test code: MT-5

TOEFL-PREDICTION TEST

LABORATORIUM BAHASA
UNIVERSITAS WIJAYAKUSUMA
PURWOKERTO
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PAPER AND PENCIL TOEFL

Section 1
Listening Comprehension

50 QUESTIONS 40 MINUTES
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to
understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section. Answer all
the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers you hear. You are not
allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

Part A

Directions: In Part A you will hear short conversations between two people. After each
conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions
will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test
book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question
and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

1. What is the man’s problem?

(A) He doesn’t mind the traffic.
(B) He takes the bus to school.
(C) He has to stand on the bus if he takes it to school.
(D) He wants to ride to school with the woman.

2. What does the man mean?

(A) The woman should not consider her advisor in the decision.
(B) The woman should not take Dr. Sullivan’s section.
(C) The woman’s advisor will not be offended.
(D) The woman should not take a physics course.

3. What does the woman imply?

(A) She is not interested in the man.
(B) She does not like lectures.
(C) She would go out with the man on another occasion.
(D) She would rather stay at home.
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4. What does the woman mean?
(A) The bike is in good condition.
(B) The man needs to replace the bike.
(C) The bike is missing.
(D) It is a new bike.

5. What does the man want to drink?

(A) Something cold.
(B) Coffee.
(C) Tea.
(D) Both coffee and tea.

6. What does the man suggest the woman do?

(A) Ask directions.
(B) Walk to the shopping centre.
(C) Take a taxi.
(D) Wait for the bus.

7. What can be inferred about the woman?

(A) She does not plan to study.
(B) She has a very busy schedule.
(C) She is lost.
(D) She has not registered yet.

8. What does the man mean?

(A) He does not want to listen to the radio.
(B) He has changed his opinion about turning on the radio.
(C) The radio will not bother him.
(D) The radio is not working very well.

9. What does the woman suggest Anna do?

(A) Stop worrying
(B) Go out more
(C) Talk to a friend
(D) Get counseling

10. What does the man mean?

(A) He prefers to talk another time.
(B) He wants the woman to go away.
(C) He would like the woman to continue.
(D) He doesn’t know what to think.

11. What will the man probably do?

(A) Accept the woman’s apology.
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(B) Allow the woman to go ahead of him.
(C) Apologize to the woman.
(D) Go to the front of the line.

12. What does the woman imply?

(A) The neighbors have parties often
(B) She does not like her neighbors
(C) The neighbors’ party is disturbing her
(D) She will not be invited to the neighbors’ party

13. What had the man assumed?

(A) Dr. Franklin is not very understanding
(B) The extension was a very bad idea
(C) He is surprised that the woman was denied her request
(D) The professor’s answer is not surprising

14. What problem do the man and woman have?

(A) They do not have a telephone
(B) They are late
(C) They have been left
(D) They got lost

15. What is the woman probably going to do?

(A) Pay the rent for half a month
(B) Help the man move
(C) Stay where she is living until the 15th
(D) Move out of the apartment

16. What had the man assumed about Mary Anne?

(A) She had already taken the test
(B) She did not want to take classes
(C) She had not taken the placement test
(D) She would take the math classes later

17. What does the man mean?

(A) The plan is to remain in the class
(B) It is not comfortable in the classroom
(C) He has been absent because he was sick
(D) The weather has been very bad
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Part B

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation,
you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After
you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best
answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

18. What is Mike’s problem?

(A) He was late arriving at registration
(B) He needs an advisor’s signature on a course request
(C) He is not doing well in the class because it is so large
(D) He must have the permission of the instructor to enroll in a class

19. What does Mike want Professor Day to do?

(A) Help him with the class
(B) Explain some technical vocabulary
(C) Give him special permission to take the class
(D) Take a form to the registration area

20. What does Mike say about graduation?

(A) He has planned to graduate in the fall
(B) He has to take Professor Day’s class in order to graduate.
(C) He needs the professor to sign his application for graduation
(D) He does not have enough credits for graduation

21. What does Professor Day decide to do?

(A) Enroll Mike in the class next year
(B) Allow Mike to take the class this term
(C) Give Mike permission to graduate without the class
(D) Register Mike for another class

22. What is MUZAK?

(A) A slow, soft song
(B) Music in restaurants
(C) Background music
(D) A pleasant addition to the environment
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23. What is the average increase in productivity when MUZAK is introduced?

(A) Thirteen percent
(B) Five to ten percent
(C) One hundred percent
(D) Thirty percent
24. What is stimulus progression?
(A) Background music that is low in stimulus value
(B) Upbeat music that stimulates sales
(C) Music engineered to reduce stress
(D) Music that starts slow and gets faster at times of the day when people get tired

25. How does MUZAK influence sales in supermarkets?

(A) It can cause shoppers to go through the line faster
(B) It can cause shoppers to buy thirty percent more or less.
(C) It can cause shoppers to walk slower and buy more
(D) It does not influence sales

26. What is this announcement mainly about?

(A) The “sun-up semester” program
(B) The community college campus
(C) Video tele courses
(D) Technology for distance learning

27. Why does the speaker mention the “sun-up semester”?

(A) To clarify how to register
(B) To advertise the college
(C) To provide a listing of courses
(D) To give students an alternative to video tapes

28. How can students register for a course?

(A) They should come to campus
(B) They can call the community college
(C) They must contact the instructor
(D) They can use computers

29. How can students contact the instructor?

(A) By using e-mail
(B) By calling KCC7-TV
(C) By writing letters
(D) By making video tapes

30. What is the main topic of this conversation?

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(A) The woman’s health
(B) The woman’s grades
(C) The man’s joke
(D) The man’s stress

31. What was the woman’s problem?

(A) She was taking too many classes
(B) She was very tired because she studied too late
(C) She had been ill last semester
(D) She may have to withdraw from school this semester

32. Why is mono called the “college disease”?

(A) Many students get mono while they are in college
(B) If one student gets mono, the whole college becomes infected
(C) It is a joke about college students that the woman tells
(D) The disease was first identified on a college campus

33. What advice does the woman give the man?

(A) Drop out of school for a semester and return later
(B) Study harder to learn all the lessons this semester
(C) Take fewer hours each semester and add one semester to the program
(D) Add extra classes to the program even if it requires another semester

34. What central theme does the lecture examine?

(A) The relationship between language and culture
(B) The culture of Hopi society
(C) Native American cultures
(D) The life of Benjamin Lee Whorf

35. Which languages did Whorf use in his research?

(A) European languages
(B) South American languages
(C) Native American languages
(D) Computer languages

36. According to the lecturer, what is linguistic relativity?

(A) All languages are related
(B) All Native American languages are related
(C) Language influences the manner in which an individual understands reality
(D) Language and culture are not related

37. What is another name for linguistic relativity?

(A) The Sapir-hypothesis
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(B) The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis
(C) The Sapir-Whorf-Boas hypothesis
(D) The American Indian Model of the Universe

38. What is the topic of this discussion?

(A) Air pollution
(B) Acid rain
(C) Fossil fuels
(D) The great lakes

39. What is acid rain?

(A) Precipitation that is polluted by sulfuric acid and nitric
(B) Rain that falls after a long period of severe drought
(C) Large concentrations of acid in the soil around the Great Lakes
(D) Water vapor that is mixed with a high concentration of sulfur

40. In which two ways has the environment been damaged along the Great Lakes?
(A) The air now contains dangerous levels of carbon monoxide
(B) Weather patterns have been disturbed
(C) Water resources have been polluted
(D) The soil has been depleted of nutrients

41. What are the conditions of the air quality accord?

(A) Companies in the United States must control pollution that could affect Canadian
resources
(B) There are limits placed on the quantity of acidic deposits that can cross the border
(C) Governments and agencies will regulate automobile emissions
(D) Fuels cannot contain any sulfur near the border

42. What is the topic of this lecture?

(A) Three major types of bacteria
(B) How microscopic organisms are measured
(C) How bacteria are used for research in genetics
(D) Diseases caused by bacteria

43. Which two characteristics are common in bacteria? (Choose two answers)
(A) They have one cell
(B) They are harmful to humans
(C) They reproduce quickly
(D) They die when exposed to air

44. Which of the following statements is related to cocci bacteria?

(A) Tends to grow in chains
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(B) Responsible for all diseases in human
(C) Shaped like rods
(D) Observable without microscope

45. Why are bacteria being used in the research study at the University?
(A) Bacteria have unusual cell formations
(B) Bacteria live harmlessly on the skin, mouth, and intestines
(C) Bacteria are similar to other life forms
(D) Bacteria cause many diseases in humans

46. What is the purpose of this conversation?

(A) The man needs help changing his schedule
(B) The man is looking for a job in the morning
(C) The man is trying to get a student loan
(D) The man is changing his major to sociology

47. Why does the man need to take at least twelve hours?
(A) He wants to graduate as soon as possible
(B) He must be a full-time student to qualify for his loan
(C) His advisor insists that he study full time
(D) All the courses are required

48. Why does the man prefer sociology 560?

(A) it is a required course
(B) it is offered in the afternoon
(C) it is taught by Dr. Brown
(D) it is a sociology class

49. What will Dr. Kelly do?

(A) Help the man withdraw from school
(B) Change the man’s class schedule
(C) Give the man a student loan
(D) Change the man’s major

50. What will the man probably do after the conversation?

(A) Go to Dr. Brown’s office
(B) See Dr. Brown in class
(C) Call Dr. Brown
(D) Send the form to Dr. Brown

THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 1.

DO NOT READ OR WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST
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STOP
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Section 2:
Structure and Written Expression

40 QUESTIONS 25 MINUTES
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for
standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions
for each type.

Structure
Directions: Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four
words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best
completes the sentence. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and cross
the letter that corresponds to the answer you have chosen.

1. In simple animals, ------- reflex movement or involuntary response to stimuli

(A) behavior mostly
(B) most is behavior
(C) most behavior is
(D) the most behavior

2. Although the weather in Martha’s Vineyard isn’t ------- to have a year-round tourist
session, it has become a favorite summer resort.
(A) goodly enough
(B) good enough
(C) good as enough
(D) enough good

3. According to the wave theory, ------- population of the Americas may have been the
result of a number of separate migrations.
(A) the
(B) their
(C) that
(D) whose

4. It is presumed that rules governing the sharing of food influenced -------- that the
earliest cultures evolved.
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(A) that the way
(B) is the way
(C) the way
(D) which way

5. Calculus, ------- elegant and economical symbolic system, can reduce complex
problems to simple terms.
(A) it is an
(B) that an
(C) an
(D) is an

6. Canada does not require that U.S. citizens obtain passports to enter the country, and -------
(A) Mexico does either
(B) Mexico doesn’t either
(C) neither Mexico does
(D) either does Mexico

7. The poet just ------- beginning to be recognized as an mportnt influence at the time of
his death.
(A) being Walt Whitman
(B) who was Walt Whitman
(C) Walt Whitman
(D) Walt Whitman was

8. ------- the formation of the sun, the planets, and other stars began with the condensation
of an interstellar cloud.
(A) It accepted that
(B) Accepted that
(C) It is accepted that
(D) That is accepted
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9. As a general rule, the standard of living ------- by the average output of each person in
society.
(A) is fixed
(B) fixed
(C) has fixed
(D) fixes

10. The Consumer Orice Indexs lists -------

(A) how much costs every car
(B) how much does every car cost
(C) how much every car costs
(D) how much are every car cost

11. The Ford Theater where Lincoln was shot -------

(A) must restore
(B) must be restoring
(C) must have been restored
(D) must restored

12. Fast food restaurants have become popular because many working people want -------
(A) to eat quickly and cheaply
(B) eating quickly and cheaply
(C) eat quickly and cheaply
(D) the eat quickly and cheaply

13. After seeing the movie Centennial, -------

(A) the book was read by many people
(B) the book made many people want to read it
(C) may people wanted to read the book
(D) the reading of the book interested many people
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14. -------, Carl Sandburg is also well known for his multivolume biography of Lincoln.
(A) An eminent American Poet
(B) He is an eminent American Poet
(C) An eminent American poet who is
(D) Despite an eminent Americsn poet

15. The examiner made us ------- our identification in order to be admitted to the test
center.
(A) showing
(B) show
(C) showed
(D) to show

Written Expression

Directions: in questions 16-40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four
underlined parts of the sentence are marked , (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined
word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then on your answer
sheet, find the number of the question and cross the letter that corresponds to the answer you
have chosen.

16. A swarm of locusts is responsible the consumption of enough plant material to feed million
A B C
and a half people.
D

17. Oyster farming has been practice in most parts of the world for many years.
A B C D

18. Those of us who smoke should have their lungs X-rayed regularly.
A B C D

19. After teh team of geologists had drawn diagrams in their notebooks and wrote explanations
A B
of the formation which they had observed, they returned to their campsite to compare notes.
C D
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20. If Robert Kennedy would have lived a little longer, he probably would have won the
A B C D
election.

21. It was Sherly Temple Black which represented her country in the United Nations and later
A B C D
became an ambassador.

22. The prices at chain stores are as reasonable, if not more reasonable, as those at discount
A B C D
stores.

23. It is extremely important for an engineer to know to use a computer.

A B C D

24. Historically there has been only two major factions in the Republican Party-the liberals and
A B C D
the conservatives.

25. Whitman wrote Leaves of Grass as a tribute to the Civil War soldiers who had laid on the
A
battlefields and whom he had seen while serving as an army nurse.
B C D

26. One of the first and ultimately the most important purposeful of reservoir was to control
A B C
flooding.
D

27. The Chinese were the first and large ethnic group to work on the construction of the
A B C D
transcontinental railroad system.

28. The range of plant life on a mountainside is a results of differences in temperature and
A B C
precipitation at varying altitudes.
D

29. Even a professional psychologist may have difficulty talking calm and logically about
A B C
his own problems.
D

30. The more the relative humidity reading rises, the worst the heat affects us.
A B C D

31. Because correlations are not causes, statistical data which are extremely easy to misuse.
A B C D
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32. Lectures for the week of March 22-26 will include the following: The Causes of the Civil
A B C
War, The Economy of the South, Battle Strategies, and The Assassinate Lincoln.
D

33. Despite of many attempts to introduce a universal language, notably Esperanto and Idiom
A B C
Neutral, the effort hs met with very little success.
D

34. As every other nation, the United States used to define its unit of currency, the dollar, in
A B C D
terms of the gold standard.

35. It is necessary that one met with a judge before signing the final papers for a divorce.
A B C D

36. Until recently, women were forbidden by law from owning property.
A B C D

37. According to the graduate catalog, student housing is more cheaper than housing off
A B C D
campus.

38. John Dewey thought that children will learn better through participating in experiences
A B
rather than through listening to lectures.
C D

39. In England as early as the twelfth century, young boys enjoyed to play football.
A B C D

40. Some methods to prevent soil erosion are plowing parallel with the slopes of hills, to plant
A B C D
trees on unproductive land, and rotating crops.

THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 2.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE 25 MINUTES HAS ENDED, CHECK

YOUR WORK ON SECTION 2 ONLY.

DO NOT READ OR WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE

TEST.

STOP
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Section 3:
Reading Comprehension

50 QUESTIONS 55 MINUTES
Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of
questions about it. For questions 1-50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), and
(D) to each question. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and cross the
letter of the answer you have chosen.

Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied
in that passage.

Questions 1-10

Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways
of communicating without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be
found in every known culture. The basic function of a signal is to impinge upon the
Line environment in such a way that it attracts attention, as, for example, the dots and dashes of
(5) a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication is very great.
Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain meaning in and of
themselves. A stop sign is a bar-ber pole convey meaning quickly and conveniently.
Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate
relationship with the receiver’s cultural perceptions. In some cultures, applauding in a
(10) theater provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as waving
and handshaking also communicate certain cultural messages.
Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major
disadvantage. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being
directly adjacent to the receiver. As a result, means of communication intended to be used
(15) for long distances and extended periods are based upon speech. Radio, television, and the
telephone are only a few.

1. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
(A) Signs and Signals
(B) Gestures
(C) Communication
(D) Speech

2. What does the author say about speech?

(A) It is the only true form of communication.
(B) It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.
(C) It is necessary for communication to occur.
(D) It is the most advanced form of communication.

3. According to the passage, what is signal?

(A) The most difficult form of communication to describe.
(B) A form of communication which may be used across long distances.
(C) A form of communication that interrupts the environment.
(D) The form of communication most related to cultural perceptions.
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4. The phrase “impinge on” in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) intrude
(B) improve
(C) vary
(D) prohibit

5. The word “it” in line 4 refers to

(A) function
(B) signal
(C) environment
(D) way

6. The word “potential” in line 5 could best be replaced by

(A) range
(B) advantage
(C) organization
(D) possibility

7. The word “intricate” in line 8 could be best replaced by whch of the following?
(A) inefficient
(B) complicated
(C) historical
(D) uncertain

8. Applauding was cited as as an example of

(A) a signal
(B) a sign
(C) a symbol
(D) a gesture

9. Why were the telephone, radio, and TV invented?

(A) People were unable to understand signs, symbols, and signals.
(B) People wnted to communicate across long distances.
(C) People believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete.
(D) People wanted new forms of entertainment.

10. It may be concluded from this passage that

(A) signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are forms of communication
(B) symbols are very easy to define and interpret.
(C) only some cultures have signals, signs, and symbols.
(D) waving and handshaking are not related to culture.
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Questions 11-20
Application for admission to the Graduate School at this university must be made on
forms provided by the Director of Admissions. An applicant whose undergraduate work was
done at another institution should request that two copies of undergraduate transcripts and
Line degrees be sent directly to the Dean of the Graduate School. Both the application and
(5) transcripts must be on file at least one month prior to the registration date, and must be
accompanied by a nonrefundable ten-dollar check or money order to cover the cost of
processing the application.
Students who have already been admitted to the Graduate School but were not enrolled
during the previous semester should reapply for admission using special short form available
(10) in the office of the Graduate School. It is not necessary for students who have previously
been denied admission to resubmit transcripts; however, new application forms must
accompany all requests for reconsideration. Application should be submitted at least eight
weeks in advance of the session in which the student wishes to enroll. Students whose
application are received after the deadline may be considered for admission as non-degree
(15)
students, and may enroll for six credit hours. Non-degree status must be changed prior to the
completion of the first semester of study however.
An undergraduate student of this university who has senior status and is within ten credit
hours of completing all requirements for graduation may register for graduate work with the
recommendation of the chairperson of the department and the approval of the Dean of the
Graduate School

11. What is the author’s main point?

(A) How to apply to the Graduate School
(B) How to obtain senior status
(C) How to register for graduate coursework
(D) How to make application for graduation

12. Where would this passage most probably be found?

(A) In a university catalog
(B) In a travel folder
(C) In a newspaper
(D) In a textbook

13. According to this passage, where would a student secure application forms for
admission to the university?
(A) From the chairperson of the department
(B) From the Dean of the Graduate School
(C) From the institution where the undergraduate work was done
(D) From the Director of Admissions

14. Which of the following documents must be on file thirty days before the registration
date?
(A) Two copies of recommendation from former professors
(B) A written approval of the Dean of the Graduate School
(C) One set of transcripts and an English proficiency score
(D) Two copies of undergraduate courses and grades, an application form, and an
application fee
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15. The author uses the word “nonrefundable” in line 6 to refer to
(A) a process
(B) an application
(C) a check
(D) a date

16. The phrase “in advance of” in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) into
(B) on either side of
(C) after the end of
(D) prior to

17. The author makes all of the following observations about non-degree students
EXCEPT
(A) they may be admitted after the deadline
(B) they may enroll for six credit hours
(C) they must change their status during the first semester
(D) they need not submit transcripts

18. The word “status” in line 14 could be best replaced by which of the following
(A) information
(B) classification
(C) payment
(D) agreement

19. Students who have already been admitted to the Graduate School
(A) never need to apply for readmission
(B) must reapply if they have not been registered during the previous semester
(C) must reapply every semester
(D) must reapply when they are within ten credit hours of graduation

20. What special rule applies to undergraduate students?

(A) They may not register for graduate work.
(B) They must pass an examination in order to regirter for graduate work.
(C) They may receive special permission to register for graduate work.
(D) They may register for graduate work at any time.

Question 21-30

Fertilizer is a substance that can be added to the soil to provide chemical elements
essential for plant nutrition. Natural substances such as animal droppings and straw have
been used as fertilizers for thousands of years, and lime has been used since the Romans
Line introduced it during the Empire. It was not until the nineteenth century, in fact, that
(5) chemical fertilizers became popular. Today, both natural and synthetic fertilizers are
available in a variety of forms.
A complete fertilizer is usually marked with a formula consisting of three nembers,
such as 4-8-2 or 3-6-4, which designate the percentage content of nitrogen, phosphoric acid,
and potash in the order stated.
(10) Synthetic fertilizers are available in either solid or liquid form. Solids, in the shape of
chemical granules are popular because they are easy to store and apply. Recently, liquids
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have shown an increase in popularity, accounting for about 20 percent of the nitrogen
fertilizer used throughout the world. Formerly, powders were also used, but these were
found to be less convenient than either solids or liquids.
(15) Fertilizers have no harmful effects on the soil, the crop, or the consumer as long as they
are used according to recommendations based on the results of local research. Occasionally,
however, farmers may use more fertilizer than necessary, damaging not only the crop but
also the animals or human that eat it. Accumulations of fertilizers in the water supply
accelerate the growth of algae and, consequently, may disturb the natural cycle of life,
(20) contributing to the death of fish. Too much fertilizer on grass can cause digestive disorders
in cattle and in infants who drink cow’s milk.

21. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
(A) Local research and harmful effects of fertilizer
(B) Advantages and disadvantages of liquid fertilizer
(C) A formula for the production of fertilizer.
(D) Content, form, and effects of fertilizer.

22. The word “essential” in line 2 could be best replaced by which of the following?
(A) limited
(B) preferred
(C) anticipated
(D) required

23. In the formula 3-6-4

(A) the content of nitrogen is greater than that of potash
(B) the content of potash is greater thn that of phosphoric acid
(C) the content of phosphoric acid is less than that of nitrogen
(D) the content of nitrogen is less than that of phosphoric acid

24. Which of the following has the smallest percentage content in the formula 4-8-2?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Phosphorus
(C) Acid
(D) Potash

25. What is the percentage of nitrogen in a 5-8-7 formula fertilizer?

(A) 3 percent
(B) 5 percent
(C) 7 percent
(D) 8 percent

26. The word “designate” in line 8 could be replaced by

(A) modify
(B) specify
(C) limit
(D) increase
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27. Which of the following statements about fertilizer is true?
(A) Powders are more popular than ever.
(B) Solids are difficult to store.
(C) Liquids are increasing in popularity.
(D) Chemical granules are difficult to apply.

28. The word “these” in line 13 refers to?

(A) powders
(B) solids
(C) liquids
(D) fertilizer

29. The word “convenient” in line 14 is closest in meaning to

(A) effective
(B) plentiful
(C) easy to use
(D) cheap to produce

30. What happens when too much fertilizer is used?

(A) Local research teams provide recommendations.
(B) Algae in the water supplies begin to die.
(C) Animals and humans may become ill.
(D) Crops have no harmful effects.

Question31-40

The development of the horse has been recorded from the beginning all of its evo-
lutionary stages to the modern form. It is, in fact, one of the most complete and well-docu-
mented chapters in paleontological history. Fossil finds provide us not only with detailed in
Line formation about the horse itself, but also with valuable insights into the migration of herds
(5) and even evidence for speculation about the climatic conditions that could have instigated
such migratory behaviour.
It has been documented that, almost twelve million years ago at the beginning of the
Pliocene Age, a horse, about a midway through its evolutionary development, crossed a land
bridge where the Bering Straits are now located, from Alaska into the grasslands of Europe.
(10) The horse was the hipparion, about the size of a modern-day pony with three toes and
specialized cheek teeth for grazing. In Europe the hipparion encountered another less
advanced horse called the anchitheres, which had previously invaded Europe by the same
route, probably during the Miocene Period. Less developed and smaller than the hipparion,
the anchitheres was completely replaced by it. By the end of the Pleistocene age both the
(15) anchitheres and the hipparion had become extinct in North America, where they had
originated. In europe they had evolved into an animal very similar to the horse as we know
it today. It was the descendant of this horse that was brought by the European colonists to
the Americas.

31. What is the passage mainly about?

(A) The evolution of the horse
(B) The migration of horses
(C) The modern-day pony
(D) The replacement of the anchitheres by the hipparion
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32. According to the author, fossils are considered valueable for all of the following
reasons EXCEPT
(A) they suggest how the climate may have been
(B) they provide information about migration
(C) they document the evolution of the horse
(D) they maintain a record of it prior to the Miocene Age

33. The word “instigated” in line 5 could be best replaced by

(A) explained
(B) caused
(C) improved
(D) influenced

34. The author suggests that the hipparion and the anchetheres migrated to Europe
(A) by means of a land route that is now nonexistent
(B) on the ships of European colonists
(C) because of a very cold climate in North America
(D) during the Miocene Period

35. Which of the following conclusions may be made on the basis of information in the
passage?
(A) The hipparion migrated to Europe to feed in developing grasslands.
(B) There are no fossil remains of either the anchitheres or the hipparion.
(C) There were horses in North America when the first European colonists arrived.
(D) Very little is known about the evolution of the horse.

36. According to this passage, the hipparions were

(A) five-toed animals
(B) not as highly developed as the anchitheres
(C) larger than the anchitheres
(D) about the size of a small dog

37. The word “it” in line 14 refers to

(A) anchitheres
(B) hipparion
(C) Miocene Period
(D) route

38. The word “extinct” in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) familiar
(B) widespread
(C) nonexistent
(D) tame

39. Both the hipparion and the anchitheres

(A) were the size of a modern pony
(B) were native to North America
(C) Migrated to Europe in the Pliocene Period
(D) had unspecialized teeth
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40. It can be concluded that from this passage that the
(A) Miocene Period was prior to the Pliocene
(B) Pleistocene Period was prior to the Miocene
(C) Pleistocene Period was prior to Pliocene
(D) Pliocene Period was prior to the Miocene

Question 41 -50

It was the first photograph that I had ever seen, and it fascinated me. I can remember
holding it at every angle in order to catch the flickering light from the oil lamp on the
dresser. The man in the photograph was unsmiling, but his eyes were kind. I had never met
Line him, but I felt that I knew him. One evening when I was looking at the photograph, as I
(5) always did before I went to sleep, I noticed a shadow acroos the man’s thin face. I moved
the photograph so that the shadow lay perfectly around his hollow cheeks. How different he
looked!
That night I could not sleep, thinking about the letter that I would write. First, I would
tell him that I was eleven years old, and that if he had a little girl my age, she could write to
(10) me instead of him. I knew that he was a very busy man. Then I would explain to him the
real purpose of my letter. I would tell him how wonderful he looked with the shadow that I
had seen across his photograph, and I would most carefully suggest that he grow whiskers.
Four months later when I met him at the train station near my home in Westfield, New
York, he was wearing a full beard. He was so much taller than I had imagined from my tiny
(15) photograph.
“Ladies and gentlemen,“ he said, “I have no speech to make and no time to make it in.
I appear before you that I may see you and that you may see me.” Then he picked me right
up and kissed me on both cheeks. The whiskers scratched. “do you think I look better, my
little friend?” he asked me.
My name is Grace Bedell, and the man in the photograph was Abraham Lincoln.

41. What is the author’s main purpose in the passage?

(A) To explain how Grace Bedell took a photograph of Abraham Lincoln
(B) To explain why Abraham Lincoln wore a beard
(C) Tto explain why the first photographs were significant in American life
(D) To explain why Westfield is an important city

42. The word “fascinated” in line 1 could be best replaced by

(A) interested
(B) frightened
(C) confused
(D) disgusted

43. The word “flickering” in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) burning constantly
(B) burning unsteadily
(C) burning very dimly
(D) burning brightly

44. The man in the photograph

(A) was smiling
(B) had a beard
(C) had a round, fat face
(D) looked kind
 test code: MT-5

45. What did Grace Bedell do every night before she went to sleep?
(A) She wrote letters.
(B) She looked at the photograph.
(C) She made shadow figures on the wall.
(D) She read stories.

46. The little girl could not sleep because she was
(A) sick
(B) excited
(C) lonely
(D) sad

47. Why did teh lttle girl write the man a letter?
(A) She was lonely.
(B) She wanted his daughter to write to her.
(C) She wanted him to grow a beard.
(D) She wanted him to visit her.

48. The word “it” in line 14 refers to

(A) time
(B) speech
(C) photograph
(D) station

49. From this passage, it may be inferred that

(A) Grace Bedell was the only one at the train station when Lincoln stopped in
Westfield.
(B) There were many people waiting for Lincoln to arrive on the train.
(C) Lincoln made a long speech at the station in Westfield.
(D) Lincoln was offended by the letter.

50. Why did the author wait until the last line to reveal the identity of the man in the
photograph?
(A) The author did not know it.
(B) The author wanted to make the reader feel foolish.
(C) The author wanted to build the interest and curiosity of the reader.
(D) The author was just a little girl.

THIS IS THE END OF THE SECTION 3.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE 25 MINUTES HAS ENDED, CHECK

YOUR WORK ON SECTION 3 ONLY.
DO NOT READ OR WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE
TEST.

STOP