ĐỀ 7 ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021

(Đề thi gồm có 05 trang) Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ tên thí sinh:.............................................Số báo danh:........................

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation
in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. studied B. approved C. reminded D. returned
Question 2: A. late B. stay C. pace D. bat
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress
in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. offer B. promise C. enter D. compete
Question 4: A. wonderful B. important C. confident D. flexible
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: When I came, an experiment __________________in the lab.
A. was being holding B. has been held C. was being held D. has held
Question 6: Their daughter hasn't phoned ever since she _____ to America.
A. goes B. went C. has gone D. is going
Question 7: I didn't tell you about the possibility of the trip because I didn't want to _____ your hopes.
A. boost B. lift C. raise D. follow
Question 8: I think scientists should not be allowed to perform _____ on animals. It's cruel.
A. experiences B. duties C. experiments D. miracles
Question 9: Tom's trying to persuade us to accept his own way of reasoning, but what we need is an independent opinion
from someone who has no _____ to grind.
A. axe B. hammer C. tool D. stone
Question 10: _____ repeated assurances that the product is safe, many people have stopped buying it.
A. Because of B. Because C. Although D. Despite
Question 11: ______________, leave it in the hospital for someone else to read.
A. When you have read the book  B. After you had read the book
C. Before you are reading the book D. While you were reading the book
Question 12: She is good at creating paintings.
A. interesting Vietnamese new square B. square Vietnamese new interesting
C. Vietnamese interesting square new D. interesting square new Vietnamese
Question 13: You want to live in a clean and green place, _____ ?
A. aren't you B. do you C. don't you D. are you
Question 14: Workers are going _____ strike across the US to demand measures to protect their health during the
coronavirus pandemic.
A. under B. on C. in D. over
Question 15: The less we study, the . .................. we are.
A. worse B. bad C. well D. good
Question 16: It is important you attend training regularly so as to to the best of your ability.
A. compete B. competition C. competitive D. competitively
Question 17: Once in large quantities, these products will be more affordably priced.
A. are produced B. having produced C. produced D. producing
Question 18: We arranged to meet Ann last night, but she didn't _____.
A. show off B. turn up C. run out D. get by
Question 19: There are a number of measures that should be _____ to protect endangered animals.
A. done B. taken C. made D. brought
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The question was discarded because it was ambiguous.
A. incorrect B. vague C. biased D. dull

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Question 21: The people interviewed for the survey were randomly selected.
A. carefully B. carelessly C. indiscriminately D. innocently
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: His policies were beneficial to the economy as a whole.
A. harmless B. crude C. thoughtful D. detrimental
Question 23: It's not a pleasant feeling to discover you've been taken for a ride by a close friend.
A. treated with sincerity B. deceived deliberately C. given a lift D. driven away
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24: Harry is talking to a shopkeeper.
- Harry: "I'll take these grapes, please.”
- Shopkeeper:“ __________”
A. Can I help you? B. Would you like a bag?
C. They're over there. D. We can't decide.
Question 25: Laura and Helen are talking about Bob, their schoolmate.
- Laura: "I think Bob is a good leader.”
- Helen:“__________. His team always wins."
A. You can say that again B. I could agree more
C. You must be kidding D. I totally disagree
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Homework: how useful is it?
Homework is an (26) _____ part of school life in most countries around the world. (27) _____, there is still considerable
debate among teachers about whether homework has a significant educational value. On the one side are those who claim
that it takes too much time away from (28) _____ more useful activities. On the other are those who see homework as
reinforcing school lessons so that concepts will not be forgotten. (29) _____ is often neglected in this debate is the role of
parental involvement and whether or not the child's home provides support for effective homework. Parents in low-
income families often do not have the time to make homework a priority or are not able to afford a computer or additional
books. Whatever money they have goes on the basic necessities of life-accommodation, food, clothing and heating.
However, the (30) _____ that only middle-class parents support their children's education is quite obviously wrong. Not
all well-to-do parents give the support they should, and some parents living in the most impoverished circumstances
imaginable find the time and energy to involve themselves in their children's homework.
Question 26: A. exhausted B. established C. allowed D. accustomed
Question 27: A. Moreover B. Therefore C. Although D. However
Question 28: A. others B. the other C. other D. another
Question 29: A. Who B. Which C. What D. Whose
Question 30: A. idea B. fact C. reason D. cause
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer t o
each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Many people feel a mid-afternoon slump in mood and alertness. Many people believe that this slump is caused by
eating a heavy lunch, or by getting a poor night's sleep the night before. In fact, this slump occurs naturally because
humans were meant to have a mid-afternoon nap.
Thomas Edison, Winston Churchill, Albert Einstein, and Bill Clinton are all famous fans of napping - and with
good reason. Various evidence, including the universal tendency of toddlers and the elderly to nap in the afternoon, and
the afternoon nap of siesta cultures, have led many scientists to the same conclusion: nature tells us to take a nap in the
middle of the day. Short periods of sleep have been shown to improve alertness, memory and motor skills, decision-
making, and mood - all while cutting down on stress, carelessness, and even heart disease.
Our biological urge to sleep in the middle of the afternoon coincides with a slight drop in body temperature. This
drop occurs whether we have lunch or not. A midday nap is a part of the daily routine of many cultures, especially those
near the equator. This all seems to suggests that napping may have been part of an ancient biological signal to get us out
of the hot midday sun.
Whatever the reason, if you have an opportunity for an afternoon nap, take one. Studies show that 20 minutes of
sleep in the afternoon provides more rest than getting 20 minutes more sleep in the morning. A 20-minute power nap

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provides the energy for a fresh burst of new ideas and energy. Naps seem to eliminate the need for more caffeine during
the workday, and this lowers stress
The do's and don'ts of napping
The early afternoon seems to be the best time to nap - approximately eight hours after you have woken up in the
morning. Twenty to thirty minutes is all you need to get the full rewards of a midday nap. There is no proof that sleeping
longer than this is any better; in fact, the opposite may be true.
In the dark, our brains produce more of the sleep-inducing hormone melatonin, so close the blinds, turn off the
lights, and consider using a sleeping mask. Keep the temperature on the warmer side. Don't forget to turn off your cell
phone. And avoid caffeine for a few hours before a nap. Give it a try for yourself, and see if you aren't amazed at the
results!
Question 31: The reading is primarily about _____.
A. why our bodies get tired in the afternoon B. how much sleep is ideal for people
C. why afternoon naps are good for us D. which famous people are known for napping
Question 32: All of the following are mentioned as things that are improved by napping except _____.
A. alertness B. decision-making C. food digestion D. memory
Question 33: In paragraph 3, the word "coincides” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. occurs before B. is accidental C. is unnoticeable D. happens together
Question 34: The word “this” in paragraph 5 mostly means _____.
A. twenty to thirty minutes B. sleeping longer
C. approximately eight hours D. a midday nap
Question 35: In order to get a good nap, you should do all of the following EXCEPT _____.
A. turn off your cell phone B. make the room dark
C. make sure the room isn't too warm D. avoid caffeine before sleeping
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 36 to 42.
In past centuries, Native Americans living in the arid areas of what is now the southwestern United States relies
on a variety of strategies to ensure the success of their agriculture. First and foremost, water was the critical factor. The
soil was rich because there was little rain to leach out the minerals, but the low precipitation caused its own problems.
Long periods of drought could have made agriculture impossible; on the other hand, a sudden flood could just as easily
have destroyed a crop.
Several techniques were developed to solve the water problem. The simplest was to plant crops in the floodplains
and wait for the annual floods to water the young crops. A less dangerous technique was to build dikes or dams to control
the flooding. These dikes both protected the plants against excessive flooding and prevented the water from escaping too
quickly once it had arrived. The Hopi people designed their fields in a checkerboard pattern, with many small dikes, each
enclosing only one or two stalks of maize (corn), while other groups built a series of dams to control the floods. A third
technique was to dig irrigation ditches to bring water from rivers. Water was sometimes carried to the fields in jars,
particularly if the season was dry. Some crops were planted where they could be watered directly by the runoff from cliff
walls.
Another strategy Native Americans used to ensure a continuous food supply was to plant their crops in more than
one place, hoping that if one crop failed, another would survive. However, since the soil was rich and not easily
exhausted, the same patch of ground could be cultivated year after year, whereas in the woodlands of the eastern United
States it was necessary to abandon a plot of ground after a few years of farming. In the Southwest, often two successive
crops were planted each year.
It was a common southwestern practice to grow enough food so that some could be dried and stored for
emergencies. If emergency supplies ran low, the people turned to the local wild plants. If these failed, they moved up into
the mountains to gather the wild plants that might have survived in the cooler atmosphere
Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Agricultural methods of Native Americans (hoac)
B. Irrigation techniques used by the Hopi
C. Soil quality in the American Southwest
D. Native Americans methods of storing emergency food supplies
Question 37: Planting in the floodplains was not ideal because _____.
A. the amount of water could not be controlled
B. the crops could be eaten by wild animals

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C. the floodplains were too remote to be cultivated frequently.
D. corn grows better at high elevations
Question 38: The word “enclosing" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. defending B. measuring C. surrounding D. extending
Question 39: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. fields B. jars C. crops D. walls
Question 40: Why did farmers in the Southwest plant crops in several places at the same time?
A. They moved frequently from one place to another. B. They feared that one of the crops might fail.
C. The size of each field was quite limited D. They wanted to avoid overusing the soil.
Question 41: The word "patch” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. type B. level C. group D. piece
Question 42: Why did farmers in the eastern woodlands periodically abandon their fields?
A. Seasonal flooding made agriculture impossible. B. They experienced water shortages.
C. They wanted a longer growing season. D. The minerals in the soil were exhausted.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43: Each of the nurses reports to the operating room when their name is called.
A. of the B. report C. their D. is called
Question 44: Peter and Wendy first met in 2006, and they are married for three years now.
A. first B. in 2006 C. are D. now
Question 45: The tongue is the principle organ of taste, and is crucial for chewing, swallowing, and speaking.
A. principle B. of taste C. is D. swallowing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 46: I came to live here three months ago.
A. It was three months since I lived here.
B. I’ve been living here for three months.
C. I lived here for three months.
D. I didn’t live here for three months.
Question 47: “You have to get all the letters sent off by tomorrow,” said Jake to his secretary.
A. Jake told his secretary that she had to get all the letters sent off by the next day.
B. Jake said to his secretary that she would get all the letters sent off by the following day.
C. Jake told his secretary that she should send off all the letters by tomorrow.
D. Jake said to his secretary that she had sent off all the letters by the day after.
Question 48: There's no way that boy is Simon because he's much taller!
A. That boy must be Simon because he's much taller!
B. That boy may not be Simon because he's much taller!
C. That boy could be Simon because he's much taller!
D. The boy can't be Simon because he's much taller!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions.
Question 49: Jenifer rejected the job offer. She now regrets it.
A. Jenifer regrets not having rejected the job offer. B. If only Jenifer didn’t reject the job offer.
C. Jenifer wishes she hadn’t rejected the job offer. D. Jenifer regrets to reject the job offer.
Question 50: He was very surprised to be addressed by the Queen. He didn't answer at once.
A. So surprised was he to be addressed by the Queen that he didn't answer at once.
B. Only when he was addressed by the Queen could he answer the surprising questions at once.
C. Not until he was so surprised to answer did the Queen address him.
D. But for such a nice surprise, he would have been addressed by the Queen

-------THE END-------

ĐỀ 8

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. rough B. touchy  C. southern D. coup
Question 2: A. attacked B. stopped  C. decided  D. searched
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. protect B. direct  C. access  D. assess
Question 4: A. procedure B. applicant  C. syllabus  D. recipe
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: You haven't seen Mary today, ___________?
A. have you  B. haven't you  C. have not you  D. do you
Question 6: The children’s arm was swollen because he .................. by a bee.
A. stung B. had stung C. had been stung D. had being stung
Question 7: My father has a box.
A. old small black Turkish B. small old Turkish black
C. small old black Turkish D. small Turkish old black
Question 8: The faster we walk,_______we will get there.
A. the soonest B. the soon C. the more soon D. the sooner
Question 9: ________ the weather forecast spoke of wind and rain, we really enjoyed a warm and sunny afternoon. 
A. However  B. Although  C. Yet  D. But
Question 10: _________, Joe stays in bed and reads magazines.
A. Whenever it rained B. As it will be raining C. When it will rain D. Whenever it rains
Question 11: I waited _________ you in half an hour and then decided that you weren't coming.
A. at B. in  C. on D. for
Question 12: You need to be more ________ if you want to become a novelist.
A. imaginary  B. imagination  C. imaginative  D. imaginatively
Question 13: _____very well, David was determined to take part in the inter-university athletics meet.
A. Not feeling B. Not felt C. Feeling D. Not to feel
Question 14: We must push the piano to the corner of the hall to _________ our party tonight.
A. make place for  B. take up room to  C. give place to  D. make room for
Question 15: I didn't ________ my stepmother at first, but after a while we grew closer.
A. take to  B. look up  C. look forward  D. come across
Question 16: John ______ a book when I saw him.
A. is reading B. read C. was reading D. reading
Question 17: She made a big____________about not having a window seat on the plane.
A. fuss B. complaint C. interest D. excitement
Question 18: The US president Barack Obama ________ an official visit to Vietnam in May 2016, which is of great
significance to the comprehensive bilateral partnership.
A. delivered  B. paid  C. offered  D. gave
Question 19: Mrs. Hoa was born and brought up in TuyPhuoc district and knows it like the ________.
A. nose on her face B. tip of the tongue C. back of her hand D. hair on her head
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: I knew he was only flattering me because he wanted to borrow some money from me.
A. making me impatient B. praising me too much C. making me feel worse D. elevating me
Question 21: The government are trying to play down their involvement in the affair.
A. blow up B. explode  C. look down D. soften
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. divorced  B. married  C. single  D. separated
Question 23: I'm always on pins and needles, waiting to get my tests back.
A. anxious  B. unworried  C. unhappy  D. uneasy

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the follo wing
exchanges
Question 24: Hoa and Nam are talking about the Vietnamese culture.
- Hoa: "I think it's a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof. They can help one another."
- Nam: “_________. Many old-aged parents like to lead independent life in a nursing home.”
A. I can't agree with you more  B. It's nice to hear that
C. I don't think so  D. There is no doubt about it
Question 25: Two friends Mai and Hoa are talking about their upcoming exams.
- Mai: "Our monthly tests will start next Saturday, are you ready?” – Hoa: “_________.”
A. God save you  B. I'm half ready  C. Thank you so much D. Don't mention it
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Here are the tips that help success in your job interview.
Always arrive early. If you do not know (26) _______ the organization is located, call for exact directions in advance.
Leave some extra time for any traffic, parking, or unexpected events. If you are running late, call right away and let
someone know. The best time to arrive is approximately 5 - 10 minutes early. Give yourself the time to read your resume
one more time, to catch your breath, and to be ready for the interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone you
encounter with respect. Be (27) _______ to everyone as soon as you walk in the door. Wear a professional business suit.
This point should be emphasized enough. First (28) ______ are extremely important in the interview process. Women
should not wear too much jewelry or make up. Men should (29) ________ flashy suits or wearing too much perfume. It is
also important that you feel comfortable. While a suit is the standard interview attire in a business environment, if you
think it is an informal environment, call before and ask. (30) _______ you can never be overdressed if you are wearing a
tailored suit. 
(Adapted from https://www.thebalancecareers.com)
Question 26: A. who B. whom  C. where  D. which
Question 27: A. pleasure B. pleasant  C. pleased  D. pleasantly
Question 28: A. attendances B. attentions  C. impressions  D. pressures
Question 29: A. avoid B. suggest  C. enjoy  D. mind
Question 30: A. When B. Regardless  C. Moreover  D. Therefore
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 31 to 35. 
The coronavirus is usually transmitted by droplets, such as those produced when coughing and sneezing, and by
direct or indirect contact with secretions infected by the virus. The virus may also shed in blood, urine and faces, and,
therefore, there is potential for transmission through contact with a wide range of bodily fluids . Certainly, person-to-
person spread has been confirmed in community and healthcare settings across Asia and into Europe. There is also a
possibility that asymptomatic carriers may be able to infect people. Public Health England (PHE) has classified the
COVID-19 infection as an airborne, high consequence infectious disease (HCID) in the UK. 
The application of infection prevention and control (IPC) principles are already widely used by healthcare
professionals within hospital and community settings to both prevent the spread of infections and to control outbreaks
when they do occur. The WHO has issued interim guidance regarding IPC when COVID - 19 is suspected. This advice is
echoed by guidance issued by PHE. 
PHE suggests the coronavirus may pose complications, such as illness pneumonia or severe acute respiratory
infection. It also suggests that patients with long-term conditions or are immune compromised are at risk of these
complications. It is important that as first-line staff, midwives are also familiar with the recommended IPC principles and
measures, and ensure they have the appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) when caring for a patient with
suspected COVID-19.
Question 31: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Problems Related to the Coronavirus
B. Epidemic Situation in England by coronavirus
C. Advice for Those Who Infected with Coronavirus
D. Coronavirus Transmission and Prevention
Question 32: According to the passage, the coronavirus can be found in all of the following except ______.
A. blood  B. clothes  C. urine  D. faces
Question 33: The word " interim” in paragraph 2 mostly means ________.

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 A. temporary  B. everlasting  C. permanent  D. effective
Question 34: Which of the following is TRUE about those with long-term conditions as stated in the passage?
A. They can work in the WHO.
B. They are employees of Public Health England.
C. They are at risk of illness pneumonia or severe respiratory infection.
D. They can work as first-line staff like midwives.
Question 35: The word “It” in the last paragraph refers to _________.
A. the coronavirus B. illness pneumonia
C. PHE D. severe acute respiratory infection
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions below from 36 to 42. 
Because geologists have long indicated that fossil fuels will not last indefinitely, the U.S government finally
acknowledged that sooner or later other energy sources would be needed and, as a result, turned its attention to nuclear
power. It was anticipated that nuclear power plants could supply electricity in such large amounts and so inexpensively
that they would be integrated into an economy in which electricity would take over virtually all fuel-generating functions
at nominal cost. Thus, the government subsidized the promotion of commercial nuclear power plants and authorized their
construction by utility companies. In the 1960s and early 1970s, the public accepted the notion of electricity being
generated by nuclear power plants in or near residential areas. By 1975, 54 plants were fully operational, supplying 11
percent of the nation's electricity, and another 167 plants were at various stages of planning and construction . Officials
estimated that by 1990 hundreds of plants would be online, and by the turn of the century as many as 1000 plants would
be in working order. 
Since 1975, this outlook and this estimation have changed drastically, and many utilizes have cancelled existing
orders. In some cases, construction was terminated even after billions of dollars had already been invested. After being
completed and licensed at a cost of almost $6 billion, the Shoreham Power Plant on Long Island was turned over to the
state of New York to be dismantled without ever having generated electric power. The reason was that residents and state
authorities deemed that there was no possibility of evacuating residents from the area should an accident occur. 
Just 68 of those plants underway in 1975 have been completed, and another 3 are still under construction.
Therefore, it appears that in the mid1990s 124 nuclear power plants in the nation will be in operation, generating about 18
percent of the nation's electricity, a figure that will undoubtedly decline as relatively outdated plants are shut down.
Question 36: What was initially planned for the nation's fuel supply?
A. Expansion and renovation of existing fuel-generating plants
B. Creation of additional storage capacities for fossil fuels
C. Conversion of the industry and the economy to nuclear power
D. Development of an array of alternative fuel and power sources
Question 37: How does the author describe the attitude of the population in regard to nuclear power as fuel in the early to
the mid-1970s?
A. Apprehensive  B. Ambivalent  C. Receptive  D. Resentful
Question 38: In line 5, the word "nominal” is closet in meaning to ________.
A. so-called  B. minimal  C. exorbitant  D. inflated
Question39: In line 13, the phrase "this outlook” refers to _______.
A. the number of operating nuclear plants
B. the expectation for increase in the number of nuclear plants
C. the possibility of generating electricity at nuclear installations
D. the forecast for the capacity of the nuclear plants
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that government officials made a critical error in judgment by_______. 
A. disregarding the low utility of nuclear power plants
B. relying on inferior materials and faulty plant design
C. overlooking the possibility of a meltdown, however remote
D. locating installation in densely wooded areas
Question 41: In line 14, the word "terminated” is closet in meaning to _________.
A. delayed  B. stopped  C. kept going  D. conserved
Question 42: The author of the passage implies that the construction of new nuclear power plants
A. is continuing on a smaller scale  B. is being geared for greater safety
C. has been completely halted for fear of disaster D. has been decelerated but not terminated

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43: When I’m shopping in the supermarket, I ran into an old friend who I hadn’t met for five years.
A B C D
Question 44: Having (A) finished his term paper (B) before the deadline, (C) it was delivered to professor (D) before the
class.
A. finished  B. before  C. it was delivered  D. before the class
Question 45: As (A) part of (B) the introductory week (C) at university we had to do a time (D) managed course.
A. part  B. the introductory week C. at university  D. managed 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions 
Question 46: Life on earth will be destroyed if people keep cutting trees for their own benefits.
A. If we stop to cut the trees for our benefits, the life on earth will be better.
B. If we don't continue to cut trees for our benefits, life on earth will be destroyed.
C. Life on earth will be destroyed unless people stop cutting trees for their own benefits.
D. The more trees we cut for our benefits, the better the earth becomes.
Question 47: : ”John left here an hour ago,” said Jane.
A. Jane told me that John had left there an hour before
B. Jane said John left there an hour before
C. Jane told John to have left there an hour before
D. Jane told me that John to leave there an hour before
Question 48: It was a mistake not to bring your umbrella.
A. You might have brought your umbrella.
B. You must have brought your umbrella.
C. You should have brought your umbrella.
D. You can’t have brought your umbrella.
D. It's not your fault to make it happen.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions
Question 49: Mr. Grey hurt his son’s feeling. He feels sorry for this.
A. His son feels bad about him, which makes Mr. Grey upset.
B. Mr. Grey regrets to hurt his son’s feeling.
C. It’s Mr. Grey who hits his son so bad.
D. Mr. Grey regrets hurting his son’s feeling.
Question 50: This university was so hard. He couldn’t enter it despite all his efforts.
A. He tried hard so he could win a place at this university.
B. He managed to enter this university.
C. He did make enough efforts but he still passed the entrance exam in this university.
D. However hard he tried, he couldn't enter this university.