonald portrayed the lives of Chandler and Faulkner in one of
his novels.
(B) MacDonald followed in the tradition of Chandler and Faulkner.

54 Reading Comprehension
 (C) MacDonald influenced the work of Chandler and Faulkner
(D) MacDonald disregarded the intricacies of Chandler and Faulkner
42. The paragraph preceding the passage probably discussed the writing of
which of the following individuals?
(A) Hemingway (C) Spillane
(B) Chandler (D) Faulkner
Questions 43 – 50
Line There are various ways in which individual economic units can interact
with one another. Three basic ways may be described as the market system,
the administered system, and the tradition system.
In a market system individual economic units are free to interact
(5) among other in the marketplace. It is possible to buy commodities from
other economic units or sell commodities to them. In a market, transactions
may take place via barter or money exchange. In a barter economy, real
goods such as automobiles, shoes, and pizzas are traded against each other.
Line Obviously, finding somebody who wants to trade my old car in exchange
(10) for a sailboat may not be an easy task. Hence, the introduction of money as a
medium of exchange eases transactions considerably. In the modern market
economy, goods and services are bought or sold for money.
An alternative to the market system is administrative control by some
Line agency over all transactions. This agency will issue edicts or commands
(15) as to how much of each good and service should be produced, exchanged,
and consumed by each economic unit. Central planning may be one way
of administering such an economy. The central plan, drawn up by the
government, shows the amounts of each commodity produced by various
Line firms and allocated to different households for consumption. This is an
(20) example of complete planning or production, consumption, and exchange
for the whole economy.
In a traditional society, production and consumption patterns are
governed by tradition: every person’s place within the economic system
Line is fixed by parentage, religion, and custom. Transactions take place on the
(25) basis of tradition, too. People belonging to a certain group or caste may have
an obligation to care for other persons, provide them with food and shelter,
care for their health, and provide for their education. Clearly, in a system
where every decision is made on the basis of tradition alone, progress may
be difficult to achieve. A stagnant society may result.
43. What is the main purpose of the passage?
(A) To outline contrasting types of economic systems
(B) To explain the science of economics

Simulasi TOEFL 2 55
 (C) To argue for superiority of one economic system
(D) To compare barter and money-exchange markets
44. The word “interact” in line 1 is closest in meaning to
(A) unite (C) collaborate
(B) adhere (D) embrace
45. In the second paragraph, the word “real” in “real goods” could best be
replaced by which of the following?
(A) high quality (C) utter
(B) concrete (D) authentic
46. According to the passage, a barter economy can lead to
(A) rapid speed of transactions
(B) misunderstandings
(C) inflation
(D) difficulties for the traders
47. The word “considerably” in line 11 could best be replaced by
(A) carefully (C) thoroughly
(B) significantly (D) comprehensively
48. According to the passage, who has the greatest degree of control in an
administrative system?
(A) Individual household (C) Major corporation
(B) Small businesses (D) The government
49. Which of the following is NOT mentioned by the author as a criterion
for determining a person’s place in a traditional society?
(A) Family background (C) Religious beliefs
(B) Age (D) Custom
50. The word “shelter” in line 26 could best be replaced by
(A) housing (C) safe haven
(B) asylum (D) habitation

56 Reading Comprehension