30. C.
The new manual has not been
Listening
1. A. The man should go to the museum
by shuttle bus.
2. D. The man should have studied for
the exam.
3. A. A new building.
4. B. Use computer in the lab.
5. A. She got her watch where his sister
works.
6. A. Find out if classes are cancelled
7. B. She is spending a lot of time in the
library.
8. A. Try to fix what is wrong with the
computer.
9. B. She wants the man to choose
quickly.
10. B. She can return the CD to Tom later.
11. B. Make an appointment at the clinic
soon.
12. C. Look at other apartments before
deciding.
13. D. He is not on the basketball team.
14. B. Buy the green shirt.
15. C. The woman is planning to start a
new job.
16. D. See a play with her aunt.
17. C. She thinks she will not need
financial aid.
18. B. The woman does not have to pay
extra for it.
19. A. A small town can have negative
qualities.
20. D. He will not able to coordinate the
program again.
21. C. He is late for an appointment with
the man and woman.
22. B. She can get the materials they gave
out at the meeting.
23. A. He probably will not able to follow
the professor’s advice.
24. B. He doubts that the theater group
will perform a musical next year.
25. C. He wants an appartment near his
work.
26. D. The elections would be held later.
27. A. He did not recommend the lecture.
28. D. She intends to go see the movie.
29. C. Ways should he found to use less
water.
completed yet.
31. C. The class reading list.
32. D. The main character gets into
trouble.
33. A. Some British reviewers wrote
favorably about it.
34. C. Phases of language development in
young children.
35. C. They are among the first sounds
babies make.
36. A. Their voice box is not positioned
correctly yet.
37. D. When children lear to associate
sounds with meaning.
38. B. How children are able to learn
language.
39. B. Communication over long distances
in North America.
40. C. The fees of several couriers were
included in the charge.
41. D. A funeral.
42. C. Attracting birds.
43. B. They like to eat them.
44. D. They are baked in the oven.
45. A. It makes the clean and free of
germs.
46. C. She collects birds nests.
47. A. How to prevent landslides in
populated areas.
48. B. They can reveal unsafe conditions
for building.
49. B. It helps keep the soil in place.
50. D. A wall that stops water from
draining.
Structure
1. Neither Professor Johnson nor any other
faculty member __________ to apply for the
dean’s position.
A. intend
B. intends
C. are intending
D. has intend
2. E. Coli has proven to be __________ most
dangerous bacteria that can be acquired from
food and water, even in developed countries.
A. one of the
B. one of D. as or better than those
C. one
D. of one 10. Being a private university, __________ a
well-organized charitable giving
3. The death toll would __________ much program in order to offer a sufficient number
higher if immediate action had not been of quality courses and activities.
taken. A. development of
A. probably being B. it developed
B. probably be C. develop
C. probably been D. developing
D. be probable
11. The greater the number of bacteria
4. A fire in the __________ building could be attacking the system, __________.
a problem for firefighters. A. the sooner treatment must be begun
A. ninety-story-tall B. sooner must begin treatment
B. ninety-tall-story C. begin treatment as soon as possible
C. ninety-stories-tall D. must begin treatment sooner
D. ninety stories
12. A congressional committee has been
5. Their office consisted of three rooms, appointed to study a new procedure
__________ was used as a conference room. __________ to eliminate some costly
A. larger of which expenditures.
B. the largest of which A. that is expected
C. the largest of them B. what is expected
D. largest C. which expects
D. that expected
6. In the past six months, the company has
already received twice __________ in 13. Some people send job applications even
gross revenues as it earned in the entire when they are reasonably happy in their
preceding year. jobs, __________ improving their position.
A. as much A. with hoping to
B. more B. hoping that
C. as many C. with hopes of
D. as more D. hoping to

7. __________ better, the team would have 14. Swimming is a beneficial exercise,
been able to defeat the opponent. __________ aerobic activity and uses a
A. If it prepares number of muscle groups.
B. If prepares A. not only because it provides
C. Preparing B. because it both provides
D. Had it prepared C. for provision
D. as result of providing
8. Nobody knows why __________ postponed
until next week.
A. the meeting 15. The professor instructed the students
B. was the meeting __________ the essay without preparing an
C. did the meeting outline first.
D. the meeting was A. to not write
B. not to write
9. The curriculum at the public school is as C. do not write
good __________ of any private D. to no write
school.
A. or better than 16. It is not clear when __________, although
B. as or better that there are many different theories.
C. as or better than that A. dinosaurs becoming extinct
B. dinosaurs extinction
C. dinosaurs became extinct
D. did dinosaurs become extinct
17. If the driver’s own car __________
damaged, the favorite probably would have
won the race.
A. had not been
B. not
C. no had been
D. has no be
18. The soldiers were unable to determine
where __________.
A. the jeep had been left
B. had been leave the jeep
C. had the jeep been left
D. had the jeep left
19. The manager was angry because somebody
_________.
A. had allowed the photographers to enter
the building
B. had let the photographers to enter the
building
C. permitting the photographers enter the
building
D. the photographers let into the building
20. The committee members resented
__________ of the meeting.
A. the president that he did not tell them
B. the president not to inform them
C. the president’s not informing them
D. that the president had failed informing
themselves
21. __________ did Arthur realize that there
was danger.
A. Upon entering the store
B. When he entered the store
C. After he had entered the store
D. Only after entering the store
22. The company sustained an angry reaction
from its employees after announcing how
__________ to reduce operating costs.
A. it planned B. planned
C. did it plan D. was
planned
23. The gymnasium facilities of this public
school are __________ those of the finest
private school in the county.
A. second after B. second only to
C. first except for D. second
place from
24. The more the horse tried to free itself from
the restraint, __________.
A. the tighter it became
B. it became tighter
C. the horse could not escape
D. it was unable to move
25. __________, that runner is likely to be the
first one chosen.
A. Due to her agility and speed
B. Because of she is agile and fast
C. Because agile and rapid
D. Because her agility and speed
26. It was not until the students were seated
__________ the proctor realized he had
the wrong test booklets.
A. that B. when
C. as soon as D. and
27. As a result of the additional rain with so
much flooding already having occurred,
residents were seeking shelter __________
than in previous years.
A. in more numbers B. more numerously
C. greater in numbers D. in greater
numbers
28. The company president wrote an e-mail
and planned to send __________ as soon as
the vote was complete.
A. to all directors the message
B. the message by all directors
C. message to all directors
D. the message to all directors
29. As the result of Diane’s illness and the
effects of the medication, __________ to
curtail her work and public speaking activities.
A. has B. had
C. she has had D. she will
had
30. __________ did Arthur realize that there
was danger.
A. Upon entering the store
B. When he entered the store
C. After he had entered the store
D. Only after entering the store
31. Hardly __________ the office when he miles of delicate tundra that tops the frozen
realized that he had forgotten his wallet. ground. It
A. he had entered B. had entered
C. entered D. had he weaves through crooked canyons, climbs sheer
entered
(10) mountains, plunges over rocky crags,
32. Once the employees had begun receiving makes its way
financial information on the company,
__________ income. through thick forests, and passes over or under
A. they diligently assisted in reducing costs hundreds
and increasing
B. it made the employees more eager to assist of rivers and streams. The pipe is 4 feet in
in reduce costs and increase diameter, and
C. diligently they assist to reduce costs and
increase up to 2 million barrels (or 84 million gallons)
D. with extreme diligence helped lower costs of crude
and increase
oil can be pumped through it daily.
33. The plumber attempted to loosen the nut
with regular pliers but then decided he needed (15) Resting on H-shaped steel racks called
to retrieve his toolbox in order to use "bents," long
__________.
A. another pliers B. others pliers sections of the pipeline follow a zigzag course
C. the others ones D. another high
pair
above the frozen earth. Other long sections
34. The committee has met and __________. drop out of
A. have approve the budget
B. budget was approved sight beneath spongy or rocky ground and
C. its approval of the budget
return to the
D. approved the budget
surface later on. The pattern of the pipeline's
up-and-

(20) down route is determined by the often

Reading harsh demands

Practice Passage 1 of the arctic and subarctic climate, the tortuous

lay of the land, and the varied compositions of
The Alaska pipeline starts at the frozen edge of soil, rock, or
the
Arctic Ocean. It stretches southward across the permafrost (permanently frozen ground). A
largest little more
and northernmost state in the United States,
than half of the pipeline is elevated above the
ending at
ground.
a remote ice-free seaport village nearly 800
miles from (25) The remainder is buried anywhere from 3
(5) where it begins. It is massive in size and to 12 feet,
extremely
complicated to operate. depending largely upon the type of terrain and
The steel pipe crosses windswept plains and the
endless
properties of the soil. a) pipeline
b) ocean
One of the largest in the world, the pipeline c) state
cost d) village
3. According to the passage, 84 million gallons
approximately $8 billion and is by far the
of oil can travel through the pipeline each
biggest a) day
b) week
(30) and most expensive construction project c) month
ever d) year
undertaken by private industry. In fact, no 4. The phrase "Resting on" in line 15 is closest
single in meaning to
a) consisting of
business could raise that much money, so 8 b) supported by
major oil c) passing under
d) protected with
companies formed a consortium in order to 5. The author mentions all of the following as
share important in determining the pipeline's route
EXCEPT the
the costs. Each company controlled oil rights a. climate
to b. lay of the land itself
c. local vegetation
(35) particular shares of land in the oil fields d. kind of soil and rock
and paid
6. The word "undertaken" in line 31 is closest
in meaning to
into the pipeline-construction fund according
a. removed
to the b. selected
c. transported
size of its holdings. Today, despite enormous
d. attempted
problems of climate, supply shortages, 7. How many companies shared the costs of
equipment constructing the pipeline?
a. three
breakdowns, labor disagreements, treacherous b. four
c. eight
(40) terrain, a certain amount of d. twelve
mismanagement, and 8. The word "particular" in line 35 is closest in
meaning to
even theft, the Alaska pipeline has been
a. peculiar
completed b. specific
c. exceptional
and is operating. d. equal
9. Which of the following determined what
percentage of the construction costs each
1. The passage primarily discusses the member of the consortium would pay?
pipeline's a. How much oil field land each company
a) operating costs owned
b) employees b. How long each company had owned land
c) consumers in the oil fields
d) construction c. How many people worked for each
company
2. The word "it" in line 5 refers to
d. How many oil wells were located on the speaking, these early musicians couldn’t
company's land make very much money and were stuck
10. Where in the passage does the author working
provide a term for an earth covering that menial jobs to make a living. The second
always remains frozen? wave of New Orleans Jazz musicians
a. Line 4 b. Line 15 c. Line 23 d. Line 37 included such
memorable players as Joe Oliver, Kid Ory,
and Jelly Roll Morton. These men formed
small
bands and took the music of earlier
Jazz has been called “the art of musicians, improved its complexity, and
expression set to music”, and “America’s gained greater
great contribution success. This music is known as “hot
to music”. It has functioned as popular art Jazz” due to the enormously fast speeds
and enjoyed periods of fairly widespread and rhythmic
public drive.
response, in the “jazz age” of the 1920s, A young cornet player by the name
in the “swing era” of the late 1930s and of Louis Armstrong was discovered by Joe
in the peak Oliver in
popularity of modern jazz in the late New Orleans. He soon grew up to become
1950s. The standard legend about Jazz is one of the greatest and most successful
that it originated musicians
around the end of the 19th century in New of all time, and later one of the biggest
Orleans and moved up the Mississippi stars in the world. The impact of Armstrong
Memphis, St. Louis, and finally to and other
Chicago. It welded together the elements talented early Jazz musicians changed the way
of Ragtime, we look at music.
marching band music, and the Blues.
However, the influences of what led to 1. The Passage answers which of the
those early following questions?
sounds goes back to tribal African drum (a) Why did Ragtime, marching band music,
beats and European musical structures. and the Blues lose popularity after
Buddy about 1900?
Bolden, a New Orleans barber and cornet (b) What were the origins of Jazz and how
player, is generally considered to have been did it differ from other forms of music?
the first (c) What has been the greatest contribution of
real Jazz musician, around 1891. cornet players to music in the
What made Jazz significantly different twentieth century?
from the other earlier forms of music was (d) Which early Jazz musicians most
the use of influenced the development of Blues music?
improvisation. Jazz displayed a break from
traditional music where a composer wrote an 2. According to the passage, Jazz originated
entire in
piece of music on paper, leaving the (a) Chicago
musicians to break their backs playing (b) St. Louis
exactly what was (c) along the Mississippi river
written on the score. In a Jazz piece, (d) New Orleans
however, the song is simply a starting
point, or sort of 3. The word “welded” in line 6 is closest in
skeletal guide for the Jazz musicians to meaning to
improvise around. Actually, many of the (a) squeezed
early Jazz (b) bound
musicians were bad sight readers and some (c) added
couldn’t even read music at all. (d) stirred
Generally
4. Which of the following distinguished Jazz 11. Which of the following terms is defined in
as a new form of musical expression? the passage?
(a) the use of cornets (a) “improvisation” (line 12)
(b) “hot Jazz” (b) “traditional” (line 12)
(c) improvisation (c) “composer” (line 12)
(d) New Orleans (d) “score” (line 14)

5. The word “skeletal” in line 15 is closest in

meaning to The Moon has been worshipped by
(a) framework primitive peoples and has inspired humans to
(b) musical create
(c) basic everything from lunar calendars to love
(d) essential sonnets, but what do we really know about it?
The
6. Which of the following can be inferred most accepted theory about the origin of the
from the passage? Moon is that it was formed of the debris from
(a) many early Jazz musicians had poor a
sight massive collision with the young Earth about
(b) there is no slow music in Jazz 4.6 billion years ago. A huge body, perhaps
(c) many early Jazz musicians had little the
formal musical training size of Mars, struck the Earth, throwing out an
(d) the cornet is the most common musical immense amount of debris that coalesced and
instrument used in Jazz cooled in orbit around the Earth.
The development of Earth is
7. The word “menial” in line 18 is closest in inextricably linked to the moon; the Moon’s
meaning to gravitational influence
(a) mens upon the Earth is the primary cause of ocean
(b) attractive tides. In fact, the Moon has more than twice
(c) degrading the
(d) skilled effect upon the tides than does the Sun. The
Moon makes one rotation and completes a
8. According to the passage, which of the revolution around the Earth every 27 days, 7
following belonged to the second wave of hours, and 43 minutes. This synchronous rotat
New ion
Orleans Jazz musicians? is caused by an uneven distribution of mass in
(a) Louis Armstrong the Moon (essentially, it is heavier on one side
(b) Buddy Bolden than the other) and has allowed the Earth’s
(c) St. Louis gravity to keep one side of the Moon
(d) Joe Oliver permanently
facing Earth. It is an average distance from
9. All of the following are true EXCEPT Earth of 384,403 km.
(a) the late 1930s was called the “swing era” Moon has no atmosphere; without an
(b) “hot Jazz” is rhythmic atmosphere, the Moon has nothing to protect
(c) Jazz has been said to be America’s it from meteorite impacts, and thus the surface
greatest contribution to music of the Moon is covered with impact craters,
(d) Joe Oliver is generally considered to be both
the first real Jazz musician large and small. The Moon also has no active
tectonic or volcanic activity, so the erosive
10. The word “its” in line 21 refers to effects
(a) small bands of atmospheric weathering, tectonic shifts, and
(b) earlier music volcanic upheavals that tend to erase and
(c) men reform
(d) earlier musicians the Earth’s surface features are not at work on
the Moon. In fact, even tiny surface features
such as the footprint left by an astronaut in the (a) to show the result of the Moon not having
lunar soil are likely to last for millions of an atmosphere
years, (b) to show the result of the Moon not having
unless obliterated by a chance meteorite strike. active tectonic or volcanic activity
The surface gravity of the Moon is about (c) to explain why the Moon has no plant life
onesixth that of the Earth’s. Therefore, a man because of meteorites
weighing 82 kilograms on Earth would only (d) to explain the corrosive effects of
weigh atmospheric weathering
14 kilograms on the Moon.
The geographical features of the Earth 18. The word “erase” in line 19 is closest in
most like that of the Moon are, in fact, places meaning to
such as the (a) change
Hawaiian volcanic craters and the huge meteor (b) impact
crater in Arizona. The climate of the Moon is (c) obliterate
very unlike either Hawaii or Arizona, (d) erupt
however; in fact the temperature on the Moon
ranges 19. A person on the Moon would weigh less
between 123 degrees C. to –233 degrees C. than on the Earth because
(a) of the composition of lunar soil
12. What is the passage primarily about? (b) the surface gravity of the Moon is less
(a) the Moon’s effect upon the Earth (c) the Moon has no atmosphere
(b) the origin of the Moon (d) the Moon has no active tectonic or
(c) what we know about the Moon and its volcanic activity
differences to Earth
(d) a comparison of the Moon and the Earth
20. All of the following are true about the
13. The word “massive” in line 4 is closest in Moon EXCEPT
meaning to (a) it has a wide range of temperatures
(a) unavoidable (b) it is heavier on one side than the other
(a) dense (c) it is unable to protect itself from meteorite
(b) huge attacks
(c) impressive (d) it has less effect upon the tides than the
Sun
14. The word “debris” in line 5 is closest in
meaning to 21. Which of the following can be inferred
(a) rubbish from the passage?
(b) satellites (a) the Moon is not able to support human
(c) moons life
(d) earth (b) if the Moon had no gravitational influence,
the Earth would not have tides
15. According to the passage, the Moon is (c) people living in Hawaii and Arizona
(a) older than the Earth would feel at home on the Moon
(b) protected by a dense atmosphere (d) Mars could have been formed in a similar
(c) composed of a few active volcanoes way to the Moon
(d) the primary cause of Earth’s ocean tides
People of Hispanic origin were on
16. The word “uneven “ in line 11 is closest in the North American continent centuries
meaning to before
(a) Heavier settlers arrived from Europe in the early
(b) Equally distributed 1600s and the thirteen colonies joined
(c) Orderly together to form
(d) Not uniform the United States in the late 1700s. The
first census of the new nation was
17. Why does the author mention “impact conducted in 1790,
craters” in line 16?
and counted about four million people, 1965, although after World War II, several
most of whom were white. Of the white exceptions were made to the quota system
citizens, more to allow
than 80% traced their ancestry back to in groups of refugees.
England. There were close to 700,000 slaves
and about 22. Why did the author write the passage?
60,000 “free Negroes”. Only a few Native (a) to outline the ways immigration has been
American Indians who paid taxes were restricted
included in (b) to emphasize the impact of migrants from
the census count, but the total Native Europe
American population was probably about one (c) to explain and give examples of the
million. concept of a “melting pot”
By 1815, the population of the (d) to summarize the main features of
United States was 8.4 million. Over the next immigration
100 years,
the country took in about 35 million 23. According to the passage, which ancestry
immigrants, with the greatest numbers predominated at the time of the first census?
coming in the late (a) Native Americans
1800s and early 1900s. In 1882, 40,000 (b) Negroes
Chinese arrived, and between 1900 and (c) English
1907, there (d) Hispanic
were more than 30,000 Japanese
immigrants. But by far, the largest
numbers of the new
immigrants were from central, eastern, and 24. The word “ancestry” in line 5 is closest in
southern Europe. meaning to
An enormous amount of racial and (a) origins
ethnic assimilation has taken place in the (b) inheritance
United States. In 1908, play-write Israel (c) color
Zangwill first used the term “melting pot” (d) freedom
to describe the concept of a
place where many races melted in a 25. The word “their” in line 5 refers to which
crucible and re-formed to populate a new of the following
land. Some years (a) immigrants
during the first two decades of the 20 th (b) people of Hispanic origin
century, there were as many as one million (c) white citizens
new immigrants per year, an astonishing 1 (d) Native Americans
percent of the total population of the United
States. 26. Which of the following is true, according
In 1921, however, the country began to the passage?
to limit immigration, and the Immigration (a) a quota system was in place from 1908
Act of 1924 (b) a peak period of immigration was in the
virtually closed the door. The total number late 1800s and early 1900s
of immigrants admitted per year dropped (c) slaves were not counted in the first census
from as (d) only those who paid taxes were included
many as a million to only 150,000. A quota in the first census
system was established that specified the
number 27. The number of immigrants taken in over
of immigrants that could come from each the 100 years to 1915 was
country. It heavily favored immigrants from (a) probably about 1 million
northern (b) about 35 million
and western Europe and severely limited (c) 8.4 million
everyone else. This system remained in (d) about 4 million
effect until
28. The word “concept” in line 16 is closest in
meaning to
(a) location
(b) type
(c) complexity
(d) thought

29. The word “virtually” in line 21 is closest

in meaning to
(a) effectively
(b) occasionally
(c) thoroughly
(d) undeservedly

30. Which of the following is NOT true about

immigrants
(a) they were subjected to an official quota in
the Immigration Act from 1924
(b) during the 1900s immigrants numbered 1
percent of the total population
(c) settlers of Hispanic origin arrived
centuries before those from Europe
(d) numbers began to be limited from 1921

31. Which of the following can be inferred

from the passage
(a) preserving a developing “American”
culture was a major factor leading to the
introduction of the quota system
(b) racial and ethnic assimilation did not occur
as planned
(c) racial and ethnic tensions would have
increased if the quota system had not been
introduced
(d) the quota system was introduced to limit
population growth

Tupel 2
Listening
Listening Comprehension Part A
1. (A) Her notebook is missing.
(B) Her handwriting is difficult to read.
(C) She wasn't in class this morning,
either.
(D) She's already lent her notes to
someone else.
2. (A) Get a schedule of events at the
athletic cente
(B) Refer to the bus schedule.
(C) Wait for the shuttle in the student
lounge . ¡¡
(D) Borrow a schedule from another
student .
3. (A) She looks good in blue.
(B) She never wears sweaters.
(C) She might prefer another color.
(D) She enjoys receiving gifts.
4. (A)Someone painted it for her.
(B) She finally had time to paint it.
(C) She decided to paint it later.
(D) Some friends will help her paint it.
5. (A) Today's seminar was informative.
(B) Another seminar will take place the
following week.
(C) Next week's seminar is on a different
topic .
(D) There will be two seminars next
week.
6. (A) He's usually happy.
(B) He listens to music when he's in a
good mood.
(C) He had to pay a high price for his
stereo.
(D) He's pleased with his purchase.
7. (A) He can send the woman
additional information.
(B) The woman received the wrong bill.
(C) He agrees that the charges are too
high.
(D) He'll credit the woman's account.
8. (A) Answer her calls. (B) Take her
home. (C) Write out a list of his calls. (D)
Telephone her later in the day.
9. (A) Taking a test. (B) Giving Spanish
tests to students. (C) Paying for private
lessons. (D) Studying.
10. (A) The window is broken.
(B) He's nervous about opening the
window. (C)It's not possible to open the
window. (D) It's too cold to open the
window.

11. (A) He wasn't offered the job he had
talked about . (B) He didn't really want
to work in the
bookstore . (C) He didn't know where the
bookstore was. (D) He didn't refuse the
bookstore job.
12. (A) She needed to change the letter
before mailing
it. (B) She didn't know how much postage
was
needed. (C) She didn't have the right
coins to buy
stamps. (D) The stamp machine has been
moved .
13. (A) They should go to lunch soon. (B)
He needs to make more coffee for lunch .
(C) There is enough coffee for several
more cups. (D) He won't drink any more
coffee today.
14. (A)There are too many shopping
centers
already. (B) They aren't really going to
build a shopping
center. (C) He knew about the planned
construction . (D) He hasn't been to the
other shopping center .
15. (A) She has to do some work
tomorrow. (B) She'll attend tomorrow's
performance . (C) She doesn't intend to
go to the play. (D) She can't work at the
theater tomorrow.
16. (A) She hasn't seen Kate. (B) Kate has
changed her plans. (C) The man had
misunderstood her. (D) The man should
go to New York next week.
17. (A) He doesn't want to attend the
graduation
ceremony. (B) He's attended only one
graduation ceremony. (C) The woman
doesn't have to attend the
graduation ceremony. (D) Attendance is
taken at the graduation
ceremony.
18. (A) Someone from the housing office
fixed the faucet.
(B) Allen called the housing office for
her.
(C) She replaced the faucet.
(D) Allen repaired the faucet.
19. (A) He didn't know that the woman
was class treasurer.
(B) He doesn't want to be treasurer.
(C) He doesn't think the woman should
run for office.
(D) He didn't know the elections were
today.
20. (A) He doesn't have much time for
tennis . (B) He's enthusiastic about his new
courses. (C) He plays tennis better than she
does . (D) He's not very interested in his
school work.
21. (A) He'll drive the woman to the paint
store. (B) He doesn't really like the
painting . (C) He'll hold the painting for
the woman . (D) He doesn't know where
the painting is
.
22. (A) The man hurried through breakfast.
(B) The room is too warm for a sweater.
(C) The man will be late if he doesn't
hurry. (D) The man's appearance shows
that he was
rushed.
23 .(A) The doctor wasn't feeling well .
(B) He didn't see the new doctor. (C)
The doctor isn't new to the infirmary. (D)
He met the doctor at a conference.

24. (A) Pay Marsha for the bookshelf. (B)
Ask Marsha where the bookshelf is. (C)
Check for the book on Marsha's shelf. (D)
Ask Marsha if she has an extra
bookshelf.
25. (A)The man can get some paper at
the new
store. (B) She just opened a new box of
paper. (C) She'll type the man's paper at
her place . (D) The man can buy today's
paper at the
newsstand.
26. (A) She saw only part of it. (B) She
couldn't go to see it. (C) She wasn't in
charge of it. (D) She didn't understand it.
27. (A) He doesn't like old movies. (B) He
didn't see a large number of movies . (C)
He saw more movies than the woman did.
(D) His children have seen many movies.
28. (A) The airport is closed due to bad
weather. (B) An earlier closure affected
the airport's
schedule. (C) The flight is following its
regular schedule. (D) The plane will return
to its point of departure.
29. (A) She hadn't begun to study
biology. (B) She hadn't liked the previous
biology course. (C) She did very well in
elementary biology. (D) She'd already
taken all the biology courses .
30. (A) She recently moved to Miami. (B)
She needed a vacation. (C) She'll leave
for Miami soon. (D) She was pleased to
get his postcard.
Part B
Questions 31-34
31. (A) It's too noisy. (B) It's not
convenient to the university. (C) The
heating system is defective. (D) The
owner is unpleasant.
32. (A) Tell the owner two months in
advance that
she's moving. (B) Alert the housing
authorities to her problem. (C) Move to
another apartment in the same
building. (D) Leave by the end of the
month.
33. (A) It must be on a higher floor. (B) It
must have quiet surroundings. (C) It
must be within driving distance of the
university. (D) It must be in a new
building.
34. (A) Rent would be very expensive.
(B) Public transportation wouldn't be
available. (C) Apartment complexes in
Windsor are old. (D) Apartments in
Windsor tend to be noisy.
Questions 35-38
35. (A) Start a new program at State
College. (B) Study at a different school.
(C) Find a summer job. (D) Improve her
grades.
36. (A) Journalism. (B) Science. (C)
Management. (D) Art.
37. (A) Its reputation isn't as good as State
College's . (B) She can't get a good
recommendation there . (C) The
registration office hasn't answered her
letters yet . (D) She may not get accepted
there .
38. (A) Use her professors as references.
(B) Study more to improve her grades . (C)
Think more positively about the State
College
program . (D) Write to the head of the art
department .
Part C
Questions 39-41
39. (A) Summer vacation. (B) The housing
office. (C) Resident advisers. (D) Check-
out procedures.
40. (A) Register for summer school. (B)
Repair holes in room walls. (C) Return
their keys to the housing office. (D) Call
the housing office.

41. (A) Their summer addresses. (B) Any

damage to their rooms. (C) When they
plan to leave. (D) Questions for the
housing office.
Questions 42-45

42. (A) The liquefaction of gas. (B)

Techniques used for refrigeration. (C)
Materials used to make industrial
containers (D) The cost of transporting
natural gas

43. (A) It becomes brittle. (B) It expands.

(C) It oxidizes. (D) It bends.

44. (A) It has a low melting point. (B)It's

expensive. (C) It often contains impurities.
(D) Its properties are unpredictable.

45. (A) Oxygen. (B) Aluminum.

(C) Nickel. (D) Boron.
Questions 46-50
46. (A) Behavior of owls in the wild.
(B) Experiments at the London Zoo.
(C) An investigation of accidental
animal deaths.
(D) An increase in insects at the zoo.

47. (A) Owl cages.

(B) Insecticide spray.
(C) Sawdust.
(D) Mousetraps.

48. (A) Rats. (B) Owls. (C) Mice. (D)

Insects.

49. (A) They choked on sawdust.

(B) They were fed contaminated mice.
(C) They were bitten by deadly insects.
(D) They escaped from the zoo.

50. (A)To illustrate a principle about

environmental
poisons. (B) To demonstrate the
usefulness of chemicals. (C) To show how
bookkeepers raise mice in
captivity. (D) To prove a point about the
building industry.
Structure c. Even though
Directions : Questions 1-4- are complete d. Nonetheless
sentences you will see, four words or
phrases, market (A), (B), (C) and (D). 7. This new service will be available to all
Choose the one word or phrase that best users …. Up for paid membership.
complete the sentences . a. That signed
1. A dominant animal is best defined as b. That signed it
one …. Actions are not constrained by c. Which signed
possible responses of its fellows. d. Sign
a) With
b) That is 8. I think Jane deserved to be fired for her
c) Whose ….
d) Where its a. Totally behavior irresponsible
b. Behavior totally irresponsible
2. In general, …. Have a professional c. Irresponsible totally behavior
obligation to protect confidential sources d. Totally irresponsible behavior
of information.
a. Which journalists 9. Acute hearing helps most animals sense
b. Journalists, they the approach of thunderstorms long before
c. Journalists people ….
d. Journalists that a. Hear

3. Cobalt resembles iron and nickel in

tensile strength, appreance,…
a. Is hard
b. Although hard
c. Has hardness
d. And hardness

4. …. Explores the nature of guilt and

responsibility and builds to a remarkable
conclusion.
a. The written beautifully novel
b. The beautifully written novel
c. The novel beautifully written
d. The written novel beautifully

5. He is a man …. To have the vision of an

eagle and courage of a lion.
a. Who appears
b. He appears
c. Who appear
d. He appear

6. …. Getting the highest result in the

class, john still had problems with his
teacher.
a. Despite of
b. In spite of
b. Hearing them 16. from the inception of his long and
c. Do distingshed carrer, frank lieyd wright was
d. Do them concerned with how … architecture with
topography.
10. Of all economically important a) Integrating
phants,palms have been … b) To integrate
a. The least studied c) Did the integrate
b. Study less and less d) Integrated
c. Study the least
d. To study the less 17. Egyptian pyramids were regurally
robbed despire their intricate pessegewrys,
11. With the passing of the time and the byzantine mazes, and …
emoarchement of people, the habitat of a) Walls which were false
garillas … to decrease b) They had false walls
a. Containing c) False walls
b. Continius d) Walls of falsity
c. Which continue
d. Continue 18. The Duncan sofa, …. Is highly valued
in todays antique furniture market.
12. …. Social meeting birds that build a) A colonial masterpiece
their nests in tress and on clifis. b) A colonial masterpiece which
a. Most stocks are
b. Stocks most c) It is a colonial masterpiece that
c. The most stocks d) Whose colonial masterpiece
d. Most are stocks
19.Maine’s coastline is a major attraction
13 ….. was awarded the Nobel Prize in and vista of sandy beaches contrasted…
physics for this work on the phoneletric rockbound shoreline.
effect. a) To the rugged
a. That enstein b) By the rugged
b. It was enstein c) On the rugged
c. Enstein who d) At the rugged
d. Enstein
20. At the seventh international ballet
14. .Emma Thompson was nominated for competions, Fernando Bujones won the
an Academy Award as both a first, gold modal ever … to a Unites States
Screenwriher…an actress in 1996. make dancer
a) Also a) That award
b) Or b) Should be awarding
c) In addition c) To be awarded
d) And d) To award

15. Because of its warm tropical climate, 21. the best-known diffuse nebuls is the
howards…. Subzero temperature. great Orion Nebuls …. Can be seen by the
a) Almost experience never narked eye.
b) Expreriance never almost a) It
c) Experiences almost never b) Which
d) Almost never expreriance c) One
 d) Who

22. Over time the young students will

perfect the art of piano playing. After all,
such …. Needs delicate handling .
a) A tuned instrument finely
b) A finely instrument tuned
c) An instrument tuned finely
d) A finely tuned instrument

23, before Johnson and smith reached

great heights in the business world, …
encountered many great difficults in
promoting their theories and methods.
a) They
b) Who
c) Which
d) He

24. …. Air is composed of about 78

percent nitrogen and only about 21 percent
oxygen is a little known fact on the streets.
a) How that
b) When
c) That
d) However

25. Nearly all treets contain a mix of

polymets that can burn like petrolurn
….property extracted.
a) If
b) Is
c) After
d) When it

26. Mr. Smith is going to plant this

rosebush in his…
a) Flower garden
b) Garden of flower
c) Garden flower
d) Flowers garden

27. My sister needs to buy some clothes

for her … daughter.
a) Two-year-old
b) Two-years-age
c) Two-years-old
d) Two-years-olds

28. I wish that they could … to the party

last night .
a) Come
b) Be coming
c) Have come
d) Had come

29. What would you have done if you …

to make that decision.
a) Have had
b) Had
c) Had have
d) Had had

30. three responsibilities … are to search

out, identify, and assess patentable
inventions and technologies.
a) To a patent manager

b) With a patent manager

c) On a patent manager

d) Of a patent manager
31. too little thyroid hormone will lead to sluggishness and inertia; too much results in
rapid heartbeat …. And higher oxygen consumption.
a) It increases mental activity
b) Increased mental activity
c) Mental activity to increase
d) Mental activity is increased

32. …. Of Willa Catha presents an unadorned picture of life on the prairies of the
Midwestern United States during the 19th century.
a) The novels that
b) That the novels
c) The novels which
d) The novels

33. With neither a naturally aggreasive disposition …. A particularly large size, the
mimic octopus survives quite easily because o
Of its natural adaptions.
a) And
b) With
c) Nor
d) Or

34. circulating column of air at the core of a tornado …. In excess of 250 miles per
hour.
a) Almoust never reachers
b) Reachers almoust never
c) Almoust reachers never
d) Reachers never almoust

35. Unless an observer knows … an eclips properly, severe retinal and cornea
darmage can results.
a) To observing
b) How observe
c) How to observe
d) To have observed

23
36. pipeline network, …. 4.000 miles, provides natural gas from texas to homes and
industries on the east coast.
a) Totaling
b) Totals
c) Total
d) It totals

37. Ulysses S. Grant …. Showed great magnanimity in receiving the surrender of his
arch-rival, Robert. E Lee at the end of the Civil War.
a) That was the supreme commander of northern forces
b) Who supremely commanding northern forces
c) He was the supreme commander of northern forces
d) The supreme commander of northern forces.

38. John knows, that he had better … his algebra skills before the mict-form exam
a) Brush up on
b) Brush on up
c) Brushing up on
d) Brushing on up

39. …. For his poetry but also for his six-volume life of Abraham lincon
a) Not only Carl Sandburg is know
b) Carl Sandburg, knowing not only
c) Carl Sandburg is known not only
d) Carl sanburg, who is known not only

40. Jane Addams, …. Lived to see the realization of many of the reforms for which
she fought
a) Her social work and humanitarianism
b) Whose social work and humanitarism
c) She was a social worker and humanitariam

d) Social worker and humanitarian

24
Reading
The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded annually and the first woman to win this prize was
Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner in 1905. In fact, her work inspired the
creation of the Prize. The first American woman to win this prize was Jane Addams,
in 1931. However, Addams is best known as the founder of Hull House.
Jane Addams was born in 1860, into a wealthy family. She was one of a small number
of women in her generation to graduate from college. Her commitment to improving
the lives of those around her led her to work for social reform and world peace. In the
1880s Jane Addams travelled to Europe. While she was in London, she visited a
‘settlement house’ called Toynbee Hall. Inspired by Toynbee Hall, Addams and her
friend, Ellen Gates Starr, opened Hull House in a neighborhood of slums in Chiacago
in 1899. Hull House provided a day care center for children of working mothers, a
community kitchen, and visiting nurses. Addams and her staff gave classes in English
literacy, art, and other subjects. Hull House also became a meeting place for clubs and
labor unions. Most of the people who worked with Addams in Hull House were well
educated, middle-class women. Hull House gave them an opportunity to use their
education and it provided a training ground for careers in social work.
Before World War I, Addams was probably the most beloved woman in America. In a
newspaper poll that asked, “Who among our contemporaries are of the most value to
the community?”, Jane Addams was rated second, after Thomas Edison. When she
opposed America’s involvement in World War I, however, newspaper editors called
her a traitor and a fool, but she never changed her mind. Jane Addams was a strong
champion of several other causes. Until 1920, American women could not vote.
Addams joined in the movement for women’s suffrage and was a vice president of the
National American Woman Suffrage Association. She was a founding member of the
National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP), and was
president of the Women’s International League for Peace and Freedom. . Her
reputation was gradually restored during the last years of her life. She died of cancer
in 1935.
12 With which of the following subjects is the passage mainly concerned?
(a) The first award of the Nobel Peace Prize to an American woman
(b) A woman’s work for social reform and world peace
(c) The early development of Social Work in America
(d) Contributions of educated women to American society

13 Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) the work of Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner was an inspiration
to Jane Addams
(b) Jane Addams is most famous for her opening of Hull House
(c) those who lived near Hull House had very poor literacy skills
(d) Jane addams considered herself as a citizen of the world rather than of one
particular country

14 The word “commitment” in line 6 is closest in meaning to

25
(a) involvement

26
(b) obligation
(c) dedication
(d) enthusiasm

15 Jane Addams was inspired to open Hull House because:

(a) it gave educated women an opportunity to use their education and develop
careers in social work
(b) she traveled to Europe in the 1880s
(c) she visited Toynbee Hall
(d) she was invited by a ‘settlement house’ in Chicago

16 The word “their” in line 15 refers to

(a) children of working mothers
(b) middle-class women
(c) visiting nurses
(b) labor union members

17 The word “contemporaries” in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(a) people of the same time
(b) famous people still alive
(c) elected officials
(d) people old enough to vote

18 According to the passage, Jane Addams’ reputation was damaged when she
(a) allowed Hull House to become a meeting place for clubs and labor unions
(c) joined in the movement for women’s suffrage
(c) became a founding member of the NAACP
(d) opposed America’s involvement in World War I

19 Where in the passage does the author mention the services provided by Hull
House?
(a) lines 5-10
(b) lines 10-15
(c) lines 15-20
(d) lines 20-25

There are two main hypotheses when it comes to explaining the emergence of modern
humans. The ‘Out of Africa’ theory holds that homo sapiens burst onto the scene as a
new species around 150,000 to 200,000 years ago in Africa and subsequently replaced
archaic humans such as the Neandertals. The other model, known as multi-regional
evolution or regional continuity, posits far more ancient and diverse roots for our
kind. Proponents of this view believe that homo sapiens arose in Africa some 2
million years ago and evolved as a single species spread across the Old World, with
populations in different regions linked through genetic and cultural exchange.

27
Of these two models, Out of Africa, which was originally developed based on fossil
evidence, and supported by much genetic research, has been favored by the majority
of evolution scholars. The vast majority of these genetic studies have focused on
DNA from living populations, and although some small progress has been made in
recovering DNA from Neandertal that appears to support multi-regionalism, the
chance of recovering nuclear DNA from early human fossils is quite slim at present.
Fossils thus remain very much a part of the human origins debate.
Another means of gathering theoretical evidence is through bones. Examinations of
early modern human skulls from Central Europe and Australia dated to between
20,000 and 30,000 years old have suggested that both groups apparently exhibit traits
seen in their Middle Eastern and African predecessors. But the early modern
specimens from Central Europe also display Neandertal traits, and the early modern
Australians showed affinities to archaic Homo from Indonesia. Meanwhile, the debate
among paleoanthropologists continues , as supporters of the two hypotheses challenge
the evidence and conclusions of each other.
30 The passage primarily discusses which of the following
(a) Evidence that supports the “Out of Africa” theory
(b) Two hypotheses and some evidence on the human origins debate
(c) The difficulties in obtaining agreement among theorists on the human origins
debate
(d) That fossils remain very much a part of the human origins debate

31 The word “emergence” in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(a) complexity
(b) development
(c) appearance
(d) decline
32 The word “proponents” in line 6 is closet in meaning to
(a) experts
(b) advocates
(c) inspectors
(d) historians
33 All of the following are true except
(a) three methods of gathering evidence are mentioned in the passage
(b) the multi-regional model goes back further in history.
(c) the Out of Africa model has had more support from scholars
(d) DNA studies offer one of the best ways in future to provide clear evidence.
34 The word “slim” in line 14 is closest in meaning to
(a) small
(b) narrow
(c) thin

28
(d) difficult
35 Which of the following is not true
(a) the vast majority of genetic studies have focused on living populations
(b) early modern human skulls all support the same conclusions
(c) both hypotheses focus on Africa as a location for the new species.
(d) early modern Australian skulls have similarities to those from Indonesia.

36 In line 18, the word “their ” refers to which of the following

(a) Middle Easterners and Africans
(b) skulls
(c) central Europeans and Australians
(d) traits

37 Which of the following is NOT true about the two hypotheses

(a) Both hypotheses regard Neandertals to be the predecessors of modern
humans
(b) Genetic studies have supported both hypotheses
(c) Both hypotheses cite Africa as an originating location.
(d) One hypothesis dates the emergence of homo sapiens much earlier than the other.

38 It can be inferred from the passage that

(a) there is likely to be an end to the debate in the near future
(b) the debate will interest historians to take part in
(c) the debate is likely to be less important in future
(d) there is little likelihood that the debate will die down

39 According to the passage, the multi-regional evolution model posits far more
diverse roots for our kind because
(a) Evidence from examinations of early modern human skulls has come from a
number of different parts of the world.
(b) DNA from Neandertal appears to support multi-regionalism
(c) Populations in different regions were linked through genetic and cultural
exchange
(d) This has been supported by fossil evidence

29
Though they were not trained naturalists, Meriwether Lewis and William Clark in
their explorations of North America in the early nineteenth century came across
enough unfamiliar birds, mammals, and reptiles to fill a zoo. In keeping with
President Jefferson's orders they took careful note of 122 species and subspecies that
were unknown to science and in many cases native only to the West. Clark made
sketches of any particularly intriguing creature. He and Lewis also collected animal
hides and horns and bird skins with such care that a few of them were still intact
nearly two centuries later. While Lewis and Clark failed to meet the mythological
monsters reputed to dwelt in the West, they did unearth the bones of a 45 - foot
dinosaur. Furthermore, some of the living beasts they did come upon, such as the
woolly mountain goat and the grizzly bear, were every bit as odd or as fearsome as
any myth. In their collector's enthusiasm, they even floated a prairie dog out of its
burrow by pouring in five barrelfuls of water, then shipped the frisky animal to
Jefferson alive and yelping.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) President Jefferson's pets
(B) Collector's techniques for capturing wildlife
(C) Discovery of animal species by Lewis and Clark
(D) Jobs for trained naturalists

2. "In keeping with" in line 3 could best be replaced by which of the following?
(A) Following (B) Managing (C) Retaining (D) Delaying

3. It can be inferred from the passage that President Jefferson ordered Lewis and
Clark to
(A) bring back animals for a zoo (B) train to be naturalists
(C) compile sketches for a book (D) record newly discovered species of animals

4. In line 8, what does the word "they" refer to?

(A) Lewis and Clark (B) Dinosaur bones
(C) Mythological monsters (D) Western dwellers

5. The author compares which of the following animals to mythological monsters?

(A) The grizzly bear
(B) The prairie dog (C) A tropical bird (D) A poisonous reptile

6. According to the passage, Lewis and Clark poured water into a prairie dog's burrow
because they wanted to
(A) bathe the animal (B) capture the animal
(C) give the animal water (D) teach the animal to float

30
Although management principles have been implemented since ancient times, most
management scholars trace the beginning of modern management thought back to the
early
1900s, beginning with the pioneering work of Frederick Taylor (1856-1915). Taylor
was the
first person to study work scientifically. He is most famous for introducing techniques
of time
and motion study, differential piece rate systems, and for systematically specializing
the work
of operating employees and managers. Along with other pioneers such as Frank and
Lillian
Gilbreth, Taylor set the stage, labeling his philosophy and methods “scientific
management’. At
that time, his philosophy, which was concerned with productivity, but which was
often
misinterpreted as promoting worker interests at the expense of management, was in
marked
contrast to the prevailing industrial norms of worker exploitation.
The time and motion study concepts were popularized by Frank and Lillian Gilbreth.
The
Gilbreths had 12 children. By analyzing his children’s dishwashing and bedmaking
chores,
this pioneer efficiency expert, Frank Gilbreth, hit on principles whereby workers
could
eliminate waste motion. He was memorialized by two of his children in their 1949
book called
“Cheaper by the Dozen”.
The Gilbreth methods included using stop watches to time worker movements and
special
tools (cameras and special clocks) to monitor and study worker performance, and also
involved
identification of “therbligs” (Gilbreth spelled backwards) – basic motions used in
production
jobs. Many of these motions and accompanying times have been used to determine
how long it
should take a skilled worker to perform a given job. In this way an industrial engineer
can get a
handle on the approximate time it should take to produce a product or provide a
service.
However, use of work analysis in this way is unlikely to lead to useful results unless
all five
work dimensions are considered: physical, psychological, social, cultural, and power.
40. What is the passage primarily about?
(a) The limitations of pioneering studies in understanding human behavior

31
(b) How time and motion studies were first developed
(c) The first applications of a scientific approach to understanding human behavior
(d) The beginnings of modern management theory

32
41. The word “ which” in line 9 refers to
(a) scientific management
(b) philosophy
(c) productivity
(d) time and motion study
42. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that
(a) workers welcomed the application of scientific management
(b) Talor’s philosophy is different from the industrial norms
(c) by the early 1900s science had reached a stage where it could be
applied to the workplace
(a) workers were no longer exploited after the introduction of scientific management.
43. The word “prevailing” in line 10 is closest in meaning to
(a) predominant
(b) broadly accepted
(c) prevalent
(d) common
44. According to the passage, Frank Gilbreth discovered how workers could
eliminate waste motion by
(a) using special tools such as cameras and clocks
(b) using stop watches
(c) applying scientific management principles
(d) watching his children do their chores
45. The basic motions used in production jobs were given which one of
following names by Frank Gilbreth?
(a) dimensions
(a) gilreths
(c) therbligs
(d) monitors
46. According to the passage, the time it takes a skilled worker to perform the
motion of a given job can be measured by using:
(a) stop watches
(b) all 5 work dimensions
(c) special tools
(d) therbligs
47. The word “motions” in line 20 is closest in meaning to
(a) stop watches
(b) habits
(c) actions
(d) special tools
48. Where in the passage does the author comment that the principles of scientific
management were often misunderstood?
(a) Lines 1-5
(b) Lines 6-10
(c) Lines 11-15

33
(d) Lines 16-20
49. The word “ dimensions” in line 24 is closest in meaning to
(a) sizes
(b) extents
(c) aspects
(d) standards
50. All of the following are true except
(a) scientific management was concerned with productivity.
(b) the beginnings of modern management thought commenced in the 19 th
century.
(c) Frank Gilbreth’s fame was enhanced by two of his children writing a book.
(d) analyzing work to increase productivity is not likely to be useful unless all of the
dimensions are considered.

34
Tupel versi 3

Listening
1. A. The man should go to the museum by shuttle bus.
2. D. The man should have studied for the exam.
3. A. A new building.
4. B. Use computer in the lab.
5. A. She got her watch where his sister works.
6. A. Find out if classes are cancelled
7. B. She is spending a lot of time in the library.
8. A. Try to fix what is wrong with the computer.
9. B. She wants the man to choose quickly.
10. B. She can return the CD to Tom later.
11. B. Make an appointment at the clinic soon.
12. C. Look at other apartments before deciding.
13. D. He is not on the basketball team.
14. B. Buy the green shirt.
15. C. The woman is planning to start a new job.
16. D. See a play with her aunt.
17. C. She thinks she will not need financial aid.
18. B. The woman does not have to pay extra for it.
19. A. A small town can have negative qualities.
20. D. He will not able to coordinate the program again.
21. C. He is late for an appointment with the man and woman.

35
22. B. She can get the materials they gave out at the meeting.
23. A. He probably will not able to follow the professor’s advice.
24. B. He doubts that the theater group will perform a musical next year.
25. C. He wants an appartment near his work.
26. D. The elections would be held later.
27. A. He did not recommend the lecture.
28. D. She intends to go see the movie.
29. C. Ways should he found to use less water.
30. C. The new manual has not been completed yet.
31. C. The class reading list.
32. D. The main character gets into trouble.
33. A. Some British reviewers wrote favorably about it.
34. C. Phases of language development in young children.
35. C. They are among the first sounds babies make.
36. A. Their voice box is not positioned correctly yet.
37. D. When children lear to associate sounds with meaning.
38. B. How children are able to learn language.
39. B. Communication over long distances in North America.
40. C. The fees of several couriers were included in the charge.
41. D. A funeral.
42. C. Attracting birds.
43. B. They like to eat them.
44. D. They are baked in the oven.
45. A. It makes the clean and free of germs.
46. C. She collects birds nests.

36
47. A. How to prevent landslides in populated areas.

37
48. B. They can reveal unsafe conditions for building.

38
49. B. It helps keep the soil in place.

39
50. D. A wall that stops water from draining.

Structure
1. The tongue can move and play a vital role in chewing, …..…, and speaking.
a. to b. swallowing
c. for d. of
2. Instead of being housed in one central bank, the Federal Reserve System is to…..
into twelve districts.
a. dividing b. divided
c. division d. divides
3. Those species are cultivated for their…….follage.
a. beautifully b. beau
c. beauty d. beautiful
4. Kiwi birds mainly eat insects, worms, and snails and……. For their food by
probing the ground with their long bills.
a. searching b. searches
c. searched d. search
5. He founded that city in 1685, and…..quickly grew to be the largest city in colonial
America.
a. he b. it
c. it d. we
6. Fewer people reside in Newfoundland than in……Canadian province except Prince
Edward Island.
a. other b. one another
c. any other d. others
7. Dr. Bethune, the founder of Bethune-Cookman College, served as…….to both
Franklin Rosevelt and Harry Truman.
a. advise b. advised
c. an advisor d. advising
8. Some plants produse…………poisons that can affect a person even if he or she
merely brushes against them.
a. irritating b. irritated
c. irritability d. irritation
9. Accute hearing helps most animals sense the approach of thunderstorms long
before people….
a. hearing them b. do
c. do them c. hear
10. The rotation of the Earth on its axis is…….the alternation of periods of light and
darkness.

40
a. responsible in b. responsible for
c. responsible with d. responsible to
11. Doctors are not sure……fever
a. exactly how disease causes
b. diseases exactly causes how
c. how disease causes exactly
d. how exactly causes disease
12. ……….Burmese breed of cat was developed in the US during the 1930’s.
a. The b. When the
c. While the d. Since the
13. Along the rocky shores of New England………and tidal marsh.
a. are where stretches of sandy beach
b. stretches of sandy are there
c. are stretches of sandy beach
d. stretches of sandy beach are
14. lina was nominated for an award as both a screenwriter……..an actress in 2009.
a. also b. in addition
c. and d. but
15. An erupting volcano sometimes affects……of the surrounding region and can
even cause lakes to disappear.
a. feature b. the featured
c. featuring d. the feature
16. most tree frogs change color to harmonize…………
a. to their background
b. with their background
c. on their background
d. in background of them
17. due to the refraction of light rays,…. Is impossible for the naked eye to determine
the exact location of a star close to the horizon.
a. it b. this
c. that d. there
18. Modern poets have experimented with poetic devices…………..and assonance.
a. as such alliteration
b. such as alliteration
c. such alliteration as
d. alliteration such as
19. Birds’ eggs vary greatly…….size, shape, and color.
a. with b. of
c. at d. in

41
20. Fredrick dedicated……….of slavery and the fight for civil rights.
a. his life to work the abolishment
b. his life to working for the abolishment
c. his life to work to abolish
d. his life to working in abolish
21. Mount Edith Cavell, a peak in the Canadian Rockies, is named……
a. a famous after nurses
b. after a famous nurse
c. nurses after a famous
d. after famous nurses
22. Xanthines have both
Good and bad effects on the body, and these effects…..the size and regularity of
dosage.
a. are generally determined by
b. are generally determined on
c. are generally determined in
d. are generally determined with
23. when a severe ankle injury forced….to give up reporting in 1926, M.Mitchell
began writing her novel Gone with the wind.
a. herself b. her
c. hers d. she
24. one of the most difficult questions in difining sleep is “what……the functions of
sleep?”
a. is b. has
c. have d. are
25. the museum houses…..of various objects documenting the vibrancy of the
cultures.
a. five thousands pieces
b. pieces five thousands
c. five thousand pieces
d. thousands five pieces
26. …….in the same direction as their orbital motions, while Venus and Uranus rotate
oppositely.
a. seven of planets rotate
b. seven planets rotate
c. seven rotate of planets
d. seven rotate planets
27. in the US….. to the national legislature comprising the house of Representatives
and the Senate.
a. voters elect representatives
b. representatives elect voters
c. elect representatives voters
d. voters election representative

42
28. it is the interaction between people, rather than the events that occur in their
lives,……the main focus of social psychology.
a. which are b. that are
c. which is d. that is
29. Today…..fewer than one hundred varieties cultivated flowers.
a. are b. have
c. there are d. have there
30. …….some of the famous detectives in literature are based on deductive reasoning.
a. methods use by
b. they used methods
c. the methodology used
d. using the methods of
31. the short story most naturally flourishes in an age…..with simplicity and
directness.
a. what it expresses
b. that expresses itself
c. which expressing
d. it is expressed
32. Naval cartographers’ knowledge of surface ocean currents is much more
complete…….subsurface currents.
a. than b. than in
c. than those of d. than that of
33. Unless exposed to light….plant cells do not produce chlorophyll.
a. most of b. the most of
c. the most d. most
34. Temperature levels in an oven are varied according to the kinds of…
a. are foods baked
b. foods to be baked
c. are baked foods
d. foods are baking
35. the three most common states of matter are….
a. solidity, liquid, and gas
b. solid, liquefy, and gas
c. solidity, liquidate, and gas
d. solid, liquid, and gas
36. the snowy egret is about the size…..crow
a. large b. of a large
c. of large d. a large
37. it has been found that chronic loud noise may lead to….hearing loss
a. temporary or permanently

43
b. temporarily or permanent
c. temporarily or permanently
d. temporary or permanent
38. with modern machinery, textile mills can manufacture as much fabric in a few
seconds as…..weeks o produce by hands
a. workers once took it
b. took workers it once
c. it took once workers
d. it once took workers
39. Norman Mailers first….with his war novel The Naked and The Dead, published in
1948.
a. Successfully achieved
b. achieved success
c. successful achievement
d. achievement of success
40. Through the years, the job of governing cities has become …..complex.
a. so much increasingly
b. increasingly whole
c. increasingly
d. what is increasingly

44
Reading
When we accept the evidence of our unaided eyes and describe the Sun as a yellow
star, we have summed up the most important single fact about it-at this moment in
time.
It appears probable, however, that sunlight will be the color we know for only a
negligibly small part of the Sun's history. Stars, like individuals, age and change. As
we look out into space, We see around us stars at all stages of evolution. There are
faint blood-red dwarfs so cool that their surface temperature is a mere 4,000 degrees
Fahrenheit, there are searing ghosts blazing at 100, 000 degrees Fahrenheit and almost
too hot to be seen, for the great part of their radiation is in the invisible ultraviolet
range. Obviously, the "daylight" produced by any star depends on its temperature;
today(and for ages to come) our Sun is at about 10,000 degrees Fahrenheit, and this
means that most of the Sun's light is concentrated in the yellow band of the spectrum,
falling slowly in intensity toward both the longer and shorter light waves.
That yellow "hump" will shift as the Sun evolves, and the light of day will change
accordingly. It is natural to assume that as the Sun grows older, and uses up its
hydrogen fuel-which it is now doing at the spanking rate of half a billion tons a
second- it will become steadily colder and redder.
1. What is the passage mainly about?
(A) Faint dwarf stars (B) The evolutionary cycle of the Sun
(C) The Sun's fuel problem (D) The dangers of invisible radiation

2. What does the author say is especially important about the Sun at the present time?
(A) It appears yellow (B) It always remains the same
(C) It has a short history (D) It is too cold

3. Why are very hot stars referred to as "ghosts"?

(A) They are short- lived. (B) They are mysterious.
(C) They are frightening. (D) They are nearly invisible.

4. According to the passage as the Sun continues to age, it is likely to become what
color?
(A) Yellow (B) Violet (C) Red (D) White

5. In line 15, to which of the following does "it" refer?

(A) yellow "hump" (B) day (C) Sun (D) hydrogen fuel

If by "suburb" is meant an urban margin that grows more rapidly than its already
developed interior, the process of suburbanization began during the emergence of the
industrial city in the second quarter of the nineteenth century. Before that period the
city was a small highly compact cluster in which people moved about on foot and
goods were conveyed by horse and cart. But the early factories built in the 1830's and
1840's were located along waterways and near railheads at the edges of cities, and
housing was needed for the thousands of people drawn by the prospect of

45
employment. In time, the factories were surrounded by proliferating mill towns of
apartments and row houses that abutted the older, main cities. As a defense against
this encroachment and to enlarge their tax bases, the cities appropriated their

46
industrial neighbors. In 1854, for example, the city of Philadelphia annexed most of
Philadelphia County. Similar municipal maneuvers took place in Chicago and in New
York Indeed, most great cities of the United States achieved such status only by
incorporating the communities along their borders.
With the acceleration of industrial growth came acute urban crowding and
accompanying social stress conditions that began to approach disastrous proportions
when, in 1888, the first commercially successful electric traction line was developed.
Within a few years the horse - drawn trolleys were retired and electric streetcar
networks crisscrossed and connected every major urban area, fostering a wave of
suburbanization that transformed the compact industrial city into a dispersed
metropolis. This first phase of mass - scale suburbanization was reinforced by the
simultaneous emergence of the urban Middle class whose desires for homeownership
In neighborhoods far from the aging inner city were satisfied by the developers of
single-family housing tracts.
1. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
(A) The growth of Philadelphia (B) The Origin of the Suburb
(C) The Development of City Transportation (D) The Rise of the Urban Middle Class

2. The author mentions that areas bordering the cities have grown during periods of
(A) industrialization (B) inflation
(C) revitalization (D) unionization

3. In line 10 the word "encroachment" refers to which of the following?

(A) The smell of the factories (B) The growth of mill towns
(C) The development of waterways (D) The loss of jobs

4. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a factor in

nineteenth-century suburbanization?
(A) Cheaper housing (B) Urban crowding
(C) The advent of an urban middle class (D) The invention of the electric streetcar

5. It can be inferred from the passage that after 1890 most people traveled around
cities by
(A) automobile (B) cart
(C) horse-draw trolley (D) electric streetcar

6. Where in the passage does the author describe the cities as they were prior to
suburbanization.
(A) Lines 3-5 (B) Lines 5-9
(C) Lines 12- 13 (D) Lines 15-18
The first English attempts to colonize North America were controlled by individuals
rather than companies. Sir Humphrey Gilbert was the first Englishman to send
colonists to the New World. His initial expedition, which sailed in 1578 with a patent

47
granted by Queen Elizabeth was defeated by the Spanish. A second attempt ended in
disaster in 1583, when Gilbert and his
ship were lost in a storm. In the following year, Gilbert's half brother, Sir Water
Raleigh, having obtained a renewal of the patent, sponsored an expedition that
explored the coast of the region that he named "Virginia." Under Raleigh's direction
efforts were then made to establish a colony on Roanoke island in 1585 an6 1587. The
survivors of the first settlement on Roanoke

48
returned to England in 1586, but the second group of colonists disappeared without
leaving a trace. The failure of the Gilbert and Raleigh ventures made it clear that the
tasks they had undertaken were too big for any one colonizer. Within a short time the
trading company had supplanted the individual promoter of colonization.
1. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
(A) The Regulation of Trading Companies
(B) British - Spanish Rivalry in the New World
(C) Early Attempts at Colonizing North America
(D) Royal Patents Issued in the 16th Century

2. The passage states which of the following about the first English people to be
involved in establishing colonies in North America?
(A) They were requested to do so by Queen Elizabeth.
(B) They were members of large trading companies.
(C) They were immediately successful.
(D) They were acting on their own.

3. According to the passage, which of the following statements about Sir Humphrey
Gilbert is true?
(A) He never settled in North America.
(B) His trading company was given a patent by the queen.
(C) He fought the Spanish twice.
(D) He died in 1587.

4. When did Sir Walter Raleigh's initial expedition set out for North America?
(A) 1577 (B) 1579 (C) 1582 (D) 1584

5. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about members of the first
Roanoke settlement?
(A) They explored the entire coastal region. (B) Some did not survive.
(C) They named the area "Virginia". (D) Most were not experienced sailors.

6. According to the passage, the first English settlement on Roanoke Island was
established in
(A) 1578 (B) 1583 (C) 1585 (D) 1587

7. According to the passage, which of; the following statements about the second
settlement on Roanoke Island is true?
(A) Its settlers all gave up and returned to England.
(B) It lasted for several years.
(C) The fate of its inhabitants is unknown.
(D) It was conquered by the Spanish.

49
Botany, the study of plants, occupies a peculiar position in the history of human
knowledge. For many thousands of years it was the one field of awareness about
which humans had anything more than the vaguest of insights. It is impossible to
know today just what our Stone Age ancestors knew about plants, but from what we
can observe of pre-industrial societies that still exist, a detailed learning of plants and
their properties must be extremely ancient. This is logical. Plants are the basis of the
food pyramid for all living things, even for other plants. They have always been
enormously important to the welfare of peoples, not only for food, but also for
clothing, weapons, tools, dyes: medicines, shelter, and a great many other purposes.
Tribes living today in the jungles of the Amazon recognize literally hundreds of plants
and know many properties of each. To them botany, as such, has no name and is
probably not even recognized as a special branch of "Knowledge at all.
Unfortunately, the more industrialized we become the farther away we move from
direct contact with plants, and the less distinct our knowledge of botany grows. Yet
everyone comes unconsciously on an amazing amount of botanical knowledge, and
few people will fail to recognize a rose, an apple, or an orchid. When our Neolithic
ancestors, living in the Middle East about 10,000 years ago, discovered that certain
grasses could be harvested and their seeds planted for richer yields the next season,
the first great step in a new association of plants and humans was taken. Grains were
discovered and from them flowed the marvel of agriculture: cultivated crops. From
then on, humans would increasingly take their living from the controlled production
of a few plants, rather than getting a little here and a little there from many varieties
that grew wild – and the accumulated knowledge' of tens of thousands of years of
experience and intimacy with plants in the wild would begin to fade away.
1. Which of the following assumptions about early humans is expressed in the
passage?
(A) They probably had extensive knowledge of plants.
(B) They thought there was no need to cultivate crops.
(C) They did not enjoy the study of botany.
(D) They placed great importance on the ownership of property.

2. What does the comment "This is logical" in line 6 mean?

(A) There is no clear way to determine the extent of our ancestor’s knowledge of
plants.
(B) It is not surprising that early humans had a detailed knowledge of plants.
(C) It is reasonable to assume that our ancestors behaved very much like people in
preindustrial societies.
(D) Human knowledge of plants is well organized and very detailed.

3. According to the passage, why has general knowledge of botany begun to fade?
(A) People no longer value plants as a useful resource.
(B) Botany is not recognized as a special branch of science.
(C) Research is unable to keep up with the increasing numbers of plants.
(D) Direct contact with a variety of plants has decreased.

50
4. In line 16, what is the author’s purpose in mentioning "a rose, an apple, or an
orchid"?
(A) To make the passage more poetic
(B) To cite examples of plants that are attractive
(C) To give botanical examples that all readers will recognize
(D) To illustrate the diversity of botanical life

5. According to the passage, what was the first great step toward the practice of
agriculture?
(A) The invention of agricultural implements and machinery

51
(B) The development of a system of names for plants
(C) The discovery of grasses that could be harvested and replanted
(D) The changing diets of early humans

6. The relationship between botany and agriculture is similar to the relationship

between zoology (the study of animals) and
(A) deer hunting (B) bird watching
(C) sheep raising (D) horseback riding
7. In which lines in the passage does the author describe the beneficial properties that
plants have for humans?
(A) Lines 1-2 (B) Lines 7-9
(C) Lines 11-12 (D) Lines 14-16
The agricultural revolution in the nineteenth century involved two things: the
invention of labor-saving machinery and. the development of scientific agriculture.
Labor - saying machinery, naturally appeared, first where labor was 8carce. "In
Europe," said, Thomas Jefferson, the object is to make the most of: their land, labor
being abundant;. here it, is to make the most of our labor, land being abundant. It was
in America, therefore, that the great advances in nineteenth - century agricultural
machinery first came.
At the opening of the century, with the exception of a crude plow farmers could have
carried practically all of the existing agricultural implement on their backs; by 1860,
most of the machinery in use today had been designed in an early form. The most
important of the early inventions was the iron plow. As early as 1790 Charies
Newbold of New Jersey had been working on the of a cast – iron plow and spent his
entire fortune in introducing his invention. The farmers, however, would have none of
it, claiming that the iron poisoned the soil and made the weeds grow. Nevertheless,
many people devoted their attention to the plow, until in 1869 James Oliver of South
Bend, Indiana, turned out the first chilled-steel plow.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
(A) The need for agricultural advances to help feed a growing population
(B) The development of safer machines demanded by the labor movement
(C) Machinery that contributed to the agricultural revolution
(D) New Jersey as a leader in the agricultural revolution
2. The word "naturally" as used in line 3 is closest in meaning to which of the
following?
(A) Gradually (B) Unsurprisingly (C) Apparently (D) Safely
3. The expression "make the most of" in line 4 is closest in meaning to which of the
following?
(A) Get the best yield from (B) Raise the price of
(C) Exaggerate the worth of (D) Earn a living on
4. Which of the following can be inferred from what Thomas Jefferson said?
(A) Europe was changing more quickly than America.
(B) Europe had greater need of farm machinery than America did.
(C) America was finally running out of good farmland.

52
(D) There was a shortage of workers on American farms.
5. It can be inferred that the word "here' in line 4 refers to
(A) Europe (B) America (C) New Jersey (D) Indiana
6. What point is the author making by stating that farmers could carry nearly all their
tools On their backs?
(A) Farmers had few tools before the agricultural revolution.
(B) Americans were traditionally self - reliant.
(C) Life on the farm was extremely difficult.
(D) New tools were designed to be portable.
7. Why did farmers reject Newbold's plow?
(A) Their horses were frightened by it. (B) They preferred lighter tools.
(C) It was too expensive. (D) They thought it would ruin the land.
It was not "the comet of the century experts predicted it might be. Nevertheless,
Kohoutek had provided a bonanza of scientific information. It was first spotted 370
million miles from Earth, by an astronomer who was searching the sky for asteroids,
and after whom the comet was named. Scientists who tracked Kohoutek the ten
months before it passed the Earth predicted the comet would be a brilliant spectacle.
But Kohoutek fell short of these predictions, disappointing millions of amateur sky
watchers, when it proved too pale to be seen with the unaided eye. Researchers were
delighted nonetheless with the nevi information they were able to glean from their
investigation of the comet. Perhaps the most significant discovery was the
identification of two important chemical compounds-methyl cyanide and hydrogen
cyanide-never before seen in comets, but found in the far reaches of interstellar space.
This discovery revealed new clues about the origin of comets. Most astronomers
agree that comets are primordial remnants from the formation of the solar system, but
whether they were born between Jupiter and Neptune or much farther out toward
interstellar space has been the subject of much debate. If compounds no more
complex than ammonia and methane, key components of Jupiter, were seen in
comets, it would suggest that comets form within the planetary orbits. But more
complex compounds such as the methyl cyanide found in Kohoutek, point to
formation far beyond the planets there the deep freeze of space has kept them
unchanged.
1. What is the subject of the passage?
(A) What was learned from Kohoutek (B) What was disappointing about Kohoutek
(C) Where Kohoutek was spotted (D) How Kohoutek was tracked
2. Why was Kohoutek referred to as "the comet of the century"?
(A) It was thought to be extremely old.
(B) It passes the Earth once a century.
(C) Scientists predicted it would be very bright.

53
(D) Scientists have been tracking it for a century.
3. In what respect was Kohoutek a disappointment?
(A) It could be seen only through special equipment.
(B) It did not approach the Earth.
(C) It did not provide valuable scientific information.
(D) It was moving too rapidly for scientists to photograph.
4. Before the investigation of Kohoutek, where had methyl cyanide been known to
exist?
(A) In comets (B) On asteroids
(C) Between Jupiter and Neptune (D) Beyond the Earth's solar system
5. According to the passage, what is one major component of Jupiter?
(A) Hydrogen cyanide (B) Methyl cyanide
(C) Hydrogen (D) Ammonia
6. What aspect of Kohoutek did scientists find most interesting?
(A) Its shape (B) Its composition
(C) Its orbit (D) Its size
7. Which of the following questions is best answered by information gained from
Kohoutek?
(A) Where were comets formed? (B) When were comets formed?
(C) When was the solar system formed? (D) How was the solar system formed?

54
Section One: Listening Comprehension：

1. A.The woman and the man have

plans to eat out together.
4. A. The woman should continue
B.The woman would prefer to stay driving.
home this evening.
B. They will arrive late for dinner.
C.The man has changed his mind about
C. He forgot to make reservations.
the new restaurant.
D. He is not sure what is wrong with the
D.The man is sorry he cannot join the
car.
woman for dinner.

5. A. She did not realize that their team

2. A. A plane trip.
had won.
B. A rental car.
B. Their team nearly lost the game.
C. A hotel room.
C. She called to find out the score of the
D. Concert tickets. game.

D. Their team usually wins its games.

3. A.The woman did not remember her

appointment.
6.A. Join him and Mary at the
B.The woman needs to get a calendar. movie.

C. The appointment must be changed to
a different day.
D. The calendar shows the wrong
month.
B. Ask Mary what she is doing tonight.
C. Invite a group of friends to go to the
movie.
D. Tell Mary about the movie.

55

7. A. Professor Campbell changed the
conference time.
B. He is planning to stay until the
conference is finished.
C. He will not attend the concert.
D. He will wait for the woman.
8. A. She recently purchased laundry
detergent.
B. She will buy some detergent for the
man.
C. The Laundromat is around the
corner.
D. The man can buy detergent at
the store.
9.A. It is next to the Holiday Motel.
B. It is nicer than the Holiday
Motel.
C. It is very inexpensive.
D. It is a little farther than the Holiday
Motel.
10. A. She does not believe it will snow.
B. Snow in October is unusual.
56
C. Canadian winters are rather
long.
D. Winter is her favorite season.
11. A. He lost his wallet on a trip to
Germany.
B. His private lessons did not help
him.
C. His German tutor charges a
reasonable fee.
D. He plans to continue taking lessons.
12. A. The committee has just
begun to write the report.
B. The report will be short.
C. The committee members have just
become acquainted.
D. The report is finished except for the
introduction.
13. A. They should play another time.
B. They will probably have to play
in the gym.
C. He prefers to play in the gym
D. It is not supposed to rain tomorrow.
14. A. Type the letter as it is.
B. Change some wording in his
letter.
18. A. The woman should have thrown
C. Send the letter without typing it. out the newspapers herself.

D. Check to make sure his facts are B. He does not know where her paper
correct. is.

C. The woman's paper is in the

trash.
15. A. The woman should call the
professor the next day. D. He does not have time to help her
look for her paper.
B. He is canceling the choir
rehearsal because of illness.

C. The woman will feel better in a day 19. A. The woman can make her
or two. call tomorrow.

D. He will turn up the heat in the choir B. There is a problem with the woman's
room. telephone.

C. The airline's offices are closed.

16. A. They should take another route D. He does not know what the problem
to the bank. could be.

B. They turned onto the wrong road.

C. The man will get to the bank 20. A. He is very hungry.

before it closes.
B. He has made plans to eat with
D. The bank will open soon. someone else.

C. He did not like what he ate for lunch.

17. A. Go out to eat when the museum D. He will go with the woman.
closes.

B. Check that the museum cafeteria is

21. A. She is proud of the man.
open.
B. She does not want to see the
C. Leave the museum temporarily
man's test.
D. Meet each other later in the day.
C. She also got a good grade.

57
D. She has not taken the test yet. B. Phil has a better chance of winning.

C. Mary will win the election.

22. A. He will tell the woman what to D. Phil will sit on the ledge.
do.

B. The meeting will have to be

26. A. He thinks the woman's computer
postponed.
is broken.
C. He will get the job done if he
B. He worked on the woman's computer
gets some instruction.
for too long.
D. He will need to throw away most of
C. He sometimes gets headaches
the papers.
after doing computer work.

D. He needs to take a longer break.

23. A. Find another sociology
course.
27. A. The library closed earlier than
B. Look for a job in the sociology
she expected.
department.
B. She could not find a birthday present.
C. Ask someone to take notes for her on
Friday. C. She picked Jack up at the golf
course.
D. Change her work schedule.
D. The bookstore did not have what
she was looking for.
24. A. She can help the man until
lunchtime.
28. A. The equipment has already been
B. She cannot read the applications
locked up.
until after her class.
B. The woman should be more careful
C. She has a class after lunch.
with the equipment.
D. She also plans to apply to graduate
C. He knows how to operate the
school.
equipment.

D. He will put the equipment away.

25. A. Mary will trim her hedge.

58
29. A. The man did not give the C. Using computers to increase business
woman the notes she needed. efficiency.

B. The man's notes were hard to D. The expansion of international

understand. business.

C. The woman wants to borrow the

man's sociology notes.
33. A. It is the topic of his term paper.
D. The woman has to organize her
B. He would like to find a job there.
psychology notes.
C. His economics professor did research
work there.
30. A. The man will find a job if he
D. Microcredit programs have been
continues to look.
very successful there.
B. The man should look for a job in a
different field.
34. A. Cancel her credit card.
C. The man can get a job where the
woman works. B. Sign up for the economics seminar.

D. The man should keep his current job. C. Do research on banks in Asia.

D. Type the man's term paper.

31. A. She will be able to join the

economics seminar.
35. A. The life of a well-known Canadian
B. She has a new printer for her architect.
computer.
B. The architectural design of a
C. She finished paying back her loan. new museum.

D. She got an A on her term paper. C. The variety of museums in

Washington, D.C.

D. The changing function of the modern

32. A. The importance of paying back
museum.
loans promptly.

B. A way to help people improve

their economic conditions. 36. A. Both were designed by the
same architect.

59
B. Both are located in Washington, D.C.
C. Both feature similar exhibits.
D. Both were built around a central
square.
37. A. A classical temple.
B. A well-known museum.
C. A modern office building.
D. A natural landscape.
38. A. Traditional views on the purpose
of a museum.
B. Traditional values of Native
Americans.
C. Traditional notions of respect for
elected leaders.
D. Traditional forms of classical
architecture.
39. A. They are examples of the
usual sequence of observation and
explanation.
B. They provide evidence of inaccurate
scientific observation.
C. Their discovery was similar to that of
the neutrino.
D. They were subjects of 1995
experiments at Los Alamos.
60
40. A. Its mass had previously been
measured.
B. Its existence had been reported by
Los Alamos National Laboratory.
C. Scientists were looking for a particle
with no mass.
D. Scientists were unable to
balance equations of energy
without it.
41. A. That it carries a large amount of
energy.
B. That it is a type of electron.
C. That it is smaller in size than
previously thought.
D. That it has a tiny amount of
mass.
42. A. The clearing of New England
forests.
B. The role of New England trees in
British shipbuilding.
C. The development of the shipbuilding
industry in New England.
D. The role of the British surveyor
general in colonizing New England.
43. A. Law.
B. Mathematics. C. How they hunt.

C. History. D. How they solve problems.

D. Engineering.

48. A. By changing its appearance.

44. A. Sugar maple. B. By imitating signals that the

other spiders send.
B. Oak.
C. By spinning a large web.
C. White pine.
D. By imitating insects caught in a web.
D. Birch.

49. A. Avoid attacks by other spiders.

45. A. Its width.
B. Cross some water.
B. Its height.
C. Jump to the edge of the tray.
C. Its straightness.
D. Spin a long thread.
D. Its location.

50. A. It would keep trying to reach the

46. A. M
rock the same way.
B. %
B. It would try to reach the rock a
C. K different way.

D. -> C. The scientists would move the spider

to the rock.

D. The scientists would place another

47. A. How they swim long distances.
spider in the tray.

B. How they got their name.

Section Two: Structure and Written Expression

61
1.In the late 1970’s and early 1980’s, 5.Modern skyscrapers have a steel
the United States developed the skeleton of beams and columns ___a
reusable space shuttle ________to three-dimensional grid.
space cheaper and easier.
A. forms
A. to make access B. from which forming
C. and forming
B and making access D. that forms

C. which made accessible

6.The average level of United States
D. and made accessible.
prices grew very little from 1953 until
the mid-1960’s when ____________.

2. Genetically, the chimpanzee is more A. did inflation begin

B. inflation began
similar to humans _______.
C. the beginning of inflation
A. are than any other animal D. did the beginning of inflation
B. than is any other animal
C. any other animal is
D. and any other animal is 7.The basis premise behind all
agricultural production is _____available
the riches of the soil for human
3._______more than 65,000 described consumption.
species of protozoa, of which more than
half are fossils. A. to be made
B. the making
A. Being that there are C. making is
B. There being D. to makesa
C. Are there
D. There are
8.___to the united states House of
Representatives in 1791, Nathaniel
4.The Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890 Macon remained in office until 1815.
___ nearly unanimously through the
United States Congress. A. Election
B. Why he was elected
A. passed C. Elected
B. in passage D. Who was elected
C. having passed
D. passing
9.________ of classical ballet in the
united states began around 1830.

A. To teach

62
B. Is teaching 13.Newspaper publishers in the united
C. It was taught states have estimated
D. The teaching
___________reads a newspaper every
day.
10.The universe is estimated
A. nearly 80 percent of the adult
___between 10 billion and 20 billion population who
years old. B. it is nearly 80 percent of the adult
population
A. being
C. that nearly 80 percent of the adult
B. to be
population who
C. which is
D. that nearly 80 percent of the
D. is. adult population

11. A situation in which an economic

14. The foundation of all other branches
market is dominated by a ____ is
of mathematics is arithmetic, _ science
known as a monopoly.
of calculating with numbers.
A. single of a product seller
A. is the
B. product single of a seller
B. the
C. seller of a product single
C. which the
D. single seller of a product
D. because the

12.____ freshwater species of fish build

15.Nylon was ___the human-made
nests of sticks, stones, or scooped-out fibers.
sand..
A. the first of which
A. As the many B. what the first of
B. Of the many C. it the first of
C. Many D. the first of
D. Many of them are

16.The male cicada sound is made by specialized structures on the abdomen and
which apparently severs to attract females.

17.Televisions are now an everyday feature of most households in the United States,
and television viewing is the number one activity leisure.

63
18.Bacteria are one of the most abundant life forms on Earth, growing on and inside
another living things, in every type of environment.

19.Fluorine is a greenish gas too active that even water and glass burn in it.

20.In general, novels are thought of extended works of prose fiction depicting the
inner and outer lives of their characters.

21.Metabolism is the inclusive term for the chemical reactions by which the cells of
an organism transforms energy, maintain their identity, and reproduce.

22.Although most petroleum is produced from underground reservoirs, petroleum

occurs in a varieties of forms at the surface.

23.A musical organ can have pipes of two kinds: flue pipes that work like a flute and
reed pipes that operate on same principle as a clarinet.

24.The Land Ordinance of 1784 divided the western lands belonging to the United
States into territories, each to be govern temporarily by its settlers.

25.If there is too much pituitary hormone of too few insulin, the amount of sugar in
the blood rises abnormally, producing a condition called hyperglycemia.

26.The care of children during their years of relative helplessness appears to have
being the chief incentive for the evolution of family structures.

64
27.It was not until the 1920’s that pollution came to be viewed by many as a threat
to the health of live on Earth.

28.Platelets are tiny blood cells that help transport hormones and other chemicals
throughout the body, and it play a key role in clotting blood.

29. Until the twentieth century, pendulum clocks were calibrated against the rotation
of earth by taking astronomically measurements.

30.The rapid growth of the world’s population over the past 100 years have led

to a great increase in the acreage of land under cultivation.

31.In the eighteenth century, the Pawnees, descendants of the Nebraska culture,
lived in

villages sizeable on the Loup and Platte rivers in central Nebraska.

32.The attraction of opposite charges is one of the force that keep electrons in orbit
around of nucleus of an atom.

33.Of every the major traditions of wood carving, the one that is closest in structure
to the tree is the crest pole made by the Native Americans of the Northwest coast.

34.Many of the fine-grained varieties of sedimentary rocks known as shales yield oil

when distilled by hot.

35.In 1820 there were only 65 daily newspapers in the united states, which total
daily circulation of perhaps 100,000.

65
36.The Milky Way galaxy includes the Sun, its planets, and rest of the solar system,
along with billions of stars and other objects.

37.Some of sharpshooter Annie Oakley’s exploits with a gun are almost unbelievable
when

it comes to accuracy, speed of firing ,and endure.

38.Evidence from ancient fossils indicates the scorpion may had been among the
first land animals.

39.Jetties, piers designed to aid in marine navigation, are constructed primary of

wood, stone, concrete, or combinations of these materials.

40.The Barnes Foundation in Merion, Pennsylvania, was chartered in 1922 to

promotion art education by providing art classes and by establishing a publishing
program.

Section Three: Reading Comprehension

Question 1-10
All mammals feed their young. Beluga whale mothers, for example, nurse their
calves for some twenty months, until they are about to give birth again and their
young are able to find their own food. The behavior of feeding of the young is built
into the reproductive system. It is a nonelective part of parental care and the
defining feature of a mammal, the most important thing that mammals-- whether
marsupials, platypuses, spiny anteaters, or placental mammals -- have in common.

But not all animal parents, even those that tend their offspring to the point of
hatching or birth, feed their young. Most egg-guarding fish do not, for the simple
reason that their young are so much smaller than the parents and eat food that is

66
also much smaller than the food eaten by adults. In reptiles, the crocodile mother
protects her young after they have hatched and takes them down to the water,
where they will find food, but she does not actually feed them. Few insects feed their
young after hatching, but some make other arrangement, provisioning their cells and
nests with caterpillars and spiders that they have paralyzed with their venom and
stored in a state of suspended animation so that their larvae might have a supply of
fresh food when they hatch.

For animals other than mammals, then, feeding is not intrinsic to parental care. Animals
add it to their reproductive strategies to give them an edge in their lifelong quest for
descendants. The most vulnerable moment in any animal's life is when it first finds itself
completely on its own, when it must forage and fend for itself. Feeding postpones that
moment until a young animal has grown to such a size that it is better able to cope.
Young that are fed by their parents become nutritionally independent at a much greater
fraction of their full adult size. And in the meantime those young are shielded against the
vagaries of fluctuating of difficult-to-find supplies. Once a species does take the step of
feeding its young, the young become totally dependent on the extra effort. If both
parents are removed, the young generally do no survive.

1. What does the passage mainly B. describe the process by which

discuss? mammals came to be defined

A. The care that various animals
give to their offspring.
B. The difficulties young animals face in
obtaining food.
C. The methods that mammals use to
nurse their young.
C. emphasize the point that every
type of mammal feeds its own
young
D. explain why a particular feature of
mammals is nonelective

D. The importance among young 3. The word "tend" in line 7 is closest in

mammals of becoming independent. meaning to

A. sit on

2. The author lists various animals in B. move

line 5 to
C. notice
A. contrast the feeding habits of
D. care for
different types of mammals

67
4. What can be inferred from the 7. The word "edge" in line 17 is closest
passage about the practice of animal in meaning to
parents feeding their young?
A. opportunity
A. It is unknown among fish.
B. advantage
B. It is unrelated to the size of the
C. purpose
young.
D. rest
C. It is dangerous for the parents.

D. It is most common among

mammals. 8. The word "it" in line 20 refers to

A. Feeding

5. The word "provisioning" in line 13 is B. moment

closest in meaning to
C. young animal
A. supplying
D. size
B. preparing

C. building
9. According to the passage, animal
D. expanding young are most defenseless when

A. their parents are away searching for

food
6. According to the passage, how do
some insects make sure their young B. their parents have many young to
have food? feed

A. By storing food near their young. C. they are only a few days old

B. By locating their nests or cells near D. they first become independent

spiders and caterpillars.

C. By searching for food some distance

10. The word "shielded" in line 22 is
from their nest.
closest in meaning to
D. By gathering food from a nearby
A. raised
water source.
B. protected

68
C. hatched D. valued

Question 11-21:

Printmaking is the generic term for a number of processes, of which woodcut and
engraving are two prime examples. Prints are made by pressing a sheet of paper (or
other material) against an image-bearing surface to which ink has been applied.
When the paper is removed, the image adheres to it, but in reverse.

The woodcut had been used in China from the fifth century A.D. for applying
patterns to textiles. The process was not introduced into Europe until the fourteenth
century, first for textile decoration and then for printing on paper. Woodcuts are
created by a relief process; first, the artist takes a block of wood, which has been
sawed parallel to the grain, covers it with a white ground, and then draws the image
in ink. The background is carved away, leaving the design area slightly raised. The
woodblock is inked, and the ink adheres to the raised image. It is then transferred to
damp paper either by hand or with a printing press.

Engraving, which grew out of the goldsmith's art, originated in Germany and
northern Italy in the middle of the fifteenth century. It is an intaglio process (from
Italian intagliare, "to carve"). The image is incised into a highly polished metal plate,
usually copper, with a cutting instrument, or burin. The artist inks the plate and
wipes it clean so that some ink remains in the incised grooves. An impression is
made on damp paper in a printing press, with sufficient pressure being applied so
that the paper picks up the ink.

Both woodcut and engraving have distinctive characteristics. Engraving lends itself to
subtle modeling and shading through the use of fine lines. Hatching and cross-
hatching determine the degree of light and shade in a print. Woodcuts tend to be
more linear, with sharper contrasts between light and dark. Printmaking is well
suited to the production of multiple images. A set of multiples is called an edition.
Both methods can yield several hundred good-quality prints before the original block
or plate begins to show signs of wear. Mass production of prints in the sixteenth
century made images available, at a lower cost, to a much broader public than
before.

69
11. What does the passage mainly 14. The word "incised" in line 15 is
discuss? closest in meaning to

A. The origins of textile decoration A. burned

B. The characteristics of good-quality B. cut

prints
C. framed
C. Two types of printmaking
D. baked
D. Types of paper used in printmaking

15. Which of the following terms is

12. The word "prime" in line 2 is closest defined in the passage/
in meaning to
A. "patterns"(line 5)
A. principal
B. "grain"(line 8)
B. complex
C. "burin"(line 16)
C. general
D. "grooves"(line 17)
D. recent

16. The word "distinctive" in line 19 is

13. The author's purposes in paragraph closest in meaning to
2 is to describe
A. unique
A. the woodcuts found in China in the
B. accurate
fifth century
C. irregular
B. the use of woodcuts in the textile
industry D. similar

C. the process involved in creating

a woodcut
17. According to the passage, all of the
D. the introduction of woodcuts to following are true about engraving
Europe EXCEPT that it

A. developed from the art of the

goldsmiths

70
B. requires that the paper be cut
with a burin
20. According to the author, what made
C. originated in the fifteenth century it possible for members of the general
public to own prints in the sixteenth
D. involves carving into a metal plate
century?

A. Prints could be made at low

18. The word "yield" in line 23 is closest cost.
in meaning to
B. The quality of paper and ink had
A. imitate improved.

B. produce C. Many people became involved in the

printmaking industry.
C. revise
D. Decreased demand for prints kept
D. contrast
prices affordable.

19. According to the passage, what do

21. According to the passage, all of the
woodcut and engraving have in
following are true about prints EXCEPT
common?
that they
A. Their designs are slightly raised.
A. can be reproduced on materials other

B. They achieve contrast through than paper

hatching and cross-hatching.
B. are created from a reversed image
C. They were first used in Europe.
C. show variations between light and

D. They allow multiple copies to be dark shades

produced from one original.

D. require a printing press

Questions 22-31:

The first peoples to inhabit what today is the southeastern United States sustained
themselves as hunters and gathers. Sometimes early in the first millennium A.D.,
however, they began to cultivate corn and other crops. Gradually, as they became
more skilled at gardening, they settled into permanent villages and developed a rich
culture, characterized by the great earthen mounds they erected as monuments to
their gods and as tombs for their distinguished dead. Most of these early mound

71
builders were part of the Adena-Hopewell culture, which had its beginnings near the
Ohio River and takes its name from sites in Ohio. The culture spread southward into
the present-day states of Louisiana, Alabama, Georgia, and Florida. Its peoples
became great traders, bartering jewellery, pottery, animal pelts, tools, and other
goods along extensive trading networks that stretched up and down eastern North
America and as far west as the Rocky Mountains.

About A.D. 400, the Hopewell culture fell into decay. Over the next centuries, it was
supplanted by another culture, the Mississippian, named after the river along which
many of its earliest villages were located. This complex civilization dominated the
Southeast from about A.D. 700 until shortly before the Europeans began arriving in
the sixteenth century. At the peak of its strength, about the year 1200, it was the
most advanced culture in North America. Like their Hopewell predecessors, the
Mississippians became highly skilled at growing food, although on a grander scale.
They developed an improved strain of corn, which could survive in wet soil and a
relatively cool climate, and also learned to cultivate beans. Indeed, agriculture
became so important to the Mississippians that it became closely associated with the
Sun --- the guarantor of good crops. Many tribes called themselves "children of the
Sun" and believed their omnipotent priest-chiefs were descendants of the great sun
god.

Although most Mississippians lived in small villages, many others inhabited large
towns. Most of these towns boasted at least one major flat-topped mound on which
stood a temple that contained a sacred flame. Only priests and those charged with
guarding the flame could enter the temples. The mounds also served as ceremonial
and trading sites, and at times they were used as burial grounds.

22. What does the passage mainly D. The construction of burial mounds
discuss?

A. The development of agriculture

B. The locations of towns and villages
C. The early people and cultures of
the United States
23. Which of the following resulted from
the rise of agriculture in the
southeastern United States?
A. The development of trade in North
America

72
B. The establishment of permanent
settlements
C. Conflicts with other Native American
groups over land
D. A migration of these peoples to the
Rocky Mountains.
24. What does the term "Adena-
Hopewell"(line 7) designate?
A. The early locations of the Adena-
Hopewell culture
B. The two most important nations of
the Adena-Hopewell culture
C. Two former leaders who were
honored with large burial mounds.
D. Two important trade routes in
eastern North America
25. The word "bartering" in line 9 is
closest in meaning to
A. producing
B. exchanging
C. transporting
D. loading
26. The word "supplanted" in line 13 is
closest in meaning to
A. conquered
73
B. preceded
C. replaced
D. imitated
27. According to the passage, when did
the Mississippian culture reach its
highest point of development?
A. About A.D. 400
B. Between A.D. 400 AND A.D. 700
C. About A.D. 1200
D. In the sixteenth century
28. According to the passage, how did
the agriculture of the Mississippians
differ from that of their Hopewell
predecessors?
A. The Mississippians produced
more durable and larger crops of
food.
B. The Mississippians sold their food to
other groups.
C. The Mississippians could only grow
plants in warm, dry climates.
D. The Mississippians produced special
foods for their religious leaders.
29. Why does the author mention that
many Mississippians tribes called
themselves "children of the Sun"(line
22)?
A. To explain why they were obedient to B. experienced at
their priest-chiefs.
C. interested in
B. To argue about the importance of
D. assigned to
religion in their culture.

C. To illustrate the great

importance they placed on 31. According to the passage, the flat-
agriculture. topped mounds in Mississippian towns
were used for all of the following
D. To provide an example of their
purposes EXCEPT
religious rituals.
A. religious ceremonies

B. meeting places for the entire

30. The phrase "charged with" in line 26
community
is closest in meaning to
C. sites for commerce
A. passed on
D. burial sites

Question 32-40:

Overland transport in the United States was still extremely primitive in 1790. Roads
were few and short, usually extending from inland communities to the nearest river
town or seaport. Nearly all interstate commerce was carried out by sailing ships that
served the bays and harbors of the seaboard. Yet, in 1790 the nation was on the
threshold of a new era of road development. Unable to finance road construction,
states turned for help to private companies, organized by merchants and land
speculators who had a personal interest in improved communications with the
interior. The pioneer in this move was the state of Pennsylvania, which chartered a
company in 1792 to construct a turnpike, a road for the use of which a toll, or
payment, is collected, from Philadelphia to Lancaster. The legislature gave the
company the authority to erect tollgates at points along the road where payment
would be collected, though it carefully regulated the rates. (The states had
unquestioned authority to regulate private business in this period.)

The company built a gravel road within two years, and the success of the Lancaster
Pike encouraged imitation. Northern states generally relied on private companies to

74
build their toll roads, but Virginia constructed a network at public expense. Such was
the road building fever that by 1810 New York alone had some 1,500 miles of
turnpikes extending from the Atlantic to Lake Erie.

Transportation on these early turnpikes consisted of freight carrier wagons and

passenger stagecoaches. The most common road freight carrier was the Conestoga
wagon, a vehicle developed in the mid-eighteenth century by German immigrants in
the area around Lancaster, Pennsylvania. It featured large, broad wheels able to
negotiate all but the deepest ruts and holes, and its round bottom prevented the
freight from shifting on a hill. Covered with canvas and drawn by four to six horses,
the Conestoga wagon rivaled the log cabin as the primary symbol of the frontier.
Passengers traveled in a variety of stagecoaches, the most common of which had
four benches, each holding three persons. It was only a platform on wheels, with no
springs; slender poles held up the top, and leather curtains kept out dust and rain.

32. Paragraph 1 discusses early road 34. In 1790 most roads connected
building in the United States mainly in towns in the interior of the country with
terms of the
A. other inland communities
A. popularity of turnpikes
B. towns in other states
B. financing of new roads
C. river towns or seaports
C. development of the interior
D. construction sites
D. laws governing road use

35. The phrase "on the threshold of" in

33. The word "primitive" in line 1 is line 4 and 5 is closest in meaning to
closest in meaning to
A. in need of
A. unsafe
B. in place of
B. unknown
C. at the start of
C. inexpensive
D. with the purpose of
D. undeveloped

75
36. According to the passage, why did D. copying
states want private companies to help
with road building?
39. Virginia is mentioned as an example
A. The states could not afford to
of a state that
build roads themselves.
A. built roads without tollgates
B. The states were not as well equipped
as private companies. B. built roads with government
money
C. Private companies could complete
roads faster than the states. C. completed 1,500 miles of turnpikes in
one year
D. Private companies had greater
knowledge of the interior. D. introduced new law restricting road
use
37. The word "it" in line 11 refers to

A. legislature
40. The "large, broad wheels" of the
B. company
Conestoga wagon are mentioned in line
C. authority 21 as an example of a feature of
wagons that was
D. payment
A. unusual in mid-eighteenth century
vehicles
38. The word "imitation" in line 14 is
B. first found in Germany
closest in meaning to
C. effective on roads with uneven
A. investment
surfaces
B. suggestion
D. responsible for frequent damage to
C. increasing freight

Question 41- 50:

In Death Valley, California, one of the hottest, most arid places in North America,
there is much salt, and salt can damage rocks impressively. Inhabitants of areas
elsewhere, where streets and highways are salted to control ice, are familiar with the
resulting rust and deterioration on cars. That attests to the chemically corrosive
nature of salt, but it is not the way salt destroys rocks. Salt breaks rocks apart

76
principally by a process called crystal prying and wedging. This happens not by
soaking the rocks in salt water, but by moistening their bottoms with salt water.
Such conditions exist in many areas along the eastern edge of central Death Valley.
There, salty water rises from the groundwater table by capillary action through tiny
spaces in sediment until it reaches the surface.

Most stones have capillary passages that suck salt water from the wet ground. Death
Valley provides an ultra-dry atmosphere and high daily temperatures, which promote
evaporation and the formation of salt crystals along the cracks or other openings
within stones. These crystals grow as long as salt water is available. Like tree roots
breaking up a sidewalk, the growing crystals exert pressure on the rock and
eventually pry the rock apart along planes of weakness, such as banding in
metamorphic rocks, bedding in sedimentary rocks, or preexisting or incipient
fractions, and along boundaries between individual mineral crystals or grains.
Besides crystal growth, the expansion of halite crystals(the same as everyday table
salt) by heating and of sulfates and similar salts by hydration can contribute
additional stresses. A rock durable enough to have withstood natural conditions for a
very long time in other areas could probably be shattered into small pieces by salt
weathering within a few generations.

The dominant salt in Death Valley is halite, or sodium chloride, but other salts,
mostly carbonates and sulfates, also cause prying and wedging, as does ordinary ice.
Weathering by a variety of salts, though often subtle, is a worldwide phenomenon.
Not restricted to arid regions, intense salt weathering occurs mostly in salt-rich
places like the seashore, near the large saline lakes in the Dry Valleys of Antarctica,
and in desert sections of Australia, New Zealand, and central Asia.

41. What is the passage mainly about? D. The damaging effects of salt on
roads and highways.
A. The destructive effects of salt on
rocks.

B. The impressive salt rocks in Death 42. The word "it" in line 9 refers to
Valley.
A. salty water
C. The amount of salt produced in
B. groundwater table
Death Valley.

77
C. capillary action closest in meaning to
A. large
D. sediment
B. strong
C. flexible
D. pressured
43. The word "exert" in line 14 is closest
in meaning to
47. The word "shattered" in line 20 is
A. put
closest in meaning to
B. reduce
A. arranged
C. replace
B. dissolved
D. control
C. broken apart
D. gathered together
44. In lines 13-17, why does the author
compare tree roots with
growing salt crystals?
48. The word "dominant" in line 22 is
A. They both force hard surfaces to
closest in meaning to
crack.
A. most recent
B. They both grow as long as water is
B. most common
available.
C. least available
C. They both react quickly to a rise in
D. least damaging
temperature.
D. They both cause salty water to rise
49. According to the passage, which of
from the groundwater table.
the following is true about the
effects of salts on rocks?
45. In lines 17-18, the author mentions
A. Only two types of salts cause prying
the "expansion of halite
and wedging.
crystals...by heating and of sulfates and
B. Salts usually cause damage only in
similar salts by hydration"
combination with ice.
in order to
C. A variety of salts in all kinds of
A. present an alternative theory about
environments can cause
crystal growth
weathering.
B. explain how some rocks are not
D. Salt damage at the seashore is more
affected by salt
severe than salt damage in Death
C. simplify the explanation of crystal
Valley,
prying and wedging
D. introduce additional means by
50. Which of the following can be
which crystals destroy rocks
inferred from the passage about rocks

46. The word "durable" in line 19 is

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that are found in areas where ice is
common?

A. They are protected from weathering.

B. They do not allow capillary action of

water.

C. They show similar kinds of

damage as rocks in Death Valley.

D. They contain more carbonates than

sulfates.

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AADBB ABDBC BABBB CCCAD BCABC CDDAA BBDDB ADBAD DBCDA DDBBB
ABDAD BDCDB DCDBD CDCBA DCDCB CDCDA CBADC BDCBB

ACDDA ABCDB CACBC ABBDA DCBAB CCACD BBDCC AADBC AAAAD BCBCC

80