Blood Banking Questions

1. The interval between blood donation is

a. 6 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 10 weeks
d. 3 months
2. The oral temperature of a donor must not exceed
a. 37C
b. 37.5C
c. 98.6F
d. 98F
3. The minimum acceptable hemoglobin for male donors is
a. 12.5 g/dl
b. 13.0 g/dl
c. 13.5 g/dl
d. 4.0 g/dl
4. What is the lowest acceptable hematocrit for female donors
a. 36%
b. 38%
c. 41%
d. 43%
5. Prospective donors who have malaria should be
a. Permanently rejected
b. Deferred for three years after cessation of treatment
c. Deferred for two years after cessation of treatment
d. Deferred for six months
6. Symnptom-free donors who have been immunized with oral polio, measles (rubeola) or mumps
vaccines are acceptable after a period of
a. 24 hours
b. 2 days
c. 2 weeks
d. 24 days
7. An autologous blood donor must
a. Be over 21 years old
b. Be treated for bacterecimia
c. Have at least an 11g/dl hemoglobin
d. Be on oral iron therapy
8. Which biochemical change does not occur in stored blood?
a. Plasma pH decreases
b. Plasma K decreases
c. Plasma NH3 increases
 d. Inorganic phosphate increases
9. What is the acceptable temperature range for blood bank refrigerator?
a. 1-6 C
b. 1-10C
c. 6-10C
d. 32-37C
10. If blood is to be transoported, the blood temperature must be kept between
a. 2-8C
b. 1-10C
c. 1-6C
d. 4-6C
11. Which blood group system was discovered first?
a. ABO
b. MNS
c. P
d. Rh
12. An amorph is a gene
a. Which is expressed in the heterozygous state
b. Which is expressed only in the homozygous state
c. With no observable effect
d. With a variable effect
13. Production of more antigen in the homozygous state than in the heterozygous state is referred
to as
a. Dosage effect
b. Antigenic determinant
c. Independent segregation
d. Prozone
14. Antibodies
a. All react at 37C
b. All react at 4C
c. Never react at 20C
d. That react at 37C are considered the most dangerous clinically
15. Naturally occurring antibodies are found regularly in which system
a. ABO
b. Rh
c. Kell
d. Kidd
16. Select the incorrect statement below. Naturally occurring antibodies
a. React best in saline
b. React best at room temperature or 4C
c. Do not usually cross the placenta
d. Are usually IgG
17. Immune antibodies may be produced by
a. Intermuscular injection of blood
b. pregnancy
c. repeated blood transfusions
d. all of the above
18. the dosage effect means
a. greater reactivity when more serum is used
b. greater reactivity when a greater number of cells are used
c. stronger reactions with homozygous cells than heterozygous cells
d. reaction with heterozygous cells only
19. Anti-A is a seed extract from
a. Ulex europaeus
b. Vicla graminea
c. Arachis hypogea
d. Dolichos biflorus
20. The frequency of a group A individuals in the united states is
a. 4%
b. 9%
c. 41%
d. 46%
21. Group B individuals
a. Have A antigens on their red cells
b. Have anti-A in their sera
c. Have neither anti-A nor anti-B in their sera
d. Have –B in their sera
22. Which of the following blood groups will not be agglutinated by anti-A,B typing serum
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O
23. Which of the following blood groups react most strongly with anti-H
a. AB
b. A1
c. O
d. B
24. What reagent is made from the seeds of the plant dolichos biflorus
a. Anti-A1
b. Anti- A,B
c. Anti-B
d. Anti-H
25. Who proposed a numerical Rh nomenclature?
a. Fisher and race
 b. Landsteiner
c. Rosenfield
d. Wiener
26. Which of the following is true of Du?
a. Du cannot be inherioted
b. Du is a weak variant of the Rho (D) antigen)
c. Du cells should be considered Rho(D) negative when used as donor blood
d. Du is common in Caucasians
27. A Du of the gene interaction variety would have the following genotyope
a. DuCe/dce
b. Duce/dce
c. DuCe/dCe
d. Dce/dce
28. Anti-C will not react with
a. R1R2 cells
b. R1R1 cells
c. Rr cells
d. r1r cells
29. antgi –E will react with
a. rr cells
b. R1r1 cells
c. Ror cells
d. R2R2 cells
30. Anti-c can eb formed by persons wioth the genotype
a. R1R2
b. R1R1
c. R2r
d. Rr
31. Anti-hr1 will not react with=
a. Rr cells
b. R1r cells
c. R1R1 cells
d. R2R2 cells
32. Anti-hr” will react with
a. R2ry cells
b. R1R1 cells
c. R2R2 cells
d. RzRz cells
33. The f antigen refers to
a. Ce
b. cE
c. CE
 d. ce
34. the symbol for the Bombay blood group is
a. OPh
b. OH
c. Ho
d. HO
35. All but one of the following antibodies will be detected in the serumk of a Bombay genotype
a. Anti-A
b. Anti-B
c. Anti-H
d. Anti-Lewis
36. The system compose of antigens found primarily in saliva nad plasma is
a. Lutheran
b. Lewis
c. P
d. Rh
37. In the duffy blood group system, which of the following is true?
a. Fya genes are recessive
b. Fyb are dominate
c. Fya and Fyb genes are codominate
d. Fya genes are dominate
38. Which of these is an acquired antibody
a. Anti-Lea
b. Anti-Jka
c. Anti-I
d. Anti-N
39. The antigen I is
a. Found on al cord cells
b. Absent on all cord cells
c. A rare antigen
d. Not found in Blacks
40. Anti-I is usually best detected in which crossmatch phase
a. Room temperature
b. 37C
c. Coombs phase
d. All of these
41. Select the incorrect statement
a. Anti-I is opften the causative antibody in case of CHAD9Cold hemagglutinin disease)
b. Anti-I reacts best with cord cells
c. Anti-I can be found as weak cold agglutinin in the sera of normal individuals
d. Anti-I agglutinins are usually clinically insignificant; however, they may mask more
significant antibodies, such as anti-P1, anti-M and anti-Lea
42. Anti-Lea
a. CAN BE PRODUCED BY Le9a-b+) individuals\
b. Is commonly implicated in HDN
c. Is present in 15 of the population
d. Does not react with pretreated enzyme cells
43. What percentage of the population lacks the kell antigen?
a. 0.02%
b. 2%
c. 10%
d. 90%
44. Select the incorrect statement:
a. 90% of the population is kell negative
b. Anti-K reacts best in salie at room temperature
c. Anti-K can cause HDN
d. Next to Rho(D), the Kell antigen is the most immunogenic
45. Anti-K is also known as
a. Anti-K1
b. Anti-Mcleod
c. Anti-Ku
d. Anti-Cellano
46. What is the grequency of the Fy (a-b-)blacks
a. 1%
b. 9%
c. 22%
d. 68%
47. Recent findings suggest there is an association between the Fy (a-b-) phenotype and resistance
to
a. CGD (chronic granulomatous disease
b. Malaria
c. Syphilis
d. Viral hepatitis
48. The antigen Tja is part of which system
a. Rh
b. MNS
c. Kidd
d. P
49. Approximastely what percentage of males are Xga positive?
a. 12%
b. 36%
c. 64%
d. 88%
50. Approximately what percentage of females are Xga negative?
 a. 12%
b. 36%
c. 64%
d. 88%
51. When color-coding is used for donor blood labels, Group A is
a. Pink
b. blue
c. Yellow
d. Black
52. Wjhat is the standard acceptable color for anti-a grouping serum
a. Blue- green
b. Colorless
c. Red
d. Yellow
53. What is the color of the dye added to commercially oprepared anti-B blood grouping serum
a. Yellow
b. Blue
c. Green
d. None of the above
54. Anti-a, b serum
a. Is used to confirm group O individuals
b. Ios obtained from A1B individuals
c. Is obtained from group a2B individuals
d. Agglutinates cells of all group O indivudlas
55. Which of the following is not suitable medium for suspensions of red cells for blood banking
a. Saline
b. Serum
c. Albumin
d. Distilled water
56. Which of the following enzyme is not uysed in blood bank procedures
a. Ficin
b. Amylase
c. Bromelin
d. Papain
57. Enzymes prevent detection of antibodies in the
a. Kidd system
b. Duffy system
c. Lewis system
d. Rh system
58. The technic used to remove antibody bound to sensitized red cells is called
a. Absorption
b. Elution
 c. Titer
d. Translocation
59. The Donath-Landsteiner test is associated with
a. CGD (cnronic granulomatous disease)
b. PCH (paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria)
c. PNH (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglubinuria)
d. PRV (polycythenia rubra vera)
60. A cold agglutinatinin will usually have specificity for the
a. D antigen
b. e antigen
c. I antigen
d. K antigen
61. Paroxysmal cold hemoglubinuria (PCH) is often associated with antibodies of which system
a. MNS
b. P
c. Lewis
d. Rh
62. Forward grouping is
a. Using known red cell antigens to detect unkown antibodies
b. Using known serum antibodies to detect unknown antigens
c. Using anti-A, B to confirm group O
d. Using anti-A1 to detect subgroups
63. Reverse grouping difficulties may be encountered in the following instances:
a. Newborn infants
b. Geriatric patients
c. Patients undergoing chemotherapy
d. All of the above
64. A patient that forward groups as an AB but reverse groups as group B probably is a group A2B
with
a. Anti-A1
b. Anti-A2
c. Anti-B
d. Anti-D
65. The most dangerous antibodies in the blood bank are those that react at
a. 4c
b. 25c
c. 32c
d. 37c
66. Antiglobulin reagent
a. Is produced in laboratory animals
b. Is produced in human beings
c. Never detects complement-dependent antibodies
 d. Occurs naturally in most human beings
67. He direct antiglobulin test (DAT) using polyspecific coombs sera is not of value in
a. Diagnosis of haemolytic disease of the newborn
b. Diagnosis of haemolytic transfusion reactions
c. Diagnosis of drug-induced haemolytic anemia
d. Differentiation of cell surface coating (complement or IgG)
68. By common usage, a poly specific anti-human serum contains at least antibodies to
a. IgG and C4
b. IgG and IgM
c. IgG, AgA and C3D
d. IgG and C3D
69. The direct antiglobulin test is most useful for
a. Diagnossi of HDN
b. Compatibility testing
c. Leukopagglutinin assays
d. Detection of unexpected antibodies
70. In a direct antiglobulin test, you are testing
a. Patient cells
b. Patient serum
c. Patient cells against donor serum
d. Patient serum against donor cells
71. An indirect antioglobulin test is incubated for
a. 15-30 minutes at 25C
b. 15-60 minutes at 37C
c. 5-10 minutes at 37C
d. 15-60 minutes at 56C
72. A false positive antiglobulin test can be caused by
a. Inadequate washing
b. Prozone reaction
c. Elution due to delayed washing
d. Extreme reticulocytosis
73. A false negative antioglobulin test can be caused by
a. Test cells being direct Coombs positive
b. Bacterial contamination of test cells
c. Inadequate washing
d. Overcentrifugation
74. Laboratories must now check each negative antiglobulin test by adding washed cells previously
coated with antibody. In the presence of a negative primary reaction, and agglutination after
addition of the check cells, which of the following is not necessarily true?
a. Active antiglobulin serum was added
b. Patient serum was added
c. Washing phase was performed satisfactorily
 d. Antiglobulin serum has not reacted with the original red cells being tested
75. Fresh serum (less than 2 days old) must be used for compatibility testing to preserve
a. Chelating agents
b. Sialic acid
c. Complement
d. Autoantibodies
76. Mixed field agglutination is observed under the microscope as clumps or agglutinates of cells
among many free cells. Which of the following is the most common reason for mixed field
agglutination?
a. Twin chimeras
b. Transfused cells mingling with patient cells
c. Weak subgroups of A or B
d. Asntigen strength altered disease states
77. The minor crossmatch
a. Detects antibodies in donor serum that react with recipient cells
b. Detect antibodies in recipient serum that react with donor cells
c. Detects leukocytes antibodies in donor serum
d. Detected leukocyte antibodies in recipient serum
78. All but one of the following antibodies will usually be detected in the room temperature phase
of a crossmatch
a. Anti-Kidd
b. Anti-Le(a)
c. Anti-M
d. Anti-P1
79. Which of the following antibodies is inactivated opr destroyed by enzyme treatment?
a. Anti-JKa
b. Anti-Fya
c. Anti-D
d. None of the above
80. One of the eight units crossmatched is incompatible in the antiglobulin phase of testing. The
most likely antibody is
a. Anti-Kell
b. Anti-Fya
c. Antui-Jka
d. Anti-cellano
81. If a recipient is incompatible with only one donor, one should suspect
a. An ABO grouping error
b. A recipient antibody to a low incidence antigen
c. A clerical error
d. A incomplete antibody
82. If a group O blood is crossmatched for a group B recipient
a. The major crossmatch will be incompatible
 b. The minor crossmatch will be incompatible
c. Both the major and minor crossmatches will be incompatible
d. Both the major and minor crossmatches will be compatible
83. Transfusion of a Group A1 patient with the red cells of a group A2 donor will result in
a. The patient’s producing anti –A2
b. The patient’s having a fatal hemoluytic transfusion reaction
c. No reaction providing the unit otherwise compatible
d. The opatient’s producing anti-A
84. If a patient has anti-D in his serum, and is crossmatched with a D-negative donor
a. The major crosssmatch will be incompatible
b. The minor crossmatch will be incompatible
c. Both the major and minor crossmatches will be incompatible
85. Platelet concentrates are often used to treat patients with
a. HDN
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia
d. Multiple myeloma
86. Cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor (AHF) is not used to treat
a. Haemophilia A
b. Von Willebrand’s disease
c. Haemophilia B
d. Hypofibrinogenemia
87. Red blood cells are the product of choice for
a. Supplying deficient coagulation factors
b. Acute massive blood loss
c. Exchange transfusion
d. Increasing oxygen carrying capacity
88. Deglycerolyzed frozen red blood cells must be transfused within how many hours?
a. 4
b. 21
c. 24
d. 72
89. Recurrent nonhemolytic febrile transfusion reactions are usually caused by all of the following
except
a. Anti-HLA antibodies
b. Platelet antibodies
c. Red cell antibodies
d. White cell antibodies
90. The blood phenotype O can result from which of the following genotyopes?
a. AO
b. BO
c. OO
 d. A2O
91. The cells and serum of a neonate were tested at room temperature.

Patient cells with: Patient serum with:

ANTI-A O A1 cells O

Anti-B + B cells O

a. Group B
b. Group AB
c. Group O
d. None of the above
92. Patient cells with: Patients serum with
Anti-A + A1 cells +
Anti-B + B cells O
Anti-A,B +
Anti – A1 O
Give the most likely explanation for the discrepancy in the forward and reverse groupings:
a. The patient is group A1B with an autoantibody
b. The patient is group A2B with anti-A1
c. The patient is group B with an acquired A-like antigen
d. The patient is group A2B with anti-H
93. The wiener genotype R2R2 is equivalent to
a. CDe/CDe
b. cde/cde
c. cDE/cDE
d. cdE/cdE
94. What is the most common genotype that could result from the phenotype D+C-E+c+e-?
a. R2R2
b. R1R1
c. rr
d. R1r
95. Given the reactions, D+C+E-c+e+, what is the most probable genotype?
a. R1R1
b. R1R0
c. R1r
d. R1R2
96. Given the reactions, D+C+E+c+e+, what is the most probable genotype
a. R1R2
b. R1r”
c. R2r
d. R0R2
97. If cells are positive when tested with anti-D, anti C and anti-e, and negative when tested with an
anti-e and anti-c, what is the mostlikely genotype?
a. R2R2
b. R1r1
c. R2r’
d. R1R1
98. If red blood cells give positive reactions when tested with an Rh, antirh’, anti-hr’, and anti-hr”,
and a negative reaction with anti-rh”. Which of the following genotype is impossible?
a. R1r
b. R1R2
c. R1R0
d. R0r’
99. Using the information given in the previousquestion, what is the most likely genotype?
a. R1r
b. R1R2
c. R1R0
d. R0r’
100. Which is the most common of the Rh0(D) negative genotypes?
a. cde/cde
b. Cde/cde
c. Cde/CdE
d. cdE/cde
101. when red cells are positive when tested with anti-c and anti-e and negative when tested
with anti-D, anti-C and anti-E, what is the genotype?
a. Rr
b. R’r
c. RoRo
d. r’r’
102. haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) casn occur when
a. the infant lacks an antigen the mother possesses
b. the mother lacks an antigen the infant possesses
c. the mother possesses an antigen the father alcks
d. none of the above
103. what antibody is most likely to be involved in haemolytic disease of the newborn?
a. Anti-C
b. Anti-Lea
c. Anti-M
d. Anti-Jsa
104. When severe HDN is due to an unidentified antibody
a. No blood is acceptable for transfusion
b. O negative cells with AB plasma should be used for transfusion
c. The mother’s red cells maybe used for transfusion
 d. None of the above
105. Which of the following blood groups has not bee reported to cause HDN?
a. Rh
b. Kell
c. P
d. Duffy
106. In a case of HDN, when the mother is group O and the baby is group A, red cells for an
exchange transfusion should be what group?
a. A
b. B
c. O
d. AB
107. In cases of ABO haemolytic disease of the newborn, the mother is usually which of these
a. Group AB
b. Group O
c. RhO (D) negative
d. A
108. If the mother is group A1B and the father is group A2B, which would be impossible in
the offspring?
a. A1
b. A2
c. B
d. A2B
109. In the phenotype mating A2B X O, which of the following is possible in the offspring?
a. A1
b. A2B
c. O
d. B
110. In the phenotype mating O x O, which of the following phenotypes is possible in the
offspring?
a. A1
b. A2B
c. B
d. O
111. An A1B mother and an A2O father could not produce which of the following genotypes?
a. A1A2
b. A2B
c. BO
d. A1B
112. If the mother is group O and the infant is group B, the infants blood group genotype is
a. BB
b. AO
 c. BO
d. AB
113. Given a mother of group O and An infant of group B, which of the following blood
groups would eliminate paternity?
a. AB
b. B
c. O
d. Paternity could not be ruled out
114. If a group AB is mated with a group O, the following genotypes will result
a. AO and BO
b. AA and BB
c. AB and OO
d. AO and BB
115. In the mating of the R1rx R2r genotypes, which of the following is impossible in the
offspring?
a. CDe/cDE
b. cde/cde
c. CDe/cde
d. CDe/cdE
116. If an R2R2 patient is transfused with r1R1 blood, it would be possible for him to form
which of the following antibodies?
a. Anti-E
b. Anti-Ce
c. Anti-ce
d. Anti-c
117. If a patient requiring a blood transfusion has an anti-e(hr”), approximately what percent
of donor blood tested would be compatible?
a. 2%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 80%
118. Approximately what percentage of donor blood is compatible with a patient who has
anti-JKa
a. 25%
b. 40%
c. 75%
d. 90%
119. You must find two units of compatible blood for a patient who has anti-JKa. How many
units will you crossmatch?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
 d. 50
120. A blood bank has 10 units of O Rh0 (D) positive blood from random donors. It should be
easiest to find two units of compatible blood for the patient with
a. Anti-e
b. Anti-c
c. Anti-cellano
d. Anti-Lea
121. If a patient with anti-e needs a blood transfusion, approximately what percentage of
donor blood tested will be compatible?
a. 2%
b. 30%
c. 70%
d. 98%
122. Patient needing a blood transfusion is found to have anti-P1. According to statistics,
select the approximate number of compatible units:
a. 1 of 4 units
b. 1 of 10 units
c. 2 of 3 units
d. 3 of 4 units

Questions 123- 134 may have more than one correct answer

123. A 56C water bath is commonly used for

a. Crossmatching
b. Preparing elautes
c. Inactivating sera
d. Thawing frozen cells
124. Testing media for antigen antibody reactions include
a. Isotonic saline
b. LISS
c. Albumin
d. Enzymes
125. Anti-A1 agglutinin
a. Is found in group A1 patients
b. Is occasionally found in A2 patients
c. Is found in all A2B patients
d. Is found in group B group O patients
126. Weak agglutination with anti-A typing serum is to be expected with which blood
group(S)
a. A1
b. A1B
c. A
 d. AB
127. Anti-A,B serum
a. Is obtained from A1B individuals
b. Is obtained from A2B individuals
c. Is obtained from group O individuals
d. Confirm group O individuals
128. Rh antibodies
a. React more strongly at 37C than at 4C
b. Are frequently noted to be cold agglutinins
c. Are acquired from transfusion or pregnancy
d. Can cross the placenta
129. Which of the following are naturally occurring
a. Anti-P1
b. Anti-K
c. Anti-Lea
d. Ant-JKa
e. Anti-N
f. Anti-S
130. The group B phenotype can result from the following genotype(s)
a. A1B
b. A3B
c. BB
d. AO
e. BO
131. The phenotype A1 can result from which of these genotypes?
a. A1A2
b. A2A2
c. A1O
d. A2O
e. A1B
132. In the very acute phase opf hepatitis, which of the following would be indicative of the
onset of a viremic state?
a. Positive HBsAg
b. Positive HBeAg
c. Positive anti-HBc
d. Anti-HAV
133. What is the expiration date (in days) of red blood cells preserved with citrate-phospate-
dextrose-adenine (CPDA-1)
a. 21
b. 24
c. 35
d. 40
134. low ionic strength solution (LISS)
a. causes an increase in the electropositive cations surrounding the red cells
b. causes a decrease in the electropositive cations surrounding the red cells
c. usually consist of phosphate saline and glycine
d. enhances the rate and sensitivity of antigen-antibody reactions