SR AIIMS S60& MPL (OUTGOING) NEET PART TEST_2 Date : 13.05.

21

SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI
SR AIIMS S60 & MPL (OUTGOING)NEET PART TEST TEST_2 Date : 13.05.21
BiPC Max.Marks : 720
Botany 10. Semi technical description of
1. Fruit that develops from ovary is flowering plant begins with it’s
1) True fruit 2) False fruit 1) Habit 2) Habitat
3) Parthenocarpic fruit 3) Root 4) Flower
4) 1 and 3 11. Floral formula does not depict the
2. Drupe is characterized by 1) Sexuality of flower
1)Dry pericarp 2) Stony endocarp 2) Symmetry of flower
3) Edible endocarp 4) Fleshy epicarp 3) Placentation
3. Drupe with fleshy mesocarp is of 4) Position of ovary
1) Mango 2) Coconut 12. The number essential organs in
3) Date palm 4) Apple Brassica flower is
4. Seed is the fertilized product of 1) 6 2) 2
1) Ovary 2) Ovule 3) 8 4) 16
3) Zygote 4) Carpel 13. Hexandrous flowers (Six stamens) are
5. Immatured seeds are non found in
endospermic in A)Mustard B) Sunhemp
1) Castor 2) Maize C) Onion D) Potato
3) Pea 4) Orchids 1) A,B 2) C, D
6. S – I : Testa and Tegmen are the layers 3) A, C 4) B, D
of fruit wall 14. Keel in pea flower represents
S – II : Hilum is present on the seed 1) Large posterior petal
coat as scar, above the micropyle. 2) Two lateral patals
1)Both S- I and S – II are correct 3) Two anterior petals
2) Both S- I and S- II are wrong 4) Two attractive posterior petals
3) S – I is correct but S – II is wrong 15. Match the following
4) S- I is wrong but S-II is correct List – I List – II
7. Which of the following is not a part of A. Mustard I. G(3)
embryo B. Sunhemp II. A2+4
1) Cotyledon 2) Plumule C. Tobacco III. G(1)
3) Endosperm 4) Coleoptile D. Tulip IV.G(2) swollen placenta
8. The seed coat is membraneous and A B C D
fused with pericarp in 1) II III IV I
1) Cereals 2) Grams 2) II I III IV
3) Peas 4) Beans 3) I III II IV
9. The major part of cereal grain is 4) I IV III II
1) Scutellum 2) Coleoptile 16. Which of the following is not a
3) Coleorhiza 4) Endosperm character of Fabaceae ?
1) Pulvinus leaf base
SR AIIMS S60& MPL (OUTGOING) NEET PART TEST_2 Date : 13.05.21
2) Anterior odd sepal 25. Secondary plant body, made up of
3) Diadelphy 4) Gamopetaly secondary tissues is formed due to
17. The leaves are exstipulate in the activity of
A) Sunhemp B) Chilli 1) Secondary meristems
C) Soya bean D) Gloriosa 2) Lateral meristems
1) A, B 2) C, D 3) Cylindrical meristems 4) All
3) A, C 4) B, D 26. Which of the following is a primary
18. Identify a set of ornamental plants meristem ?
from following A. Inter fascicular cambium
1) Lupin, petunia, Tulip B. Intra fasciculary cambium
2) Muliathi, Tobacco, Gloriosa C. Cork cambium
3) Sesbania, Tomato, Asparagus D. Inter calary meristem
4) Sunhemp, potato, Aloe 1) A, B 2) C, D
3) A, C 4) B, D
P( 3+3) , A3+3 27. Cellulose is the structural component
19. The symbols are applicable
of the cell walls of
to
1) Parenchyma 2) Collennchyma
1) Sesbania 2) Soyabean
3) Scleren chyma 4) All
3) Datura 4) Allium
28. Pickout the true statement
20. Fabaceae and solanaceae share the
1) Parenchyma forms the major
common character of
component in primary organs
1) Pinnately compound leaf
2) Collenchyma forms homogeneous
2) Pentamerous flowers
hypoderms in monocots
3) Polypetalous corolla
3) Fibres are dead elongated
4) Epipatalous stamens
cylindrical cells.
21. The typical flower of Liliaceae is
4) Sclereids have wide lumen with
1) Tetramerous, Hexacyclic
thin cell walls
2) Pentamerous, Pentacyclic
29. Tracheids are present in the xylem of
3) Pentamerous, Tetracyclic
1) pteridophytes 2) Gymnosperms
4) Trimerous, Pentacyclic
3) Angiosperms 4) All
22. Ovary is superior in
30. Living cells of xylem are concerned
1) Fabaceae 2) Solanaceae
with
3) Liliaceae 4) All
1) Storage
23. The cells of tissue have
2) Radial conduction of water
common/same
3) Mechanical strength
1) Origin 2) Size
4) 1 and 2
3) Structure 4) Shape
31. Seive tubes and companion cells are
24. Which of the following is composed of
absent in the phloem of
permanent cells ?
A. Pteridophyles
1) Proto derm
B. Gymnosperms
2)Initials of root cap
C. Dicots
3) root cap 4) Axillary bud
D. Monocots
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SR AIIMS S60& MPL (OUTGOING) NEET PART TEST_2 Date : 13.05.21
1) A, B 2) C, D 3) IV II I III
3) A, C 4) B, D 4) III I IV II
32. The sieve tube elements and 39. Dicot stem and Monocot stem are
companion cells are inter connected similar in having
through 1) Three sub – zones of cortex
1) Simple pits 2) Bord dered pits 2) Medulla and medullary rays
3) Pit fields 4) Perforations 3) Undifferentiated ground tissue
33. The chlorophyllous cells of epidermis 4) Conjoint vascular bundles with
are endarch protoxylem
1) Hairs 2) Guard cells 40. The palisade tissue and phloem in
3) Accessory cells 4) Trichomes dicot leaf are located respectively
34. Ground tissue system does not towards
include 1) Adaxial, adaxial 2)Abaxial, abaxial
i) Epidermis ii) Cortox 3) Adaxial, abaxial 4)Abaxial, adaxial
iii) Vascular bundles iv) Medulla 41. The near and equal size of vascular
1)i, ii 2) iii, iv bundles except one in monocot leaf
3) i, iii 4) ii, iv reflects it’s
35. Conjoint vascular bundles are 1) Nature of mesophyll
common in 2) Distribution of stomata
1) Roots 2) Stems 3) Parallel venation
3) Leaves 4) 2 and 3 4) Number of vascular bundles
36. The number of xylem and phloem 42. The lateral meristems in dicot stem are
patches in dicot root is usually dedifferentiated from
1) 5 2) 1 1) Medullary ray cells
3) More than 5 4) 2 to 4 2) Pericycle cells
37. Large and well developed pith, 3) cortical cells 4) 1 and 3
surrounded by radial vascular 43. Identify the false statement
bundles is seen in 1) Cork cambium is more active on
1) Dicot root 2) Monocot root outer side than on innerside
3) Dicot stem 4) Monocot stem 2) Vascular cambium is more active on
38. Match the following innerside than on outerside
List – I List – II 3) Cork cambium is cortical in origin
A) Dicot stem I. Bulliform cells in dicot stem
B) Monocot stem II. Starch sheath 4) Cork cells lignified and dead cell
C) Dicot leaf III. Differntiated 44. In a woody dicot stem, sap wood lies
Mesophyll just.
D) Monocot leaf IV. Scleren 1) Outer to heartwood
chymatous bundle 2) Inner to vascular cambium
sheath 3) Outer to secondary phloem
A B C D 4) 1 and 2
1) II IV III I 45. The immermost tissues of bark and
2) II III I IV periderm respectively are
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SR AIIMS S60& MPL (OUTGOING) NEET PART TEST_2
1) secondary phloem and cork
2) secondary phloem and secondary
cortex
3) Secondary cortex and phelloderm
4) Bast and phellogem.
Zoology
46. Albumins in the blood plasma help in
1) Blood clotting
2) Maintaining osmotic balance
3) Defence mechanism of the body
4) The formation of serum
47. In most of the mammals the
erythrocytes are
1) Biconcave and eunucleate
2) Elliptical and eunucleate
3) Elliptical and enucleate
4) Biconcave and enucleate
48. Primary function of protonephridia
1) Excretion
2) Ionic and Fluid volume regulation
3) Eutely 4) Circulation
49. How much proteins does the plasma
contain?
1) 2-3% 2) 6-8%
3) 12-16% 4)20-25%
50. With reference to ABO and Rh blood
groupings in humans, which of the
following have no natural existance
1) Antigens A and B
2) Anti A, anti B antibodies
3) Rh antigens on RBC
4) Rh antibodies
51. Blood group of a lady is ‘B’ her son’s
blood group is AB, her husband’s
blood group cannot be
1) A 2) AB
3) A and AB 4) B
Sri Chaitanya
Date : 13.05.21
52. In response to trauma blood exhibits
coagulation. During this an enzyme
complex is formed as an end product
of series of cascade reactions. The
product is
1) Platelet Plug 2) Thrombins
3) Thrombokinase 4) Fibrins
53. Biological marriage between the
following is prohibited due to
erythroblastosis fetalis?
1)Rh+ve man and Rh+ve lady
2) Rh—ve man and Rh—ve lady
3)Rh—ve lady and Rh+ve man
4) Rh+ve lady and Rh—ve man
54. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be
avoided by administering anti Rh
antibodies to the
1) New born child 2) Father
3) Mother
4) Bothe child and Mother
55. Read the following statements about
lymph
i) It is responsible for immune
response of the body because of
specialized lymphocytes
ii) It is drained back to arteries
iii) Digested fats are absorbed
through it in the intestinal villa
iv) It is devoid of haemocytes
1) All are correct
2) All except ii are correct
3) only ii and iv are correct
4) only I and iii correct
56. Excretory substances of marine
cartilagenus fishes and fresh water
bons fishes respectively
1) NH3, NH3 2) Urea, urea
3) NH3, urea 4) Urea, NH3
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SR AIIMS S60& MPL (OUTGOING) NEET PART TEST_2 Date : 13.05.21
57. Identify the wrong from the following 1)Bile. 2) Erythrocytes
1) All vertebrates possess muscular 3) Urea. 4) Glucose
and chambered heart 64. Squeezing of Leucocytes out from the
2) Only deoxygenated blood is present endothelium of capillaries to foreign
in the heart chambers in fishes agents is known as
3) Ventricle pumps out mixed blood in 1)Diakinesis. 2) Diaphyses
Amphibians 3) Diapause 4) Diapedesis
4) In birds and Mammals oxygenated 65. Fastest distribution of some injectable
and deoxygenated blood received by material / medicine and with no risk
the right and left atria respectively of any kind can be achieved by
58. Kidneys are located at the level of 1) injecting into
10th thorasic and 3rd lumber 1) Artery 2) Vein
2) Last thorasis and 3rd lumber 3) Lymph vessel 4) Muscle
3) 12 th thorasic and 2nd sacral 66. Which of the is correct representation
4) 2nd thorasic and 3rd lumber of single circulation in fishes
59. What ‘P’ indicates in ECG? 1) Heart→ Gills →Heart→ Body parts
1) End of atrial systole 2) Bodyparts → Gills → Heart → Body
2) Starting of atrium systole parts
3) End of ventricle systole 3) Heart→ Gills → Body parts
4) Starting of ventricle systole 4) Gills → Heart → Body parts
60. In which one of the following pairs the 67. Which of the following events
two items means one and the same coincides with one another during one
thing? cardiac cycle
1)Mitral valve—Semilunar valve 1) Atrial systole and ventricular
2) Platelets—Thrombocytes systole
3) ECG—EEG 2) Atrial diastole and ventricular
4) Lymph—Interstitial fluid diastole
61. Most of the iron in human body is 3) Lubb and Dubb sound production
present in 4) Closure of mitral valve and Aortic
1) Muscles 2) Blood valve
3) Liver 4) kidney 68. Funnel shaped cavity in kidney
62. Normally the impulse that excites 1) Calyx 2) Pelvis
(depolarize) the left ventricular 3) Hilum 4) Capsule
muscles originates in 69. The inter atrial septum in the human
1) SA node 2) Left bundle branch heart is best described as
3) Purkinje system 1) A thin muscular wall
4) Bundle of His 2) A thick muscular wall
63. Blood leaving liver and moving to the 3) A thick fibrous tissue
heart has usually high concentration 4) A thin fibrous tissue
of

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SR AIIMS S60& MPL (OUTGOING) NEET PART TEST_2 Date : 13.05.21
70. A common symptom produced by the following structures made this
myocardial ischemia is possible?
1) Hypertension 2) Vertigo 1) Complete inter atrial septum
3) Angina 4) Hyperventilation 2) Two pacemakers
71. Which of the following is not 3) Complete inter ventricular septum
represented in a normal ECG 4) Chordae tendineae and papillary
1) Depolarisation of atria muscles
2) Depolarisation of ventricles 77. Artificial pacemaker is required when a
3) Repolarization of atria person is suffering from
4) Repolarization of ventricles 1)Arteriosclerosis
72. Cardiac output can be increased by 2)Atherosclerosis
signals from 3)Irregular heartbeat
1) Sympathetic nerves and Adrenal 4)Hypertension
cortex 78. K+ secretion occurs at
2) Sympathetic nerves and Adrenal 1) DL of Hene’s loop 2) PCT
medulla 3) AL of henle’s loop 4) CD
3) Parasympathetic nerves and 79. Which of the following prevents blood
Adrenal medulla clotting in uninjured blood vessels
4) Parasympathetic nerves and 1)Albumins 2)Histamines
Adrenal cortex 3)Heparin 4)Globulins
73. The invagination of cortex in to 80. Substances absorbed actively from
medulla are called glomerular filtrate is
1) Columen of Bertini 1) Glucose 2) Amino acids
2) Duct of Bellini 3) Na+ 4) All the above
3) Renal pelvis 4) Urethra 81. Which one of the following represents
74. P.C.T does not reabsorb one of the pulmonary circulation
following actively 1)left atrium—>lungs—> right atrium
1) Glucose, aminoacid, vitamin 2)left atrium—> lungs—>right
2) 75% of K+ and 70% of Na+ ventricle
3) Large amount of Ca+ 3)Right ventricle—> lungs—> left
4) Creatinine, hippuric acid ventricle
75. During successive cardiac cycles the 4)Right ventricle—> lungs —> left
atrial systole accounts for about 30% atrium.
filling of each ventricle. This is equal 82. Which of the following are in direct
to contact with the AV valves and
1) 21ml 2) 36ml prevent these from collapsing back
3) 49ml 4)70ml into atria?
76. Two separate circulatory pathways of 1)Chordae tendineae
blood circulation are seen in all 2) Papillary muscles
mammals including man. Which of 3) Columnae cornea. 4) both 1and 2

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SR AIIMS S60& MPL (OUTGOING) NEET PART TEST_2
83. Which part of circulation does not
bring blood to the heart
1)Coronary. 2) Pulmonary
3) Systemic. 4) Portal
84. A special neural centre that can
moderate the cardiac function is
located in
1)Cerebrum. 2) Cerebellum
3) Medulla. 4) Pons
85. Excretion is a continuous process but
urine is not passed out continuously
1) Urinary bladder 2) Cloaca
3) Rectum 4) Ureter
86. Statement 1: The high cardiac output
results in increased oxygen delivery to
the exercising muscles
Statement 2: The cardiac output of an
athlete will be much higher than that
of an ordinary person
1)Both the statements are correct
2)Only statement 1 is correct
3) Only statement 2 is correct
4) Both the statements are incorrect
87. How can a physician determine the
heart rate of a person in a given
period of time through ECG
1)by counting the number of P Waves
2)by counting the number of T waves
3)by counting the number of QRS
complex
4)All the above
88. Nearly all the essential nutrient is are
reabsorbed at
1) DL of Henele’s loop
2) PCT 3) DCT
4) AL of Henele’s loop
89. Identify the blood vessel with more
urea
1)Hepatic portal vein 2)Hepatic vein
3)Hepatic artery 4)Renal vein
Sri Chaitanya
Date : 13.05.21
90. If the blood supply that normally
nourishes the heart with oxygen is
cutoff , the heart muscle begins to to
die. This leads to
1)Heart failure 2)Atherosclerosis
3)Cardiac arrest 4)Heart attack
Physics
91. A radioactive isotope X with a half-life
of 1 .37 × 10 9 years decays to Y which is
stable. A sample of rock from the
moon was found to contain both the
elements X and Y which were in the
ratio of 1 : 7. The age of the rock is
1) 1 .96 × 10 8 years 2) 3 .85 × 10 9 years
3) 4 .11 × 10 9 years 4) 9 .59 × 10 9 years
92. Half-lives of two radioactive elements
A and B are 20 minutes and 40
minutes, respectively. Initially, the
samples have equal number of nuclei.
After 80 minutes, the ratio of decayed
numbers of A and B nuclei will be :
1) 1 : 16 2) 4 : 1 3) 1 : 4 4) 5 : 4
93. From a newly formed radioactive
substance (Half life 2 hours), the
intensity of radiation is 64 times the
permissible safe level. The minimum
time after which work can be done
safely from this source is
1)6 hours 2) 12 hours
3)24 hours 4) 128 hours
94. The binding energy per nucleon of
deuteron (12 H ) and helium nucleus
(42 He ) is 1.1 MeV and 7 MeV
respectively. If two deuteron nuclei
react to form a single helium nucleus,
then the energy released is
1)13.9 MeV 2)26.9 MeV
3) 23.6 MeV 4)19.2 MeV
95. A nucleus with mass number 220
initially at rest emits an α-particle. If
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SR AIIMS S60& MPL (OUTGOING) NEET PART TEST_2 Date : 13.05.21
the Q value of the reaction is 5.5 MeV, λm λmN A
1) λm 2) 3) 4) mN A eλ
calculate the kinetic energy of the α- M M
particle 100. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2

1) 4.4 MeV 2) 5.4 MeV have decay constants 10 λ and λ

3) 5.6 MeV 4) 6.5 MeV respectively. If initially they have the
96. The half life period of a radioactive same number of nuclei, then the ratio
element X is same as the mean life of the number of nuclei of X 1 to that
time of another radioactive element Y. of X2 will be 1/e after a time
Initially both of them have the same 1 1
1) 2)
number of atoms. Then 10λ 11λ
1)X and Y have the same decay rate 11 1
3) 4)
initially 10λ 9λ
101. In a sample of radioactive material,
2)X and Y decay at the same rate
what percentage of the initial
always
number of active nuclei will decay
3)Y will decay at a faster rate than X
during one mean life?
4)X will decay at a faster rate than Y
1) 37% 2) 50%
97. Binding energy per nucleon verses
3) 63% 4) 69.3%
mass number curve for nuclei is
102. If the nuclear force between two
shown in the figure. W, X, Y and Z are
protons, two neutrons and between
four nuclei indicated on the curve. The
proton and neutron is denoted by
process that would release energy is
Fpp, Fnn and Fpn respectively, then
B.E. per nucleon in MeV

8.5
Y
X 1) Fpp > Fnn = Fpn 2) Fpp = Fnn > Fpn
8.0
W
7.5 3) Fpp = Fnn = Fpn 4) Fpp ≠ Fnn ≠ Fpn
5.0 Z 103. Fusion reaction takes place at high
temperature because
30 60 90 120 1)nuclei break up at high
Mass number of nuclei
temperature
1) Y → 2 Z 2) W → X + Z 2) atoms get ionized at high
3) W → 2Y 4) X → Y + Z temperature
98. A radioactive substance decays to 3) kinetic energy is high enough to
1/16th of its initial activity in 40 days. overcome the coulomb repulsion
The half-life of the radioactive between nuclei
substance expressed in days is 4) molecules break up at high
1)2.5 2) 5 3) 10 4) 20 temperature
99. A sample of radioactive material has 104. Read the following statements and
mass m, decay constant λ, and identify the correct option
molecular weight M. Avogadro Statement A: Heavy water and
constant = NA. The initial activity of graphite are used in Nuclear reactor
the sample is

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SR AIIMS S60& MPL (OUTGOING) NEET PART TEST_2 Date : 13.05.21
to slow down the fast moving
neutrons. 109. A convergent beam of light is incident
Statement B : Cadmium rods are used on a convex mirror so as to converge
to absorb the neutrons in a nuclear to a distance 12 cm from the pole of
reactor. the mirror. An inverted image of the
1)Both A and B are true same size is formed coincident with
2) A is true, B is false the virtual object. What is the focal
3) A is false, B is false. length of the mirror
4) Both A and B are false 1) 24 cm 2) 12 cm
105. To generate a power of 3.2 megawatt, 3) 6 cm 4) 3 cm
the number of fissions of U235 per sec 110. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the
is (Energy released per fission = 200 principal axis of a concave mirror of
MeV, 1eV=1.6X10–19J) focal length 10 cm in such a way that
1) 6X1018 2) 6X10
19 its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away
17 16 from the mirror. The length of the
3) 10 4) 6X10
image is :
106. If the rest mass energy of electron or
1) 10 cm 2) 15 cm
position is equivalent to 0.51 MeV.
3) 2.5 cm 4) 5 cm
then KE of each particle in the electron
111. In a concave mirror experiment, an
positron pair production by γ -Photon
object is placed at a distance x 1 from
of energy 2.42 MeV. will be
the focus and the image is formed at a
1) 1.4 MeV 2) 0.7MeV
distance x 2 from the focus. The focal
3) 0.35 MeV 4) 2.8 MeV
length of the mirror would be
107. A ray of light incident on the first
mirror parallel to the second and is 1) x 1 x 2 2) x1
3) x 1 + x 2 4) x1 x 2
x2 2
reflected from the second mirror
112. An object is at a distance of 0.5 m in
parallel to first mirror. The angle
front of a plane mirror. Distance
between two mirrors is
between the object and image is
1)300 2)600 3)750 4)900
1)0.5 m 2)1 m 3)0.25 m 4)1.5 m
108. A short linear object of length l lies
113. A gas mixture consists of 2 mole of
along the axis of a concave mirror of
oxygen and 4 mole of argon at
focal length f at a distance u from the
temperature T. Neglecting all
pole of the mirror. The size of the
vibrational modes, the total internal
image is approximately equal to
energy of the system is
1/ 2 2
u− f  u− f  1) 4RT 2) 15RT 3) 9RT 4) 11RT
1) l  2) l 
 f   f  114. The time period of a satellite of earth
1/ 2 2 is 5 hours. If the separation between
 f   f  the earth and the satellite is increased
3) l  4) l 
 u − f   u − f  to 4 times the previous value, the new
time period will become
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SR AIIMS S60& MPL (OUTGOING) NEET PART TEST_2 Date : 13.05.21
1) 10 hours 2) 80 hours Gm Gm
3) 4)
3) 40 hours 4) 20 hours 3R 2R
115. The angular velocity of the earth with 120. A satellite of mass m revolves around
which it has to rotate so that the earth of radius R at a height x from
acceleration due to gravity on 60° its surface. If g is the acceleration due
latitude becomes zero is (Radius of to gravity on the surface of the earth,
earth = 6400 km. At the poles g = 10 the orbital speed of the satellite is
ms–2) gR gR 2 gR 2
1) gx 2) 3) 4)
1)2.5×10–3rad/sec2)5.0×10–1rad/sec R−x R+x R+x
3) 10 × 10 1 rad / sec 4) 7 .8 × 10 −2 rad / sec 121. The ratio of escape velocity at earth
116. Two spheres of masses m and M are (Ve) to the escape velocity at a planet
situated in air and the gravitational (Vp) whose radius and mean density
force between them is F. The space are twice as that of earth is
around the masses is now filled with a 1) 1:2 2) 1: 2 2 3) 1:4 4) 1:2
liquid of specific gravity 3. The 122. If ‘g’ is the acceleration due to gravity
gravitational force will now be on the earth’s surface, the gain in the
F F potential energy of an object of mass
1) 2) 3F 3) F 4)
9 3 ‘m’ raised from the surface of the earth
117. If the angular momentum of a planet to a height equal to the radius ‘R’ of
of mass m, moving around sun in a the earth is
circular orbit is L about the centre of
1 1
the sun, its areal velocity is 1) mgR 2) mgR
4 2
4L 2L L L
1) 2) 3) 4) 3) 2mgR 4) mgR
m m 2m m
123. The height at which the acceleration
118. If suddenly the gravitational force of
g
attraction between earth and a satellite due to gravity becomes (where g =
9
revolving around it becomes zero,
the acceleration due to gravity on the
then the satellite will
surface of the earth) in terms of R, the
1) Continue to move in its orbit with
radius of the earth, is
same velocity
R
2) Move tangentially to the original 1) 2) R/2 3) 2R 4) 2 R
2
orbit with the same velocity
124. A satellite is moving with a constant
3) Becomes stationary in its orbit
speed v in circular orbit around the
4) Move towards the earth
earth. An object of mass ‘m’ is ejected
119. Two particles of mass m go around a
from the satellite such that it just
circle of radius R under the action of
escapes from the gravitational pull of
their mutual gravitational attraction.
the earth. At the time of ejection, the
The speed of each particle with respect
kinetic energy of the object is :
to their centre of mass is 1 3
1) 2m v2 2) m v2 3) m v 2 4) m v 2
Gm Gm 2 2
1) 2)
R 4R
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SR AIIMS S60& MPL (OUTGOING) NEET PART TEST_2 Date : 13.05.21
2) A is true, B is false
125. A satellite is revolving around a 3) A is false, B is false.
planet of mass ‘m’ in an elliptical orbit 4) Both A and B are false
of semi major axis ‘a’. The orbital  Cp 
129. The value of γ  = , for hydrogen,
velocity of the satellite at a distance ‘r’  Cv 
from focus will be
helium and another ideal diatomic gas
 2 1 1 2 
1) GM  −  2) GM  −  X (Whose molecules are not rigid but
 r a   r a 
have an additional vibrational mode),
2 1 1 2  are respectively equal to
3) GM  2 − 2  4) GM  2 − 
 r a   r a 2  7 5 9 5 7 9
1) , , 2) , ,
126. A small satellite is in elliptical orbit 5 3 7 3 5 7
around earth as shown. If L denotes 5 7 7 7 5 7
3) , , 4) , ,
the magnitude of its angular 3 5 5 5 3 5
momentum and K denotes kinetic 130. N molecules each of mass m of gasA
energy : and 2N molecules each of mass 2m of
gas B are contained in the same vessel
at temperature T. The mean square of
the velocity of molecules of gas B is v2
and the mean square of x-component
1) L2> L1 and K2> K1 of the velocity of molecules of gas A is
2) L2> L1 and K2 = K1 w2
w2. The ratio is
3) L2 = L1 and K2 = K1 v2
4) L2 = L1 and K2> K1 1)1 2)2 3) 1 4) 2
3 3
127. Two bodies of masses M1 = m and M2
131. The root mean square speed of the
= 4m are placed at a distance r. The
molecules of a diatomic gas is v.
gravitational potential at a point on
When the temperature is doubled, the
the line joining them where the
molecules dissociate into two atoms.
gravitational field is zero is
The new root mean square speed of
4Gm
1) Zero 2) − the atom is
r
6Gm 9Gm 1) 2v 2)v3)2v 4)4v
3) − 4) −
r r 132. A vessel contains a mixture of one
128. Statement(A): An astronaut in an mole of oxygen and two moles of
orbiting space station above the nitrogen at 300 K. The ratio of the
Earth experiences weightlessness. average rotational kinetic energy per
Statement(B): An object moving O 2 molecule to that per N 2 molecule is

around the Earth under influence of 1)1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3)2 : 1

Earth’s gravitational force is in a 4)Depends on the moments of inertia
state of free- fall. of the two molecules
1)Both A and B are true

Sri Chaitanya Page No.11

SR AIIMS S60& MPL (OUTGOING) NEET PART TEST_2 Date
ate : 13.05.21
133. An insulator container contains 4 0.05
(1) mol / lit (2) 0.15 mol/lit
moles of an ideal diatomic gas at 3
temperature T. Heat Q is supplied to (3) 0.05 mol/lit (4) 1.0 mol/lit
this gas, due to which 2 moles of the 140. The boiling points of C6H6, CH3OH,
gas are dissociated into atoms but C6H5 NH2 and C6H5NO2 are 800C,
temperature of the gas remains 650C, 1840C and 2120C respectively.
constant. Then Which of the following will have
1) Q = 2 RT 2) Q = RT highest vapour pressure at room
3) Q = 3 RT 4) Q = 4 RT temperature?
134. An ideal gas has molecules with f (1) C6H6 (2) CH3OH
degrees of freedom. The ratio of (3) C6H5NH2 (4) C6H5NO2
specific heats at constant pressure (CP) 141. If solute and solvent interactions are
and at constant volume (CV) is : more than solute - solute and solvent -
1 2 solvent interactions then
1) f+1 2) 3) f 4) 1 +
f f (1) It is ideal solution
135. At what temperature is the root mean (2) It is non-ideal ideal solution with
square velocity of gaseous hydrogen positive deviation
molecules is equal to that of oxygen (3) It is non-ideal ideal solution with
molecules at 47°C negative solution
1) 20 K 2)80 K (4) Can't predicted
3)– 73 K 4)3 K 142. If C2H5OH and H2O solution is
Chemistry example of non-ideal ideal solution then
136. The
he normality of 10% which graphical cal representation is
(weight/volume) acetic acid is correct?
(1) 1 N (2) 10 N
(3) 1.7 N (4) 0.83 N
137. 20
0 ml of 0.5 M HCl is mixed with 30
ml of 0.3 M HCl the molarity of
resulting solution is 1) 2)
(1) 0.8 M (2) 0.53 M
(3) 0.38 M (4) 0.83 M
138. 20 ml of 0.2 M Al2(SO4)3 is mixed with
20 ml of 6.6 M BaCl2, the concentration
of Cl– ion in solution is 3) 4)
(1) 0.2 M (2) 6.6 M 143. An azeotropic solution of two liquids
(3) 0.02 M (4) 0.06 M has a boiling point lower than either
139. If solubility of any gas in the liquid at of the boiling points of the two liquids
1 bar pressure is 0.05.05 mol/lit. What when it
will be its solubility at 3 bar pressure, (1) Shows negative deviation
keeping the temperature constant ? (2) Shows positive deviation
(3) Shows
ws no deviation
SR AIIMS S60& MPL (OUTGOING) NEET PART TEST_2 Date : 13.05.21
(4) Is unsaturated 150. If α is the degree of dissociation of
144. Equal moles of benzene and toluene Na2SO4. The van’t Hoff factor used for
are mixed the V.P. of benzene and the calculation of molecular mass is
toluene in pure state are 700 and600 (1) 1 + 2α (2) 1 – 2α
mm Hg respectively. The mole (3) 1 + α (4) 1 – α
fraction of benzene in vapour state is 151. The relationship between osmotic
(1) 0.7 (2) 0.47 pressure (P) at 273 K when 10 g
(3) 0.50 (4) 0.54 glucose (P1), 10 g urea (P2) and 10 g
145. The vapour pressure of a dilute sucrose (P3) are dissolved in 250 ml of
aqueous solution of glucose is 750 mm water is
Hg at 373 K. Calculate the mole (1) P1 > P2 > P3 (2) P2 > P1 > P3
fraction of solute. (The vapour (3) P2 > P3 > P1 (4) P3 > P2 > P1
pressure of pure water is 760 mm Hg 152. Which of the following aqueous
at 373 K) solution has maximum freezing point?
(1) 0.013 (2) 1.3 (1) 0.01 M NaCl (2) 0.005 M C2H5OH
(3) 0.13 (4) 1.1 (3) 0.005 M MgI2 (4) 0.01 M MgSO4
146. Two liquids having vapour pressures 153. 0.1 M aqueous solution of K4[Fe(CN)6]
P10 & P20 in pure state in the ratio of 2 : will have the same freezing point as
1 are mixed in the molar ratio of 1 : 2. 0.1 M aqueous solution of
The ratio of their moles in the vapour (1) Fe(SO4)3 (2) Al2(SO4)3
state would be (3) AlCl3 (4) K3PO4
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 154. Arrange the following aqueous
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 2 solutions in the order of their
147. The osmotic pressure of 0.1 M sodium increasing boiling points
chloride solution at 270C is (i) 10–4 M NaCl (ii) 10–3 M Urea
(1) 4.0 atm (2) 2.46 atm (iii) 10–3 M MgCl2 (iv) 10–3 M NaCl
(3) 4.92 atm (4) 1.23 atm (1) (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (iii)
148. A solution containing 8.6 g L–1 of urea (2) (ii) < (i) = (iii) < (iv)
is isotonic with a 5% solution of (3) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)
unknown solute. The molar mass of (4) (iv) < (iii) < (i) = (ii)
the solute will be 155. Which of the following concentration
(1) 348.9 g mol–1 (2) 174.5 g mol–1 terms is temperature independent?
(3) 87.3 g mol–1 (4) 34.89 g mol–1 I. Molarity II. Molality
149. In a 0.2 molar aqueous solution of a III. Normality IV. Mole fraction
weak acid HX, the degree of (1) I & II (2) I & III
ionization is 0.3. The freezing point of (3) II only (4) II & IV
the solution will be nearest to 156. What is the concentration of NO3− ions
(1) 0.480C (2) –0.480C when equal volumes of 0.1 M AgNO3
(3) –0.360C (4) –0.260C and 0.1 M NaCl are mixed together?
(1) 0.1 N (2) 0.25 M
Sri Chaitanya Page No.13
SR AIIMS S60& MPL (OUTGOING) NEET PART TEST_2 Date
ate : 13.05.21
+
(3) 0.05 M (4) 0.2 M
C6 H 4 C H 2 , p − ( CH 3O )
157. Which one is not equal to zero for an (I )
ideal solution? +
C6 H 4 C H 2 , p − ( NO2 )
(1)∆P = Pobserved – PRaoult ( II )
(2)∆Hmix (3)∆Smix ∆Vmix
(4)∆ + +

158. What is the mole fraction of the solute C6 H 4 C H 2 & p − ( CH 3 ) C6 H 4 C H 2

( III ) ( IV )
in a 1.00 m aqueous solution?
1) IV > II > III > I 2) II > IV > III > I
(1) 0.0354 (2) 0.0177 3) II > IV > I > III 4) I > II > III >IV
(3) 0.177 (4) 1.770 163. The correct acidity order of the
159. The correct order of increasing basic following is
nature of the following bases is

1) ii < v < i < iii < iv

2) v < ii < i < iii < iv 1) III > IV > II > I 2) IV > III > I > II
3) ii < v < i < iv < iii 3) III > II > I > IV 4) II > III > IV > I
4) v < ii < i < iv < iii 164. The correct order for hemolytic bond
dissociation energies( ∆H in
kcal/mol) for CH4(A), (A) C2H6(B) and
160. In a compound electrophilic CH3Br(C), under identical
substitution has occurred. experimental conditions
The substituent – E are methyl, - 1) A > B > C 2) B > C > A
CH2Cl, - CCl3 and – CHCl2. The 3) C > A > B 4) C > B > A
correct increasing order towards 165. Most stable carbocation is
electrophilic substitution is
1) −CH 3 < −CH 2Cl < −CHCl2 < −CCl3
2) −CH 3 < CHCl2 < −CH 2Cl − CCl3
3) −CCl3 < −CH 2Cl < −CHCl2 < −CH 3 1) 2)
4) −CCl3 < −CHCl2 < −CH 2Cl < −CH 3
161. Arrange the following compounds in
order of their decreasing reactivity
with an electrophile, E(+) 3) 4)
i) Chlorobenzene 166. Which of the following pairs are
ii) 2, 4 – dinitrochlorobenzene resonating structures ?
iii) p – nitrochlorobenzene O
( +)
1) iii > ii > i 2) ii > iii > i CH 3 − N CH 3 − O − N = O
&CH
3) i > iii > ii 4) i > ii > iii
1) O−
162. The descending order of stability of
the carbonium ions
SR AIIMS S60& MPL (OUTGOING) NEET PART TEST_2 Date
ate : 13.05.21
O− 171. Arrange the following radicals in
O
CH 3 − C &CH 3 − C .
I) CH 3
.
decreasing order of their stability

II) CH 3 − CH 2
CH 2− CH 2
2)
OH

( CH3 ) 2 CO & CH3 − C III)

3)
CH 2 .
CH
4) CH 3 − CH = CH − CH 3 and
IV)
CH 3 − CH 2 − CH = CH 2
1) IV > I > III > II 2) IV > III > II >I
167. Which is the most stable resonating 3) I > II > III > IV 4) IV > III > I >II
structure ? 172. Which of the following alkenes will
show maximum number of hyper
conjugation forms?
1) 2) 1) CH 2 = CH 2 2) CH 3 − CH = CH 2
3) CH 3 − CH 2 − CH = CH 2
CH3
3) 4) |
168. Resonance effect involves : 4) CH 3 − CH − CH = CH 2
1) Delocalization of π − electrons 173. Some meta – directing subsituents in
along a conjugated system aromatic substitution are given.
2) Delocalization of lone pair along a Which one is most deactivating?
conjugated system 1) – COOH 2) – NO2
3) Delocalization of negative charge 3) – C ≡ N 4) – SO3H
along a conjugated system 174. The minimum magnitude of heat of
4) All are correct hydrogenation per mole of molecule is
169. Which does not have conjugate of :
system ?
1) CH 2 = CHCl 2) CH 2 = CHCHO

1) 2)

3) CH 3CH = CH 2 4)

3) 4)
170. The weakest + m group of the given
175. Select the basic strength order of the
species is :
following molecules.
1) – OCH3 2) – F
3) – I 4) – N (CH3)2
SR AIIMS S60& MPL (OUTGOING) NEET PART TEST_2 Date : 13.05.21
177. Which of the following is not an
electrophile ?
N 1) Cl + 2) CH 2 = CH 2
3) Fe+3 4) + NO2
N
178. Which of the following is not a
H
nucleophile ?
(I) Piperidine (II) Pyridine
O
1) Br − 2) : NH 3
3) H + 4) C6 H 6 (Benzene)
179. Which of the following is the least
N N stable carbanion ?
1) HC ≡ C −
H H 2) ( C6 H 5 )3 C −
(III) Morpholine (IV) Pyrrole
3) ( CH 3 )3 C −
1) IV>I>III>II 2) III > I > IV > II
3) II > I > III > IV 4) I > III > II > IV 4) CH 3−
176. Most acidic hydrogen is present in : 180. Arrange the following carbanions in
O O decreasing order of stability :
( −) ( −)
CH 2 − Cl CH 2 − CN
1) (I) ( II )
( −) ( −)
O CH 2 − NO2 CH 2 − CH 3
( III ) ( IV )
1) III > II > IV > I
2) 2) III > II > I > IV
3) ( CH 3CO )3 CH 3) III > I > II > IV
4) II > III > I > IV
4) ( CH 3 )3 COH

Sri Chaitanya Page No.16