Tổng Hợp 50 Đề Chuyên Anh & HSG

TỔNG HỢP
50 ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

CHYÊN ANH – HSG – OLYMPIC 30/4
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CHUYÊN ANH & HỌC SINH GIỎI
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MỤC LỤC
DANH SÁCH ĐỀ THI ĐÃ HƯỚNG DẪN TRÊN YOUTUBE
01 ĐỀ THI CHUYÊN ANH VÀO LỚP 10 Tp. HCM
1.1. Đề thi chuyên Anh tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 _ Tp. HCM _ năm 2010
02 ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC 30/4

2.1. Đề thi Olympic 30/4 lớp 10 _ năm 2019 - 2020
2.2. Đề thi Olympic 30/4 lớp 11 _ năm 2019 - 2020
03 ĐỀ THI VÀO CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN TẠI HCM & HÀ NỘI
3.1. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ trường Amstedam Hà Nội

3.2. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ trường Đại Học Sư Phạm Hà Nội _ năm 2020 - 2021
3.3. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ Đại học Ngoại ngữ Hà Nội _ năm 2020 – 2021
3.4. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ Đại học Ngoại ngữ Hà Nội
3.5. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ trường Nguyễn Huệ Hà Nội
3.6. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ Phổ Thông Năng Khiếu Tp. HCM _ năm 2018 – 2019
3.7. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ trường Khoa Học Xã Hội & Nhân Văn _ năm 2020 – 2021
3.8. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ trường Phan Bội Châu (Nghệ An) _ năm 2020 – 2021
04 MỘT SỐ ĐỀ THI NĂM 2019 – 2021

4.1. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ Sở GD&ĐT Hà Nội _ năm 2020 – 2021
4.2. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Vũng Tàu _ năm 2019 - 2020
4.3. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ Quốc học Huế _ năm 2019 - 2020
4.4. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Quảng Ngãi _ năm 2019 – 2020
4.5. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Hà Tĩnh _ năm 2020 – 2021
4.6. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Nam Định _ năm 2020 – 2021
4.7. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Hải Phòng _ năm 2020 – 2021
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05 ĐỀ THI CHUYÊN ANH CÁC TỈNH THÀNH
5.1. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Hưng Yên
5.2. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Phú Yên
5.3. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Bắc Ninh
5.4. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Dak Lak
5.5. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Bình Thuận
5.6. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Bình Dương
5.7. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Hà Tĩnh
5.8. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Nam Định
5.9. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Quảng Bình
5.10. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Quảng Bình (extra)
5.11. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Quảng Ngãi
5.12. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Thái Bình
5.13. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Vĩnh Phúc
5.14. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Vũng Tàu
5.15. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Thanh Hóa
5.16. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ tỉnh Phú Yên
06 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI

6.1. Đề thi học sinh giỏi lớp 9_ tỉnh Quảng Bình _2019-2020
6.2. Đề thi học sinh giỏi lớp 9_ tỉnh X _ năm 2019 – 2020
6.3. Đề thi học sinh giỏi lớp 12 _ Tp. HCM _năm 2019-2020
6.4. Đề thi học sinh giỏi _ Tp. Hà Nội _ năm 2018 – 2019
6.5. Đề thi học sinh giỏi _ Tp. HCM _ năm 2018 – 2019
6.6. Đề thi học sinh giỏi _ Tp. HCM _ năm 2019 – 2020
07 ĐỀ THI CHI TIẾT
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC - ĐÀO TẠO Năm học 20**-20**
MÔN THI: Tiếng Anh (Dành cho thí sinh thi vào chuyên Anh)
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề);
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Ngày thi: 09/07/20**
A. PHONETICS (10 POINTS)

I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the
others in each group. (5 points)
1. A. climate B. comic C. hike D. website
2. A. worked B. laughed C. hoped D. naked
3. A. cover B. category C. ancient D. decorate
4. A. erupt B. humor C. UFO D. communicate
5. A. Buddhish B. bomb C. viable D. bulb
II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.
(5 points)
1. A. comprise B. depend C. design D. novel
2. A. tropical B. collection C. tendency D. charity
3. A. friendliness B. occasion C. pagoda D. deposit
4. A. importing B. specific C. impolite D. important
5. A. federation B. unpolluted C. disappearing D. profitable
B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 POINTS)
I. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence. (10 points)

1. All the sentences below use “the”, which is the correct one?
A. Can you pass the sugar please? B. The crime is a problem in many big cities.
C. The apples are good for you. D. I love the skiing.
2. Our friends have lived in Ho Chi Minh city_______ 2002.
A. for B. since C. in D. about
3. He prefers soccer______ tennis.
A. from B. than C. to D. or
4. If they worked more carefully, they _____ so many mistakes.
A. won’t make B. don’t make C. wouldn’t make D. didn’t make
5. He _______to his friend’s party when his parents asked him to go home.
A. goes B. was going C. went D. has gone
6. There’s a strange man behind us. I think ______.
A. we are followed B. we are being followed
C. we are being following D. we are following
7. Which of the following is the strongest advice?
A. You should get a hair- cut. B. If I were you, I’d get a hair-cut.
C. You ought to get a hair- cut. D. You really must get a hair- cut.
8. ________ you mind if I use your dictionary?
A. Will B. Do C. Can D. Did
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9. Mr. Vo Van Kiet, _______ was our former Prime Minister, was born in Vinh Long.
A. that B. whose C. Who D. whom
10. All that rubbish will have to be ________ at once.
A. get rid of B. got rid of C. got rid D. getting rid of
II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences. (10 points)
1. My friend was (make)_____ (pay)_______ back the book.

2. Hardly he (take) ________ up the book when the phone (ring) ________.
3. Can you imagine what I (come) _______ across when I (roll) ________ up the carpet yesterday?
4. If she wins the prize, it (be) __________because she (write) ______very well.
5. He resented (ask) ______ (wait) _______. He had expected the minister to see him at once.
III. Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence. (10 points)
1. A lot of toys encourage children’s_________. (imagine)

2. The factory has provided cheaper__________ lately. (produce)
3. Burning coal is an _______ way of heating a house. Gas is much cheaper. (economy)
4. According to some scientists the earth is losing its outer atmosphere because of_____. (pollute)
5. She has one of the biggest art________ in Britain. (collect)
6. __________ has caused many so-called man-made disasters. (forest)
7. __________ often walk through the streets shouting or singing about something they sell. (cry)
8. Gas and oil________ always increases in cold weather. (consume)
9. The police are interested in the sudden________ of the valuable painting. (appear)
10. He claimed that his___________ had caused him to become a criminal. (bring up)
IV. Each of the following sentences has four words or phrases underlined. The four underlined
parts of the sentence are marked A, B, C, D. You are to identify the one underlined word or
phrase that should be corrected or rewritten. (5 points)
1. Preserving natural resources mean reserving them for our future.
A B C D
2. Despite of the increase in air fares, most people still prefer to travel by plane.
A B C D
3. Regardless of your teaching method, the objective of any conversation class should be for
A B
students to practice speaking words.
C D
4. The injured man was taken to the hospital.
A B C D
6. In order for one to achieve the desired results in this experiment, it is necessary that he work as
A B
fastly as possible.
C D

C. READING (30 POINTS)
I. The reading is followed by several questions about it. There are four possible answers (A, B, C,
or D) for each question. Choose the best answer. (15 points)
BENJAMIN FRANKLIN
Few people can embody the spirit of early America as much as Benjamin Franklin. He lived
through almost the whole of the eighteenth century, being born six years after, and dying ten years
before it ended. In this time he saw the American colonies grow from tiny settlements into a nation,
and he also contributed much to the development of the new state.
At the age of 17 Franklin ran away to Philadelphia. He had already received some training as a
printer’s apprentice, and this helped him seven years later, with his first publication, the
Pennsylvania Gazette. He also received a contract to do government printing work, which helped
him to rise from his poor background to become a successful entrepreneur. Some of his experience
in business was shared in his famous Poor Richard’s Almanak, which established his reputation
throughout the American colonies. In another of his works, the Autobiography, which was written
toward the end of his life, he shows the same quiet common sense.
He was deeply interested in science and natural history, and his experiments with electricity and
lightning led directly to the invention of the lightning rod. He was also interested in improving the
conditions of his fellow men. He was involved in a number of projects in his native Philadelphia,
including the setting up of a library, a university, a philosophical society, and–because he was a
pragmatic man–a fire prevention service. In 1753 he became Postmaster–General of the colonies.
Through this experience he began to develop the idea that the colonies of North America should be
a single nation. Later, he went to London to try to persuade the British government to change the
conditions, especially the taxes, that later led the American colonists into rebellion.
Whatever Benjamin Franklin’s personal feelings about the rebellion of the American states, he
worked hard to make it succeed. As ambassador to France, he encouraged the French to help
George Washington. After the war he attended the American constitutional congress. This was his
last contribution, for he died later that year. He is still fondly remembered by Americans as one of
the creators of the United States.
1. What is a good description for this text?

A. An autobiography of Benjamin Franklin. B. The life of Benjamin Franklin.
C. The works of Benjamin Franklin. D. Franklin and American Independence.
2. When was Benjamin Franklin born?
A. 1806 B. 1794 C. 1717 D. 1706
3. Which of these happened first?
A. Franklin trains as a painter. B. Franklin runs away to Philadelphia.
C. the American colonies rebel D. Franklin starts his first publication.
4. What was Poor Richard’s Almanak about?
A. Franklin’s reputation. B. How to succeed in business.
C. how to do government printing. D. The text does not say.
5. In which countries did Franklin live?
A. England and France. B. Philadelphia and England.

C. London and America. D. England, America and France.
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in
each space. There is an example at the beginning (0). (15 points)
SAVING THE TIGER.

In 1973, when the tiger appeared to (0) be facing extinction, the World Wide Fund for nature and
__(1)____ Indian Government agreed to set ___(2)__ “Operation Tiger” – a campaign __(3)___
save this threatened creature. They started by creating nine special parks ___ (4) ___ that tigers
could live in safety. The first was at Ramthambhore , a region ___(5)__ was quickly turning into a
desert __(6)__ too much of the grass was being eaten by the local people’s cattle. At the time there
____(7)__ just fourteen tigers left there. The government had to clear twelve small villages, which
means moving nearly 1,000 people and 10,000 cattle so the land __ (8) __ be handed back to nature.
Today, Ramthambhore is a very different place, with grass tall ___(9)___ for tigers to hide in, and
There are now at _(10)___ forty of them __(11)__ the park, wandering freely about. Other animals
have also benefited. For example, there are many ___(12)____ deer and monkeys than before. The
people __(13)__ were moved are now living in better conditions. They live in new villages away
__(14)___ the tiger park, with schools, temples and fresh water supplies. There are now sixteen
such tiger parks in India and the animals’ future looks ___ (15)____ little safer.
D. WRITING (25 POINTS)

I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence printed before it,
begin with the given word(s) or phrase. (20 points)
1. You should review your lessons for the exam.
It’s time____________________________________________________________
2.That man used to work with me when I lived in New York.
That’s ____________________________________________________________
3.What a pity they close the shops at lunchtime.
I wished ____________________________________________________________
4. We like ice- cream but we don’t have it every day.
Although ___________________________________________________________
5.When did you start working in that factory?
How long ___________________________________________________________
7. Oil was slowly covering the sand of the beach.
The sand ___________________________________________________________
7. “ Where’ s the station car- park?” Mrs. Smith asked.
Mrs. Smith asked ____________________________________________________
8. He was sorry he hadn’t said goodbye to her at the airport.
He regretted _________________________________________________________
9. I advise you not to buy that car.
If _________________________________________________________________
10. Why don’t you ask her yourself?
I suggest that _______________________________________________________
II. Make full sentences based on given cues. (5 points)
1. If you/ not go/ the party/ I / go/ either.
2. Unless/I/ have/ quiet room/ I/ not/ able/ do/ work.
3. nurse/ kind enough/ help him/ walk.
4. He/ rather spend/ holidays/ a farm/ seaside.
5. I/ return/ visit/ Japan. It/ wonderful trip.
THE END
(Đề thi gồm 04 trang)
Họ và tên thí sinh: ……………………………………….. Số báo danh: ……………..

BỘ GlÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO CỘNG HÒA XÃ HỘI CHỦ NGHĨA VIỆT NAM
ĐẠI HỌC SƯ PHẠM HÀ NỘl Độc lập – Tự do – Hạnh phúc
ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH

VÀO TRƯỜNG TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG CHUYÊN NĂM 20**
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Dùng cho thí sinh thi vào chuyên Anh)
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
Question 1: A. laughter B. caught C. daughter D. augment
Question 2: A. incline B. eradicate C. exacerbate D. enclosure
Question 3: A. friends B. opinions C. picnics D. computers
Question 4: A. chimpanzee B. interviewee C. refugee D. committee
Question 5: A. politeness B. conversation C. resolution D. introduction
Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences.
Question 6: I'd love to have lived in the old days, when people.......to market by horse and
carriage.
A. have been travelling B. got used to travelling
C. would travel D. had been travelling
Question 7: I'll give you the phone number of my hotel so that you can reach me if anything
happens.
......anything happen. I want you lo look after my children.
A. Can B. Might C. Will D. Should
Question 8: We've been together through......in our friendship, and we won't desert each
other now.
A. bad and good B. thick and thin C. odds and ends D. spick and span
Question 9: ......a scholarship, I entered the frightening and unknown territory of private
education.
A. To award B. Having awarded
C. To be awarded D. Having been awarded
Question 10: Millions of people say Coke tastes best from a bottle, and whether this is
scientifically provable or not. These millions know they like the look of the bottle and the
way it fits so......into the hand.
A. neatly B. orderly C. tidily D. finitely
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Question 11: Language is so......woven into human experience that it is scarcely possible to
imagine life without it.
A. tightly B. tautly C. rigidly D. stiffly
Question 12: ......I'd like to help you out, I'm afraid I just haven't got any spare money at the
moment.
A. Much as B. Try as C. Even D. Despite
Question 13: She was very badly depressed after the car accident. Now she is beginning to
think that there could be light at the end of the.......
A. tunnel B. subway C. passage D. journey
Question 14: The government must......strong measures against crime.
A. be seen be taking B. see to be taking
C. be seen to be taking D. seen to take
Question 15: Although she would have preferred to carry on working, my mum........her
career in order to have children.
A. devoted B. abolished C. repealed D. sacrificed
Question 16: A number of landslides have ....... Nepal since the 7.8-magnitude earthquake on
25th April which killed more than 8,000 people and injured many more.
A. stroke B. caused C. hit D. blown
Choose the word whose primary stress is placed differently from that of the others.
Question 17: A. compliment B. excellent C. nominate D. distinguish
Question 18: A. remember B. quality C. occasion D. terrific
Question 19: A. worldclass B. wheelchair C. firewood D. blackmail
Question 20: A. volunteer B. referee C. spiritual D. recommend
Question 21: A. influential B. accessible C. rudimentary D. incidental
Read the passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions that follow.
GETTING
THE BEST OUT OF OUR CHILDREN
There is a strange paradox to the success of the Asian education model. On the one
hand, class sizes are huge by western standards with on average between 30 and 40 students
per class in countries like Japan and Korea. On the other hand, school children in developed
Asian economies rank among the highest in the world for academic achievement in the areas
of science and mathematics, especially on standardized tests. Meanwhile, British secondary

school students fail to shine in conditions most educational researchers would say are far
more likely to help them succeed.
Why do Asian students seem to perform so well then? Is it their legendary discipline?
Certainly, classroom management seems to be a whole lot easier in places like Korea, and
perhaps lessons are more effective as a direct consequence. After all, we are only too aware
of the decline in discipline standards in our own schools; belligerent and disrespectful
students appear to be the norm these days. Teachers in Britain seem powerless to control
what happens any more. Surely this situation cannot create a very effective learning
environment, so perhaps the number of students is far less relevant than is the manner in
which they conduct themselves.
But there are other factors to consider, too. Korean students spend a lot more time
with their teachers. It seems logical to suggest, therefore, that they might form stronger bonds
and greater trust, and that Korean teachers, in understanding their pupils better, might be able
to offer them a more effective learning programme. Of course, trust and understanding leads
to greater respect as well, so Korean students are probably less likely to ignore their teachers’
advice.
Then there is the home environment. The traditional family unit still remains
relatively intact in Korea. Few children come from broken homes, so there is a sense of
security, safety and trust both at home and at school. In Britain meanwhile, one in every two
marriages fails and divorce rates are sky-high. Perhaps children struggle to cope with
unstable family conditions and their only way to express their frustration is by misbehaving at
school. Maybe all this delinquent behavior we are complaining about is just a cry for help and
a plea for attention.
But while the Japanese, Korean and Asian models generally do seem to produce
excellent results, the statistics don’t tell the truth. Asian students tend to put their education
before literally everything else. They do very few extracurricular activities and devote far
more time to their studies than their British peers. And this begs the question: is all that extra
effort justified for a few extra percentage points in some meaningless international student
performance survey? So Asian students are on average 3-5% better at Math than Britons –
big deal! What is their quality of life like? Remember, school days are supposed to be the
best, are they not?
There has been a lot of attention and praise given to these Asian models and their
impressive statistics of late. And without question, some of this praise is justified, but it

seems to be a case of two extremes in operation here. At one end, there is the discipline and
unbelievably hard work ethic of the Asian students success in education before all else. At the
other end, British students at times appear careless and extremely undisciplined by
comparison, but at least they DO have the free time to enjoy their youth and explore their
interests. Is either system better outright? Or is it perhaps about time we stopped comparing
and started trying to combine the best bits of both, so that we can finally offer our students a
balanced, worthwhile education? We are not just dealing with statistics; never forget that
every statistic is a little human being somewhere who desperately needs our help and
guidance - who deserves it.
Question 22: What does the writer mean when he says there is a paradox in the Asian
education model?
A. There are too many students in each class.
B. Larger classes are expected to lead to poorer results but they do not.
C. Asian students outperform their peers in other countries.
D. Class sizes in Asia are much smaller in other parts of the world.
Question 23: British secondary school students........
A. do better on standardized tests B. have larger class sizes
C. fail at school more than they succeed D. enjoy better classroom conditions
Question 24: What does the writer suggest might make lessons in Korean schools more
successful than in Britain?
A. stricter classroom discipline B. better school Boards of Management.
C. more effective lesson planning D. better teachers
Question 25: What can be inferred from the utterance perhaps the number of students is far
less relevant than is the manner in which they conduct themselves?
A. Class size does not affect student performance.
B. Class size is important to maintaining control.
C. How students behave might be more important than class size.
D. How teachers conduct classes affects student performance.
Question 26: The traditional family unit.......
A. is unstable in Korea due to conditions in the home
B. is bad for children that come from broken homes
C. is disappearing in Korea due to high divorce rates
D. is more common in Korea than in Britain

Question 27: Look at the following sentence.
You see, behind those great maths and science scores, there is a quite remarkable work ethic.
Where does the sentence best fit in the paragraph?
But while the Japanese, Korean and Asian models generally do seem to produce excellent
results, the statistics don’t tell the truth. [1] Asian students tend to put their education before
literally everything else. They do very few extracurricular activities and devote far effort
more time to their studies than their British peers. [2] And this begs the question: is all that
extra effort justified for a few extra percentage points in some meaningless international
student performance survey? So Asian students are on average 3-5% better at maths than
Britons – big deal! [3] What is their quality of life like? Remember, school days are supposed
to be the best, are they not? [4]
A. [4] B. [3] C. [2] D. [1]
Question 28: According to the writer, Asian students ........
A. don't allow themselves much time to relax and have fun
B. focus too much on recreational activities
C. don't have as good a work ethic as British ones
D. make a big deal of their good results
Question 29: What are the 'too extremes’ mentioned in the last paragraph?
A. good discipline and a hard work ethic B. success and failure
C. carelessness and indiscipline D. neglecting school and neglecting free time
Question 30: Which conclusion about the two educational systems discussed would the
author most probably agree with?
A. Neither system is perfect. B. Both systems are quite satisfactory
C. The Asian system is obviously better. D. The British system is too strict.
Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each gap. The first one has been
done as an example (0).
Example: (0). A . beginning B. first C. primary D . basic
VOLUNTEERING
When Pamela Janett left university to become a (0).....school teacher, it was by no
(31)...... easy to find a job. She therefore decided to go abroad as a volunteer teacher for a
year. When she realized she would be teaching deaf and blind children, she was a (32)......
taken aback. But after a month's training she felt more confident that she would be able to
cope with the situation. The basic living conditions also (33)......as something of a shock.

Pamela's school was situated in a remote Ethiopian village, where her accommodation (34)
......of one room and a shared bathroom. Not only was the space cramped, but there was no
electricity, Internet or telephone access, so she felt totally cut (35)...... from the outside world.
Now back home in Britain, Pamela has used her
(36) ...... experience to set up a similar school for the deaf and blind which has made a
huge (37)......to dozens of children who would (38)......find themselves struggling to learn.
She is now concentrating her efforts on (39)......her school to cater for children with other
learning difficulties, too. It seems as if the more people get to know her, the (40).....the
demand is for her skills.
Question 31: A. means B. extent C. ways D. account
Question 32: A. rather B. quite C. little D. somewhat
Question 33: A. appeared B. came C. proved D. arrived
Question 34: A. combined B. consisted C. contained D. composed
Question 35: A. down B. away C. out D. off
Question 36: A. worthy B. valuable C. priceless D. precious
Question 37: A. contrast B. difference C. change D. transformation
Question 38: A. furthermore B. nonetheless C. otherwise D. however
Put each verb in brackets into a suitabie tense or form. The first one has been done as
an example (0). Example: (0) took
LEARNING TO SURVIVE
Last summer I (0. take).....a three-week survival course. The purpose of the course was (41.
teach) ..... us how to survive outdoors, where there are no shops, no houses and no electricity.
I had never slept outdoors before the course, and here I was (42. learn) .....to make a fire,
navigate and find food in the forest. The part that I (43. like) .....the most was catching our
own fish and cooking them over a fire. While (44. do) .....the course, I realised how much
people (45. depend) .....on modern technology. They think that they can't survive without it.
but they can if they (46. learn) ..... how. I did! I (47. never forget) .....that course - it was the
greatest experience I (48. ever have) .....so far. Now I think if I (49. not take).....the survival
course, I (50. not be) .....able to deal with so many difficult situations in life.
Use the word given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. The first one has
been done as an example (0). Example: (0.) likely
MODERN CULTURE?

When people talk about contemporary culture they are just as (0. LIKE)....to be
talking about fast cars, trainers or high heels as they are to be talking about Shostakovich or
Shakespeare. Goods have become as (51. MEAN) ..... a measure and marker of culture as the
Great and the Good. The word "culture" can now cover just about anything. Culture is no
longer merely the beautiful and (52. SINGLE) ….... until the late twentieth century that a (53.
SCHOLAR)....interest in objects began to (54. PLACE)…....the traditional interest in -isms,
with historians, (55. LITERATE).... critics and philosophers all suddenly becoming
fascinated by the meaning of objects, large and small. Is this a sign, perhaps, of a society
cracking under the strain of too many things? Our current (56. OBSESSIVE)......with material
culture, one might argue, is simply a (57. RESPOND.) to the Western crisis of abundance.
There are obvious problems with this (58. MATERIAL) ....conception of culture. If our
experience of everyday life is so (59 SATISFY) ......, then how much more so is the (60.
SPECTATOR)... of our everyday things under scrutiny.
Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word in each space. The first one (0) has been done as an example. Example: (0) with
When presented (0) ...... the idea of international boarding school, parents are (61)
......to baulk at the prospect of emptying their bank (62) .....to send their darlings to live a life
permeated by blackboards, bunk beds and Bovril. (63) ...... conversely, will feel overjoyed at
the prospect of signing (64).....for a literally fantastic life at Hogwarts. Such misconceptions
neatly miss the point of international boarding education, sidestepping its capacity to (65)
....... solid foundations for students' academic and professional success in today’s increasingly
global society.
Parents, understandably, require justification for (66) ..... a considerate amount of
money in their offspring's education. Their offspring, on the other hand, should be made (67)
..... of the huge number of opportunities provided by boarding school life. Most of the world's
leading boarding schools offer stimulating, progressive (68) .....which prioritizes their
students' needs, thus consistently produce graduates (69) .....are confident learners, critical
thinkers and self starters.
Therefore, the time has come for parents and students (70) ..... to discover the unique,
intellectually challenging experiences offered by international boarding schools worldwide.
Complete each of the following sentences with one of the phrasal verbs given in the box.
Each phrasal verb is used only ONCE. Make any necessary changes.

put up go up come off make up for call for
come up drop out of set up take up grow out of
Question 71: The hotels were all full so we offered to........Carla….....for the night.
Question 72: Early that morning, we set off on our journey as the sun was .........
Question 73: An enquiry was........into the use of chemicals in farming.
Question 74: You're such a good singer that you, should........ it........ professionally.
Question 75: How are they going to........the time they wasted playing cards in the barracks?
Question 76: Stop wasting your time. The whole situation......... an immediate response that
could bring more decisive effects.
Question 77: I like this photograph so much that I am going to have it….....
Question 78: As far as I know, the idea of the party does not quite appeal to him and that's
why he's thinking of.....
Question 79: I can't stop thinking there's something more that the scheme needs..........
Question 80: Peter used to be fond of collecting mascots, but after his military service,
he........the hobby.
Complete the second sentence using the word given so that it has a similar meaning to
the following sentence. Write between two and five words in the space provided on the
answer sheet. Do NOT change the word given in brackets in any way.
Question 81. That historian is famous for his vast knowledge of primitive life.
(AUTHORITY)
→ He is.......................................................................................
Question 82. Nobody could possibly believe the story about her achievements. (BEYOND)
→ The story about her achievements ..........................................
Question 83. I couldn't make sense of the radio message because of the interference.
(IMPOSSIBLE)
→ The interference on the radio ........................ to make sense of the message.
Question 84. They arrived at the station with only a minute to spare. (NICK)
→ They arrived at the station.................... time.
Question 85. David praised her exceptionally good choice of venue for the party.
(CONGRATULATE)
→ David......................................................a good venue for the party.

Complete the unfinished sentence in such a way that it means nearly the same as the
sentence printed before it.
Question 86. Were Jack not so affluent a man, she would not be dating with him.
→ But..............................................................................
Question 87. It is likely that they forgot about the extra class.
→ They.............................................................................
Question 88. Do you have any scarves? I'm looking for one that's woolen, green and fairly
long.
→ I'm looking for a...........................................................
Question 89. You should not lock this door for any reason when the building is open to the
public.
→ Under no .....................................................................
Question 90. A bee sting is more likely to cause death these days than a snake bite.
→ Death............................................................................
Write a paragraph of about 150 words about the benefits of studying at a gifted school.

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO
NGUYỄN HUỆ LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (CHUYÊN)
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Ngày thi: 8 tháng 5 năm 20**
-Thí sinh điền đáp án vào khung kẻ trống trong đề.
-Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất kỳ loại tài liệu nào kể cả từ điển và điện thoại.
-Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.
ĐIỂM GIÁM KHẢO 1 GIÁM KHẢO 2
Họ & tên: (Thống nhất) (Điểm/họ tên/chữ ký) (Điểm/họ tên/chữ ký)
SBD:
Phòng thi số:
Học sinh trường THCS:
PART I: LISTENING - (Time for listening: 2’35 x 2 = 5’10) (15pts)

You are going to listen (TWICE) to a man talking about his trips. Listen and complete the tasks.
Questions 1-5: Decide whether these statements are True (T) or False (F). Write your answers in the
box below.
1. The man often travels for his job as a rug seller.
2. The man is asked to give a talk about his trips in Europe and Africa.
3. The man is willing to answer questions at the end of his talk.
4. It often takes the man at least three months to prepare carefully for his trips.
5. The man only get information about the places he is going to visit on the Internet.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Questions 6-15: Complete the table. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORD AND/OR A NUMBER
for each answer. Write your answers into the box below.
Countries visited Interesting facts
Morocco  many (6) and beautiful mosques
Turkey  travelled there by (7)
 good for local (8)
 bought a beautiful Turkish (9)
(10)  visited Gujarati Textile (11)
 great examples of (12) embroidery
 lots of wildlife in (13) areas
 saw increadible colouful (14) and several (15) spiders
Your answers:
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
PART II: PRONUNCIATION, VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (35 points)

Questions 16-17: Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the others. Write your answers into the box below.
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16. A. advent B. invent C. decent D. percent
17. A. pursue B. hesitate C. comparison D. poster
18. A. ragged B. sacred C. dogged D. scared
Questions 18-20: Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that differs from the others in the position of the
primary stress. Write your answers into the box below.
19. A. questionaire B. introduce C. recommend D. concentrate
20. A. continuous B. scandalous C. malicious D. delicious
Your answers:
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Questions 21-30: Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences.
Write your answers into the box below.
21. I’d like to make for crashing your car. Let me pay for the repairs.
A. improments B. correctione C. amends D. adjustments
22. Thanks for lending me your umbrella; it really came in .
A. used B. handy C. handful D. needy
23. James never shows his emotions; no matter what happens, he always keeps a stiff upper .
A. mounth B. eye C. head D. lip
24. I got a new baseball yesterday.
A. stick B. racket C. club D. bat
25. Eat your vegetables. They’ll you good.
A. do B. make C. get D. help
26. Don’t drop your sweet wrapper on the floor, ?
A. do you B. aren’t you C. will you D. won’t you
27. She may have missed the train, she won’t arrive for another hour.
A. at the case B. all the case C. just in case D. in which case
28. I should like to rent a house, modern, comfortable, and in a quiet position.
A. most of all B. above all C. first of all D. after all
29. I was disappointed that the restaurant had flowers on the table.
A. false B. untrue C. artificial D. forged
30. write with your left hand when you broke your arm?
A. Did you have to B. Had you have to C. Needed you to D. Must you
Your answers:
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
Complete the sentences with the appropriate phrasal verbs from the box in their correct form. There
are two extra ones that you do not need to use. Write your answers into the box below.
put through come by die down take over bear up get into
look on join in give away call for carry out drop off
31. I didn’t think he would so well in that situation.

32. Come and help me to carry the boxes! Don’t just stand there !
33. I watched a horror film on TV last night, but I can’t remember how it ended. I must have before
the end.
34. Tomorrow, we will be an experiment to test this theory.
35. Just ask them if you can play and I’m sure they’ll let you .
36. Do you think the wind has enough for us to go sailing without any danger?
37. Environmentalists are stricter controls on the use of leaded petrol.
38. The robber couldn’t explain how he such a large amount of money when the police caught him.
39. Did you hear about the millionaire who his entire fortune to charity?
40. Who is going to the family business when Arstha’s father retires?
Page 2/6
Your answers:
31 32. 33. 34. 35.
36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
Questions 41-50: Complete the following passage by writing the correct form of the words given in
brackets. Write your answers into the box below.
RAIN MAKING
When it rains, it does not always pour. During a typical storm, a (41. COMPARE) small
amount of the lock-up moisture in each cloud reaches the ground as rain. So the idea that human intervention
- a rain dance, perhaps - might encourage the sky to give up a little (42. ADD) water
has been around since prehistoric times. More recently, would-be rain makers have used a more direct
procedure - that of throwing (43. VARY) chemicals out of aero-planes in an effort to wring more
rain from the clouds, a practice known as “cloud seeding”.
Yet such techniques, which were first developed in the 1940s, are (44. NOTORIETY) difficult
to evaluate. It is hard to (45. CERTAIN) , for example, how much rain would have fallen anyway.
So, despite much anecdotal evidence of the advantages of cloud seeding, which has led to its adoption in more
than 40 countries around the world, as far as scientists are concerned, results are still (46. CONCLUSIVE)
. That could be about to change. For the past three years (47. RESEARCH)
have been carrying out the most extensive and (48. RIGOUR) evaluation to date of a revolutionary
new technique that will substantially boost the volume of (49. RAIN) .
The preliminary (50. FIND) of their experiments indicate that solid evidence of the technique’s
effectiveness is now within the scientists’ grasp.
Your answers:
41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
PART III:READING COMPREHENSION (25 points)

Questions 51-55: You are going to read a magazine article on space travel. Five paragraphs have been
removed from the article. Choose from the paragraphs A-G the one which fits each gap (51- 55). There
is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use. There is an example at the beginning (0). Write
your answers into the box below.
CHEAP ACCESS TO SPACE
Charles Conrad went to the moon with Apollo 12 and circled the Earth in Skylab. But from now on, he is
going to aim high for himself. His company, Universal Space Lines, hopes to produce a more economic rocket
that will be able to go in space again and again.
(0) G
NASA, the U.S, government-owned space program, plans to develop such a rocket. However, the immediate
priority is missions to Mars, which will require different technology. So it is more likely that people outside
the NASA program will develop re-useable rocket design. Rick Tumlinson runs an independent organization
called the Space Frontier Foundation and firmly believes that it is time for business to get involved.
(51)
So Tumlinson is also in business to prove a point. Space is our destiny, he says, so why not get on with it a
bit more eagerly? To this end, the SFF is holding a conference in Los Angeles shortly, to be called Space:
Open for Business.
(52)
Another company, Kistler Aerospace, has similar plans; “Our goal is to become a delivery service to low
Earth orbit that will radically re-align the economics of doing business in space. Satellites will be our parcels:
our vehicles will be operated in repeated flights with air freights efficiency.”
(53)
Their own view is that it is impossible for NASA, which is government-owned, to offer an “open frontier”.
This is not a matter of budgets or schedules, but of fundamental purpose and design. NASA is “elitist and
Page 3/6
exclusive”, whereas the SFF believes in opportinities for everyone “a future of endlessly expanding new
choices”.
(54)
Of course, the ex-astronaut and businessman Charles Conrad agrees. “I’m trying to get affordable space
transportation up and operative so that everybody can enjoy space. And by the way, the Japanese are hard at
work building a space hotel.”
(55)
If he is right, mass space travel will have arrived by 2050 and space tourism will have become a viable
industry. More importantly, the human race will have made serious progress in crossing that final frontier.
A. Companies will always be looking for profit. For this reason, the SFF is not in favor of American
missions to Mars, claiming that there’s nothing in it for investors. At the same time, they do accept that
these missions could bring scientific benefits.
B. He sees the NASA program as a bit of a dinosaur. “25 years after the Wright Brothers, people could
buy a commercial plane ticket ... but many years after landing on the moon, we sat around watching
old astronauts on TV talking about the good old days.”
C. In 1997, the SFF ran a survey on the Internet, called “Cheap Access to Space”, where it asked
American taxpayers for their views on the U.S space program and on what American’s future priorities
should be in space transportation.
D. U.S government officials don’t see the future for space tourism. Here again, private companies may
well prove them wrong. David Ashford, director of Bristol Spaceplanes Limited, once said that space
tourism would begin ten years after people stopped laughing at the concept. Recently, he added this
striking comment: “people have stopped laughing.”
E. Charles Conrad is due to speak there. But his company is in fact only one of several that already have
blueprints for getting into space and back cheaply. Rotary is working on something that would be
launched like a rocket but return like a helicopter. Pioneer Rocket plane believes there could be a
million dollar market in delivering packages from one side of the planet to the other in an hour.
F. They would like to see “irreversible human settlement” in space as soon as possible and maintain that
this will only happen through free enterprise. “Building buildings and driving trucks is not what
astronauts should be doing; that’s what the private sector does.”
G “Cheap” is an important word in space technology nowadays and re-useable rockets will be a key way
of controlling costs. They will deliver things to orbits, bring stuff back to Earth and then go up again,
perhaps with machinery for a space factory, or even carrying tourists.
Your answers:
0. G
51. 52. 53. 54. 55.
Questions 56-65: Read the following passage and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each
numbered blank. Write your answers into the box below.
CRITICISM
It can take a long time to become successful in your chosen field, however (56) you are. One thing
you have to be (57) of is that you will face criticism along the way. The world is (58) of
people who would rather say something negative than positive. If you’ve made up your (59) to
achieve a certain goal, such as writing a novel, don’t let the negative criticism of others (60) you
from reaching your target, and let constructive criticism have a positive effect on your work. If someone says
you’re totally (61) talent, ignore them. That’s negative criticism. If, however, someone
advises you to revise your work and gives you good reasons for doing so, you should (62) their
suggestions carefully. There are many film stars who were once out of work. There are many famous novelists
who made a complete (63) of their first novel – or who didn’t, but had to (64)
Page 4/6
approaching hundreds of publishers before they could get it published. Being successful does (65)
on luck, to a certain extent. But things are more likely to turn out well if you preserve and stay positive.
56. A. talented B. invested C. mixed D. workable
57. A. alert B. cleaver C. intelligent D. aware
58. A. overflowing B. full C. filled D. packed
59. A. mind B. brain C. thought D. idea
60. A. cease B. remove C. avoid D. prevent
61. A. lacking B. short C. missing D. absent
62. A. think B. consider C. look round D. take
63. A. rubbish B. trash C. mess D. garbish
64. A. put off B. bank on C. keep on D. drop in on
65. A. require B. depend C. need D. trust
Your answers:
56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
61. 62. 63. 64. 65.
Questions 66-75: Read the passage carefully, then fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write
your answers into the box below.
Maybe you recycle cans, glass, and paper. Do you know that nature recycles, too? One of the things
nature (66) is water. Water goes from oceans, lakes, and rivers into the air. Water falls from the air
as (67) or snow. Rain and snow eventually find their way back to the oceans. Nature’s recycling
program for water is (68) the water cycle.
The water cycle has four stages: storage, evaporation, precipitation, and runoff. Water on Earth gets
stored in oceans, lakes, rivers, ice, and even underground. Water goes from storage into the atmosphere by a
(69) called evaporation. When water evaporates, it changes from a liquid (70) a gas,
called water vapor. Water vapor goes up into (71) atmosphere. Water returns to the Earth as
precipitation in rain or snow by changing into drops of water when the air (72) cold enough.
Clouds are collections of water droplets. Most precipitation (73) _ into the oceans and goes right
back into storage.
Water that falls on land always flows from (74) places to lower ones. This flow is called
runoff. Water from land flows into streams. Streams join (75) to make rivers and eventually the
water flows into storage in the oceans. Then the water cycle starts all over again.
Your answers:
66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
71. 72. 73. 74. 75.
PART IV: WRITING (25 poitns)

Questions 76-80: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
76. The teachers agreed to introduce the new methods.
 There was
77. There was no need for you to have gone to all that trouble.
 You
78. It’s sad, but unemployment is unlikely to go down this year.
 Sad
79. You must never mention this secret to him.
 Under
80. If you were in the situation I’m in, you’d feel the same.
 If you put
Questions 81-85: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence,
using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and five words,
including the word given.
81. I was about to leave when she turned up. (POINT)
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 I was when she turned up.
82. I wasn't expecting my colleagues to organise a farewell party on my last day at the
company. (TAKEN)
I when my colleagues organised a farewell
party on my last day at the company.
83. Considering that Luke is so young, you must admit he’s making excellent
progress as a musician. (ACOOUNT)
 If you young Luke is, you must admit he’s
making excellent progress as a musician.
84. Peter was in trouble with his boss because he didn’t finish an important project by the
deadline. (HOT)
 Peter was because he didn’t finish an
important project by the deadline.
85. You should punish him severely so that others will be afraid to behave as he did.
(EXAMPLE)
 You should so that others will be afraid to
behave as he did.
Questions 86-100: Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?

“Fast food is becoming a part of our daily life. Some people argue that fast food has
negative effects on our lifestyle and diet.”
Write about 250 words to support your opinion (and do not include your personal
information).
END
ĐẠI HỌC QUỐC GIA HÀ NỘI KỲ THI TUYÊN SINH HỆ THPT CHUYÊN NGOẠI NGỮ
TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC NGOẠI NGỮ NĂM HỌC 20** - 20**
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH – CHUYÊN
(Đề thi gồm có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát để
I. Câu 01-05: Chọn từ (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) có phần gạch dưới được phát âm khác với
những từ còn lại trong mỗi câu.
01. A. classical B. composer C. answer D. basic

02. A. feasible B. feather C. feat D. feature
03. A. foul B. doubt C. thorough D. scout
04. A. chorus B. cherish C. chaos D. scholarship
05. A. together B. worthy C. ethnic D. though
II. Câu 06-10: Chọn từ (ứ ng với A, B, C hoặc D) có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị
trí khác với những từ còn lại.
06. A. obscure B. comfort C. reform D. suppose

07. A. ability B. geography C. calculation D. technology
08. A. suspicious B. distressful C. envelope D. returning
09. A. scholarship B. balcony C. educate D. engineer
10. A. abundant B. marvelous C. destructive D. disastrous
III. Câu 11-20: Đọc đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứ ng với A, B, C hoặc D) cho mỗi câu
dưới đây.
Much of the information we have today about chimpanzees comes from the long-term research of
the great conservationist Jane Goodall. Jane Goodall was born in London, England, on April 3,
1934. On her second birthday, her father gave her a toy chimpanzee named Jubilee. Jubilee was
named after a baby chimp in the London Zoo, and seemed to foretell the course Jane‘s life would
take. From an early age, Jane was fascinated by animals and animal stories. By the age of 10, she
was talking about going to Africa to live among the animals there. At the time, in the early 1940S,
this was a radical idea because women did not go to Africa by themselves.
As a young woman, Jane finished school in London, attended secretarial school, and then worked
for a documentary filmmaker for a while. When a school friend invited her to visit Kenya, she
worked as a waitress until she had earned the fare to travel there by boat. She was 23 years old.
Once in Kenya, she met Dr. Louis Leakey, a famous paleontologist and anthropologist. He was
impressed with her thorough knowledge of Africa and its wildlife, and hired her to assist him and
his wife on a fossil- hunting expedition to Olduvai Gorge. Dr. Leakey soon realized that Jane was
the perfect person to complete a study he had been planning for some time. She expressed her
interest in the idea of studying animals by living in the wild with them, rather than studying dead
animals through paleontology.

Dr. Leakey and Jane began planning a study of a group of chimpanzees who were living on the
shores of Lake Tanganyika in Kenya. At first, the British authorities would not approve their plan.
At the time, they thought it was too dangerous for a woman to live in the wilds of Africa alone.
But Jane‘s mother, Vanne, agreed to join her so that she would not be alone. Finally, the authorities
gave Jane the clearance she needed in order to go to Africa and begin her study.
11.What is the main source of information about chimpanzees?
A. the research of Jane Goodail

B. the research of some conservationists
C. Jane Goodall‘s father
D. recent search
12.What does the name of the toy chimpanzée refer to?
A. Jane’s father
B. her favorite toy
C. a baby animal
D. her close friend
13. Which of the following is NOT true about Jane?
A. Jane was born in London.

B. She was interested in animals from her early age.
C. At the age of 10, she went to Africa to live with animals.
D. She wanted to live among animals.
14. What does “there” in Line 9 refer to?
A. Kenya B. Jane‘s hometown C. London D. London Zoo
15. Jane could not go to Africa because

A. it was thought to be dangerous for women
B. it was far away
C. no one wanted to go with her
D. Africa did not exist at that time
16. After her graduation, Jane

A. was unemployed B. did not want to work
C. worked for a zoo D. worked for a filmmaker
17. Jane had to work as a waitress because she wanted to

A. have more experience B. have money to buy the fare to Kenya
C. help her parents D. meet more people

18. Dr. Louis Leakey hired her because
A. she was Beautiful B. she was homeless
C. she knew a lot about Africa and its wildlife D. he was impressed by her beauty
19.What does “they” in line 15 refer to?
A. Dr. Leakey and his wife

B. the British authorities
C. animals
D. Jane and her mother
20. Which of the following can be the title for the reading?
A. Jublee
B. Jane’s love for toy chimpanzees
C. Jane’s love for studying animals
D. Jane’s favorite animals
IV. Câu 21-30: Đọc đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứ ng với A, B, C hoặc D) cho
mỗi chỗ trống.
Early Years
When I first entered general practice I was living in a small community on the east coast of Lake
Huron. People expected me to be (21) …….. of their last physician, and they were both
disappointed and upset when this didn‘t turn out to be the case. Although I had few (22) ……..
companions, I was a young, unmarried and attractive woman who had been through one of the
best medical schools in the country, and I had a reasonable regard for my own qualities. It was
upsetting at first when professional (23) …….. was ignored and my patients insisted on second
opinions for the most trivial of conditions, but things became even more difficult when people
started to spread malicious (24) …….. about my private life.
However, I decided that I would not let myself be made (25) …….. even if there were enough
reasons to make anyone feel (26) ……… I followed my father‘s cure for an problems – plain old
hard work. I got up early every morning, (27) …….. to my office, and followed my profession.
This was in the ‗30s and the level of poverty was (28) ……… Children didn‘t have enough to eat
and mothers couldn‘t feed them. Because I was sympathetic and able to give practical help in some
cases, my surgery became a (29) …….. for women trying to escape from the threat of domestic
violence and the trap of poverty and too many children. And ironically, as I (30) …….. the poorest
people in the community, the middle class began to think that maybe I had something to offer and
started to beat a path to my surgery door.
21. A. an equivalent B. counterpart C. a carbon copy D. the spitting image

22. A. similar B. like-minded C. corresponding D. matching
23. A. rules. B. regulations C. etiquette D. protocol
24. A. scandal B, reports C. speculation D. gossip
25. A. homesick B. miserable C. dejected D. wistful

26. A. inconsolable B. ignored C. grieving D. despondent
27. A. dashed B. sprinted C. jogged D. ran
28. A. bleak B. plaintive C. mournful D. heartbreaking
29. A. refuge B. shield C. safeguard D. safe bet
30. A. fixed B. treated C. healed D. operated
V. Câu 31-40: Chọn từ / cụm từ thích họp (ứ ng Với A, B, C hoặc D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu
sau.
31. People have used coal and oil to …… electricity for a long time.
A. cultivate B. breed C. raise D. generate
32. China is one of the most …… populated areas in the world.

A. wastefully B. perfectly C. densely D. completely
33. My application for a trading license was ……..

A. held down B. turn down C. put down D. let down
34. His wife died last year and he still can‘t …… to terms with her death.
A. come B. go C. get D. contribute
35. The car skidded to a halt after …… its headlights smashed in the crash.
A. having B. making C. letting D. doing
36. The school authorities …… the child‘s unruly behavior on his parents‘ lack of discipline.
A. attribute B. accuse C. blame D. ascribe
37. Eric works as an interpreter. He is …… in three languages.

A. fluent B. outspoken C. speechless D. knowledgeable
38. Our karate master is as quick as ……

A. wave B. thunder C. current D. lightning
39. The disappearance of one or several species may …… the loss of biodiversity.
A. result in B. result from C. result to D. result
40. I know him by …… but I have no idea what his name is.
A. sight B. myself C. heart D. chance
V. Câu 41-50: Sử dụng từ trong ngoặc ở dạng thích hợp để điền vào các chỗ trổng.
The Art of Giving and Taking

Gift exchange, which is also called ceremonial exchange, is the transfer of goods or services that,
although regarded as (41) _______ (VOLUNTEER) by people involved, is part of the expected
social (42) _______(BEHAVE). Gift exchange may be distinguished from other types of exchange
in several respects. The first offering is made in a generous manner and there is no haggling
between donor and (43) _______(RECEIVE). The exchange is an expression of an existing social
relationship or the establishment of a new one that differs from (44) _______ (PERSON) market
relationships; and the profit in gift exchange may be in the sphere of social relationship and prestige
rather than in material advantage. The gift-exchange cycle entails (45) _______ (OBLIGE) to give,
to receive, and to return. Sanctions may exist to induce people to give. (46)_______ (REFUSE) to
accept a gift may be seen as rejection of social relations a nd may lead to enmity. The reciprocity
of the cycle rests in the (47) _______ (NECESSARY) to return the gift. The prestige associated
with the appearance of (48) _______ (GENEROUS) dictates that the value of the return is (49)
_______(APPROXIMATE) equal to or greater than the value of the original (50) _______
(SIGNIFY) expression of social relations.
VII. Câu 51-60: Tìm từ thích hợp để điền vào chỗ trống trong đoạn văn. Mỗi chỗ trống chỉ
điền Một từ.
Because we feel tired at bed time, it is natural to assume that we sleep because we are tired. The
point seems so obvious that (51) _______ anyone has ever sought to question (52) _______
nevertheless, we must ask “tired (53) _______ what?” People certainly feel tired at the end of a
hard day’s manual work, but it is also unquestionable that office workers feel equally tired when
bedtime (54) _______ Even invalids, confined (55)_______ beds or Wheelchairs, become tired
(56) _______ the evening wears on. Moreover, the manual worker (57) _______ still feel tired
even (58) _______ an evening spent relaxing in front of the television or_______ a book, activities
which ought to have a refreshing effect. There is no proven connection between physical exertion
(60) _______ the need for sleep.
VIII. Câu 61-70: Sử dụng từ trong ngoặc và các từ khác dể hoàn thành câu thứ hai sao
cho nghĩa của nó tương tự như câu thứ nhất. Không viết quá 5 từ vào PHIÉU TRẢ LỜI
(tính cả từ trong ngoặc) và không được thay đổi dạng thức của từ trong ngoặc.
61. The village is the same as it was in the 1950s. (change)

The village ……………….. the 1950s.
62. I enjoy watching football more than motor racing. (rather)
I ……………….. motor racing.

63. The coffee machine in our office hasn’t worked for three months. (out)
The coffee machine in our office ……………….. for three months
64. I’m sure he hasn’t forgotten about the meeting. (must)
He ……………….. about the meeting
65. it’s a pity we don’t have a bigger apartment! (only)
It……………….. a bigger apartment
66. It was a mistake for you to insult Mike. (should)
You ……………….. Mike
67. All the students passed the exam except Jenny (who)
Jenny was the ……………….. pass the exam.
68. Despite the late departure of the Aight, it arrived on time. (allthough)
…………………, it arrived on time.
69. The man said that he didn’t been involved in the robbery. (denied)
The man ……………….. in the robbery.
70. I’ll inform you immediately on our arrival. (moment)
I’ll inform you ……………….. there.
VII. Câu 71-80: Viết lại câu thứ hai (kể cả những từ bắt đầu câu cho sẵn vào PHIẾU TRẢ
LỜI sao cho ý nghĩa ban đầu của câu không thay đổi.
71. The police didn’t at all suspect that the judge was the murderer.
Little ………………………………………………………….
72. Don’t press this red button in any circumstances.
Whatever ……………………………………………………..
73. Although he was tired, he agreed to play tennis.
Tired …………………………………………………………
74. She has doubts about her own ability. .
She lacks ……………………………………………………..
75. House prices have increased over the past year.
There …………………………………………………………
76. She finds it easy to study maths.
She has ……………………………………………………….

77. He was sentenced to six months in prison for his part in the robbery.
He received …………………………………………………..
78. The little girl is always biting her fingernails.
The little girl has …………………………………………………
79. It started to rain the moment we arrived.
No: ……………………………………………………………….
80. It is nobody’s fault that the meeting was cancelled.
Nobody is to……………………………………………………..
VIII. Câu 81: Viết một ĐOAN VĂN khoảng 120 -150 từ về chủ đề sau.
What is a very important skill a person should learn in order to be successful in the world today?
Choose one skill and use specific reasons and examples to support your choice.
THE END

Ký
- 20**
1.
Ngày thi:
2.
Phách:
I. Phonetics. (1,0 point)

a. Which word has the underlined part pronounced differently from the
others?
1. A. borrow B. prow C. growth D. low
2. A. nature B. natural C. native D. nation
3. A. n ear B. f ear C. r ear D. p ear
4. A. loud B. mouth C. southern D. boundary
5. A. pro hibit B. ex h ibition C. dishonest D. dishonor
b. Which word has the different position of stress from the others?
6. A. education B. compulsory C. intelligent D. technology
7. A. decision B. redundant C. assistant D. management
8. A. theory B. delicious C. generate D. confidence
9. A. faithfully B. sincerely C. completely D. extremely
10. A. vegetable B. interesting C. volleyball D. detective
II. Vocabulary and Grammar. (3,0 points)
a. Circle the best one (A, B, C or D) and write it in the blank to
complete the sentence.
11. We locked the door to __________our dog from getting away.
A. prevent B. keep C. block D. stop
12. If we go by the side-roads we can __________ most of the traffic.
A. be away B. avoid C. keep away D. keep distant
13. The child was too tired to walk any further so I had to _________ him.
A. take B. bring C. bear D. carry MÔN THI:
14.
__________ away, and he began to lead a normal life again.
A. faded B. backed C. passed D. got
Tr
15.
one although there are some important changes.
A. different B. differ C. difference D. differentiate
A. contaminated B. decayed C. muddy D. stale

17. The ____________________________his doctor is to get a certificate to
say that he can still drive a car.
A. time only my father visits B. only time my father visits
C. time my father only visits D. time my father visit only
Page 1/4
18. They were such good friends. I am surprised they ______________ and
no longer speak to each other.
A. broke out B. shut out C. fell out D. put out
19. Scientists _____________ a carefully controlled experiment on the
mystery virus.
A. carried over B. measured out C. carried out D. put up
A. make out B. make off C. make up D. make for

21. Her father died when she was small so she was ____________ by her aunt
and uncle.
A. brought up B. grown up C. looked over D. taken after
A. hang up B. hold on C. hang on D. call up

23. The two schoolboys were so angry with each other that they had a
_____________ fight.
a. sit down B. sit up C. stand up D. knock-down
24. There is no time to do anything but ____________ important points.
A. touch B. run C. go D. pick
b. Fill in each gap with a suitable preposition or particle.
Helen had great admiration ___________ her history teacher.

I was ___________ the impression that you liked Indian food.
You are perfectly capable _________ making your own bed, I would have
thought.
We met at the hotel completely ___________ a coincidence.
30 -31. You should try to cooperate ___________ that organization _________
every way.
32. What is his attitude ___________ the plan?
c. Complete the text with words formed from the words in capitals.
Dear Sir or Madam,

I traveled last week on a Transworld Airbus from
London Gatwick to Copenhagen. This was the (33)
___________ journey of a holiday in Denmark, a (34) OUT
___________ tour arranged through a company called PACK
____ was due to leave at FLY
th
8.20 a.m. on Tuesday 25 November, but did not in fact
leave until 20.30, a delay of more than eight hours. The
reason given was that vital (36) _________________
work had to be carried out. Although all passengers was MAINTAIN
given a free meal, no other offer of (37) ___________
was given. Such long delay is totally (38) ___________ ASSIST
and I feel justified in circumstances in requesting some ACCEPT
forms of financial (39) _________________ . I have
written to the tour (40) _____________ who denied COMPENSATE
responsibility and advised me to write to you. OPERATE
I look forward to hearing from you.
Yours faithfully,
John Brown
Page 2/4
III. Write. (3,6 points)
a. Put these words in order to complete the following sentences.
41 -42. If / down / in / there / will / you / forests / be / floods / cut / trees /, / big / the / every year / the/.
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
43 -44. With / the / civilization / , / ever / fewer / advance / people / live / in / now / forests / , / but / are / more
valuable / forests /than.
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
45-46. I / think / trash / to / of / we / the / should / to / environment / burn / garbage / protect / reduce / produce
we / the / amount.
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
47-48. The / problem / view / computer / important / universe / of / about / the / is / it / has / and / will / to/
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
49-50. Suddenly / , / a huge / thrown / away / up / , / gas / and steam / was / dust / the / cloud / fifteen / into /
the / of / sky / , / ash / miles / and / fell / on / farms / rocks / and villages / to / twenty / miles / from / volcano.
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
b. Circle the incorrect part (A. B, C or D) in the following sentences and then correct them.
51-52. Each of the students in the accounting class has to type their own research paper this semester.
A B C D ______________
53 -54. The recent developments in the field of robotics has been extremely beneficial to those who are
A B C D
physically handicapped. ______________
55-56. Reports on the rise in hotel costs come from authority sources in the industry.
A B C D ______________
57-58. Because the 70 years old building was structurally unsafe and too expensive to repair, it had
to be demolished. A B C
D ______________
59-60. The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to deteriorate from rain.
A B C D ______________
c. Rewrite the following sentences using the words in bold, in such a way that it means the same as the one
given. Do not alter these words in any way.
61 -62. You can stay with us for a few day. (put)
____________________________________________________________________________________
63 -64. They suspended Jackson for the next two matches. (banned)
____________________________________________________________________________________
65 -66. New drugs are being discovered which are helping the fight against this disease. (discovery)
____________________________________________________________________________________
67 - relieved)
____________________________________________________________________________________
69 -70. Jane bought the expensive coat without thinking about it first. (spur)
____________________________________________________________________________________
71 - contributed)
____________________________________________________________________________________
73 -74. If a group is so small that it cannot maintain a self-contained unit within the society, it may be
assimilated. (occur)
____________________________________________________________________________________
75 -76. It is highly likely that language conflict will lead to political conflict if one linguistic group blocks the
social mobility of another. (likelihood)
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
Page 3/4
IV. Read. (2.4 points)
a. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word.
The word jeans comes from a kind of material that was made in Europe. The material (77)
____________ jeans, was named after sailors from Genoa in Italy, because they (78) _____________ clothes
made from it. In the 18th century jean cloth was made completely (79) _____________ cotton and workers at
that time loved (80) _____________ it because the material was very strong and it did not wear (81)
_____________ easily. In the 1960s, many university and college students wore jeans. (82) _____________
and so on. In the 1970s more and more people started wearing jeans because they became (84)
_____________ . In the 1980s jeans finally became high fashion (85) _____________ , when famous
designers started making their own styles of jeans, with their own labels (86) _____________ them. Sales of
jeans (87) _____________ up and up. But in the 1990s the worldwide (88) _____________ situation got
worse, and the sale of jeans stopped growing.
b. Read the text and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know and we (89)
_____________ as much on what they seem to be telling us, as on the (90) _____________ words they say.
Facial (91) _____________ and tone of voice are obvious ways o showing our (92) _____________ to
something, and it may well be that we unconsciously (93) _____________ views that we are trying to hide.
The art of being tactful lies in (94) _____________ these signals, realizing what the other person is trying to
say, and acting so that they are not embarrassed in any way. For example, we may understand that they are
_____________ reluctant to answer our questions, and so we stop pressing them. Body movements in
general may also (96) _____________ feelings and interviewers often (97) _____________ particularly
attention to the way a candidate for a job walks into the room and sits down. However, it is not difficult to
character (98) _____________ and psychological tests, and the further problem of whether such tests actually
produce (99) _____________ results. For many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be an
objectionable intrusion into their private lives. Quite (100) _____________ from this problem, can such tests
predict whether a person is likely to be a conscientious employee or a valued colleague?
89. A. estimate B. rely C. reckon D. trust

90. A. others B. real C. identical D. actual
91. A. looks B. expression C. image D. manner
92. A. view B. feeling C. notion D. reaction
93. A. express B. declare C. exhibit D. utter
94. A. taking down B. putting across C. picking up D. going over
95. A. at least B. above all C. anyhow D. in fact
96. A. display B. indicate C. simply D. infer
97. A. have B. show C. make D. pay
98. A. quirks B. mannerisms C. traits D. points
99. A. faithful B. regular C. reliable D. predictable
100. A. different B. apart C. away D. except
- - - - The end - - - -
Page 4/4
SỞ GD&ĐT BÌNH THUẬN KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH (CHUYÊN)
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kểthời gian giao đề)
Đề thi gồm có 05 trang
Họ và tên: ……………………………………………………………………
SBD: ……………………………………………………………………
I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences.

1. While doing a test, you should silent.
A. make B. keep C. do D. have
2. I visit my grandmother in the countryside.
A. some time B. sometimes C. something D. some times
3. Why don't you with your school study?
A. go in B. go at C. go by D. go on
4. Lan asked me not anybody her secret.
A. tell B. telling C. to tell D. told
5. How long ago here?
A. did you come B. you came
C. were you coming D. would you come
6. Do you know who ?
A. did she talk to B. she talked to
C. talked to she D. she talked
7. The Internet is a wonderful invention modern life.
A. to B. at C. of D. on
8. Of the two geologists, one is experienced and .

A. the other are not B. the other is not
C. another is inexperienced D. other lacks experience
9. I am familiar with that product. I don't know times I’ve seen it advertised
on TV.
A. how many B. how often C. how D. how much
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10. You didn't watch the football match on TV last night, ?
A. do you B. don't you C. did you D. didn't you
11. I'm sure the in this book is quite clear to you.
A. explanation B. explain C. explaining D. to explain
12. The doctor suggested her two aspirins per day.
A. to take B. taking C. to be taken D. being taken
13. It is snowing. Would you like to on Saturday or Sunday?
A. skiing B. go to ski C. go skiing D. go ski
14. Ao dai a traditional dress in our country.
A. be considered B. is considering
C. has considered D. is considered
15. The government should do something to help .
A. the poors B. the poor ones C. poor D. the poor
16. If energy inexpensive and unlimited, many things in the world would
be different.
A. is B. were C. will be D. would be
17. They each other for ages.
A. haven't seen B. don't see C. didn't see D. won't see
18. Kate congratulated getting good marks in the entrance exam.
A. me of B. me in C. me on D. me for
19. It seemed like a good plan, but when we carried , it didn't work.
A. out B. on C. through D. over
20. I thought I would sell my house, but second thoughts I changed my
mind, and the whole I think I was wise.
A. in – in B. on – on C. on – in D. in – on
II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of
the others in each group by circling the corresponding letter (A, B, C or D).
1. A. although B. threat C. throw D. thrill
2. A. rhinoceros B. hunger C. hunt D. hydrogen
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3. A. pleased B. learned C. sounded D. steamed
4. A. where B. when C. who D. why
5. A. interview B. ink C. independent D. income
6. A. barter B. banker C. hand D. cash
7. A. sound B. southern C. drought D. mountain
8. A. power B. tower C. flow D. flour
9. A. headache B. character C. stomach D. challenging
10. A. faced B. wicked C. fixed D. wrapped
III. Put the verbs in brackets into the correct tense or form.
1. Quang (talk) to another student when I (see) him today.
2. That proposal (consider) by the members right now.
3. Less than half of the cans of paint (use) up to now.
4. A: I (lose) my glasses. I can't find them anywhere. I (look for) them for
B: Don't worry. I (do) the same thing the other week but I (find) them a few days later.
hours.
5. He is working tomorrow. If he (have) a day off tomorrow, he (go) to the beach.
IV. Correct the mistakes in the following sentences.

1. I'm afraid you've lost your test. You only got twenty three percent.
2. Congratulations! You've gained first prize in the competitions.
3. I've asked everyone where Jane is, but none can tell me.
4. I'm a bit short of cash. Can you borrow me some until tomorrow?
5. Gills has got a good job and wins a good salary.
6. Do you mind if I make a photograph of you?
7. Our school is nearby to the town centre.
8. Jane did a lot of mistakes in her composition.
9. I feel asleep. Do you mind if I go to bed?
10. My mother tried to avoid me from going to the club.
V. Fill in the blank with the correct form of the word in parentheses.
1. He treated them with . (generous)
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2. How many entered the race? (compete)
3. If you are with our service, please write to the manager. (satisfy)
4. He drives so that he often has accidents. (care)
5. Flowers are often by bees as they gather nectar. (fertile)
6. I think these thin clothes are for cold weather. (suit)
7. The computer is one of the most marvelous in our modern age. (invent)
8. She is always worried about her children's . (safe)
9. He was kept in the hospital overnight as a measure. (precaution)
10. Housework has been regarded as women's work. (tradition)
VI. Read the passage below and choose the correct answer by circling the
corresponding letter (A, B, C or D).
GREEK THEATRES
The word theatre comes from Greek and literally means seeing place. The theatre has
been popular in ancient times. People did not go to the theatre simply to see an
interesting ______(1) for the plays formed part of religious
festivals.______(2) early Greek theatres consisted of no more than a flat space
with an altar at the foot of a hillside. _____(3) that time, there were no
_______(4) as there are in modern theatres, so the _____(5) stood or sat on
the slopes of the hillside. Gradually, special theatres were made by building large stone
or wooden steps one ______(6) another up the hillside. In later times, a hut was
built at the far side of the acting area where it formed a background for the actors
_______(7)______the parts of the different characters. Eventually, a _______(8)
platform was built so that the actors could be seen more clearly. This was the first
appearance of anything ______(9)_____ our modern stage. As well as these permanent
theatres, there were simple wooden stages ______(10) around by actors wandering
from one place to another. There was also a hut with curtains that served both as
background scenery and as a dressing room.
1. A. scene B. performance C. scenery D. stage
2. A. Whole B. Complete C. Full D. All
3. A. In B. For C. At D. On
4. A. chairs B. benches C. seats D. stools
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5. A. watchers B. players C. viewers D. audiences
6. A. among B. between C. around D. behind
7. A. playing B. making C. doing D. being
8. A. lifted B. raised C. equal D. pulled
9. A. as B. like C. brought D. similar
10 A. carried B. held C. scenery D. fetched
VII. Use one suitable word to fill in each blank to complete the text.
ADVICE TO YOUNG PEOPLE ABOUT TO START WORK
In these days of high unemployment, it is often difficult (1) young people to
find a job. If they are lucky (2) to be asked to go for an interview, they may find
(3) there are at least 20 other applicants for the (4) .If a company is
thinking of offering (5) a job, they will ask you for at least one reference from
either your previous employer (6) someone who knows you well. (7)
may have to sign a contract. You will probably have to do some training (8)
help you to do the job more successfully. Once you have decided that this is your
chosen career, you will then have to work (9) to try and get promotion,
which usually brings more responsibility and more money! If you are unlucky, you may
be made redundant, and not be able to find (10) job. It is also a good idea to
pay some money into a pension scheme, which will help you to look after yourself and
your family when you are retired. Finally, good luck!
VIII. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first
sentence using the word given. Do not change the word given.
1. Could you possibly help me with this box? mind
→ Would ….___________________________________________
2. Who ate the cake?" she asked. had
→ She wanted _______________________________________
3. What sort of weather did you have on holiday? like
→ What ____________________________________________
4. The exam wasn't as hard as I expected. than
Otto Channel
→ The exam _________________________________________
5. Don't forget to contact me if you come to London. touch
→ Don't forget to _____________________________________
IX. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first one.
1. We left quietly so that we wouldn't disturb the children.
→ So as ________________________________________
2. What a pity I don't have a laptop.
→I wish ________________________________________
3. The furniture was too old to keep.
→ It was ________________________________________
4. People say football is the best game to play.
→ Football_______________________________________
5. “Can you do me a favor?” she said to me
→ She __________________________________________
The end
Otto Channel
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN HÀ TĨNH
HÀ TĨNH NĂM HỌC 20** - 20**
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (Chuyên)

(Đề thi có 10 trang)
 Thí sinh không sử dụng bất kỳ tài liệu nào, kể cả từ điển.

 Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi, ghi câu trả lời vào các ô cho sẵn.
 Riêng phần trắc nghiệm thí sinh chỉ ghi đáp án A, B, C hoặc D.
 Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
Điểm của toàn bài thi Cán bộ chấm thi Số phách

Bằng số Bằng chữ (Ký và ghi rõ họ tên) (Do Chủ tịch Hội đồng chấm thi ghi)
1.
2.
I. LISTENING
Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe hiểu:
 Bài thi gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe đều có tín hiệu và lời
dẫn. Thí sinh có thời gian để đọc phần đề và nội dung bài nghe.
 Sau khi nghe hết 3 phần của bài nghe, thí sinh có thời gian để viết đáp án vào các ô cho sẵn ở cuối
các phần.
Part 1. You will hear two friends, a boy-Rolf, and a girl-Maria, talking about the jobs they would
like to do in the future. Decide if each sentence is True (T) or False (F). You will hear the recording
twice. Write your answers in the numbered boxes below.
1. Rolf may go traveling for half a year before deciding his job.
2. Maria would like to travel a lot as part of her job.
3. Rolf thinks Maria is good at languages.
4. Maria is confident that she will be able to work for an airline.
5. Rolf intends to do a job connected to his degree.
6. Maria and Rolf agree it is important to have a good salary.
7. Maria hopes to work for several different employers.
8. Rolf’s ambition is to manage his own company one day.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
Part 2. You will hear part of a conversation between a college tutor and a man who wants to book
a place on a course. Listen and fill in the application form. You need to write your word(s) or
phrase(s) in each box. You now have 45 seconds in which to look at part 2. You will hear the
recording twice. Write your answers in the numbered boxes below.
Musical instrument making course

Name: Nathan Spruce
Address: 4, Oakland (9) ____________________ Barnstable
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Course:(10) ______________________________
Accommodation: (11)________________________
With: (12)________________________
Basic fees: (13) ________________________
Fees with accommodation: (14)________________________
Deposit to be paid: (15) ________________________
Method of payment: (16) ________________________
Instrument, if any, made before? (17) ________________________
Instruments to be made this time: (18) ________________________
Any special dietary requirements? (19) ________________________
Any other requirements? (20) ________________________
Your answers:
9. 10. 11.
12. 13. 14.
15. 16. 17.
18. 19. 20.
Part 3. You will hear five people talking about their cars and driving. Choose from the list A-F
which statement applies to which speaker. Use the letters only once. There is ONE extra letter
which you do not need to use. You now have 30 seconds in which to look at part 3. You will hear
the recording twice. Write your answers in the numbered boxes.
A. This speaker is a careful driver Speaker 1 21

B. This speaker is a learner driver Speaker 2 22
C. This speaker is an aggressive driver Speaker 3 23
D. This speaker is a professional driver Speaker 4 24
E. This speaker is a nervous driver Speaker 5 25
F. This speaker is a considerate driver
Your answers:
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
II. GRAMMAR AND LEXICAL ITEMS

Part 1. Choose the correct word or phrase to complete each sentence. Write your answer A, B, C or
D in the numbered boxes.
1. At around two years of age, many children regularly produce sentences _______ three or four words.
A. are containing B. containing C. contained D. contains
2. The Disney amusement park in Japan is _______ Florida or California.
A. the largest than the ones in B. larger than the ones in
C. larger the ones in D. the largest of the ones
3. Less moderate members of Congress are insisting that changes in the social security system _______
made.
A. will B. are C. being D. be
4. I saw the children _______ parents are looking for a babysitter.
A. who they B. whose C. whom D. who
5. That television show always makes me _______.
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A. laugh B. to laugh C. laughing D. to be laughing
6. The most important question _______ when buying a car is not necessarily its price.
A. asks B. to ask C. is asked D. be asked
7. I _______ to the party if I had known Susan was going to be there.
A. will be going B. will go C. would go D. would have gone
8. You think she is coming to the meeting tonight, _______ ?
A. don’t you B. won’t you C. isn’t she D. doesn’t she
9. The fishermen released all _______ the fish.
A. but two B. but two of C. of but two D. of but two of
10. _______ all day cleaning the house, she was upset when the children made a mess.
A. Spending B. She has spent C. Having spent D. To spend
11. They decided to build a new school _______ than repair the old building.
A. other B. rather C. instead D. besides
12. There wasn’t enough rain, so my plants _______ to grow.
A. lost B. failed C. stopped D. finished
13. Most flowers are pretty, but this one is the _______ to the rule.
A. exception B. affirmation C. exemption D. adaptation
14. Lisa has a _______ range of interests. She likes sports and art.
A. deep B. thick C. heavy D. broad
15. - Do you think that our school should hold a monthly English speaking contest? - _______.
A. You can say that again B. You’re very welcome
C. Yes, thanks D. You can’t say like that
16. Those peaches we bought are not quite _______ yet.
A. substantial B. delicate C. steady D. ripe
17. The salesman _______ me my order would be ready by tomorrow.
A. settled B. secured C. assured D. proved
18. With regard to the car accident, the court determined that Jerry was at _______.
A. guilt B. fault C. risk D. purpose
19. I want all of you to hand in your paper by next Sunday _______.
A. without failure B. without fail C. without failures D. without fails
20. Competitive _______ is an essential requirement for success in entertainment industry.
A. mind B. thought C. spirit D. soul
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Part 2. Fill in the gaps the most suitable preposition or particle. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes.
1. My son has recently taken ________ stamp collecting as a hobby.
2. She came _______ a fortune when her uncle died.
3. He made _______ a rather unconvincing excuse for the work being late.
4. The company can't expect me to move my home and family _______the drop of a hat.
5. You shouldn’t eat that soup. It has gone _______.
6. This measure inevitably means higher taxes _______ the long run.
7. No one could ever accuse this government _______ not caring about the poor.
8. He invented a new game, but it never really caught _______.
9. I must apologize ______ cancelling our meeting at such short notice.
10. Most children don’t like being kept at home _______ June 1st, do they?
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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Part 3. Use the word given in CAPITAL to form a word that fits in the text. Write your answers in
the numbered space provided in the column on the right.
Your answers here
Of all the sports that originated in England, I am most impressed by the
Boat race. The first Boat race was a memorable occasion and took place in
1829. One of the first (1) FOUND of the race was Charles Wordsworth 1…………………………..
who had (2) SUCCESS established the university cricket match in 1827. 2………………………….
Today, almost two centuries later, one of the most (3) AMAZE things 3………………………….
about the race is its worldwide (4) POPULAR. In fact, there is even a 4………………………….
Boat race society which is responsible for the annual (5) DISTRIBUTE of 5………………………….
videos of the race to all its members. The race is rowed on the River
Thames in London over a (6) LONG of about four miles. Thousands stand 6………………………….
on the banks to watch, however (7) PLEASE and cold weather might be. 7………………………….
Just (8) OCCASION if weather is very windy, a boat may fill with water 8………………………….
and sink a (9) DRAMA sight and obviously a great (10) EMBARRASS to 9………………………….
the boat’s crew. 10………………………….
Part 4. Each line of the passage below contains a mistake. Find the mistakes and correct them.
Passage Line
Any supermarket you walk into those days have got at least one aisle dedicated to 1
organic foods. Nowadays we are seeing more and most ‘organic only’ supermarkets 2
opening too. Is this because of the owners of these chains are determined to improve 3
consumers’ choice and protect them from the harmful effects of food addition? I decided to 4
sample some meats, dairy products and fruit and vegetables marketing as organic whole 5
foods. Therefore, after some research, I discovered that none of the foods were grown 6
local. They also claim that preservatives are not used in their products-so, given that these 7
same products are transported over long distances before they reach them destination on the 8
supermarket shelves, just how ‘fresh’ do they? I’m not sure I really want to pay twice the 9
price of regular supermarket product and go the risk of getting food poisoning into the 10
bargain.
Your answers:
Mistakes Corrections Mistakes Corrections
1........................................ -> ................................. 6...................................... -> ..............................
2. .......................................-> ................................ 7...................................... -> ..............................
3. ...................................... -> ................................ 8...................................... -> ..............................
4. ...................................... -> ................................ 9...................................... -> ..............................
5. ...................................... -> ................................. 10.....................................-> ..............................
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III. READING
Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answers in the numbered boxes.
Manufacturing fame
Britain is star struck. Fascination with celebrities has no equal anywhere else in the world. Walk into
any newsagent’s in Britain and you will be confronted by a huge range of magazines that (1) _______ a
public hunger for celebrity gossip.
Britons buy more celebrity magazines than Americans,(2) _______ having a population that is only
one-fifth the size. Celebrity news often makes the (3) _______ page of British tabloid newspapers.
However, celebrity gossip was once a cheap and nasty business, and its journalists were (4) _______
down on as a second- and third-rate. But it now has turned into its own entertainment industry.
Many celebrities are famous due to the celebrity industry created (5) _______ the press and not for
any particular talent. The celebrity depends on the press to (6) _______ money. The press needs the
celebrities to (7) _______ more copies. Celebrities and their agents, (8) _______ and editors have found
that the best way to create an endless supply of celebrity news is to work together. Many people would
be surprised to learn that a large proportion of the celebrity pictures that look like an invasion of (9)
_______ are in fact staged. It’s an arrangement that keeps all involved very happy indeed. And the
public, ignorant of what goes on behind the (10) _______, remains very hungry for more gossip.
1. A. cater to B. live up to C. nose about D. go around

2. A. but B. in spite C. however D. despite
3. A. first B. front C. main D. big
4. A. looked B. caught C . watched D. seen
5. A. with B. by C. of D. at
6. A. take B. make C. do D. find
7. A. sell B. buy C. read D. dictate
8. A. photographers B. photographic C. photography D. photographically
9. A. private B. personal C. publicity D. privacy
10. A. secrets B. scenes C. stages D. curtains
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8 9 10.
Part 2. For questions 1–10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use
only one word in each gap. Write your answers in the numbered boxes.
The world’s first cities
Archaeological research (1) _______ shown that the Sumerians established the world’s first cities in
Mesopotamia, the region between the Tigris and Euphrates rivers in the Middle East. They learnt to
control the flood of the two rivers and (2) _______ able to grow crops such as barley, wheat, and sesame,
and many different kinds of fruit and vegetables. As a result, they had a constant food supply. Thus,
people could settle (3) _______ in one place and, eventually settlements that had been little villages grew
into self-governing city-states. At (4) _______ centre of each city-state (5) _______ a religious temple
surrounded (6) _______ law courts and public buildings. The homes of the most important people, such
as priests and merchants, were closest (7) _______ the centre; then came the homes of government
officials, shopkeepers and craftsmen, and, finally, the homes of the lower classes (8) _______ farmers,
unskilled workers, and fishermen. The city-state also included the fertile farming land outside the city
wall. Each city-state was (9) _______ pressure to protect its farming land from invaders, who were
usually neighboring city-states. The citizens had to defend themselves and protect their cities. Without
a(n) (10) _______, this led to the establishment of the first organized armies.
5
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 3. Read the following four passages and choose the option A, B, C, or D that best answers the
questions. Write your answers in the numbered boxes.
Section A
To: Solutions Tech Supervisors
From: gloria@hr.solutionstech.com
Subject: Company Picnic
Dear Supervisors,
This is a reminder about our annual company picnic on June 15. We still need managers to volunteer to
help out.
• Set up children’s activities (2–4 p.m.) • Greet employees (5–7 p.m.)
• Assist with games (5–7 p.m. or 7–9 p.m.) • Collect food donations (5–7p.m. or 7–9p.m.)
We want to make this a great event for all our employees. If you can lend a hand, contact me by June 1.
Please state activity and time shift preference.
Sincerely,
Gloria Jones, Planning Committee
Section B. Evening at the riverside park

All Solutions Tech Company employees and families.
June 15, 5 p.m.–9 p.m.
For even more fun and maybe starting a new tradition, we’re having a circus at our annual company
picnic. As usual, we’ll provide lots of good food and drink and live music. Our charity event this year is
a collection for the City Food Bank. JBJ Circus will perform under the Big Tent, including:
• The Amazing Acrobats: The Rossi Family • So Jo the Clown and His White Dog
• Clara and Her Dancing Horses
Also, special children’s games and activities including face painting and clown magic. Don’t forget to
bring along a donation for City Food Bank.
Section C. City Food Bank in Urgent Need of Donations

City Food Bank is running extremely low on canned goods and other nonperishable foods. To meet the
need, City Food Bank is urging community groups, neighborhood clubs, and local businesses to hold
food drives. “We are in particular need right now because of the bad weather that hit our community.
Many homes were flooded last month, so many people who don’t normally use our service came in for
food assistance.” City Food Bank is a not-for-profit organization dedicated to reducing hunger. It is the
oldest food-relief agency in the Riverside area. It is located at 549 Park Road, Riverside, and donations
are accepted every day from 9 a.m. to 9 p.m.
Section D. Executive Profile: Jeff Blackstone

Chief Development Officer, Solutions Tech Company
Jeff Blackstone, CDO of Solutions Tech Company, the largest computer-support business in Michigan,
likes working with people as much as with computers. Blackstone believes that success on the job is tied
to several factors. One is that employees have fun together when they are not working. He is pleased that
his company is even bringing in a circus for their annual company picnic. Blackstone worked for several
years in computer development before studying organizational psychology at State University. He
believes some companies’ employees end up just doing jobs they are good at but don’t like. He thinks
that is a formula for stress on a worker. At Solutions Tech, Blackstone’s primary responsibility is to
match employees with the kind of tasks they like and do best. Since joining Solutions Tech eight years
ago, he’s been earning the praise of the employees there as well as the respect of the whole community
for his support of local charities. “One of the charities that I think is so important is City Food Bank,”
said Blackstone. Blackstone volunteers at the food bank once a month. He added that he’s really looking
6
forward to the company picnic where he’ll be personally helping City Food Bank build up its food
supply.
1. What is the main purpose of section A?

A. to find out who needs volunteers. B. to get help with a company event.
C. to encourage people to attend an event. D. to announce the time of a company picnic.
2. According to section B, what should people take to the event?
A. picnic food and drinks for their family. B. an item to donate to the food bank.
C. games for children to play. D. money to attend the circus.
3. According to section B, what will be available for the first time this year?
A. food and drinks B. live music C. circus performances D. charity collection
4. According to section C, why does the food bank need donations now?
A. It is the only place hungry people can get food. B. Food there has become quite old.
C. A flood has caused more people to use it recently. D. It does not have any canned goods available.
5. According to section C, what kind of food would be an acceptable donation?
A. eggs B. fresh fruit C. bread D. dried beans
6. What is the main purpose of section D?
A. to help City Food Bank. B. to attract a new chief development officer.
C. to clarify the business of a large computer company.
D. to provide information about Blackstone, a Solutions Tech employee.
7. What did Blackstone do before working where he does now?
A. worked with computers. B. taught psychology at a university.
C. did financial planning at a bank. D. managed a charity.
8. What does the word “that” in section D refer to?
A. workers doing jobs that they don’t like. B. workers doing jobs that they’re not good at.
C. employees afraid of losing their jobs. D. employees having too much work to do.
9. Which sections include information about a company event?
A. A, B, and C B. A, B, and D C. A, C, and D D. B, C, and D
10. What will Jeff Blackstone probably be doing on June 15?
A. setting up children’s activities B. collecting food donations
C. assisting with games D. greeting employees
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 4. You are going to read four texts about food additives. For questions 1-10, choose from the
article(A-D). The article may be chosen more than once. Write your answers in the numbered
boxes.
Which person or people
says that manmade additives could cause behavioral problems? 1
describes an additive that can stop important substances being digested? 2
mentions an additive that influences dental hygiene? 3
admits that foods can contain under-researched and poisonous additives? 4
recognizes that additives can prevent large-scale outbreaks of disease? 5
states that we have to use additives as a result of overpopulation? 6
mentions that different types of people need to eat different food? 7
7
states that food additives were used in the pre-modern era? 8
says that manufacturers are more closely observed as a result of information on food 9
packaging?
states that all ingredients are examined before they are sold? 10
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Food additives
Four food and nutrition experts discuss the use of additives in food.
A. Koni Nakamura: nutritionist
Diet is very important to every individual’s health and well-being. I’ve got clients from all walks of
life who have different needs and requirements when it comes to the food they eat. Many people believe
that if a food label says ‘no fat’ or ‘low in fat’, then it must be healthy. I cannot stress enough how untrue
this is. You would think, with the bad reputation fats have got, that a ‘non-fat’ fat would be ideal.
Fake fats contain no fat, no calories and no cholesterol, but they come at another price. These food
additives prevent vitamins A, E and D from being absorbed into the body. Such substances are thought to
keep the immune system healthy and prevent some cancers. Fake fats are also responsible for digestive
problems if people consume too many of them.
B. Lynne Davis: food scientist
Food additives are not solely manufactured by the chemical industry, since a number of common
additives are extracted from naturally-occurring substances. The best known additives are preservatives,
colors and flavors, but many others are commonly used, such as antioxidants, thickeners and sweeteners.
Some of these additives are essential in our modern world. Without preservatives, food would go off
quickly and that would result in a lot of waste. Scientists don’t just add chemicals to food without
researching the substances first. Every constituent of processed food is tested before it is used. There are
also tight food regulations all over the world which control the use of additives. There are a few bad
apples out there who add dangerous toxins to their foods without testing them thoroughly, but I know
that the world’s ever-increasing population dictates that we have to find ways to make our food resources
go further and last longer.
C. Ivan Mendes: food historian
People have been enhancing their food with naturally available flavorings, preservatives and colors
for centuries, but there has been an increase use of food additives since the 19th century. Since the 1980s,
additives are required to be identified on food labels. The use of these labels and nutrition facts on food
products has opened the food industry to more public scrutiny. As a result, the production of processed
foods in particular has become a matter of controversy. Many people have become so skeptical of
additives that they don’t recognize the potential health benefits. In the 1940s, for example, calcium was
added to flour to prevent the fat rickets, a disease that causes the softening of bones in children. Other
example include antioxidants being used to prevent the fat in meats going rancid and the use of fluoride
in public water supplies to reduce tooth decay.
D. Jyoti Sharma: food safety officer
There has been significant controversy associated with the risks and benefits of food additives. Some
artificial food additives have been linked to cancer, digestive problems, neurological conditions, heart
disease, obesity and even hyperactivity in children. People are less inclined to question natural additives
which have been found to be similarly harmful. They can also be the cause of allergic reactions in certain
individuals. However, what food additives do to food itself is what many people fail to consider. Many of
the constituents that you read about on the food and nutrition labels are absolutely essential to
commercial food preparation and storage. The job of a food safety officer would be much harder if food
went off quickly. Food-borne illnesses and epidemics would not only become more widespread, they
would become almost impossible to pinpoint and eliminate. There’s no doubt in my mind that additives
are more beneficial than they are harmful.
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IV. WRITING
Part 1. Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence
in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change
the form of the given word. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given.
Write your answers in the gaps provided.
1. I missed the match because I didn’t remember to set the alarm. (FORGOTTEN)
If I had_____________________________________________________not have missed the match.
2. A friend of ours fixed our car for us. (HAD)
We _______________________________________________________________our car.
3. Persuading Adrian to participate in your project was a bad thing to do . (TALKED)
You should __________________________________________________________ in your project.
4. Sally no longer bothers to encourage Joe to take exercise. (GIVEN)
Sally __________________________________________________________ Joe to take exercise.
5. I’d like to remind you that there are no circumstances in which employees are allowed to leave early.
(CIRCUMSTANCES)
I’d like to remind you that __________________________________________________ employees
allowed to leave early.
Part 2. ESSAY
New technologies have changed the way children spend their free time. Do advantages of this
outweigh disadvantages?
In about 250 words, write an essay to express your opinion on the issue. Use reasons and examples to
support your composition.
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UBND TỈNH BÀ RỊA - VŨNG TÀU KY THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN
SỞ GIÁO DỤC - ĐÀO TẠO Năm học 20** - 20**
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 9 (Cho thí sinh thi vào chuyên Anh)
Đề chính thức Thời gian: 120 phút ( không kể thời gian giao đề )
Ngày thi: 25/ 6/ 20**
A. pronunciation (10 points).

I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronunced differently
from the others in each group. (5 points)
1. A. author B. other C. there D. they
2. A. forest B. control C. product D. ecology
3. A. industry B. translate C. construction D. satisfy
4. A. baggage B. courage C. damage D. invasion
5. A. advantage B. addition C. advertise D. adventure
II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of
the others. (5 points)
A. deposit B. festival C. institute D. resident
A. surprising B. astonishing C. amazing D. interesting
A. interview B. industry C. essential D. difficult
A. extreme B. generous C. lonely D. clothing
A. friendly B. extra C. along D. orphanage
B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 points).
I. Choose the best answers to completes each sentence. (10 points)
1. One problem for teacher is that each student has his/ her own ________ needs.
A. separate B. divided C. individual D. distinctive
2. I was ________ in the book I was reading and didn’t hear the phone.
A. submerged B. distracted C. gripped D. engrossed
3. If we hurry, we might get there ________ to catch the early train.
A. right B. in time C. on time D. before time
4. To get a passport, you must send in your birth ________ and two photos.
A. certificate B. licence C. paper D. card
5. She tries to set ________ an hour a week for practice.
A. about B. down C. aside D. in
6. ________ stay the night if it’s too difficult to get home.
A. At all costs B. By all means C. In all D. On the whole
7. Robert and his wife ________ to my house for tea yesterday evening.
A. came round B. came about C. came down D. came away
8. Each of the guests ________ a bunch of flowers.
A. are given B. is given C. were given D. give
9. To everyone’s surprise, Mr Brown ________ at the Trade Union meeting.
A. turned in B. turned over C. turned up D. turned round
10. Everyone burst out laughing. There was a lot of ________.
A. laughs B. laughter C. laughings D. laugh

II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (10 points)
1. I (meet) ________ John before I (be) ________ a fortnight in Paris.
2. The children were frightened because the lights suddenly (go) ________ out and they (sit)
________ in the dark.
3. What tune (play) ________ when we (come) ________ in?
4. She was badly hurt when her car hit another car. If she (wear) ________ her seat belt, she
(not hurt) ________ so badly.
5. Coming into the room he (see) ________ Mary where he (leave) ________ her.
III. Give the correct form of the verbs to complete the passage. (10 points)
1. We go to the restaurant for ________ whenever we ‘re tired of eating meat. (vegetable)
2. Don’t worry. I ‘ll be waiting for you at the ________ to the pagoda . (enter)
3. The old theater of our city is being enlarged and ________. (modern)
4. Advertisements acount for three fourths of the ________ of the newspaper. (come)
5. What is the ________ of the adjective “solid”. ( oppose)
6. ________ should complain if they are not satisfied with the service they recieve.
(Consume)
7. If your work is ________ you won’t get a raise. (satisfy)
8. ________ are alarmed by the rate at which tropical rainforest are being
destroyed.(Conserve)
9. The athletes take part in the Olympic Games in the true spirit of ________. (sport)
10. You can never be sure what he is going to do. He is so ________. (predict)
IV. Arrange these sentences to make a complete passage (10 points).
a. As they built bigger and bigger ships, they were able to sail further and further away.
b. They don’t really mean that the world is getting smaller, of course.
c. They found that as they sailed further away from their home countries, the world became
bigger.
d. Then men began to use ships to explore the world.
e. Today there are no undiscovered countries left to put on the map, but there are many new
worlds to discover out in space.
f. But 2,300 years ago the Egyptians and the Greek thought that the world was very small
and flat that around it was the ocean.
g. We often hear people saying that the world is getting smaller.
h. So they had to make new maps to show the countries that they found.
i. And they discovered new countries that they didn’t know about.
j. What they mean is that with modern means of transport, we can now reach every part of
the world very quickly.
C. READING (30 points).
I. Read the passage below and choose the best answer for each question. (5 points)
People have been playing with marbles for thousands of years. The first marbles were
probably either river stones that happened to be naturally round enough to roll or, more likely,
rounded globs of clay that were baked hardness. Such very old clay marbles have been found
in both Greek and Roman ruins, and quartz spheres have been dated at around 6000 B.C.
Harder and more durable marbles tend to inspire different kinds of games than soft clay
marbles, which crack very easily. So with the advent of hand rounded and polished marbles

made of agate or some other rugged, igneous rock, the ‘golden age’ of marbles and marble
play flowered. Stone marbles began to appear in the early 1800s in what is now the southern
part of Germany. Shortly after, handmade glass marbles appeared in the same part of Europe.
For the next 120 years, marbles and marble playing-there were literally hundred of games -
flourished in both Europe and America. Marble players developed their own vocabulary for
different sizes and materials of marbles, as well as for the many kinds of games to be played
and the way marbles were used in the games. For example, if you were going to play a game
of Ring-Taw, one of the most popular and enduring marbles games, you would lag for the first
shot, and then knuckle down from the “baulk”, trying your best to get a “mib” or two with your
opponent’s “immie”.
1. The author makes the point in the passage that playing with marbles __________.
A. has been going on since ancient times C. is losing popularity
B. is a relatively recent phenomenon D. is a very expensive pastime
2. According to the passage, which of the following was the least used substance for making
marbles?
A. agate B. glass C. rock D. clay
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the use of marbles became very popular in Europe
and America __________.
A. in the 18th century C. in 6000 B.C
B. in the 1970s D. after glass marbles were developed
4. We can infer from the passage that marble playing __________.
A. is a game only for children C. is played according to one set of rules
B. has many variations in games D. uses only one kind of marble
5. We can conclude from lines 11-12 of the passage that the terminology of marble playing is
__________.
A. specialized C. easy to understand
B. used only by children D. derived from an ancient language

II. Read the text and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. (15 points)
Look on the bright side

Do you ever wish you were more optimistic, some one who always (1) _______ to be
successful? Having some one around who always (2) _______ the worst isn’t really a lot of
(3) _______ we all know someone who sees a single cloud on a sunny day and says,b “It looks
(4) _______ rain.” But if you catch yourself thinking such things, it’s important to do
something (5) _______ it. You can change your view of life, (6) _______ to psychologists, it
only takes a little effort, and you’ll find life more rewarding as a (7) _______ . Optimism, they
say, is partly about self-respect and confidence, but it’s also a more positive way of looking at
life and all it has to (8) _______ . Optimists are more (9) _______ to start new projects and
generally more prepared to take risks.
Upbringing is obviously very important in forming your (10) _______ to the world. Some
people are brought up to (11) _______ too much on others and grow up forever blaming other
people when anything (12) _______ wrong. Most optimists, on the (13) _______ hand, have
been brought up not to (14) _______ failure as the end of the world-they just (15) _______
with their lives.
1. A. counted B. expected C. felt D. waited
2. A. worries B. cares C. fears D. doubts
3. A. musement B. play C. enjoyment D. fun
4. A. so B. to C. for D. like
5. A. with B. against C. about D. over
6. A. judging B. according C. concerning D. following
7. A. result B. reason C. purpose D. product
8. A. supply B. suggest C. offer D. propose
9. A. possible B. likely C. hopeful D. welcome
10. A. opinion B. attitude C. view D. position
11. A. trust B. believe C. depend D. hope
12. A. goes B. falls C. comes D. turns
13. A. opposite B. next C. other D. far
14. A. regard B. respect C. suppose D. think
15. A. get up B. get on C. get out D. get over
III. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete this passage. (10 points)
Travelling to all corners of the world is (1) _______ easier and easier. We live (2) _______
a global village, but how well do we know and understand each other ? Here is (3) _______
simple test. Imagine you have arranged a meeting at 4 p.m . What time should you expect
your foreign business colleagues to arrive? If they are German, they ‘ll be exactly (4) _______
time. If they are American, they ‘ll probably be 15 minutes early. If they are Bristish, they be
15 minutes (5) _______, and you should allow up to an hour for the Indians. Therefore, these
are some small advice in (6) _______ not to behave badly abroad. In France you shouldn’t sit
down in a cafard untill you are shaken hands with everyone you know.In Afghanistan you ‘d
better spend at last 5 minutes (7) _______ hello. In Pakistan you mustn’t wink. It is offensive.
In the Middle East you must never use the left hand for greeting, eating, drinking or smoking.
Also, you should care not to admire (8) _______ in your host’s home. They will feel that they

have to give it to you.In Russia you must your hosts drink for drink or they will think you are
unfriendly. In Thailand you should clasp your hands (9) _______ and lower your head and
your eyes when you greet someone. In America you should eat your hamburger with both
hands and as quickly as (10) _______. You shouldn’t try to have a conversation until it is
eaten.
D. WRITING (20 points).
I. Rewrite the sentences in such a way that they mean almost the same as those printed
before them. (10 points)
1. My brother studies now harder than he used to.
My brother
.............................................................................................................................
2. Please don’t ask me that question.
I’d rather
................................................................................................................................
3. I last saw Bob when I was in Ho Chi Minh City.
I haven’t
.................................................................................................................................
4. John only understood very little what the teacher said.
John could hardly
..................................................................................................................
5. Tom will be twenty next week.
It’s Tom’s
..............................................................................................................................
6. She is fond of her nephew although he behaves terribly.
She is fond of her nephew in
.................................................................................................
7. He prefers reading books to watching TV.
He would
...............................................................................................................................
8. He didn’t hurry, so he missed the bus.
If
............................................................................................................................................
9. The train takes longer than the plane.
The plane
...............................................................................................................................
10. I don’t suppose you have change for 2 pounds, do you?
Do you happen
.......................................................................................................................
II. Use the promps provided to write full sentences to make a complete letter. (10 points)
Dear Sir / Madam,
1. I / like / express / concern / increasing number / karaoke bars / city.
2. There be / lot / reason / I object / places.
3. Firstly, / owners / take / much money / those / come / sing.

4. Secondly, / they cause / much noise / neighborhood.
5. Thirdly, / there / number / pupils / play truant / just / go / those places / sing.
6. Last / least / these bars / do harm / appearance / city / because / their / ugly flashing lights.
7. I want / say / I / not / old fashioned person.
8. I hope / authority / take / matter / careful consideration.
9. I / not mean / ban them / but / there should / effective way / control / this kind /
entertainment places.
10. I / look / see / city council / do / this master.
Yours truly, Thomas Cruise.
---------- The end ----------

(Đề thi này có 04 trang)

ĐỂ THI TUYẾN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 CHUYÊN ANH TỈNH VĨNH PHÚC
Năm học 2016 – 2017
(Thời gian: 120 phút)
PART A. LISTENING (2.0 points)

Part 1. You are going to listen to a conversation between an admissions officer
and a prospective student university. The recording will be played twice.
Questions 1-5. Complete the form below using NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS AND / OR NUMBERS.
Name: Anne (1) .

D.O.B: (2). 1981.
Address: (3). Simon Place, Brighton.
Contact number:
(4) .
Questions 6-10. Answer each of the following questions using NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS.
6. What is the applicant's current job?

7. Which university course has she already completed?
8. Which might the student not get on the MBA course?
9. What is her second choice?
10. Which department will contact the applicant?
Part 2. Listen to the recording twice and complete the following sentences using
ONE word or number for each gap.
Jim recommends Pagagnini to the whole (1) .
Jim saw a Pagagnini concert last year in (2) .
As well as classical music, Pagagnini play rock, (3) , country and Western.
Jim says the Pagagnini show has no (4) .
The first performance of Rhithm of the Dance was in (5) in Norway.
More than (6) million people have seen Rhithm of the Dance live on stage.
Jim suggests listeners look at the section entitled (7) gallery on the Rhithm of the
Dance website.
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The name of the first show that the Cirque loize performed at the Regent Theatre was
(8) “ ”.
Some performers in ID appear on (9) and Rollerblades. One review of ID says it
is full of originality, energy and (10) .
PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (2.5 points)
I. Write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct

answer to each of the following questions.
1. How long have you been looking for ?
A. employee B. employer C. employment D. employ
2. To photography professionally requires a lot of skills.
A. do B. make C. commit D. carry
3. We made her an excellent offer, but she it.

A. turned B. rejected C. accepted D. denied
4. That old building is going to be and a new library will be built in its place.
A. pushed off B. pulled down C. pushed in D. pulled through
5. You are not allowed to bring coffee into the examination room, ?
A. do you B. aren't you C. don't you D. are you
6. When we met that day in Paris, I didn't know that he was married Barbara.
A. with B. to C. in D. of
7. This is the most difficult job I have ever tackled.

A. by far B. by the way C. by all means D. by rights
8. about gene-related diseases has increased is welcome news.

A. Scientific knowledge C. Through scientific knowledge
B. It was scientific knowledge D. That scientific knowledge
9. Members of the rock group were asked to modify their behavior leave the
hotel.
A. or else B. unless C. lest D. in case
10. He to the doctor after the accident, but he continued to play instead.
A. should have gone B. shouldn't have gone
C. needn't have gone D. must have gone
11. Richard has invited Ann to his study group tonight, but she has refused.
What would Richard be most likely to say in response to Ann's refusal?
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Ann: "I'm afraid I can't go tonight. I'm just not in the mood for it!"
Richard: " !"
A. Off you go B. You are out C. Suit yourself D. Good for
you
12. to the Senate than he began to face some of the realities of being a U.S.
senator.
A. No sooner had Obama been elected B. No sooner Obama had been
elected
C. No sooner had Obama elected D. No sooner Obama had elected
13. Vietnam's renowned rocker Tran Lap, died of cancer on 17 March 2016,
will be honored with a posthumous medal for his contribution to the country's music
industry.
A. that B. who C. whom D. whose
14. his brother, Tom is active and friendly.

A. Dislike B. Alike C. Unlike D. Liking
15. Through generations, despite many , some Huong Canh families have
successfully preserved their traditional job of clay pot and tile making.
A. out and about B. odds and ends C. ins and outs D. ups
and downs
16. awful coffee she makes!

A. What B. What a C. How a D. How
17. I told them to keep quiet but they continued a noise.

A. to make B. making C. to do D. doing
18. We are going to stay with

A. a relative of we B. relative of us C. a relative of ours D. one of
our relatives
19. Regular exercise and good diet will bring fitness and health.
A. about B. up C. to D. from
20. Mike: "I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!"
Jane: " ".
A. The same to you. C. What a pity!
B. Have a nice day! D. What a lovely toy! Thanks.
II. Write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined
part that needs correcting.
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1. The issue was so controversial, but they were able to settle it in the end of the
discussion,
A. was B. but C. able D. in the end
2. Studies by B.F. Skinner indicate that reward positively reinforces behavior and
makes that behavior likely more to recur.
A. Studies by B. reinforces C. and D. likely more
3. A food additive is any chemical that food manufacturers intentional add to their
products.
A. additive B. that C. intentional D. products
4. Although the old fisherman was exhausted, but he managed to reel the giant marlin
in by nightfall.
A. fisherman B. but C. to reel D. nightfall
5. Long ago there used to be a beautiful island on Atlantic Ocean.

A. on B. long ago there C. used to be D. the Atlantic Ocean
III. Complete the following passage with the correct form of the word given in
CAPITALS to the right of each line.
THE KING IN THE CAR PARK

We are used to reading about mysteries in detective novels, but a real-life mystery
was (1) solved by archaeologists when they found a skeleton under a car park
in a British city. The (2) of the remains was of particular (3) as they
turned out to be those of the famous King of England, Richard III. (4) , most
monarchs have a formal (5) and their bones are placed in cathedrals or
abbeys, but the final resting place of Richard had been (6) . The search to
find his body had been a long one. Now, (7) have formally identified the
bones as those of Richard, comparing his DNA with that of another (8) .
Tests have also proven that Richard's spinal deformity was not as bad as they had
(9) thought. However, his reputation of being a (10) still stands and
the mystery of what really happened to his two nephews remains unsolved.
PART C. READING (3.0 points)

I. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Icebergs are among nature's most spectacular creations, and yet most people have never
seen one. A vague air of mystery envelops them. They come into being somewhere-in
faraway, frigid waters, amid thunderous noise and splashing turbulence, which in most
cases no one hears or sees. They exist only a short time and then slowly waste away
just unnoticed. Objects of sheerest beauty, they have been called. Appearing in an
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endless variety of shapes they may be dazzlingly white, or they may be glassy blue,
green or purple, tinted faintly or in darker hues. They are graceful, stately, inspiring in
calm, sunlit seas. But they are also called frightening and dangerous, and that they are,
in the night, in the fog, and in storms. Even in clear weather one is wise to stay a safe
distance away from them. Most of their bulk is hidden below the water, so their
underwater parts may extend out far beyond the visible top. Also, they may roll over
unexpectedly, churning the waters around them.
Icebergs are parts of glaciers that break off, drift into the water, float about awhile, and
finally melt.Icebergs afloat today are made of snowflakes that have fallen over long
ages of time. They embody snows that drifted down hundreds, or many thousands, or
in some cases maybe a million years ago. The snows fell in the polar region and on
cold mountains, where they melted only a little or not at all, and so collected to great
depths over the years and centuries.
As each year's snow accumulation lay on the surface, evaporation and melting caused
the snowflakes slowly to lose their feathery points and become tiny grains of ice. When
new snow fell on top of the old, it too turned to icy grains. So blankets of snow and ice
grains mounted layer upon layer and were of such great thickness that the weight of
the upper layers compressed the lower ones. With time and pressure from above the
many small ice grains joined and changed to larger crystals, and eventually the deeper
crystals merged into a solid mass of ice.
1. The word “which” in the first paragraph refers to .

A. turbulence B. icebergs C. creations D. waters
2. The author states that icebergs are rarely seen because they are .
A. surrounded by fog B. hidden beneath the
mountains
C. located in remote regions of the world D. broken by waves soon
after they are formed
3. The passage mentions all of the following colors for icebergs EXCEPT .
A. yellow B. blue C. green D. purple
4. The attitude of the author toward icebergs is one of

A. disappointment B. humor C. disinterest D. wonder
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5. According to the passage, icebergs originate from a buildup of .
A. turbulent water B. feathers
C. underwater pressure D. snowflakes
6. The word that in the second paragraph refers to

A. bad weather B. icebergs being frightening and
dangerous
C. clear weather D. how icebergs look in the seas
7. According to the passage, icebergs are dangerous because they .

A. usually melt quickly B. can turn over very suddenly
C. may create immense snowdrifts D. can cause unexpected avalanches
8. In the last paragraph, the expression “from above” in the fourth paragraph refers
to
A. sunlit seas B. polar regions
C. weight of mountains D. layers of ice and snow
9. The word merged in the fourth paragraph in the last paragraph is closest in meaning
to
A. became B. combine C. included D. consisted
10. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The Melting of Icebergs.
B. The Nature and Origin of Icebergs.
C. The Size and Shape of Icebergs.
D. The Dangers of Icebergs.
II. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered
blanks.
CHANGING COUNTRIES
Seeking a new life and hoping for a significant (1) in their standard of living,
foreign workers began flocking into Western Europe during the 1950s. In Britain, some
of the first immigrants arriving (2) West Indies and the Indian subcontinent
were welcomed by brass bands, but the dream of a new life soon (3) sour for
many.
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Attracted by the promise to earn good money and learn new skills, the reality they
found was often one of (4) wages and, in many (5) ,unemployment.
There were times when the newcomers encountered open hostility; in 1958, riots (6)
out in Notting Hill, west London, when gangs of white youths began
taunting immigrants.
Yet despite the (7) difficulties they encountered, many foreign workers did
manage to (8) to their new conditions, settling in their new adopted country and
prospering. Their contribution had the effect not only of speeding up the (9) of
economic change in the post-war period, it also (10) Western Europe into a
multiracial society.
1. A. switch B. change C. modification D. variation

2. A. from B. to C. in D. at
3. A. turned B. converted C. switched D. moved
4. A. little B. small C. short D. low
5. A. occasions B. examples C. ways D. cases
6. A. broke B. carried C. came D. started
7. A. several B. high C. numerous D. heavy
8. A. fit B. adjust C. match D. suit
9. A. growth B. motion C. pace D. step
10. A. transformed B. transferred C. modified D. shifted
III. Complete the following passage by filling in each blank with ONE suitable word.
THE COMPUTER MOUSE
When is a mouse not a mouse? When it sits on your desk and controls your on-screen
cursor. The computer mouse is a pointing device (1) has a flat bottom, a shaped top
with buttons on and - perhaps - a cable connecting the mouse to the computer. The
mouse moves (2) the surface of the desk, and the cursor copies this movement on
the screen. The first computer mouse had wheels that made contact (3) the
working surface. The name 'mouse' (4) adopted because all earlier models had a
long cord, and this, together with the shape, made it look something (5) the furry
little animal of the same name.
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The person who invented the mouse, and so was responsible (6) changing the
way computers worked, was an American (7) Douglas Engelbart. In fact, he
invented many devices, including ones attached (8) the chin or nose, to point at
the screen. However, his computer mouse soon proved to be much more convenient
and far simpler to use. His first attempt (9) producing a mouse was in 1964,
but it was large, heavy and difficult to move. A few years later, in 1968, his improved
mouse (10) its first public appearance and rapidly became a huge success.
PART D. WRITING (2.5 points)
I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the
same as the one printed before it. The word provided (if any) must not be altered in any
way.
1. Celine has always been fond of classical music. (TASTE)

→ Celine ……
2. They cannot watch this film because they are not adults yet. (UNDER)
→Since ……
3. It's a pity you didn't ask us to spend more time with you.
→ If only ……
4. She hasn’t spoken much since the day she met the President.
→ Little ……
5. People think that someone started the fire deliberately.

→ The fire ……
II. Essay writing.

Vietnamese educators are divided on whether the current system of high schools for
the gifted should be maintained. Whilst some argue that the system may promote
unhealthy competition or unnecessary stress among students, and therefore should be
abolished, many others have praised the merits of those schools and voiced strong
approval of their existence.
What advantages can schools for the gifted offer to their students and to the society?
Write 250-300 words.
THE END
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN
HƯNG YÊN NĂM HỌC 20** - 20**
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC (Dành cho thí sinh thi vào lớp chuyên Tiếng Anh)
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
PART A: (0,5 point) PHONETICS

Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. Write A, B, C or D on your
answer sheet.
1. A. understand B. engineer C. benefit D. Japanese
2. A. casual B. embroider C. designer D. occasion
3. A. enjoyable B. convenient C. exciting D. interesting
4. A. purpose B. remote C. control D. respond
5. A. appreciate B. experience C. embarrassing D. situation
PART B: (3,0 points) VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I. Choose the best word or phrase to complete the following sentences. Write A, B, C or D on your
answer sheet (2,0 points).
1. Tom made a number of suggestions, most of ____ were very helpful.
A. them B. which C. that D. whom
2. The teacher explained the lesson twice _____ the students understood it clearly.
A. as long as B. so that C. because D. as if
3. Both Mary and Ellen as well as Jean _____ on the tour now.
A. are going B. is going C. has been going D. was going
4. I don’t know whether ______ for the job or not.
A. to applying B. apply C. to apply D. applied
5. ______ extremely bad weather in the mountains, we’re no longer considering our skiing trip.
A. Due to B. Because C. Since D. Thanks to
6. You must leave at once, you ______ miss the train.
A. however B. yet C. still D. otherwise
7. _______ of English learners have real chance to use it every day.
A. A few B. Few C. A little D. Not much
8. _______ becoming extinct is of great concern to zoologists.
A. That giant pandas are B. Giant pandas are
C. Are giant pandas D. Giant panda is
9. I’ve applied for the job ________ in the newspaper last month.
A. advertised B. advertising C. be advertised D. being advertised
10. ________ to Jim myself, I can’t tell why he would do such terrible things.
A. Not to be speaking B. Not to have spoken
C. Because of not being spoken D. Not having spoken
11. The government hopes to _________ its plans for introducing cable TV.
A. turn out B. carry out C. carry on D. keep on
12. I’ll be back in a minute, Jane. I just want to ________ my new tape recorder.
A. try out B. try on C. look up D. take up
13. We can communicate with friends by ______of e-mail.
A. means B. paths C. methods D. uses
14. Learning a foreign language also includes learning the ________ of that country.
A. reputation B. scenery C. culture D. nature
15. We have worked out the plan and now we must put it into ________.
A. practice B. reality C. fact D. deed
16. There were 50 ________ in the talent contest.
A. competitors B. examinees C. customers D. interviewees
PLEASE FIND ANSWER ON OTTO CHANNEL!
17. Her job was so ________that she decided to quit it.
A. interesting B. stressful C. satisfactory D. wonderful
18. She ________ her husband’s job for his ill health.
A. accused B. blamed C. caused D. claimed
19. Anne: “Make yourself at home.” - John: “__________”
A. Yes, can I help you? B. Don’t mention it.
C. Thanks! Same to you. D. That’s very kind. Thank you.
20. Minh: “Do you mind if I borrow a chair?” - Hung: “__________. Do you need only one?”
A. I'm sorry B. Not at all C. Yes, I do D. Yes, I would
II. Fill in each blank with a suitable word deriving from one of the words in the box. Write them on
your answer sheet. (1,0 point)
retire, promote, luck, interviewer, refer,
pensionable, applicant, success, train, employment

In these days of high (1)______, it is often difficult for young people to find a job. If they are
lucky enough to be asked to go for a(n) (2)______, they may find that there are at least 20 other
(3)______ for the job. If a company is thinking of offering you a job, they will ask you for at least one
(4)______ from either your previous employer or someone who knows you well. Before taking up your
job, you may have to sign a contract. You will probably have to do some (5)______, which help you to
do the job more (6)______. Once you have decided that this is your chosen career, you will then have to
work hard to try and get (7)______, which usually brings more responsibility and more money! If you are
(8)______, you may be made redundant, and not be able to find another job. It is also a good idea to pay
some money into a (9)______ scheme, which will help you to look after yourself and your family when
you are (10)______. Finally, good luck!
PART C: (2,5 points) READING

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space in the following passage. Write A, B, C or D
on your answer sheet. (1,0 point)
Most people feel that when they dream, they are (1)______ off to another world. On the
(2)______, dreams are often connected to our daily lives. When our whole (3)______ is filled with
something, when we are either very upset (4)______ when we are in good spirit, a dream will represent
this reality in symbols. It is often (5)______ that we benefit from dreams because they help the spirit to
heal itself, when things (6)______ wrong. Dreams are therefore a kind of escape, almost a holiday from
(7)______ life, with its fears and responsibilities. It is, however, a strange kind of holiday because
whether we have a wonderful time or whether it turns (8)______ to be a nightmare, we quickly forget it.
Most dreams disappear forever (9)______ you are one of those people disciplined enough to write them
down as soon as you (10)______.
1. A. carried B. brought C. taken D. guided
2. A. opposite B. contrast C. contrary D. other side
3. A. mind B. spirit C. brain D. soul
4. A. else B. or C. but also D. unless
5. A. spoken B. declared C. said D. stated
6. A. go B. turn C. become D. get
7. A. genuine B. real C. actual D. factual
8. A. off B. up C. down D. out
9. A. unless B. except that C. therefore D. thus
10. A. arise B. awake C. rise up D. wake up
]
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to complete the sentences. Write A, B, C or
D on your answer sheet. (0,5 point)
“Women hold up half the sky”. This is an old Chinese saying. However, research shows that perhaps
women do more than the share of “holding up the sky”.
Fifty percent of the world’s population are women, but in nearly two-thirds of all working hours, the
work is done by women. They do most of the domestic work, for example, cooking and washing clothes.
Millions also work outside the home. Women hold forty percent of the world’s jobs. For this work, they
earn only 40 to 60 percent as much as men, and of course they earn nothing for their domestic work.
In developing countries, where three-fourths of the world’s population live, women produce more
than half of the food. In Africa, 80 percent of all agricultural work is done by women.
In parts of Africa, this is a typical day for a village woman. At 4.45 am she gets up, washes, and
eats. It takes her half an hour to walk to the fields, and she works there until 3.00 pm. She collects
firewood until 4.00 pm then comes back home. She spends the next hour and a half preparing food to
cook. Then she collects water for another hour. From 6.30 to 8.30 she cooks. After dinner, she spends an
hour washing the dishes. She goes to bed at 9.30 pm.
1. What is “domestic work”?
A. housework B. firework C. homework D. gardening
2. The average woman earns ______ the average man.
A. more than B. less than C. the same as D. the most
3. In Africa, women do _______ of all agricultural work.
A. four-fifths B. three-fourth s C. two-thirds D. one-fifth
4. What is NOT mentioned as the work of a village woman in Africa?
A. working in the fields B. collecting firewood
C. bringing water home D. preparing food for children going to school
5. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Women work outside the home. B. Women work in the field.
C. The work of women. D. The role of women.
III. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. Write it on your answer sheet. (1,0 point)
The country is more beautiful than a town and pleasant to live in. Many people think so, and go to
the country (1)______ the summer holidays though they cannot live there all the year round. Some have a
cottage built in a village (2)______that they can go there whenever they can find the time. English
villagers are not all alike, but (3)______ some ways they are not very different from each other. Almost
every village has a church, the round or square tower of (4)______ can be seen for many miles around.
Surrounding the church is the churchyard, (5)______ people are buried.
The village green (6)______ a wide stretch of grass, and houses or cottages are (7)______ round
it. Country life is now fairly comfortable and many villages (8)______ water brought through pipes into
each (9)______. Most villages are so close to some small towns that people can go there to buy
(10)______ they can’t find in the village shops.
PART D: (4,0 points) WRITING
I. Choose the underlined word or phrase that needs correcting. Write A, B, C or D on your answer
sheet. (1,0 point)
1. The sum of all chemical reactions in an organism’s living cells are called its metabolism.
A B C D
2. My father has a mechanic to repair his motorbike monthly.
A B C D
3. The woman tells them close their eyes tightly and cover them with their hands.
A B C D
4. The lesson that we are learning now is very interested but difficult.
A B C D
5. It is their nearly perfect crystal structure that gives diamonds their hardness, brilliance, and transparent.
A B C D
6. There's hardly no sugar left, so we must get some when we go shopping.
A B C D
7. Mai and Lan have a row because they have misunderstood one another.
A B C D
8. Some children, before going to school, go to kindergartens, officially are called nursery schools.
A B C D
9. Mary Rinehart was a pioneer in the field of journalist in the early twentieth century.
A B C D
10. Needles are simple-looking tools, but they are very relatively difficult to make.
A B C D
II. Using the word given in each bracket and other words to complete the second sentence so that it has
the same meaning as the first. You must use between three and five words. DO NOT CHANGE THE
WORD GIVEN IN CAPITAL. Write your answer on the answer sheet. (1,0 point)
1. They’re telling me that I must make a decision soon. (PRESSURE)
 They are putting _______________________________ a decision soon.
2. She was strongly impressed by his trip to India. (IMPRESSION)
 His trip to India _______________________________ her.
3. We needn’t get a visa for Singapore. (NECESSARY)
 It isn’t _______________________________ a visa for Singapore.
4. It would have been better if he had called the police earlier. (SHOULD)
 He _______________________________ the police earlier.
5. As long as you keep calm, you can pass the driving test. (SECRET)
 Keeping calm _______________________ your driving test.
III. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it. Write your answers on the answer sheet. (2,0 points)
1. Nam can describe people far better than me.
 Nam is much better__________________________________________________.
2. The boys prefer playing soccer to staying indoors.
 The boys would rather _______________________________________________.
3. People say that he sold his house to pay the debt.
 He is _____________________________________________________________.
4. I have never seen such a mess in my life.
 Never in __________________________________________________________.
5. You read a lot. You know much about the world.
 The more __________________________________________________________.
6. Do you have a good relationship with your boss?
 Are ______________________________________________________________?
7. It’s only when you’re ill that you start to appreciate good health.
 It is not until _______________________________________________________.
8. It was her lack of confidence that surprised me.
 What I found _______________________________________________________.
9. We haven’t decided where to go this weekend yet.
 We haven’t made ___________________________________________________.
10. The heavy rain prevented us from going camping in the mountain.
 But for____________________________________________________________.
---------------THE END---------------
Họ tên thí sinh:…………………………………...
Số báo danh:…………… Phòng thi số:………… Chữ ký của cán bộ coi thi:…………………

UBND TỈNH PHÚ YÊN KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NĂM HỌC 20** - 20**
-------------------- MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Cho thí sinh thi vào chuyên Anh)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 05/07/20**
A. Pronunciation (10 points)

I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronounced differently from
the others in each group. (5 points)
1. A. clerk B. terse C. term D. jerk
2. A. mouths B. paths C. months D. wreaths
3. A. vehicle B. rhythm C. exhaust D. behold
4. A. dormitory B. information C. organization D. forward
5. A. food B. shoot C. shook D. spool
II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the
others. (5 points)
1. A. philosopher B. patriot C. atmosphere D. habit
2. A. pollute B. severe C. tragic D. humane
3. A. economical B. personality C. preparatory D. entertainment
4. A. interrupt B. interview C. intervene D. interstellar
5. A. mechanic B. terrific C. Arabic D. Pacific
B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 points)

I. Choose the best answers to completes each sentence. (10 points)
1. I am afraid that these regulations have to be __________ with.
A. complied B. provided C. faced D. met
2. His business is growing so fast that he must take __________ more workers.
A. up B. on C. in D. over
3. The police must now __________ the escaped convict in the surrounding countries.
A. search B. be in search of C. look after D. look for
4. You are late again, please try to be __________ in the future.
A. accurate B. punctual C. efficient D. reliable
5. Edward has found a bigger flat and is __________ move into it.
A. near to B. ready for C. on the way D. about to
6. All the applicants for the post are thoroughly __________ for their suitability.
A. searched B. investigated C. vetted D. scrutinized
7. __________ every part of the world has experienced an earthquake in recent years.
PLEASE FIND ANSWER ON OTTO CHANNEL

A. Most B. Almost C. Each D. Nearby
8. He didn’t know anyone at the wedding __________ than the bridge and groom.
A. other B. expect C. rather D. apart
9. When Bill saw my new car, he was __________ with envy.
A. blue B. green C. yellow D. white
10. He was holding a tiny bird in the __________ of his hand.
A. thumb B. hole C. shin D. palm
II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (10 points)
1. The man at the corner table (glance) _______ my way to see if I (listen) _______.
2. When I (look) _______ at my suitcase, I could see that somebody (try) ______ to open it.
3. I don’t know what’s the matter with him. He (act) _______ funny since you (be) _______ away.
4. Scarcely they (move) _______ into the new house when their friends (come) _______ in.
5. Just as I (wonder) what to do next, the phone (ring) _______.
III. Give the correct form of the verbs to complete the passage. (10 points)
1. In some areas water has to be boiled to ________ it. (pure)
2. He examined the parcel ________, as he had no idea what it could be. (suspect)
3. How do you ________ the real painting from the fake one ? (different)
4. Don’t worry about the volcano. It’s been ________ for years. (act)
5. Leisure habits won’t change much in the ________ future. (see)
6. The conditions in the man’s prison were ________. (human)
7. I object strongly to the ________ of sport. (commerce)
8. A list of ________ events for the autumn is being prepared. (come)
9. Most people who work feel that they are ________. (pay)
10. They frequently ________ the traffic as they march through the streets. (mobile)
IV. Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition. (10 points)

1. If she takes __________ the job of director, she will have to work harder.
2. The government put __________ the rebellion with great severity.
3. There was a man giving __________ leaflets outside the church.
4. I can’t make __________ the postmark on the letter, it looks like Basing stoke.
5. If he refuses to fall __________ my plans I can probably find someone more co-operative.
6. Diana showed a complete disregard __________ her own safety.
7. We walked on tiptoe __________ fear of being discovered.

8. Mary broke down __________ tears when we told her about the accident.
9. The car pulled __________ beside me and the driver asked me the way to the post office.
10. I had to send __________ an electrician to mend the switch.
C. READING (30 points)
I. Read the passage below and choose the best answer for each question. (5 points)
Man is a land animal, but he is also closely tied to the sea. Throughout history the sea has
served the need of man. The sea has provided man with food and a convenient way to travel to
many parts of the world. Today, nearly two thirds of the world’s population live within 80 kms of
the sea coast.
In the modern technological world, the sea offers many resources to help mankind survive.
Resources on land are beginning to be used up. The sea, however, still can be hoped to supply many
of man’s needs. The list of riches of the sea yet to be developed by man’s technology is impressive.
Oil and gas explorations have been carried out for nearly 30 years. A lot of valuable minerals exist
on the ocean floor ready to be mined.
Fish farming promises to be a good way to produce large quantities of food. The culture of fish
and shellfish is an ancient skill practiced in the past mainly by Oriental people.
Besides oil and gas, the sea may offer new sources of energy. Experts believe that the warm
temperature of the ocean can be used in a way similar to the steam in a steamship. Ocean currents
and waves offer possible use as a source of energy.
Technology is enabling man to explore ever more deeply under the sea. The development of
strong, new materials has made this possible.
The technology to harvest the sea continues to improve. Experts believe that by the year 2050s
the problems that prevent us from fully exploiting the food, minerals, and energy sources of the sea
will be largely solved.
1. The best title for this passage is ___________.
A. Sea Harvest. B. Technology and the Exploiting of the Sea.
C. Sea Food. D. Man and Sea.
2. The major things that the sea offers man are ___________.
A. food, energy sources and minerals. B. fish and oil.
C. minerals and oil. D. ocean currents and waves.
3. The sea serves the needs of man because ___________.
A. it provides man with sea food. B. it offers oil to man.
C. it supplies man with minerals. D. all of the above.
4. The word Oriental people in the fourth paragraph probably means ___________.
A. European people. B. African people.
C. Asian people. D. American people.
5. We can conclude from the passage that ___________.
A. the sea resources have largely been used up.
B. the sea, in a broad sense, hasn’t yet been developed.
C. the problems that prevent us from fully exploiting the sea have already been solved.
D. by the year 2050, the technology will be good enough to exploit all the sea resources.

II. Read the text and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. (15 points)
Street papers
The problem of homelessness is an international one. In the capital cities of the world, the (1)
_______ of people begging on the streets is becoming increasingly (2) _______. But all over the
world, homeless people are taking the future into their own (3) _______. By selling “street papers”
they no longer need to beg for a (4) _______.
The concept of the street paper is (5) _______. It is sold by homeless and ex-homeless people
who buy it at a (6) _______ price of 30 p and sell it to the public for 70 p, keeping 40 p for
themselves. If they have no money, then they can get the first ten copies on (7) _______ and pay for
them later. Every paper seller receives training and is given a special (8) _______ badge.
The paper itself (9) _______ articles of general and social interest, film and book (10) _______,
cartoons and the (11) _______ celebrity interview. Advertising and sales (12) _______ most of the
income, and all profits go (13) _______ into helping homeless people.
The Big Issue is the street paper of the British homeless. It was set up in 1991 and (14) _______
then it has helped hundreds of people to get (15) _______ the streets and back into society.
1. A. sight B. vision C. look D. view
2. A. usual B. common C. rare D. routine
3. A. heads B. shoulders C. hands D. mouths
4. A. life B. living C. being D. pay
5. A. easy B. straight C. plain D .simple
6. A. stuck B. steady C. held D. fixed
7. A. credit B. cheque C. cash D. card
8. A. character B. personality C. manner D. identity
9. A. consists B. contains C. keeps D. gets
10. A. stories B. reviews C. opinions D. views
11. A. sometimes B. often C. occasional D. seldom
12. A. give B. provide C. show D. offer
13. A. back B. out C. through D. forward
14. A. from B. of C. for D. since
15. A. out B. away C. off D. up
III. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete this passage. (10 points)
In these days of high unemployment, it is often difficult (1) __________ young people to find a
job. If they are lucky (2) __________ to be asked to go for an interview, they may find (3)
__________ there are at least 20 other applicants for the (4) __________. If a company is thinking
of offering (5) __________ a job, they will ask you for at least one reference from either your
previous employer (6) __________ someone who knows you well. (7) __________ taking up your
job, you may have to sign a contract. You will probably have to do some training, (8) __________
help you to do the job more successfully. Once you have decided that this is your chosen career, you
will then have to work (9) __________ to try and get promotion, which usually brings more
responsibility and more money! If you are unlucky, you may be made redundant, and not be able to

find (10) __________ job. It is also a good idea to pay some money
into a pension scheme, which will help you to look after yourself and your family when you are
retired. Finally, good luck!
D. WRITING (20 points)
I. Rewrite the sentences using the words in bold, in such a way that it means the same as the
one given. Do not alter these words in any way. (10 points)
1. They’re telling me that I must make a decision soon. (pressure)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. His smooth manner didn’t deceive us. (taken)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. I really must answer all these letters. (get down)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Don’t run away with the idea that this work is easy. (conclusion)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. I’m trying to concentrate, but all that noise you’re making is distracting me. (putting)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Nobody expected her to lose, but she did. (against)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. You must concentrate on your work more. (apply)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. She will probably be elected. (stands)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. The boss was annoyed because his secretary came to work late. (objected)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. The demand for tickets was so great that people queued day and night. (such)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
II. Use the promps provided to write full sentences to make a complete letter. (10 points)
Dear John,
1. last letter / you / kindly offer / put / me / your flat / I be / Berlin.
2. I/ be / afraid / I / unable / take / offer / time being.
3. My father / sick / I / to stay / home / care / him.
4. He / very sick / I cannot / him / alone.
5. My brother / also / help / look / Dad / but / he now / away / business trip / Paris.
6. I / hope / be able / come / Berlin / later / end / year, / perhaps / January.
7. If / room / free / I / glad / stay / you.

8. I / let / know / phan / soon / possible / order / not interfere / own plan.
9. Thank / much / again / offer.
10. I / not / wait / see / you / Berlin / but / then / goodbye.
With love,
Maria.
---------- The end ----------

SỞ GD&ĐT QUẢNG KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT
BÌNH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 20**-20**
Khóa ngày: 08/6/20**
Họ và tên: MÔN THI: TIỀNG ANH (CHUYÊN)
Số BD: Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi gồm có 04 trang, 100 câu
Lưu ý: - Thí sinh làm bài trên tờ giấy thi, ghi theo đúng thứ tự câu từ 1 đến 100.
I. Chọn từ (A, B, C hoặc D) có phần gạch chân dược phát âm khác với phần gạch chân của
những từ còn lại. (3đ)
1. A. ocean B. notion C. motion D. nothing
2. A. exhaust B. handkerchief C. vehicle D. exhibition
3. A. measure B. pleasure C. ensure D. leisure
II. Chọn từ (A, B, C hoặc D) có trọng âm chính ở vị trí khác với những từ còn lại. (2đ)
4. A. prefer B. conserve C. threaten D. perform
5. A. tropical B. commercial C. disastrous D. extensive
III. Chọn đáp án đúng nhất (A, B, C hoặc D) để hoàn thành các câu sau. (15đ)
6. "This is my 18th birthday!" " "
A. Many happy returns! B. Thank you. The same to you!
C. What a nice surprise! D. Thanks for your kindness!
7. In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye with the interviewers.

A. link B. connection C. touch D. contact
8. is to give strangers your address.

A. What you must never do B. That you must never do
C. What must never you do D. That must never you do
9. Last year she earned her brother.

A. twice as much as B. twice more than C. twice as many as D. twice as more
as
10. He is the postman I got this letter.

A. from who B. to whom C. from whom D. with whom
11. I'm going to stay at university and try to off getting a job for a few years.
A. stay B. put C. move D. set
Otto Channel
12. People can become very when they are stuck in traffic for a long time.
A. nervous B. stressful C. pressed D. bad-tempered
13. I watched an movie on television last night.

A. American interesting old B. old interesting American
C. interesting old American D. old American interesting
14. She actually enjoys confrontation, I prefer a quiet life.

A. when B. as C. whereas D. because
15. On hearing the news she fainted and it was half an hour before she again.
A. came up B. came round C. came over D. came forward
16. In most developed countries, up to 50% of population enters higher education at

some time in their lives.
A. Ø / Ø B. the /Ø C. Ø / the D. the / a
17. Our project was successful its practicality.

A. in terms of B. with a view to C. regardless D. on behalf of
18. "Thanks for all your helpful advice."

A. That's great. B. I hope so! C. My pleasure. D. How dare you say
that!
19. He didn't to help her, even though she was very ill.
A. open an eye B. lift a finger C. bend his am D. shake a leg
20. It was route that we ended up getting lost.

A. so complicated a B. such complicated C. so complicated D. a such complicated
IV. Tìm một giới từ thích hợp để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau. (5đ)
21. Helen had great admiration her history teacher.
22. He is sure to stand up for his friends any circumstances.
23. The surgeon operated his leg yesterday.
24. Mr. Thanh isn't here at the moment. He'll be back a few minutes.
25. Some people are indifferent their surroundings.

V. Sử dụng dạng đúng của từ gợi ý để điền vào chỗ trống thích hợp. (10đ)
Otto Channel
Most historians agree that surfing began centuries ago in the Hawaii 26. INHABIT
Islands in the Pacific Ocean, where the (26) regarded it as an
27. ACTIVE
important part of their culture, not as a recreational (27) not
until the early 20th century that it achieved (28) as a sport, and for 28. RECOGNISE
many years it remained (29) to see surfers anywhere other 29. USUAL
than in three main (30) : Hawaii, California and Australia.
30. LOCATE :
All that began to change in the 1960s, partly as a result of regarded it as
31. IMPROVE
an (31) in the design of surfboards, but also because of the
success of films and pop bands, (32) 32. PARTICULAR
The Beach Boys, that were associated with surfing culture. Since then 33. GROW
there has been rapid (33) in the popularity of surfing throughout
34. COMPETE
the world, and for many surfers it has become a highly (34) that
requires skill and courage to deal with the (35) conditions in
35. CHALLENGE
some of the roughest seas on Earth.
VI. Sử dụng động từ cho trong ngoặc ở dạng hoặc thì đúng. (10đ)
36. It is high time you (wash) those dirty clothes of yours!
37. Scarcely they (move) into the new house when their friends came in.
38. She insisted that the new child (name) after his grandfather.
39. Please come in, I'm sorry (keep) you waiting.
40. My boss is angry with me. I didn't do all the work that I (do) last week.
41. It's no use (learn) a foreign language if you don't practice it.
42. She is accustomed to (train) for long hours.
43. Had I known her address, I (go) to visit her.
44. These workers stopped (have) some coffee because they felt sleepy.
45. The film (show) on Channel 7 last night was made by a twenty-five year old
director.
Otto Channel
VII. Sử dụng một cum động từ thích hợp trong khung để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau. (5đ)
set off look into turn up look for make out put up with take over
46. Sam isn't serious about anything. How can you him.
47. It was so foggy that the driver couldn't the traffic signs.
48. Don't any fireworks too near to the house, will you?
49. She promised to meet me at the theater but she didn't .
50. The police have promised to the problem.

VIII. Hãy tìm một từ thích hợp để điển vào mỗi chỗ trống của đoạn văn sau. (10đ)
Forty years ago "tourism" was a word rarely used by most people. Today it is understood by
people all (51) the world. Many now regard holidays as part of everyday life and foreign
travel is (52) for granted. Consequently, holiday-making has become a major business. It has created
a (53) number of jobs and it is currently estimated that in some countries one in five persons
is employed in work related to the tourist industry.
The immediate reasons (54) this incredible explosion in tourism are not hard to find.
Leisure (55) has increased for many people as (56) takes over routine chores at
work and in the home. This same technology has made industries (57) efficient,
bringing increased wealth for their employees, and with that wealth greater opportunities for (58)
. But the technological advances in transport have proved (59) biggest single
factor promoting world travel. Planes fly faster and further than ever before, carrying large numbers
of passengers at a relatively cheap cost, and in a degree of comfort unknown thirty or forty years (60)
.
IX. Chọn đáp án đúng nhất (A, B, C hoặc D) để hoàn thành đoạn văn sau. (10đ)
Years ago, back in the days when I was just a kid, my family used to have Sunday picnics together
in a (61) part of the countryside. We would find a suitably quiet and pleasant (62)
, then spend several hours chatting, eating and playing games in the open air. Since then,
though, my parents’ life has become so much busier and they never seem to have the time for (63)
family meals anymore.
In my (64) this is a great pity, so I've recently started to organize picnics of my (65)
. I get in touch with some of my closest friends and first we (66) on a
suitable place to go. Then we talk about who'll bring which food. This (67) that there will be
a variety of tasty things to cat, particularly if everyone makes the meals they do best. It's important,
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though, to keep the food simple, as everything has to (68) into a backpack and then be
carried across fields and up river valleys.
When we finally (69) our destination, it's time to sit down, relax and enjoy catch other's
company. And I'm (70) certain that food tastes far better on a picnic than anywhere else!
61. A. close B. nearby C. near D. next
62. A. spot B. point C. tip D. dot
63. A. outer B. outdoor C. outward D. outgoing
64. A. thought B. regard C. view D. belief
65. A. self B. part C. behalf D. own
66. A. decide B. determine C. fix D. arrange
67. A. assures B. insures C. ensures D. secures
68. A. fit B. match C. suit D. join
69. A. arrive B. get C. achieve D. reach
70. A. remarkably B. absolutely C. extremely D. highly
X. Đọc đoạn văn dưới đây và chọn đáp án đúng nhất (A, B, C hoặc D). (5đ)
Lead poisoning in children is a major health concern. Both low and high doses of paint can have
serious effects. Children exposed to high doses of lead often suffer permanent nerve damage, mental
retardation, blindness and even death. Low doses of lead can lead to mild mental retardation, short
attention spans, distractibility, poor academic performance, and behavioral problems.
This is not a new concern. As early as 1904, lead poisoning in children was linked to lead-based
paint. Microscopic lead particles from paint are absorbed into the bloodstream when children ingest
flakes of chipped paint, plaster, or paint dust from sanding. Lead can also enter the body through
household dust, nail biting, thumb sucking, or chewing on toys and other objects painted with lead-
based paint. Although American paint companies today must comply with strict regulations regarding
the amount of lead used in their paint, this source of lead poisoning is still the most common and most
dangerous. Children living in older, dilapidated houses are particularly at risk.
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A. problems with household paint C. lead poisoning in children
B. major health concerns for children D. lead paint in older homes
72. As used in paragraph 1, which of the following is closest in meaning to the word suffer?
A. experience B. reveal C. feel pain from D. grieve with
73. In paragraph 2, the word dilapidated is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. poorly painted B. unpainted C. fallen down D. broken down
74. According to the passage, what is the most common source of lead poisoning in children?
A. household dust B. lead-based paint C. painted toys D. dilapidated houses
75. What does the author imply in the final sentence of the passage?
A. Lead-based paint chips off more easily than newer paints.
B. Poor people did not comply with the regulations.
C. Old homes were painted with lead-based paints.
D. Old homes need to be rebuilt in order to be safe for children.

XI. Mỗi câu sau đây có một lỗi sai. Hãy tìm và sửa lại đế có câu đúng. (5d)
76. The disabled hasn't got proper care from the community.
77. They're going to get their house decorate for the

Christmas.
78. We took part in a six-hours journey to the eastern coast.
79. I bought two dozen oranges, some of them were sour.
80. Lucky, Nga still had enough time to finish her test.
XII. Hoàn thành mỗi câu dưới đây bắt đầu bằng từ hoặc cụm từ gợi ý đế câu sau có cùng nghĩa
với câu cho trước. (10đ)
81. While I strongly disapprove of your behavior, I will help you this time.
→ Despite my ............................................................................................................................
82. "You damaged my bicycle, John!" said Margaret.

→ Margaret accused ..................................................................................................................
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83. I'm quite sure that she didn't steal the necklace.
→ She can't ...............................................................................................................................
84. He would prefer you to pay him immediately.

→ He'd rather ............................................................................................................................
85. Lucy hasn't worn that dress since her sister's wedding.
→ The last .................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
86. She gave up working as a reporter because of her bad health.

→ If her health ..........................................................................................................................
87. "You shouldn't get up until you feel better." the doctor said to me.
→ The doctor advised ...............................................................................................................
88. He can't understand English or French.

→ He understands .....................................................................................................................
89. We were very impressed by the new cinema, but found it rather expensive.
→ Impressed as .........................................................................................................................
90. They never suspected their partner's honesty.

→ At no time ............................................................................................................................
XIII. Hoàn thành mỗi câu dưới đây, sử dụng từ cho sẵn (không biến đổi từ đã cho) để câu sau có
cùng nghĩa với câu cho trước. Sử dụng không quá 05 từ bao gồm cả từ đã cho. (5d)
91. The rider of the stolen motorbike was a man aged about 25. RIDDEN
→ The stolen motorbike a man aged about 25.
92. Amy asked what my reaction to her decision was. FELT
→ Amy asked her decision.
93. Only Paul succeeded in acquiring high grades. FAILED
→ Everyone high grades.
94. My views on this subject are exactly the same as yours. DIFFERENCE
→ There my views on this subject and yours.
95. The secretary said that they had run out of paper for the photocopier. LEFT
→ The secretary said that there wasn't for the photocopier.
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XIV. Sử dụng từ, cụm từ gợi ý để viết câu hoàn chỉnh. (5d)
96. People/ have/ difficulty/ predict/ future/ so far.

→
97. The/ clearly/ teacher/ explain/ lessons/ faster/ we/ understand/ them.
→
98. Heavy traffic/ often/ make/ impossible/ children/ cross/ road.

→
99. These exercises/ too difficult/ students/ do/ without/ mistakes.

→
100. Thousands/ people/ save/ because/ scientists/ warn/ them/ tidal wave.
→ ...............................................................................................................................................
-THE END-
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SỞ GD&ĐT QUẢNG BÌNH KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀ O LỚP 10 THPT
ĐỀ CHÍ NH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020
KHÓA NGÀY: 03/6/2019
Họ và tên: …………… MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH (CHUYÊN)
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề )
SBD: ……………
Đề thi gồ m có 05 trang, 100 câu.
Lưu ý: - Thí sinh làm bài trên tờ giấy thi, ghi theo đúng thứ tự câu từ 1 đến 100.
I. Nghe và điền vào mỗi chổ trống MỘT từ hoặc số còn thiếu. Học sinh được nghe 02 lần. (10.0đ)
Jim recommends Pagagnini to the whole (1) ……………
Jim saw a Pagagnini concert last year in (2) …………….
As well as classical music, Pagagnini play rock, (3) ……………., country and Western.
Jim says the Pagagnini show has no (4) …………….
The first performance of Rhythm of the Dance was in (5) ……………. in Norway.
More than (6) ……………. million people have seen Rhythm of the Dance live on stage.
Jim suggests listeners look at the section entitled (7) …………….gallery on the Rhythm of the Dance
website.
The name of the first show that the Cirque Éloize performed at the Regent Theatre was (8) “………….”.
Some performers in ID appear on (9) …………….and Rollerblades. One review of ID says it is full of
originality, energy and (10) …………….
II. Nghe và xác định các câu sau đúng (T) hoặc sai (F). Học sinh được nghe 02 lần. (4.0đ)
………11. Panda is one of the world’s nicest mammals.
………12. Pandas feed mainly on bamboo shoots and leaves.
………13. Pandas spend about 12 hours a day eating.
………14. There are only about 100 of pandas in the wild.
III. Nghe và chọn đáp án đúng nhất trong số A, B, hoặc C. Học sinh được nghe 02 lần. (6.0đ)
15. Elena decided to become a dancer when she was
A. seven. B. nine. C. eleven.
16. At ballet school in New York, Elena
A. was the only student from Bulgaria.
B. found learning the language hard.
C. learned to be independent.
17. What does Elena say about the ballet called Cinderella?
A. Children will enjoy it.
B. The music was unfamiliar to her.
C. She saw it when she was a child.
18. In her free time, Elena likes to
A. go sightseeing. B. go to clubs. C. go shopping.
19. What does Elena often do for her fans?
A. She gives them a flower.
B. She signs one of her photographs.
C. She sends them a free ticket.
20. What does Elena like best about her job?
A. appearing on television
B. doing something she loves
C. travelling to different countries
IV. Chọn từ (A, B, C hoặc D) có phần gạch chân được phát âm khác với phần gạch chân của
những từ còn lại. (2đ)
21. A. chaos B. chorus C. chute D. school
22. A. dosage B. voyage C. carriage D. massage
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V. Chọn từ (A, B, C hoặc D) có trọng âm chính ở vị trí khác với những từ còn lại. (2đ)
23. A. unique B. awful C. conscious D. legal
24. A. emotion B. assignment C. supportive D. neighbourhood
VI. Chọn đáp án đúng nhất (A, B, C hoặc D) để hoàn thành các câu sau. (10đ)
25. Charles and Lisa are talking about further education.
Charles: “I believe many students prefer to take a gap year between secondary school and college.”
Lisa: “_________.”
A. It’s very kind of you to say so B. It doesn’t matter at all
C. I couldn’t agree more D. I’m sorry to hear that
26. We are talking about the writer…………. latest book is one of the best-sellers this year.
A. which B. whose C. whom D. who
27. The more you talk about the matter, ………………
A. the situation seems worse B. the worse seems the situation
C. the worse the situation seems D. the situation seems the worse
28. The director retired early…………. ill-health.
A. on account of B. on behalf of C. ahead of D. in front of
29. The exam board invested………. of money into setting up security camera around the school campus.
A. a large number B. much C. many D. a great deal
30. The doctor ………………the cut on my knee and said it had completely healed up.
A. investigated B. examined C. researched D. looked into
31. I must take this watch to be repaired. It______ over 20 minutes a day.
A. progresses B. accelerates C. gains D. increases
32. I couldn’t…………all the information given in the broadcast.
A. accumulate B. absorb C. admire D. adhere
33. The entry test is bound to sort out the sheep from the _______.
A. wolves B. lambs C. pigs D. goats
34. My mother always told me that I should _____________ the things I believe in, regardless of
how others perceive them.
A. stand up for B. put up with C. get along with D. come up to
VII. Sử dụng động từ cho trong ngoặc ở dạng hoặc thì đúng. (7đ)
35. In a few minutes, I…………. (wait) here for Craig for over two hours. Where can he be?
36. We suggested that you (admit) …………. to the organization.
37. No one understands how Jill can afford (go) …………. on so many holidays each year.
38. Will you enter for the next eloquence contest? – (Win) …………. twice, I don’t want to try again.
39. He expected (give) …………. a brand new computer for Christmas, but all he got was a second –
hand watch.
40. Jeanette did very badly on the exam. She (study) …………. harder.
41. The person (choose) …………. for the part will be contacted by phone.
VIII. Sử dụng dạng đúng của từ gợi ý để điền vào chỗ trống thích hợp. (8đ)
We often think of ourselves as living in a time of continual technological
change and development. We tend to believe that we are unique in history in
dealing with a constantly (42) ......... world of gadgets, devices and innovations. EVOLVE
However, the end of the nineteenth century and the start of the twentieth was also a
time that saw many (43) ......... changes. REVOLT
People had needed to show (44) ......... throughout the nineteenth century, as FLEXIBLE
the effects of the Industrial Revolution meant constantly making (45) ......... to deal ADJUST
with changing working conditions. Towards the end of the century, though, people
had to become more (46) ........... than ever before. The typewriter (1873), the ADAPT
telephone (1876), the electric light bulb (1879) and other (47) ......... developments INFLUENCE
gave people the (48) ......... to live and work in ways their grandparents could not CAPABLE
have imagined. Over the next 30 years, little remained (49) ......... as the camera, the ALTER
cinema, the phonograph, the plane and radio all had an electrifying effect on people
and society.
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IX. Sử dụng dạng đúng của một cụm động từ thích hợp trong khung để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau. (5đ)
come across bring in pass down wear out wear off die down
50. My back started to hurt again as the effects of the pain killer………….
51. The government is thinking of …………. a law to allow on-the-spot fines for hooligans.
52. Do you think the wind has …………. enough for us to go sailing without any danger.
53. We were walking through the woods when we …………. a trap set by hunters.
54. She always …………. to her children a love for reading all kinds of books.
X. Mỗi câu sau đây có một lỗi sai. Hãy tìm và sửa lại để có câu đúng. (5đ)
55. Hardly she had entered the room when all the lights went out.
56. The abilities to work hard, follow directions, and thinking independently are some of the criteria for
success in the work place.
57. Teenagers will be participated in important decisions concerning their lives.
58. Students who study abroad often have to confront cultural shock and homesick.
59. The package containing books and records were delivered last week.
XI. Chọn đáp án đúng nhất (A, B, C hoặc D) để hoàn thành đoạn văn sau. (8đ)
Good press photographers must have an ‘eye’ for news. Just as journalists must have a ‘nose’ for
a good story. They must be able to interpret a story and decide rapidly how they can take advantage of the
best opportunities to take picture. The most difficult part of a press photographer’s job is that he or she
has to be able to (60) ………… a complicated situation with just one photograph. They rarely have
second chances and must be able to take the required (61) ………. very quickly. Indeed, speed is
essential – if the photographs are not ready for the printing deadline, they are very unlikely to be of any
(62) ………. Most press photographers begin work with a local newspaper. There, the demand is mostly
for material of regional interest. Photographers may be expected to photograph a lot of unexciting events
but to (63) …………. the enthusiasm to put ‘something special’ into every picture.
There is strong competition among those who want to move from local to national newspapers.
Here, the work is much more centered on news. The photographer must work under greater pressure and
take more responsibility. Only (64) ……………….... reliable, talented and resourceful photographers
(65) ………… this difficult move. The work is tough and can be dangerous. On an overseas assignment,
photographers may have to (66) …………. unfamiliar food and accommodation, physical and mental
stress, and (67) …………. difficulty in transporting the pictures from an isolated area to get them to the
newspaper on time. They also have to beat the competition from other publications.
60. A. sum up B. put out C draw up D. turn out
61. A. image B. shot C. scene D. illustration
62. A. role B. gain C. employment D. use
63. A. hold on B. keep up C. carry on D. stay up
64. A. sharply B. largely C. highly D. fully
65. A. pass B. proceed C. turn D. make
66. A. struggle for B. get by C. cope with D. stand up
67. A. extreme B. plentiful C. far D. grand
XII. Hãy tìm một từ thích hợp để điền vào mỗi chỗ trống của đoạn văn sau. (8đ)
Around 5% of British households now have at least one family member who is vegetarian, (68) …...….
means that in the region of 3 million British people are vegetarians. About 25% of all females between
the ages of 16 and 24 are vegetarian. Vegetarians do not eat meat, fish or poultry. Among the many
reasons (69) ……………….…... being a vegetarian are health, compassion for animals, and religious
(70) ……………….…... A vegetarian diet can meet (71) ……………….…... known nutrient needs. The
key to a healthy vegetarian diet, as with any other diet, is to eat a wide variety of foods, including fruits,
vegetables, plenty of leafy greens, whole-grain products, nuts, seeds and legumes. Sweets and fatty foods
should (72) ……………….…... limited. Statistically, if you choose (73) ……………….…... diet, you
are choosing an option which should boost your chances of living a long and healthy life. But why?
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The reason is that a good vegetarian diet contains more carbohydrate, more vitamin C and more fibre
(74) ………………... one where a high proportion of the calories come from meat. There is documentary
evidence of a vegetarian Day (75) ……………….…... held as early as 1936, but National Vegetarian
Week as we know it today has its roots in the National Vegetarian Day held by the Vegetarian Society in
October 1991. It proved so successful that they extended it to a whole week.
XIII. Đọc đoạn văn dưới đây và chọn đáp án đúng nhất (A, B, C hoặc D). (5đ)
Before the 1500’s, the western plains of North America were dominated by farmers. One group, the
Mandans, lived in the upper Missouri River country, primarily in present – day North Dakota. They had
large villages of houses built close together. The tight arrangement enabled the Mandans to protect
themselves more easily from the attacks of others who might seek to obtain some of the food these highly
capable farmers stored from one year to the next.
The women had primary responsibility for the fields. They had to exercise considerable skill to
produce the desired results, for their northern location meant fleeting growing seasons. Winter often
lingered; autumn could be ushered in by severe frost. For good measure, during the spring and summer,
drought, heat, hail, grasshoppers, and other frustrations might await the wary grower.
Under such conditions, Mandan women had to grow maize capable of weathering adversity. They began as
early as it appeared feasible to do so in the spring, clearing the land, using fire to clear stubble from the fields
and then planting. From this point until the first green corn could be harvested, the crop required labor and
vigilance.
Harvesting proceeded in two stages. In August the Mandans picked a smaller amount of the crop
before it had matured fully. This green corn was boiled, dried and shelled, with some of the maize slated
for immediate consumption and the rest stored in animal – skin bags. Later in the fall, the people picked
the rest of the corn. They saved the best of the harvest for seeds or for trade, with the remainder eaten
right away or stored for alter use in underground reserves. With appropriate banking of the extra food, the
Mandans protected themselves against the catastrophe of crop failure and hunger.
The women planted another staple, squash, about the first of June, and harvested it near the time of the
green corn harvest. After they picked it, they sliced it, dried it, and strung the slices before they stored
them. Once again, they saved the seeds from the best of the year’s crop.
76. The Mandans built their houses close together in order to ____________.
A. protect themselves against the weather B. allow more room for growing corn
C. share farming implements D. protect their supplies of food
77. Why does the author believe that the Mandans were skilled farmers?
A. They developed very effective fertilizers. B. They could grow crops despite adverse weather.
C. They developed new varieties of corn. D. They could grow crops in most types of soil.
78. The word “catastrophe” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. disaster B. history C. avoidance D. control
79. Throughout the passage, the author implies that the Mandans _________.
A. valued individuality B. planned for the future C. were very adventurous D. were open to strangers
A. The problems encountered by farmers in growing one crop
B. Various ways in which corn can be used
C. The agricultural activities of a North American society
D. Weather conditions on the western plains
XIV. Hoàn thành mỗi câu dưới đây bắt đầu bằng từ hoặc cụm từ gợi ý để câu sau có cùng nghĩa với
câu cho trước. (10đ)
81. Many people say that olive oil is good for the heart.
 Olive oil …………………………………………………………………………………………….
82. You can really master a language if you use it regularly.
 Only by ……….…………………………………………………………………………………….
83. None of the passengers was injured because of the driver’s quick reaction.
 But ……….…………………………………………………………………………………….……
84. All the children will receive a prize, whatever their score in the competition.
 No matter what their………………………………………………………………………………...
85. “Congratulations! You have passed the exam, Tony,” said Joe.
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 Joe ………………………………………………………………………………………………...
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86. I’m sure that David took your book by mistake.
 David …………………………………………………………………………….……………….
87. They cancelled the flight because of the heavy rain.
 So heavily ……………………………………………………………….……………………….
88. They tried hard so that they would pass the exam.
 With a ….……………………………………………………………………….………………..
89. She is proud that she is such a good DJ.
 She prides………………………………………………………………………………………..
90. Jack doesn’t know all the answers, though he pretends to.
 Jack acts.…………….………………………………………………………………….………..
XV. Hoàn thành mỗi câu dưới đây, sử dụng từ cho sẵn (không biến đổi từ đã cho) để câu sau
có cùng nghĩa với câu cho trước. Sử dụng không quá 07 từ bao gồm cả từ đã cho. (5đ)
91. My father has never thought of selling his old bike. CROSSED
 The thought of selling the old bike ..........................
92. A baker delivered the cake for us this morning HAD
 We .......................... this morning.
93. The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked. LIGHT
 The mistake in the accounts only .......................... the figures were re-checked.
94. Her behaviour tends to be bad when she is under pressure. TENDENCY
 She.......................... badly when she is under pressure.
95. The coach’s tactics were directly responsible for the team’s defeat. CONSEQUENCE
 The team’s .......................... the coach’s tactics.
XVI. Sử dụng từ, cụm từ gợi ý để viết câu hoàn chỉnh. (5đ)
96. Never/ her life/ she/ see/ such/ tall building.
 ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
97. Mary/ be/ last/ applicant/ to/ interview/ yesterday.
 ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
98. Mrs. Green/ proud/ son/ contribution/ the play.
 ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
99. I/grateful/helpful information/ courses in English/ you/give/ me.
 ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
100. It/ no/ use/ call/ him/ because/ phone/ of/ order/ now.
 ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT
QUẢNG NGÃI NĂM HỌC 2019 – 2020
Ngày thi 06/6/2019
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn: TIẾNG ANH (Hệ chuyên)
Thời gian làm bài 150 phút. (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi gồm có 04 trang. Thí sinh làm bài trên phiếu trả lời)
PART A: LISTENING (2.0pts)
Section 1a. You will hear a record message about an arts festival. You will hear the recording
twice. Choose the best answer (A, B, C). (0.5 pt)
1. The festival takes place from ________.
A. 12th to 18th of May B. 12th to 20th of May C. 12th to 28th of May
2. What is on at the Theater Royal on 19th of May?
A. Opera B. Rock C. Jazz
3. During lunchtime jazz concerts at the Corn Exchange they sell ________.
A. soft drinks and sandwiches B. wine and sandwiches C. soft drinks and light meals
4. What is on at the cathedral?
A. Music B. Films C. Opera
5. You can’t use a credit card if you book ________.
A. by post B. by fax C. by telephone
Section 1b. You will hear a talk given to visitors to a fashion museum. You will hear the recording
twice. Choose the best answer (A, B, C). (0.5pt)
6. The speaker says that fashion now interests________.
A. rich people B. young people C. most people
7. Fashion clothes which were made before the 1900s were ________ .
A. individually made B. copied from pictures C. made of light material
8. Coco Channel ________.
A. was born in 1908 B. changed people’s ideas about fashion C. wore tight-fitting clothes
9. In the 1920s, ________ .
A. white skirts were fashionable B. clothes started to cost less C. women took up sports
10. Which of these was part of the “New Look”?
A. material with flowers B. very short skirts C. long skirts
Section 2. You will hear a conversation in which two people are trying to buy a railway ticket.
Listen and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). (0.5pt)
11. Ben and Mary originally planned to travel to New Castle on Saturday.
12. The last direct train to New Castle is at 6.30 a.m.
13. Ben doesn’t normally travel by coach because it makes him feel ill.
14. The coach takes longer on Friday evening because there are traffic jams on Fridays.
15. Ben and Mary pay in cash.
Section 3. You will hear a radio announcer giving details about a local Motor Show. For each
question, fill in the missing information in the spaces. Write no more than three words and/or a
number. (0.5pt)
FIND ANSWER KEY AT OTTO CHANNEL

East Brook Motor Show
Date: (16) ____________
Location: Three-Tree Show Ground
Old cars and buses
Displays:
Cars of the (17) ____________
Jack Tyler from the Television Show (18) ____________
Famous people:
Top Racing Driver Michael Boreman
Stalls selling gifts, jewelry and clothes.
For ladies:
Competition - Guess the number of (19) ____________ in the car
Price of family ticket: (20) £____________
PART B: READING COMPREHENSION (3.0pts)

Section1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each
gap.(1.0pt)
There can be no (21) ______that online shopping is of huge benefit to the consumer. Far from
becoming (22) ______, online shoppers are very demanding. Overpriced merchants with poor services
should beware. Gone are the days when stores could charge what they liked for goods and get away with
it. The same, too, for shady manufacturers: smarter consumers know which products have a good
(23)______and which do not because online they now read not only the sales (24) ______but also
reviews from previous purchasers. And if customers are disappointed, a few (25) ______of the mouse
will take them to places where they can let the world know. Nowadays there is nothing more damning
than a flood of negative comments on the internet.
However, the big boys, as always, are ahead of the game. Some companies are already adjusting
their business models to take account of these trends. The stores run by Sony and Apple, for instance,
are more like brand showrooms than shops. They are there for people to try out (26) ______and to ask
questions to knowledgeable staff. Whether the products are ultimately bought online or offline is of
secondary importance.
Online traders must also adjust. Amazon, for one, is (27) ______turning from being primarily a
bookseller to becoming a (28) ______ retailer by letting other companies sell products on its site, rather
like a marketplace. During America’s Thanksgiving weekend last November, Amazon's sales of
consumer electronics in the United States (29) ______its book sales for the first time in its history. Other
transformations in the retail business are (30) ______to follow.
21. A. query B. examination C. question D. proposal
22. A. complacent B. dissatisfied C. competent D. compassionate
23. A. distinction B. resolution C. opinion D. reputation
24. A. bubble B. message C. blare D. blurb
25. A. taps B. clucks C. clicks D. prods
26. A. devices B. tools C. emblems D. schemes
27. A. mistakenly B. rapidly C. unreasonably D. secretly
28. A. mass B. block C. lump D. chunk
29. A. receded B. excluded C. repressed D. exceeded
30. A. tied B. secured C. bound D. fastened
Section 2. Fill in each gap with a suitable word. (1.0pt)

IT’S COOL TO CAMP
For many of us, life is full of man-made sounds: traffic, machinery, television and other human
beings. It is not surprising that camping continues to (31) ________in popularity, as it teaches us to take
our focus off these distractions and (32) _______to enrich our lives. According to a recent report, one
holiday (33) ________eight in Europe is a camping holiday. Despite that, some would still have you
believe that camping should be considered an alternative holiday that you are driven towards because
money is (34) ________ nonsense. It is a lifestyle choice to be embraced and enjoyed, for it (35)
________us the freedom to explore in our own time and (36) ________ our own speed. The
opportunities available for (37) ________camping with some form of recreational activity are as varied
as Europe’s many thousands of miles of hiking trails, cycling routes, canals, rivers and lakes. Whether
your chosen form of activity is recreational or competitive, a sociable hobby or a way of
(38)________the crowds, there can be nothing more pleasurable (39) ________ sitting outside your tent
after a day of activity with only the hum of dragonflies and the gas stove disturbing the (40) ________.
And just remember: whatever form of camping you choose, as long as you are out there enjoying
yourself and the surroundings, the rest of the world can wait.
Section 3. Read the text and choose the best answer. (1.0pt)
Water, Air and Soil Contamination
Pollution is an environmental concern for people throughout the world. One university study
suggests that pollutants in the water, air, and soil cause up to 40% of the premature deaths in the world's
population. The majority of these deaths occur in developing countries.
Water in many developing countries is contaminated with toxic chemicals, also known as toxins.
The World Health Organization (WHO) estimates that 1.1 billion people have little or no access to clean
water. In many of these regions the water that is used for drinking, cooking, and washing is the same
water that is used for dumping sewage and hazardous waste. Most developing countries cannot afford
water treatment facilities. Approximately 80% of infectious diseases in the world are caused by
contaminated water.
Air pollution is a growing problem throughout the world. Indoor air pollution is one of the
leading causes of lung cancer. Families in developing countries use open stoves for cooking and heating
their homes. These homes do not have proper ventilation. The smoke, which is full of chemicals
and carcinogens, gets trapped inside where families eat and sleep. Outdoor pollution also causes disease
and illness, especially in industrial cities such as Beijing, China, where cancer is the leading cause of
death. China relies heavily on coal, which is considered the dirtiest source of energy. According to the
European Union, only 1% of urban dwellers in China breathe clean air on an average day. Neighbouring
countries including Japan and Korea receive much of China's pollution in the form of acid rain. This
pollution results mainly from the coal powered factories, which produce inexpensive goods for North
American and European consumers. Outdoor air pollution is also a concern in many wealthy countries.
Those who live and work in urban centres such as Los Angeles or Toronto experience many warm days
beneath a layer of smog.
Soil pollution is also a major concern, both in industrial and developing countries. Pollutants such
as metals and pesticides seep into the earth's soil and contaminate the food supply. Soil pollution causes
major health risks to entire ecosystems. This type of pollution reduces the amount of land suitable for
agricultural production and contributes to global food shortages. Dumping of industrial
and domestic waste products produces much of the world's soil pollution, though natural disasters can
also add to the problem. In wealthy countries such as the US, protection agencies monitor the food
supply. The public is generally warned before major disease outbreaks occur. Developing countries do
not have this luxury. Farmers in poor nations grow food in contaminated soil both to earn a living and to
avoid starvation.
As more people move to urban centres, premature deaths caused by pollution are expected to
increase worldwide. Today, the developed nations who achieved their wealth at the expense of the
environment will be held accountable for protecting the earth's resources for future generations.

41. A university study suggests that up to 40% of the world's premature deaths are caused by
A. developing countries B. disease outbreaks C. pollutants
42. In many developing countries people use _____ contaminated by hazardous waste and sewage.
A. water B. air C. facilities
43. _____ regions are often contaminated with air pollution.
A. Chemical B. Carcinogenic C. Industrial
44. What do open windows and fans that extract smoke provide?
A. contamination B. ventilation C. indoor pollution
45. The article implies that most of China's air pollution is caused by_____.
A. Japan and Korea B. burning coal C. acid rain
46. According to the article, where is cancer the leading cause of death?
A. Beijing B. Los Angeles C. the European Union
47. Which is NOT mentioned as a source of soil pollution?
A. hazardous wastes B. use of pesticides C. smoke from factories
48. Soil pollution is a major concern in _____ countries.
A. industrial B. developing C. industrial and developing
49. Industrial metals and pesticides seep into the earth's soil and contaminate our_____.
A. food supply B. food shortages C. disease outbreaks
50. Premature deaths caused by pollution are expected to increase as more people move to _____.
A. developed nations B. urban centres C. country towns
PART C: WRITING (2.5pts)
Section 1. Summarize the lessons one can learn from a dog in not more than 120 words. (1.0pt)
There are so many lessons one can learn about life from a dog. Imagine this scenario: it is raining
heavily outside and you need to leave for someone's house. The dog is up and eager, to go with you.
You tell it to stay home. As you leave, you see it squeezing out through the gap in the doorway. You
scold it and order it back home. Then at every turn you make, you suddenly see it following
you sheepishly at a distance. It follows at the risk of being reprimanded for the sore reason of being
somewhere nearby. How else can we experience so selfless an instance of love and faithfulness? We can
learn a lifelong lesson from this sincere warm display of perpetual companionship.
Observe the eating habits of your dog. It does not eat, except when hungry. It does not drink,
unless it is thirsty. It does not gorge itself. It stops eating when it has had enough.
A dog also sets a perfect example of adaptability. If it is moved to a strange place, it is able to
adapt itself to that place and to its thousand peculiarities without a murmur of complaint. It is able to
learn and adapt to a new family's ways and customs. It is quick and ready to please. Man,
being accustomed to comfort and wealth will be lost if suddenly stripped of all he is accustomed to.
A dog also teaches us a thing or two about, unselfish love. When a dog knows death is approaching, it
tries, with its last vestige of strength, to crawl away elsewhere to die, in order to burden its owners no
more.
A dog does things with all vigor. However, when there is nothing to do, it lies down and rests. It
does not waste its strength and energy needlessly. Many working people are burning the candles at both
ends. Many suffer nervous breakdowns due to stress. Perhaps, they should learn to rest like a dog does.
A dog above all is truly man's best friend.
Section 2. Write an essay of about 200 - 250 words on the following topic “Technology has made
the world today a better place to live”. Do you agree or disagree with the statement? Use specific
reasons and examples to support your statement. (1.5pts)
-----------THE END-----------
(Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm)

S GIÁO D O THI TUY N SINH L NG THPT CHUYÊN
NH C: 2019 - 2020
Môn thi : TI chuyên)
CHÍNH TH C
Th i gian làm bài: 120 phút
thi g m : 08 trang)
m bài thi H tên, ch ký c a giám kh o S phách
B ng s B ng ch Do h ng ch m thi ghi
thi này.
PART A. LISTENING (2.0 POINTS)
I. You'll hear a man phoning the services manager of a hotel. Listen and complete the form below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear TWICE.
Flanders Conference Hotel
Customer Services Manager: Angela
Date available
weekend beginning (1) 4th
Conference facilities
the (2) room for talks
(projector and (3) available)
area for coffee and an (4)
free wifi throughout
a (5) buffet lunch costs $45 per head
Accommodation
Rooms will cost (6) $ including breakfast.
Other facilities
The hotel also has a spa and rooftop (7) .
There's a free shuttle service to the (8) .
Location
Wilby Street (quite close to the (9) )
near to restaurants and many (10) .
II. You will hear an interview with an American actress named Emma. Listen and circle the correct
answer A, B or C. You will hear TWICE. (0.5p)
1. What does Emma say about the weather in Britain?
A. She struggled to get accustomed to it.
B. Her character in the film was wrong about it.
C. The change was quite pleasant for her.
2. What does Emma say about her relationship with the actors who played her roommates?
A. It was the same in real life as in the film.
B. She was surprised by how good it was.
C. It was easy to fake a good one in the movie.
FIND ANSWER ON OTTO CHANNEL

3. What does Emma say about English and British accents?
A. She was able to copy one of the other actor's accents.
B. She Is Incapable of doing a range of English and British accents.
C. She has an aversion to the sound of the Welsh accent.
4. What does Emma say about her American accent?
A. She didn't like comments that were made about it.
B. She isn't really aware of having one.
C. Lots of people don't notice it.
5. What does Emma say about boarding schools?
A. She regards it as the best kind school.
B. Her opinion of them has changed.
C. She merely knows about them from books and films.
III. You will hear an interview with Hannah, who takes photographs of waterfalls. Listen and fill in
each blank with ONE WORD ONLY. You will hear TWICE. (0.5p)
Photographing waterfalls
She used a camera belonging to her (1) to take the photos in the mountains.
She believes that (2) is the best time of year to photograph waterfalls.
She loves taking photos of water hitting the (3) below.
In winter, the photographer had better avoid treading on any (4) that may appear in a picture.
Hannah likes to take pictures from the (5) of smaller waterfalls.
PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (2.0 POINTS)
I. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences. (0.5p)
1. The parcel I sent you by now.

A. must arrive B. is supposed to arrive. C. should have arrived D. would arrive
2. More than ten victims are reported missing in the storm last week.
A to have been B. to be C. being D. of being
3. smart he was, he couldn't figure out how to solve the puzzle.

A. Although B. However C. Much as D. Despite
4. There are no compulsory standardized tests in Finland, one exam at the end of student's
senior year in high school.
A. apart from B. rather than C. outside D. instead of
5. In 1979, it was required that every teacher a fifth-year Master's degree in theory and
practice.
A. gained B. must gain C. gain D. gains
6. You should in mind that the quicker you learn a language, the more quickly you forget it

A miss B. bear C. take D. make
7. I don't like a few things about my new job, but it is quite enjoyable.
A. what's more B. sooner or later C. by and large D. in conclusion
8. Shall we walk to work? d

A. Sooner drive B. prefer driving C. prefer it to drive D. rather to drive
9. Not only horrific damage, but they also caused problems with Japanese nuclear power plants.
A. the earthquake and tsunami have caused B. has the earthquake and tsunami caused
C. have caused the earthquake and tsunami D. have the earthquake and tsunami caused
10. The managing director to lay off workers.

A. forever threatens B. does forever threaten
C. is forever threatening D. is threatening forever
II. Give the correct form of the capital words. Write your answers in the blanks. (10.5p)
1. In this country, the state parents, paying them around 150 euros per month for every child until
he or she turns 17. SUBSIDY
2. Any form of drinking and driving is and can come with strict punishment. LEGAL
3. There is clear evidence that the increasingly driving conditions in the capital are having some
negative effects on car use. PLEASE
4. David claimed that his choice of venue for the party was EXCEPT
5. Although the of a family may not change, the relationship of people to each other within the
family group changes as society changes. DEFINE
III. Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition or particle to complete the sentences. (0.5p)
1. He has been a heavy drinker since his mother passed away. He took drink to forget the grief.
2. Trung's sense of humour makes him stand from other students.
3. You should not be deceived thinking that the most expensive courses are the best.
4. It is expected that our business can take this year.
5. I don't think this record will ever catch . There's nothing special in its melody.
IV. Each of the following sentences has ONE word that needs correction.
Underline that word and correct it by replacing it with ONE proper word.
Write the correction in the provided blank on the right.
There is an example at the beginning (0). (0.5p)
Sentences Corrections
0. He collided with a car because he was driving too fastly. fast
1. I'd like to do an appointment to see the doctor.

2. Sea ports have been transformed by the advent of powered vessels, which size has
increased dramatically.
3. For years, many people have questioned the safety of microwaves, fear that the
technology is a little too good to be true.
4. The number of large commercial vehicles have fallen and motorcycle and bicycle use
has declined.
5. Minh and Cuong were badly injured in the last match, so none of them can play in this
match.
PART C. READING (2.5 POINTS)
I. Read the text and circle A, B, C or D that best fits each space. (0.5p)
Ireland
A damp island on the fringes of the North Atlantic, Ireland has always been (1) by the elements.
How its wild inhabitants got there is the subject of lively debate. Why, for example, does the island have
species, such as spotted slugs, that are (2) from Britain but found in northern Spain and Portugal?
The fact that the island's wildlife is not merely a subset of that of the British Isles is intriguing, and when
added to the cultural landscape and weather-beaten coasts, makes it a uniquely attractive destination,
Memorable experiences are at the visitor's (3) . For instance, commuters on Dublin's urban rail
system regularly catch a (4) of seals, porpoises and bottlenose dolphins.
While Ireland is small, there are endless nooks and crannies waiting to be explored, and many surprises
(5) in wait. Here, for example, is my (6) of the top wildlife hotspots. Vast (7) of
uninhabited bog define the Donegal uplands. Remote and forbidding, this is a landscape of resilience in the
(8) of isolation. At its heart is Glenveagh National Park, (9) nearly ten years ago the
skies began to resound once again to the cries of golden eagles. The species was (10) to the Park from
Scotland after not having been seen in the area for more than a century.
1. A. involved B. shaped C. modeled D. painted

2. A. vacant B. absent C. removed D. away
3. A. kneecaps B. eyebrows C. toenails D. fingertips
4. A. glance B. sight C. glimpse D. view
5. A. lie B. stay C. get D. stand
6. A. lot B. pick C. turn D. take
7. A. extensions B. grounds C. expanses D. exteriors
8. A. wake B. face C. field D. case
9. A. which B. where C. why D. how

10. A. revitalized B. revived C. rediscovered D. reintroduced
II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write the words in the spaces provided.
At a school in Espoo, a suburb west of Helsinki, Kari Louhivuori, the school's principal, decided to try
something extreme by Finnish standards. One of his six-grade students, (1) recent immigrant, was
falling behind, resisting his teacher's best efforts. So he decided to hold the boy back a year. Standards in the
country have vastly improved in reading, math and science literacy over the (2) decade, in large
part because its teachers are trusted to do whatever it takes to turn young lives around. I took Besart on that
year as my private student", explains Louhivuori. When he was not studying science, geography, and math,
Besart (3) seated next to Louhivuor's desk, taking book from a stall stack, slowly reading one, then
another, then devouring them by the dozens. By the end of the year, he (4) mastered his adopted
-rich language and arrived at the realization that he could, in (5) , learn.
III. Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions. (1.0)
Many prehistoric people subsisted as hunters and gatherers. Undoubtedly, game animals, including
some very large species, provided major components of human diets. An important controversy centering on
the question of human effects on prehistoric wildlife concerns the sudden disappearance of so many species
of large animals at or near the end of the Pleistocene epoch. Most paleontologists suspect that abrupt changes
in climate led to the mass extinctions. Others, however, have concluded that prehistoric people drove many of
those species to extinction through overhunting. In their "Pleistocene overkill hypothesis," they cite what
seems to be a remarkable coincidence between the arrival of prehistoric peoples in North and South America
and the time during which mammoths, giant ground sloths, the giant bison, and numerous other large mammals
became extinct.
Perhaps the human species was driving others to extinction long before the dawn of history. Hunter-
gatherers may have contributed to Pleistocene extinctions in more indirect ways. Besides overhunting, at least
three other kinds of effects have been suggested: direct competition; imbalances between competing species
of game animals, and early agricultural practices, Direct competition may have brought about the demise of
large carnivores such as the saber toothed cats. These animals simply may have been unable to compete with
the increasingly sophisticated hunting skills of Pleistocene people.
Human hunters could have caused imbalances among game animals, leading to the extinctions of species
less able to compete. When other predators such as the gray wolf prey upon large mammals, they generally
take high proportions of each year's crop of young. Some human hunters, in contrast, tend to take the various
age-groups of large animals in proportion to their actual occurrence. If such hunters first competed with the
larger predators and then replaced them, they may have allowed more young to survive each year, gradually

increasing the populations of favored species. As these populations expanded, they in tum may have competed
with other game species for the same environmental niche, forcing the less hunted species into extinction. This
theory, suggests that human hunters played an indirect role in Pleistocene extinctions by hunting one species
more than another.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The effects of human activities on prehistoric wildlife
B. The origins of the hunter-gatherer way of life
C. The diets of large animals of the Pleistocene epoch
D. The change in climate at the end of the Pleistocene epoch
2. The underlined word "Undoubtedly" in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. occasionally B. unexpectedly C. previously D. certainly
3. The underlined word "components" in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. parts B. problems C. changes D. varieties
4. Which of the following is mentioned as supporting the Pleistocene overkill hypothesis?

A. Many of the animals that became extinct were quite large.
B. Humans migrated into certain regions around the time that major extinctions occurred.
C. There is evidence that new species were arriving in areas inhabited by humans.
D. Humans began to keep and care for certain animals.
5. The underlined word "Besides" in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. caused by B. whereas C. in addition to D. in favor of
6. The author mentions saber-toothed cats as an example of a carnivore that

A. became extinct before the Pleistocene epoch B. was unusually large for its time
C. was not able to compete with humans D. caused the extinction of several species
7. The underlined word " they" in the passage refers to

A. human hunters B. game animals C. other predators D. large mammals
8. According to the passage, what is one difference between the hunting done by some humans and the
hunting done by gray wolves?
A. Some humans hunt more frequently than gray wolves.
B. Gray wolves hunt in larger groups than some humans.
C. Some humans can hunt larger animals than gray wolves can hunt
D. Some humans prey on animals of all ages, but gray wolves concentrate their efforts on young animal
9. The underlined word "favored" in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. large B. escaping C. preferred D. local

10. According to the passage, the imbalances discussed in paragraph 3 may have resulted way
A. the effect of climate changes on large game animals
B. large animals moving into a new environment
C. humans hunting some species more than others
D. older animals not being able to compete with younger animals
IV. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs 1-5 from the list of headings below. Write your answers
in the boxes provided. Paragraph 0 is given as an example. (0.5 p)
List of Headings
i. The problem of dealing with emergencies in space it.
ii. How space biomedicine can help patients on Earth.
iii. Why accidents are so common in outer space
iv. What is space biomedicine?
v. The psychological problems of astronauts
vi. Conducting space biomedical research on Earth
vii. The internal damage caused to the human body by space travel
viii. How space biomedicine first began
ix. The visible effects of space travel on the human body
x. Why space biomedicine is now necessary
SPACE TRAVEL AND HEALTH

Paragraph 0
Space biomedicine is a relatively new area of research both in the USA and in Europe. Its main objectives are
to study the effects of space travel on the human body, identifying the most critical medical problems and
finding solutions to those problems. Space biomedicine centers are receiving increasing direct support from
NASA and/or the European Space Agency (ESA).
Paragraph 1
This involvement of NASA and the ESA reflects growing concern that the feasibility of travel to other planets,
and beyond, is no longer limited by engineering constraints but by what the human body can actually
withstand. The discovery of ice on Mars, for instance, means that there is now no necessary to design and
develop a spacecraft large and powerful enough to transport the vast amounts of water needed to sustain the
crew throughout journeys that may last many years. Without the necessary protection and medical treatment,
however, their bodies would be devastated by the unremittingly hostile environment of space.
Paragraph 2
The most obvious physical changes undergone by people in zero gravity are essentially harmless; in some
cases, they are even amusing. The blood and other fluids are no longer dragged down towards the feet by the
gravity of Earth, so they accumulate higher up in the body, creating what is sometimes called fat face', together
with the contrasting 'chicken legs' syndrome as the lower limbs become thinner.
Paragraph 3
Much more serious are the unseen consequences after months or years in space. With no gravity, there is less
need for a sturdy skeleton to support the body, with the result that the bones weaken, releasing calcium into
the bloodstream. This extra calcium can overload the kidneys, leading ultimately to renal failure. Muscles too
lose strength through lack of use. The heart becomes smaller, losing the power to pump oxygenated blood to
all parts of the body, while the lungs lose the capacity to breathe fully. The digestive system becomes less
efficient, a weakened immune system is increasingly unable to prevent diseases and the high levels af solar
and cosmic radiation can cause various forms of cancer.
Paragraph 4
To make matters worse, a wide range of medical difficulties can arise in the case of an accident or serious
illness when the patient is millions of kilometers from Earth. There is simply not enough room available inside
a space vehicle to include all the equipment from a hospital's casualty unit, some of which would not work
property in space anyway. Even basic things such as a drip depend on gravity to function, while standard
resuscitation techniques become ineffective if sufficient weight cannot be applied. The only solution seems to
be to create extremely small medical tools and 'smart devices that can, for example, diagnose and treat internal
injuries using ultrasound. The cost of designing and producing this kind of equipment is bound to be, well,
astronomical.
Paragraph 5
Such considerations have led some to question the ethics of investing huge sums of money to help a handful
of people who, after all, are willingly risking their own health in outer space, when so much needs to be done
a lot closer to home. It is now clear, however, that every problem of space travel has a parallel problem on
Earth that will benefit from the knowledge gained and the skills developed from space biomedical research.
For instance, the very difficulty of treating astronauts in space has led to rapid progress in the field of
telemedicine, which in turn has brought about developments that enable surgeons to communicate with
patients in inaccessible parts of the world. To take another example, systems invented to sterilize wastewater
onboard spacecraft could be used by emergency teams to filter contaminated water at the scene of natural
disasters such as floods and earthquakes. In the same way, miniature monitoring equipment, developed to save
weight in space capsules, will eventually become tiny monitors that patients on Earth can wear without
discomfort wherever they go.
Paragraph 0. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Heading iv (example)
PART D. WRITING (2.5 POINTS)

I. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the first
sentence, using the cues at the beginning of each sentence. (0.5p)
1. I really don't want to tidy my room right now.
I really don't feel ........................................................................................................................................
2. I applied for the job but was turned dowm.
My ..............................................................................................................................................................
3. I don't intend to tell you my plans.
I have ..........................................................................................................................................................
4. He paid no attention to our warning.
He took ........................................................................................................................................................
5. Hardly had I got downstairs when the phone stopped ringing.
The moment ...............................................................................................................................................
II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and six words, including the
word given. (0.5p)
6. The inhabitants were far richer twenty years ago than they are now. (NOWHERE)
The inhabitants now are they were twenty years ago.
7. The economic situation may improve only if interest rates are cut. (CONDITION).
The economic situation may improve interest rates are cut.
8. That historian became famous for his vast knowledge of primitive life. (HIMSELF)
That historian for his vast knowledge of primitive life.
9. They arrived at the station with only a minute to spare. (NICK)
They arrived at the station time.
10. Michael works overtime because he wants to pay off his debts. (VIEW)
Michael works overtime off his debts.
III. Write an essay on the following topic (1.5p)

More and more people now prefer reading books on smart devices to reading paper books. Thus, some say
that the latter will become unnecessary and disappear in the future. What is your opinion?
You should write about 200 words.
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TRƯỜNG PHỔ THÔNG NĂNG KHIẾU ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10
ĐẠI HỌC QUỐC GIA TP HCM Năm học 2018-2019
HỘI ĐỒNG TUYỂN SINH Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (chuyên)
(Đề thi có 12 trang: Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút
- phần trắc nghiệm 8 trang (cho cả 2 phần trắc nghiệm và tự luận),
- phần tự luận 4 trang) không kể thời gian phát đề
PART 1. Word Formation

For questions 1-15, read the text below and complete each gap with the correct form of the word at the
end of the line. Do not write more than ONE word in each gap. Spelling mistakes will be penalized.
By now; it is just a question of which heart-rending image you choose. There is the hawksbill
turtle struggling to free itself from a plastic bag, the sea of polystyrene trash floating over a
1. WASH
Caribbean nature reserve, or the sperm whale (1) ashore in Spain, its stomach
filled with plastic waste.
Since the (2) of mass-produced plastics in the early 20th century, (3) has 2. INTRODUCE
produced an estimated 8300 million tonnes of the stuff. Around three-quarters has been thrown 3. HUMAN
away, and 80 per cent of that has drifted into the environment or gone into (4) Eight million 4. FILL
tonnes a year end up in the ocean - 5 trillion pieces counting.
5.DEVELOP
It is an environmental catastrophe and a human one, too, as some people in parts of the (5) 6. FILTH
world live ankle-deep in (6) , non-biodegrading plastic trash. The long-term health (7) 7. IMPLY
for all of us remain (8) , as ingested plastic works its way up the food chain.
8. CERTAIN
Everyone agrees something must be done. From banning plastic straws to rebooting recycling
9. SHORT
systems to harnessing plastic-munching bacteria, there is no (9) of touted (10) .
10. SOLVE
It is less clear what would work best. But fixing plastic waste crisis is going to take some seriously
11. DECIDE
joined-up thinking. If we make the wrong (11) now, we risk making the problem worse.
If plastics didn't exist, we would have to invent them. Generally made of oil- derived polymers, 12. CHEMISTRY
they can be hung with different (12) groups and spiced up with (13) to give 13. ADD
them wildly differing properties such as hardness, strength, (14) and heat-resistance. 14. DENSE
This makes them just the thing for everything from colorful, (15) kids' toys… 15. DURATION
Your answer
1. 2. 3.
4. 5. 6.
7. 8. 9.
10. 11. 12.
13. 14. 15.
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PART 2. Cloze
Complete the passage below by writing ONE word in each gap.
VOLUNTEERING ABROAD
Some travelers are content partying their way around the world. You, (1) , want to profit from a trip
abroad in another way - a more meaningful one. Volunteering not only gives you the opportunity to contribute, it gives
you something to do, somewhere to go, and somewhere to stay. The goal is to challenge (2) every day,
test your patience and courage, and broaden your horizons.
By volunteering abroad, you will learn so much about yourself. You will do things that you never imagined you
were (3) of. The biggest difference you will notice at the end of the programme will not be external.
You will be changed forever because you will have a greater understanding of another culture, you will (4)
challenged your personal limits, and developed new friendships.
The majority of international volunteer programmes are hosted in underdeveloped countries. Before you go,
you should (5) your research properly. The (6) thing the volunteer organization and the locals need is
someone complaining (7) the food! You will be surprised at how little you need in the way of modern
comforts to be happy. However, if you know yourself and you know that you will have difficulty adapting, there are still
opportunities for you.
Accepting and respecting (8) culture may be one of the most difficult aspects of your volunteer
experience. (9) solitary volunteer can change centuries of tradition or culture. You must look deep inside
yourself and decide if you are flexible (10) to respect the local culture before you go.
Volunteering abroad is truly a study abroad experience. Every minute of every day you will be student. You
may learn a new language, a new culture, a new (11) of life. But remember, being flexible and patient is
the key (12) having a satisfying experience. Developing countries are not as obsessed with time as the US or
Europe. Things may seem disorganized (13) times and you may have to work or contribute in ways that
don't (14) any sense to you. You will have to accept the programme and offer your services (15)
those limits.
PART 3. Sentence Transformation:

Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not make any changes to the word given and write no more than EIGHT words in total.
1. My business partner and I are in complete agreement. difference
→ There is my business partner and me.
2. Getting upset over Michaef's departure is pointless. tears
→ There's no over Michael's departure.
3. I wish I'd done a scientific 0-level and become a brain surgeon. regret
→ I regret a brain surgeon.
4. Her father and the Grandma don't seem to have any more ideas. run
→ Her father and the Grandma ideas.
5. I hear you're a little unsure about going up to Whitebridge for the reunion. second
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→ I hear you're up to Whitebridge for the reunion.
6. We had expected more people to attend the meeting. who
→ The number of people expectations.
7. You shouldn't have criticized such people. be
→ Why people ?
8. I actually feel offended by what you're saying. offence
→ I actually you’re saying.
9. Do you remember where you were 30 years ago? mind
→ Do you you were 30 years ago?
10. I don't care what happens to the world. same
→ It's happens to the world.
11. He expected me to admire all I saw. full
→ He expected me all I saw.
12. He didn't expect to receive a phone call from his best friend Michael. blue
→ A phone call his best friend Michael.
13. It was too hard to express her real thoughts. words
→ It was too hard .
14. It isn't worth considering his suggestion for a moment. giving
→ Not for one moment consideration.
15. There is a rumour that Hitachi Ltd.'s open systems division is working on a deal with Sun Microsystems Inc.
rumoured
→ Hitachi Ltd. 's open systems division a deal with Sun Microsystems Inc.
16. In the end they left me to settle up with the restaurant. foot
→ In the end I the restaurant bill.
17. The effects of the gale were felt mainly along the south coast. brunt
→ The south coast the gale.
18. Your scheme is brilliant, but it won't succeed. doomed
→ Brilliant though failure.
19. The employees insisted on being given a full bonus. satisfy
→ Nothing but the employees.
20. This computer data is strictly confidential. revealed
→ Under no circumstances to anyone.
THE END
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TRƯỜNG PHỔ THÔNG NĂNG KHIẾU ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10
ĐẠI HỌC QUỐC GIA TP HCM Năm học 20**-20**
HỘI ĐỒNG TUYỂN SINH Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (chuyên)
(Đề thi có 12 trang: Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút
- phần trắc nghiệm 8 trang (cho cả 2 phần trắc nghiệm và tự luận),
- phần tự luận 4 trang) không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi: 264
Read the four texts below. There are ten questions about the texts. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on
your answer sheet to indicate which text tells you the answer to the question. The same text may be
used more than twice
A B.
Advantages of Time Management: What is Rescue Time?
gains time, motivates and initiates, Rescue Time is a web-based time-management tool that allows
reduces avoidance, promotes review you to easily understand how you spend your time. You install
of work, eliminates cramming for a program on your computer and we magically track all of your
exams, reduces anxiety. time usage.
Keys to Successful Time I always have a lot of different applications and sites open at
Management any given time. How does Rescue Time handle that?
 Self-knowledge and goals: In Rescue Time doesn't really care which applications you have
order to manage your time open, but rather pays attention to which application or site is
successfully, having an awareness of currently "in focus". In other words, we're measuring what's
what your goals are will assist you in what you are paying attention to, not what you have open.
prioritizing. What about when I get up from my computer?
 Developing and maintaining a How are you going to measure that?
personal, flexible schedule: Time Why would you ever want to do that? Seriously, though
management provides you with the Rescue Time has an idle timeout that will stop the data
opportunity to create a schedule that collection process if there hasn't been mouse or keyboard
works for you, not for others. This activity for a certain period of time.
personal attention gives you the How accurate is Rescue Time?
flexibility to include the things that We like to say that Rescue Time is about 95% accurate.
are most important to you. Because of idle detection, Rescue Time can sometimes over-
FIND INSTRUCTIONS AND ANSWER KEY ON OTTO CHANNEL

report by a few seconds here and there. We're constantly
working to improve accuracy.
C D
Have you been trying to improve your time Time management is commonly defined as
management skills or overall personal effectiveness? the various means by which people effectively
Do you feel like you are still missing some key use their time and other closely related
details? If so, we've got something for you. resources in order to make the most out of it. It
This personal time management guide refers to principles and systems that individuals
accompanying newsletter are dedicated to building a use to make conscious decisions about the
stronger foundation for your success. One skill at a activities that occupy their time.
time. However, it has been said that you can't
Each section of the guide is an important building manage time, time just is. So "time
block you can put into your foundation right now. management" is a mislabeled problem. What
Take one of the pages and read it: you will gain the you really manage is your activity during time.
key insights and practical tips for one of the core
areas of higher personal effectiveness. Take and the
another page and do the same. Each article will move
you one step forward in something that could be
limiting your success level today
In which text does the writer

Question 1: answer questions?
Question 2: promote a book?
Question 3: define something?
Question 4: address students?
Question 5: claim that time management is good for people who procrastinate?
Which text is saying the following?
Question 6: They can accurately track how you use your time.
Question 7: Certain insights can improve your effectiveness.
Question 8: Time cannot be managed.
Question 9: You need to know your priorities.
Question 10: It's easy to tell when you are not working on the computer

Mark the letter A, B. C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
from 11 to 30.
Question 11: Don't panic: your key will probably when you least expect it.
A. turn up B. run up against C. come across D. put down
Question 12: John's never happy. He's always about one thing or another
A. grumbling B. finding fault C. criticizing D. considering
Question 13: The retiring firemen received a commemorative gift a set of pens and pencils.
A. involving B. comprising C. composing D. consisting
Question 14: Many children in state schools have expressed frustration at having to with
values they don't share.
A. corroborate B. conceive C. comply D. comprise
Question 15: Experts have discovered a fossil that has been so exceptionally well preserved that even
its tissue is .
A. inflated B. inaudible C. intact D. indiscreet
Question 16: Don't forget to plug in the a cable before turning the printer on.
A. inspection B. connection C. retention D. detection
Question 17: I’ll be back one of these days, and we'll have a meal together.
A. slap down B. slap-bang C. slapdash D. slap-up
Question 18: Sally when she heard that her sister was on the hijacked plane.
A. took aback B. broke down C. put off D. fell out
Question 19: Then I lay there wide until after midnight, thinking about nothing else.
A. woken B. awake C. awoke D. waking
Question 20: "Have you taken everything into account?"-"Yes, I think I've made for just about
everything."
A. acknowledgements B. remedies C. allowances D. deficits
Question 21: Sports journalists are saying that the home side is to win the championship match
tomorrow.
A. resolute B. feasible C. bound D. probable
Question 22: Rising temperatures are said to be the habitats and feeding patterns of penguins.
A. marring B. dotting C. shifting D. altering
Question 23: Recently Tawfiq AI-Sudairi, the deputy minister of Islamic Affairs in Saudi Arabia,
his disapproval of the political interpretation of Islam.
A. spoke B. said C. told D. voiced
Question 24: Thus you convince them that this piece is , so no one will attack us outside in an
attempt to steal it.
A. invaluable B. valueless C. priceless D. unworthy
Question 25: The horrific plane crash was pilot error.
A. resulted in B. inflicted by C. attributed to D. admonished by
Question 26: Stop shouting! You're attention to yourself.
A. accepting B. drawing C. paying D. accumulating
Question 27: The President had to her vacation after hearing about the natural disaster.
A. restrain B. restrict C. curtail D. desert
Question 28: Children were taught at home long before public schools were even .
A. in principle B. on the whole C. at liberty D. in existence
Question 29: Economists claim that restricting the free flow of goods will cause global economic
and decline.
A. stagnation B. boom C. capitalization D. regimen
Question 30: Renewable forms of energy are now quite cost .
A. successful B. ignorant C. productive D. effective
While searching for information on road safety for a school assignment, you find this past on a weblog
Read the post carefully and answer the questions that follow.
JAYWALKING
The origins of jaywalking, the illegal crossing of a roadway by a pedestrian, lie in a propaganda
campaign by the motor industry in the early 1900s. The word jaywalker vas first used to describe
someone from the countryside who wasn't accustomed to the rules of the road for pedestrians in the city,
so would attempt to cross the streets anywhere. In 1913, a department store in New York hired a Santa
Claus, who stood on the sidewalk bellowing at people who didn't cross the street properly and calling
them jaywalkers.
The idea of being fined for crossing the road at undesignated areas or without regard for traffic
regulations can confuse foreign visitors to the US. The UK, Norway and France are among the many
developed countries where jaywalking is not an offence, but their rates of pedestrian injuries are lower

than those of the US. However, a handful of countries have followed the lead of the US and imposed
anti- jaywalking measures. Police in China, for example, began fining jaywalkers in 2013, and in
Singapore, jaywalking can lead to a $1,000 fine or a three-month jail term.
In the US, jaywalking can result in a fine ranging from $190 to $250. As in most countries with anti-
jaywalking legislation, enforcement of the law here is sporadic, often only triggered by repeated
complaints from drivers in certain areas. But jaywalking has been illegal in the US for many decades.
According to Jacob Rath, a history professor at the University of Virginia, a key moment was in 1929
when a petition was signed by the citizens of Cincinnati to limit the top speed of cars to 25mph. Though
the petition failed, car makers scrambled to shift the blame for pedestrian casualties from motorists to
pedestrians. Soon, he adds, they also started influencing school safety education by stressing that "streets
are for cars, not for children". As a result, anti-jaywalking laws were adopted in many cities and had
become the norm by the end of the 1930s.
In the decades that followed, the overriding goal of city planners and engineers was to allow traffic to
circulate unhindered. "For years, pedestrians were essentially written out of the equation when it came
to designing streets," says Tom Vanderbilt, author of Traffic - Why We Drive the Way We Do. "They
didn't even appear in early computer models, and when they did, it was largely for their role in blocking
vehicle traffic. This has made US cities unusually hostile to pedestrians," says Vanderbilt. Jaywalking
has become an "often misunderstood umbrella term", covering many situations in which the pedestrian
should, in effect, have the right of way.
In the US, resistance to anti-jaywalking legislation 15 growing. When the Los Angeles Police
Department recently advertised an anti-jaywalking campaign on is Facebook page, respondents accused
he police of simply seeking an easy source of revenue. And in New York, in its effort to crack down on
Jaywalking, the mayor's office bas come up against opposition from voters and police officers. Advocates
of jaywalking say careless drivers. not pedestrians, are most often to blame for motorist-pedestrian
accidents, pedestrian deaths and injuries, and that there is no evidence to prove that anti-jaywalking
campaigns are effective. They believe that there is too little experimentation with projects that aim to
make US cities more pedestrian-friendly, such as increasing motorists' awareness of pedestrians and
reducing traffic speeds in urban areas.
Leave your comments:

Very interesting facts about jaywalking, but your post is wrong when it states that “it is not an offence in the UK”. Jaywalking is an
offence in Northern Ireland (part of UK), although, fortunately, traffic officers rarely entered the law. But if had when they do, it
can result in either a written warning or a £30 fine.
Question 31: Which of the following is closest in meaning to 'bellowing' in paragraph 1?

A. yelling B. smiling C. staring D. waving
Question 32: Who would most likely be fined for jaywalking in the United States?
A. a person from the countryside who crosses the road at a crosswalk
B. someone who hurriedly crosses the road near a crosswalk
C. a pedestrian standing on the sidewalk outside a department store
D. a motorist who is unaware of the rules of the road for pedestrians
Question 33: What does the author imply in the second paragraph?
A. More countries have anti-jaywalking measures than those that don't.
B. Anti-jaywalking measures don't guarantee low pedestrian injury rates.
C Traffic regulations in the US are confusing for foreign visitors.
D. Jaywalking should not be an offence in any developed country.
Question 34: Who campaigned for the introduction of anti-jaywalking legislation?

A. the auto industry B. the citizens of Cincinnati
C. educationalists D. motorists
Question 35: Which of the following is closest in meaning to 'written out of the equation' in
paragraph 4?
A. frustrated B. disregarded C. deceived D. reprimanded
Question 36: How did early city planners view pedestrians?

A. They thought that they made the roads unsafe for motorists.
B. They regarded them as being vital elements in road design.
C. They considered them to be traffic obstructions.
D. They believed they should have the right of way on the streets.
Question 37: What can be inferred about traffic officers in the US?
A. They want to abolish anti-jaywalking legislation.

B. They would like to see a limit on the top speed of cars.
C. They believe that the fine for jaywalking is too high.
D They don't consider fining jaywalkers a top priority.
Question 38: What do people who oppose anti-jaywalking laws believe?

A. The laws help reduce the number of motorist-pedestrian accidents.
B. Jaywalking fines are a necessary source of income for cities.
C. Motorists are unaware of what jaywalking actually is.
D. Pedestrian-friendly projects should be implemented.
Question 39: Why has Ian McInnes left a comment on the weblog?
A. to stress that the fine for jaywalking in his country is avoidable
B. to point out that Northern Ireland is part of the UK
C. lo correct information in Mike Bruberg's post
D. to argue for the rights of pedestrians
Question 40: What best describes the style of Mike Bruberg's post?
A. a public complaint against jaywalking
B. an informative analysis of jaywalking
C. a subjective opinion on jaywalking
D. a sentimental defence of jaywalking
Read the text about homework and mark the letter A, B. C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
families correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 41 to 50.
A study of the impact of homework in different countries claims that the pressure of homework causes
(41) between children and parents. According, to the study, this pressure is most evident in
families where parents are (42) for their children to succeed at school.
The recently released study is a review of research over 75 years, which (43) the impact of
homework in the United Kingdom, the United States, Europe, Australia and the Middle East. It claims
(44) homework can become a source of tension, particularly when parents try to (45)
too much control.
The study states that parents have the most positive influence when they offer moral support, make
appropriate resources available and discuss general issues, adding that parents should only offer their

help when their children (46) ask them to. The report also backs the effectiveness of
homework clubs, which have recently (47) popular in many schools. These provide a quiet
(48) where children can study after formal lessons finish, with a teacher (49)
available to help them. Children feel that these clubs (50) homework enjoyable and give
them a better chance of passing exams.
Question 41: A. friction B. impact C. interest D. disaster

Question 42: A. interested B. intense C. encouraging D. keen
Question 43: A. revises B. suggests C. examines D. proves
Question 44: A. that B. what C. how D. when
Question 45: A. bear B. give C. hold D. take
Question 46: A. specifically B. certainly C. critically D. specially
Question 47: A. been B. seemed C. deemed D. become
Question 48: A. place B. period C. time D. point
Question 49: A. whose B. is C. seemingly D. often
Question 50: A. give B. have C. make D. do
Choose the sentence A, B, C, or D which is closest in meaning to the first sentence of each of the
questions from 51 to 55.
Question 51: "You have spoilt my party," she told her brother.
A. She apologized for spoiling her brother's party.
B. She accused her brother of spoiling her party.
C. She has asked her brother to spoil her party.
D. She threatened to spoil her brother's party.
Question 52: She had never been to such a boring party before.
A. She shouldn't have been so bored at the party.
B. Rarely does she go to boring parties.
C. Never before had she been so bored at a party.
D. She avoids going to boring parties.

Question 53: Cathy had better stop eating so much chocolate.
A. Cathy wishes she could give up eating chocolate.
B. Cathy ought to stop eating so much chocolate.
C. Cathy would prefer to stop eating so much chocolate.
D. Cathy may have given up eating so much chocolate.
Question 54: Bill should have arrived by now.

A. Bill bas just arrived. B. I expected Bill to have arrived before.
C. I think Bill should be here very soon. D. Bill is going to arrive any minute.
Question 55: Without his help, she would not have managed to solve the problem
A. She managed to solve the problem on her own.
B. She's unable to solve the problem without his help.
C. If he hadn't helped her, she wouldn't have been able to solve the problem
D. If he helps her, she'll be able to solve the problem.
Read the text about oil spill and mark the letter A. B. C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 56 to 65.
On an ecologist's list of nightmares, this (56) looked like an easy member of the Top Five. An
Ecuadorian fuel tanker, the Jessica, ran aground in the Galapagos archipelago and slowly spilled its (57)
of 240,000 gallons of oil into the surrounding ocean. The disaster threatened to choke a
unique and delicate (58) ; the islands whose giant tortoises and 15 related species of finch
inspired Charles Darwin's 'The Origin of Species' in 1859.
The emergency began when the captain of the Jessica, a 30-year-old boat, (59) a buoy for
lighthouse and ran aground off the shore of San Cristobal Island. The ship's cargo was 65% diesel oil
(60) for Baltra Island and 35% bunker fuel, a heavier form of oil used by tour boats. Rescue
teams from the Ecuadorian navy and the state-owned fuel company began (61) vessel, fuel
from the damaged vessel, but after three days of battering by waves up to 2 meters in (62) , the
Jessica began leaking oil into the sea and would (63) pour out over 180,000 gallons.
One week later, the government declared a state of (64) in the Galapagos archipelago,
setting (65) an initial $2 million for cleanup operations.
Question 56: A. one B. only C. was D. had

Question 57: A load B. cargo C. produce D. transport
Question 58: A. wildlife B. habitat C. nature D. vicinity
Question 59: A. mistook B. noticed C. confused D. observed
Question 60: A. headed B. directed C. aimed D. sent
Question 61: A. eliminating B. removing C. subtracting D. exporting
Question 62: A. length B. range C. height D. strength
Question 63: A. eventually B. explicitly C. totally D. barely
Question 64: A. alarm B. disaster C. emergency D. tragedy
Question 65: A. down B. up C. off D. aside
Mark the letter A. B. C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
from 66 to 80.
Question 66: The English spoken in Canada is similar the United States.
A. to these in B. with that of C. with that in D. to that of
Question 67: After the eruption, lava out of the volcano and poured down the mountainside.
A. bas spewed B. was spewed C. spewing D. spewed
Question 68: This prestigious university just over $2 million to nanotechnology
research recently.
A. says to allocate B. said to have allocated
C. is said to have allocated D. is said that they allocated
Question 69: According to the investigation, he died not from a blow to the head
A. but of a heart attack B. but his heart failed him
C. only of a heart attack D. instead of his heart attack
Question 70: "Did Celine ever graduate from university?"-"No, at university for 18
months, she dropped out to find work."

A she had been B. after having been C. while being D. since she was

Question 71: Keith made in his attempt to catch the dog that he strained his back.
A. Such a great effort B. Such was the effort
C. So was the effort that D. So great effort
Question 72: The examinee couldn't understand the question, so he asked from the supervisor.
A for clarification B. to clarify C. for clarifying D. Jo be clarified
Question 73: With the increase in international crime, it is logical to searched at customs
nowadays.
A. assuming that you are B. assume to be
C. assume you will be D. assume being
Question 74: Democrats would have done better in the midterms they run as the peace party.
A. had B. if C. unless D. were
Question 75: Human Rights Watch documented that thousands of orphans and abandoned children
each year.
A. are vanished in B. vanish
C. have been vanished D. get vanished
Question 76: "He needs to go on a strict diet."- "I agree. He does eat much.
A. too much B. that C. much too D. too very
Question 77: "Didn't you hear the doorbell?" -"No, I fast asleep. "
A. had to be B. must be
C. should have been D. must have been
Question 78: There seemed to be a consensus that the new proposal at the meeting.
A. has rejected B. be rejected C. should reject D. was rejected
Question 79: Christine has never to anybody about anything in her life.
A. lied B. laid C. lain D. lay
Question 80: Medical researchers have recently discovered what to be a new strain of
the killer virus.

A. appears B.is appearing C. was appeared D. appears as if

Mark the letter A. B. C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the questions from 81 to 85.
Question 81: A. chateau B. chain C. chapter D. charm
Question 82: A. courageous B. gaseous C. gorgeous D. cretaceous
Question 83: A. cough B. tough C. hiccough D. rough
Question 84: A. together B. generation C. genre D. genitive
Question 85: A. orphan B. dolphin C. shepherd D. asphalt
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the questions from 86 to 95.
Question 86: Nowadays, despite their parents' efforts to keep them innocent, children are growing up
A B
much more quickly than they did a generation ago.
C D
Question 87: In those countries where public health care is available, less unnecessary medical
A B
procedures occur and lawyers are rarely involved in settling disputes.
C D
Question 88: The existence of the Mozart sonatas, unlike his operas, was wholly unsuspected until about
A B C D
the early twentieth century.
Question 89: Julia has discovered that she can express her opinions more freely through her diary
A B C
and not in her letters.
D
Question 90: In the 18th century, careers in medicine and law were prestigious, but it did not require
A B C
practitioners to hold college degrees.
D
Question 91: The director's second movie is quite different from his first and, in continuity at least, is
A B
more superior to it.
C D

Question 92: Human population, far from being randomly scattered across the continents, appear
A B C
to be distributed in circular patterns.
D
Question 93: Edward Graves was one of a handful of people who committed his life to preserve the
A B C D
pristine wilderness of the Sierra Nevada mountains.
Question 94: When rumors of a secret wedding began to spread, neither of the movie stars were available
A B C D
for comment.
Question 95: The main rule of the stables is clearly posted and reads as follows: anyone who has not
A B
rode a horse before must be accompanied on by an experienced guide.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the questions from 96 to 100.
Question 96: A compulsory B. federation C. parabolic D. mausoleum
Question 97: A. meteorite B. consequently C. preferable D. certificate
Question 98: A. carol B. garnish C. simmer D. promote
Question 99: A. nominate B. compromise C. ultimate D. embroider
Question 100: A. minimize B. applicant C. satellite D. bilingual
--- HET---

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10
TỈNH QUẢNG NINH TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HẠ LONG
NĂM HỌC: 20**-20**
Môn: Tiếng Anh (đề chuyên)
Ngày thi: 29/6/20**
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi này có 05 trang)
(Thí sinh làm bài thi trên tờ giấy thi, không làm bài thi vào bản đề thi, không được dùng các loại từ điển)
PART 1. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY. (3.0 pts)

I. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. Write
the letter A, B, C or D which stands next to the word you choose in your paper sheet. (0.5 pt)
1. A. tropical B. collection C. occasion D. comprise
2. A. regularly B. charity C. battery D. deny
3. A. detail B. aircraft C. claim D. acquaintance
4. A. face B. baggy C. pants D. added
5. A. jeans B. styles C. students D. labels
II. Choose the best word or phrase to complete the following sentences. Write the letter A, B, C
or D which stands next to the word you choose in your paper sheet. (1.5pts)
1. You need about forty different nutrients to stay .
A. health B. healthily C. wealthy D. healthy
2. The rivers are becoming extremely .
A. pollute B. pollution C. polluted D. polluting
3. Assistant: "Is there anything I can do for you, sir?" - Customer: "
"
A. Yes, you're welcome. C. Not now. Thanks
B. OK. Your time. D. Sure. Go ahead, please.
4. We'll go out as soon as it raining.
A. has stopped B. is stopping C. stop D. will stop
5. It was his home town that in his novel.
A. was described B. describes C. described D. was describing
6. "Is that a new coat?"- "Yes, what it?
A. are you thinking of C. is your idea in
B. do you think of D. did you think about
7. Cindy. "Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary!"- Mary: " "
Xem hướng dẫn chi tiết tại Otto Channel
A. Yes, all right. C. Never mention it.
B. Thanks, Cindy. I had it done yesterday. D. Thanks, but I'm afraid.
8. Jack can speak two languages. One is English is Vietnamese.
A. Other B. The other C. Another D. Others
9. children like ice-cream." "That's quite natural."
A. Most B. Most of C. The most D. The most of
10. "Don't forget to do as I have told you." - " "
A. No, I don't. C. Yes, I will.
B. No, I will remember. D. No, I won't.
11. He is thought in a foreign country when he was 20.
A. to work B. to have worked C. working D. has worked
12. Get me some stamps, ?
A. have you B. will you C. do you D. don't you
13. Susan couldn't help when I told her the joke.
A. laughing B. laugh C. to laugh D. laughed
14. If they worked more carefully, they so many mistakes.
A. won't make B. don't make C. wouldn't make D. didn't make
15. Mr. Vo Van Kiet, was our former Prime Minister, was born in Vinh Long.
A. that B. whose C. who D. both A & C
III. Give the correct form of the words in capital in the brackets. Write your answers in your paper
sheet. (0.5 pt)
LIFE ON THE OTHER PLANETS
Humans have long been fascinated by outer space, and have wondered if there are intelligent
life-forms elsewhere, which we might be able to contact. (1. NATURE) , we've all seen
space creatures on our TV and cinema screens, but "aliens" like these owe more to the (2.
CONVENIENT) of using human actors or actresses to play the parts than to any real form
of (3. SCIENCE) investigation.
However, many serious space (4. RESEARCH) are now being to tum their attention to
the question of what alien life might actually look like. One early result is A mold the Alien, (5.
DESIGN) by the biologist, Dougal Dixon. This strange being, unlike humans, has its eyes,
ears and limbs in groups of three instead of pairs but, despite its odd appearance, its behavior is not
very different from our own.
IV. Choose the underlined part that is incorrect in each of the following sentences. Write the letter
A, B, C or D which is under the part you choose in your paper sheet. (0.5 pt)
1. I think I'm very lucky to having been noticed so early in my career.
A B C D
2. Lately, scientists has observed increasing pollution in the water supply.

A B C D
3. Both Mr. John or his wife have been to France twice before.
A B C D
4. Although she was very tired, she decided going out with us.
A B C D
5. She was unable to warn her mother that she would be late because of the telephone was out of
order.
A B C D
PART 2. READING (4.0 pts)

I. Read the text below and fill in each space with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in your
paper sheet. (1.0 pt)
Anyone who visits England would like to spend a lot of time in Stratford-upon-Avon. Located in the
centre of England, (1) is a town that is rich in both history and culture. Its population is
(2) 23,000. Stratford-upon-Avon is famous because it is the place (3) the
talented playwright Shakespeare was born (4) died. When you go (5) , you can
visit his birthplace, and some buildings which used to belong to (6) family. There are many
other buildings (7) are worth visiting in the town. Enjoying an evening in Stratford-upon-
Avon is very interesting. There are restaurants that are suitable (8) all tastes. In the evening,
the Royal Shakespeare Theatre offers interesting plays written by Shakespeare and (9)
have a chance to see some of the best actors and actresses of England on stage. There are many
other (10) of amusement and entertainment waiting for you.

II. Read the passage and do the tasks below. (1.5 pts)
Baseball is the most popular sport in America. In a baseball game there are two teams of nine
players. Players must hit a ball with a bat and then run around four bases. A player who goes around
all the bases scores a run for his team. The team that finishes with more runs wins the game.
Where did baseball come from? No one knows for sure. Many people believe that the idea came
from a game played by children in England. Other people believe that a man named Abner Doubleday
invented the game in Cooperstown, New York, in 1839. But the first real rules of baseball were written
in 1845 by Alexander Cartwright. Two teams from New York played a game following Cartwright's
rules. The rules worked well. Soon there were many teams.
These early teams were not professional. They played only for fun, not money. But baseball was
very popular from the start. Businessmen saw that they could make money with professional baseball
teams.
The first professional team was started in 1869. This team was the Red Stockings of Cincinnati,
Within a few years, there were professional teams in other cities. In 1876 these teams came together
in a league, or group, called National League. The teams in the National League played one another.
In 1901 a new league, called the American League, was formed. To create some excitement, in
1903 the two leagues decided to have their first-place teams play each other. This event was called the
World Series.
Each year since then the National League winner and the American League winner play in the
World Series. And, each year, millions of people look forward to this exciting sports event.
Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences. Write the letter A, B or C which stands
next to the answer you choose in your paper sheet.
1. A group of people that play together is a .
A. team B. league C. game
2. A wooden stick used to hit a ball in baseball is called a .
A. ball B. sport C. bat
3. The four stations the players must go around are .
A. rules B. bases C. wins
4. When a player runs around all four bases, he makes a .
A. four B. winner C. run
5. Teams that play a game in the correct way are following the _________.
A. runs B. rules C. players
6. A group of sports teams is called .
A. first-place teams B. a league C. a series
7. When teams play sports for money, they are ___________
A. businessmen B. fun C. professional
Decide if the following statements are true, false or no information. Write T next to the numbers of
the questions (8, 9, 10, ...) if the sentence below is true, write F if it is false and write NI if it has no
information in your paper sheet.
8. Baseball was invented in England. F

9. Abner Doubleday played the game with Alexander Cartwright. NI
10. The early teams played for fun. T
11. The Red Stockings were the first professional team. T
12. In 1876 nonprofessional teams came together in a league. T
13. The World Series has been played since 1903. T
14. Baseball players must hit a ball with a bat and run around nine bases. F
15. The winning teams in each league play each other in the World Series. T

III. Read the text below and choose the best word to complete the text. Write the letter A, B, C or
D which stands next to the word you choose in your paper sheet. (1.5pts)
Modem cinema audiences expect to see plenty of thrilling scenes in action films. These scenes,
which are (1) as stunts, are usually (2) by stuntmen who are specially trained to do
dangerous things safely. (3) can crash a car, but if you're shooting a film, you have to be
extremely (4) sometimes stopping (5) in front of the camera and film crew. At an
early (6) in the production, an expert stuntman is (7) in to work out the action
scenes and form a team. He is the only person who can go (8) wishes of the director, (9)
he will usually only do this in the (10) of safety.
Many famous actors like to do the dangerous parts themselves, which produces better shots, since
stuntmen don't have to (11) in for the actors. Actors like to become (12) in all the
important aspects of the character they are playing, but without the recent progress in safety equipment,
insurance companies would never (13) them take the risk. To do their own stunts, actors
need to be good athletes, but they must also be sensible and know their (14) . If they were to be
hurt, the film would (15) to a sudden halt/stop.
1. A. remarked B. known C. referred D. named
2. A. performed B. given C. fulfilled D. displayed
3. A. Everyone B. Someone C. Anyone D. No-one
4. A. detailed B. plain C. straight D. precise
5. A. right B. exact C. direct D. strict
6. A. period B. minute C. part D. stage
7. A. led B. taken C. through D. called
8. A. over B. against C. through D. across
9. A. despite B. so C. although D. otherwise
10. A. interests B. needs C. permit D. regards
11. A. work B. get C. put D. stand
12. A. connected B. arranged C. involved D. affected
13. A. allow B. let C. permit D. admit
14. A. limits B. ends C. frontiers D. borders
15. A. come B. fall C. pull D. go
PART 3. WRITING. (3.0 pts)
I. Use the word in the brackets to write the second sentence as similar as possible in meaning to
the first one. Don't change the word in the brackets. Write your answers in your paper sheet.
(0.6 pt)
1. It is impossible for me to catch an earlier train. (way)
→ ...............................................................................................................................
2. The teacher is sure to ask you such questions. (asked)
→ ...............................................................................................................................
3. The original painting and the copy look the same to me. (tell)
→ ...............................................................................................................................
4. I used to be a friend of his. (with)
→ ...............................................................................................................................
5. "I'm sorry I have to leave so early," John said. (apologized)
→ ...............................................................................................................................
6. I will continue speaking if you don't interrupt me anymore. (stop)
→ ...............................................................................................................................
II. Use the following set of words or phrases in each line to make a complete sentence. Write your
answers in your paper sheet. (0.9 pt)
7. the Battle/ Dien Bien Phu/ end/ the Indochina War/ 1954.
→ ...............................................................................................................................
8. today/ Dien Bien Phu/ be/ tourist destination.
→ ...............................................................................................................................
9. many visitors/ be/ members of the battle.
→ ...............................................................................................................................
10. when/ visit/ battle site/ tourists/ enjoy/ beautiful scenery/ the Muong Thanh Valley.
→ ...............................................................................................................................
11. tourists/ visit/ neighboring villages/ share/ hospitability of the local people.
→ ...............................................................................................................................
12. most/ people/ who/ live/ area/ be/ members/ the Thai or H'Mong ethnic minorities.
→ ...............................................................................................................................
13. however/ they/ not depend/ tourism alone to live.
→ ...............................................................................................................................
14. because/ Dien Bien Phu/ be/ important trading center.
→ ...............................................................................................................................
15. food/ leave/ here/ Laos and Thailand/ goods/ arrive back/ Vietnam.
→ ...............................................................................................................................
III. Write a passage IN 10 SENTENCES in your paper sheet about the importance of English and
what you should do to learn English well. (1.5 pts)
The end

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 CHUYÊN
TỈNH ĐỒNG THÁP NĂM HỌC 2019-2020
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn: TIẾNG ANH (Chuyên)
(Đề gồm có 12 trang) Ngày thi: 08/6/2019
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Họ và tên thí sinh: ……………………………. CBCT 1: STT do CBCT ghi

Số báo danh: …………… Phòng thi: ………. CBCT 2:
Học sinh lớp………. trường………… (Ký tên – Ghi họ và tên) Số phách
Hội đồng coi thi:………………………………. (Do HĐ chấm thi ghi)
I. LISTENING (2,0 marks)

A. Listen to Jane talking to Steve about getting a student travel card. For each question, choose the
correct answer A, B, C or D. Write the best answer in the box below. (1,0 mark)
1. Steve is going to London by
A. train B. car C. plane D. coach
2. A travel card is .
A. £60 B. £16 C. £40 D. £14
3. Jane will need photos to get a student travel card.
A. five B. two C. three D. four
4. Photos are less expensive in
A. a studio B. library C. the post-office D. a photography shop
5. Jane takes everything to the .
A. post-office B. college C. tourist office D. library
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
B. You will hear a fitness manager of a leisure club talking to some new members. Complete the
sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Write the best answer
in the box below. (1,0 mark)

JOINING THE LEISURE CLUB
Personal Assessment
- New members should describe any (1) .
- The (2) will be explained to you before you use the equipment.
- You will be given a (3) plan.
Types of membership
- There is a compulsory £90 joining fee for members.
- Gold members are given (4) to all the LP clubs.
- Premier members are given priority during (5) hours.
- Premiers members can bring some guests every month.
- Members should always take their photo cards with them.
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (3,0 marks)

A. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to complete each sentence and write it in the box below.
(1,0 mark) Xem hướng dẫn tại Otto Channel
1. The salary of a computer programmer is a teacher.
A. twice as high as that of B. twice as much as
C. twice as high as D. as much as those of
2. What I say about these problems my own affair.
A. was B. are C. were D. is
3. Anna felt very happy when to that prestigious university.
A. admitting B. to be admitted C. being admitted D. admit
4. My teacher got angry with me. I homework that he gave me two days ago.
A. should do B. need have done C. must have done D. should have done
5. This city has four million .
A. residents B. inhabitants C. dwellers D. settlers
6. These jeans don't me anymore. They're too tight round the waist.
A. suit B. match C. fit D. go with
7. Many tourists have decided to visit Ha Long Bay because of UNESCO's of its natural
beauty.
A. recognition B. acceptance C. protection D. condition

8. Karen is good at keeping calm in any situations, but yesterday she really when her
roommate broke her favorite antique vase.
A. got on with B. looked up to C. lost her temper D. kept in touch
9. my house when the phone rang.
A. Scarcely I had left B. No sooner I had left
C. No sooner had I left D. Scarcely had I left
10. He was the only that was offered the job.
A. apply B. application C. applicant D. applying
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, but some have
a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick (✓) in the space provided in the
box for answer. If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word in the space
provided in the box for answer. (1,0 mark)
Lines SIGHTSEEING IN LONDON

Last weekend, all of the students in my class went on a trip to London to do some
of sightseeing. We left very early in the morning so that we would be able to see
as much places as possible. After getting off the coach somewhere which in the
centre, the first place that we visited it was Buckingham Palace. As everyone
knows, that is the place where the Queen lives in. Despite the fact that there were
loads of tourists taking photographs there, I enjoyed seeing this famous building.
Next, we went to the Houses of Parliament, which is another one impressive
place. Fortunately, we could go to inside that day. Then our coach took us back.
I was tired but really impressed by that exciting trip.

C. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that
fits in the space in the same line. Write your answer in the box below. (0,5 mark)
IN PRAISE OF PLASTIC
Although plastic has a (1) for being cheap and disposable, in the REPUTE
hands of a good designer, it can be used to make objects of great beauty. As
well as offering extremely high quality at a low price, plastic can take almost
any shape, colour or (2) . CONSISTENT
Plastic can also be seen as an (3) friendly choice of material. It can ENVIRONMENT
be used in place of wood and other materials that are in short supply in their
(4) state, and it is also very hard-wearing. A good plastic chair, for NATURE
example, could last you a lifetime and when you no longer wanted it, then it CYCLE
would probably be possible to (5) the material.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
D. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles. Write your answer in the box
below. (0,5 mark)
1. She wasn't allowed in the cinema because she was age.
2. Although Mark said he'd be there at 8.00, he didn't turn until 10.30.
3. The manager shouted at his secretary because he was a bad mood yesterday.
4. I ran Sally at the shop yesterday. I hadn't seen her for months.
5. The chemicals give toxic fumes, so be very careful when using them.
III. READING (2,0 marks)

A. Choose the word which best completes each blank in the following passage. Write your answer
in the box below. (0,5 mark) xem hướng dẫn tại Otto Channel

WITHOUT TV
The most radical thing we have ever done is not have a TV in our house. Since 99.1 percent of
American (1) cannot make this claim, it may be of some interest to know why. Certainly,
our lack of a television has created great curiosity, puzzlement, and anger (2) the people
we know, and I suspect even more of these (3) behind our backs. "If the Wetherells get by
without a TV, why can't we?"
We did have a television during the first days of our marriage. I remember the dizzy way the images
flickered across the screen. A few days later, after I recovered my senses, we took the set to our local
dump, shook hands in satisfaction and have been without one ever (4) .
Now that my TV watching days are behind me, I can afford to be nostalgic towards it all. I
remember those nights when the whole family used to sit in the living room watching Ed Sullivan, one
soft light left on in the corner, laughing at the comedians before the (5) came on. Nevertheless,
even warmer and more precious in memory will be these quiet, peaceful years with no TV at all.
1. A. households B. housewives C. housing D. housework

2. A. within B. between C. among D. inside
3. A. beliefs B. emotions C. opinions D. thoughts
4. A. again B. afterwards C. before D. since
5. A. announcements B. commercials C. clips D. publications
B. Fill in each blank with the most suitable word to complete the text. Write your answer in the box
below. (0,5 mark) xem hướng dẫn tại Otto Channel
TREE-CLIMBING
Many people will look back on tree-climbing as a simple childhood pleasure and a natural test of
human strength, stamina and agility. But these days, it has turned (1) a more serious activity and
is (2) of the fastest-growing adventure sports in the country.
(3) the invention of expensive gyms with indoor climbing walls, tree-climbing was a
cheap and simple way to get a similar type of exercise. These days, if you want to (4) part
in an organised tree-climbing activity, you have to wear a helmet and attach yourself to ropes in (5)
you should lose your footing. But otherwise, tree-climbing is a very eco-friendly sport, involving
minimum damage to trees or the environment.
C. Read the passage, choose the best answer and write it in the box below. (1,0 mark)
EFFECTS OF VOLCANOES
Do you know where the word "volcano" comes from? It comes from the Roman god Vulcan, the
god of fire. Ancient Romans believed Vulcan lived under the island of Vulcano. It was a volcanic island
that continued to erupt into the late 1800s. Though Vulcano may not have erupted for centuries, many
other volcanoes still do. In fact, on January 11, 2013, four simultaneous volcanic eruptions were recorded
on the Kamchatka Peninsula! But how do volcanoes affect people?
Death and destruction are the two main negative effects of volcanoes. Lava flows can destroy
houses, buildings, plants, and wildlife habitats. Mixtures of hot gas and ash can travel up to 150 km/h
and kill anything in their path. Heavy volcanic ash can make it hard for people to breathe and can cause
houses to collapse, Moreover, volcanic ash can damage jet engines. In 2010, thousands of people were
stuck in airports for weeks when a volcanic eruption in Iceland produced a giant ash cloud. The negative
effects are obvious, but you may be surprised to learn that there are positive effects as well.
With so many negative effects, why would anyone want to live near a volcano? One reason is that
volcanoes can be major tourist attractions. For example, people travel from all over the world to see
Mount Vesuvius in Italy. Jobs and money have been generated as a result. Volcanic eruptions can also
be beneficial for farming. The ash produced by volcanic eruptions often contains minerals and acts as a
natural fertilizer. For example, volcanic activity near the Brazilian plateau has enabled the soil to be
perfect for coffee production. Another benefit of volcanoes is thermal energy. The steam produced by
volcanic heat is utilized to create electricity by governments. In fact, more than 90% of homes in Iceland
are heated this way.
Thanks to science and technology, people have learned to take advantage of the benefits that
volcanoes offer. Regardless of the positive effects of volcanoes, though, people should always be aware
of the deadly and destructive dangers that volcanoes pose.
1. What is the passage mainly about?
A. the history of the word "volcano"
B. volcanoes as natural tourist attractions
C. how volcanoes affect people in different ways
D. the eruptions of four volcanoes on the Kamchatka Peninsula

2. The main purpose of the third paragraph is to
A. provide details of how people benefit from volcanoes
B. describe how volcanoes create jobs and money
C. explain why Brazil is known for growing coffee
D. introduce heating methods in Iceland
3. The word "simultaneous" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. at first B. as soon as C. after all D. at the same time
4. The word "beneficial" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. challenging B. helpful C. unnecessary D. calm
5. When a volcano erupted in Iceland in 2010,
A. it produced mixtures of hot gas and ash
B. thousands of people were stuck in airports for weeks
C. it was uneasy for people to breathe
D. people may be surprised to learn that volcanoes still have positive effects as well
6. The word "their" in paragraph 2 refers to
A. death and destruction B. houses and buildings
C. hot gas and ash D. plants and wildlife habitats
7. The word "pose" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. present B. disappear C. carry D. escape
8. Which is NOT mentioned as a negative effect of volcanoes?
A. Lava flows can damage animal habitats.
B. Large volcanic eruptions cause earthquakes.
C. Houses can collapse because of heavy volcanic ash.
D. Many people were stuck in airports when a volcano in Iceland erupted.
9. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Vulcano went on erupting into the late 1800s.
B. The eruption of volcanoes minimizes death and destruction.
C. Jet engines can be supported by volcanic ash.
D. More than 90% of homes in Iceland are heated by volcanic heat.
10. What can be inferred about Mt. Vesuvius?

A. A lot of coffee is grown nearby.
B. It is used to produce thermal energy.
C. It is helping the economy of Italy.
D. Less people visit there than Iceland's volcanoes.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
IV. WRITING (3,0 marks)

A. Write the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. (0,5 mark)
1. I would prefer you to take a computer science course.
→ I'd rather ...............................................................................................................................
2. The last time it snowed here was six years ago.
→ It ............................................................................................................................................
3. The demand was so great that they had to reprint the book immediately.
→ So ..........................................................................................................................................
4. My parents let me go on a holiday with my friends last week.
→ I ............................................................................................................................................
5. "If Brian doesn't train harder, I won't select him for the team, " said the manager.
→ The manager threatened .......................................................................................................
B. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence using the
word given. Do not change the word given. (0,5 mark)
1. Martin may not be very well but he still manages to enjoy life.
PREVENT
→ Martin's poor ........................................................................................................................
2. John never takes notice of what his children say.
ATTENTION
→ John never
3. While I strongly disapprove of your behavior, I will help you this time.
DISAPPROVAL
→ Despite .................................................................................................................................
4. The children made every effort to please their father.
BEST
→ The children .........................................................................................................................
5. Jack regrets not accepting the job.
WISHES
→ Jack ......................................................................................................................................
C. Write an essay on the following topic: (2,0 marks)
Smartphones have both positive and negative effects on students.
Do you agree or disagree with the statement?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience. You should write at least 250 words.
ANSWERS:
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THE END

SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG
TỈNH BÌNH DƯƠNG NĂM HỌC: 20** - 20**
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC NGÀY THI 03/6/20**
(Đề này gồm 4 trang) MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Môn chuyên)
Đề có 8 trang Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút
Thí sinh làm bài vào phiếu trả lời (Không kể thời gian phát đề và phần nghe)
I. Listening (40 points)

Each recording will be played twice.
Part 1: You will hear people talking in different situations. Choose the best answer
(A, B or C).
1. You hear a man talking about moving house. How did he feel after moving to a new
area?
A. worried that he wouldn't see his old friends
B. concerned about how his children would adapt
C. surprised by how welcoming his new neighbors were
2. You overhear a conversation about evening classes. Why did the girl decide to
register for a photography course?
A. She wanted to take better holiday snaps
B. She thought it would help her in her career.
C. She needed a relaxing change from her studies.
3. You overhear two people talking about a new cafe. What did they both approve of?
A. the size of the portions B. the originality of the food
C. the efficiency of the service
4. On the radio, you hear a man talking about food. What does she say about it?
A. He's a shop owner. B. He’s cookery writer
C. He’s a chef in a restaurant
5. You overhear a woman talking about a job interview she had. What does she say
about it?
A. Some of the questions were unfair.
B. She felt she was insufficiently prepared
C. The interviewers put her under pressure
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6. You overhear a woman talking about a language course. What does she criticize
about it?
A. There are many students B. Grammar isn’t focused on
C. It isn’t challenging enough
Part 2: Listen to a lecture in a zoology class and answer the questions below. Choose
the best answer (A, B, C or D)
7. What is the main topic the lecture?

A. What animals live in the hot wet parts of the world. B. How
crocodiles and alligators are different.
C. Why crocodilians live in or near the water. D. How
crocodiles and alligators catch their prey.
8. How does the teacher talk about appearance of crocodiles and alligators?
A. He explains the unique features that crocodilians have.
B. He describes how they are different from other crocodilians.
C. He compares the similarities and differences between them.
D. He shows students photos of crocodiles’ and alligators’
9. Which of the following describes crocodiles?
A. They have wider V-shaped snout B. They have a
narrow U-shaped snout
C. They have dark grayish-black skin D. They don’t
have bumps on their skins.
10. What is true about alligators’ teeth.
A. Alligators’ teeth are bigger than crocodile’s teeth B. Alligators’
upper teeth are sharper than their lower teeth
C. Alligators’ lower teeth are as small as their upper teeth D.
Alligators’ upper teeth can cover their lower teeth.
Part 3: You will hear five different people talking about shopping for food. Choose
from the list (A-F) what each speaker says. Use the letters only once. There is one
extra letter which you do net need to use.
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11. Speaker 1 A. I always spend more than I intended to
12. Speaker 2 B. I avoid going shopping when I'm hungry.
13. Speaker 3 C. I dislike going shopping with other people
14. Speaker 4 D. I usually buy fruit and vegetables last
15. Speaker 5 E. I only buy things if their prices are reduced
F. I hate waiting in a long queue to pay
Part 4: Listen and write no more than three words or a number for each answer.
16 + 17. What are the two collections which have not yet been fully moved in?
16.
17.
18. What is currently being built?
18.
19. How many computer places have been installed?
19.
20. What else can you ger from the librarians if you ask?
20.
II. Reading (60 points)
Read the text and choose the best answer (A, B, Car D) for each question.
Being an older student
At 32, I have just finished my first year at university. As well as attending lectures
regularly, I have had to learn to read books quickly and write long essays
I decided to go to university after fourteen years away from the classroom. As a
secretary, although I was earning a reasonable amount of money, I was bored doing
something where I hardly had to think. I became more and more depressed by the idea
that I was stuck in the job. I was jealous of the students at the local university, who
looked happy, carefree and full of hope, and part of something that I wanted to explore
further.
However, now that I've actually become a student I find it hard to mix with younger
colleagues They are always mistaking for a lecturer and asking me questions I can't
answer. I also feel separated from the lecturers because, although we are the same age,
I know so much less than them. But I am glad of this opportunity to study because I
know you need a qualification to get a rewarding job, which is really important to me.
Unlike most eighteen-year-olds, I much prefer a weekend with my books to one out
partying. Then there are the normal student benefits of long holidays and theatre and
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cinema discounts. I often have doubts about what I'll do after university, but I hope that
continuing my education at this late date has been a wise choice.
21. What is the writer trying to do in the text?
A. Help lecturers understand older students. B. Suggest some good
methods for studying.
C. Complain about the attitude of students. D. Explain her reason for
returning to study.
22. What can a reader find out about the writer from this text?
A. When she left school. B. What subject she is
studying
C. Where she will work in future. D. How long her university
course is
23. How did the writer feel about her job as a secretary?
A. Her salary wasn’t good enough B. It gave her the
opportunity to study
C. It didn’t make use of her brain D. Her colleagues made her
depressed.
24. In her spare time, the write likes to .
A. go out to parties B. do extra study C. earn some money
D. travel a lot
25. Which of these sentences describes the writer?
A. She is confident about future. B. She gets on well with the
other students.
C. She realizes the value of a university degree. D. She finds university life
easier than she expected.
Five people below are all looking for second-hand books. There are descriptions of
eight second-hand bookshops (A-H). Decide which bookshop would be the most
suitable for them.
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26. Yang is looking for used copies of modern novels for her book group. She would
like to visit a bookshop where her two young daughters will be welcome, with
drinks and snacks available.
27. Stefan loves beautiful art books but would like to check what's available online
before visiting. He wants to find a bookshop where he can get lunch and spend
the afternoon looking at books.
28. Scott has been unable to get a particular textbook which he needs urgently for
his project on health care for the elderly. He is very busy and would prefer to
have it delivered.
29. Jasmin is setting up a library of classic fiction for her primary school. Before
buying sone books online, she would like to go to the shop and discuss suitable
books with staffs.
30. Tan wants a quiet bookshop where he can relax in comfort with a coffee for a
few hours after long day at work. He'd like to get a few cheap novels to take
home.
SECOND-HAND BOOKSHOPS
A. Bookworm
This shop has used books for all tastes but customers will have to visit in person and
look around as Bookworm does not have a website. The best sections are on medicine,
cookery and art. These include some rare and expensive books
B. Bales
This shop is famous for its range of titles, from college textbook to classic literature,
and is known for its peaceful atmosphere. Regular customers come for the excellent
cafe with its sofas and armchairs, which stays open until late.
C. Westwood's
There's no room to sit down in this tiny back street bookshop, and the owner is often
too busy to chat. On the first floor are children's books and fine art books for collectors.
At entrance level there are less expensive general fiction hardbacks.
D. Topping
You’ll only find good – quality used hardback books here on certain subjects.
Topping’s is run by three experts in art, travel and literature for the young. They are
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happy to chat and advise customers. The shelves are well-organized, and books can
also be ordered from the shop’s website.
E. Scrimshaw's
Scrimshaw’s has a huge selection of books showing the works of the great painters.
Most are in excellent condition and reasonably priced, and the store's online guide is
regularly updated. The basement also has a cafe and a large number of out-of-date
school textbooks on sale
F. Regal
Here you'll find the country's largest selection of science-related books, including
topics such as psychology and medicine. There are 70,000 used and new books, all at
discount prices. Regal also has an efficient online ordering service plus comfortable
sofas and freshly made coffee and is open during office hours.
G. Holt’s
Although its prices are high, the fun of Holt’s it its lively atmosphere. It’s is an old
railway station, where you can enjoy afternoon tea and cake in the waiting room. Or
leave the kids to play in the former ticket office while you look at the huge selection
of recent fiction.
H. Wenlock’s
This prize-wining bookshop is noted for its wide selection of titles. Fiction is
downstairs, non-fiction upstairs under the ancient roof of this 15 th century building.
The book club welcomes new members to discuss different novel on evening each
month.
Read the passage and choose the best word (A, B. Cor D) for each of the blanks.
GLOBAL WARMING
Few people now (31) the reality of global warming and its effects on the
world’s climate. Many scientists put the blame for recent natural disasters on the
increase in the world’s temperatures and are convinced that, more than ever before, the
Earth is at (32) from the forces of the wind, rain and sun, According to
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them, global warming is making extreme weather events, such as hurricanes and
drought, even more (33) and causing sea levels all around the world to rise.
Environmental groups are putting pressure on governments to take action to reduce
the amount of carbon dioxide which is given (34) by factories and power
plants, thus attacking the problem at its source. They are in (35) of more
money being spent on research into solar. Wind, and wave energy devices, which could
then replace existing power (36) . Some atmosphere tomorrow, we would
have to wait several hundred years to notice the results. Global warming, it seems, is
to stay.
31. A. approve B. realize C. differentiate D. distinguish
32. A. risk B. harm C. danger D. threat
33. A. strong B. strict C. heavy D. severe
34. A. off B. up C. over D. away
35. A. request B. suggestion C. belief D. favor
36. A. houses B. factories C. station D. generation
Seven sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences (A-
H) the one which fits each group (37-43), There is one extra sentence which you do
not need to use.
GETTING RID OF PLASTIC BAGS
By Michael Mc Carthy
Plastic bags are one of the greatest problems of the consumer society - or to be more
precise, of the throwaway society. First introduced in the United States in 1957, and
into the rest of the world by the late 1960s, they have been found so convenient that
they have come to be used in massive numbers. In the world as a whole, the annual
total manufactured now probably exceeds a trillion – that is, one million billion or
1,000,000,000,000,000.
According to recent study, whereas plastic bags were rarely seen at sea in the late
eighties and early nineties they are now being found almost everywhere across the
planet, from Spitsbergen in the Arctic to the South Atlantic close to Antarctica, They
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are among the 12 items of rubbish most often found in coastal clean-ups, (37)
Windblown plastic bags are so common in Africa that a small industry has
appeared : harvesting bags and using them to make hats and other items, with one group
of people collecting 30,000 per month. In some developing countries they are a major
nuisance in blocking the drainage systems of towns and villages.
What matters is what happens to them after use. Enormous numbers end up being
buried or burnt, which is an enormous waste of the oil products which have gone into
their manufacturer (38) Turtles mistake from them for their jellyfish food and
choke on them: bid mistake them for fish with similar consequences; dolphin have been
found with plastic bags preventing them breathing properly.
The wildlife film-maker Rebecca Hosking was shocked by the effects of the bags on
birds on the Pacific island of Midway. She found that two-fifths of the 500,000
albatross chicks born each year die, the vast majority from swallowing plastic that their
parents have mistakenly brought back as food. (39) Many local residents and
shopkeepers joined in, and the idea of getting rid of them completely soon spread to
other towns and villages.
Although some people remain unconvinced, it does seem possible that the entire
country could eventually become plastic-bag free. Who could have imagined half-a-
century ago that our public places would one day all become cigarette-smoke free? Or
that we would all be using lead -free petrol? Who would have thought even a decade
ago, come to that, that about two-thirds of us would by now be actively involved in
recycling? (40)
What is needed is a general change in consumer attitudes, towards the habit of using
re-usable shopping bags. Older people will remember how this used to be entirely
normal as every household had a “shopping bag”, a strong bag which was used to carry
items bought in the daily trip to the shops. (41) Today, many of us tend to
drive to the supermarket once a week and fill up the car with seven day’s worth of
suppliers, for which plastic bags, of course, are fantastically useful. It’s a hard habit to
break.
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However, there has already been a big drop in plastic bag use, partly because the
leading supper markets and other shopkeepers are making a major effort to help us give
up the habit, with a whole variety of new ideas. (42) It is clear that habits
are starting to change; reusable bags are more visible than they were even two years
ago.
Many believe there should be a tax on plastic bags, and the governments of a number
of countries are considering the idea. What people have in mind is the example of
Ireland, where a tax of €0.22 was introduced on all plastic bags, the first of its kind in
the world. (43) In addition, all the money from the new tax is used for
environmental clean-up projects.
A. Major changes in public opinion and behavior can certainly occur.
B. On land they are everywhere, too.
C. These range from cheap “bags for life” offers to bag free check-outs.
D. Worse still, billions get into the environment, especially the ocean environment,
where they become a terrible threat to wildlife.
E. But there was a very different pattern of household shopping then: the purchase
of a much smaller number of items, on a daily basis, after a walk to small, local shop
F. She realized then that it was too late to do anything about thig man-made disaster.
G. This quickly brought about a quite amazing reduction of 90 per cent, from 12
billion bags a year to fewer than 200.000 and an enormous increase in the use of
cloth bags.
H. As a result, she started a movement to turn her hometown into the first community
in the country to be free of plastic bags.
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Read the text below and think of ONE word that best fits each gap. Write the words
in your answer sheet.
WEATHER INANTARCTICA
The most extreme weather conditions experienced in Antarctica are associated
(44) blizzards. These are simply strong winds with falling snow or, more
commonly, snow that is picked up and pushed along the ground by the wind. Blizzards
may last for days at (45) time, and in some cases, it can be almost impossible
for people to see.
It is not unusual (46) objects only about a meter or two away to
become unrecognizable. Scientists doing research in the area are then confined to their
tents or caravans. We think of blizzards (47) extremely cold, while in
fact temperatures in the Antarctic are usually higher than normal during a blizzard.
Major blizzards of several days in length occur more frequently in some locations than
in others. (48) may be eight or ten such blizzards in any particular place
(49) an annual basis. They often cause considerable damage, so that any
scientific buildings or equipment constructed in this region must be specially made to
give as (50) protection as possible.
III. Pronunciation and Communication
Choose the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress.
51.A. universal B. application C. technology D. entertainment
52.A. mathematics B. engineering C. scientific D. laboratory
53.A. certificate B. necessary C. economy D. geography
54.A. interviewer B. preparation C. economics D. education
55.A. considerate B. information C. librarian D. environment
56.A. relevant B. descendant C. redundant D. consultant
57.A. sacrifice B. supportive C. compliment D. maintenance
58.A. penalty B. vertical C. tsunami D. childbearing
59.A. determine B. argument C. counterpart D. marvelous
60.A. represent B. introduce C. understand D. industry
Choose the best response (A, B, C) for each conversation.
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61. A. bear B. bean C. weak D. seat
62. A. book B. foot C. good D. moon
63. A. event B. recent C. delete D. select
64. A. feature B. measure C. leather D. weather
65. A. thankful B. thorough C. thinking D. Thailand
66. A. boarding B. boardroom C. cupboard D. billboard
67. A. chaos B. chemist C. channel D. Christmas
68. A. without B. theater C. southern D. worthy
69. A. volcano B. tornado C. chocolate D. correspond
70. A. teenage B. village C. image D. sewage
Choose the best response (A, B, C) for each conversation.

71. What time did the bus arrive?
A. It's three o'clock. B. About 20 minutes ago C. For half an hour
72. Would you like some more dessert?
A. No thanks, I’m full. B. Enjoy your meal! C. It’s delicious!
73. Dan's got a new bicycle, hasn't he?
A. He's a good driver. B. He’s too old C. It’s his brother’s
74. Have you got any free time later?
A It's almost ten o'clock. B. Sorry, I’m busy all day C. You’ll be late.
75. Why not come to the pool with me?
A. I haven't got one B. Twenty minutes ago C. That’s a good idea
76. Where will you spend the weekend?
A. We haven’t decided yet B. I haven’t been anywhere C. Next week
will be fine
77. Whose seat is this?
A. I’m not sure B. Yes, you can. C. Jenny’s done it
78. I feel really cold.
A. There's more in the fridge. B Turn on the heating then. C. It must be
easy
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79. How did you get here?
A. I can come on the bus. B. Is it far from here? C. Sally brought me
80. How often do you go hiking?
A. I go with three friends B. We stay for a weekend C. Most weekends
Rearrange the statements (A-F) to complete the conversation between Ms Blue the
librarian and Pinky. Number 0 has been done for your as an example.
Ms Blue: What do you need?
Pinky: (0) A
(A)I would like to check out a
Ms Blue: 81.
book
Pinky: 82.
(B) Sure. That would be great.
Ms Blue: 83.
(C) I don’t have a library card.
Pinky: 84.
(D)I’m going to need your
Ms Blue: 85.
library card
Pinky: Okay. Here you go.
(E) Please fill out this
Ms Blue: Now, sign your name on the back the
application
card.
(F) Why don’t you apply for
Pinky: Here’s your library card.
one right now?
Ms Blue: Thanks. Now I’d like to check out
this book.
Choose the statement (A-F) to complete the conversation between Mom and Tom.
What does Mom say to Tom? Number 0 has been done for you as an example.
Mom: (0) A (A)Wake up, it’s time
Tom: I’m so tired. Let me sleep for five more for school.
minutes. (B) Fine, five more
Mom: 86. minutes
Tom: I know, but just five more minutes (C) I can’t let you go
Mom: 87. back to sleep,
Tom: I promise I’ll wake up, in five minutes. because you won’t
Mom: 88. wake back up
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Tom: I know that, and I can do all that when I wake (D)I don’t want you to
up in five minutes. be late for school
Mom: 89. today
Tom: I’m not going to be late today (E) You have to get up
Mom: 90. and get ready for
Tom: Thank you. school
(F) You still need to eat
breakfast, take a
shower and get
dressed
IV. Grammar and Vocabulary
Choose the best word or phrase (A, B, C or D) to fill in each blank.
91. People have hunted animals food, hides and ivory.
A. for B. on C. in D. with
92. She has two brothers, are engineers.
A. whom both B. both who C. both of whom D. both whom
93. I am aware, there were no problems during the first six months.
A. As far as B. so much as C. Much more than D.
Except that
94. Mr Pike English at our school for 20 years before he retired last year
A. has been taught B. has been teaching C. had been teaching
D. was being taught
95. I suppose Jenny's always wanted to get to the top of her career,
?
“Yes, she is an ambitious girl”
A. aren’t I B. don’t I C. Isn’t she D. hasn’t she
96. Mary eats she used to.
A. less meat and fewer bananas than B. the least meat and fewest
bananas than
C. fewer meat and bananas than D. less and less meat and bananas than
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97. George wouldn’t have met Mary to his brother’s graduation
party.
A. if he wouldn’t have gone B. had he not gone
C. if he shouldn’t have gone D. had not he gone
98. She has just bought .
A. an interesting French old painting B. an old interesting French
painting
C. an old French interesting painting D. an interesting old French
painting
Choose the underlined part (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.
99. I wish you didn’t risk to damage your health by smoking so much.
A B C D
100. It’s high time the government does something about air pollution
A B C D
Supply the appropriate form of the world in brockets.
101. My opinion is that ghosts are . There are no ghosts in this world.
(EXIST)
102. The advantage of living in the countryside is that the air is .
(POLLUTE)
103. Teenager always try to be of their parents.
(DEPEND)
104. Being a career woman, Alice developed herself exclusively to
her career. (FURTHER)
105. Many students apply for to more than one college.
(ADMIT)
106. When is the final date for the of the essay?
(SUBMIT)
107. A good teacher can encourage artistic .
(CREATE)
108. What is the minimum entrance for this course?
(REQUIRE)
109. Such a bad behavior is totally in a civilized society.
(ACCEPT)
110. The police did an job in keeping the fan clam.
(ADMIRE)
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V. Writing (40 points)
Part A:
Rewrite the following the sentences without changing the meaning.
111. She said, "Peter, I'm sorry for breaking your favorite vase
→ She apologized to
.........................................................................................................................................
112. He told me, "Don't go to the beach today because there’s a storm coming.”
→ He wanted me against
.........................................................................................................................................
113. Helen is smarter than Alice.
→ Of the two girls, Helen and
.........................................................................................................................................
114. People believe that he quit because of ill health.
→ He is
.........................................................................................................................................
115. Sally said, "You spoiled my kid, Kevin.”
→ Sally blamed Kevin
.........................................................................................................................................
116. Stephanie said to him, "You must be here by 6 o'clock".
→ Stephanie insisted that,
.........................................................................................................................................
117. But for your help, I would have failed
→ If it
.........................................................................................................................................
118. He regrets not telling her the truth.
→ He wishes
.........................................................................................................................................
119. The accusation that he had stolen the painting was unfounded.
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→ He was wrongly
.........................................................................................................................................
120. The only reason I was late this morning was that the traffic was so heavy.
→ Had it not
.........................................................................................................................................
Part B:
You are Mary. Write a letter of at least 80 words to your Uncle John. You MUST
follow these guidelines:
✓ Begin your letter with “Dear Uncle John”.
✓ Thank your uncle for giving you a top quality mountain bike on your birthday.
✓ Say why you like the present
✓ Say how you will use the bike
✓ End your letter with “Mary”
Part C:
Write an essay of at least 200 words about the benefits of reading books.
THE END
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC - ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 2010-2011
TP HỒ CHÍ MINH Khóa ngày 21/06/2010
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Môn chuyên)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút
(Đề này gồm 4 trang) (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER TO FILL IN THE BLANK. (40 PTS)
1. They seemed to be _______ to the criticism and just carried on as before.
A. disinterested B. indifferent C. sensitive D. uncaring
2. He spoke _______ all the families who had lost relatives in the disaster.
A. with a view to B. in respect of C. on behalf of D. in aid of
3. They are very good friends but in terms of sports they are worlds _______.
A. away B. separate C. apart D. different
4. The operation was doomed to failure from the word _______.
A. go B. start C. begin D. on
5. Her penknife came in very _______ when they were on their picnic.
A. useful B. handy C. practical D. covenient
6. The doctor was unable to go away for the weekend because she was duty.
A. at B. by C. in D. on
7. She is too ________ to hide what she thinks about them
A. quiet B. outspoken C. apologetic D broadmi nded
8. The little boy _______ into tears when he thought that he was lost
A. burst B. fell C. broke D dripped
9. The film a lot of attention.
A. generated B. manufactured C. promoted D brought
10. All the engineers were happy because they finally made
A. a breakthrough B. an outburst C. a viewpoint D an outcome
11. Tom: Jane’s daughter is very rude. Mary: You are right; she has no manners .
A. however B. whatsoever C. whenever D. evermore
12. Because of her recent poor form, she is only expected to come fourth .
A. at least B. at best C. at worst D. at will
13. I’m in no this evening to listen to his silly jokes.
A. feeling B. tendency C. mood D. opinion
14. was the effect more powerfully felt than in the suburbs.
A. Nowhere B. Somewhere C. Anywhere D. Everywhere
15. the choice, I would definiely not go.
A. Giving B. Having given C. Given D. Being given
16. Tom: The building’s nearly finished, isn’t it ? Mary: Yes, but it’ll be we can move in.
A. to much time till B. a long time before C. hardly time when D. very soon that
17. Tom: Is your government salary good? Mary: Yes, but I don’t make as much ________ worked in private industry.
A. as I B. if I would have C. I would if D. as I would if I
18. Tom: Betty didn’t win the beauty contest of Singapore. Mary: She would have ________ some talent.
A. had she have B. have she had C. had she had D. have she have
19. Tom: I saw you studying at the library last night. Mary: You ; I wasn’t there.
A. wouldn’t have B. can’t have C. might have D. have
20. Tom: What’s all the noise about? Mary: We had a bad accident _[which] happened______ at the factory.
A. happened B. happening C. happen D. has happened
21. Tom: Can you wait while I run into to the library? Mary: OK, you hurry.
A. even thought B. as long as C. when D. unless
22. Tom: Do you know where Barb is? Mary: Strange sound, she is in South Africa.
A. may it B. as it may C. like it may D. does it
23. Tom: Who did you invite to dinner? Mary: No one than Frank and his family.
A. rather B. except C. besides D. other
24. Tom: A lot of money goes for AIDS research.
Mary: Yes, because it’s the government is spending a lot to find a cure.
A. a so serious disease B. so serious a disease C. so a serious disease D. such serious that
25. Tom: Which is more important: luck or effort? Mary: Luck is effort.
A. on the same importance B. the same importance as
C. of the same importance as D. as the same importance as
26. This is the latest news from Timbuktu. Two-thirds of the city _______ in a fire.
A. was destroyed B. have been destroyed C. has been destroyed D. were destroyed
27. There was no alternative _______ wait until the rescue team came.
A. but B. but to C. than to D. than
FIND EXPLANATION IN DETAILS ON OTTO CHANNEL

28. _______ his invaluable work, the project would never have succeeded.
A. For all B. In view of C. But for D. Provided with
29. This is the only party ______ in my life.
A. I never enjoy B. I ever enjoy C. I’ve never enjoyed D. I’ve ever really enjoyed
30. “So long!” is another way of saying _______.
A. Hello! B. Cheer up! C. I’m very happy. D. Goodbye!
31. Tom: Take care of yourself. Mary: _______.
A. I will B. Yes, I do C. Not bad D. You're welcome
32. Tom: Can I have your order, please? Mary: _______
A. Two chickens, please. B. I'll do it right away.
C. Yes, sir. D. Just do whatever you want to.
33. Tom: You really disappointed me with your behavior. Mary: I know. I _________ so immaturely yesterday.
A. mustn’t have behaved B. shouldn’t have behaved
C. shouldn’t behave D. ought not to behave
34. It was in the countryside _______.
A. where John was brought up B. John was grown up
C. that John was brought up D. which John was grown up at
35. I don’t know how you manage to _______ on only £50 a week.
A. get by B. take in C. cut down D. look down
36. The plumber came yesterday to _______ the burst pipes.
A. turn off B. look into C. get over D. see to
37. I’m afraid I haven’t got time to _______ the matter right now
A. go into B. look for C. turn over D clean out
38. Our school doesn’t break _______ until the end of July.
A. out B. in C. off D up
39. The government is to bring the necessary laws to deal with the problem
A. down B. to C. up D in
40. Do your shoe laces, or you will tumble over them.
A. with B. up C. about D on
II. CHOOSE THE SUITABLE WORD TO FILL IN EACH BLANK (30 PTS)
Research has shown that over half the children in Britain who take their own lunches to school do not eat (1) ___ in
the middle of the day. In Britain schools have to (2) meals at lunch time. Children can (3) to bring their own food or
have lunch at the school canteen.
One shocking (4) of his research is that school meals are much healthier than lunches prepared by parents.
There are strict (5) for the preparation of school meals, which have to include one (6) ___ of fruit and one of vegetables,
as well as meat, a dairy item and starchy food like bread or pasta. Lunch boxes (7) ___ by researchers contained sweet
drinks, crisps and chocolate bars. Children (8) twice as much sugar as they should at lunchtime.
The research will provide a better (9) of why the percentage of overweight students in Britain has (10) ___ in
the last decade. Unfortunately, the government cannot (11) parents, but it can remind them of the (12) ___ value of
milk, fruit and vegetables. Small changes in their children’s diet can (13) their future health. Children can easily develop
bad eating (14) at this age, and parents are the only ones who can (15) it.
1. A. approppriately B. properly C. probably D. possibly
2. A. take B. provide C. make D. do
3. A. prefer B. offer C. prepare D. choose
4. A. finding B. number C. figure D. outcome
5. A. standards B. procedures C. conditions D. regulations
6. A. piece B. portion C. helping D. amount
7. A. examined B. eaten C. taken D. investigated
8. A. take B. contain C. consume D. use
9. A. view B. knowledge C. understanding D. opinion
10. A. increased B. expanded C. raised D. added
11. A. criticize B. instruct C. order D. tell
12. A. nutritional B. healthy C. mental D. physical
13. A. kill B. effect C. destroy D. affect
14. A. behaviors B. styles C. attitudes D. habits
15. A. prevent B. cancel C. stop D. delay
III. IDENTIFY THE MISTAKE IN EACH SENTENCE. (20 PTS)

1. They asked me (A) what did happen (B) the last night, but I was (C) unable to (D) tell them.
2. The (A) test administrator ordered (B) that we (C) not to open our books until he told (D) us to do so.
3. (A) Our new neighbors (B) had been living in Arizona (C) for ten years (D) before moving their present house.
4. I (A) would attend (B) the meeting last week, but I had to (C) make a speech at still (D) another meeting.
5. We (A) are supposed to read all of (B) chapter seventh and (C) answer the questions (D) for tomorrow’s class.

6. Mexican (A) jumping beans are (B) actually seeds (C) in which contain moth larvae (D) whose activity causes the
seeds to jump.
7. Science fiction is any (A) fiction dealing with the future or with (B) so imaginative subjects as interstellar travel,
(C) life on other planets, (D) or time travel.
8. Approximately fifty percent of the (A) package (B) utilized in the United States are for (C) foods and (D) beverages.
9. Studies (A) of either vision and physical optics (B) began almost (C) as early as civilization (D) itself.
10. (A) Because the expense of (B) traditional fuels and the (C) concern that they may run out, many countries (D) have
been investigating alternative source of power.
IV. SUPPLY THE APPROPRIATE FORMS OF WORDS IN THE BRACKETS. (30 PTS)
1. Such a kind man would never __________ hurt his friend’s feelings. (INTEND)
2. The scenery along the coast was __________. (BREATHE)
3. Because of a car __________, she didn't get to the airport in time for her flights. (BREAK)
4. The ________ need assistance from the whole society. (POVERTY)
5. Her bedroom is __________ decorated with her favorite souvenirs from her trips. (PLEASE)
6. We are offering many special price __________ on printers this month. (REDUCE)
7. Students hate their classmates who get __________ treatment from their teachers. (PREFER)
8. Explosives are __________ weapons. (DIE)
9. Three of the __________ tried to escape through the window. (CAPTURE)
10. We were all surprised at her __________ to help. (REFUSE)
11. Health care was __________ in ancient time. There was no hospital or doctor then (EXIST)
12. What the teacher does first is to check __________ of the students (ATTEND)
13. The company went bankrupt on account of inefficient __________ (MANAGE)
14. __________ are built to entertain and educate people about marine life (AQUATIC)
15. The educational program we are launching is to teenage girls in rural areas. (POWER)
V. READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS TO THE QUESTIONS. (20 PTS)
1 The development of jazz can be seen as part of the larger continuum of American popular music, especially
dance music. In the twenties, jazz became the hottest new thing in dance music, much as ragtime had at the turn of
the century, and as would rhythm and blues in the fifties, rock in the fifties, and disco in the seventies.
But two characteristics distinguish jazz from othe dance music. The first is improvisation, the changing of a
5 musical phrase according to the player's inspiration. Like all artists, jazz musicians strive for an individual style, and
the improvise or paraphrase is a jazz musician's main opportunity to display his or her individuality. In early jazz,
musicians often improvised melodies collectively, thus creating a kind of polyphony. There was little soloing as such,
although some New Orleans players, particularly cornet play Buddy Bolden, achieved local fame for their ability to
improvise a solo. Later the idea of the chorus-long or multichorus solo took hold. Louis Armstrong's instrumental
10 brilliance, demonstrated through extended solos, was a major influence in this development. Even in the early
twenties, however, some jazz bands had featured soloists. Similarly, show orchestras and carnival bands often
included one or two such "get-off" musicians. Unimproved, completely structured jazz does exist, but the ability of the
best jazz musicians to create music of great cohesion and beauty during performance has been a hallmark of the
music and its major source of inspiration and change.
15 The second distinguishing characteristic of jazz is a rhythmic drive that was initially called "hot" and later
"swing". In playing hot, a musician consciously departs from strict meter to create a relaxed sense of phrasing that
also emphasizes the underlying rhythms. ("Rough" tone and use of moderate vibrato also contributed to a hot
sound.) Not all jazz is hot, however, many early bands played unadorned published arrangements of popular songs.
Still, the proclivity to play hot distinguished the jazz musician from other instrumentalists.
1. The passage answers which of the following questions?

A. Which early jazz musicians most Influenced rhythm and blues music?
B. What are the differences between jazz and other forms of music?
C. Why is dancing closely related to popular music in the United States?
D. Wha instruments comprised a typical jazz band of the 1920's?
2. Which of he following appeared before jazz as a popular music for dancing?
A. Disco B. Rock C. Rhythm and blues D. Ragtime
3. According to the passage, jazz musicians are able to demonstrate their individual artistry mainly by?
A. creating musical variations while performing B. preparing musical arrangements
C. reading music with great skill D. being able to play all types of popular music
4. Which of the following was the function of "get-off" musicians line 12?
A. Assist the other band members in packing up after a performance
B. Teach dance routines created for new music
C. Lead the band
D. Provide solo performances in a band or orchestra

5. Which two types of music developed around the same time?
A. jazz / rock B. dance / rhythm & blue
C. rock / rhythm & blue D. jazz / dance
6. Louis Armstrong was mentioned as an influential musician of
A. "hot" or "swing" jazz B. chorus-long jazz C. structured jazz D. soloing jazz
7. The word "consciously" in line 16 is closest in meaning to
A. carelessly B. easily C. periodically D. purposely
8. The word "unadorned" in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. lovely B. plain C. disorganized D. inexpensive
9. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
A. "improvisation" (line 4) B. "polyphony" (line 7)
C. "cornet player” (line 8) D. "multichorus” (line 9)
10. The topic of the passage is developed primarily by means of
A. dividing the discussion into two major areas B. presenting contrasting points of views
C. providing biographies of famous musician D. describing historical events in sequence
VI. SUPPLY EACH BLANK WITH ONE SUITABLE WORD. (30 PTS)
Illiteracy is the condition of being (1)________ to read and write. Illiteracy is also (2) to describe the
condition of being ignorant or unknowledgeable in a particular subject or field. Computer illiteracy is (3) inability to
use a computer programming language.
Most of us (4)________ use computers know how to send emails, or how to create a new folder. But we know
(5) about programming languages, the artificial languages used to write instructions that can be executed by a
computer. Even in technologically (6) countries, a very small percentage of computer users are able to read or
write this kind of computer language. Should we (7) The effort to learn a computer language, especially when
these are so complicated? The answer is (8) Because of computer illitracy, users are at the (9)________ of
software manufacturers. Our society becomes more depent on information (10) , and in a few years’
(11) , reading and writing a compute language will be as essential (12) using a human language.
Computer users will not be able to survive (13) they know the code – the set of detailed instructions that tell a
computer what to do. In the (14) , survival and professional success will presuppose knowing everything about the
machines we (15) with.
VII. REWRITE THE FOLLOWING SENTENCES WITHOUT CHANGING THE MEANING. IN SOME QUESTIONS,
YOU HAVE TO USE THE GIVEN WORDS WITHOUT CHANGING THEIR FORMS IN ANY WAY. (30 PTS)
1. Thanks to her mother's encouragement, she entered the beauty contest.
 Had it
2. She’ll probably pass the high school entrance examination. (STANDS)

3. She was just as good as they had thought.
 She quite definitely came ____________________________________________________
4. The “environmentally friendly” label on this product is misleading.
 Despite what is printed ______________________________________________________
5. She was afraid to scream because she didn’t want to wake up the neighbors. (FEAR)

6. When you arrive, you will be met by the Head of the Sales Department.
 On
7. People estimate that the company manufactured more than 5,000 small planes last year.
 More than 5,000 small planes _________________________________________________
8. There have been fewer people who consume Chinese products. (DECREASE)

9. They brought me two laptops, but neither worked satisfactorily. (WHICH)

10. Do phone us when you arrive at the airport, even if it's very late.
 However
THE END OF THE TEST

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT NĂM HỌC 2011 – 2012
TP. HỒ CHÍ MINH MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH (CHUYÊN)
Thời gian làm bài: 120 pHÚt, không kể thời gian phát đề
I. Choose the correct answer to fill in each blank. (40 pts)
1. All of the proposals we have are still under .

A. repair B. control C. surveillance D. examination
2. That is an interesting book which can many children’s imagination.
A. take B. capture C. hold D. form
3. It is undeniable that modern industry our life.
A. makes difference onB. puts effect in C. has impact on D. does influenceover
4. A rise in salary in this very difficult stage, I think, is .
A. in the clouds B. out of the question C. on approval D. at short notice
5. She managed to with some people during the time when she was isolated.
A. retain relationship B. make contact C. offer relations D. bring touch
6. Not many foreign university students opt home-stay because they prefer independence.
A. to B. for C. on D. with
7. When the candidates learned the satisfying results, they jumped joy.
A. in B. at C. for D. on
8. Though Japanese and Korean cultures appear similar to the outsider, they are quite .
A. diverse B. separated C. unfamiliar D. distinct
9. We sat in the of the big oak tree, avoiding the boiling sun.
A. shade D. shadow C. cover D. protection
10. There hasbeen a(n) of the disease in several villages in the north of the country.
A. breakout B. outbreak C. breakdown D. breakup
11. I’ll leave by Monday. I don’t want to my welcome.
A. outrun B. outgo C. outdo D. outstay
12. Harry’s refusal to answer the policeman’s questions the suspicion of most colleagues.
A. arise B. raise C. arouse D. rise
13. When she switched the bathroom light on, she was horrified to glimpse of cockroaches
creeping around.
A. hold D. draw C. catch D. make
14. Robert is among very few local people who adhere traditions and customs.
A. to B. of C. on D. with
15. It is too late to congratulate the players their success, isn’t it?
A. to B. on C. about D.over
16. If the items we have sent are not to your , please feel free to return them.
A. agreement D. acceptance C. acquisition D. satisfaction
17. Sarah and I reserved rooms in the same hotel; She was really surprised.
A. practically B.intentionally C. coincidentally D. deliberately
18. I has never expected to experience such a(n) journey.
A. arduous B. ambiguous C. evasive D. insufferable
19. Hilary was very disappointed, for she was again for thepost.
A. put off B. turned down C. caught on D. brought in
20. The effect of the painkiller is and I begin to feel the soreness again.
A. doing without B. fading away C. wearing off D. turning out
21. No sooner down the receiver than the phone rang again.
A. I put B. hadI put C. have I put D. I hadput
22. It is vital that the petition by all of the residents in the area.
A. signed B. is signed C. will be signed D. be signed
23. We spent nearly 3 hours waiting outside the station, then out .
A. the star came B. did the star come C. came the star D. be the star coming
24. My father is getting old and forgetful. , he is experienced and helpful.
A. Be that as it may B. Regardless C. In as much as it is D. Consequently
25. Such that every tourist takes a chance to enjoy it.
A. attraction is it B. is the attraction C. is it the attraction D. attraction it is
26. Were their hospitality, we wouldn’t have stayed on.
A. there not to be B. not there to be C. it not for D. not it for
27. At this very time tomorrow, we the final test.
A. will do B. willbe doing C. are doing D. are going to do
28. The manager as well as the clerks when the cashier turned up to reveal the truth.
A. were questioned B. were beingquestioned
C. was questioned D. was beingquestioned
29. We could not help mom about the trip on Easter day dad to us.
A. telling /had promised B. to tell / promising
C. to tell / promised D. telling / has promised
30. If only I the speech so abruptly. Everybody was astonished.
A. didn’t end B. were not to end C. would not end D. had not ended
31. You the traffic jam on Route 45. The problem is that you didn’t listen to the radio.
A. could avoid B. could have avoided
C. should have avoided D. did notavoid
32. Who in our company deserves the title “The Best Employee of The Year”?
A. to give B. giving C. to be given D. being given
33. Many a it difficult to avoid the interference of mass media in their life.
A. pop star finds B. pop star find C. popstars find D. pop stars finds
34. It was Barry Pen hacked into our company server and destroyed all out files.
A. whose B. who C. whom D. which
35. It is advisable to insure your house theft and fire.
A. for B. about C. in D. against
36. Who shall I make this cheque ?
A. out to B. out for C. in for D. into
37. Twenty percent of the world’s people living in the richest countries have 82 times the of
the poorest.
A. profit B. income C. bonus D. benefit
38. Ever since I lost my job at the bank, money has been .
A. scarce B. few C. broke D. tight
39. The Chancellor is said the road tax last month.
A. to bring in B. that he brought in C. to have brought in D. to be bringing in
40. Of the two discussions held last month, the second one was .
A. more fruitful B. the more fruitful C. the most fruitful D. most fruitful
II. Choose the suitable word to fill in each blank. (30 pts)
(1) every town in Britain has a public library, funded by the local authority, where local
people may borrow books (2) of charge.
Most libraries divide their books (3) two main sections, lending and reference. The lending
section normally offers a good (4) of fiction and non-fiction, while the reference section
contains encyclopedia, dictionaries, atlases, etc. Books from the lending section can be
borrowed, usually for a period of two or three weeks, while books in the reference section may
normally be (5) only in the library. Libraries are usually open daily from Monday to Friday,
including some evenings, as well as on Saturday mornings.
Other (6) besides books usually include: a selection of newspapers and magazines, desks
for privates reading and study, a children’s book section, access (7) current catalogues and
many other (8) of information by means of a computer terminal; a coin-(9)
photocopier, music scores, records, audio-cassettes and videos that may be borrowed. Most
libraries also (10) exhibitions of local interest, for example paintings by local artists or displays
about local history. Many libraries also contain a local tourist information desk.
Borrowers are normally allowed to have up to ten or even more books at any one time. A
system of (11) operates when books are not returned by the end of the borrowing (12) .
People living in the rural areas can use a ‘mobile library’, a van that (13) these areas
regularly with a selection of books from the local library.
(14) public libraries, there are several important private libraries in Britain. Many of them
are in London, such as the London Library. (15) belong to famous universities.
41. A. Most B. Almost C. Mostly D. Utmost

42. A. exempt B. except C. independent D. free
43. A. into B. for C. as D. to
44. A.variation B. difference C. range D. scale
45. A. consulted B. referred C. concluded D. inferred
46. A. equipment B. tools C. facilities D. conditions
47. A. for B. in C. on D. to
48. A.resources B. sources C. pieces D. suppliers
49. A. run B. functioned C. operated D. led
50. A. put on B. take up C. get by D. makefor
51. A. fees B. fares C. punishments D. fines
52. A. period B. duration C. span D. limit
53. A. roams B. wanders C. tours D. surrounds
54. A. Beside B. Despite C. Instead D. Apart from
55. A. Another B. Other C. Others D. The others
III. Error Identification. (20 pts)
56. Harmony, melody and rhythm are important elements in almost forms of music.
A B C D
57. Automobiles began to equip with built-in radios around 1930.
A B C D
58. However type of raw materials is used in making paper, the process is essentially the same.
A B C D
59. Needles are simple-looking tools, but they are very relatively difficult to make.
A B C D
60. A musical comedy has a plot with songs and dances connecting to it.
A B C D
61. When clouds reach a point which they can no longer contain their moisture, the droplets fall
A B C
to earth as rain or snow.
D
62. The marine botany Sylvia Earle spent over 6,000 hours underwater exploring the deep sea.
A B C D
63. It was not until cities became manufacturing centers could colonists survive without farming as
A B C D
their major occupations.
64. Inrecent years, researchersstudyhowmolecules organizethemselves to formcrystals.
A B C D
65. Fiona refused to join the school swimming team, this was not good news at all.
A B C D
IV. Reading comprehension. (20 pts)
Jupiter is the largest and most massive planet and is fifth in order of distance from the sun. It is
well placed for observation for several months in every year and on average is the brightest of the
planets apart from Venus, though for relatively brief periods Mars may outshine it. Jupiter’s less
than 10-hour rotation period gives it the shortest day in the solar system insofar as the principal
planets are concerned. There are no true seasons on Jupiter because the axial inclination to the
perpendicular of the orbital plane is only just over 30 – less than that for any other planet.
The most famousmark on Jupiter is the GreatRed Spot. It has shown variations in both intensity
and color, and at times it has been invisible, but it always returns after a few years. At its greatest
extent it may be 40,000 kilometers long and 14,000 kilometers wide, so its surface area is greater
than that of Earth. Though the latitude of the Red Spot varies little, it drifts about in longitude. Over
the past century the total longitudinal drift has amounted to approximately 12,000. The latitude is
generally very close to -220. It was once thought that the Red Spot might be a solid or semisolid
body floating in Jupiter’s outer gas. However, the Pioneer and Voyager results have refuted that
idea and proven the Red Spot to be a phenomenon of Jovian meteorology. Its longevity may well
be due to its exceptional size, but there are signs that it is decreasing in size, and it may not be
permanent. Several smaller red spots have been seen occasionally but have not lasted.
66. What is the main idea of passage?

A. How long Jupiter lasts
B. The comparison between Jupiter and other planets
C. Life on Jupiter
D. Some features about Jupiter
67. According to the passage, Jupiter has the shortest day among the principal planets because
.
A. its rotation period is shorter than 10 hours
B. the axial inclination is only just over 30
C. it is on the average the brightest of all the planets
D. there is the interference of the Great Red Spot
68. According to the passage, Mars outshines Jupiter .
A. on aregular basis B. from time to time
C. every several months D. less often than any other planet
69. The author’s tone in the passage is .
A. argumentative B. supportive C. enthusiastic D. neutral
70. The passage would be of most interest to .
A. students of anthropology B. geologists
C. mathematicians D. amateur astronomers
71. It can be inferred from the passage that Jupiter’s Great Red Spot .
A. will become brighter with time B. will one day disappear
C. will continue expanding D. is made of floating gases
72. The word “intensity” could be replaced by “ ”.
A. visibility B. density C. brilliance D. surface area
73. Which of the following statements is WRONG?
A. Great Red Spot was thought to float in Jupiter’s outer gas.
B. Jupiter can be observed all year round.
C. Venus is the brightest among the planets.
D. Many small red spots have disappeared
74. What does the word “refuted” mean?
A. Known B. Argued C. Accepted D. Disproved
75. According to the passage, which of the following statement is TRUE about the Red Spot?
A. It can always be seen.
B. It is believed to be a phenomenon of Jovian meteorology.
C. It is increasing in size.
D. Its longitude rarely changes.
V. Word form. (20 pts)
76. The clothes we wear, like a language, can give out message. (SPEAK)
77. After months of surveillance, the police could take the criminals . (AWARE)
78. They won the case because of the of the defendant(APPEAR)
79. Some country lanes are to cars in rainy seasons. (PASS)
80. The mechanic fixed our car, which really upset us. (PROFESSION)
81. His of his opponent led to his biggest failure. (ESTIMATE)
82. Most tourists are amazed at the splendors of the Rocky Mountains. (SCENERY)
83. Circumstances have a change of plan; otherwise, thins would become worse.
(COMPULSORY)
84. On its , your passport may be renewed for a further five years. (EXPIRE)
85. The interior decoration of the hotel presents , which is just one of the drawbacks. (TASTE)
VI. Use the correct word forms. (20 pts)
vegetable attend care intend contain

advertise describe guide synthesize
As food label is often nothing more than an (86) to tempt you to buy the product, you
should pay particular (87) to the choice of words used. Always watch out for the word
‘flavor’, as this may mean that the product contains (88) ingredients. Chocolate-flavor
topping, for example, will not contain chocolate, even though chocolate-flavored will contain a
small percentage – so read (89) . Many manufacturers also use a range of meaningless (90)
. Feel-good words, such as ‘wholesome’, ‘farmhouse’, ‘original’ and ‘traditional’ do not
mean anything. Other words such as ‘farm fresh’ and ‘country fresh’ also (91) blur the true
nature of a product’s source. ‘Fresh egg pasta’, for example, means that the pasta was indeed
made with real and not (92) eggs, but maybe months ago. Words that you can trust are
‘organic’, ‘wholemeal’, ‘natural mineral water’, ‘Fair Trade’, ‘free-range’ and the ‘V’ (93)
symbol. Take particular care over low-fat and low-sugar products. (94) state that ‘low-fat’
foods must not have more than five percent fat, while ‘reduced fat’ means that the total fat (95)
is 25 percent less than the standard versions of the same product.
VII. Cloze test. (20 pts)
(96) nightmares are usually quickly forgotten, they can be very disturbing, particularly if
frequent, and if one dwells (97) several days. Whether or not we should (98) much
reliance on trying to interpret their meaning is a matter for debate, as dream (99) is usually
no more than inspired guesswork – with the interpreter fantasizing more than the dreamer. But
sometimes, (100) waking up suddenly out of a nightmare, this paralysis can continue and
one cannot move or call out. This distressing state can (101) minutes to lift; all the sufferer
can do (102) breathe, move the eyes and possibly moan. (103) contrast, and in rare
circumstances, dreaming may occur without paralysis and then, if the dream is violent, the all
(104) mobile dreamer may (105) to harm or harm others.
VIII. Sentence transformation. (30 pts)
106. There are very few rivers left unpolluted in the world.
Hardly
107. We are surprised that the man can demonstrate such a mastery of Portuguese. (COMMAND)
To
108. He could not beat James because he was not patient enough.
Had the
109. He is irresponsible, so he cannot complete most of the assignments.
On
110. Frederick is such a talented artist that most critics respect him. (LOOK)
Frederickis so
111. You should have visited your grandma when you were in town. (PAID)
I would rather
112. The blockbuster Kungfu Panda II was expected by many children around the world. (WAIT)
Many children
113. The little girl showed her disappointment when she received the news.
The littlegirl’s face
114. Their preparation was good although they lacked time. (DESPITE)
Theirs
115. Her second novel is not as interesting as her first one. (COMPARISON)
Her
THE END OF THE TEST

SỞ GIÁO DỤC - ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 CHUYÊN
TP HỒ CHÍ MINH NĂM HỌC 2012-2013
Khóa ngày 21/06/2012
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Môn chuyên)
(Đề này gồm 4 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER TO FILL IN THE BLANK. (20 PTS)
1. Wild animals sometimes come into the suburbs______ food.

A. searching of B. in search of C. they search for D. for searching
2. You shouldn't have read that file; it contains information.
A. constructive B. preferential C. confidential D. inclusive
3. Let's get down to we've got a lot to get through this afternoon.
A. workload B. transaction C. cooperation D. business
4. Unless you yourself to the task, you're bound to make mistakes.
A. resign B. occupy C. hold D. apply
5. You should start working on the report if you want to_______ Friday's deadline.
A. set B. make C. meet D. reach
6. The tennis tournament held at the sports center but at the last minute the venue changed.
A. had been B. might have been C. was going to be D. ought to be
7. 'Did the owner admit starting the fire herself?' 'In the end! The police her for some time.'
A. had suspected B. were suspected C. were suspecting D. would suspect
8. We don't know why our teachers us to concentrate on such theoretical things.
A. forever tell B. always say C. are forever telling D. are always saying
9. According to the , the new show is very popular.
A. rankings B. ratings C. gradings D. scalings
10. How quickly the product can be delivered depends on .
A. attendance B. credibility C. existence D. availability
11. Simon is definitely guilty of cheating - the teachers him in the act.
A. caught B. saw C. got D. found
12. The lecturer explained the theory with such that most people understood it.
A. clearance B. complexity C. clarity D. recognition
13. If you act on , you risk making mistakes.
A. purpose B. sense C. attitude D. impulse
14. Most of the hotels were full and we had a hard time accommodations.
A. to find B. having found C. founding D. finding
15. The children stood at the puppets for ages.
A. to stare B. and staring C. staring D. to be staring
16. "It's not my turn to do the dishes tonight." I hope mum doesn't get

A. them by me done B. me doing C. done by me D. me to do them
17. 'Did you hear what happened to Charlotte?" - "Yeah – She .
A. had someone stealing B. had her handbag stolen
C. had stolen her handbag D. was stolen her handbag
18. The security guard stated that we passes to be allowed into the building.
A. must have had B. had to have C. would have D. should have had
19. Martin insisted that his secretary with him on the trip next week.
A. on coming B. come C. comes D. will come
20. The lawyer advised to any journalists about the case.
A. to not talking B. against talking C. not talk the pain D. don't talk
21. The patient was administered medication to the pain.
A. withhold B. deaden C. worsen D. dominate
22. The author's new novel came in for a great deal of .
A. offence B. compliment C. attention D. criticism
23. "We don't have a burglar alarm.' Then it's time .
A. for installing one B. you install one C. one was installing D. to install one
24. 'Trudy sure did a good job of decorating your apartment." 'Yes, but I'd some of the work myself.'
A. rather have done B. rather done C. better have done D. prefer having done
25. matter of time before a new manager is appointed.
A. It's just a B. There is just a C. It's nearly a D. Just this
26. had I set off when I got a flat tire.
A. At no time B. Scarcely C. No sooner D. Little
27. They are up in in the new management scheme.
A. arms B. neck C. feet D. hands
28. We found plenty of wood, but we had nothing to light our campfire.
A. which with B. with which C. that for D. for that
29. It has recently come to that the senator accepted a bribe.
A. attention B. eye C. mind D. light
30. Without hard work they'll never. a go of their guesthouse.
A. get B. take C. make D. have
31. Everyone has to hand in their assignments by noon but Sam, I’ll make an exception.
A. in case of B. the case being C. in any case D. in the case of
32. Only for students have their own cars – most use bicycles.
A. a minority of B. minority C. of a minority D. the minority
33. 'I hear Paul has a job at a restaurant.'' Well, it's a restaurant as a café really.'
A. much more B. nothing like C. far more of D. not so much

34. It was a warm day but it turned in the evening.
A. coldly B. cold C. more coldly D. far colder than
35. With my new Internet connection I can download files than before.
A. far quickly B. by far quicker C. much more quickly D. quite more quickly
36. The researchers realized they were and had to change the focus of their experiment.
A. in the footsteps B. ahead of the schedule
C. on the wrong track D. off the beaten track
37. People came from to take part in the peace demonstration in Washington.
A. round and round B. out and about C. there and back D. far and wide
38. I managed to complete the exam with 20 minutes to .
A. run B. set C. spare D. leave
39. Cameras are prohibited in the museum.
A. strongly B. harshly C. strictly D. totally
40. When I saw the fire truck, it suddenly on me that I'd left the oven on when I left out.
A. dawned B. appeared C. cracked D. fell
II. CHOOSE THE WORD OR PHRASE THAT BEST FITS EACH SPACE IN THE FOLLOWING
PASSAGE. (15 PTS)
Obsession with pop stars may be innocent enough when you're 14 years old. Carry the fixation into your
twenties, (1) , and your teen idol can become bad for your health. Worshipping famous singers,
supermodels. or football players in adulthood (2) your chance of having psychological problems,
eating disorders and difficulties forming relationships. Psychologist Dr. Tony Cassidy (3) at 163 adults
in a recent study. During adolescence, three-quarters of men and women in the group – now aged between 20
and 28 – said they had hero-worshipped someone. Most people (4) their fixation by their twenties, but
half of those (5) had idols could not (6) their feelings go. “Another (7) of teen idols is that
they serve as role models,” said Dr. Cassidy. 'Many young girls (8) distorted body images of
themselves, and ultimately eating disorders, (9) a result of the media portrayal of supermodels with ideal
bodies. They (10) to be less satisfied with their relationships and were more likely to have short-
term affairs. The most extreme fantasized about having a relationship with their adored one or became jealous
(11) their idol's partners. There were even cases, after one boy band (12) , of attempted
suicides among fans. But parents should not rush to the bedroom to rip down their children's posters. (13)
was one bright spot for fans who did have a teen idol but who (14) him or her up when they
(15) adulthood: they were subsequently better at problem-solving.
1. A. but B. however C. then D. otherwise
2. A. increases B. grows C. rises D. expands

3. A. looked B. saw C. observed D. studied
4. A. turn off B. throw off C. give off D. make off
5. A. they B. have C. who D. were
6. A. leave B. allow C. relieve D. let
7. A. aspect B. part C. detail D. field
8. A. make B. take C. adapt D. develop
9. A. like B. as C. than
10. A. intended B. turned C. tended D. opted
11. A. about B. with C. to D. of
12. A. broke up B. made up C. figured out D. took out
13. A. It B. He C. There D. That
14. A. did B. gave C. held D. took
15. A. arrived B. got C. reached D. grew
III. IDENTIFY THE MISTAKE IN EACH SENTENCE. (5 PTS)
1. Investment banks do not accept deposits from the public or do loans to businesses or individuals.
A B C D
2. When actively hunting, a dolphin sends out transmitting about five signals every second.
A B C D
3. We didn't need to bring along our USB's as we were unexpectedly not allowed to use them anyway
A B C D
4. The Puffer is a type of fish that can inflate one's body like a balloon.
A B C D
5. Anyone reproducing copyrighted works without permission of the holders of the copyrights are breaking
A B C D
the law.
6. Modern farms are much larger than that of former times.
A B C D
7. In addition to save on gas, the modern car is designed to save on maintenance expenses.
A B C D
8. Tom's very good at science when his brother is absolutely hopeless.
A B C D
9. It was in the 1920's that the arched-top guitar was first developed commercially in the United States and
A B C
use in dance bands.
D
10. Drug abuse has become one of America's most seriously social problem.
A B C D

IV. READ THE PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS TO THE QUESTIONS. (10 PTS)
A useful definition of an air pollutant is a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the
atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetations, or materials adversely. Air pollution
requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were
established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or
smelled - a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has developed and
knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In
the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions. Many of the more
important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen oxides, are found in nature. As
the Earth developed, the concentrations of these pollutants were altered by various chemical reactions; they
became components in biogeochemical cycle. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the
compounds to move from the air to the water or soil on a global basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs
that resulting from human activities. However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a
city.
In this localized regions, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural
purification scheme of the cycle. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals the air. The
concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants
would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be
a pollutant; in fact the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents over
the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health
effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however,
has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.

(A) The economic impact of air pollution.
(B) What constitutes an air pollutant.
(C) How much harm air pollutants can cause.
(D) The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.
2. The word "adversely" is closest in meaning to .

(A) negatively (B) quickly (C) admittedly (D) considerably
3. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that.

(A) water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas
(B) most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
(C) the definition of air pollution will continue to change
(D) a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
4. The word "altered" is closest in meaning to .

(A) eliminated (B) caused (C) slowed (D) changed
5. Natural pollutants can play an important role in controlling air pollution for which of the following
reasons?
(A) They function as part of a purification process.
(B) They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
(C) They are less harmful to living beings than are other pollutants.
(D) They have existed since the Earth developed.
6. According to the passage, which of the following is true about human-generated air pollution in
localized regions?
(A) It can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants in the localized region
(B) It can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants.
(C) It will damage areas outside of the localized regions.
(D) It will react harmfully with naturally occurring pollutants.
7. The word "noxious" is closest in meaning to .

(A) harmful (B) noticeable (C) extensive (D) weak
8. According to the passage, the numerical valued of the concentration level of a substance is only
useful if
(A) the other substances in the area are known (B) it is in a localized area
(C) the naturally occurring level is also known (D) it can be calculated quickly
9. The word "detectable" is closest in meaning to

(A) beneficial (B) special (C) measurable (D) separable
10. Which of the following is best supported by the passage?

(A) To effectively control pollution local government should regularly review their air pollution laws,
(B) One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws
(C) Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants
(D) Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.
V. SUPPLY THE APPROPRIATE FORMS OF WORDS IN THE BRACKETS. (15 PTS)

1. We all take pride in our friendship. (DESTROY)
2. He arrived, as if in answer to her . (PRAY)
3. She travels to different parts of the world as part of her job in that company. (NATION)
4. The little boy dreams of being a sports for the TV station. (COMMENT)
5. He proposes closing down all the factories in the area. (ECONOMY)
6. Managers should be more to the needs of their staff. (RESPOND)
7. She felt by her classmate's arrogant behaviors. (LITTLE)
8. Let's join us for a drink at the pub! (CELEBRATE)
9. The winners of the two are to compete for the trophy at the end of the month. (FINAL)
10. The song always brings back her lovely memories. (CHILDREN)
11. To my surprise, they treated me enough. (PLEASE)
12. The Red Cross is sending emergency aid to the country. (FAMINE)
13. Since the , we have had all the locks changed. (BREAK)
14. The article failed to the unemployment issue. (PUBLIC)
15. The volcanic lava as it cools. (SOLID)
VI. SUPPLY EACH BLANK WITH ONE SUITABLE WORD. (15 PTS)
Many educators believe that it is better for students to (1) school all year round than to have a
long summer vacation. Ideally, the summer can (2) every bit as productive as the time spent in a
classroom. The vacation should be a carefree time, spent outdoors or with family but, (3) that most
parents work, it is all too often the case that children are left unsupervised. All students forget a certain amount
of (4) they have learned so teachers are obliged to spend time at the beginning of the year reviewing parts of
the curriculum from the (5) grade. Studies have shown that children from low-income families fall (6)
behind during the summer than children from wealthier backgrounds. One study found that while
middle-class children slightly improved their reading skills over the summer months, their (7) from low-
income families lost more than two months in reading achievement.
In order to (8) the problem, some school districts have adopted a year-round schedule with a
series of shorter breaks (9) of a three-month summer vacation. A national study (10) out by the
Ohio State University found, however, that year-round schools had no significant impact (11) how
much children learn. They found that children learned about as (12) in year-round schools as they did in
schools using a nine-month calendar. And while poorer students at the beginning suffer 'learning loss' during
the summer months, those at the year-round schools also did (13) during the shorter breaks. The

author of the (14) suggested that poor children (15) to attend more days of school,
otherwise they will fall behind.
VII. REWRITE THE FOLLOWING SENTENCES WITHOUT CHANGING THE MEANING.
YOU MUST USE THE EXACT WORD GIVEN IN BRACKETS WHEN SPECIFIED. (20 PTS)
1. "I wasn't to blame for the burnt house!" said Julia. (SETTING)
→ Julia ..................................................................................................................................................
2. Jasper warned me about the dog, so I didn't stroke it.

→ But for ..............................................................................................................................................
3. There have been rumors that Peter and Jane are getting married.
→ Peter and Jane ..................................................................................................................................
4. Please don't put your feet on the sofa.

→ I'd sooner ..........................................................................................................................................
5. Drop in and see us if you ever come to Ho Chi Minh City. (HAPPEN)
→ Should ...............................................................................................................................................
6. Guy made absolutely sure nothing would go wrong when he planned the expedition. (NOTHING)
→ Guy left ............................................................................................................................................
7. They only discovered the mistake when the book was in the shops. (COME)
→ Not ...................................................................................................................................................
8. We need to inspect further to find out how badly the building has been damaged. (EXTENT)
→ Further inspection ............................................................................................................................
9. They will give you a ticket when you show your ID card. (PRODUCTION)
→ A ticket will be .................................................................................................................................
10. It wasn't my intention to upset you. (MEAN)

→ I .........................................................................................................................................................

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUY N SINH LỚP 10 THPT
TP H CHÍ MINH NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
*** Ngày thi: 12 tháng 06 năm 2016
Đ CHÍNH THỨC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Môn chuyên)
(Đ này g m 5 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER TO FILL IN THE BLANK (15 PTS)

1: Would you mind if I __________ off the television?
A. turn B. turned C. turning D. had turned
2: Grace knows a lot about Web design though she __________ it.
A. has never studied B. had never studied C. never studied D. will never study
3: It’s a waste of time __________ Olga to help because she is too busy.
A. to ask B. you ask C. being asked D. asking
4: If Jane __________ 3 years older, she __________ after her own pet dog.
A. were – could look B. was – can look C. had been – would look D. is – would look
5: The poster was prepared by that artist, __________ had been the creator of many original ones.
A. who B. that C. he D. which
6: Dommon’s suit was __________ that we could not help laughing at him.
A. such funny B. too funny C. a little funny D. such
7: The room was very noisy, __________ I hardly heard myself talking to others.
A. therefore B. hence C. so D. consequently
8: Sarah proposed that we __________ out to the waters of Bala Lake to learn some basic skills of paddling.
A. head B. would head C. headed D. might head
9: Essays __________ in, we all felt relieved and ready for the term break.
A. were handed B. handing C. handed D. had been handed
10: Not until __________the cartoonist __________ why he was popular with the public
A. did I meet – that I realized B. I met – that I could realize
C. had I met – could I realized D. I had met – did I realize
11: The young man was staggering along the street as if he __________ some alcohol.
A. drank B. was drinking C. had drunk D. would drink
12: Having a few good friends can have good influence on one’s __________ health.
A. sentimental B. feeling C. affection D. emotional
13: An __________ psychologist will deliver a speech at the parents’ meeting this weekend.
A. effective B. eminent C. erratic D. erroneous
14: Though it was not his own work, the student sent the article to two publishers without __________ to his professor.
A. reference B. preference C. deference D. interference
15: In the silence of the dining-room, only the __________ of cutlery was heard.
A. pattering B. rustling C. rattling D. clattering
16: The little boy got injured at a __________ of speed while he was riding his bike.
A. pass B. start C. break D. burst
17: It is wildly claimed that watching TV too much may lead to headache and eye __________.
A. tension B. intensity C. extension D. strain
18: The car was running so fast that I could hardly __________ a glimpse of the man sitting next to the driver.
A. launch B. catch C. cast D. send
19: Motorists should not get __________ violating laws such as speeding or running through red lights.
A. away with B. out of C. off with D. up on
20: Theodor was very delighted to see his old friend again; he gave her such a __________ handshake.
A. firm B. close C. steady D. big
21: It is __________ that South Africa is a leading country in exporting diamonds.
A. human nature B. without saying C. common knowledge D. no wondering
22: Martha Wells, who is a very good counsellor at my school, can __________ some very good advice.
A. turn up for B. put off with C. come up with D. go in for
23: The new series of comic books __________ for children from 5 to 11 years old.
A. meet B. suit C. convenience D. cater
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Kỳ thi tuyển sinh lớp 10 chuyên Otto Channel 1
Năm học 2016-2017 _ Môn: Tiếng Anh (Chuyên)
24: __________, the power was cut, and the audience felt panicked and started running out of the theatre.
A. In a nutshell B. All of a sudden C. At no time D. Without caution
25: I suggested some activities for the team, but my teammates __________ of them all.
A. disagreed B. ridded C. deprived D. disapproved
26: The teacher called Michael “a walking dictionary” and that __________ stuck.
A. title B. brand C. label D. tag
27: - Speaker 1: Would you like another cup of tea? - Speaker 2: __________.
A. Thank you! B. I do C. Yes, please D. That’s right.
28: The conductor asked me twice __________ my card.
A. if I had tapped B. whether I have tapped C. did I tap D. had I tapped
29: You cannot borrow the book at the same time. Please take __________ to have it, two weeks for each.
A. turns B. time C. risk D. interest
30: You __________ in the preparation course because I can see no name like yours here.
A. would not have enrolled B. mustn’t have enrolled
C. ought not have enrolled D. couldn’t have enrolled
II. CHOOSE THE WORD OR PHRASE THAT BET FITS EACH SPACE IN THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE (15
PTS)
The Yellowstone National Park is also (1) __________ to a number of wildlife species, including wolves,
grizzlies, elk and bison, all (2) __________ in their natural habitats. To those who come to visit this park, it offers a
number of attractions and activities like hiking, boating, cycling and wildlife (3) __________. If you have a(n)
(4) __________ interest in history, geology and geography, this park is a treasure cove waiting to be explored with its
dramatic landscape that includes canyons, falls, geysers and water (5) __________ that you wouldn’t find anywhere else
in the world. Out of all the wonderful places you can plan to visit this summer, the Yellowstone National park is the most
amazing of all and definitely a must-visit (6) __________ on your travel list.
Before you arrive you need to decide where to stay. Yellowstone Park offers many options when it (7)
__________ to staying over-night. You can stay in the park properly via camping, or stay in a modern facility such as the
Old Faithful Inn. In the summer you have nine lodging facilities to choose from with over 2,000 available rooms. You can
also choose to stay in a more modest cabin on the east side of the park that contains (8) __________ 500 rooms. Keep in
mind that if you plant to stay at any hotel or cabin or lodge in the Yellowstone Park region you must attempt to book at
least 6 months (9) __________. Rooms get filled up very quickly due to limited (10) __________. Staying in
Yellowstone National Park is an authentic American Great West experience which will (11) __________ and engage
visitors (12) __________ all ages and backgrounds. With this (13) __________, Yellowstone lodgings do not have
televisions, wireless internet or radios in the rooms or cabins, but telephones are available in most hotel and lodge rooms.
(14) __________, because temperatures rarely reach beyond the 80 degrees Fahrenheit, hotels and cabins do not have air
conditioning, however, fans are (15) __________.
1: A. home B. homage C. native D. setting

2: A. are found B. finding C. found D. will be found
3: A. viewing B. looking C. gazing D. locating
4: A. enormous B. abundant C. glorious D. avid
5: A. sections B. partitions C. bodies D. units
6: A. spot B. dot C. sight D. zone
7: A. introduces B. comes C. reaches D. happens
8: A. almost B. mostly C. most D. utmost
9: A. in balance B. at hand C. on offer D. in advance
10: A. sensibility B. knowledge C. chance D. availability
11: A. inspect B. inspire C. include D. increase
12: A. at B. in C. of D. about
13: A. as example B. at times C. in mind D. on average
14: A. Supposedly B. Similarly C. Differently D. Cheerfully
15: A. set B. put C. presented D. provided
======================================================================================
III. READING
A. READ THE PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS TO THE QUESTIONS (10 PTS)
When Jules Verne wrote to the Center of the Earth in 1864, there were many conflicting theories about the nature
of the Earth’s interior. Some geologists thought that it contained a highly compressed ball of incandescent gas, while
others suspected that it consisted of separate shells, each made of a different material. Today, well over a century later,
there is still little direct evidence of what lies beneath our feet. Most of our knowledge of the Earth’s interior comes not
from mines or boreholes, but from the study of seismic waves – powerful pulses of energy released by earthquakes.
The way that seismic waves travel shows that the Earth’s interior is far from uniform. The continents and the
seabed are formed by the crust - a thin sphere of relatively light, solid rock. Beneath the crust lies the mantle, a very
different layer that extends approximately halfway to the Earth’s center. There the rock is subject of a battle between
increasing heat and growing pressure.
In its high levels, the mantle is relatively cool; at greater depths, high temperatures make the rock behave more
like a liquid than a solid. Deeper still, the pressure is even more intense, preventing the rock from melting in spite of a
higher temperature.
Beyond a depth of around 2,900 kilometers, a great change takes place and the mantle gives way to the core.
Some seismic waves cannot pass through the core and others are bent by it. From this and other evidence, geologists
conclude that the outer core is probably liquid, with a sold center. It is almost certainly made of iron, mixed with smaller
amounts of other elements such as nickel.
The conditions in the Earth’s core make it a far more alien world than space. Its solid iron heart is subjected to
unimaginable pressure and has a temperature of about 9,000oF. Although scientists can speculate about its nature, neither
humans nor machines will ever will ever be able to visit it.
1: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Jules Verne’s supposition of the Earth’s center.
B. The Earth’s interior through the study of seismic waves.
C. The comparison between the Earth’s core and the outer space.
D. The depth and the temperatures at the Earth’s interior.
2: What is today’s richest source of information about the Earth’s interior for geologists?
A. Boreholes B. Shells C. Seismic waves D. Mines
3: The word ‘conflicting’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. controlling B. important C. outdated D. opposing
4: The word ‘There’ is paragraph 2 refers to the __________.
A. mantle B. crust C. seabed D. Earth’s center
5: Which of the following is a primary characteristics of the the Earth’s mantle?
A. Light, solid rock B. Uniformity of composition
C. Dramatically increasing pressure D. Compressed, incandescent gas
6: Which of the following terms is NOT given a definition in the passage?
A. mantle B. crust C. seismic waves D. outer core
7: Which of the following statement is NOT true?
A. At relatively great depths, the rock behaves more like a liquid than a solid.
B. Some seismic waves cannot pass through the core.
C. Deeper down the Earth, the rock is melted due to high temperature.
D. The outer core is liquid and the center is solid.
8: The phrase ‘gives way to’ in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. runs along B. rubs against C. turns into D. floats on
9: The word ‘it’ in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. core B. mantle C. change D. depth
10: Why does the author state in the last paragraph that the Earth’s core is ‘far more alien’ than space?
A. Government funds are not available to study the Earth’s core.
B. Scientists aren’t interested in the characteristics of the Earth’s core.
C. It is impossible to go to the Earth’s core to do research.
D. The Earth’s core is made of elements that are dangerous to humans.
B. READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE CORRECT SENTENCES FROM A TO F IN THE
GIVEN LIST TO FILL IN THE GAPS FROM 1 TO 5. THERE IS ONE EXTRA SENTENCE THAT YOU MUST
NOT USE IN THE LIST (10 PTS)
======================================================================================
A good many technical people become irate when you call a computer a giant brain. They insist that a computer
does only what thinking humans have planned to have it do.
Yet one authority states categorically, “A machine can handle information: it can calculate, conclude, and choose:
it can perform reasonable operations with information. A machine, therefore, can think.” Famed mathematician Norbert
Wiener of MIT, envisions a machine that can learn and will “in no way be obliged to make such decisions as we should
have made, or will be acceptable to us.” (1) __________.
There is a popular anecdote about a computer programmer who, just for a lark, spent days setting up the machine
to destroy itself, then watched delightedly as the computer dutifully proceeded to commit suicide (2) __________.
To me the controversy boils down to a definition of the word ‘think’. There is no area in physiology that is less
understood than the human brain. Practically all that is known is that the brain contains some ten billion tiny cells called
neurons. (3) __________. The completely materialistic view is that neurons, along with an extraordinary network of nerve
– communication lines, comprise all there is to the brain. But such an explanation fails to account for how the brain
originates thought.
(4) __________. The brain has roughly a million times as many components as the best computer. On the other
hand, the difference may lie in a spiritual factor, embraced by religion. At any rate, a machine cannot exercise free will or
originate anything – not yet. Whether it ever will is still an open argument.
Computers can already do a lot of surprising things, which include predicting the weather. (5) __________, but
this, as well as most of the other tasks now performed by the thinking machines, is routine, requiring thinking of a very
low order.
A. Apparently, neurons are elementary memory units, capable of storing the same kind of information ‘bits’ that a
machine can store
B. The machine is able to make forecasts by assimilating vast quantities of data
C. The machine is composed of different elements rather than memory units
D. If that machine could have thought, would it not have circumvented him? It is ridiculous enough
E. Evidently, he thinks machines can think
F. Probably the clearest differentiation between man and machine is a quantitative one
IV. IDENTIFY THE FIVE (5) MISTAKES IN THE FOLLOWING PARAGRAPH AND CORRECT THEM (5
PTS)
Shakira Isabel Mebarak Ripoll was born on February 2, 1977 in the northern Columbian town of Barranquilla of a
Catalan and Italian mother and an American father of Lebanese descent. Shakira began her musical career at the tender
age of 8, when she wrote her first heart-wrenching song ‘Tus GafasOscuras’ in memory of her brother who has lost his
life in a car accident. At 10 years of age, Shakira applied to be in the school of choir, but she was turned off on the
grounds that her voice was too strong and sounded like the bleating of a goat.
Instead of giving up, Shakira kept her focus on music and participated in a televised singing competition for
children, after which she started being invited to various events in Barranquilla and became a local celebrity. When she
turned 13, she caught the eye of theatre production Monica Ariza, who took her under her wing and made her name
known outside Barranquilla. On a flight from her hometown to Columbian capital of Bogota, Ariza happened to sit next
to Sony executive Ciro Vargas, that agreed to hold an audition for Shakira a few weeks later inside a hotel lobby. Vargas
was utter impressed with the budding new artist and praised her in lavish terms to the Sony artist directors.
V. SUPPLY THE APPROPRIATE FORMS OF WORDS IN THE BRACKETS. (10 PTS)
1. Whether you are at home or at school, you are likely to be _________ by objects made of some kind of plastic.
(ROUND)
2. _________ as the first clocks used the length of the Sun’s shadow to mark the passing of the day. (SUN)
3 A lot of traditional materials like bark or straw are _________ into daily modern products. (CORPORATION)
4. The _________ in Little Lucie’s paintings is highly appreciated by many adults. (ART)
5. Three members of the jury _________ disappeared three days before the trial at the Supreme Court. (MYSTIFY)
6. _________ is a science in which future is forecast on the basis of the current trends in the society. (FUTURE)
7. My uncle has decided to join a walking group – a collective of _________ individuals, all enthusiastic for the outdoors.
(MIND)
8. In the rat race of life, one is so concerned with his own benefits all the time that he soon becomes morally _________.
(SENSE)
9. Among the five secretaries we have taken on so far, Wendy, who is the most _________, will be dismissed next month.
(EFFECT)
10. The clerk’s proposal was _________ protested by the Administration Board and the share-holders (FURY)
======================================================================================
VI. SUPPLY EACH BLANK WITH ONE SUITABLE WORD (15 PTS)
When you go shopping for sunglasses, you soon realize that as well as being overpriced, they are heavily
associated (1) _________ images of celebrity. Sunglasses are cool, and it is a cool feeling which seems set to endure.
Have you ever (2) _________ why this should be? The roots are anything (3) _________ glamorous, however. Amber-
tinted spectacles first appeared in the nineteenth century and were a medical remedy for people (4) _________ eyes were
oversensitive (5) _________ light. The first mass-produced versions, made by Sam Foster of Foster Grant Fame, were
sold in the 1920s in seaside resorts. At this point, (6) _________, they remained functional objects, and were (7)
_________ to acquire the cool (8) _________ they now enjoy.
This (9) _________ about thanks to the air force. In the 1930s, airmen started to wear anti-glare glasses which
were called aviators. In the (10) _________ days of flight, these men were regarded (11) _________ heroes. Down on the
ground, actors keen to (12) _________ in on a little of that glory realized that sunglasses represented a short (13)
_________ to intrigue. If audiences could not see an actor’s eyes, then they could not read his or her (14) _________.
Being human, audiences wanted to know more. So it was that the (15) _________ between the fascination of celebrity
and a pair of sunglasses was forged.
VII. REWRITE THE FOLLOWING SENTENCES WITHOUT CHANGING THE MEANING (20 PTS)
1: The new computer game will be undoubtedly as good as Caroline has expected. (UP)
 There is no _____________________________________________________________________________________
2: Danny kept some spare parts in his car because he though his car might stop working. (DOWN)
 In ____________________________________________________________________________________________
3: If nobody objects, today’s class will not end until 5pm. (DISMISSED)
 Unless_________________________________________________________________________________________
4: This door, which is an emergency exit, must never be locked for any reason. (SINCE)
 On no _________________________________________________________________________________________
5: Melvin decided to hire the camping equipment from a local shop instead of buying it from the website. (DECISION)
 Rather ________________________________________________________________________________________ .
6: Due to the dangerous of virus infiltration, we have to be cautious when sharing information. (PRECAUTION)
 So dangerous ___________________________________________________________________________________ .
7: It came as a surprise to us that the prices all of the items in the shop were reduced by 30%. (BROUGHT)
 To ___________________________________________________________________________________________ .
8: It was wrong of you not to keep those trouble-makers under control. (STRING)
 You should ____________________________________________________________________________________ .
9: Roger finally managed to cycle to the top of the hill when the crowds cheered wildly. (CHEERS)
 Roger succeeded ________________________________________________________________________________ .
10: Susan did not notice the broken guitar string, and neither did Faye. (TOOK)
 Neither _______________________________________________________________________________________ .
THE END OF THE TEST Otto Channel
======================================================================================
Kỳ thi tuyển sinh lớp 10 chuyên 5
Otto Channel
Otto Channel
Otto Channel
Otto Channel
Otto Channel
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT - NĂM HỌC 2018-2019
THÀNH PHỐ HỒ CHÍ MINH NGÀY THI 03 - 6 - 2018
*** MÔN TIẾNG ANH (Môn chuyên)
I. USE OF ENGLISH.
PART A. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER TO FILL IN THE BLANKS.
1. Every Christmas of my childhood was the same. My father........ late for lunch, weighed down with
presentsfor the family.
A. would arrive B. could arrive C. was arriving D. got used to arriving
2. If I........you a free ticket, would you go to Florence with me?
A would offer B. were to offer C. had offered D. were offered
3. "You........ things. Can't you be more careful?" sad Tom's mother.
A. always lose B. are losmg C. always lost D. are always losing
4. ....in the next room, her voice is like ......... of a boy.
A. Hearing - the sound B. Hearing - the one C. Heard - that D. Having been heard -
that one
5. I'd say let's meet on Saturday but I’m none........ sure whut's happening at the weekend.
A. so B. very C. that D. too
6. When the exam is over. I'll go fishing ........ I haven't done for weeks.
A anythng B. something C things D. everything
7. We're going to visit the Great Walls. Everybody says this is........ .
A. a too good chance for being lost B. too good a chance to be lost
C. too good a chance for being lost D. a too good chance to lose
8. ....., her suggestion ts of greater value than her fnend's.
A. All things considered B. All things considering
C. Considering all things D. Considered all things
9. As far as I am concerned, education is about learning and the more you learn, ......
A the more for Ife are you equipped B. the more life you equip for
C. the more equipped for life you are D. the more Me you are cqupped for
10. He wants to give his daughters........ he can afford.
A. all for the best B. the very best C. at best D. what best
11. ........Sam had was gone when she heard that nearly all her classmates had failed to answer the
teacher's question.
A A little confidence B. The little confidence
C. Little confidence D. Little of confidence
12 . ........ the difficulty of the task, I shall be lucky to have completed it by June.
A. Regarding B. Presuming C. Given D. Encountered
13. Diana took a course in shorthand and typing........applying for a secretary job
A. on account of B. with a view to C. with a reason for D. for fear of
14. Jessica has bungled every task her boss has given her so far......... , he's prepared to give her one
last chance.
A. Notwithstanding B. Instead C. Fiathermore D. Nevertheless
15. The restaurant is popular with film stars and the.........
A same B. like C such D. similar
16. Tom's decision to leave university after a year is one he now........ regrets
A. painfully B. harshly C. heavily D. deeply
17. Poltutants in this over are increasing........ - something must be done about it immediately.
A. chillingly B. utterly C. rigorously D. alarmingly
18. Although his paintings are abstract, the artist........ inspiration from the natural world.
A. draws B. pulls C. makes D. has
19. She........with pleasure at the unexpected compliment.
A. grinned B. glared C. beamed D. laughed
20. As Jane lay in her cabin, she heard the gentle sound of waves........ against the hull.
A pelting B. splashing C. gushing D. lapping
Otto channel – Chia sẻ kiến thức – nâng bước thành công
21. David was so ........ by the beauty of Ha Long Bay that he instantly decided to move there.
A. captured B. captivated C accumulated D beckoned
22. Many species of fish have........ ways of protecting their eggs from predators.
A. ingenious B. indicative C. inspiring D. ingenuous
23. No one knows how the rival company got........ of the plans for thee new marketing campaign.
A. wind B. breere C. voice D. ear
24. Family relationships later........ a great significance in his life.
A. built up B. kept on C. took on D. made up
25. For non-native speakers, it is not unusual for understanding to ........ when listermg to others’
conversations in English.
A. fall away B. break down C. give up D. set out
26. Since we had only one day left, we decided to make an........effort to finish the run in record time.
A all-in B. all-out C. over-all D. all-around
27. Jukan is one of the many young,........ artists to be taken on recently by an important gallery.
A. bottom-up B. up-and-coming C top-downm D. out-and-out
28. Jimmy's not interested in the........ . He just wants to know the plan facts.
A. cut and thrust B. hue and cry C. ifs and buts D. part and parcel
29. ~ Mai: "..........". ?
~ Ian: "I'm pretty busy nght now. I'm doing my homework because I have an exam tomorrow."
A. How is your day going? B. How are you doing?
C. What do you do? D. What are you doing here?
30. Student 1: "Excuse me! Could you show me the way to the library?
Student 2: "Sorry, I'm new here. Student 1: "............... "
A. Not at all B. Bad luck. C. No problem. D. Thank you all
the same.
PART B. CHOOSE THE WORD OR PHRASE THAT FITS EACH SPACE IN THE
FOLLOING PASSAGE.
In recent years, ready-made meals have (1).......Britain's eating (2)....... . Britons now spend four
times as much
as the Italians on ready-made meah and six bmes more than the Spannh. (3)........for instant meats has
increased across Europe as a (4).........but why has Britain become the (5).......European capital of
ready-made food, second only in the world to America?
Convenience is (6)........of the attraction. A recent survey (7).......that 77 percent of purchasers said
they only
bought ready meals when they did not have time to cook. Dr Susan Jebb, head of nutrition at the
Medical Research Council, said: "People in the UK work the longest hours, we are very time-poor,
and we don't have a strong (8)........history of cooking,'
The ready-made meal boom also reflects changing social (9)........in Britain. More people live alone
and so are less likely to be (10)........to cook. And with families eating together less often, ready
mealsh allow people to eat what they want when they want. Juliaa Michna, of Marks and Spencer,
says that ready meals also reflect changing (11).......infood. 'Brian's multicururalism has brought a
(12)........range of restaurants than other European countries, and ethnic cuisines, which people are
often scared of cooking from (13).......are (14).......more popular. One quarter of (15)......... meals are
Indian, and nearly one in five are Chinese.
1. A. amended B. adjusted C. transferred D. transformed
2. A. ways B. forms C. habits D. manners
3. A. Request B. Order C. Demand D. Charge
4. A. conclusion B. total C. resuR D. whole
5. A. unclaimed B. unclassified C undefeated D. undisputed
6. A. element B. piece C. part D. share
7. A. found B. made C. put D. gave
8. A. tradtonai B. cultural C. modern D. customary
9. A. trends B. temptations C. drifts D. movements
10. A. offended B. bothered C. worried D. disturbed
11. A. desires B likings C. tastes D. washes
12. A. longer B. deeper C. harder D. wider
13. A. scratch B. beginning C. memory D. nowhere
14. A very B. lot C. far D. such
15. A. chilled B. decent C. meager D. junk
II. READING.
PART A. READ THE PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS TO THE
QUESTIONS.
The radical change in the land's surface that results when rural areas are transformed into cities is a
significant cause of the rise in temperature in cities that is known as urban heat island.
First, the tall buildings and the concrete and asphalt of the city absorb and store greater quantities
of solar radiation than do the vegetation and soil typical of rural areas.
In addtton, because the concrete and asphalt are impermeable, the runoff of water fdowing a rain is
rapid, resulting in a severe reduction in the evaporation rate. So heat that once would have been used
convert liquid water to a gas goes instead to increase the surface temperature further.
At night, although both city and countryside cool through radiation losses, the stone-1ike surface of
the city gradually releases the additional heat accumulated during the day, keeping the urban air
warmer than that of the outlying areas.
Part of the urban temperature rise must also be attributed to waste heat from such sources as home
heating and air conditioning, power generation, industry, and transportation. Many studies have
shown that the magnitude of human-made energy in metropolitan areas is equal to a significant
percentage of the energy received from the Sun at the surface.
Investigations in Sheffield, England, and Berlin showed that the annual heat production in these
cities was equal to approximately one-third of that received from solar radiation. Another study of
the densely built-up Manhattan section of New York City revealed that during the winter, the
quantity of heat produced from combustion alone was two and one-half times greater than the
amount of solar energy reaching the ground. In summer, the figure dropped to one-sixth.
It is interesting to note that during the summer there is a mutual reinforcement between the higher
nighttime temperatures of the city and the human-made heat that helped create them. That is, the
higher temperatures result in the increased use of air-conditioners, which, in turn, use energy and
further increase the amount of urban heat. During the winter the nighttime warmth of urban areas,
produced in large part by heavy energy consumption, is beneficial because less energy needed to
heat buildings.
A. The loss of farmland to urban development
B. The causes of increased heat in cities
C. Waste heat generated by home heating and air conditioning
D. How seasonal change affects the temperature of cities
2. All of the following contribute to the urban heat island effect EXCEPT......
A. absorption of heat from the Sun
B. storage of heat from the Sun
C. an increased rate of evaporation after a rainfall
D. the release of heat at night from city surfaces
3. The word "convert" in the passage is closest in meaning to......
A. reverse B. transform C. reduce D. compare
4. The word "that" in the passage refers to......
A. city B. heat C. day D. air
5. In which of the following locations would the rate of evaporation probably be highest?
A. A rural area B. A small town C. A medium-sized city D. A big city
6. The word "magnitude' in the passage is closest in meaning to.....
A. calculation B. comprehension C. extent D. formation
7. The author mentions Manhattan to order to demonstrate that.....
A. heat in urban areas can be reduced
B. the conclusions of the investigation in Sheffield were wrong
C. its heat production is smaller than that of Berlin
D. human-made heat can exceed the solar energy that reaches the ground inwinter
8. According to the passage, on important consequence of the use of air-conddroners at night is......
A. greater energy costs B. higher levels of urban heat
C. senous problems with the energy supply D. less need for air conditioning in the morning
9. The word "beneficial" in the passage is closest in meaning to......
A. predictable B. powerful C. hazardous D. advantageous
10. Which of the following is true about cities at night in the winter?
A. Solar energy has an increased impact on the urban heat island.
B. They tend to be colder than rural areas.
C. Less energy is required to heat buildings
D. Human-made energy created a larger area of total heat than solar energy.
PART B: REARRANGE THE FOLLOWING SENTENCES SO THAT THEY MAKE A
MEANINGFUL REVIEW OF A COMPUTER GAME.
A A selection of viewpoints, including a breakneck 'biker's eye view' are offered. This game will
push your skills and patience to the limit. (5)
B. There are 10 tracks, of which three are available at the outset. Only by scoring gold in both classes
on all of these can you gain access to the next three, and so on. (3)
C. Wonder Racer succeeds in bringing the body breaking speed of time-trial biking to the PC, but its
difficulty may leave you shaking. The approach is simple and unsophisticated. (1)
D. The courses are a fictitious mix of country lanes, exotic beaches and snowy mountain passes. The
3-0 is excellent in its speed, smoothness and level of detail. (4)
E. There are only three controls, far fewer than in many other modem games. Players start by
selecting one of sixteen riders, from a set of teams. (2)
PART C. SUPPLY EACH BLANK WITH ONE SUITABLE WORD.
PASSAGE I
It is forecast that we can look forward to working (1).......hours in the future, but it is necessary for
health and tranquility to work a certain (2)........of hours per week, ideally doing a variety of jobs -
something schools have always known. It may be that house building will meet this need. It is a very
basic human instinct. Gardening is a related activity. It is already (3)......to cultivate many hurts and
vegetables than to buy them in the shops and the house of the next decade should take this into
(4)..........
(5)........ important question is that of energy conservation. The proportion of income (6).......on
keeping warm is steadily going up, and, with the cost of energy likely to double in real terms during
the next ten years or (7)........many large bady-insulated old houses will become extremely expensive
to use. The demand will be (8)........ small, well-insulated homes located in warm protected areas and
making the best (9)........ of the sun's warmth. Efficient heating units will be of prime importance. At
(10)......., we waste a lot of space in planning rooms which are awkward to use.
(1)................................ (2)................................ (3).................................(4)............................
(5)................................
(6)................................ (7)................................ (8)................................ (9)...........................
(10)...............................
PASSAGE 2
We live surrounded by objects and systems that we take for (1)........ , but which profoundly affect
the way we behave, think, work, play, and in general lead our (2)......... Look, for example, at the
place in which you are reading this now, and see how much of (3)........ surrounds you is
understandable, how much of it you could actually build yourself or repair (4).........it cease to
function. When we start the car or press the (5)......in the elevator, or buy food in the supermarket, we
gave no (6)........ to the complex devices or systems that make the car move, or the elevator rise, or
the food appear on the shelves.
Throughout this century we have become increasingly dependent on the products of (7)........ . They
have already changed our lives: at the simplest (8)........ , the availability of transport has made us
physically less fit than our ancestors. Many people are alive only because they have been given
(9)........ to disease through drugs. The vast majority of the world's population relies on the abiliy of
technology to provide and transport food. We are unable to feed and clothe or keep (10)......warm
without technology.
(1)................................ (2)................................ (3).................................(4)............................
(5)................................
(6)................................ (7)................................ (8)................................ (9)...........................
(10)...............................
III. ERROR CORRECTION
IDENTIFY THE FIVE (5) MISTAKES IN THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CORRECT
THEM.
LINE
NUMBERS
1 An ecosystem is a group of animals and plants living in a specific region and interact
2 with one another and with their physical environment. Ecosystems include physical and
3 chemical components, such as soils, water, and nutritions that support the organisms
4 living there. These organisms may range from large animals to microscope bacteria.
5 Ecosystems also can be thought of as the interactions among all organisms in a given
6 habitat; for instance, one species may serve as food for other. People are part of the
7 ecosystems where they live and work. Hunan activities can harm or destroy local
8 ecosystems unless actions such as land development for housing or businesses are
9 careful planned to conserve and sustain the ecology of the area. An important part of
ecosystem management involves findng ways to protect and enhance economical and
social well-being while protecting local ecosystems.
(1)........................... (2)............................ (3).............................(4)..........................

(5).............................
(6)........................... (7)............................ (8).............................(9)...........................
IV. WORD FORMS.
SUULY THE APPROPROATE FORMS OF WORDS IN THE BRACKETS.
1. His tour was cut........short due to hrs illness.
[appoint]
2. Since the city center became a (n )..........pedestrian aiea, shopping has been a more pleasant
experience. [traffic]
3. I've........the CNN homepage as I use it regularly to get the latest news.
[mark]
A. The........ at the temple are bringing heart for peace and prosperity.
[devotion]
5. A (n )........ life, lack of physical activity, stressful jobs, and bad habits can influence one's heath in
a very bad way.
[pace]
6. Officials urged caution in anticipation of catastrophic and........ flooding In the days to come.
[threat]
7. The store manager explained........ that only certan items were sold at a discount.
[apology]
8. Women are traditionally supposed to be good at................
[task]
9. The recent events........ the need for a better understandng of the environmental impact of
biotechnology, [score]
10. ........ fines may be issued for careless driving and other offenses.
[spot]
V. WRITING.
REWRITE THE FOLLOWING SENTENCES WITHOUT CHANGING THE MEANING.
YOU HAVE TO USE THE EXACT WORD GIVEN IN BRACCKETS FOR EACH
SENTENCE.
1. I think you should get someone to fix the computer.
[fixed]
I would prefer it................................................
2. Jack was so nervous that his mind couldn't function properly.
[straight]
Such.........................................................

3. Suddenly, the management said it was important for us to wear dark suits to the meeting,
[once]
The management insisted...................................................
A. To say briefly, this school regulation cannot be abolished right away. [do]
In a..................................................................................
5. Trying to persuade someone to agree with you can be a formidable task.
[view]
Trying to bring................................................................
6. Anna inherited a fortune when her father died.
[into]
After the............................................................................
7. We were not late for school because you took us in your car.
[time]
If it hadn't been for..........................................................
8. I managed to finish the task, but it was difficult.
[succeed]
Only with.........................................................................
9. Although she didn't agree with the management's decision, Chloe was forced to accept it.
[choice]
Much................................................................................
10. Fred didn't tell Sopite his news until she had finished her homework.
[telling]
Fred waited......................................................................
The End

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT – NĂM HỌC 2019-2020
THÀNH PHỐ HỒ CHÍ MINH NGÀY THI 03/6/2019
∗∗∗ MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Môn chuyên)
I. USE OF ENGLISH (30 PTS)

PART A: CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER TO FILL IN THE BLANK. (10 PTS)
1. ________ comes a time when you have to make a decision and stick to it.
A. it B. that C. then D. there
2. You _______ come out to the airport to meet me. I could have taken a bus.
A. needn’t have B. needn’t C. don’t need to D. didn’t need to
3. By the end of the first half of the twenty-first century women _______ against men in many sports.
A. compete B. are competing C. are going to complete D. will be competing
4. More and more trees in this area are found _______ from the effect of pollution.
A. died B. to be dead C. to be dying D. having died
5. The food she has prepared for the party is not enough, for there are _______ more people showing up.
A. so B. too C. any D. many
6. Minh Thu changed her major from literature to English _______.
A. with the hope to be offered employment easier B. hoping more easily she gets a job
B. with the hope for being able to find better job C. hoping to find a job more easily
7. _______, the film began.
A. All of us have taken the seats B. All of us having taken the seats
C. We all having seated C. We all have been seated
8. They still haven’t made a decision _______ the new color scheme.
A. on reflection of B. with a view to C. with regard to D. by contrast with
9. ‘The 20-year policy would be a good investment’, said the insurance agent, ‘_______ you wanted to
cash it within the first ten years.’
A. even though B. in case C. lest D. even if
10. I often wish I could afford to work less, _______ people, I suspect.
A. like do most B. as do most C. the same most D. as much the same most
11. How much _______ do Jerry’s opinions carry with the committee?
A. importance B. value C. weight D. worth
12. Many small businesses have ______ victim to the recent economic recession.
A. become B. been C. blamed D. fallen
13. Road conditions are difficult because of the _______ rain.
A. driving B. jumping C. riding D. running
14. Kathy _______ comes up with a solution when everyone else is at a loss.
A. absolutely B. invariably C. persistently D. universally
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15. She _______ till the early hours listening to music.
A. caught me up B. picked me up C. kept me up D. took me up
16. Making mistakes is all _______ of growing up.
A. flesh and blood B. odds and ends C. part and parcel D. top and bottom
17. They live miles away, _______.
A. split down the middle B. from a distance C. nearly nowhere D. in the middle of nowhere
18. Many students _______ night after night to prepare for their coming exams.
A. burn the midnight oil B. turn the tables on C. rack their minds D. fight tooth and nail
19. __Mary: ‘Could I go out with my friends tonight, Mommy?’ __Mother: ‘_________’
A. Yes, you go B. Yes, you can C. Yes, you will D. Yes, let’s
20. __Mai: ‘How was the film you saw last night?’ __Hoa: ‘_______.’
A. I’ve seen better B. No, I didn’t C. I think of it much D. I like them all
PART B: CHOOSE THE WORD OR PHRASE THAT BEST FITS EACH SPACE IN THE
FOLLOWING PASSAGE. (20 PTS)
PASSAGE 1
In this week’s issue, our resident film critic discusses the etiquette of cinema going, and the
audiences who prefer chewing hot dogs, slurping drinks, gossiping and rustling crisp packets to actually
watching the film. (1)__________ complaint, or just cinema snobbery?
It’s the munchers and talkers, not those who complain about them, who are (2)__________ other
people’s simple pleasures and the (3)__________ seem to me to be self-evident. Junk foods and even
popcorn and choices, when eaten in a (4)__________ and possibly crowded space, are (5)__________ to
demand living space. They spread themselves – usually onto other people’s (6) __________. Crisps,
peanuts and boiled sweets make a lot of noise, first when being (7)__________ then when being crunched
or sucked. These are definite (2)__________, especially if you your self – having merely come to see and
hear the film – are not eating and not therefore generously (9)__________ your friend onions, mustard
and ketchup with the trousers of the stranger in the (10) __________ seat.
1 Α Discernible B Fair C Feasible D Official

2 Α damaging B spoiling C hurting D injuring
3 Α excuses B accusations C reasons D complaints
4 Α confined B closed C reduced D narrow
5 Α cajoled B entitled C inclined D tempted
6 Α dress B costume C outfit D clothing
7 Α unpacked B untied C unwrapped D unfolded
8 Α inconveniences B amusements C anxieties D irritations
9 Α exchanging B dividing C splitting D sharing
10 Α next B nearest C previous D closest
PASSAGE 2
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There is a revolution in the retail world that cannot fail to attract shoppers’ noses. In the latest
marketing ploy, smells are created in laboratories to be wafted around stores in order to
(1)__________ the unsuspecting into spending more money. Secret (1)__________ of the
‘designer’ smells are going on in more than a hundred stores across Britain, including bookshops,
petrol stations and a chain of clothes shops. The tailor-made aromas include coconut oil in travel
agents (to (1)__________ exotic holidays), and leather in car showrooms (to suggest lasting
quality).
Market Aromatics, a company specializing in this area, believes that odours are under-used as a
marketing (1)__________. Until now the most frequent (1)__________ has been in supermarkets
where the smell from in-store bakeries has been blown among the aisles to boost sales of fresh
food. ‘We are taking things one stage further,’ said David Fellowes, the company’s commercial
director. “We can build on customer loyalty by making customers (1)__________ a particular
smell with a particular store. It is not intrusive. If it were it would defeat the object.’
The smells are designed to work on three levels: to relax shoppers by using natural smells such as
peppermint; to bring back memories using odours such as a whiff of sea breeze; and to encourage
customer loyalty by using a corporate perfume ‘logo’ to (1)__________ a company’s image. Dr.
George Dodd, scientific adviser to Marketing Aromatics, believes smells can affect people’s
moods. ‘It is a very exciting time. Smells have enormous (1)__________ to influence behavior,’
he said. Critics say retails are (1)__________ to subliminal advertising. ‘Not telling consumers
that this is happening is an (1)__________ invasion of their privacy. People have the right to
know,’ said Conor Foley of Liberty, the civil liberties association.
1 A entice B trap C force D deceive
2 A investigations B analyses C operations D trials
3 A remember B arouse C evoke D desire
4 A advertisement B tool C gadget D gimmick
5 A effect B concept C type D application
6 A join B associate C relate D merge
7 A make B fix C capture D promote
8 A concentration B adaptation C potential D efficiency
9 A resorting B taking C moving D reacting
10 A undeserving B unjustified C unofficial D unlicensed
II. READING (35 PTS)

PART A: READ THE PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER TO THE QUESTIONS
(10 PTS)
The spectacular aurora light displays that appear in Earth’s atmosphere around the north and south
magnetic poles were once mysterious phenomena. Now, scientists have data from satellites and ground-
based observations from which we know that the aurora brilliance is an immense electrical discharge
similar to that occurring in a neon sign.
To understand the cause of auroras, first picture the Earth enclosed by its magnetosphere, a huge
region created by the Earth’s magnetic field. Outside the magnetosphere, blasting toward the Earth is the
solar wind, a swiftly moving plasma of ionized gases with its own magnetic field.
Charged particles in this solar wind speed earthward along the solar wind’s magnetic lines of force
with a spiraling motion. The Earth’s magnetosphere is a barrier to the solar wind, and forces the charged
particles of the solar wind to flow around the magnetosphere itself. But in the polar regions, the magnetic
lines of force of the earth and of the solar wind bunch together. Here many of the solar wind’s charged
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particles breakthrough the magnetosphere and enter Earth’s magnetic field. They then spiral back and
forth between the Earth’s magnetic poles very rapidly. In the polar regions, electrons from the solar wind
ionize and excite the atoms and molecules of the upper atmosphere, causing them to emit aurora
radiations of visible light.
The colors of an aurora depend on the atoms emitting them. The dominant greenish white light
comes from low energy excitation of oxygen atoms. During huge magnetic storms oxygen’s atoms also
undergo high energy excitation and emit crimson light. Excited nitrogen atoms contribute bands of color
varying from blue to violet. Viewed from outer space, auroras can be seen as dimly glowing belts
wrapped around each of the Earth’s magnetic poles. Each aurora hangs like a curtain of light stretching
over the polar regions and into the higher latitudes. When the solar flares that result in magnetic storms
and aurora activity are very intense, aurora displays may extend as far as the southern regions of the
United States.
Studies of auroras have given physicists new information about the behavior of plasmas, which
has helped to explain the nature of outer space and is being applied in attempts to harness energy from the
fusion of atoms.
A. The methods used to observe auroras from outer space.
B. The formation and appearance of auroras around the Earth’s poles.
C. The factors that cause the variety of colors in auroras.
D. The periodic variation in the display of auroras.
2. The word “phenomena” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. ideas B. stars C. events D. colors
3. The word “picture” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. frame B. imagine C. describe D. explain
4. The passage describes “ the magnetosphere as a barrier” because __________.
A. Its position makes it difficult to be observed from Earth
B. It prevents particles from the solar wind from easily entering Earth’s atmosphere
C. It increases the speed of particles from the solar wind
D. It is strongest in the polar regions
5. The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. polar regions B. electrons C. atoms and molecules D. aurora radiations
6. According to the passage, which color appears most frequently in an aurora display?
A. greenish-white B. crimson C. blue D. violet
7. The word “glowing” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. shining B. moving C. charging D. hanging
8. Auroras may be seen in the southern regions of the United States when __________.
E. magnetic storms do not affect earth
F. solar flares are very intense
G. the speed of the solar wind is reduced
H. the excitation of atoms is low
9. The passage supports which of the following statement about scientists’ understanding of auroras?
A. Before advances in technology, including satellites, scientists knew little about auroras.
B. New knowledge about the fusions of atoms allowed scientists to learn more about auroras.
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C. Scientists cannot explain the cause of the different colors in auroras.
D. Until scientist learn more about plasma physics, little knowledge about auroras will be available.
10. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
A. “magnetosphere” B. “electrons” C. “ionize” D. “fusion”
PART B: REARRANGE THE FOLLOWING SENTENCES SO THAT THEY MAKE A
MEANING FUL TEXT ABOUT A MEMORY TECHNIQUE. (5PTS)
A. The technique was formalized by Dr. Gruneborg.
B. The Linkword Technique uses images to link a word in one language with another word in
another language.
C. It is claimed that by using this technique the basic vocabulary can be acquired in just 10 hours.
D. For example, if an English person wanted to learn the French word for carpet – tapis, he might
imagine an oriental carpet where a tap is the central design. Tap is has the same spelling as
tapis so he will remember the French for carpet.
E. Linkword books have been produced in many language pairs to help students acquire the basic
vocabulary needed to get by in a language (usually about 1,000 words).
PART C: SUPPLY EACH BLANK WITH ONE SUITABLE WORD (2.0 PTS)
PASSAGE 1
Journalists gather the news in a number of different (1)__________. They may get stories from
pressure (1)__________ which want to air their views in public. They seek publicity (1)__________ their
opinions and may hold press (1)__________ or may issue a press release. A person who especially wishes
to attract news (1)__________ will try to (1)__________ a sound bite in what they say. It is particularly
hard for journalists to get material (1)__________ the silly season. Journalists also get stories by tapping
useful sources (1)__________ by monitoring international news (1)__________ like Reuters. The more
important a story is, the more (1)__________ inches it will be given in the newspaper.
PASSAGE 2
One day it will seem strange (1)__________ retrospect, that we spent much more thought and
effort on developing human ability than on making good (1)__________ of it, once we had it. There
innumerable examples. We (1)__________ them in casual conversation and occasionally they catch a
journalist’s attention.
Doctors provide a good source of complaints: they (1)__________ to undergo a particularly
protracted and detailed training and – at the end of it – many of them spend a substantial part of their
(1)__________ day in relatively routine or clerical operations. Has anyone ever considered how much
money could be saved by splitting (1)__________ these two aspects of a GP’s job? Nurses have recently
reiterated their age-old complaint that scarce and (1)__________ womanpower it frittered away in quite
unskilled work. The educational world is (1)__________ of examples of highly paid specialists typing
their own letters with two (1)__________. We promote top research academics to headships of
departments and give them inadequate support services. Even in business, the provision of secretarial help
tends to go by seniority and not by the (1)__________ of routine work that has to be done.
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III. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (5 PTS)
IDENTIFY THE FIVE (5) MISTAKES IN THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CORRECT
THEM.
LINE
NUMBER
1 Plastic is a material that is both durable and versatile, in which it has thousands of
uses, making it perfect for packaging. Since it can be melted and molded in millions of
2
different things, plastic has fundamentally changed the way people live. More recently,
3 however, the dangers of plastic waste have highlighted through television programs.
4 Every year, about eight million tons of plastics ends up in the oceans. By 2050, it is
believed that there will be more plastic in the planet’s waters than fish. Marine life is at
5 risk from the plastic packaging that pollutes the oceans because creatures often get
6 tangled in it or eat it by mistakes, both of which can be fatal. Plastic might be cheap and
convenient, but it could end up cost for the Earth.
7
IV. WORD FORMS (10 PTS)

SUPPLY THE APPRORIATE FORMS OF WORDS IN THE BRACKETS.
1. Traffic in Ho Chi Minh City has become __________ for the past few years. [grid]
2. I wish the local authorities would make the city center more __________. [bicycle]
3. __________ material such as plastic and polymer are causing more and more damage to the
environment. [grade]
4. __________ play centers are valuable for all children to spend their free time. [school]
5. The general opinion is that good qualifications are a __________ to a well-paid job. [ gate]
6. Examinations coming, education is once again in the __________. [spot]
7. There is a tendency in news reports to __________ complex issues to make the news more
entertaining. [simple]
8. In focusing on vocational training, the official did not mean to __________ the role of university
education. [play]
9. The opening ceremony ended __________ with fireworks.
10. Many parents ________place their children in danger by not making sure they wear seat belts. [wit]
V. WRITING (20)
REWRITE THE FOLLOWING SENTENCES WITHOUT CHANGING THE MEANING OF
THE ORIGINAL SENTENCE. YOU HAVE TO USE BETWEEN 3 AND 8 WORDS INCLUDING
THE EXACT WORD GIVEN IN BRACKETS FOR EACH SENTENCE.
1. What surprises me is that they are not worried about pollution in our city [seem]
 Surprising _________________________________________ worries about pollution in our city.
2. What Anna hates most is posing for photographs. [than]
 There’s _________________________________________ a pose for photographs.
3. We suspected the weather would get cold so we took warm clothes. [anticipation]
 We took warm clothes _________________________________________ cold.
4. Whenever I listen to that piece of music, I remember my schooldays. [back]
 That piece of music _________________________________________ to my schooldays.
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5. To maintain good industrial relations, we must do all we can to avoid confrontation with management.
[costs]
 Confrontation with management _________________________________________ to maintain
good industrial relations.
6. Having little financial support, the student lived very cheaply. [shoestring]
 The student _________________________________________ little financial support.
7. You have no hope of succeeding if you are so careless with your work. [bound]
 You _________________________________________ careful with your work.
8. Anna had to endure a long and difficult interview before she got the job. [subjected]
 Anna was only _________________________________________ a long and difficult interview.
9. In case of emergency, Peter is someone you can always rely on. [down]
 People will _________________________________________ an emergency.
10. George suggested a list of guests should be written [drawn]
 “Why not _________________________________________?” said George.
THE END OF THE TEST
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
THÀNH PHỐ HỒ CHÍ MINH NGÀY THI 16/7/2020
 Môn thi chuyên: TIẾNG ANH Ngày thi: 16/7/2020
(Đề thi có 4 trang) (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
I. USE OF ENGLISH (3.0 PTS)

PART A. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER TO FILL IN THE BLANK. (1.0 PT)
1. Hoa: - Do you ever wish you to university?
Mai: - Yes, but my parents couldn't afford it.
A. went B. would go C. were going D. had gone
2. What a coincidence this is! It's so strange that you be staying in the same hotel as us.
A. should B. must C. may D. ought to
3. He was working in a factory when I met him, he had been in the army.
A. before which B. by when C. but then D. during which
4. are the days when newspapers were full of misprints and spelling errors. These are now
virtually things of the past.
A. Gone B. Those C. Done D. They
5. To work efficiently, .
A. It is necessary to clean and check your watch regularly
B. you must have your watch cleaned and checked regularly
C. your watch must be cleaned and checked regularly
D. you must clean and check your watch regularly.
6. After , one naturally wants to put one's feet up and relax.
A. a day's hard working B. a hard-working day
C. a hard day's work D. the hard work of the day
7. We need someone who is a good engineer as well as an efficient manager. In my opinion, this
candidate is .
A. neither one nor other B. none at all
C. not one or other D. neither one thing nor the other.
8. He tried all the keys in tum but not fitted
A. every B. none C. each D. any
9. As the exam is coming, Vinh, students, often burns the midnight oil.
A. as most B. like most C. like the most D. as the most of the
10. She took a course in telemarketing of the improving her employment prospects.
A. with a view to B. with a regard to C. in respect of D. in consideration
11. The hosts prepared a of meal with seven courses to celebrate our arrival.
A. generous B. profuse C. lavish D. spendthrift
12. Ian couldn't ring his teacher yesterday as his phone is on the .
A. blink B. wink C. go D. run
13. She has an unbelievable voice. Her singing is absolutely
A. out of this life B. beyond this life C. out of this world D. beyond this world
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14. Even with a large percentage of the world now working from home, it's vital that managers trust their
workforce to complete the job .
A. at hand B. in hand C. on hand D. out of hand
15. The dentist told me that when the effect of the anesthetic , I might feel a little pain. But it was
more than a little.
A. dropped out B. went over C. wore off D. turned away
16. When I first met him, he as a very indecisive person. He didn't seem to know what he
wanted at all.
A. went by B. put off C. passed down D. came across
17. Vincent felt angry. The vandals had scratched his new car badly.
A. It isn't to wonder B. It's not a wonder C. It Isn't wonderful D. It's no wonder
18. , all the shops were shut.
A. It is a holiday B. It being a holiday C. Being a holiday D. As a holiday
19. An : I got sick yesterday.
Minh :
A. How do you do? B. How can? C. How's that? D. What a surprise!
20. Secretary : - Here is your newspaper, Mr. Jones. Would you like anything else?
Mr. Jones : ,
A. Not at all thank you. B. Never mind C. That's good D. That's it for today
PART B. CHOOSE THE WORD OR PHRASE THAT BEST FITS EACH SPACE IN THE FOLLOWING
PASSAGE. (2.0 PTS)
✓ PASSAGE 1
Several new brightly colored and diverse frog species have recently been identified on the tropical
island of Sri Lanka. The new species were identified by noticeable differences in physical features, habitat,
development, and genetic (1) . Some are tiny and dwell on the ground, whereas others are large and
(2) trees. Five of the new species lay eggs in homespun baskets suspended (3) water,
so that when the eggs (4) tadpoles have no difficulty (5) their first swim. The remaining
new frog species give birth to their young by producing eggs on the forest (6) . These frogs
bypass the tadpole stage and emerge as miniature (7) of their parents.
Frogs and other amphibians are important indicators of ecological balance; therefore a decline in their
numbers would be considered a warning that (8) of the natural environment for a particular area
is needed. (9) that Sri Lanka has already too much of its forests, measures to protect the remaining
forest fragments are (10) . Since many frogs produce chemicals could have practical applications in
health care and medical treatment, they are a potential source of new drugs. Thus, ensuring that frogs are
protected by preserving and restoring their habitat is very important.
1. A. similarities B. modifications C. make-up D. levels

2. A. lodge B. inhabit C. establish D. reside
3. A. above B. onto C. from D. through
4. A. emerge B. reproduce C. hatch D. arrive
5. A. going B. doing C. getting D. taking
6. A. celling B. floor C. canopy D. nest
7. A. sizes B. species C. versions D. samples
8. A. prevention B. consumption C. reduction D. preservation
9. A. Given B. Such C. Indeed D. Once
10. A. crucial B. Insistent C. prohibited D. trivial

✓ PASSAGE 2
A large-scale (1) has been done by advertisers on the spending (2) of today's teenagers. It
has (3) with some fascinating results. Girls across Europe ranging in age from 15 to 18 were
interviewed. The researchers discovered that these girls want to be successful and sophisticated and are
willing to spend to (4) the look they want - when they have the money, that is!
Feeling confident is the most important factor when it (5) to buying clothes. Another
Interesting piece of information coming out of the study is that German teenagers (6) clothes,
that are practical and comfortable, while British and French teenagers are more (7) the
about appearance, although they all agreed that the clothes should (8) them properly.
All the girls who were interviewed (9) for clothes regularly, half of them buying something
from a department store or a large clothes shop at least once a month. They also see it as a (10)
activity and going round the shops with their friends is the main way they learn what the latest trends are.
1. A. research B. study C. question D. search

2. A. customs B. actions C. habits D. methods
3. A. turned out B. come up C. gone down D. brought out
4. A. reach B. succeed C. manage D. achieve
5. A. goes B. makes C. comes D. brings
6. A. go for B. wear out C. take back D. make up
7. A. concerned B. interested C. keen D. focused
8. A. dress B. match C. wear D. fit
9. A. shop B. buy C. purchase D. pay
10. A. friendly B. team C. linked D. social
II. READING (3,5 PTS)

PART A. READ THE PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS TO THE QUESTIONS (1.0 PT)
Herbs are different kinds of plants and plant parts that can be used for medicinal purposes. This can
include the leaves, stems, roots, or seeds of the plant. Herbs have been important in traditional medicine
for centuries, in both the East and the West. In Western medicine, they have largely been replaced by drugs.
Herbal treatments are, however, still an integral part of Eastern medicine. In recent years, interest in
traditional medicine has increased in the West. Many people are either using modern methods combined
with traditional treatments or are turning to these treatments entirely. While traditional medicines can be
helpful, they are not without their share of problems.

The main difference between herbs and drugs is that, while herbs are simply parts of plants, drugs are
specific chemicals in a pure form. Many modern drugs are derived from chemicals found in plants. One
example is aspirin, which is made from a chemical extracted from the bark of the willow tree. Other drugs
are entirely synthetic. Even those drugs that are derived from natural sources are heavily processed in order
to purify and concentrate them. This allows drugs to be administered in very precise amounts. Different
kinds and degrees of illnesses often require dosages that differ only slightly. A little too much or not enough
of a certain drug can have negative effects on the patient. Many drugs also produce negative effects even
when taken in the recommended dosage. These undesired negative effects are called "side-effects".
The possibility of dangerous and unexpected side-effects from drugs has led many people back to
traditional medicine. Herbal treatments seem more natural than modern drugs. Many feel that traditional
medicine is more concerned with treating the underlying causes of disease instead of just the symptoms,
though the truth of this claim is not yet dear. In any case, there is a certain comfort in taking natural herbal
treatments instead of the processed, synthetic chemicals derived from them.
There are, however, disadvantages to herbal treatments, some of them serious. Few herbal treatments
have been scientifically studied. While the active chemicals in the herb may be known, it may not be clear
what they really do, or if they are really effective at all. Because the active chemicals are not used alone, it
is very difficult to determine the proper amount for treatment, since the levels of the chemical are not
constant throughout the plant. Therefore, the risk of under- and overdose is higher than with drugs. A more
serious problem is that certain herbal treatments may have no real medicinal effect, thus giving the patient
a false sense of security. This is particularly harmful when the patient refuses treatment with modern drugs
that could be effective.
There are even certain herbs that can cause side-effects, just like a drug. One of these is ma-huang, also
called ephedra, which is taken to increase energy. It has been known to cause damage to the heart and
nervous system. Garlic and ginger are common element in food that are also taken as herbal treatments, but
they can be dangerous for people with diabetes. In general, herbs are most dangerous when they are taken
along with common drugs. This may happen in two ways: a patient decides to supplement his or her regular
treatment with herbs, or a dishonest manufacturer adds modern drugs to a herbal treatment. In both cases,
the results can be very serious. Herbs can be used to treat depression, but if they are used along with
conventional antidepressants, the combination can cause confusion, headaches, allergic reactions, and other
problems.
Finally, because production of herbal treatments is seldom regulated, harmful substances can be present
in herbal preparations. Herbs grown in polluted soil may contain lead, arsenic, or mercury. They may also
tainted with pesticides. It is for these reasons that should not be treated as the perfect substitute for drugs.
Although herbs appear to be quite distinct from modern drugs, it is important to use them with the same
sort of care.
1. The word "integral" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. harmful B. important C. famous D. controversial
2. The word "This" in paragraph 4 refers to

A. patients taking ineffective herbs instead of drugs
B. patients having a sense of security you
C. the risk of under- and overdose of a herbal treatment
D. the patient's belief that modern drugs are bad for
3. Which of the following is closest in meaning to "tainted" in paragraph 6?
A. accompanied B. augmented C. substituted D. contaminated
4. Why does the author mention that drugs are heavily processed?
A. To illustrate that drugs are not natural
B. To show that herbs cannot compete with modern medical techniques
C. Because many mistakes can occur in this processing
D. To point out that many countries cannot afford to produce drugs
5. What is the main difference between herbs and drugs according to the passage?
A. Drugs can cause side-effects, whereas herbs do not.
B. Drugs are at least partially synthetic, whereas herbs are natural.
C. Herbs are dangerous when taken in large amounts; drugs are safer.
D. Herbs can produce a false sense of security, whereas drugs do not.
6. According to the passage, when are herbs most dangerous?
A. When not taken under a doctor's supervision
B. When the patient refuses modern medicine
C. When the dosage is not administered precisely
D. When taken in combination with drugs
7. Which of the following best states the topic of the passage?
A. Patients are not educated enough to use herbal treatments.
B. Modern drugs are still a better choice than herbal treatments.
C. Modern medicine should use herbal treatments more in the future.
D. Herbal treatments can be helpful, but should be used with care.
8. According to the passage, who should not take ginger or garlic as herbal treatments?
A. Patients with diabetes C. Patients taking antidepressants
B. Patients with liver damage D. Patients with problems of the heart or nervous system
9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Herbal treatments can also produce side-effects.
B. Some herbal treatments are not effective in fighting disease.
C. Some manufacturers add drugs to herbs.
D. Modern doctors often do not approve of using herbs.
10. It can be inferred from the passage that
A. the drug industry is better regulated than the herb Industry
B. people who use drugs Instead of herbs recover more quickly
C. the popularity of herbal treatments will decrease in the future
D. the side-effects of drugs are more serious than those of herbs
PART B. READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND THEN CHOOSE FROM TIHE LIST A-H GIVEN
BELOW THE BEST CLAUSE TO FILL IN EACH OF THE BLANKS, SOME OF THE
SUGGESTED ANSWERS DO NOT FIT AT ALL. (0.5 PT)
We all want to sail through life without anxiety, frustration or fear. But life isn’t like that. If we make
our lives too comfortable, always avoiding unpleasant tasks, we end up causing ourselves more
discomfort and anxiety. Because for one thing, those nasty, unpleasant jobs don't go away when (1)
. For another, whenever we try to avoid initial discomfort, we start to hate and fear anxieties and
we become increasingly less able to cope with these feelings. If we don't go to the dentist with a slight
toothache, we may end up suffering agonizing pain. We all know this and (2) . But how can
we get ourselves into a positive frame of mind? We have to tell ourselves that we can stand the initial
discomfort involved in doing a task right away. Although we may not like it, (3) . If we fear too
much, we may end up restricting our lives to such an extent that eventually (4) . When we tell
ourselves we can't stand failing or being unpopular, we take even fewer risks and achieve even less. We
can escape from these negative feelings if (5) . If, for example, we have a 5,000-word
essay to write, we may not start at all because it is too daunting. But if we give ourselves ten minutes at
the desk, we can at least make a start. Then we have already diminished the problem.
A- we make our wishes known

B- we experience no excitement and joy because we fear risk and anxiety so much
C- we know people may dislike us
D- we must give ourselves a reward for doing them
E- we don't like being told
F- we can bear it
G- we break up difficult tasks into manageable chunks
H- we don't do them
PART C. SUPPLY EACH BLANK WITH ONE SUITABLE WORD. (2.0 PTS)
✓ PASSAGE 1
Adolescent children whose parents exert firm but fair control over them are much more likely to steer
(1) of delinquency researchers have discovered. Youngsters whose parents are overbearing,
inconsistent or tax are (2) for greater risk of becoming problem teenagers, the long-term study
of criminal offending shows. Closely supervised adolescents who are (3) some autonomy not
only stay out of trouble but also have (4) rows at home.

Parenting style was a main influence on (5) young people engaged in criminal or delinquent
behavior. The most successful (6) are those who are prepared to negotiate and have clear ground
rules, (7) as knowing where their children are. (8) they are with and what time they are to
come home. The (9) successful are those who try to (10) down the law, those who make
arbitrary and intermittent attempts to control their children or make threats which are not carried out.
✓ PASSAGE 2
Committing words (1) memory is a notoriously hit-and-miss business. Over the last forty
years psychologists have found three methods which consistently improve memory for words: creating
imagery for the (2) . you want to remember; using elaboration to form word associations;
generation of the word (3) complex processes such as clues.
In research on trying to remember lists of words, these (4) have each produced memory
improvements of ten percent over simply reading words once. (5) might not sound much, but it
is an average over many studies and often for things that are (6) to remember.
Now, in a new series of studies, there's solid evidence for a fourth which could join the (7)
big three memory enhancers. And, you'll be happy to hear, it's very simple. It only involves (8)
the word you want to remember to yourself. It doesn't even seem to matter (9) you don't
vocalize the word, it only has to be mouthed. Across eight experiments in which (10) were asked to
read and remember lists of words, the researchers found memory improvements sometimes greater than
ten percent.

III. ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 PT)
IDENTIEY THE FIVE (05) MISTAKES IN THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CORRECT THEM.
LINE NUMBER
1 Environmental indicators play a fundamental role in our understanding of climate change

and their causes. Examples of climate change indicators Include temperature, precipitation,
2
sea level, and greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. Climate change effects local ecosystems
3
in a variety of ways.
4
Ecologists are studying both the causes of climate change and its impact. For example, in
5 the polar regions, melted ice has reduced the amount of solar heat that is reflected into space
6 and also depleted the natural habitat of polar bears. In tropical rainforest zones, deforestation
has reduced amount of carbon dioxide that the forests can absorb. Scientists and producers
7
need to work together to develop methods of sustainable production that will reduce the
8 consumption of fossil fuels and helps slow down global warming.
No. Lines # Mistake Correction

1
2
3
4
5
IV. WORD FORMS (1.0 PT)

SUPPLY THE APPROPRIATE FORMS OF THE WORDS IN BRACKETS.
1. Her books were based on facts, but she some of the events. [fiction]
2. If you are a sports enthusiast, visit thetha0247.vn for results and sports news. [minute]
3. What a teenager! She's aware of the latest fashions and wanting to wear fashionable clothes.
[fashion]
4. There's no need for further explanation. Any growth in unemployment is a matter of

extreme seriousness. [evidence]
5. Students need to be educated about the dangers on the Internet, including child predators, identity theft,
false and bullying. [person]
6. Many governments the world over have restricted or advised against all travel to and
from areas affected by the Covid-19 pandemic. [essence]

7. Their advertising campaign includes coverage on television, radio, newspapers, and the Internet.
[media]
8. To the audience's , the band suddenly stopped playing. [mystery]
9. In comparison to country life, life in the city is more expensive, but salaries are higher.
[correspond]
10. She is unable to be with us this afternoon, because she is at the opening of a sporting event.
[office]
V. WRITING (2.0 PTS)

COMPLETE THE SECOND SENTENCE SO THAT IT MEANS THE SAME AS THE FIRST ONE, USING
THE WORD GIVEN.
YOU MUST USE BETWEEN THREE AND EIGHT WORDS, INCLUDING THE WORD GIVEN.
1. You must never take your helmet off while riding a motorcycle. (times)
→ Your helmet ride a motorcycle.
2. In her math class, only Sheila succeeded in finding the solution to the problem. (came)
→ Sheila was the solution to the problem in her math class.
3. It is not necessary to be so upset about the result of the match. (shed)

→ There is the result of the match.
4. You have to eat less sugar to avoid obesity. (cut)

→ You are to avoid obesity.
5. Experts believe that the landslides were caused by recent floods. (resulted)
→ The landslides recent floods.
6. Should you persist in your defiance of instructions, we will take disciplinary action. (go)
→ If you taken.
7. Their scheme is brilliant, but it won't succeed. (doomed)

→ Brilliant failure.
8. If you changed your mind, you'd be welcome to join our staff. (delighted)
→ Were you to have you on the staff.
9. Jackie really has no idea of the difficulty of driving to London during rush hour. (how)
→ Little drive to London during rush hour.
10. The teacher spoke with enormous conviction and carried the students with him. (which)
→ Such that he carried the students with him.
---------THE END---------
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN HÀ TĨNH
HÀ TĨNH NĂM HỌC 2020- 2021
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (Chuyên)

(Đề thi có 11 trang)
 Thí sinh không sử dụng bất kỳ tài liệu nào, kể cả từ điển.

 Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi, ghi câu trả lời vào các ô cho sẵn.
 Riêng phần trắc nghiệm thí sinh chỉ ghi đáp án A, B, C hoặc D.
 Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
Điểm của toàn bài thi Cán bộ chấm thi Số phách
Bằng số Bằng chữ (Ký và ghi rõ họ tên) (Do Ban làm phách ghi)
1.
2.
I. LISTENING
• Bài thi gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe đều có tín hiệu và
lời dẫn. Thí sinh có thời gian để đọc câu hỏi.
• Sau khi nghe hết 3 phần của bài nghe, thí sinh có thời gian để viết đáp án vào các ô cho sẵn ở
cuối các phần.
Part 1. You are going to hear a radio programme about a wedding and bridal show. You will hear
the programme in several parts. After each part you will hear 2-4 questions. For each question
choose the correct answer. You’ll have 20 seconds to read the options. Write your answer in the
numbered boxes
1.
A. watch a fashion show B. try food from caterers C. see a musical
2.
A. appliances B. honeymoon packages C. a wedding dress
3.
A. They are expensive. B. They require lots of preparations.
C. They are possible without giving anything up.
4.
A. by making their own invitations B. by using recycled paper C. by using the Internet
5.
A. donating leftovers B. serving organic and locally grown food
Shared by: Elina and Otto Channel Page 1 of 12

C. preparing and serving less food
6.
A. a small guest list B. all the travelling guests need to do
C. all the arrangements couples need to make
7.
A. invite only those closest to them B. invite only those living close to them
C. invite only those they haven't seen in a long time
8.
A. that they are not made of gold B. that they were made with the environment in mind
C. that they are paying the right price
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
Part 2. You will hear a radio interview with Robert White, an adventure photographer, who is
talking about his work. For questions 1-6, complete the sentences. USE NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS. You’ll have 20 seconds to read the questions. Write your answer in the numbered boxes.
1. Robert is a photographer who has received many for his work.

2. Robert prefers to visit places that are .
3. A was set up for Robert so he could take pictures of the birds.
4. During the storm Robert was afraid he might be .
5. Robert believes it is important for him to he is working with.
6. Robert became interested in photography after he __________________________. .
Your answers:
1. 2. 3.
4. 5. 6.
Part 3. You will hear two university students, Matthew and Emily, talking about copyright. For
questions 1-6, decide whether the opinions are expressed by only one of the speakers, or whether
the speakers agree. Write M for Matthew, E for Emily, or B for both, where they agree. You’ll have
20 seconds to read the questions. Write your answer in the numbered boxes.
1. DVDs sold by street vendors are often poor quality.

2. People who illegally download films from the Internet profit from it financially.
3. Film studios would be badly affected economically if films were not protected by copyright.
4. Unsuccessful artists would be unaffected economically if their work was not protected by copyright.
5. It is right that copyright should last for fifty years after an author’s death.
6. Breaches of copyright are going to increase in the future.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3.
4. 5. 6.
II. GRAMMAR AND LEXICAL ITEMS

Part 1. Choose the correct word or phrase to complete each sentence. Write your answer A, B, C or
D in the numbered boxes.
1. “It was a mistake to become a teacher. I wish I _______Architecture,” said Stephen.
A. had studied B. would study C. have studied D. studied
2. Ken was the second person _______ his mother in hospital.
A. to visit B. visiting C. have visited D. visit
3. Last night, I _______ ready to go to bed when, suddenly, I heard a noise coming from the basement.
A. got B. had got C. was getting D. had been getting
4. The candidate was unsuccessful as he had_______ previous working experience and did not hold a
postgraduate degree.
A. a few B. little C. a little D. few
5. Because of the hurricane we_______ not to leave the building under any circumstances.
A. have told B. tell C. have been told D. will have told
6. We are going to have a swimming pool_______ in our garden.
A. to put B. put C. being put D. putting
7. They all agreed that Stephanie might not be perfect, but has a lot of _______.
A. possibility B. potential C. probability D. likelihood
8. Bob was going to propose to Alexandra last night, but in the end he _______ and decided to wait a bit longer.
A. turned a blind eye B. was all ears C. broke a leg D. got cold feet
9. What meanings do you think the writer is trying to _______?
A. connect B. transport C. convey D. transfer
10. Although I don’t like using credit cards, they come _______ if you run out of cash.
A. in handy B. into effect C. into power D. to light
11. After a week on the yacht, Joshua was happy to be on _______ again.
A. shore B. coast C. beach D. sea
12. When the weather was nice, she liked to go for a walk in the early morning _______.
A. blizzard B. mist C. downpour D. heatwave
13. The _______ he made online cost him an arm and a leg.
A. acquisition B. profit C. purchase D. damage
14. Joe Donne has been _______ with murder and is expected to serve many years in prison.
A. charged B. convicted C. blamed D. sentenced
15. My parents told me that I would have to paddle my own _______ if I wished to pursue a career in showbiz.
A. ship B. boat C. raft D. canoe
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Part 2. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank. Write your
answers in the numbered boxes.
1. _______ my way to work yesterday I bumped into an old friend of mine, whom I hadn’t seen since
graduating from college five years ago.
2. This quaint little village is quite literally _______ the middle of nowhere, so make sure you take plenty of
supplies with you.
3. Many of my friends liked Joe’s stories although they knew that he made them _______.
4. If my sister hadn’t helped me _______ with a loan, I wouldn’t have bought that house.
5. I love visiting my grandmother living in a little cottage situated _______ the outskirts of town.
6. Just _______ the coast of the peninsula one could see the battered bow of what had once been a majestic
ship jutting out of the water.
7. It’s better for women to work _______ walking distance from their houses because they can save a heap
on daily transportation expenses.
8. Legend has it that he buried the treasure _______ the foot of a mountain under a crooked, olive tree.
9. Make sure that you are _______ top form before going on a bicycle vacation that takes you off the
beaten track.
10. It was such an embarrassing situation that she would never be able to live it _______.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 3. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. PUT a tick (√) for the correct lines.
UNDERLINE the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding space provided in the
column on the right. (0) and (00) have been done as examples.
Facebook has become one of the most popular social websites in the world. 0. ………√………..
Facebook users spend an average of more than 15 hours a month in the social 00…...…on……..
networking site. While there are plenty who caution against such extensive use 1. …...……….…..
and there are a large amount of studies detailing the harm Facebook could 2. …...……….…..
potentially cause. There are also lots of reports extolling the site's virtues. As the 3. …...……….…..
social media giant prepares for its upcoming initial public offering, here are some 4. …...……….…..
ways Facebook just might be good for you. 5. …...……….…..
Spending time on Facebook help people relax, slow down their heart rate 6. …...……….…..
and increase stress levels, according to researchers from the Massachusetts 7. …...……….…..
Institute of Technology and the University of Milan. In a study publishing earlier 8. …...……….…..
this year, researchers studied 30 students and found that a natural high was 9. …...……….…..
sparked when they were on the social websites that led to the relaxed heart rates 10. …...……….…
and lower levels of stress and tension. In the study, the students were monitoring 11. …...……….…

in three situations: looking at panorama landscapes, performing complicated 12. …...……….…
mathematical equations and using Facebook. Because the first situation was the 13. …...……….…
most relaxing to students and the math problems were the most stressful, the time 14. …...……….…
on Facebook covered high levels of attractiveness and arousal. The findings 15. …...……….…
support the researchers’ hypothesis that Facebook’s success, as well as those of 16. …...……….…
other social media networks, correlates to the specific positive mental and 17. …...……….…
physical state users experience. 18. …...……….…
Part 4. Read the sentences and use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits in the gap.
Write your answers in the numbered boxes.
1. After receiving hundreds of _______, they had to reconsider their plans. COMPLAIN
2. What were your first _______ when you saw him? IMPRESS
3. She was bursting with _______ to tell us what had happened. PATIENT
4. The police found no _______ evidence which linked the man to the crime. CONCLUDE
5. You would have been drunk last night but your behaviour was _______. DEFEND
6. I do wish my boss would stop _______ everything I do! CRITIC
7. When he said, “ _______ is a lie, women are better,” we couldn’t help laughing. EQUAL
8. Can you imagine how an astronaut must feel when they travel ______ through space? WEIGHT
9. Her article was really _______ and had us laughing. ENTERTAIN
10. _______, I found someone who knew where my long-lost sister might be living. ORDINARY
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
III. READING
Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write
your answers in the numbered boxes.
A GREAT COMPOSER
The classical composer Ernst Hoffsberger, who passed away earlier this week, truly
revolutionized the world of contemporary classical music and was a great source of inspiration to a whole
generation of (1)________ young artists in various fields. In many ways his three symphonies completely
(2)________ the achievements of all other composers of the late twentieth century and by (3)_______ the
classical genre with jazz, rock and latterly hippop, his work at times bore little resemblance to what is
commonly considered to be a classical sound.
Born in California just after the Second World War, Hoffsberger had a strict religious upbringing
during which he was taught classical piano by his father. He first found work as a freelance journalist,
playing and composing music in his free time. During the late sixties, he worked together in collaboration
with a number of other amateur musicians before finally (4)________ professional with the first public
performance in his insprirational Tenor Sax Concerto in 1971.
From (5)_______ on throughout the seventies and eighties, each new work seemed to surpass the
limit of the orchestral medium and also helped to bring classical music to a wider audience. (6)________
many people consider Hoffsberger’s defining quality that kept his music fresh and original was that he
never lost the human (7)________which gave him the ability to sit down and jam with musicians and
artists from all walks of life.
1. A. branching B. budding C. blooming D. bursting

2. A. overcame B. overshadowed C. overturned D. overwhelmed
3. A. adjoining B. attaching C. fixing D. fusing
4. A. taking B. getting C. making D. turning
5. A. now B. then C. again D. later
6. A. Which B. How C. That D. What
7. A. touch B. feeling C. contact D. aspect
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7.
Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in
each gap. Write your answers in the numbered boxes.
In the technological age we now live in, you might find it quite surprising that ___1___ and more
people are deciding not to work to live. Instead, an increasing number of us are opting for a simpler and
cheaper way of living, and one ___2___ essentially makes them happier. Those who have taken this step
feel they are no longer spending increasing hours at jobs which may bring them ___3___ or no
satisfaction, but which they do in the ___4___ of being able to keep up with spiralling living costs. By
simplifying their lives and reducing their costs, these people find they have a lot more time ___5___ to
pursue their own interests, which is something that many people now seem to have great difficulty in
achieving. ___6___ surprisingly, a change in lifestyle and attitude is a good idea when you work out how
many sick days are taken each year by people who become ill through overwork or through the ever-
present stress they have to handle in their jobs. You don’t have to be a genius to figure out that companies
must waste a ___7___ deal of money on sick-pay. We should also bear in mind that as life ___8___
increases, our working life will also be extended. So, unless we gain some balance in our lives, we may
___9___ to ever reach retirement. So, the next time you are working late or counting the number of hours
you have before you can go home, ___10___ not start thinking about how you could simplify your life?
Just imagine what you might do if you came home after work and still had hours left to do things you
really fancied doing!
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 3. Read the following passage and answer the questions from 1 to 8. Write your answers in the
numbered boxes.
yhotte Brontë
Published in 1847, this critically acclaimed novel tells the story of a young girl who overcomes great
adversity and blossoms into an independent woman of impeccable character. Orphaned at a young age,
Jane spends her early years at Lowood, a charity school for girls, where the pupils are forced to live in
appalling conditions. When the headmaster, Mr Brocklehurst, brands Jane a liar in front of the entire
school, Jane is determined to clear her name, and she enlists the help of the kindly superintendent, Miss
Temple. Miss Temple offers to write to Mr Lloyd, an apothecary who treated Jane in the past, to verify
that Jane is indeed an honest girl. As the extract begins, Jane and her friend, Helen, are having tea with
Miss Temple.
They conversed of things I had never heard of; of nations and times past; of countries far away; of secrets of
nature discovered or guessed at: they spoke of books: how many they had read! What stores of knowledge they
possessed! Then they seemed so familiar with French names and French authors: but my amazement reached its
climax when Miss Temple asked Helen if she sometimes snatched a moment to recall the Latin her father had
taught her, and taking a book from a shelf, bade her read and construe a page of Virgil; and Helen obeyed, my

organ of veneration expanding at every sounding line. She had scarcely finished before the bell announced
bedtime: no delay could be admitted; Miss Temple embraced us both, saying, as she drew us to her heart -
“God bless you, my children!”
Helen she held a little longer than me: she let her go more reluctantly; it was Helen her eye followed to the
door; it was for her she a second time breathed a sad sigh; for her she wiped a tear from her cheek.
On reaching the bedroom, we heard the voice of Miss Scatcherd: she was examining drawers; she had just
pulled out Helen Burns’s, and when we entered Helen was greeted with a sharp reprimand, and told that
tomorrow she should have half-a-dozen of untidily folded articles pinned to her shoulder.
“My things were indeed in shameful disorder,” murmured Helen to me, in a low voice: “I intended to have
arranged them, but I forgot.” Next morning, Miss Scatcherd wrote in conspicuous characters on a piece of
pasteboard the word “Slattern,” and bound it like a phylactery round Helen’s large, mild, intelligent, and benign-
looking forehead. She wore it till evening, patient, unresentful, regarding it as a deserved punishment. The
moment Miss Scatcherd withdrew after afternoon school, I ran to Helen, tore it off, and thrust it into the fire: the
fury of which she was incapable had been burning in my soul all day, and tears, hot and large, had continually
been scalding my cheek; for the spectacle of her sad resignation gave me an intolerable pain at the heart.
About a week subsequently to the incidents above narrated, Miss Temple, who had written to Mr. Lloyd,
received his answer: it appeared that what he said went to corroborate my account. Miss Temple, having
assembled the whole school, announced that inquiry had been made into the charges alleged against Jane Eyre,
and that she was most happy to be able to pronounce her completely cleared from every imputation. The teachers
then shook hands with me and kissed me, and a murmur of pleasure ran through the ranks of my companions.
Thus relieved of a grievous load, I from that hour set to work afresh, resolved to pioneer my way through every
difficulty: I toiled hard, and my success was proportionate to my efforts; my memory, not naturally tenacious,
improved with practice; exercise sharpened my wits; in a few weeks I was promoted to a higher class; in less than
two months I was allowed to commence French and drawing. I learned the first two tenses of the verb ETRE, and
sketched my first cottage (whose walls, by-the-bye, outrivalled in slope those of the leaning tower of Pisa), on the
same day. That night, on going to bed, I forgot to prepare in imagination the Barmecide supper of hot roast
potatoes, or white bread and new milk, with which I was wont to amuse my inward cravings: I feasted instead on
the spectacle of ideal drawings, which I saw in the dark; all the work of my own hands: freely pencilled houses
and trees, picturesque rocks and ruins, Cuyp-like groups of cattle, sweet paintings of butterflies hovering over
unblown roses, of birds picking at ripe cherries, of wren’s nests enclosing pearl-like eggs, wreathed about with
young ivy sprays. I examined, too, in thought, the possibility of my ever being able to translate currently a certain
little French story which Madame Pierrot had that day shown me; nor was that problem solved to my satisfaction
ere I fell sweetly asleep.
1. How does Jane feel while listening to Helen and Miss Temple converse?
A. fascinated by their wealth of knowledge
B. bored by their constant references to French authors
C. envious of the fact that Miss Temple seems to favour Helen over her
D. frustrated at her inability to participate in the conversation
2. Why did the girls leave Miss Temple?
A. Miss Temple suggested that they should go.
B. Miss Temple was too moved to continue the conversation.
C. They had to go to their bedroom immediately.
D. Miss Scatcherd was waiting for them in their bedroom.
3. How does Helen feel about her punishment?
A. She’s furious.
B. She is accepting of her punishment.
C. She feels angry and complains to Jane about it.
D. She feels she’s been mistreated and plans to take revenge on Miss Scatcherd.
4. Why does Jane throw the pasteboard that was tied to Helen’s head into the fire?
A. She could no longer bear to watch her friend’s passive acceptance of an unjust punishment.

B. She wanted her friend to realise that Miss Scatcherd was wrong.
C. She couldn’t stand seeing her friend crying.
D. It was the least she could do to take revenge on Miss Scatcherd.
5. The word ‘imputation’ in line 25 means _______.
A. judgement B. criticism C. deceit D. blame
6. What’s the ‘grievous load’ Jane mentions in line 26?
A. Mr Lloyd’s letter to Miss Temple. B. The inquiry made by Miss Temple.
C. The unfair accusation of Jane being a liar. D. The lack of trust from Jane’s companions.
7. What does Jane do once Miss Temple announces that her name has been cleared?
A. She turns her attention to her studies. B. She tries to improve her memory.
C. She begins studying for a French test. D. She decides to become an artist.
8. Jane sketches her first cottage and, that night, it seems that _______
A. she experiences a feeling of complete satisfaction.
B. she has changed her fantasies.
C. she realises that she should focus on drawing landscapes.
D. she sets new goals after reviewing what has happened during the day.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
Part 4. Read the texts A-E and answer the questions 1-15 by choosing the correct letter A-E . Write
your answer in the numbered boxes.
Who would recommend their diet to other people? 1
Who has been on numerous diets in the past? 2
Who started their diet without planning to lose any weight? 3
Who feels let down by the effectiveness of their diet so far? 4
Who is no longer on a diet? 5
Who had medical advice to start dieting? 6
Who says their diet has attracted some negative publicity? 7
Who have failed to lose any weight? 8 9
Who mentions an advantage and a drawback of the diet they lofollow? 10
Who has started to take more exercise? 11
Who has a particular date by which to finish their diet?
12
Who have to calculate how much energy is in their food?
13 14
Who replaces some meals with liquids? 15
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
A. Jane
I started my diet as a new year’s resolution. I know it’s a bit of a cliché, but I really did want to turn over a
new leaf and have a new lifestyle. This was my first diet, at least it is if you exclude a crazy one based on
eating pineapples which I tried in my early twenties. But when celebrities like Rene Zellweger and Geri
Halliwell swear by it, and every other magazine has an article on it, when I realised it was time for a diet,
I realised also it was time for an Atkins diet. The great thing about Atkins is that everything you eat is what
you want to eat, and therefore everything tastes good; the downside is that most of their suggested
menus are on the expensive side, since they include foods like lobster. I’ve been on the diet for
3 months now, and I’ve lost 5 pounds, which is frankly disappointing, but at least I’m still going.
B. Emily
I’m getting married next month, and so three months ago I decided I would try to look a bit sleeker for my
big day. In order to give me an extra bit of incentive, I ordered my wedding dress two sizes too small, which
left me with 8cm to lose around my waist. But I think the extra pressure will give me a shove in the right
direction, even if my doctor warned me that it might backfire. I chose to use the Weightwatchers diet, which
involves counting the number of points in different types of food, where the points are linked to their
calories. I’ve also managed to be more active – nothing particularly demanding, but I’m walking instead of
catching the bus for short distances, and this way I’m able to increase my point allowance. It is a hassle,
having to count the point value for everything I eat, but perhaps this allows me to work out whether I really
want to eat the particular foodstuff, or whether I’m merely satisfying a sudden craving which will pass in a
minute or two. Anyway, whatever the reason, my waist is 2cm smaller than it was, which is better than
nothing, although I don’t think I’m going to hit my target.
C. Greg
I chose to become one of the three million vegetarians in Britain mostly because of health concerns about
eating meat, although I am also concerned about the moral issues. My diet includes only cereal products,
nuts, seeds, eggs, dairy products and fruit and vegetables. Avoiding some animal products can be tricky,
although not of course as difficult as for vegans. Rennet, for example, which is extracted from the stomach
lining of cows, is often used in cheese making. Although my motivation was not to lose weight, over the 10
months after my conversion to vegetarianism I’ve actually lost 7 or 8 pounds. Since I haven’t started taking
any exercise, I guess it’s probably because my fat intake has dropped, since the soya products which
constitute the core of my diet have much less than the beef, pork and lamb dishes I used to eat. On top of all
this, I’m feeling really good, and so I wholeheartedly urge other people to take the vegetarian plunge!
D. Rob
I’m a serial dieter. I’ve been overweight for years, and since I’ve now passed 50 and 18 stone, I’ve become
seriously worried about my future. I decided to start the Cambridge Diet, despite it being so controversial,
since I felt reassured that the modern version of the diet is not as risky as the original version of the 1970s
and 80s. My diet substitutes shakes in place of breakfast and lunch, and thereby aims to keep the calories
under a short rein. My target is 1,000 calories a day, which given my weight undoubtedly constitutes a crash
diet. I take supplements of minerals, vitamins and fatty acids to reduce the loss of nutrients due to the severe
calorie restriction, but these hardly fill me up. I’ve been on the diet for just a month now, and it has taken
me a while to get used to it, and I know I haven’t always kept within my calorie count. That’s why I wasn’t
too surprised when I discovered at my last weighing that my weight was exactly the same as when I started.
But I know by now that these things take time, and I’ll keep going. I feel I have to.
E. Lily
I’ve never really thought much about my food, and have always had a penchant for junk food and chocolate.
Over the years the pounds have slowly accumulated, but things came to a head only recently, after I moved
from a flat to a house, and discovered I was getting short of breath whenever I climbed the stairs. I thought
there might be something wrong with me medically, but my doctor told me it was straightforward obesity.
Thus I started my diet on doctor’s orders. I started reading up on healthy eating, and realised my normal diet
was too high in fats and sugars, and so resolved to change it. But this I found was harder than I thought it
would be, and for several weeks I really tried hard but found that I was actually getting very stressed and
putting on more weight. I didn’t want to concede defeat, but my doctor and friends said they thought I
should take time off it for a while to relax and recharge my batteries, and maybe have another go in the
future.
IV. WRITING
Part 1. A. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence,
beginning with the given word .
1. I was given a transfer by my superior, not a promotion.
→ What _____________________________________________________________________________.
2. Jenny didn’t miss that important phone call because she didn’t leave as early as she had expected.
→ Had ______________________________________________________________________________.
3. Everyone but Jonathan failed to persuade foreign businesses to invest in the project
→ Only Jonathan ______________________________________________________________________.
4. The Personnel Manager was determined not to sack Tim despite his repeated absence.
→ The Personnel Manager had no ________________________________________________________.
5. There are no seats left for the concert on July 20th.
→ All the seats ________________________________________________________________________.
Part 2. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first, using the word
given. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and eight words including the
word given.
1. I bought ten items of clothing but I didn’t need five of them. WHICH
→ I bought ten items of clothing ___________________________________________________use to me.
2. Allegedly, this advanced telecommunications system was invented by two very resourceful young lads. SAID
→ This advanced telecommunications system ____________________________________________ two
very resourceful young lads.
3. Perhaps he was behaving so peevishly because what you said offended him. BEEN
→ He might _____________________________________________ because what you said offended him.
4. “While Harold Robbins was serving as Minister of Foreign Affairs, he was leaking confidential
information”, said the journalist. OF
→ Harold Robbins was _______________________________________________ while he was serving as
Minister of Foreign Affairs.
5. You should on no account give the parcel to anyone other than the person in question. BE
→ Under _________________________________________________to anyone but the person in question.
Part 3. ESSAY
Some people think that too much technology can have a negative impact on our lives. To what
extent do you agree or disagree?
In about 250 words, write an essay to express your opinion on the issue. Use reasons and examples to
support your composition.
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
NAM ĐỊNH NĂM HỌC 2020 – 2021.
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (Đề chuyên)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút.
(Đề thi gồm: 08 trang)
Điểm bài thi Họ tên, chữ ký của giám khảo Số phách

Bằng số Bằng chữ 1. ........................................... Do hội đồng chấm thi ghi
2. ...........................................
Chú ý: Thí sinh làm bài vào đề thi này.
PART A. LISTENING (2.0 POINTS)

- Nội dung phần nghe gồm 03 phần, mỗi thí sinh được nghe 2 lần, đĩa CD tự chạy 2 lần.
- Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
- Hướng dẫn làm bài chi tiết cho thí sinh (bằng Tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
SECTION 1. (1.0p)
Questions 1-5: The housing officer takes some details from the girl. Complete the following form with NO
MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear the conversation TWICE.
PERSONAL DETAILS FOR HOMESTAY APPLICATION
First name (1) _______________
Family name Yuichini
Gender Female
Age 28
Passport number (2) _______________
Nationality Japanese
Homestay time (3) _______________
Course enrolled (4) _______________
Length of the course (5) _______________
Question 6: Mark TWO letters that represent the correct answer.

Which kind of family does the girl prefer?
A. A family with many animals or pets B. A big family with many young children
Shared by: Otto Channel

C. A family without smokers or drinkers D. A family without any pets
Question 7-10: Fill in the blanks with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Although the girl is not a vegetarian, she doesn't eat a lot of meat. Her favorite food is (7) _______________.
The girl has given up playing handball. Now, she just plays (8) ____________ with her friends at weekends.
The girl does not like the bus because they are always late. She prefers (9) _______________.
The girl can get the information about the homestay family that she wants (10) _______________.
SECTION 2. You will hear a conversation between a girl called Julia and her father, about choosing a
course at university. Listen and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false
(F). You will hear the conversation TWICE. (0.5p)
True False
1. Julia wants to choose a course as soon as possible.
2. Julia’s father thinks that studying business may be boring.
3. Julia’s father thinks she might find studying business too difficult.
4. Julia is confident about her math.
5. Julia is keen to consider her father’s suggestion.
SECTION 3. You will hear an interview with a man who is about to go on a trip into outer space. Choose
the best answer (A, B or C). You will hear the recording TWICE. (0.5p)
1. What is Grant most looking forward to on his flight?

A. taking off from Earth
B. seeing the Earth from space
C. leaving the Earth’s atmosphere
2. When asked if he is scared, Grant
A. denies this strongly.
B. insists that he's overcome his fear.
C. suggests that this is a normal thing to feel.
3. What will Grant be responsible for during the flight?
A. providing a commentary for the media
B. observing what the crew members do
C. operating some of the controls
4. Grant feels that the term ‘space tourism'
A. gives people the wrong idea about what he’s doing.
B. makes what he’s doing sound attractive to people.
C. leads people to doubt whether he's really going.
5. Grant thinks that in the future,
A. many people will be able to afford space flights.
B. more companies will be organizing space trips.
C. most spaceflights will take paying passengers.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (2.0 POINTS)
I. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences. (1.0p)

1. Many people choose to buy houses in the suburbs _______ they can avoid the noise and pollution in
the city.
A. because B. so that C. so D. although
2. I can remember _______ you about this three times already.

A. telling B. to tell C. told D. tell
3. Since all vehicles were banned from the city centre, the air has been safe _______ pollution.
A. about B. apart from C. from D. against
4. Nobody knows who invented the wheel, _______?

A. do they B. don’t they C. does it D. doesn’t it
5. This is not_______ the last one we stayed in.

A. as a comfortable hotel as B. as comfortable the hotel as
C. as the comfortable hotel as D. as comfortable a hotel as
6. A survey on alternative sources of energy _______ out by those scientists will be reported to the public
next week.
A. which carried B. carried C. which is carrying D. carrying
7. Linda: “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” - Mary: “_______.”
A. Thank you very much. I am afraid. B. You are telling a lie.
C. Thank you for your compliment. D. I don't like your sayings.
8. Tim looks so frightened and upset. He _______something terrible.

A. must experience B. can have experienced
C. should have experienced D. must have experienced
9. With the weekend free, we decided to take a two-day _______ to the nearest island.
A. travel B. flight C. journey D. trip
10. In some countries, many old-aged parents like to live in a nursing home. They want to _______
independent lives.
A. give B. lead C. take D. see

II. Give the correct form of the words in capital letters. Write your answers in the blanks. (0.5p)
BRINGING UP CHILDREN
Parents vary greatly in their degree of strictness or indulgence towards their children. Some may be
especially strict in money matters; others are severe over times of coming home at night, punctuality for
meals or personal (1. CLEAN) . In general, the controls imposed represent the needs of the
parents and the values of the community as much as the child's own happiness and well-being.
With regard to the development of moral standards in the growing child, (2. CONSISTENT) is
very important in parental teaching. To forbid a thing one day and excuse it the next is no foundation for (3.
MORAL) . Also, parents should realize that “example is better than precept”. If they are
hypocritical and do not practise what they preach, their children may grow confused and (4. EMOTION)
insecure when they grow old enough to think for themselves, and realize they have been, to
some extent, deceived. A sudden awareness of a marked difference between their parents' ethics and their
morals can be a dangerous (5. DISILLUSION) .
III. Fill in each space provided in each sentence below with the correct form of one phrasal verb given.
Each phrasal verb can be used ONCE only. (0.5p)
break down make up for wear out take after take on

throw around go over give away get off bring in
1. I’ve been wearing these shoes for years and they’re beginning .
2. Our car at the side of the highway in the snowstorm.
3. She her father; everyone says how alike they are!
4. The government is planning a law banning hunting.
5. The team were eager the loss of the previous match.
6. Remember to your test paper to check for grammar and spelling mistakes.
7. If you don’t those invitations today, they will never arrive on time.
8. She unintentionally the secret of the surprise party.
9. He books and papers the room whilst trying to find her passport and her cheque book.
10. I don't think he the new project unless we offer him more money.
PART C. READING (2.5 POINTS)

I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. (0.5p)
SINGALONG
There was a time in Britain when ‘singalong’ meant going to the pub and singing traditional songs
accompanied by a pianist but that changed in the 1980s when karaoke nights were first (1) and people
sang popular songs to recorded backing music. The latest craze in singalong takes the idea to a new (2)
with singalong evenings in the theatres with (3) of other people while watching classic
musical films like The Sound of Music. Costumes are not compulsory but they are (4)
recommended and there is great inventiveness on display.
The evening begins with a live show (5) the host warms the audience up, judges a fancy dress
competition and (6) the prizes. The audience then sit back and watch the film with the lyrics of the
songs on the screen and sing at the top of their (7) .
Now the fashion has even (8) to opera so that when Puccini’s Turandot played at Covent
Garden Opera House last year the chorus master gave the crowds outside (9) on twelve outdoor screens
a lesson in how to sing along to Nessun Dormo, the opera's best (10) aria.
1. A. presented B. admitted C. attached D. introduced
2. A. level B. point C. degree D. part
3. A. quantities B. loads C. numbers D. amounts
4. A. exceedingly B. awfully C. highly D. extremely
5. A. how B. when C. in which D. that
6. A. includes B. deals C. serves D. awards
7. A. mouths B. voices C. hearts D. heads
8. A. spread B. distributed C. stretched D. multiplied
9. A. watched B. to watch C. who watched D. watching
10. A. familiar B. memorable C. known D. common
II. Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions. (0.5p)
People who enjoy skiing dream of skiing in exotic places. These days they don’t have to limit
themselves to just the Rocky Mountains or the Swiss Alps. Now they can ski in Dubai as well! That’s right.
Dubai, the most populated city in the United Arab Emirates, has a ski resort.
Ski Dubai opened for business in 2005. Other than being the world’s third largest indoor ski facility, Ski
Dubai has a number of things to amaze visitors. First and foremost, this ski facility was built in a place where
there are no natural hills and it never snows. While the desert outdoors can reach 45°C in the summer, the
slopes of Ski Dubai are kept at a cool -2°C all year round.
Like any other ski resort, Ski Dubai has a chairlift and ski instructors. It also boasts a Swiss style café on
the slopes where skiers can rest and warm up. However, that’s not all. Along with being able to enjoy the five

indoor slopes, including a black diamond slope, visitors are welcome to build snowmen in a designated area.
Children can also enjoy snowball fights in the snowball throwing gallery, or they can explore a snow cavern
filled with amazing things for kids to see and do.
As if all of that were not enough, it is also possible for guests to experience falling snow from time to
time. When it is time to make new snow inside the facility, the temperature drops to -8°C. Then snow guns
shoot out chilled water to make a cloud near the ceiling. Tiny particles of ice are shot into the cloud to form
snow crystals. This manmade snow falls from the ceiling on excited guests below. When Raed Al Yousofi, a
guest at Ski Dubai, experienced his first snowfall, he said, “It’s very strange but wonderful.” That is certainly
an apt description of Ski.
1. What is the main idea of this reading?

A. What Ski Dubai has B. Where the idea of Ski Dubai came from
C. Who made Ski Dubai possible D. Why Ski Dubai needed to be built
2. The word “from time to time” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______
A. usually B. often C. sometimes D. rarely
3. Which of the following is NOT found at Ski Dubai?
A. A black diamond slope B. A place to eat inside the facility
C. A place to just play in the snow D. A slope with a ski jump
4. What happens when the facility needs to make new snow?
A. A cloud is made above the slopes. B. All the guests are asked to exit.
C. Chilled water is put on the slopes. D. Particles of ice are mixed with real snow.
5. Which of the following can be inferred about Raed Al Yousofi?
A. He is good at winter sports. B. He had never seen snow before.
C. He used to live in a cold country. D. He works at Ski Dubai.
III. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write the words in the spaces provided. (0.7p).
LET’S TAKE A “SELFIE”
As every linguist knows, most of the languages are in a state of constant change. Over the course of
time, old words die out and (1) words are adopted. As far as the English language is concerned,
(2) such newcomer on the scene is the term “selfie”, which refers to a self-portrait photograph
that the owner usually intends to post on a social networking site. The term has experienced a relatively short
period in circulation, according to the media, with the earliest known usage (3) been recorded in
2002 somewhere in Australia. Since that time, however, (4) popularity has soared, and a small
number of related terms, such as “Selfie”, have also (5) the headlines. For anyone who’s
wondering, this refers to a picture of someone’s hair. Although neither of these terms would be known at all

(6) the help of social media sites, they just go to show what inventive people youngsters can be
and (7) quickly a niche word can become mainstream.
IV. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (0.8 p)
THE HISTORY OF A COOL IMAGE
 Section A.
The history of sunglasses can be traced back to ancient Rome around the year AD 60, where the Emperor
Nero is said to have watched gladiator fights whilst holding up polished emerald-green gems to his eyes, thus
reducing the effect of the sun's glare. The very first actual recorded evidence of the use of sunglasses can be
found from a painting by Tommaso da Modena in Italy, 1352, showing a person wearing sunglasses.
Earlier, around the twelfth century in China, sunglasses were worn by court judges, not to protect their
eyes from the sun, but in order to conceal any expressions in their eyes as it was important to keep their thoughts
and opinions secret until the end of each trial. These were flat panes of quartz that had been polished smooth
and then smoked to give their tint.
It was not until 1430 that prescription glasses were first developed in Italy to correct vision, and these early
rudimentary spectacles soon found their way to China, where they were again tinted by smoke to be used by
the judges. The frames were carved out of either ivory or tortoiseshell, and some were quite ornate. During the
17th century, prescription glasses were being used in England to help elderly long-sighted people to see better.
The Spectacle Makers Company was founded in England, which started manufacturing prescription glasses
for the public and whose motto was "A Blessing to the Aged".
 Section B.
The development of sunglasses, however, remained static until the work of James Ayscough, who was
known for his work on microscopes in London around 1750. He experimented with blue and green tinted
lenses, believing they could help with certain vision problems. These were not sunglasses, however, as he was
not concerned with protecting the eyes from the sun's rays.
Prescription spectacles continued to be developed over the next few decades, especially regarding the
design of the spectacle frames and how to get them to sit comfortably on the nose. The frames were made from
leather, bone, ivory, tortoiseshell and metal, and were simply propped or balanced on the nose. The early arms
or sidepieces of the frames first appeared as strips of ribbon that looped around the backs of the ears. Rather
than loops, the Chinese added ceramic weights to the ends of the ribbons which dangled down behind the tops
of the ears. Solid sidepieces finally arrived in 1730, invented by Edward Scarlett.

 Section C.
Sunglasses, as we know them today, were first introduced by Sam Foster in America, 1929. These were
the first sunglasses designed specifically to protect people's eyes from the harmful sun's rays. He founded the
Foster Grant Company and sold the first pair of Foster Grant sunglasses on the boardwalk by the beaches in
Atlantic City, New Jersey. These were the first mass-produced sunglasses, and from this year onwards,
sunglasses really began to take off.
 Section D.
In 1936, Edwin H Land patented the Polaroid filter for making polarized sunglasses. This type of tint
reduces glare reflected from surfaces, such as water. Later in that same year, Ray-Ban took the design of pilots'
sunglasses further by producing the aviator style sunglasses that we know today, using this recently invented
polarized lens technology. The edge of the frame characteristically drooped away at the edges by the cheeks in
a sort of tear drop shape, to give a full all-round protection to the pilots' eyes, who regularly had to glance down
towards the aircraft's instrument panel. The polarized lens reduced the glare from light reflected off the
instrument panel. Pilots were given these sunglasses free of charge, but in 1937 the general public were allowed
to purchase this aviator-style model that "banned" the sun's rays as Ray-Ban sunglasses.
 Section E.
In 1960, Foster Grant started a big advertising campaign to promote sunglasses, and pretty soon famous
film stars and pop stars started wearing sunglasses as part of their image. The public began to adopt this new
fashion of wearing sunglasses, not just to protect their eyes from bright light, but also as a way of looking good.
Today, sunglasses are continuing to be improved with efficient UV blocking tints, cutting out all the harmful
ultra-violet light. Various coloured tints are now available and, of course, the frame styles are very varied and
exciting. Now you can really make a statement with your fashion sunglasses, transforming your image or
creating a new one. Designer sunglasses have certainly come a long way in just a few years, and now not only
protect our eyes from the harmful sun's rays, but are also an important fashion accessory - and it all started
nearly 2,000 years ago with the Roman Emperor Nero!
Choose the correct headings for sections A- E from the list of headings below. Write your answers in
the boxes provided.
List of Headings List of Section Your answer
i. The arrival of modern sunglasses 1. Section A
ii. The use of sunglasses in early courts 2. Section B
iii. New developments in sunglasses lenses 3. Section C

iv. The introduction of sidepieces on sunglasses 4. Section D
v. Advertising campaigns for sunglasses 5. Section E
vi. The origins and early history of sunglasses
vii. Ways in which sunglasses have become trendy
viii. How the physical shape of early sunglasses developed
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage? Write your
answers in the boxes provided.
Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer.
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer.
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this.
6. Early Chinese sunglasses were worn to correct the wearer's eyesight.
7. The work of James Ayscough had a profound effect on the development of modern lenses.
8. Sam Foster's sunglasses were the first to be made for a mass market.
1. Section A: 2. Section B: 3. Section C: 4. Section D:
5. Section E: 6. 7. 8.
PART D. WRITING (2.5 POINTS)
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the first sentence,
using the cues at the beginning of each sentence. (0.5p)
1. They were late for the meeting because of the heavy snow.
 But for ...............................................................................................................................................
2. “Please don’t drive so fast!” Ann begged her friend.
 Ann insisted ......................................................................................................................................
3. The quality of life of people in the countryside has also been improved significantly.
 There has ...........................................................................................................................................
4. He had no idea how difficult the exercise would be until he was half-way through it.
 Only when .........................................................................................................................................
5. The storm blew the roof off the house.
 The house had ...................................................................................................................................
II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given.
Do not change the word given. You must use between two and six words, including the word given. (0.5p)

1. Help was urgently needed in the flooded area of the country. (NEED)
 They were ___________________________________________ in the flooded area of the country.
2. The new film was barely similar to the book I had read. (BORE)
 The new film ____________________________________________________ the book I had read.
3. I’m not in the right mood to work now. I’ll take a walk first. (FRAME)
 I’m not _____________________________________________ to work now. I’ll take a walk first.
4. Leaving school made me realise that my childhood was over. (BROUGHT)

 Leaving school _________________________________________ me that my childhood was over.
5. We must take as much advantage as possible of any opportunity to speak English. (MOST)
 We have to __________________________________________ any opportunity to speak English.
III. Write an essay on the following topic (1.5p)
In many countries today, the eating habit and lifestyle of children are different from those of previous
generations. Some people say this does more harm than good.
 To what extent do you agree or disagree with this opinion?
 Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.
Your writing must be between 200 and 220 words
...............................................................................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................................................................
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----- THE END -----

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN LAM SƠN
THANH HÓA Năm học: 2020-2021
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề dùng cho thí sinh thi vào lớp chuyên Anh)
Ngày thi: 18 tháng 07 năm 2020
(Đề thi gồm có 08 trang, 05 phần)
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
PART A. LISTENING (10 points)

• Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần.
• Thí sinh có 2 phút để hoàn chinh bài sau khi kết thúc 2 phần nghe.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thi sinh đã có trong đề thi.
I. You will hear a man who is looking for a new apartment to rent talking to a landlady who is showing
him round an apartment. Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each
answer on your answer sheet. (5 pts)
NEW APARTMENT
Landlady's name: Mary Jones
+ partly furnished
General
+ no (1) are allowed
+ nice and big
Kitchen + old but (2) dishwasher
+ there is a new (3) .
Lounge + some shelves will be built soon
+ good clothes storage
Bedroom
+ need to bring a (4)
+ there is a (5)
Bathroom
+ the water is heated by gas
II. Listen to a conversation between a boy, Tom, and his sister, Clare, about school. Then decide whether
each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F). Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5
pts)
T/ F
6. Clare thinks their father will be pleased by Tom's news.
7. Tom believes he can manage both swimming and school work. T/ F
8. Tom's teacher thinks Tom is clever. T/ F
9. Clare thinks it is a bad idea to take a friend's advice. T/ F
10. Tom will ask for his father's advice tonight. T/ F
Shared by Otto Channel!

PART B. PHONETICS (5 points)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in the same
line and write A. B. Cor D on your answer sheet. (3 pls)
11. A. educate B. eliminate C. certificate D. dedicate
12. A. expand B. vacancy C. applicant D. category
13. A. chorus B. chaos C. orchard D. orchestra
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others in the same lin. and write A,
B, C or D on your answer sheet. (2 pts)
14. A. profession B. consequence C. substantial D. objective
15. A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate
PART C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (40 points)
I. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (7pts)
16. It is vitally important that the order (cancel) immediately.
17. I was thrilled (award) a prize in such a big competition.
18. Look! The rain has spoiled our furniture. You (close) all the windows last night.
19. Stylishly (decorate) with beautiful ornaments, the house costs a huge sum of money.
20. In a few minutes' time, when the clock strikes six, I (wait) for you here.
21. So fast the thief (run) that the police couldn't catch him.
22. (grasp) what I meant, he got down to work.
II. Supply the correct form of the words in capital. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (8 pts)
23. Luckily, my backpack is so my clothes didn't get wet. (WATER)
24. Politeness is one thing. Real kindness is another. You must learn to between the two. (DIFFER)
25. The road was icy but she stopped the car . (EXPERT)
26. It's certainly not being able to speak English and use a computer nowadays.
(ADVANTAGE)
27. Hundreds of unemployed could be pushed back towards crime by the closure of job
training programs. (PRISON)
28. The problems of children's at school have worried both parents and teachers. (ATTEND)

29. Since drunken driving is dangerous the government has decided to it, hoping to reduce
road accidents. (LAW)
30. According to the scientists, an estimated 40 to 45 percent of people with Covid-19 may be
throughout the world. (SYMPTOM)
III. The passage below contains 5 mistakes (from questions 31 to 35). Find out the mistakes and write
the correct answers on your answer sheet. (5 pts)
Example: line 1: length → long
1 Keeping food for length periods of time was a huge problem. This proved especially crucial
2 during times when agriculture production was severely limited by weather or crop failure.
3 People commonly used ice to keep food fresh but, of course, ice itself melts relatively quickly.
4 In 1859, an American, John Mason, invented a glass jar in a metal screw - on lid, creating a
5 perfect seal and making it possible to preserve food that would previously not have remained
6 edible. Manson's jar is still in use throughout the world.
7 An even more successful method for keeping food by canning it in metal containers was
8 perfect between 1870 and 1920 by an Englishman Bryan Donkin. This preserved food
9 beautiful, though the early iron cans were expensive, heavy and difficult to open. A
10 breakthrough came in the 1880s with the development of lighter materials that also enabled
massive production of cans,
Question Mistake Correction

31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
IV. Choose the word/ phrase that best fits the gap in each of the following sentences and write A, B, C
or D on your answer sheet. (20 pts)
36. Unless you give up smoking, you'll the risk of damaging your health.
A. bear B. suffer C. make D. run
37. We'll a fortune if we can manage to secure a trading partner in Japan.

A. make B. take C. do D. have
38. The unscrupulous salesman the old couple out of their life savings.
A. swindled B. deprived C. robbed D. extracted

39. They had a four-day holiday, then began work .
A. on end B. out of bounds C. in earnest D. in proportions
40. As we've been discussing for two hours without any solution. I'd like to my solution to this
problem.
A. come up B. bring down C. take in D. put forward
41. Chris is a real introvert in contrast his brother Tom.

A. with B. by C. to D. against
42. We are going to donate clothes and food to the children, were the victims of the
earthquake last week.
A. whose their parents B. whose parents
C. the parents of them D. parents whose
43. I have had some summer jobs but I have never been employed.
A. ever B. occasionally C. rarely D. permanently
44. Where do you think his new enthusiasm from?

A. sources B. springs C. traces D. leaps
45. Andy and Kitty are talking:

Andy: "I've been offered $ 550 for a stereo. Should I take it or wait for a better one?"
Kitty: "Take the $ 550 ."
A. Actions speak louder than words B. A bird in the hand is worth two in the bush
C. Kill two birds with one stone D. The early bird catches the worm
46. The activities of the international marketing researcher are frequently much broader than .
A. the domestic marketer has B. the domestic marketer does
C. those of the domestic marketer D. that which has the domestic marketer
47. It's a pity that the children can't choose what to learn at that school, ?
A. is it B. isn't it C. can't they D. can they
48. Anne and John are talking to each other when he comes to her house.
Anne: "Make yourself at home."
John: " ."
A. It's very kind of you. Thank you. C. Thanks! Same to you.
B. Not at all. Don't mention it. D. Yes, can I help you?
49. wearing a facemask, regular hand washing is effective in the prevention of coronavirus
infection.
A. As long as B. As well as C. In addition D. Beside

50. Surely the whole of learning a language is to be able to use it.
A. aim B. goal C. reason D. point
51. There are hundreds of fruits in Vietnam and of them grow in summer.
A. most B. almost C. mostly D. the most
52. that gold was discovered at Sutter's Mill and that the California Gold Rush began.
A. Because in 1848 B. That in 1848
C. In 1848 that it was D. It was in 1848
53. Despite the financial problems, she managed to her possession.

A. catch up with B. hold on to C. come up against D. stand in for
54. success and downfalls that we experience in our lives help create who we become.
A. A B. An C. The D. Ø
55. I can't write that kind of letter unless I'm in the right of mind.
A. frame B. way C. set D. turn
PART D. READING (30 points)

I. Read the following passage then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word (from questions 56 to 65).
Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
EXERCISE AND HAPPINESS
There is evidence to show that regular exercise and sport are associated not only with physical fitness
but also with a lower incidence of depression. Scientists have been conducting research to discover why
people who exercise on a regular (56) frequently report that physical activity improves their mood,
making them feel calmer and (57) apprehensive. Explanations (58) to precisely why it is
mood-enhancing (59) , with some researchers arguing that exercise may be acting as a diversion
(60) negative thoughts, while others claim that it is developing a (61) of a new skill
that is the most significant factor.
In addition, it is undeniably true that the social (62) which participation in sporting
activities often involves also plays its part in mood enhancement.
(63) the reasons may be why vigorous activity should have (64) a powerful
effect on how people feel, it has been shown that exercise is as potent as any medication (65)
depression.
II. Read the text and choose the most suitable word from the ones given below to fill in each gap (from
questions 66 to 75). Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
A FUTURE IN THE DARK

For many of us, we are working, travelling and shopping in hours that used to be (66)
for relaxation and sleep. But according to the results of test being (67) by scientists, we are no
longer getting enough darkness in our lives. In fact, research shows that a (68) number of
health and environmental problems are due to a loss of darkness.
Life has evolved with a day/night cycle. People who go (69) this day/night rhythm will
notice an adverse impact on their immune systems, and that's not a good sign. We are creating a conflict
between what our mind wants, and what our (70) body clock prepares us for.
Some experts explain that our biological clock is similar to the conductor of an orchestra, with the multiple
rhythms of the body (71) the various orchestra sections.
The body clock is (72) on the light/dark cycle and it governs us for every (73)
of activity and rest in our lives. It ensures that all our various internal systems are working together-
this is its sole (74) . By moving to (75) , not taking into account the dark side, we will
effectively be throwing away the advantages of evolution whether we care to admit it or not.
66. A. conserved B. reserved C. upheld D. defended
67. A. carried up B. carried through C. carried out D. carried off
68. A. booming B. raising C. growing D. boosting
69. A. down B. without C. through D. behind
70. A. internal B. interior C. inner D. inside
71. A. describing B. corresponding C. expressing D. representing
72. A. founded B. based C. decided D. established
73. A. prospect B. attitude C. position D. type
74. A. purpose B. reason C. project D. desire
75. A. living 24-hour B. 24-hourly living C. 24-hours living D. 24-hour living
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question that follows (from questions 76 to
80). Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (5 pts)
Ralph Earl was born into a Connecticut farm family in 1751. He chose early to become a painter and
looked for what training was available in his home state and Boston. Earl was one of the first American
artists to paint landscapes. Among his first paintings were scenes from the Revolutionary war battles of
Lexington and Concord. In 1778, Earl went to London to study with Benjamin West for four years.
When Earl returned to the United States, he was jailed for fourteen months for outstanding debts.
While still a prisoner, he painted portraits of some of New York's city most elegant society women and
their husbands. After his release, he took up the trade of itinerant portrait painter, working his way through
southern New England and New York. Earl didn't flatter his subjects, but his portraits showed a deep
understanding of them, perhaps because he had sprung from the same root.
Among Earl's most famous paintings is his portrait of Justice Oliver Ellsworth and his wife, Abigail.
To provide counterpoint to the severity of the couple, he accurately details the relative luxury of the
Ellsworth's interior furnishings. The view through the window behind Earl's painting is something of an
anomaly. Reclining Hunter, which for many years was attributed to Thomas Gainsborough, show a well-
dressed gentleman resting beneath a tree. In the foreground, he displays a pile of birds, the result of a day's
hunt. The viewer can also see a farmer's donkey lying in the background, another of the hunter's victims.
This outrageously funny portrait couldn't have been commissioned - no one would have wanted to be
portrayed in such an absurd way. However, this painting uncharacteristically shows Earl's wit as well as his
uncommon technical skills.
76. What is the author's main purpose?

A. To discuss the life and the work of an American painter.
B. To compare the art of Ralph Earl and Thomas Gainsborough.
C. To trace Ralph Earl's artistic influences.
D. To describe the art scene in New York in the late eighteen century.
77. The word "itinerant" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. successful B. talented C. innovative D. travelling
78. According to the passage, one of the distinguishing features of the portrait of Oliver and Abigail
Ellsworth is the contrast between
A. the two styles used to paint the two figures
B. the sunlit fields and the dark interior
C. the plainness of the figures and the luxury of the furnishing
D. the straight fences and the curving Connecticut river
79. Why does the author refer to Reclining Hunter as "something of an anomaly" in the third paragraph?
A. It is so severe. C. It shows Earl's talent.
B. It is quite humorous. D. It was commissioned.
80. The author's attitude toward Ralph Earl is

A. antagonistic B. neutral C. admiring D. unflattering
IV. Read the following passage and choose the most suitable phrase from A - G to fill in each from
questions 81 to 85). There are two extra phrases that you don't need to use. Write the answers on
your answer sheet. (5 pts)
A. they went out in the midday sun
B. pass their entire lives without a single drop
C. lies in the combination of behavior and physiology
D. they are not emaciated
E. live in an accommodating environment
F. are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat
G. they slept during the day
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial
problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man's
inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend
that many creatures of the desert (81) .
Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand
its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are
found. The giants of the North American desert (82)
Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than tangled forest.
Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet (83) .
Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the
word. The secret of their adjustment (84) . None could survive if, like mad dogs and
Englishmen, (85) ; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours
asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the
sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.
PART E. WRITING (15 points)

I. Rewrite each of the following sentences, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the Same,
Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5 pts)
86. "Nothing will persuade me to sleep in that haunted house," she said.
→ She flatly ..........................................................................................................................................
87. Everybody was honored by the boss with the exception of one clerk.
→ All but ..............................................................................................................................................
88. The last time there was such an exciting match was three months ago.
→ Not since ..........................................................................................................................................
89. Natasha is much better than the other dancers in her age group.
→ Natasha stands .................................................................................................................................
90. Bruce said that the situation at work was like a family argument.
→ Bruce likened ...................................................................................................................................
II. Paragraph writing (10 pts) Write a paragraph about 150-180 words concerning the following topic:

Should students be taught online at home instead of going to school?
...............................................................................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................................................................
---------THE END---------
Họ và tên thí sinh
SBD Chữ ký của cán bộ coi thi 1……………………….Chữ ký của cán bộ coi thi 2………………………

SỞ GD & ĐT NGHỆ AN KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN PHAN BỘI CHÂU
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN – TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC VINH
NĂM HỌC 2020 – 2021
Môn thi chuyên: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Họ và tên thí sinh: ………………………………………………… Số báo danh

Ngày tháng năm sinh: ……………………………………………. .
Học sinh trường: …………………………………………………. . Số phách
Họ tên, chữ ký giám thị 1 Họ tên, chữ ký giám thị 2
➢ CHỈ DẪN
1. Đề thi gồm 12 trang. Thí sinh kiểm tra trước khi làm bài.
2. Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi (ghi câu trả lời vào các ô được đánh số phía dưới đề của mỗi
phần).
3. Thí sinh giữ gìn cẩn thận bài làm.
4. Nếu thí sinh làm sai, dùng thước gạch, không dùng bút tẩy màu trắng. Thí sinh chỉ được dùng bút
một màu xanh hoặc đen để làm bài. Không dùng mực màu đỏ.
5. Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.
6. Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất kỳ tài liệu nào kể cả từ điển.
7. Riêng phần nghe: Phần thi nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được phát 2 lần.
Giám thị chỉ mở đĩa một lần.
Shared by: Elina and Otto Channel

SỞ GD & ĐT NGHỆ AN KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN PHAN BỘI CHÂU
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN – TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC VINH
NĂM HỌC 2020 – 2021
Môn thi chuyên: TIẾNG ANH
Điểm Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo Số phách

Bằng số: ………………. . Giám khảo 1: ……………………………………….
Bằng chữ: ……………… Giám khảo 2: ……………………………………….
SECTION A. LISTENING
✓ Phần thi nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được phát 2 lần.
✓ Mở đầu và kết thúc phần thi nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thời gian thí sinh làm bìa đã được tính trong nội
dung trong đĩa CD của phần nghe.
✓ Mọi hướng dần cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong nội dung trong đĩa CD của phần thi nghe.
PART I. MULTIPLE CHOICE & GAP-FILL

You will hear a talk about the Red River Festival-a special one in the world and do the following tasks.
Write your answers in the box provided.
Questions 1 – 2. Circle the correct answer A – C
1. The festival lasts .
A. 2 days B. 3 days C. 4 days
2. It will take place on .
A. 14th July B. 4th July C. 4th August
Questions 3 – 4. Circle TWO answers A – E.

You can buy tickets from .
A. the Town Hall B. the festival office C. libraries
D. tourist advice centres E. post offices
Questions 5 – 7. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in each space.

5. The weather forecast for the festival is .
6. Food will be available from .
7. There will be a bar selling soft drinks .
Questions 8 – 10. Write ONE WORD in each space.

Name of band Where they come from What kind of music
Petie's Dozen 8 Jazz
Strings Poland Poland 9
The Fiddlers 10 Folk
Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART II. MULTIPLE MATCHING

Now you will listen to five people talking about special moments in their lives and do the following two
tasks. Write your answers in the box provided.
For questions 1 – 5, match the extracts as you hear them with the people, listed A – H. There are three
people that do not match with any of the extracts.
A. a nurse B. a lawyer C. a school leaver D. a fitness instructor
E. a teacher F. a sibling G. a pensioner H. an actor
Your answer
1. Extract 1 2. Extract 2 3. Extract 3 4. Extract 4 5. Extract 5
For questions 6-10, match the extracts as you hear with the topics, listed A – H. There are three topics that
do not match with any of the extracts.
A. getting a job B. publishing a book C. watching a play D. passing an exam
E. watch a prize-giving F. having a baby G. finishing university H. climbing a mountain
Your answer
6. Extract 1 7. Extract 2 8. Extract 3 9. Extract 4 10. Extract 5
PART III. SENTENCE COMPLETION

You will hear a radio news report about "Google", a popular Internet search engine. For questions 1-10,
fill the gaps with the missing information. Write your answers in the box provided.
Google's success is such that the brand name has become a (1) . For its success, Google relied on
(2) which is a particularly old-fashioned way to market a product. Google is now the official search
engine for top global (3) America Online. The professor mentioned by the reporter used word
"googling" to indicate that rather than being involved in serious (4) , he was just browsing. He was
searching the (5) in a relaxed manner, looking for something to interest him. The majority of (6)
use Google to search the Net. The brand name has become so widely used that it is sometimes
spelt with its (7) . The verb" to google "literally means searching for what is of use through a vast

quantity of (8) . “Google" is a variant spelling of "googol", a term invented by a mathematician's (9)
several decades ago. He didn't know that in the early (10) , the term would be widely used.
Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
SECTION B. GRAMMAR & VOCARULARY

PART I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. Write your
answers in the box provided.
1. , they've already made their decision, there's nothing much we can do.
A. Seeing that B. On grounds that C. Assuming that D. For reason that
2. , the town does not get much of an ocean breeze.

A. Locating near the coast B. Despite location near the coast
C. Though located near the coast D. In spite having location near the coast
3. Is that the man .

A. whom you lent the money B. whom did you lend the money
C. you lent the money D. you lent the money to
4. I'm going on business for a week, so I'll be leaving everything .

A. on your guards B. up to your eyes
C. in your capable hands D. under the care of you
5. Our car because it's not where it's normally parked in the parking lot.
A. should have been stolen B. would have been stolen
C. must have been stolen D. need have been stolen
6. Everyone here has been to London ?

A. haven’t they B. hasn’t he C. hasn’t they D. has he
7. It rains whenever I go out without my umbrella

A. continually B. invariably C. typically D. infallibly
8. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to indicate the word closest in meaning to the underlined
word in the following sentence.
A lot of superstitious practice in a country can be a major impediment to its economic development
A. obstacle B. assistance C. impetus D. encouragement

9. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to indicate the phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined one in the following sentence.
I only thought about it the day before the game and have had my heart in my mouth from then on.
A. been very composed B. been extremely nervous
C. been very tired D. been extremely panic
10. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the
following exchange.
The teacher is talking to Laura about her presentation in class today.
Teacher : "Your speech this morning was beyond my expectations"
Laura :" "
A. Thanks, without your help, I couldn't have. B. Are you kidding me? It's terrible.
C. It's OK. It was the least I could do. D. That's alright. I'm glad I could help.
Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART II. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the
same line. Write your answers in the box provided.
THE COMPUTER INVASION

0. DENY
Computers have, (0) undeniably, been a blessing in some areas such as calculating
1. MATHEMATICS
(1) problems quickly and efficiently, storing information in a compact way and
2. EFFECT
helping companies increase their cost (2) . But they have also allowed
3. SCRUTINY
companies to (3) employees’ activities more efficiently, raising questions
4. PERSON
about privacy in the workplace. And in the realm of (4) relationships, they
5. BASIC
have also been something of a bane. Social contact nowadays is more of a remote
6. ILLUSION
nature than ever before, with text messages and e-mail replacing old modes of
7. ERROR
communication, and these (5) allow people to lie about who they are and
8. COMMON
take on entirely new personas. If people meet after such on-line communication,
9. SECURE
they may be (6) by the other person, seeing their previous preconceptions as
10. EMOTION
being totally (7) . This in turn will make them more wary in their future
dealings with people, leading to further isolation, which is (8) in
large conurbations. In this increasingly (9) consumerist society, more

people are falling prey to cyber dating, and alarmists are worried that we may
forget our social graces, become isolated and fail to function as (10)
healthy human beings should.
PART III. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Identify and correct the mistakes. Write your
answer provided.
Line 1 Parents complain that it is difficult to live with teenagers. Then again, teenagers say exactly
2 the same thing about their parents! According to a recent survey, the most common arguments
3 between parents and teenagers are those regarded untidiness and household chores. On the
4 one hand, parents go mad over untidy rooms, clothes dropped on the floor and their children's
5 refuse to help with the housework. On the other hand, teenagers lose their patience continually
6
when parents tell them off for dropping the towel in the bathroom, not cleaning up their room
7 or refusing to do the shopping at the supermarket.
8
The survey, conducted by St George University, showed that different parents have different
9
approaches for these problems. However, some approaches are much more successful than
10
another. For example, those parents who yell at their teens for their untidiness, but later clear
11
up after them, have less chances of changing their teens' behavior. On the contrary, those who
12
let teenagers experience the consequences of their actions are more successful. For instance,
13
when teenagers who don't help their parents with the shopping don't find their favorite food in
14
the fridge, they are forced to reconsider their activities.
15
16 Psychologists say that the most important thing in parent-teen relationships is
17 communication. Parents should talk to their teens, but at the same time they should listen to
18 which their children have to say. Parents should tell their teens off when they are untidy, so
19 they should also understand that their room is their own private space. Communication is a
20 two-ways process. It is only by listening to and understanding each other that problems both
21 parents and teens can be solved.
22
Your answer
Mistake Line Correction Mistake Line Correction
1. 6.
2. 7.

3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
SECTION C. READING
PART I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to indicate the correct
word(s) for each of the blanks. Write your answers in the box provided.
WHY WONT YOU LISTEN?
Everyone agrees that having well-behaved children is important, which is why the (1) majority of
parents create rules in an attempt to teach their children (2) from wrong. Nevertheless, does a child's
behavior actually improve (3) of obedience when they have to adhere a set of rules?
It seems that the extent to which children take household rules into consideration depends on how parents
actually deal with their children's actions and whether or not they (4) past behaviors. Rebellious
behavior on the child's behalf is often the result of a child's inability to (5) reasoning behind a rule.
Understandably, this can be quite challenging for a parent, which is why making the threat that they will be
"grounded" if they don't (6) the attention may not have the desired outcome.
Putting strict conditions on children will most likely prompt them to avoid doing as they are told and
will put more stress on the parent / child relationship. Getting children to (7) with rules can be
struggle; (8) a-parents can make sure they create household rules that encourage their children into
better behavior, as opposed to imposing strict guidelines, which may have the opposite effect. If parents
want to (9) eye to eye with their children about how to behave they should provide positive by
following the rules themselves at home. A home environment with positive reinforcements not only
nourished cooperative behavior, but could have important (10) for a child's overall development
1. A. vast B. wide C. extensive D. huge

2. A. truth B. right C. good D. justice
3. A. in case B. by means C. in terms D. on behalf
4. A. prey on B. call in C. turn over D. weigh up
5. A. seize B. hold C. grip D. grasp
6. A. offer B. pay C. give D. provide
7. A. comply B. maintain C. fulfill D. obey

8. A. but B. so C. besides D. however
9. A. realize B. recognize C. see D. understand
10. A. indications B. conclusions C. predictions D. implications
Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE WORD in
each space. Write your answers in the box provided.
GETTING ENOUGH EXERCISE
While most people (1) to have a toned healthy body, not everyone enjoys (2) out at
the gym. In fact, many of us (3) sooner avoid any kind of vigorous exercise altogether, and may not even
feel it is necessary. Over the years, various health experts have assured us that keeping (4) simply
requires a total of 30 minutes of moderate activity most days of the week. Many people believe that a walk to
the shops or some light housework constitutes moderate activity but it turns (5) this may not be the case.
According to the British Association of Sport and Exercise, it is high (6) more specific advice was
given about what actually constitutes moderate activity. Housework, it seems, does not fall into this category.
Anyone who devotes a great deal of time every day to dusting and vacuuming no doubt wishes that it did, but
research has shown that women who spend over night eight hours a day (7) housework actually tend to
be slightly more overweight than (8) who do none whatsoever. The association, therefore, would
prefer it if the public were instructed as to exactly what (9) of physical activity to aim for.
But setting such guidelines is not easy (10) individual fitness levels and exercise
requirements vary. For instance, while walking a fast pace is generally beneficial for women, it may not be
physically challenging enough for men. For this reason, the association would rather this section of the
population took up jogging than relied on walking as a form of exercise
Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART III. Read the passage and choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to each of the following
questions. Write your answers in the box provided.

When one hears the expression “role models” one's mind naturally jumps to celebrities, especially as far
as young people are concerned. Therefore, it would be more than natural to assume that teenagers, heavily
influenced by the media, are dazzled by well-known Hollywood stars, famous musicians and internationally
renowned athletes. However, nothing could be further from the truth.
In reality, according to a recent survey, over 75% of teens who filled out an online questionnaire claimed
that the role model for whom they had the greatest respect was not a famous personality, but a family member.
It seems that the qualities that make a good role model are more complex than researchers first assumed. For
example, Nancy L, a teenage girl from Wisconsin, described her role model as a woman who had a clear sense
of what was important to her, making the effort to create things that would make a real difference in the world.
The woman she was referring to was her favorite aunt, who was a painter and sculptor.
Role models come into young people's lives in various ways. They are family members, educators, peers
and ordinary people encountered in their daily lives. Students emphasized that being a role model is not
confined to those with international fame or unbelievable wealth. Instead, they said the greatest attribute of a
role model is the ability to inspire others. Teachers were often mentioned as examples in this case, ones that
are dedicated to encouraging students, helping them push their limits and strengthen their characters.
Another quality high on the list was the ability to overcome obstacles. In addition to parents, peers often
made up a large percentage of such role models. Young people are at a point in their lives when they are
developing the skills of initiative and capability, so it is only natural that they admire people who show them
that success in the face of difficulty is possible.
A final and perhaps unexpected character trait that the youth of today admire is a clear set of values.
Children admire people whose actions are consistent with their beliefs, in other words, who practice what they
preach. Role models help them to understand the significance of honesty, motivation and the desire to do
general good. For example, local politicians who clearly struggle to improve living conditions in their cities
are high on their lists of role models.
Perhaps what should be understood from what young people consider important in a role model is that
each and every person around them affects them to a certain extent, perhaps much more than most parents
think. This makes it crucial for adults to be aware of their influence on the young and set the best examples
possible.
1. Which of the following is closest in meaning to "dazzled"?

A. impressed B. disappointed C. confused D. frightened
2. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be assumed as teens 'role model?

A. A handsome actor B. A talented footballer C. A hot pop star D. A brilliant scientist
3. What is surprising about the findings of the survey?
A. Celebrities are the most common role models to most teens.
B. The role models of the respondents are not quite influential.
C. The qualities that make up teens' role models are not simple.
D. Most celebrities have their family members as role models.
4. What does the passage tell us about Nancy L's role model?
A. She was not related to her. C. She was a mysterious person.
B. She was famous for her talent. D. She had strong priorities.
5. Which of the following is closest in meaning to "confined to"?

A. assisted by B. restricted to C. similar to D. influenced by
6. According to the passage, what quality makes teachers good role models?
A. their ambition to succeed B. their wide knowledge
C. their ability as academic educators D. their positive effect on students
7. The ability to overcome obstacles is important to young people because .

A. teens must have it to teach their peers B. it is not something that one can easily find
C. obstacles make life more difficult D. it is relevant to the stage of life they are in
8. According to paragraph 5, children really look up to those who .

A. are as active as possible C. pay attention to the needs of the young
B. do what they say they will do D. are religious in their life
9. According to the passage, some politicians are considered admirable .

A. because they are familiar to young people B. because of the strong power they have
C. because of their concern for others D. because they believe in themselves
10. The passage suggests that adults should

A. try to avoid imposing their influence on younger people
B. realize that they have a strong effect on young people
C. be careful of the role models their children may have
D. encourage children to reject celebrities as role models
Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART IV. Read the following passage and do the tasks below.
WHAT IS PERSONALITY?
A. We are all familiar with the idea that different people have different personalities, but what does this
actually mean? It implies that different people behave in different ways, but it must be more than that.
After all, different people find themselves in different circumstances, and much of their behaviour follows
from this fact. However, our common experience reveals that different people respond in quite remarkably
different ways even when faced with roughly the same circumstances. Alan might be happy to live alone
in a quiet and orderly cottage, go out once a week, and stay in the same job for thirty years, whilst Beth
likes nothing better than exotic travel and being surrounded by vivacious friends and loud music.
B. In cases like these, we feel that it cannot be just the situation which is producing the differences in behavior.
Something about the way the person is “wired up” seems to be at work, determining how they react to
situations, and, more than that, the kind of situations they get themselves into in the first place. This is why
personality seems to become stronger as we get older; when we are young. our situation reflects external
factors such as the social and family environment we were born into. As we grow older, we are more and
more affected by the consequences of our own choices (doing jobs that we were drawn to, surrounded by
people like us whom we have sought out). Thus, personality differences that might have been very slight
at birth become dramatic in later adulthood.
C. Personality, then, seems to be the set of enduring and stable dispositions that characterize a person. These
dispositions come partly from the expression of inherent features of the nervous system, and partly from
learning. Researchers sometimes distinguish between temperament, which refers exclusively to
characteristics that are inborn or directly caused by biological factors, and personality, which also includes
social and cultural learning. Nervousness, for example, might be a factor of temperament, but religious
piety is an aspect of personality.
D. The discovery that temperamental differences are real is one of the major findings of contemporary
psychology. It could easily have been the case that there were no intrinsic differences between people in
temperament, so that given the same learning history, the same dilemmas, they would all respond in much
the same way. Yet we now know that this is not the case.
E. Personality measures turn out to be good predictors of your health, how happy you typically are-even your
taste in paintings. Personality is a much better predictor of these things than social class or age. The origin
of these differences is in part innate. That is to say, when people are adopted at birth and brought up by
new families, their personalities are more similar to those of their blood relatives than to the ones they
grew up with.
F. Personality differences tend to manifest themselves through the quick, gut-feeling, intuitive and emotional
systems of the human mind. The slower, rational, deliberate systems show less variation in output from
person to person. Deliberate rational strategies can be used to over-ride intuitive patterns of response, and
this is how people wishing to change their personalities or feelings have to go about it. As human beings,
we have the unique ability to look in at our personality from the outside and decide what we want to do
with it.

Questions 1 – 6: There are six paragraphs marked A – F in the passage. Choose the correct heading for
each paragraph from the list below. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered box provided.
List of Headings
i. A degree of control
ii. Where research has been carried out into the effects of family on personality
iii. Categorizing personality features according to their origin
iv. A variety of reactions in similar situations link between personality and aspects of our
lives that aren't chosen
v. A possible theory that cannot be true
vi. Potentially harmful effects of emotions
vii. How our lives can reinforce our personalities
viii. Differences between men's and women's personalities
1. Paragraph A: 2. Paragraph B:
3. Paragraph C: 4. Paragraph D:
5. Paragraph E: 6. Paragraph F:
Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
Questions 7 – 10: Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer? Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered box provided.
Write
YES the statement reflects the claims of the writer
NO the statement reflects the claims of the writer
NO if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
7. Alan and Berth illustrate contrasting behavior in similar situations.

8. As we grow older, we become more able to analyze our personalities.
9. Nervousness is an example of a learned characteristic.
10. Adopted children provide evidence that we inherit more of our personality than acquire.
Your answer
7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION D. WRITING PART
PART I.
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the
1. Redundancy has caused a lot of domestic problems.

→ Many a .......................................................................................................................................................
2. I explained what had happened but they totally refused to accept what I said.
→ They found .................................................................................................................................................
3. It is a widespread assumption that George was wrongly accused.

→ George ........................................................................................................................................................
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the
sentence printed before it, using the word given. Do not change the word given.
4. By the time we arrived at the theatre, nearly all the seats had been taken. (HARDLY)
→ There ..........................................................................................................................................................
5. Everyone was exhausted apart from Paul. (EXCEPTION)

→ With ...........................................................................................................................................................
PART II. You have seen this advertisement in your local English language newspaper
Round The World-Travel Competition

Do you like adventure? Would you like a chance to travel?
We need one more person to join a small group on a trip around the world.
Write a letter of application (about 100-120 words) to Mrs. Hopkins, the organizer of the trip, telling her:
✓ why would you like to go on the trip
✓ what skills you have which would be useful on the trip
✓ what previous experience you have of travelling (if any)
.........................................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................................

SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH, THÀNH PHỐ
TỈNH X KHOÁ NGÀY: 13/3/2019 – NĂM HỌC: 2019-2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 9
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Đề thi gồm 14 trang
PART I: PHONETICS (1 point)
I: Find a word in each line whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other
three by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 p)
1 A allegedly B confusedly C supposedly D wickedly

2 A youths B maps C cigarettes D months
3 A equation B television C mention D decision
4 A rise B rinse C browse D bruise
5 A substitute B muddled C shutter D substantial
II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question
by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 p)
1 A academic B amphibian C apartheid D aquarium

2 A tuberculosis B mathematician C inheritance D communication
3 A casualty B habitual C characterize D ignorance
4 A magnificent B memorial C tobacconist D humanism
5 A trigonometry B explanatory C immediately D democracy
PART II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7 points)
I: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Circle the letter A, B, C or D next
to the correct word or phrase. (2 p)
1. …… every industry in our modern world requires the work of engineers.
A. Wholly B. Hardly C. Most D. Virtually
2. Jane had a problem with her finances, so we talked …… and now it’s fine.
A. over B. it over C. over it D. over and over
3. When the electricity failed, he …… a match to find the candles.
A. rubbed B. scratched C. struck D. started
4. I usually buy my clothes …… . It’s cheaper than going to the dressmaker.
A. on the house B. off the peg C. in public D. on the shelf
5. My father …… when he found out that I had damaged his car.
Otto Channel – Your friend in studying English

A. hit the roof B. saw pink elephants
C. made my blood boil D. brought the house down
6. According to the captain, his special units can take an immediate action against terrorists should such
a need ……….. .
A. arise B. originate C. evoke D. experience
7. We were ……….. by the officers’ decision to divert the whole traffic from the main route.
A. rambled B. baffled C. stumbled D. shuffled
8. The book says that the revolution was …………. off by the assassination of the state governor.
A. launched B. cropped C. triggered D. prompted
9. The hijackers have demanded a ……….. to be paid for releasing the civilian hostages from the plane.
A. currency B. revenue C. deposit D. ransom
10. He’s ………………………… work and cannot possibly see you now.
A. up to his ears in B. very interested in
C. not involved with D. concerned with
11. He suddenly saw Sue ………………… the room. He pushed his way ………………… the crowd of
people to get to her.
A.across/through B. over/through C. over/along D. across/across
12. She tried to …………………..
A. talk out of me the plan B. talk me the plan out of
C. talk me out of the plan D. talk out me of the plan.
13. My cousin obviously didn’t ………… much of an impression on you if you can’t remember meeting
her.
A. create B. do C. make D. build
14. She was kept awake for most of the night by the………… of a mosquito in her car.
A. whine B. moan C. groan D. screech
15. Her business must be going rather well, ……….by the car she drives.
A. deducing B. deciding C. inferring D. judging
16. He looks very aggressive and threatening, and so his soft, gentle voice is rather………….

A. disembodied B. disconcerting C. dismissive D. discordant
17. If I were you, I would regard their offer with considerable…………., because it seems too good to
be true.
A. suspicion B. doubt C. reservation D. disbelief
18. My sister’s confidence in her ability to play the piano was badly……….. by her last music teacher.
A. subsided B. weakened C. undermined D. loosened
19. Your grandfather is rather tired so do not………….your visit. Let him have a rest.
A. prolong B. lengthen C. delay D. shorten
20. Their eventual choice of the house was……….by the time Peter would take to get to the office.
A. related B. consequent C. determined D. dependent
II. Put each verb given in brackets into an appropriate tense or form (1p)
In 1764 Dr. Johnson accepted the contract (1. produce) a dictionary. (2. rent) a garret, he took on a
number of copying clerks, who (3. stand) at a long central desk. Johnson (4. not have) a library available
to him, but eventually produced definitions of 40,000 words ( 5. write) down in 80 large notebooks. On
publication, the Dictionary immediately (6. hail) in many European countries as a landmark. According
to his biographer, James Boswell, Johnson’s principal achievement was (7. bring) stability to the
English language: “It (8. be) the cornerstone of Standard English, an achievement which (9. confer)
stability on the language of his country”. As a reward for his hard work, he (10. grant) a pension by the
king.
III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (1 p)
1. Please (know) ……………………………. our letter of the 25th. We have not had a reply.
2. Eating fish and lots of vegetables greatly increases your life (expect) ………………….
3. It is very rude to interrupt someone in ……………………… (sentence)
4. Wow, I’m afraid I am not very (photo)……………………..
5. The (forest) ………………………………. has caused many so-called man-made disasters.
6. All the …………… from the last lecture were not allowed to attend the interview for the coming
project. (absence)
7. The road was (pass) …………………………. because of the snow.
8. She spent hours getting the house (spot) ………………………clean.
9. Paul is a good employee, and is very …………. (conscience).
10. …………………….. children will not be allowed to cross busy roads. (accompany)

IV. The passage below contains 11 mistakes. (0) has been done for you as an example. IDENTIFY
and CORRECT the other ten. (1 p)
• all complete –> completely
Things started to go wrong as soon as we got to the hotel. We were all complete exhausted after
our long journey and looking forward to shower and a rest. However, we found that our room has not
ready, which was very annoy, although the manager was extremely apologetic. While we were waiting,
we asked about the excursions to places of an interest which we had read about in brochure. Imagine
how we felt when we were told they had all cancelled! Apparently, the person responsible for organise
them had left suddenly and had not been replaced. Then Sally saw a notice pinning to the door of the
restaurant, saying it has closed for redecoration, and Peter discovered that the swimming pool was
empty. When we eventually got to our room we were horrified find that it was at the back of the hotel,
and we had a view of a car park, which seemed to be used as a rubbish dump. We seriously began to
wonder whether or not to stay.
V. Fill in each blank with one suitable preposition or particle (1 p).
1. Dishonesty is foreign ……………. his nature.
2.Yuri Gagarin lifted …………… into space aboard the Vostok 1 at 9.07 a.m. Moscow time
…………… 12th April, 1961.
3. She was free to indulge …………… leisure activity like reading.
4. Is it OK if I write …………… pencil?
5. If we leave ………… the station ……… once, we arrive ………… ten minutes ………… hand.
6. Her bright red hair made her stand …..……from the others.
VI. Insert the, a(n) or X (no article) where necessary (1 p).
I had long since prepared my mixture; I purchased at once, from (1)………… firm of wholesale
chemists, (2)……….. large quantity of (3)……….. particular salt, which I knew, from my experiments,
to be (4)…………. last ingredients required, and late one night, I mixed (5)………….. elements,
watched them boil and smoke together in (6)…………. glass, and when (7)………….. liquid had
cooled, with (8)………… strong glow of (9)……….. courage, drank off (10)………… potion.
PART III: READING (6 points)
I: Read the passage and use ONLY ONE suitable word to fill in each gap (2 p).
In a village on the east coast of Scotland, people were waiting for news. Two of fishing-boats had been
caught in the storm which had blown up during the night. In the cottages round the harbor people stood
by their doors (1)______ worried to talk.
The rest of the fishing fleet had (2)______ the harbor before dark, and the men from these ships waited
and watched with the wives and families of the missing men. Some had (3)______ thick blankets and
some flasks of hot drinks, knowing that the men (4)______ be cold and tired. When dawn began to
break over in the east, a small point of light was (5) ______ in the darkness of the water and a few
minutes later, (6) ______ was a shout.
(7)
________ long, the two boats were turning in, past the lighthouse, to the inside of the harbor.
The men (8)______ helped out of their boats, and (9) ___ they were stiff (10)______ cold and tiredness,
they were all safe.
II: Read the passage carefully and then choose the best answer to each sentence by circling A, B, C
or D (1.5p)
While many nineteenth–century reformers hoped to bring about reform through education or by
eliminating specific social evils, some thinkers wanted to start over and remark society by founding
ideal, cooperative communities. The United States seemed to them a spacious and unencumbered
country where models of a perfect society could succeed. These communitarian thinkers hoped their
success would lead to imitation, until communities free of crime, poverty, and other social ills would
cover the land. A number of religious groups, notably the Shakers, practiced communal living, but the
main impetusto found model communities came from nonreligious, rationalistic thinkers.
Among the communitarian philosophers, three of the most influential were Robert Owen,
Charles Fourier, and John Humphrey Noyes. Owen, famous for his humanitarian policies as owner of
several thriving textile mills in Scotland, believed that faulty environment was to blame for human
problems and that these problems could be eliminated in a rationally planned society. In 1825, he put his
principles into practice at New Harmony, Indiana. The community failed economically after a few years
but not before achieving a number of social successes. Fourier, a commercial employee in France, never
visited the United States. However, his theories of cooperative living influenced many American
through the writings of Albert Brisbane, whose Social Destiny of Man explained Fourierism and its
self-sufficient associations or “phalanxes”. One or more of these phalanxes was organized in very
Northern state. The most famous were Red Bank, New Jersey, and Brook Farm, Massachusetts. An
early member of the latter was the author Nathaniel Hawthorne. Noyes founded the most enduring and
probably the oddest of the utopian communities, the Oneida Community of upstate New York. Needless
to say, none of these experiments had any lasting effects on the patterns of American society.
1. The main topic of the passage is……..
A. nineteen-century schools. B. American reformers
C. the philosophy of Fourierism D. model communities in the nineteenth.
2. Which of the following is not given in the passage as one of the general goals of communitarian
philosophers?
A. To remake society B. To spread their ideas throughout the United State
C. To establish ideal communities D. To create opportunities through education.
3. The Shakers are mentioned in paragraph 1 as an example of…….
A. a communal religious group B. radical reformers
C. rationalistic thinkers D. an influential group of writers.
4. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word impetusin paragraph 1?
A. Stimulus B. commitment C. Drawback D. Foundation.
5. The “phalanxes” described in paragraph 2 were an idea originally conceived by….
A. Albert Brisbane B. Robert Owen

C. Charles Fourier D. John Humphrey Noyes
6. Why does the author mention Nathaniel Hawthorne in paragraph two?
A. He founded Brook Farm in Massachusetts.
B. He was a critic of Charles Fourier.
C. He wrote a book that led to the establishment of model communities.
D. He was at one time a member of the Brook Farm community.
7. Which of the following communities lasted longest?
A. New Harmony B. The Oneida Community
C. Red Bank D. Brook Farm
8. The word oddestin paragraph 2 is closest meaningto which of the following?
A. Earliest B. Most independent C. Largest D. Most unusual
9. The author implies that, for readers, the conclusion of the paragraph is……….
A. obvious B. surprising C. absurd D. practical
10. Why did the author probably divide the passage into two paragraphs?
A. To compare nineteenth-century reforms with twentieth-century reforms.
B. To present an overview of a concept in the first paragraph and specific examples in the second.
C. To contrast the work of utopian thinkers with that of practical reforms.
D. To give the causes for a phenomenon in the first paragraph and its consequences in the second
III: Read the text and decide which word best fits each blank by circling the letter A, B, C or D (1.5p).
United Parcel Service (UPS) believes that its employees should give the firm a fair day’s work
for a fair’s day pay. The package delivery firm seems willing to give more than a fair’s day pay. But in
(1) ____, UPS expects maximum output from its employees.
Since 1920s, the firm’s industrial engineers have been studying every detail of every task (2) ____
by most UPS employees. From their studies have come time and motion standards that (3) ____ how
those tasks are performed and how long they should take. Drivers, for example, are expected to walk to
a customer’s door at a speed of exactly three feet per second. They are told to knock as soon as they get
there, rather than (4) ____ time looking for a doorbell.
Work engineers are (5) ____ riding with drivers, timing everything from stops at traffic lights, to
wait at customers’ doorway, to stairway climbs, to coffee break. And they are not (6) ____ to pointing
out the occasional inefficiency. Additionally, supervisors ride with the least good drivers, noting how
they work and constantly (7) ____ them until their work is up to standard.
The (8) ____of all this work engineering is efficiency, and UPS has been called one of the most
efficient companies anywhere. It’s also a highly profitable company. Most drivers take the
regimentation in stride: many show (9) ____ in meeting the UPS standards each day. Others, however,
feel that they are constantly being pushed, that it is impossible for them to (10) ____ at work. UPS
officials claim that the standards provide accountability. And, they say, employees who work according
to UPS standards should feel less tired at the end of the day.
1: A. fact B. exchange C. return D. short
2: A. hold B. performed C. accepted D. under
3: A. indicate B. govern C. demonstrate D. tell
4: A. wasting B. spend C. spending D. waste
5: A. consistently B. continually C. constructively D. chronically
6: A. impolite B. brave C. intimate D. averse
7: A. scolding B. criticizing C. encouraging D. correcting
8: A. task B. reason C. object D. target
9: A. pride B. passion C. interest D. pleasure
10: A. rest B. relieve C. relax D. restrain
IV. Read through the following text and then choose the best phrase given below, to fill each of the
gaps. Write one letter (A-I) in each of the numbered gaps. Some of the suggested answers do not fit at
all. (0) has been done for you (1p).
Every teacher knows that not all students are good examinees. Some are too tense, become over-anxious
or too stressed and then perform below expectations just when it matters most.
Teachers try to help by compensating, believing that if they boost a student’s academic knowledge they
will cure his fear of exams.
So, last year, (0) ____I____, I completely rewrote the Business Studies Revision Course at this
secondary school. The central idea of the course is to treat the examination as an event, a challenge, a
performance, much like a sports match, a drama production, or perhaps a major music concert, (1)
________and very definitely on the public stage. The idea is to show that the exam is not a test, but an
opportunityto show how good the candidate is.
The objective is to improve students’ final performance (2) ________, control and ability to cope. The
theme of ‘total preparation for performance’ teaches them that (3) ________are obviously important,
they are only two of the five skills required, the others being coping strategies, mental skills and
management skills. These additions give a new dimension (4) ________, increasing enjoyment and
motivation. They widen a student’s focus and help to convince some of the less confident students that
there are many ways in which they can actively contribute towards their (5) ________.
A those not mattering so much B self-confidence and self-esteem
C by increasing self-confidence D relying on my expertise alone
E to a student’s revision F but a real desire
G while knowledge and examination techniques H but bigger and more important
I drawing on my teaching experience and sports psychology skills
PART FIVE: WRITING (6 points)
I. Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that the second sentence has the same meaning as
the first one (2p)
1. Something must be done quickly to solve the problem of homelessness.
–> Urgent …………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Scientists have tried very hard to find a cure for this disease.
–> Enormous …………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. Just thinking about his face at the moment makes me laugh.
–> The very………………………………………………….……………………….
4. The teachers agreed to introduce the new methods.
–> There was an …………………………………………………………………………………………..
5. The boy does whatever his father wants in an obedient way.
–> The boy dances ……………………………………………………………………………………
6. I simply fail to understand some of my colleague’s attitudes to work.
–>I have some colleagues …………………………………………………………………………….
7. I did not realize how much he was influenced by his brother.
–>I did not realize the extent ……………………………………………………………………….
8. Mass tourism has been one of the causes of the environmental problems.
–>Mass tourism is ……………………………………………………………………………………….
9. It was six months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine.
–>I cancelled ……………………………………………………………………………………………….
10. These books are on loan from the British Council library.
–>These books have

………………………………………………………………………………………..
II: Rewrite the following sentences with the given words in such a way that the second sentence
has the same meaning as the first one. Do not change the form of the word in brackets (2p)
1. I can’t find the answer without a calculator. (out)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
2. My friend took no notice of my advice. (deaf )
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
3. These two makes of computer are practically the same. (hardly)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
4. His smooth manner didn’t deceive us. (taken)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
5. Everyone who spoke to the victim is a suspect. (under)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
6. There’s nothing new about crimes of passion (hills)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
7. The northwest of Britain has more rain each year than the southeast. (annual)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
8. From the educational point of view his childhood years had been well spent. (terms)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
9. Make yourself at home. (ceremony)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
10. She will probably be elected. (stands)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
III: Make all the changes and additions necessary to produce, from the cues given below, a complete
letter (2p)
Dear Rob and Randy,
1. all these weeks/ hospital/ I just/ receive two pieces/ good news.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………

2. The doctor/ say/I / can / home / few days.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
3. My wife tell/ me / how you two/ been clearing/ snow / from our driveway and sidewalk.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
4. Have/ such/ good neighbours/ make / very happy.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
5. My wife/ tell/ you/ refuse / take / money /for your efforts.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
6. But I/ think/ I find / way round that.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
7. Please accept / enclosed check.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
8. I/ would/ never think/ as payment/ the snow shoveling.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
9. but as a sincere token/ appreciation/ your thoughtfulness.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
10. Thank/ again / see/ soon.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
Best regards,
THE END

Otto Channel
SỞ GD&ĐT QUẢNG BÌNH KỲ THI CHỌN HSG TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2017-2018
Khóa ngày 22 tháng 3 năm 2018
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
LỚP 9 THCS
Họ và tên:…………….. Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Số báo danh:………….. Đề gồm có 05 trang
Lưu ý: * Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi.

* Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu nào, kể cả từ điển.
* Giám thị không hướng dẫn hoặc giải thích gì thêm.
SECTION ONE: LISTENING (15 pts)

* Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được ghi âm 2 lần. Giữa 2 lần ghi âm của mỗi phần và giữa
các phần có một khoảng thời gian chờ.
Part 1: A customer is calling the reception to book a room for next week. Listen to the conversation
and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). (7 pts)
STATEMENTS T F
1. The customer wants to book a single room
2. There isn’t any room available
3. The customer’s name is Duncan Geoffrey
4. His telephone number is 5762 3821
5. He will arrive on the nineteenth and leave on the twenty-third of September.
6. He will pay 210 pounds in total.
7. He will pay cash on arrival.
Part 2: Listen and fill in the following blanks to complete thẹ passage. Use ONE OR MORE THAN
words or/and number in each blank. (8 pts)
Hello, everyone. Sorry to interrupt your class. I just want to make a quick announcement about
our (8)…………………… Shimmers Dance School will be offering new classes this spring due to
strong demand. Angela Stevenson will be back this term, running the (9)………….…….. class. This
class will be on Tuesdays, and instead of normal hour (10)………………….. , we’ll be running the class
for an hour and a half, so it will continue until 8 o’clock. This means we have to charge higher fees, but
only slightly higher: from (11)………………..… That’s only £2.00 for the extra half hour! Next, Janine
Davis will still be teaching the tango classes. Instead of being on Mondays these classes will be on
Wednesday nights from 7 o’clock to 8 o’clock. The (12) ………………………….... will still be £7.50
for the hour. Last but not least, Andrew is taking over the tap class. This class is for early risers as it
starts at 8.30 on (13) ………………… and finishes at 10. We expect this class to be very popular as tap
is a great way to get fit while learning new (14) ……………………... This will cost £11.00. All the
other classes remain the same as the (15) ………….…. timetable. We hope there’s something for all of
you at Shimmers!
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SECTION TWO: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Part 1. Pick up the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (3pts)
16. A. feather B. leather C. feature D. measure
17. A. orchestra B. orchard C. chord D. chaos
18. A. audience B. august C. laugh D. taught
Part 2. Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from the others in each group. (2pts)
19. A. experiment B. fabulous C. merchandise D. influence
20. A. decorate B. disappoint C. festival D. primary
SECTION THREE: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Part 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence. (15 pts)
21. I must think that matter over carefully before I answer you.
A. remember B. decide C. consider D. memorize
22. It’s necessary that every student of our class _____ hard.
A. study B. studying C. to study D. studies
23. Nobody is ready to go, ______?
A. isn’t he B. is he C. are they D. aren’t they
24. When tropical storm ______ 120 kilometers per hour, it can damage a lot of things.
A. arrives B. comes C. reaches D. runs
25. Peter : “What a lovely house you have!” – Mary: “___________________________”.
A. Of course not, it’s not costly B. I think so
C. Thank you. Hope you will drop in D. No problem
26. Some of my friends are taking extra classes in English ______ become tourist guides.
A. so that B. so as C. in order that D. so as to
27. Peter and his friend were badly injured in the last match, so ______ can play today.
A. both of them B. either one of them C. neither of them D. not any of them
28. Nancy talks as if she ______ everything.
A. knows B. had known C. knew D. know
29. ______ breakfast is the first meal of the day.
A. The B. A C. This D. 0
30. We had a good time last summer.
A. enjoyed ourselves B. had plenty of time C. had enough time D. had a useful time
31. I like school ______, but later I hate it.
A. at the first B. at first C. in the first time D. in a first time
32. I must get that letter posted. I must ______.
A. post it B. have posted it C. have it posted D. have got it to posted
33. Ha has ______ money that he can’t afford to buy food.
A. so few B. so many C. so little D. so much
34. The journey was rather long but really ______.
A. enjoy B. enjoying C. enjoyable D. enjoyed
35. Do you know ______?
A. what it was wrong B. what was it wrong C. what wrong it was D. what’s wrong it
Part 2. Put the verbs given in brackets into the appropriate tenses or forms. (8 pts)
36. His sister ___________________ (give) a car for her twentieth birthday next year.
37. I _________________ (read) the book you lent me, so you can have it back now.
38. He ______________________ (elect) president of the football club at their last meeting.
39. The house was very quiet when I got home. Everybody ______________ (go) to bed. Otto Channel
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40. He recommended the old soldier ____________________ (write) about the Second World War.
41. Present day problems demand that we _____________________ (be) ready for any emergency.
42. You ____________________ (not go) there because he did not expect you.
43. By the time you come back home, you _____________ (complete) this examination.
Part 3. Read the sentences below. Put the words given in brackets into the appropriate forms (7pts)
44. Jewish people celebrate freedom from (slave) __________ on Passover holiday.
45. I am very (pride) ______________ to be chosen for the national team.
46. We often go to the town cultural house, which always opens on (publicity) __________ holiday.
47. Although the problems were rather difficulty, they managed to (solution) __________ all of them.
48. Could you (straight) ______________ the picture over the sofa?
49. She wanted to have her skirt (long) ___________ .
50. They are cheered (enthusiasm) ___________ .
SECTION FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION (25 pts)
Part 1. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in
each gap. (10 pts)
Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But pollution problem is ______(51) complicated as it is
serious. It is complicated ______(52) much pollution is caused by things that benefit people. For
example, exhaust ______(53) automobiles causes a large percentage of all air pollution. But automobiles
______ (54) transportation for millions of people. Factories discharge much of the material ______(55)
pollutes the air and water, but factories give employment to a large ______(56) of people. Too much
fertilizer or pesticide can ruin soil, but fertilizers and pesticide ______ (57) important aids to the
growing of crops. Thus, to end ______ (58) greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would have to
______ (59) using many things that benefit them. Most people do not want to do that, of course. But
pollution can ______ (60) gradually reduced in several ways.
Part 2. Choose the word that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage. Choose A,B,C or D
to indicate your answer. (10 pts)
Recent research has (61)________ that a third of people in Britain have not met their (62)
_______ neighbors, and those who know each other (63)_______ speak. Neighbors gossiping over
garden fences and in the street was a common (64)________in the 1950s, says Dr Carl Chinn, an expert
on local communities. Now, however, longer hours spent working at the office, together with the
Internet and satellite television, are eroding neighborhood (65)_________. "Poor neighborhoods once
had strong kinship, but now prosperity buys privacy," said Chinn.
Professor John Locke, a social scientist at Cambridge University, has analyzed a large
(66)________ of surveys. He found that in America and Britain the amount of time spent in social
activity is decreasing. A third of people said they never spoke to their neighbors at (67)________.
Andrew Mayer, 25, a strategy consultant, rents a large apartment in West London, with two flat mates,
who work in e – commerce. "We have a family of teachers upstairs and lawyers below, but our contact
comes via letters (68)________ to the communal facilities or complaints that we've not put out our bin
bags properly," said Mayer.
The (69)________ of communities can have serious effects. Concerned at the rise in burglaries
and (70)_______ of vandalism, the police have relaunched crime prevention schemes such as
Neighborhood Watch, call on people who live in the same are to keep an eye on each others' houses and
report everything they see which is unusual.
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61. A. exhibited B. conducted C. displayed D. revealed
62. A. side-on B. next-door C. close-up D. nearside
63. A. barely B. roughly C. nearly D. virtually
64. A. outlook B. view C. vision D. sight
65. A. ties B. joins C. strings D. laces
66. A. deal B. amount C. number D. measure
67. A. least B. once C. all D. most
68. A. concerning B. regarding C. applying D. relating
69. A. breakout B. breakup C. breakdown D. breakaway
70. A. acts B. shows C. counts D. works
Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each question. (5 pts)
The culture of Vietnam is one of the oldest in the Southeast Asia region. Although Vietnam
lies geographically in Southeast Asia, long periods of Chinese domination and influence has
resulted in the emergence of many East Asian characteristics in Vietnamese culture, and generally
Vietnam is said to be a part of the East Asian cultural sphere, known widely as Chinese cultural
sphere.
Despite considerable foreign influence, Vietnamese people have managed to retain many
distinct customs. While Chinese culture has the largest influence on traditional Vietnamese culture,
there is also a much smaller influence from the Cham and later Western cultures, most notably of
France, Russia and the United States.
In term of prehistory, most Vietnamese historians consider the ancient Dong Son Culture to
be one of the defining aspects of early Vietnamese civilization. Vietnam’s population in 2006 was
84,402,966, with a population density of 253 people per km2. Most people live in or near the
densely populous Red River or Mekong deltas. Due to the nation’s southward expansion
throughout its history, along with the different climate and environment met by the settlers as they
moved further south, slightly different regional cultures began to emerge, most notably between
Northern and Southern Vietnam.
71. The culture of Vietnam______ .
A. is the youngest in Asia B. does not get any Asian characteristics
C. is influenced by that of China D. was greatly dominated by that of Western
72. Which culture has not affected the Vietnamese one?
A. Of the United States B. Of the United Kingdom C. Of Russia D. Of France
73. Vietnamese people ______ .
A. cannot keep their own culture in their daily life
B. have many diverse nation customs
C. highly appreciate the Western influence on their culture
D. failed to retain the native customs
74.Through history, Vietnam expanded to the ______ .
A. south B. north C. east D. west
75. Which statement is true?
A. The North and the South of Vietnam have the same regional cultures.
B. The Mekong delta is more populous than the Red River one.
C. Red River delta is densely populous.
D. Vietnamese people do not like living in the deltas.
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SECTION FIVE: WRITING (25 pts)
Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the
word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between TWO AND FIVE words, including
the word given. (7 pts)
76. I met her while I was staying in Paris last summer. stay
I met her......................................................................in Paris last summer.
77. I couldn't remember the name of my hotel when I got into the taxi. called
I couldn't remember.............................................................when I got into the taxi.
78. We were all surprised when she suddenly left the job. found
All.................................................................when she suddenly left the job.
79. "Are you a member of the club?" the receptionist said to me. belonged
The receptionist asked.............................................................the club.
80. Do shops usually stay open so late in this country? usual
Is.........................................................stay open so late in this country?
81. He doesn't often find it difficult to earn money. trouble
He seldom............................................................money.
82. Jack has become confident as a result of his success. turned
Jack's success has............................................................. person.
Part 2: Rewrite each of these sentences in such way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it. (8 pts)
83. Gary is the best guitarist in the class
 No one else …………………………………………………………
84. Lan was sick but she still went to class yesterday
 Despite ……………………………………………………………..
85. People think that doing morning exercises is good for health.
 It ……………………………………………………………………
86. Follow the instructions carefully and you won’t have any problems.
 As long as…………………………………………………………...
87. “I’m sorry, I gave you the wrong number” said Paul to Susan.
 Paul apologized…………………………………………………….
88. I have never seen such a mess in my life.
 Never…..…… …………………………………………………….
89. The people who were at the meeting will say nothing to the press.
 Nobody who………………………………………………………..
90. She didn’t say a word as she left the room.
 She …………………………………………………………………
Part 3: Essay writing (10 pts)

Write about 200 - 250 words about the following topic: Computers can translate all kinds of
languages well, so children don't need to learn more languages in the future.
Do you agree with the statement? Give reasons and examples for your answer.
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP THÀNH PHỐ LỚP 12 – PTTH
TP HỒ CHÍ MINH NĂM HỌC: 2019-2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời g ia n là m b à i: 150 p hút
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Đề thi gồm 12 trang
SECTION A. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (40 POINTS)
I. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which be st comple te s e ach sente nce . (20points)
1. He _________ his son of the dange rs of driving too fast in his ne w car
A. warne d B. re me mbe re d C. thre atene d D. conce rne d
2. The child was_________ by a lorry on the safety crossing in the main stre e t.
A. knocke d out B. run across C. run out D. knocke d down
3. The inde pe ndent arbitrator manage d to_________ the confrontation be twe e n the union and the
e mploye rs.
A. re fuse B. confuse C. re fute D. de fuse
4. Whe n I he ard the footste ps be hind me I was_________ that I would be attacke d.
A. horrifie d B. te rror-struck C. te rrorize d D. te rrifie d
5. His illne ss made him_________ of conce ntration.
A. incompe tent B. unable C. incapable D. powe rle ss
6. Me die val trave le rs’ tale s of fantastic cre ature s we re ofte n fascinating but not
always________.
A. cre dible B. cre ditable C. cre dulous D. imaginable
7. An almost________ line of traffic was moving at a snail’s pace through the town.
A. continuous B. constant C. continual D. stopping
8. S ome body ran in front of the car as I was driving. Fortunate ly I________ just in time .
A. could stop B. could have stoppe d C. manage d to stop D. must be able to stop
9. You are be ing thoroughly________ in re fusing to allow this ce re mony to take place .
A. unre quite d B. unre pre sentative C. unre liable D. unre asonable
10. The sudde n re signation of the financial dire ctor put the company in a ve ry_________ position.
A. we ak B. unste ady C. vulne rable D. collapse d
11. David: Would you like fish or me at? Mary: I_________ fish, ple ase .
A. would rathe r B. would pre fe r C. suppose D. be lie ve
12. Many te enage rs show signs of anxie ty and_________ whe n be ing aske d about the ir future .
A. de pre ss B. de pre ssion C. de pre sse d D.
de pre ssing
13. A part – time job give s me the fre e dom to_________ my own inte rests.
A. pursue B. chase C. se e k D. catch
14. The ne w road currently unde r_________ will solve the traffic proble ms in the town.
A. de sign B. progre ss C. construction D. work
15. - Daisy: “What a love ly house you have !” - Mary: “_______________.”
A. Love ly, I think so B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. No proble m
16. We we re shocke d to he ar the ne ws of your ________.
A. having fire d B. be ing fire d
C. having be e n fire d D. to have bee n fire d
17. _______ as taste is re ally a composite se nse made up of both taste and sme ll.
A. That we re fe r to B. What we re fe r to
C. To which we re fe r D. What do we re fe r to
18. The y are happily marrie d although, of course , the y argue _______.
A. most times B. from day to day
C. e ve ry now and the n D. on the occasion
19. I don’t know Fre nch, but I’ll ________.
A. ge t Tom to translate it B. have it translate
C. have Tom to translate it D. make it translate
20. Doctors advise pe ople who are deficie nt __________ vitamin C to e at more fruit and ve ge table s.
A. from B. of C. in D. for
II. Use the word in capitals at the end of the se se nte nce s to form a word that fits in
the blank space . (10 points)
1. The main goals of the Association of S outhe ast Asian Nations are to
S TABLE
promote pe ace and in the region.
TERROR
2. The se curity of the e arth can be thre ate ne d by groups.
3. I don’t care if you had had too much to drink. Your behaviour last night DEFEND
was .
OBEY
4. He r son is always mischie vous and which annoys he r ve ry much.
5. The Ame ricans are much more conce rned than the Indians and the ATTRACT
Chine se with physical whe n choosing a wife or a husband.
PREDICT
6. You can ne ve r be sure what my siste r is going to do. S he is so .
EMPLOY
7. He is comple te ly . Not only is he lazy but he is dishonest too.

RES PONS IBLE
8. His boss told him off be cause he had be haved
9. He won the discus e vent at the Olympic Game s but was late r QUALIFY
whe n a me dical che ck prove d that he had bee n taking drugs.
10. The trouble with Mr. Brown is that he ’s so . One minute he goes
CONS IS T
mad whe n you come late ; the ne xt he says nothing. You ne ve r know
whe re you are !
III. Find one mistake in e ach se nte nce be low by choosing the le tte r A, B, C or D. (10 pts)
1. J ill mustn’t have arrived ye t, othe rwise she would have phone d me
A B C D
2. Not many pe ople re alize that apple s have be en cultivating for ove r 3,000 ye ars
A B C D
3. The building manage r is having all the windows and doors re place on the se cond and third
A B
floor as we ll as in the re staurant
C D
4. Having live he re for seve n ye ars, my frie nd is use d to spe aking English with all he r
A B C D
classmate s.
5. If only we kne w all this information about the marke t many we e ks ago
A B C D
6. Pe te r apologize d me for not working hard for the final e xam.

A B C D
7. J ohn had so inte resting and cre ative plans that e ve ryone wante d to work with him.
A B C D
8. S pe cie s be come e xtinct or e ndange re d for the numbe r of re asons, but the primary cause
A B C
is the de struction of habitat by human activitie s.

D
9. We re she be invite to the ir we dding annive rsary, she would be ve ry happy.

A B C D
10. Not until the e nd of prehistoric time s that did the first whee le d ve hicle s appe ar.
A B C D

SECTION B. READING (40 POINTS)
I. Re ad the te xt be low and fill in e ach blank with ONE suitable word. (10 pts)
TSUNAMI IN J APAN
J apan's most powe rful e arthquake since records be gan has struck the north-e ast coast,
trigge ring a massive tsunami. Cars, ships and buildings we re (1) ________ away by a wall of water
afte r the 8.9 - magnitude tre mor, which struck about 400 kms (250 mile s) north-e ast of Tokyo. A
state of e me rge ncy has be en de clare d at a nucle ar powe r plant, (2) ________pre ssure has
e xce e de d normal le vels. Officials say more than 10,000 people are de ad and about 5,000 (3)
________, but it is fe are d the final de ath toll will be (4) ________ highe r. In one ward alone in S endai,
a port city in Miyagi pre fe cture , 200 to 300 bodie s we re found. “The quake has be e n the fifth-
large st in the world (5) ________ 1900 and ne arly 8,000 (6) ________ stronge r than the one which
de vastate d Christchurch, Ne w Ze aland, last month”, said scie ntists. Thousands of people (7)
________ ne ar the Fukushima nucle ar powe r plant have be e n orde re d to e vacuate . J apane se
nucle ar officials said that pre ssure inside a boiling wate r re actor at the plant was running much
highe r than normal afte r the cooling syste m faile d. Officials said they might ne e d to de libe rate ly (8)
________ some radioactive ste am to re lie ve pre ssure , but that the re would be no he alth risk. US
S e cre tary of S tate Hillary Clinton had e arlie r said the US Air Force had flown eme rgency coolant to
the site . But US officials late r said (9) ________ coolant had bee n hande d ove r be cause the
J apane se had de cide d to handle the situation (10) ________.The UN's nucle ar age ncy said four
nucle ar powe r plants had be e n shut down safe ly.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
II. Re ad the passage and choose the be st option for e ach of the following blanks. (10 pts)
Women nowadays have more (1) ________ than those in the past. For e xample , our gre at
grandmothe rs we re not allowe d to go to school or to work to e arn the ir own living. (2) ________,
the y had to de pend on the ir husbands financially. Mode rn women, on the contrary, can ge t good
e ducation, have the ir own care e rs, and (3) ________ the ir inte re sts. The y can e ve n take good
positions in politics if the y are compe te nt (4) ________ it. Howe ve r, wome n living in our mode rn
socie ty have the ir (5) ________ too. Today wome n work harde r than the ir gre at grandmothe rs so
that the y can gain the (6) ________ be twe e n working life and family life . Many pe ople predict that
by 2032, most (7) ________ positions at work will be take n by wome n. The n, it is possible that
wome n will have more (8) ________ life because , (9) ________ in a ve ry mode rn socie ty, the
wome n can’t (10) ________ the ir role in the family.

1. A. advance s B. advantage s C. be ne fits D. convenie nce s
2. A. The refore B. Howe ve r C. As a result D. Although
3. A. pursue B. support C. promote D. stimulate
4. A. to B. at C. with D. of
5. A. obstacle s B. disputes C. profits D. proble ms
6. A. e quality B. stable s C. balance D. ste adiness
7. A. senior B. junior C. infe rior D. supe rior
8. A. she lte re d B. he althy C. strenuous D. active
9. A. though B. e ven C. e ve r D. ne ve r
10. A. pe rform B. adopt C. fulfill D. ne gle ct
III. Re ad the following passage and choose the option that indicate s the corre ct answe r to e ach
of the following questions. (10 pts)
Ove r the past 600 ye ars, English has grown from a language of fe w spe ake rs to be come the
dominant language of inte rnational communication. English as we know it today eme rged around
1350, afte r having incorporate d many e le me nts of Fre nch that we re introduce d following the
Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoke n only in England
and had not e xte nde d e ve n as far as Wale s, S cotland, or Ire land. Howe ve r, during the course of
the ne xt two centurie s, English began to spread around the globe as a re sult of e xploration, trade
(including slave trade ), colonization, and missionary work. That small e nslave s of English spe ake rs
be came e stablishe d and gre w in various parts of the world. As the se communitie s prolife rate d,
English gradually be came the primary language of inte rnational busine ss, banking, and diplomacy.
Curre ntly, more than 80 pe rce nt of the information store d on compute r syste ms worldwide is in
English. Two thirds of the world’s scie nce writing is in English, and English is the main language of
te chnology, adve rtising, me dia, inte rnational airports, and air traffic controlle rs. Today the re are
700 million English use rs in the world, and ove r half of these are nonnative spe ake rs, constituting
the large st numbe r of nonnative use rs of any language in the world.
1. What is the main topic of the passage ?

A. The numbe r of non-native use rs of English.
B. The French influe nce on the English language .
C. The e xpansion of English as an inte rnational language .
D. The use of English for scie nce and te chnology.
2. English be gan to be use d be yond England approximate ly.............................

A. in 1066 B. around 1350 C. be fore 1600 D. afte r 1600
3. According to the passage , all of the following contribute d to the spre ad of English around the
world EXCEPT .
A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion C. missionarie s. D. colonization

4. Which of the following state me nts is NOT true?
A. Most of the information store d on computer systems is in English.
B. Only one thirds of the world’s scie nce writing is in languages other than English.
C. English is the only language use d in te chnology, and adve rtising.
D. Inte rnational airports and air controlle rs use mostly English.
5. According to the passage , approximate ly how many non-native use rs of English are the re in
the world today?
A. A quarte r million B. Half a million C. 350 million D. 700 million.
SUSTAINABLE ARCHITECTURE – LESSONS FROM THE ANT
Te rm ite m ou nd s we re the ins p ira tion for a n innova tive d e s ig n in s us ta ina b le living
Africa owe s its te rmite mounds a lot. Tre es and shrubs take root in the m. Prospe ctors mine
the m, looking for spe cks of gold carrie d up by te rmite s from hundre ds of me tres be low. And of
course , the y are a special tre at to aardvarks and othe r inse ctivore s.
Now, Africa is paying an offbe at tribute to the se towe rs of mud. The e xtraordinary Eastgate
Building in Harare , Zimbabwe 's capital city, is said to be the only one in the world to use the same
cooling and he ating principle s as the te rmite mound.
Te rmite s in Zimbabwe build gigantic mounds inside which the y farm a fungus that is the ir
primary food source . This must be ke pt at e xactly 30.5°C, while the te mpe rature s on the African
ve ld outside can range from 1.5°C at night- only just above fre e zing - to a baking hot 40°C during
the day. The te rmites achie ve this re markable fe at by building a syste m of ve nts in the mound.
Those at the base le ad down into chambe rs coole d by we t mud carrie d up from wate r table s far
be low, and othe rs le ad up through a flue to the pe ak of the mound. By constantly opening and
closing the se he ating and cooling ve nts ove r the course of the day the te rmite s succe e d in ke e ping
the te mpe rature constant in spite of the wide fluctuations outside .
Archite ct Mick Pe arce use d pre cise ly the same strate gy when de signing the Eastgate Building,
which has no air conditioning and virtually no he ating. The building - the country's large st
comme rcial and shopping comple x - use s le ss than 10% of the ene rgy of a conve ntional building
its size . These efficie ncie s translate d dire ctly to the bottom line : the Eastgate 's owne rs save d $3.5
million on a $36 million building be cause an airconditioning plant didn't have to be importe d.
The se savings we re also passe d on to tenants: re nts are 20% lowe r than in a ne w building ne xt
door.
The comple x is actually two buildings linke d by bridge s across a shady, glass-roofe d atrium
ope n to the bre e zes. Fans suck fresh air in from the atrium, blow it upstairs through hollow space s
unde r the floors and from the re into e ach office through base board ve nts. As it rise s and warms, it
is drawn out via ce iling ve nts and finally e xits through fortye ight brick chimne ys.
To ke e p the harsh, high ve ld sun from he ating the inte rior, no more than 25% of the outside is
glass, and all the windows are scre e ne d by ce me nt arches that jut out more than a me tre .

During summe r's cool nights, big fans flush air through the building se ve n time s an hour to
chill the hollow floors. By day, smalle r fans blow two change s of air an hour through the building, to
circulate the air which has be en in contact with the cool floors. For winte r days, the re are small
he ate rs in the ve nts.
This is all possible only be cause Harare is 1600 fee t above se a le ve l, has cloudle ss skie s, little
humidity and rapid tempe rature swings - days as warm as 31°C commonly drop to 14°C at night.
'You couldn't do this in Ne w York, with its fantastically hot summe rs and fantastically cold winte rs,'
Pe arce said. But then his e ye s lit up at the challe nge . 'Pe rhaps you could store the summe r's he at
in wate r some how .... '
The e ngine e ring firm of Ove Arup & Partne rs, which worke d with him on the de sign, monitors
daily te mpe rature s outside , unde r the floors and at kne e , de sk and ce iling le ve l. Ove Arup's graphs
show that the tempe rature of the building has ge ne rally staye d be twe e n 23°C and 25°C, with the
e xce ption of the annual hot spe ll just be fore the summe r rains in Octobe r, and three days in
Nove mbe r, when a janitor accide ntally switche d off the fans at night. The atrium, which funne ls the
winds through, can be much coole r. And the air is fresh - far more so than in air-conditioned
buildings, whe re up to 30% of the air is re cycle d.
Pe arce , disdaining smooth glass skins as 'igloos in the S ahara', calls his building, with its
e xpose d girde rs and pipe s, 'spiky'. The de sign of the entrance s is base d on the porcupine -quill
he addre sse s of the local S hona tribe . Ele vators are de signe d to look like the mine shaft cage s use d
in Zimbabwe 's diamond mine s. The shape of the fan cove rs, and the stone use d in the ir
construction, are e choe s of Gre at Zimbabwe , the ruins that give the country its name .
S tanding on a roof catwalk, pe e ring down inside at pe ople as small as te rmite s be low, Pe arce
said he hope d plants would grow wild in the atrium and pigeons and bats would move into it, like
that te rmite fungus, furthe r e xte nding the whole 'organic machine ' me taphor. The archite cture , he
says, is a regionalize d style that re sponds to the biosphe re , to the ancie nt traditional stone
archite cture of Zimbabwe 's past, and to local human re source s.
Choose the corre ct answe r, A, B, C or D.
1. Why do te rmite mounds have a syste m of ve nts?

A. to allow the te rmite s to e scape from pre dators
B. to e nable the te rmites to produce food
C. to allow the te rmite s to work efficie ntly
D. to e nable the te rmites to survive at night
2. Why was Eastgate cheape r to build than a conve ntional building?

A. Ve ry fe w mate rials we re importe d.
B. Its e ne rgy consumption was so low.
C. Its te nants contribute d to the costs.
D. No air conditione rs were ne e de d.
3. Why would a building like Eastgate not work efficie ntly in Ne w York?
A. Te mpe rature change occurs se asonally rathe r than daily.

B. Pollution affe cts the storage of he at in the atmosphe re .
C. S umme r and winte r tempe rature s are too e xtre me .
D. Le ve ls of humidity affect cloud cove rage .
4. What does Ove Arup's data suggest about Eastgate 's te mpe rature control syste m?
A. It allows a re lative ly wide range of te mpe rature s.
B. The only proble ms are due to human e rror.
C. It functions we ll for most of the ye ar.
D. The te mpe rature in the atrium may fall too low.
5. Pe arce be lie ve s that his building would be improve d by

A. be coming more of a habitat for wildlife .
B. e ve n close r links with the history of Zimbabwe .
C. giving pe ople more space to inte ract with nature .
D. be tte r prote ction from harmful organisms.
THE ACCIDENTAL RAINFOREST
Ac c ord in g to e c olog ic a l th e ory, ra in fore s ts a re s up p os e d to d e ve lop s lowly ove r m illion s of

ye a rs . Bu t n ow e c olog is ts a re b e in g forc e d to re c ons id e r the ir id e a s
Whe n Pe te r Osbe ck, a S we dish prie st, stoppe d off at the mid-Atlantic island of Asce nsion in
1752 on his way home from China, he wrote of 'a he ap of ruinous rocks' with a bare , white
mountain in the middle . All it boaste d was a couple of dozen spe cie s of plant, most of the m fe rns
and some of the m unique to the island.
And so it might have re maine d. But in 1843 British plant colle ctor Jose ph Hooke r made a brie f
call on his re turn from Antarctica. S urve ying the bare e arth, he conclude d that the island had
suffe re d some natural calamity that had de nude d it of ve ge tation and trigge re d a de cline in rainfall
that was turning the place into a de se rt. The British Navy, which by the n maintaine d a garrison on
the island, was ke e n to improve the place and aske d Hooke r's advice . He sugge ste d an ambitious
sche me for planting tre e s and shrubs that would re vive rainfall and stimulate a wide r e cological
re cove ry. And, pe rhaps lacking anything e lse to do, the sailors se t to with a will.
In 1845, a naval transport ship from Arge ntina de live re d a batch of se e dlings. In the following
ye ars, more than 200 spe cie s of plant arrive d from South Africa. From England came 700 packe ts
of se e ds, including those of two spe cie s that e spe cially like d the place : bamboo and prickly pe ar.
With sailors planting se ve ral thousand tre e s a ye ar, the bare white mountain was soon cloake d in
gre e n and rename d Gre e n Mountain, and by the e arly twe ntie th ce ntury the mountain's slopes
we re cove re d with a varie ty of tre es and shrubs from all ove r the world.
Mode rn e cologists throw up the ir hands in horror at what the y se e as Hooke r's e nvironmental
anarchy. The e xotic spe cie s wre cke d the indige nous e cosystem, squee zing out the island's
e nde mic plants. In fact, Hooke r kne w we ll enough what might happe n. Howe ve r, he saw gre ate r
be ne fit in improving rainfall and e ncouraging more prolific ve ge tation on the island.
But the re is a much de e pe r issue he re than the re lative be ne fits of sparse ende mic species
ve rsus luxuriant importe d ones. And as botanist David Wilkinson of Live rpool J ohn Moores
Unive rsity in the UK pointe d out afte r a re ce nt visit to the island, it goe s to the he art of some of the
most de arly he ld te ne ts of e cology. Conse rvationists' unde rstandable conce rn for the fate of
Asce nsion's handful of unique spe cie s has, he says, blinde d the m to some thing quite astonishing -
the fact that the introduce d spe cie s have be en a roaring succe ss.
Today's Gre e n Mountain, says Wilkinson, is “a fully functioning man-made tropical cloud fore st”
that has grown from scratch from a ragbag of spe cie s colle cte d more or le ss at random from all
ove r the plane t. But how could it have happe ne d? Conventional e cological the ory says that
comple x e cosyste ms such as cloud forests can e me rge only through e volutionary proce sse s in
which e ach organism de ve lops in conce rt with othe rs to fill particular niche s. Plants co-e volve with
the ir pollinators and see d dispe rse rs, while microbe s in the soil e volve to de al with the le af litte r.
But that's not what happe ne d on Gre e n Mountain. And the e xpe rience suggests that pe rhaps
natural rainfore sts are constructe d far more by chance than by e volution. S pe cie s, say some
e cologists, don't so much e volve to cre ate ecosyste ms as make the be st of what the y have . 'The
Gre e n Mountain system is a man-made syste m that has produce d a tropical rainfore st without any
co-e volution be twe e n its constitue nt spe cie s,' says Wilkinson.
Not e ve ryone agre e s. Alan Gray, an e cologist at the Unive rsity of Edinburgh in the UK, argues
that the surviving e ndemic spe cie s on Gre en Mountain, though small in numbe r, may still form the
frame work of the ne w e cosyste m. The ne w arrivals may just be an adornme nt, with little structural
importance for the e cosyste m.
But to Wilkinson this sounds like clutching at straws. And the ide a of the instant formation of
rainfore sts sounds incre asingly plausible as re se arch re ve als that suppose dly pristine tropical
rainfore sts from the Amazon to south-e ast Asia may in place s be little more than the ove rgrown
garde ns of past rainfore st civilizations.
The most surprising thing of all is that no e cologists have thought to conduct prope r re se arch
into this human-made rainfore st e cosyste m. A surve y of the island's flora conducte d six ye ars ago
by the Unive rsity of Edinburgh was conce rne d only with ende mic spe cie s. The y characte rise d
e ve rything e lse as a thre at. And the Asce nsion authoritie s are curre ntly turning Gre e n Mountain
into a national park whe re introduce d spe cie s, at le ast the invasive one s, are e armarke d for culling
rathe r than conse rvation.
Conse rvationists have unde rstandable conce rns, Wilkinson says. At le ast four e ndemic spe cie s
have gone e xtinct on Asce nsion since the exotics starte d arriving. But in the ir urge ncy to prote ct
e nde mics, e cologists are missing out on the study of a gre at e nigma.
'As you walk through the fore st, you se e lots of le ave s that have had chunks take n out of them
by various inse cts. The re are cate rpillars and be e tle s around,' says Wilkinson. 'But whe re did the y
come from? Are the y ende mic or alie n? If alie n, did the y come with the plant on which the y fe e d or
discove r it on arrival? ' S uch que stions go to the he art of how rainfore sts happe n.
The Gre e n Mountain fore st holds many secre ts. And the irony is that the most artificial
rainfore st in the world could te ll us more about rainfore st e cology than any numbe r of natural
fore sts.
Do the following state me nts agree with the information give n in Reading Passage 3? In boxe s 1-6
on your answe r shee t write
TRUE : if the state ment agre es with the information

FALSE : if the state ment contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN : if the re is no information on this
Your answe r
1. Whe n Pe te r Osbe ck visite d Asce nsion, he found no inhabitants on the island.
2. The natural ve ge tation on the island containe d some spe cie s which we re found
nowhe re e lse .
3. J ose ph Hooke r assume d that human activity had cause d the de cline in the island's
plant life .
4. British sailors on the island took part in a major tre e planting proje ct.
5. Hooke r sent de tails of his planting sche me to a numbe r of diffe re nt countrie s.
6. The bamboo and prickly pe ar se e ds se nt from England we re unsuitable for

Asce nsion.
Comple te e ach sente nce with the corre ct e nding A-G from the box be low.
Write the corre ct le tte r A-G in boxe s 7-10 on your answe r she e t.
7. The re ason for mode rn conse rvationists' conce rn ove r Hooke r's tre e planting
programme is that
8. David Wilkinson says the cre ation of the rainfore st in Asce nsion is important
be cause it shows that
9. Wilkinson says the e xiste nce of Asce nsion's rainfore st challe nges the theory that
10. Alan Gray que stions Wilkinson's the ory, claiming that
A othe r rainforests may have originally be e n plante d by man.

B many of the island's original spe cie s we re thre ate ne d with destruction.
C the spe cie s in the original rainfore st we re more succe ssful than the ne we r arrivals.
D rainforests can only de ve lop through a proce ss of slow and comple x e volution.
E ste ps should be taken to pre ve nt the de struction of the original e cosyste m.
F randomly introduce d spe cie s can coe xist toge the r.
G the introduce d spe cie s may have le ss e cological significance than the original ones.

SECTION C. WRITING (20 POINTS)
I. Finish the se cond sente nce in such a way that it me ans e xactly the same as the se ntence
printe d be fore it. (10 pts)
1. I am sure it wasn’t Mrs. Brown you saw ye ste rday be cause she had gone abroad.
 It can’t ..................................................................................................................................
2. S ome scie ntists re port that dolphins have a brain capacity large r than human be ings’
 Dolphins are re ported .............................................................................................
3. The y think that someone starte d the fire on purpose

 The fire is ..................................................................................................................
4. Afte r Louie had writte n his composition, he hande d it to his te ache r.

 Having .......................................................................................................................
5. If only I had studie d hard e nough to pass the final e xam.

 I re gre t .......................................................................................................................
6. J ohn spe aks Chinese flue ntly be cause he used to live in China for ten ye ars.
 Had ..............................................................................................................
7. "How be autiful is the dre ss you have just bought!" Pe te r said to Mary.
 Pe te r ...........................................................................................................................
8. "You’re always making te rrible mistake s," said the te ache r.

 The te ache r ..............................................................................................................
9. S ue is too slow to unde rstand what you might say.

 S o ..............................................................................................................................
10. Although it was e xpe cte d that he would stand for e le ction, he didn’t.
 Contrary to ...............................................................................................................
II. Write a ne w sente nce similar in me aning to the give n one , using the word give n in the
bracke ts. Do not alte r the word in any way. (10 pts)
1. You looke d tire d. Why don’t you go to be d e arly tonight? (b e tte r)
 You you looke d tire d.
2. Zoe has a job which make s he r fe e l ve ry stressful. (le s s )
 Zoe job.
3. S imon wants to be le ft alone be cause he ’s upse t. (ra the r)
 S imon he ’s upse t.
4. He ’d rathe r e at with frie nds than e at alone . (pre fe rs )

 He alone .
5. He is too irre sponsible to run the de partme nt. (c ha rg e )
 He is .
6. His arrival was comple te ly une xpe cte d. (took)
 His arrival .
7. If I he lp you now, don’t assume I’ll he lp you ne xt time . (c ount)
 If I he lp you now, ne xt time .
8. He owes his life to that surge on. (ind e b te d )
 He life
9. Don’t pay any atte ntion whe n she complains. (notic e )
 Don’t .
10. A re je ction of the ir offer would have be e n unwise . (a c c e p te d )
 Not unwise .
THE END

SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI OLYMPIC TRUYỀN THỐNG 30/4
TP. HỒ CHÍ MINH LẦN THỨ XXV – NĂM 2019
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN Môn thi: Anh văn - Khối: 10
LÊ HỒNG PHONG Ngày thi: 06/04/2019
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Đề này có 08 trang.
 Thí sinh làm phần trắc nghiệm (MULTIPLE CHOICE) trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm và
 phần tự luận (WRITTEN TEST) trên phiếu trả lời tự luận.
 Trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm, thí sinh tô thêm 2 số 00 vào trước số báo
danh (bằng bút chì).
Phần mã đề thi trên phiếu trắc nghiệm, thí sinh tô vào ô 001.
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 PTS)

I. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (5PTS): Choose the best options to complete the following
sentences.
1. ______ happy in the new school, he missed his old friends.
A. Usually B. Although C. Being D. Even
2. ______ we leave at 3:00, we should get there by 5:30.
A. Assuming B. Having assumed C. To assume D. Assumed
3. I am sorry to keep you waiting. I hope you ______ long.
A. are not waiting B. don’t wait C. haven’t waited D. haven’t been
waiting
4. It's about time you ______ the balcony. It's covered in leaves and dust.
A. cleaned B. had cleaned C. to be cleaned D. to have cleaned
5. Don't be silly! That ______ possibly be David Beckham!
A. mustn't B. shouldn't C. won't D. can't
6. –“I locked myself out of my apartment. I didn't know what to do.”
–“You ______ your roommate.”
A. could have called B. may have called C. would have called D. must have called
7. –“Did the principal of the school answer you yet?”
–“No, but ______ I hear from him by 5pm, I’ll let you know.”
A. might B. could C. would D. should
8. ______ help me make this decision. I’m just so unsure of which direction to take for my future.
A. I’d sooner you will B. I wish you will C. If only you could D. I’d rather you
9. ______ we have enough money, where would you like to travel this summer?
A. So that B. Provided that C. Despite the fact that D. Unless
10. Twenty people were arrested during the demonstration, of ______ four were charged with obstruction.
A. who B. whom C. which D. them
II. PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITIONS (5 PTS) Choose the best options to complete the
following sentences.
11. She was very appreciative ______ all the support she got from her friends.
A. of B. for C. on D. with
12. Her latest novel is coming ______ in paperback soon.
A. across B. off C. out D. about
13. As you’ve arrived late, you’ll have to ______ the time you have lost.
A. make up to B. do up to C. do up for D. make up for
14. Mary is jealous ______ her sister because she is much more popular.
A. on B. of C. for D. with
15. Your skirt needs taking ______; it's too large.
A. up B. on C. over D. in
16. Can you make ______ the meaning of this passage?
A. out B. for C. up D. into
17. He’s such a hard man to ______ as he’s always flitting from one site to another.
A. pin in B. lock in C. narrow down D. nail down
18. Don't be put ______ by his manner. He always acts that way.

A. on B. away C. off D. down
19. His proposal met ______ total opposition from the committee.
A. about B. by C. for D. with
20. You ought to stand ______ your little brother when the others tease him.
A. over with B. by for C. about with D. up for
III. VOCABULARY (10 PTS): Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
21. It is possible to ______ out of the pension scheme if you do not wish to participate.
A. back B. charge C. opt D. break
22. She always gets what she wants because she knows how to ______ the rules.
A. circumvent B. desert C. slack D. elicit
23. Anthropologists have spent years studying the social system of this ______.
A. breed B. caste C. tribe D. sect
24. I tried to catch the mouse, but it was too ______.
A. intentional B. obsolete C. uncommon D. elusive
25. I have no appetite and I am lethargic. I've been feeling under ______ for ages.
A. pair B. stress C. par D. threat
26. Peter does everything himself because he doesn’t like to ______ control.
A. extinguish B. relinquish C. vanish D. elicit
27. I don't know how I can ______ up the courage to tell him the awful news.
A. pick B. pluck C. store D. set
28. I need to study more for the test. I don’t have a very good ______ of the material.
A. abstract B. grasp C. hint D. gist
29. The weekend is over, so tomorrow morning it's back to the ______.
A. grind B. labour C. drudgery D. toil
30. We could hear the monkey ______ long before we reached their cage.
A. chatting B. chattering C. prattling D. babbling
31. Bob is so short-tempered; he should try to ______ his anger.
A. monitor B curb C temper D stunt
32. The police ______ the woods looking for the lost child.
A. scoured B. integrated C. traced D. encountered
33. Don't mention work to Ray, as it's a sore ______ with him at the moment.
A. finger B. point C. place D. nail
34. The couple ______ under the umbrella to keep dry.
A. enclosed B. muffled C. huddled D. augmented
35. A long, green snake ______ through the grass and disappeared.
A. strutted B. slunk C. slithered D. scampered
36. This schedule isn’t final. It’s only ______.
A. tentative B. sporadic C. contemporary D. subsequent
37. My new pullover______ to half its previous size when I washed it.
A. shrank B. reduced C. diminished D. dwindled
38. The new accounting system ______ all my work useless.
A. transformed B. rendered C. transposed D. converted
39. Martin just loves to ______ his teeth into a really challenging crossword.
A. grind B. get C. put D. sink
40. The doctor said that sweets should be eaten in ______.
A. compulsion B. restriction C. moderation D. qualification
IV. GUIDED CLOZE (10 PTS): Read the texts below and decide which answer best fits
each space.
Passage A:
The case of food storage in tin cans illustrates how an invention can be successful even when it (41) ______
a new problem for the one it solves. In 1810, Peter Durand (42) ______ tremendous progress in food
preservation with his invention of the tin can. The cans were ideal for transporting food and for (43) ______
spoilage for extended periods. But consumers of canned food had to (44) ______ their own ingenuity to
open the solidly constructed cans, which sometimes outweighed the foodstuffs inside. Durand’s solution had
created a new problem, (45) ______ opening the cans. In the early days, the (46) ______ most favored was
the brute force of a hammer and chisel. In 1858, Ezra Warner designed a crude and somewhat (47) ______
can opener. Finally (48) ______ 1930, the safe design that underlies today’s common kitchen utensils had

been invented. From the (49) ______ of their introduction, however, the problem of opening the cans
(50)______ not detract from their wide acceptance as a solution to the problem of food preservation.
41. A. substitutes B. becomes C. causes D. is
42. A. provided B. invented C. made D. discovered
43. A. storing B. preserving C. keeping D. preventing
44. A. create B. know C. use D. make
45. A. easily B. especially C. hardly D. namely
46. A. consumer’s B. method C. can D. food
47. A. called B. dangerous C. safer D. sophisticated
48. A. in B. beyond C. prior D. by
49. A. latest B. way C. time D. first
50. A. did B. does C. could D. will
Passage B:
Two eyes help us to see in three dimensions; and two ears allow us to hear in stereo. If recent research
findings are (51) ______, two nostrils function in (52) ______ the same way. In the olfactory system, each
nostril conveys to the brain a slightly different olfactory (53) ______ upon smelling an odor. What is
perceived in combination is (54) ______ used by the brain to get a precise (55) ______ of what the odor is.
The slight difference (56) ______ the olfactory images seems to occur (57) ______ the air flows at a
different rate through each nostril, one of (58) ______ has a low flow-rate and the other a high one. Odors
that dissolve slowly have their maximum effect in the (59) ______ that has a slow movement of air.
Conversely, those that dissolve quickly have their (60) ______ effect when the air stream is moving rapidly.
Thus, air drawn into the nose will give different responses in each nostril. Not yet well understood is how
the brain processes the disparate olfactory images as a single recognizable aroma. Future studies will be
needed to completely explain this phenomenon.
51. A. incorrect B. reported C. accurate D. similar
52. A. so B. as C. much D. such
53. A. process B. image C. where D. once
54. A. which B. earlier C. strongly D. then
55. A. meaning B. measurement C. location D. sense
56. A. in B. about C. to D. when
57. A. before B. then C. however D. because
58. A. those B. which C. each D. such
59. A. nostril B. chemical C. flow D. other
60. A. personal B. strongest C. negative D. slowest
V. READING COMPREHENSION (10 PTS): Read the texts below and choose the best answer
to each question.
Passage A
Recently, researchers conducted a survey to investigate what motivates young adults to exercise. The study
might shed light on why so few college students exercise and why many stop their exercise workouts after
they graduate. Researchers analyzed responses from 937 randomly selected college students at a leading
U.S. university. What the research team found was that 39% of the male students and 26% of the female
students exercised at least three days a week for 20 minutes at a time. These exercise patterns were fairly
similar to those in surveys at other universities. The survey also revealed some critical factors which
motivate college students to exercise.
Men who exercised regularly reported that their friends provided considerable support for them to do so.
Those who exercised only occasionally had moderate support from their friends, while those who did not
exercise at all had little or no support from friends. For women, however, the crucial motivating factor
seemed to come from family members rather than from friends. Women who exercised regularly had a great
deal of positive support to do so from their families. However, women who exercised only occasionally
received moderate levels of encouragement from their families, while those who did not work out at all
received little or no support from their families. Since college students often live far from home, women
students are likely to have a weaker support system than do their male counterparts.
A medical professor, upon seeing the results of the study, remarked that generally there is not so much
emphasis on body performance among girls and young women. “It’s a macho thing to be able to run faster
or lift weights,” he said. “However,” he continued, “for the younger generation, this gender gap appears to
be getting smaller.”
61. What is the main purpose of the study presented in this passage?
A. to investigate college students’ attitudes towards good health and exercise
B. to find out why young women don’t like to exercise

C. to learn what makes college students exercise
D. to find the best type of exercise workout for college students
62. What research method was used in this study?
A. College students reported on their friends’ exercise workouts.
B. College students reported on their families’ exercise patterns.
C. College professors answered questions about their students.
D. College students answered questions about themselves.
63. What similarity between men and women did the study find?
A. The more friends they have, the more they exercise.
B. The more support they have to exercise, the more they exercise.
C. The closer they live to their families, the more they exercise.
D. The more health-conscious they are, the more they exercise.
64. In comparison to the general college population, students at this university exercise ______.
A. less often than average
B. about the same amount as average
C. more often than average
D. for longer at a time than average
65. Why does the passage mention that some college students live far from home?
A. to emphasize that they do not see their families every day
B. to criticize their life styles
C. to show how independent they are
D. to explain why they depend on their friends so much
Passage B
It has long been known that underweight, premature babies develop into children who perform worse at
school than children who had normal birth weight and were full-term. A recent study examining the effects
of birth weight on intelligence suggests that even among full-term babies the heavier ones have an
advantage. The study has been following 3,900 British men and women since their birth in 1946. Birth
weight was correlated with scores on tests of reading and arithmetic skills, non-verbal reasoning, memory,
speed, and concentration. These tests were conducted when the participants were 8, 11, 15, 26, and 43
years old. Generally speaking, the heavier children performed better on the tests. The relationship was
strongest at age 8 and then weakened over time. By age 43, the relationship was negligible. The results
were not affected by birth order, gender, father’s social class, or mother’s education and age.
These findings must be interpreted with caution. First, the results were based on averages. Second, birth
weight is only one of numerous factors influencing cognitive function. Parental interest in education - such
as volunteering at school or helping with homework - may offset the effect of birth weight. Furthermore,
poor environmental conditions, such as living in an overcrowded home, breathing polluted air, or being
caught in a bitter divorce can diminish the early advantages enjoyed by heavier babies.
Although no one knows exactly what makes a newborn baby heavy, it is known that healthy, well-nourished
mothers tend to have heavier babies, while those who eat poorly, smoke, and are heavy drinkers tend to
produce smaller ones. There are probably several other variables that affect birth weight, but if and how
those are connected to intelligence is not known.
66. In this study, the researchers examined the relationship between _______.
A. maternal nutrition and birth weight
B. home environment and intelligence
C. age and intelligence
D. intelligence and birth weight
67. What did the researchers find out about the relationship they were studying?
A. It increased up to age 26, then decreased.
B. It remained steady until age 26, then decreased.
C. It decreased as the subjects grew older.
D. It remained steady throughout the study.
68. Which children have an advantage at school?
A. Those who were full-term, lighter weight babies.
B. Those who were premature but normal weight babies.
C. Those who were full-term, heavier babies.
D. Those who were premature babies who gained weight quickly.
69. According to the passage, what is one possible reason to question the conclusions of the study?
A. The study did not consider some environmental factors.
B. The study was done too long ago.
C. The study was done on premature babies, not full term ones.

D. The study tested different children at different ages.
70. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Premature babies are disadvantaged throughout their lives.
B. Parents’ educational level affects intelligence.
C. No one knows the exact relationship between test scores and intelligence.
D. Bigger babies may be more intelligent than smaller ones.
Passage C
Diving deep into the ocean is difficult for humans, although whales do it easily. The deepest a human has dived
into the ocean without scuba gear is to 450 feet below the surface, which required him to hold his breath for
about two minutes. Humans are unable to go much deeper because at a certain point the external pressure
becomes so great it crushes the ribcage and lungs. Furthermore, lack of oxygen also prevents humans from
staying under water for long periods. It is amazing, then, that whales can dive to depths of up to 10,000 feet and
remain there for as long as two hours. Several adaptations enable the whale to do this, among them the
construction of its ribcage. Unlike humans, whales have fewer “true” ribs, ribs joined directly to the breastbone,
and more “floating” ribs, which are attached only to the preceding rib by cartilage. This flexible design allows the
whale’s ribcage to fold under pressure instead of breaking, and for its lungs to collapse without rupturing
capillaries. Also, during a dive, the whale’s heart slows to as low as 3 to 5 beats a minute. Arteries constrict,
reducing blood flow to many of the whale’s less vital organs, thus conserving oxygen and maintaining blood
pressure in the brain and heart. Humans emerging too suddenly from dives can suffer from “the bends,” when
small bubbles of nitrogen gas form in body fluids and obstruct blood flow, leading to death. Because whales
collapse their lungs, air is pushed from the lungs into the windpipe, which is lined with thick membranes, making
it difficult for nitrogen bubbles to pass into the bloodstream or other tissues. Together, these and other
adaptations enable whales to dive to such depths.
71. What are “floating” ribs?
A. Ribs that are not attached to other ribs.
B. Ribs that are not attached to the breastbone.
C. Ribs that are made of cartilage.
D. Ribs that are not able to fold under pressure.
72. What is the main purpose of this passage?
A. to explain why whales can do something that humans cannot
B. to explain how humans and whales adapted
C. to explain what happens at great depths
D. to explain how the human respiratory system works
73. When a whale dives, what contributes to the conservation of oxygen?
A. Blood pressure increases.
B. Blood flow decreases.
C. The lungs collapse.
D. The ribcage folds.
74. Compared to whales, humans have ______.
A. weaker capillaries
B. thicker membranes in the windpipe
C. fewer floating ribs
D. slower heartbeats
75. How does the whale’s ribcage differ from that of a human?
A. The whale’s ribcage contains fewer vital organs.
B. The whale’s ribcage can bend without breaking.
C. Whales have fewer ribs than humans.
D. The whale’s ribs are not attached to the breastbone.
Passage D
Scientists have not been able to determine the exact age of the Earth directly from its rocks. Geologists have
yet to find any of Earth’s original rocks that have not been recycled and destroyed through the process of
plate tectonics. However, scientists have been able to determine the probable age of our solar system and
to calculate an age for the Earth by looking elsewhere - to outer space. In doing so, they had to assume
that the Earth and the rest of the solid bodies in our solar system formed at the same time and are the
same age.
Asteroids in outer space have not been subjected to the crushing forces of plate tectonics. Meteorites, which
are fragments of asteroids that fall to Earth, contain clues about planetary formation. Being primordial rocks
still in their original state, they can be dated fairly accurately by measuring the radioactive elements
remaining in them since the formation of the solar system. One group of scientists from Germany and

another from France analyzed meteorites and reached the same conclusion: The final phase of Earth’s
formation, the separation of its metallic core from its silicate-based mantle, occurred about 30 million years
earlier than previously thought.
The ages of more than seventy meteorites have been measured using radiometric dating techniques. The
results show that meteorites, and therefore presumably Earth, formed about 4.5 billion years ago. These
findings also push back the origin of Earth’s moon because most scientists believe that the Moon formed
from material ejected when a Mars-sized planet collided with Earth. The fact that these conclusions about
the age of the Earth were reached by two independent groups of scientists increases the weight of the
findings.
76. What strengthens the claim made in this passage about Earth’s age?
A. Earth and meteorites are the same age.
B. Two separate research studies had the same results.
C. Geologists have found Earth’s original rocks.
D. The moon is older than previously thought.
77. What conclusion did the French and German scientists reach?
A. Meteorites have radioactive elements.
B. Plate tectonics does not occur on asteroids.
C. The Earth is older than was believed in the past.
D. The Moon is older than the Earth.
78. According to the passage, what is involved in “radiometric dating techniques”?
A. using radioactivity to restore an object to its original state
B. measuring the radioactive elements in an object
C. calculating how many times Earth’s rocks were recycled
D. subjecting an object to crushing forces
79. How did scientists date the Earth?
A. directly, by analyzing plate tectonics
B. directly, by measuring Earth’s metallic core
C. indirectly, by dating the Earth’s Moon
D. indirectly, by dating meteorites
80. What indicated the last stage in the Earth’s formation?
A. a reduction in the crushing force of plate tectonics
B. the separation of Earth’s core from its mantle
C. a shower of seventy meteorites falling to Earth
D. the collision of a Mars-sized planet with Earth
B. WRITTEN TEST
I. CLOZE TEST (20 PTS): Read the texts below and complete each space with ONE
suitable word.
Passage A
Fallingwater is recognized as one of the most unique and innovative (1) ______ of American architecture of
the 20th century. Designed in 1935 by architect Frank Lloyd Wright, this beautiful house in western
Pennsylvania is actually built over a waterfall. Wright placed the house above the waterfall by anchoring it to
the (2) ______ next to the falls with concrete “trays,” (3) ______ mimic the natural shape of rock ledges. As
a(n) (4) ______, the house appears to be suspended above the waterfall, which cascades underneath it.
Wright took much care in (5) ______ Fallingwater as harmonious with nature as possible by linking the
house to its natural surroundings. He placed large windows on opposite sides of the main rooms so that the
breeze and (6) ______ of the water could flow through the house (7) ______ hindrance. Wright also
proposed covering the building in gold leaf in (8) ______ to imitate the color of dying plants, and thereby
connect the house to the (9) ______ of seasons and the passage of time. Furthermore, he added a
(10)______ of outdoor terraces where people could enjoy the cool air of the wooded valley.
Today, Fallingwater is open to the public with its original setting, furnishings, and artwork
intact. Passage B
Global warming may be threatening one of the world’s most important crops: rice. Increased nighttime
temperatures are associated with significant declines in crop (11) ______, according to a study conducted
by researchers at the International Rice Institute. The researchers analyzed twelve years of rice production
along with twenty-five years of temperature data. This study, a direct measurement of yields produced
under normal field conditions, using (12) ______ that good farmers normally employ, has confirmed
previous simulations and suggests that (13) ______ increases due to global warming will make it
increasingly difficult to feed the Earth’s growing population. Average (14) ______ temperatures, which
increased 0.35 degrees Celsius over the (15) ______ of the study, have little effect on rice production.
However, a strong correlation exists between warmer nighttime temperatures, which have risen an average

of 1.1 degrees, (16) ______ decreasing rice yields. Although the underlying (17) ______ of this relationship
is unknown, researchers speculate that plants work harder to maintain themselves in (18) ______ to the
warmer nights and consequently divert energy from growth. Thus, an average (19) ______ of just one
degree Celsius can (20) ______ in a ten percent reduction in yields. Similar findings have been reported for
corn and soybean yields in the United States.
II. WORD FORMATION: (20PTS)

PART 1: Complete each sentence, using the correct form of the word in parentheses.
1. They were in search of ______ archaeological remains. (DATE)
2. He always gets ______ aggressive when he’s drunk. (RESTRAIN)
3. The drop in share prices in March was a ______ of the financial crash that followed in June. (RUN)
4. She sang the first three verses with a piano and the last verse ______. (COMPANY)
5. I really didn't mean to offend her - I just said it ______. (THINK)
6. They were accused of ______ in their treatment of the hostages. (HUMAN)
7. Alcohol is a ______ factor in 10% of all road accidents. (CONTRIBUTE)
8. He had to face up to his own ______ as a father. (ADEQUATE)
9. It was ______ a step in the right direction. (QUESTION)
10. Hospital beds were scarce and medicines were practically ______. (EXIST)
PART 2: Complete the passage with the appropriate forms from the words given in the box.
COMPLICATE STAND DINE WELCOME DEPEND
OCCUR DEFEND TERROR DELICATE EXPOSE
POISONOUS SEALIFE
One of the most lethal poisons on Earth, ten thousand times more deadly than cyanide, is tetrodotoxin,
more concisely known as TTX. Its potency is well known in East Asia, where it regularly kills (11)______
who have braved the capricious (12) ______ known as puffer fish. This toxin has a (13) ______ method of
operation: twenty-five minutes after (14) ______, it begins to paralyse its victims, leaving the victim fully
aware of what is happening. Death usually results, within hours, from suffocation or heart failure. There is
no known antidote. If lucky patients can (15) ______ the symptoms for twenty-four hours, they usually
recover without further (16)______. It is no ordinary poison. What is strange about its (17) ______ is that it
is found in such a wide range of creatures, from algae to angelfish spanning entire kingdoms of life. It is
rather unlikely that such an unusual toxin evolved (18) ______ in so many unrelated animals. Marine
biologists have discovered that the poison is produced by bacteria living in the gut of its host. The best
explanation is that a symbiotic relationship exists between host and the not (19) ______ guest, where
microbes exchange poison for nutrients, providing a valuable (20) ______ weapon for its host.
III. ERROR CORRECTION: (10PTS) The following passage contains 10 errors. Identify
and correct them.
BEWARE OF VITAMINS!
1 Vitamins are good for our health, aren't they? Perhaps not. New research suggests that rather
than ward off disease, high doses of certain vitamins may make more harm than good and
could even put you in an early grave. Some recent studies suggest that far from improving
health, these vitamins, when taken at very high doses, may actually increase the risks of
5 cancer and a range of debilitating diseases, a discovery that has sent the medicinal world into
a spin. Scientists are unsure as to when vitamins, so essential to health, can be toxic in high
doses. The most likely explanation is that the body is only equipped to deal with the levels
found naturally in the environment. If the intake is too far for the normal range, then the
body's internal chemistry must be shunted out of alignment. What this means is that the
10 commercially sold vitamins and those provided by nature is not always compatible. The
commercial forms may interfere with the body's internal chemistry by “crowding out” the
most natural and beneficial forms of the nutrients. The vitamins obtained in food are also
allied with a host of other substances which may moderate or augment its activity in the
body. The latest advice is to eat a balance diet to ensure you get all the nutrients you need,
15 and if you must take supplements make sure you take the lowest recommended dose and
follow the instructions on the bottle.
IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION: (20 PTS) Rewrite the following sentences using the words
given.
1. People know more about my novels than the plays I write.
(BETTER) I'm ___________________________________________.
2. The staff hated his new policies intensely and so went on strike. (HATRED) So
intense ______________________________________________.

3. Your attitude to life would be greatly improved by regular exercise.
(WONDERS) Regular exercise would __________________________________.
4. There is someone in the office twenty-four hours a day. (STAFFED)
The office ____________________________________.
5. Do you think her grandmother was offended by what I said? (EXCEPTION) Do
you think ________________________________________?
6. His behavior at the conference gave him the bad reputation he now has.
(CONDUCTED) The way _________________________________________________.
7. Unless we can obtain more information, we can't process your claim.
(FORTHCOMING) Unless further ___________________________________________.
8. Our teacher thinks it would be better to get on as quickly as possible.
(MUCH) Our teacher would prefer us ________________________________.
9. I had to wait for the manager for almost an hour before he would see me.
(BEST) The manager kept ___________________________________________.
10. They remain close friends despite having had many arguments. (FALL)
Frequently as ________________________________________.
END OF TEST – BEST OF LUCK

Họ và tên thí sinh: ................................................................................................................................
Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................

SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI OLYMPIC TRUYỀN THỐNG 30/4
TP. HỒ CHÍ MINH LẦN THỨ XXV – NĂM 2019
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN Môn thi: Anh văn - Khối: 11
LÊ HỒNG PHONG Ngày thi: 06/04/2019
Thời gian làm bài : 180 phút
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Đề này có 08 trang.
 Thí sinh làm phần trắc nghiệm (MULTIPLE CHOICE) trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm và
 phần tự luận (WRITTEN TEST) trên phiếu trả lời tự luận.
 Trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm, thí sinh tô thêm 2 số 00 vào trước số báo
danh (bằng bút chì).
Phần mã đề thi trên phiếu trắc nghiệm, thí sinh tô vào ô 002.
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 PTS)

I. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (5PTS): Choose the best options to complete the
1. He has done things he ought not to have done and ______ undone things he ought to have done.
A. leaving B. will leave C. left D. leave
2. The team ______ be the same without him.
A. mustn’t B. wouldn’t C. shouldn’t D. needn’t
3. Suppose she ______ that outrageous story circulating around the office, she'd be furious!
A. has heard B. heard C. would hear D. had heard
4. I'd rather you ______ a noise last night; I couldn't get to sleep.
A. wouldn't make B. didn't make C. hadn't made D. haven't made
5. The teacher has gone home, so you ______ her at the library.
A. can’t have seen B. mustn't have seen C. weren't able to see D. couldn’t see
6. I didn’t get home until well after midnight last night. Otherwise, I ______ your call.
A. returned B. had returned C. would return D. would have returned
7. –“Did the kids enjoy the circus?”
–“Absolutely! The clown got them ______ all the time.”
A. laugh B. to be laughing C. to laugh D. laughing
8. –“Have you heard, Samuel has just been awarded his PhD?"
–“Yes, but intelligent ______ he is, he has no basic common sense."
A. although B. though C. however D. while
9. My sister is left-handed, ______ no one else in our family is.
A. which B. who C. that D. for which
10. ______ they couldn’t have told us all that we were likely to lose our jobs because the business was
failing is beyond me.
A. When B. Why C. How D. Whether
II. PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITIONS (5 PTS) Choose the best options to complete the
11. I was prepared to back ______ her story because I knew it was the truth.
A. up B. down C. on D. for
12. My brother has a flair ______ languages and can speak more than six.
A. about B. with C. on D. for
13. A local hotel has been found guilty of ______ incidents of food poisoning.
A. holing up B. shutting off C. covering up D. tucking away
14. How would you set ______ teaching a dog to perform tricks?
A. about B. on C. for D. up
15. He was led ______ by her flattery but soon discovered how insincere she was.
A. away B. on C. out D. up
16. We had to queue ______ before we could get into the cinema last night.
A. up B. on C. along D. in

17. The meeting didn’t ______ until late.
A. end up B. break up C. come about D. fall through
18. Would you like to try ______ this new electric cooker?
A. out B. by C. with D. for
19. Although they tried, they couldn't hold ______ their laughter.
A. up B. in C. off D. over
20. The student was eligible ______ a full grant to study at university.
A. for B. to C. with D. on
III. VOCABULARY (10 PTS): Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
21. Having a broken ankle ______ her movements considerably.

A. barred B. hindered C. intervened D. blocked
22. When I came in, I found a great surprise ______ me.
A. expecting B. celebrating C. awaiting D. disregarding
23. You were really ______ when you paid $100 for those shoes. They're not even leather!
A. swiped B. pinched C. ripped off D. pilfered
24. To be well-prepared for studies at a university, you should take ______ courses in school.
A. rigorous B. feeble C. porous D. extravagant
25. The government is making little ______ in its fight to beat inflation.
A. headway B. advance C. improvement D. forward
26. We don’t know him very well. He’s just a casual ______ of ours.
A. relative B. fraternity C. acquaintance D. occupant
27. Greg has, to all intents and ______, finished his degree course, with the exception of his final
dissertation.
A. reasons B. aims C. purposes D. proposals
28. They disagreed at first, but after some discussion, they reached ______.
A. a consensus B. a majority C. an acquiescence D. a persuasion
29. We were all on a ______ -edge until the very end of the Hitchcock film.
A. razor B. cliff C. knife D. chair
30. The ______ thought of going to the dentist gives me nightmares.
A. worthy B. ripe C. frank D. mere
31. We giggled at the sight of Mrs. Brown ______ down the road in her six-inch stiletto heels.
A. staggering B. tottering C. reeling D. stumbling
32. Peter had a difficult time ______ his car into the small parking spot.
A. mobilizing B. maneuvering C. manipulating D. motoring
33. Jane ______ about the surprise party for Sheila and now the whole idea is ruined.
A. blabbed B. prattled C. gossiped D. chatted
34. He ______ the papers in a neat pile.
A. stacked B. clustered C. bunched D. heaped
35. Thousands of refugees are camping at the ______ between the two countries, hoping to find asylum.
A. boundary B. brim C. border D. rim
36. Joe’s health has gotten ______ worse over the last few months.
A. chronologically B. consecutively C. serially D. progressively
37. Jenny was so unhappy as she was under the ______ of her husband.
A. finger B. skin C. nose D. thumb
38. The team had to ______ of the competition because of injuries.
A. pull out B. extract C. renounce D. retract
39. We had a ______ of a time at Jason's party yesterday.
A. whale B. whole C. period D. week
40. Investors were caught ______ by the sharp drop in share prices.
A. undecided B. unawares C. unsuspecting D. unconscious
IV. GUIDED CLOZE (10 PTS): Read the texts below and decide which answer best fits
each space.
Passage A:
The BBC, in the form of the language-teaching arm of the World Service, and Harper Collins have (41)
______ forces to publish the BBC English Dictionary, "A Dictionary for the World". It is (42) ______ at the

120 million listeners to the World Service who cannot find the expressions in (43) ______ dictionaries. (44)
______ on 70 million words broadcast at least ten times a year on the World Service, the compilers, (45)
______ by Prof. John Sinclair, have included (46) ______ expressions and word usage, without judging
whether they are being used (47) ______. Elizabeth Smith, the BBC's Controller of English Services, said:
“Our language is (48) ______ on statements by real people, like politicians and (49) ______ which the BBC
has accurately recorded. As broadcasters, we try to use a few idioms and metaphors but only to show that
we (50) ______ in the real world.”
41. A. connected B. joined C. attached D. fixed

42. A. pointed B. directed C. trained D. aimed
43. A. functional B. traditional C. conventional D. partial
44. A. Counting B. Trying C. Drawing D. Bearing
45. A. headed B. chaired C. dictated D. treated
46. A. recent B. current C. nowadays D. late
47. A. correctly B. truly C. sincerely D. finely
48. A. designed B. made C. formed D. based
49. A. so many B. thus far C. as to D. so on
50. A. inhabit B. live C. stay D. exist
Passage B:
Researchers have been perplexed by the increasing prevalence of allergies in children. While many (51)
______ appear to contribute to the (52) ______ of allergies, sensitization to common allergens has been
shown to reduce the risk of allergies persisting from childhood into adulthood. For example, one recent
study shows that exposure early in life to cats and dogs may protect children against allergies (53) ______
pets, dust mites, ragweed, and grass, among other things. Some allergists had (54) ______ thought that
repeated exposure to pets in infancy would (55) ______ the likelihood of developing pet allergies.
(56)______, it is now believed that endotoxins, substances (57) ______ in the mouths of cats and dogs,
may (58) ______ help to prevent allergies. When a pet licks a child during play, endotoxins are transferred
from the animal’s tongue to the child. Endotoxins are (59) ______ to help the human immune system (60)
______ resistance towards some allergens in the environment. The bottom line is that living too clean a life
may contribute to the increasing number of children with allergies.
51. A. ideas B. factors C. issues D. concerns
52. A. development B. sickness C. resistance D. evolution
53. A. of B. by C. with D. towards
54. A. previously B. already C. usually D. later
55. A. improve B. increase C. enrich D. assist
56. A. However B. Furthermore C. Moreover D. Nevertheless
57. A. placed B. developed C. introduced D. found
58. A. also B. actually C. not D. finally
59. A. determined B. analyzed C. assumed D. thought
60. A. destroy B. maintain C. produce D. contribute
V. READING COMPREHENSION (10 PTS): Read the texts below and choose the best answer
to each question.
Passage A
It is well known that adequate sleep is important in the formation of memories. Two recent studies indicate
that performance of motor skills tasks was greatly enhanced if subjects were allowed to sleep immediately
following training. In one study students were taught a series of finger-tapping sequences and then tested
for their memory of the tasks. Performances were 34% faster for the first group of students, who slept for
eight hours immediately after learning the sequences, as compared to the second group, who were kept
awake during that time. Furthermore, error rates were 30% lower for the group that slept after learning.
Performance on the tasks was shown to be unaffected by sleep deprivation prior to the training. Differences
in performance persisted two days later, after the second group of students had also had a full night’s sleep.
This indicates that a window of opportunity exists for sleep to be effective in aiding the memory of motor
skills.

In the other study, a group of people who were taught keyboarding sequences in the morning, and then
tested 12 hours later without a period of sleep, improved their typing ability by 2%. Another group, who
were taught the sequences in the evening, and then tested 12 hours later after a night’s sleep, improved
their typing ability by 20%. This study found that performance improvement is linked to Stage 2 sleep, or
non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep, typically experienced late at night or in the early morning hours.
According to this study, those who get up earlier than usual, thus interrupting their Stage 2 sleep, may have
difficulty remembering motor skills tasks they had learned the day before.
61. According to the studies, what improves motor skills performance?
A. Waiting two days before continuing instruction
B. Learning tasks in the correct sequence
C. Learning a skill and then sleeping
D. Getting a good night’s sleep before learning a skill
62. The findings of the first study indicate that ______.
A. sleep deprivation before learning a task has a negative effect on performance
B. sleeping immediately after learning a task has a positive effect on performance
C. sleep deprivation immediately after learning a task has no effect on performance
D. sleeping immediately before learning a task has a positive effect on performance
63. The results of the second study ______.
A. are unrelated to the first study
B. contradict the results of the first study
C. confirm the results of the first study
D. explain the results of the first study
64. According to the passage, what is the importance of NREM sleep?
A. A decrease in NREM improves the formation of memories.
B. Too much NREM slows down the formation of memories.
C. There is no relationship between NREM and the formation of memories.
D. Lack of NREM inhibits the formation of memories.
65. According to the studies, which strategy would be best for learning to play the piano?
A. Learning in the evening, and then getting a good night’s sleep
B. Learning immediately after getting up very early
C. Learning in the morning, and then doing something else
D. Learning late in the evening and then taking a short nap
Passage B
Scientists at a Texas university have successfully cloned a cat for the first time. DNA obtained from a female
donor cat named Rainbow was transplanted into an egg cell whose nucleus and chromosomes had been
previously removed. The egg cell was then implanted into a surrogate mother, Allie. Sixty-six days later, a
kitten, later named Copy Cat, was born. The breakthrough in cloning a household pet was greeted with
excitement by pet lovers, many of whom have already “banked” their pets’ DNA and even made financial
contributions to the university in the hope of one day obtaining a clone. The news was also welcomed by
scientists interested in the preservation of endangered species.
Although scientists now have the technology to clone animals, Copy Cat’s birth came only after several
unsuccessful attempts at cloning a cat. Researchers first tried using skin cells from a donor cat to create a
clone, but only one pregnancy resulted out of 188 embryos, and this ended in a miscarriage. Scientists then
tried using cells from cats’ ovarian tissue. Out of 87 such embryos, only Copy Cat survived. Although
comparable to the success rate in sheep, cows, goats and pigs, these odds must be reduced to make pet
cloning feasible.
Animal rights activists claim that pet cloning is dangerous for the animals involved, and that it could
needlessly increase the pet population of the country. Also, activists say that believing cloning will bring the
same animal back is a fallacy.
Although Copy Cat’s coat color is similar to Rainbow’s and a genetic match confirms that she is indeed a
clone, her behavior and personality are very different. Rainbow is reserved, while Copy Cat is playful and
curious. In reality, social environment and upbringing are more likely to determine the personality of an
animal than genetic material and blood type.
66. The main purpose of this passage is to ______.
A. advocate further research into pet cloning
B. encourage pet lovers to bank their pets’ DNA
C. generate funds for the university’s pet cloning project
D. present the pros and cons associated with cloning pets

67. What is Allie’s relationship to Copy Cat?
A. She gave birth to Copy Cat.
B. She was cloned from Copy Cat’s DNA.
C. She has the same personality as Copy Cat.
D. She provided the donor cells used to create Copy Cat.
68. According to the passage, what important fact should pet lovers keep in mind before cloning their pet?
A. Banking a pet’s DNA is expensive.
B. Cloning will bring back the same animal.
C. The clone could be different from the original animal.
D. Cloning sheep, cows and pigs is easier than cloning a cat.
69. What beneficial effect might cloning have in the future?
A. It could be used to prevent miscarriages.
B. It could be used to prevent the extinction of rare animals.
C. It could reduce the number of unwanted pets in the country.
D. It could reduce the impact of upbringing on a pet’s behavior.
70. According to the passage, which factor is most important in determining a pet’s behavior?
A. Its DNA
B. Its donor tissue
C. Its environment
D. Its surrogate mother
Passage C
Brood parasitism, an unusual practice among birds, involves one species laying its eggs in another species’
nest, leaving the host to raise the intruder’s young. For instance, female European Cuckoos lay their eggs
only in the nests of other birds. A cuckoo egg usually closely mimics the eggs of the host, one of whose
eggs is often removed by the cuckoo. The host may recognize the intruder’s egg and abandon the nest, or
she may stay and raise the young. Soon after the cuckoo hatches, if there are any host bird’s young in the
nest, the cuckoo will toss them out, using a scooplike depression in its back. The host parents are then
left to raise the young cuckoo.
Brown-headed cowbirds are another brood parasitic species. They have been known to parasitize over 200
other species of birds. Their eggs do not closely mimic host eggs, and they do not oust host eggs and young
from their nests. Instead, cowbirds tend to hatch earlier than hosts and grow faster, thus crowding out and
reducing the food intake of the host’s young.
Some host species have learned, however, to reject invader eggs. Scientists do not fully understand how
these rejector species have developed, or why some species still accept invader eggs even when the eggs
look different. Some scientists believe that acceptors are birds that do not want to risk damaging or
accidentally removing one of their own eggs when trying to eject an invader. Others believe that beak size
influences rejection, allowing birds with large beaks to eject invader eggs more easily. Still other scientists
claim that chance plays a big role in deciding which birds will be acceptors and which will be rejectors.
71. What do European Cuckoos and brown-headed cowbirds have in common?

A. They are both rejector species.
B. Their eggs do not closely mimic host eggs.
C. They lay their eggs in the nests of other birds.
D. They have been known to parasitize over 200 other species.
72. What is the “scooplike depression” mentioned at the end of paragraph one used for?
A. to remove host birds’ young
B. to remove host birds’ eggs
C. to remove a parasite’s young
D. to remove a parasite’s egg
73. What is one difference between European Cuckoos and brown-headed cowbirds?
A. Cuckoos raise their own young.
B. The baby cuckoo eats the host birds’ eggs.
C. The baby cuckoo crowds out host bird babies.
D. The baby cuckoo ejects host birds’ young from nests.
74. What advantage do young cowbirds have in another bird’s nest?
A. They toss out the host birds’ young.
B. They develop faster than the host birds’ young.
C. They are very similar to the host birds’ young.
D. The mother cowbird removes one of the host birds’ eggs.

75. According to the passage, birds with large beaks ______.
A. tend to accept invader eggs
B. are able to remove invader eggs
C. tend to damage their own eggs
D. are rejected by birds with small beaks
Passage D
There are more than 500 carnivorous plant species growing naturally in the world, ranging in size from a
fraction of an inch to vines that are over 60 feet tall. While often biologically quite different from each other,
these plants all share a common trait, carnivorousness. This is the ability to capture animals and digest
them. Why have some plant species developed this extraordinary property? Most carnivorous plants grow in
acid soils or water that is poor in mineral salts. In order to survive, these plants have devised ingenious
traps over several thousands of years of evolution. Some use pools of water to drown unlucky visitors,
others have sticky surfaces that work like flypaper, and some have “snap traps” that clamp down on insects
in a matter of milliseconds. The prey captured by these traps supply the vitamins and minerals that other
plants would normally absorb through their roots.
Even though these plants may have diverse appearances and grow in different environments, they are often
closely related to each other. In the 19th Century, Charles Darwin believed that landbased Venus flytraps,
found in North and South Carolina, and aquatic waterwheels, which grow in Europe, Asia and Australia, were
closely related because they both depend on snap traps to catch their prey. A century later, British
researchers looking more closely at the form and structure of the waterwheel, decided that its closest kin
was not the Venus flytrap but the terrestrial sundew. The sundew consumes insects caught with its flypaper
trap.
However, it has recently been proved that Darwin’s hunch was right after all. Scientists at the New York
Botanical Garden studied the DNA of about a dozen carnivorous plants. They concluded that the world’s only
two snap-trapping plants really are sibling species, whereas the sundew is no closer than a cousin, sharing a
more distant common ancestor.
76. How does a snap trap work?
A. It drowns an insect.
B. It encloses an insect.
C. It traps an insect on its sticky surface.
D. It digests an insect through its roots.
77. Why did Darwin think the Venus flytrap and the waterwheel were related?
A. They live in similar environments.
B. They have similar DNA.
C. Both are siblings of the sundew.
D. Both have snap traps.
78. British researchers decided that the two species most closely related to each other are______.
A. waterwheels and sundews
B. flytraps and snap traps
C. Venus flytraps and sundews
D. Venus flytraps and waterwheels
79. How are non-carnivorous plants different from carnivorous plants?
A. Non-carnivorous plants get nutrients through their roots.
B. Non-carnivorous plants can live in acid soils.
C. Non-carnivorous plants are less biologically diverse than carnivorous plants.
D. Non-carnivorous plants evolved more slowly than carnivorous plants.
80. What are the two snap-trapping plants mentioned in the last sentence?
A. The aquatic waterwheel and the terrestrial sundew
B. The Venus flytraps from North and South Carolina
C. Venus flytraps and the aquatic waterwheel
D. Venus flytraps and the terrestrial sundew
B. WRITTEN TEST
I. CLOZE TEST (20 PTS): Read the texts below and complete each space with ONE
suitable word.

Passage A
It is common knowledge that rainfall in the mountains directly influences nearby river levels. Yet recent
research has revealed that some efforts are not seen (1)______ fifty years after the rain has fallen. A study
by a civil engineering professor investigated the (2) ______ it takes for precipitation to travel from
mountains to valleys (3) ______ underground aquifers, or water passages. Using a computer model, this
scientist (4) ______ on the water levels of a major river in the Rio Grande Valley in New Mexico. His model
showed that a drought that occurred fifty years ago could be partly to (5) ______ for current low water
levels. The model assumed a fifty-year wet climate cycle followed by an abrupt change in which precipitation
was cut in half. For decades, there was no change in the base flow of the Rio Grande, (6) ______ after fifty
years that dry cycle (7) ______ up in the river. Previously, (8) ______ such as how much water to store and
(9) ______ from reservoirs have been based on a conservative view, because it has been hard to predict
streamflows years (10) ______. However, if additional research supports this study, the much-delayed
impact of droughts on underground water levels would have significant implications for water management.
Passage B
Over one hundred brightly colored and diverse frog species have recently been identified on the tropical
island of Sri Lanka. The new species were identified by noticeable (11) ______ in physical features, habitat,
development, and genetic make-up. Some are tiny and dwell on the ground, whereas (12) ______ are large
and inhabit trees. Five of the new (13)______ lay eggs in homespun baskets suspended above water, so
that when the eggs (14) ______ the tadpoles have no difficulty taking their first (15) ______. The remaining
new frog species give birth to their young by producing eggs on the forest floor. These frogs (16)______ the
tadpole stage and emerge as miniature (17) ______ of their parents.
Frogs and other amphibians are important indicators of ecological balance; therefore a decline in their
numbers would be considered a warning that (18) ______ of the natural environment for a particular area is
needed. (19) ______ that Sri Lanka has already lost 95% of its forests, measures to protect the remaining
forest fragments are crucial. Since many frogs produce chemicals that could have practical applications in
health care and medical treatment, they are a potential source of new drugs. Thus, ensuring that frogs are
protected by preserving and restoring their (20) ______ is very important.
II. WORD FORMATION: (20PTS)

PART 1: Complete each sentence, using the correct form of the word in parentheses.
1. Another nuclear accident in the same place is virtually ______. (CONCEIVE)
2. Though she had spent hours fixing the computer, he ______ her efforts. (LITTLE)
3. Smoking has caused ______ damage to his lungs. (REVERSE)
4. –“Was it a good read?" –“Oh, totally ______! I finished it in two days." (PUT)
5. The police file was ______ because of new evidence. (ACT)
6. The war has ______ nearly two-thirds of the country's population. (ROOT)
7. Premature disclosure of the test sites might lead to ______ of the experiment. (VALID)
8. Their ten-point lead puts the team in an almost ______ position. (ASSAIL)
9. The poet fell in love with her and ______ her in his verse. (MORTAL)
10. He was able to pass ______ through several military checkpoints. (HINDER)
PART 2: Complete the passage with the appropriate forms from the words given in the box.
DISPENSE PORTRAY NOBLE MIME COMPANY

NUMBER SYMBOL COMPREHEND RIDICULE FACE
SILENT ACTING
Mime and pantomime was a Greek and Roman dramatic entertainment representing scenes from life, often
in a (11) ______ manner. Currently, the art has evolved into the (12) ______ of a character or the narration
of a story solely by means of body movement. The Greco-Roman mime was a farce that stressed (13)
______ action but which included song and spoken dialogue. In Roman pantomime, unlike the mime actor,
the players wore (14) ______ masks, which identified their characters but deprived them of speech and of
the use of (15) ______ gestures. Thus hand movements were particularly expressive and important.
Pantomimus, dressed like a tragic actor in a cloak and long tunic, usually performed solo, (16) ______ by an
orchestra. In the theatre of China and Japan, mime acquired a role unknown in the West, becoming a(n)
(17) ______ part of the major dramatic genres. In Chinese drama the conventions of gesticulation, as well
as the (18) ______ of the stage properties, are immense in scope and (19) ______ to those unfamiliar with
the traditional forms. The high art of modern mime was (20) ______ philosophically by such artists as
Marcel Marceau, who defined mime as lithe art of expressing feelings by attitudes and not a means of
expressing words through gestures.

III. ERROR CORRECTION: (10PTS) The following passage contains 10 errors. Identify
and correct them.
A SPORTING GOAL FOR WOMEN

1 Football is traditionally, a man's sport, but now the women are muscling in on their act, or so
it seems. Because many top male footballers have been transferred for astronomical sums of
money that the game has become more a highly-powered business than a sport. This is
where the women come in, more motivated, more interested in the game more than in
5 promoting themselves and generally better behaved both on and in the pitch, making a strong
contrast to their male counterparts' greed and cynicism. Indeed, as to FIFA, the world football
governing body, the future of football belongs to women, and the organization has put out to
actively promote women's football. Perhaps, in view of the fact that women are half the
world's population, this is how it should be. In the USA, many members of national women's
10 football teams are well known than male footballers, and some professional female players in
both North America and Europe have attracted lucrative sponsor deals. Generally, two
problems beset women's football: the need to be taken more serious and for more funding to
be made available. Once these have already achieved along with the blessing of FIFA, we
should see footballers who are accessible, cooperative, decent and sporting in place of the
15 spoiled mercenary star boys of sport.
IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION: (20 PTS) Rewrite the following sentences using the words
given.
1. He realised how much he cared for her only when she had been away for a long time.
(HOME) Her prolonged________________________________________________________.
2. So that she would be able to leave the room quickly, Kathy stood by the door. (POSITIONED)
Kathy ____________________________________________________________.
3. This essay shows a slight improvement on the last.
(MARGINALLY) This essay is______________________________.
4. If they discover your role in the incident, you will go to prison. (LIGHT) If
your role in the incident _______________________________.
5. No one could stand in for Bob when the proposal was drafted. (INSTRUMENTAL)
Bob _______________________________________________.
6. My boss says I can use his car whenever I want to, so long as I'm careful.
(DISPOSAL) My boss says his car _________________________________________.
7. If she hadn’t interfered, there would have been no problems. (SMOOTHLY)
Without her ______________________________________.
8. She didn't understand the situation and so made a terrible mistake.
(STICK) She got ______________________________________________.
9. I tried as hard as I could to make sure that this problem would not arise. (POWER) I
did ________________________________________________________.
10. Karen's bad mood is totally unconnected with the matter in hand. (BEARING)
The matter ___________________________________________.
END OF TEST – BEST OF LUCK

Họ và tên thí sinh: ................................................................................................................................
Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................

KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
LẦN THỨ XII, NĂM 2019
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10

Ngày thi: 20/4/2019
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề)
Điểm
Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 Số phách
Bằng số Bằng chữ
A. LISTENING (50 points):

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
• Bài nghe gồm 4 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 05 giây; mở đầu và
kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. Thí sinh có 20 giây để đọc mỗi phần câu hỏi.
• Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 03 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước
tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe
Part1. Listen and write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. (10 points)
PRIME RECRUITMENT
Employee record
Surname: Riley
Email: (1) ____________________@worldnet.com
Nationality: (2) ___________________
Reference (professional): Name: John Keen
Job: manager of (3) ___________________
Reference ( personal): Name: Eileen Dorsini
Job: (4) ___________________
Special qualifications: Current (5) ___________________ certificate
Certificate of competence in sailing.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Page 1 of 13
Part 2. You will hear part of a psychologist being interviewed about friendship. Choose the
answer (A, B C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10 points)
6. From three to five years old, children ________
A. are happy to play alone. B. prefer to be with their family.
C. have rather selfish relationships D. have little idea of ownership.
7. From age five to eight or ten, children ________
A. change their friends more often. B. decide who they want to be friends with.
C. admire people who don’t keep to rules. D. learn to be tolerant of their friends.
8. According to Sarah Browne, adolescents ________
A. may be closer to their friends than to their parents.
B. develop an interest in friends of the opposite sex.
C. choose friends with similar personalities to themselves.
D. want friends who are dependable.
9. Young married couple ________
A. tend to focus on their children. B. often lose touch with their friends.
C. make close friends less easily. D. need fewer friends than single people.
10. In middle or old age people generally prefer ________
A. to stay in touch with old friends. B. to see younger friends more often.
C. to have friends who live nearby. D. to spend more time with their friends.
Your answers:
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 3. You will listen to a short talk about the entertainment program and decide whether the
following statements are true (T) or false (F). (10 points)
11. Sally cannot reveal the name of the band for the first party.
12. There will be a concert in the Cotswold Theatre on Monday.
13. There is an important event on Thursday.
14. There is no formal dress code for the Freshers’ Ball.
15. Students should check the notice board for the welcoming party in the entrance lobby.
Your answers:
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Part 4. You will hear an interview with a representative of a wildlife park called Paradise
Wildlife Park. For questions 16-25, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER. (20 points)
Project Life Lion is connected with diseases spread by (16) _____________________ in Africa.
The park has created its own (17) _____________________, and other organizations use it.
A wide variety of (18) _____________________ events (e.g. barbecues) are held at the park.
For charity events, the park will provide cheap tickets and (19) _____________________.
The park’s sister company gives people a chance to be a (20) _____________________.
People paying to adopt an animal get a (21) _____________________, a photograph,
information about the animal and a free ticket for two people.
People who visit the park (22) ________________in a year benefit from having a season ticket.
When the weather is cold, visitors can still enjoy using the heated (23) __________________.
One of the Experience Days involves being an (24) ________________________ for a day.
The park is looking for people to do customer service and (25) _____________________ work.
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Your answers:
16. 21.
17. 22.
18. 23.
19. 24.
20. 25.
B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50 points)

Part1. Choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which best completes each of the
following sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. As a full story _________, the public reacted with shock.
A. uncovered B. unfolded C. unwrapped D. undid
2. Their research into the causes of cancer promises to break the new _________ in the field and
possibly lead to a cure.
A. earth B. ground C. soil D. land
3. When he found out that he had been rejected, he cut up ______.
A. raw B. loose C. rough D. harsh
4. “Don’t look so worried! You should take the boss’s remarks with a ______ of salt.”
A. teaspoon B. pinch C. grain D. dose
5. I caught the last bus by the skin of my _________.
A. teeth B. leg C. neck D. mouth
6. The police ____ off the street when the bomb had gone off.
A. cordoned B. battened C. fastened D. shuttered
7. She doesn’t like to keep anything hidden: she always _________ her mind.
A. talks B. speaks C. tells D. says
8. We were under no _________ about how difficult it would be to achieve our aims.
A. fantasies B. daydreams C. illusions D. deceptions
9. The local authorities need to _________ down on illegal parking, in my opinion.
A. hit B. force C. move D. crack
10. The doctor thought he had got over the worst, but his condition suddenly _________.
A. deteriorated B. dismantled C. dissolved D. disintegrated
11. I’ve got such a _________ headache that I can’t concentrate on the lecture.
A. beating B. drumming C. hammering D. throbbing
12. _________ cars usually have special and unique things that the owners wish to have.
They are certainly more expensive.
A. Man-made B. Custom-made C. Well-kept D. Well-dressed
13. He is too _____ a gambler to resist placing a bet on the final game.
A. instant B. compulsive C. spontaneous D. continuous
14. The train _______ the bay and then turned inland for twenty miles.
A. coasted B. skirted C. edged D. sided
15. The smoke _________ from the burning tires could be seen from miles.
A. bulging B. radiating C. billowing D. sweeping
16. We intend this to be a(n) _________ project, taking us into the next decade.
A. constant B. incessant C. steady D. ongoing
17. Mr. Parris said he’d like _________ by Monday, if that’s possible.
A. finished the report B. the report finished
C. the report will be finished D. have the report finished
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18. If you want to be a famous film star, talent helps, but what it really ______down to is luck.
A. revolves B. boils C. centres D. refines
19. The scientists broke down as they realised that all their efforts had gone to_________ .
A. loss B. failure C. waste D. collapse
20. Revenge at last! I always said I would ______ my own back on Steve, and now I have.
A. turn B. get C. do D. make
Your answers:
1. 5. 9. 13. 17.
2. 6. 10. 14. 18.
3. 7. 11. 15. 19.
4. 8. 12. 16. 20.
Part 2. Read the following text which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write
the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
Line
1 Adolescence always has been and always will be the very difficult time in
2 life. You are lost where between childhood and adulthood, but still, this is the
3 time in life when you have to break freely from the conformity of your peers to
4 find yourself. Some people argue that it’s more difficult to be young today than
5 it used to be. Is this true, and in that case, why?
6 In modern society teenagers pressure to mature much more quickly than one
7 or two hundred years ago. Today, minors on a very early stage have to make
8 decisions regard education, often bearing upon their future careers. In the past,
9 children were expected to follow in the footsteps of their parents, that is to say,
10 the son was supposed to take in the profession of his father, while the daughter
11 was expected to stay at home to take care of domestic duties such as cooking
12 and cleaning.
13 Furthermore, today it’s much more difficult to find your place in society. As
14 cities grow, crime increases, and the anonymity people experiment grows as
15 well. It becomes more difficult to find and cultivate your own ideals and value.
16 On the other hand, the adolescent of today have great opportunities than ever
17 before. In the past, if your father was a blacksmith or a farmer, in ten years, so
18 you would be. Today, teenagers have the possibility to fulfill in all their dreams
19 and ambitions.
Your answers:
Line Mistakes Corrections
1.
2.
3.
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4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. Write
your answer in the boxes provided. (10 points)
1. What is there so remarkable of him that people will hang ________ his every word?
2. I am going to brush ________ my French before we go on holiday.
3. Antony says he felt a little dizzy when he came _________ from the anesthetic.
4. If you can bear _________ me a little longer, I'll give you all the information together.
5. The decision was deferred _________ a later meeting.
6. I offered my classmate a gift ___________ the spirit of friendship.
7. I can see no basis __________ changing our plans now.
8. ‘This will cause all sorts of problems.’ - ‘I know. It is a recipe_________ disaster.’
9. The fighting which started in the night had petered _________ by morning.
10. Could you please refrain ________ smoking - this is a hospital!
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 4. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
In an effort to escape from their hectic and (1. MATERIAL) _______________ city
lives, more and more Northern Europeans are buying houses in rural areas of France, Spain,
Italy and Greece. Some relocate permanently in search of a more meaningful existence. Those
who cannot afford to give up their jobs seek a (2. THERAPY) _______________ respite from
their stressful lifestyle by relaxing for a few weeks each year in their second home in the sun.
However, many of those who relocate permanently find that life in the country is not as
quiet and (3. EVENT) __________ as they had anticipated. Aspects of village life which
seemed delightfully (4. ATMOSPHERE) ____________ in the context of a two-week holiday
can grate on the nerves when you love with them on a daily basis. Recently a group of British
residents in an Italian village took local farmers to court because they found the smell of the
villagers’ pigs (5. TASTE) _______________. In other cases, foreigners have complained to
neighbors about the enthusiastic early-morning crowing of their cockerels, or to village priests
about the regular tolling of church bells.
(6. UNDERSTAND)__________, the local inhabitants are somewhat (7. RESENT)
_________ of these attitudes. They argue that the foreigners have an (8. REAL) ___________
view of what country life is like and that, since no one forced them to come and live in a village,
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they are being (9. CRITIC) ____________by now complaining about the (10. CONVENIENT)
____________ of rural life.
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
C. READING (50 points)
Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
Public opinion polls show that crime is (1) _________ as one of the most serious
problems of many societies. Yet, penetrating studies have revealed that the amount of violent
crime is (2) _________. Our peculiar awareness and fear is largely brought about by the great
attention it is (3) _________ in the mass media and also because of violent crime being a
popular theme for television series and films.
Among all crimes, murder makes the (4) _________ and there is little doubt that
homicides still continue to be a (5) _________ question in a number of countries. The various
causes of severe crime are being constantly (6) _________ and innumerable reasons for it are
being pointed out. Among these are unemployment, drug (7)_________, inadequate police
enforcement, ineffective courts, racial discrimination, television and the general decline in social
values.
An acknowledged fact is that this is mainly poverty that (8) _________ crime.
Individuals incapable of securing for themselves and their families the rudimentary means of
living unavoidably (9) _________ to stealing, burgling or committing other offences. We may
try to explain crime on different (10) _________ - cultural, economic, psychological, but
criminologists are still far from detecting the exact source of violent offences as the direct link
between these particular factors isn’t possible to specify.
1. A. believed B. viewed C. alleged D. thought
2. A. outspoken B. overestimated C. presupposed D. upgraded
3. A. granted B. awarded C. devoted D. entrusted
4. A. headlines B. titles C. captions D. broadcast
5. A. lasting B. obstructing C. nagging D. contending
6. A. debated B. conversed C. conflicted D. articulated
7. A. escalation B. abuse C. maltreatment D. disuse
8. A. rears B. nurtures C. breeds D. urges
9. A. turn B. take C. gear D. bring
10. A. motives B. arguments C. reasons D. grounds
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word in each space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
Ecotourism
Snacking on green ants is (1) _________ everyone’s idea of the most delicious holiday
indulgence, but on a recent walk through the Daintree rainforest in Queensland, Australia,
Aboriginal guide Kirsty Norris assured a group of uncertain guests that the traditional food
source of her KukuYalanji tribe was (2) _________ a try. She (3) _________ have been right -
but luckily for the native ants and the tourists, rain came streaming down through the canopy,
sending (4) _________ possible food scurrying for cover.
Connecting with nature isn’t a compulsory (5) _________ of a stay at an
environmentally friendly resort, but at the Daintree Eco Lodge, (6) _________ tree-house villas
are set on stilts above the compound’s waterfall-fed creek, many people find (7) _________
doing a bit of communing while they relax.
(8)__________________ecotourism is increasing in popularity, recording heady
growth worldwide, it is still difficult to define. For some travellers, ecotourism means
eavesdropping (9) _________ nature from the comfort of a plush bed with a magnificent view.
For (10) _________ , it’s about doing without hot showers and trekking across wildernesses.
However, industry watchers say the category’s basic tenet is minimal environmental impact
combined with some contribution to education and conservation.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the questions.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
CLOUD SEEDING
Precipitation is essential for any type of farming, and since the development of agriculture
man has attempted to gain influence over or to control this life-giving phenomenon. For much of
human history, such efforts have been the province of shamans, witch doctors, and priests, who
have sought to enlist the aid of the supernatural in bringing steady and reliable rains during the
growing season. In fact, in many earlier societies, the great authority afforded to such
individuals was explicitly based on their claims to supposedly command the rains to come.
In modern times, most societies have turned away from such superstitions. Rain-making efforts
continue today, albeit under the guise of science. Modern rain-making efforts centre around the
practice of cloud seeding, in which certain chemicals (usually silver iodide) are released into the
atmosphere to induce precipitation. In order to understand this process, it is first necessary to
understand what causes precipitation under natural circumstances.
Precipitation requires two processes to take place inside a cloud: condensation and
coalescence. Condensation occurs when the air in a cloud cools beyond a certain point. Clouds
are essentially masses of air saturated with water vapour, and the amount of water vapour that
the air can hold is a function of temperature. Warmer air can hold more water vapour, while
cooler air can hold less. Thus, when a mass of warm air cools, either as a result of a collision
with a cooler mass of air or through some other process, its ability to hold water vapour
decreases. When this ability drops below the amount of water vapour the cloud actually holds,
the cloud is said to be supersaturated. At this point, the water vapour will begin to condense into
tiny microscopic droplets.
While the supersaturation of the cloud marks the point at which water droplets begin to form,
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it does not always result in precipitation. These initial water droplets are so small that the force
of air resistance and upward breaths of wind are sufficient to keep them suspended within the
cloud. It is when these water droplets begin to combine into larger water drops or freeze in to ice
crystals, a process known as coalescence, that they gain enough mass to fall as either rain or
snow. In order to coalesce, however, these water droplets must first have something to coalesce
around. Typically, this is a microscopic particle of dirt or dust that has been blown up into a
cloud. Without the presence of such particles, precipitation is nearly impossible. In fact, in
clouds without these particles, condensed water droplets may even drop below the freezing point
without coalescing into raindrops or snowflakes.
It is precisely these conditions which cloud seeding seeks to exploit. In cloud seeding, super-
fine particles of silver iodide are released into a cloud in an attempt to initiate coalescence and
thus produce precipitation. The silver iodide is typically delivered via a ground-launched rocket
or a plane that has been specially outfitted with cloud-seeding equipment. In either case, the
process is the same. If successful, the water droplets will coalesce around the particles of silver
iodide and fall as either rain or snow, depending on temperatures closer to the ground.
While cloud seeding works in theory, its real-world efficacy is more open to debate. There
are undeniably cases in which cloud seeding does produce precipitation. However, it is often
impossible to tell whether greater amounts of precipitation occur with the aid of cloud seeding
than would have occurred naturally. Moreover, cloud seeding can only work when cloud
conditions are already ripe for precipitation; that is, when a cloud is already supersaturated. In
instances when this is not the case, cloud seeding is powerless to produce rain. Cloud seeding,
for example, may initiate rainfall in temperate climates, but it would be a futile practice in desert
regions. Another drawback is that cloud seeding naturally results in rainfalls laden with silver
iodide, which can be toxic to vegetation and wildlife in high enough concentrations. Despite
these limitations, cloud seeding is a growing practice worldwide. Currently, 24 nations,
including the United States, China, Russia, and Australia, have active cloud seeding programs.
Some of these nations have begun to experiment with materials other than silver iodide in their
programs, hoping to find a method of cloud seeding that is more environmentally friendly.
1. The word "province" in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______ ".
A. authority B. jurisdiction C. realm D. specialty
2. In paragraph 1, why does the author allude to shamans, witch doctors, and priests?
A. To belabour the point that rain in religious rituals is of great import
B. To elucidate the futility of all rain-making endeavours
C. To illustrate the dearth of empirical erudition amidst primitive civilisations
D. To yield a celebrated background for rainmaking ventures
3. Based on the information in paragraph 2, condensation can best be designated as_______.
A. the amalgam of minuscule water droplets
B. the diminution of air temperatures inside a cloud
C. the genesis of water droplets from water vapour
D. the resistance of water vapour to supersaturation
4. What is required for coalescence to transpire?
A. Air temperatures must depreciate to a critical level.
B. The aggregate of water vapour in a cloud must exceed a certain point.
C. Water droplets must become sufficiently dense to overcome air resistance.
D. Water droplets must have something on which to affix themselves.
5. According to paragraph 4, the mantle of silver iodide in cloud seeding is to_______.
A. augment the amount of water vapour in the cloud
B. diminish the inclusive air temperature in the cloud
C. expedite coalescence
D. facilitate condensation
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6. The word "efficacy" in the paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to "_______”.
A. prevalence B. reliability C. sanctuary D. usefulness
7. Based on paragraph 5, what can be inferred about cloud seeding?
A. Cloud seeding actually precipitates very little environmental desecration.
B. Cloud seeding does not always work.
C. Cloud seeding methods have never been appraised.
D. The overheads of cloud seeding are exorbitant to be viable.
8. Why are nations looking for auxiliary constituents to manoeuvre in cloud seeding?
A. Silver iodide introduces poisons into the environment.
B. Silver iodide wields extortionate delivery modi operandi like projectiles and airplanes.
C. The availability of silver iodide is extremely limited.
D. They hanker after a more effective component than silver iodide.
9. Which of the sentences below best conveys the intrinsic information in the highlighted
sentence in the passage?
A. In primeval societies, only puissant individuals (ecclesiastics) had the prerogative to
command the rains.
B. In primitive civilisations, authority epitomes dodged explicit assertions about
constraining the rains.
C. The formidable stature of religious epitomes in primitive civilisations was primarily due
to their allegations to restrain the rain.
D. The greatness of primeval societies was grounded in the adroitness of ethereal leaders to
create rain.
10. The phrase "upward breaths" in the passage can be replaced by “_______”.
A. upbraids B. updraughts C. upheavals D. uprisings
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 4. Read the text and do the following tasks. (15 points)
The Effects of Deforestation
A Every year it is estimated that roughly 5.2 million hectares (52,000 km2) of forest is lost
worldwide. That is a net figure, meaning it represents the area of forest not replaced. To put
this size in context, that is an area of land the size of Croatia lost every single year. There
are a wide range of negative effects from deforestation that range from the smallest
biological processes right up to the health of our planet as a whole. On a human level,
millions of lives are affected every year by flooding and landslides that often result from
deforestation.
B There are 5 million people living in areas deemed at risk of flooding in England and
Wales. Global warming, in part worsened by deforestation, is responsible for higher rainfalls
in Britain in recent decades. Although it can be argued that demand for cheap housing has
meant more houses are being built in at-risk areas, the extent of the flooding is increasing.
The presence of forests and trees along streams and rivers acts like a net. The trees catch and
store water, but also hold soil together, preventing erosion. By removing the trees, land is
more easily eroded increasing the risk of landslides and also, after precipitation, less water is
intercepted when trees are absent and so more enters rivers, increasing the risk of flooding.
C It is well documented that forests are essential to the atmospheric balance of our planet,
and therefore our own wellbeing too. Scientists agree unequivocally that global warming is
a real and serious threat to our planet. Deforestation releases 15% of all greenhouse gas
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emissions. One third of the carbon dioxide emissions created by human activities come from
deforestation around the globe.
D In his book Collapse, about the disappearance of various ancient civilisations, writer
Jared Diamond theorizes about the decline of the natives of Easter Island. European
missionaries first arrived on the island in 1722. Research suggested that the island, whose
population was in the region of two to three thousand at the time, had once been much
higher at fifteen thousand people. This small native population survived on the island
despite there being no trees at all. Archaeological digs uncovered evidence of trees once
flourishing on the island. The uncontrolled deforestation not only led to the eradication of all
such natural resources from the island, but also greatly impacted the number of people the
island could sustain. This underlines the importance of forest management, not only for
useful building materials, but also food as well.
E Forestry management is important to make sure that stocks are not depleted and that
whatever is cut down is replaced. Without sustainable development of forests the levels of
deforestation are only going to worsen as the global population continues to rise, creating
higher demand for the products of forests. Just as important though is consumer awareness.
Simple changes in consumer activities can make a huge difference. These changes in
behaviour include, but are not limited to, recycling all recyclable material; buying recycled
products and looking for the FSC sustainably sourced forest products logo on any wood or
paper products.
F Japan is often used as a model of exemplary forest management. During the Edo period
between 1603 and 1868 drastic action was taken to reverse the country's serious exploitative
deforestation problem. Whilst the solution was quite complex, one key aspect of its success
was the encouragement of cooperation between villagers. This process of collaboration and
re-education of the population saved Japan's forests. According to the World Bank 68.5% of
Japanese land area is covered by forest, making it one of the best performing economically
developed nations in this regard.
G There is of course a negative impact of Japan's forest management. There is still a high
demand for wood products in the country, and the majority of these resources are simply
imported from other, poorer nations. Indonesia is a prime example of a country that has lost
large swaths of its forest cover due to foreign demand from countries like Japan. This is in
addition to other issues such as poor domestic forest management, weaker laws and local
corruption. Located around the Equator, Indonesia has an ideal climate for rainforest. Sadly
much of this natural resource is lost every year. Forest cover is now down to less than 51 %
from 65.4% in 1990. This alone is proof that more needs to be done globally to manage
forests.
Task 1: The Reading Passage has eight paragraphs A-G. Choose the correct heading for each
paragraph from the list of headings below. Write your answers (i-x) in the space provided.
List of Headings
i Atmospheric impacts
ii Ideal forestry management example
iii No trees, less people
iv Good uses for wood
v Looking after the forests
vi Numbers of lost trees
vii Wasted water
viii Happy trees
ix Flood risks
x Poorer nations at higher risk
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Example:
0. Paragraph A vi .
1. Paragraph B _____ 4. Paragraph E _____
2. Paragraph C _____ 5. Paragraph F _____
3. Paragraph D _____ 6. Paragraph G _____
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
Task 2:
Questions 7 – 10 Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.
The effects of deforestation are widespread and various. Some examples include flooding
at a local scale to the wider effects of global warming on a worldwide scale.
In Britain, for example 7.________________ people live in areas at risk of flooding. This risk is
increased by deforestation. Trees catch and store water lowering the chance of flooding. By
removing trees land erosion is also higher, increasing the chance of 8.________________.
Deforestation also affects global warming by contributing 15% of the 9.________________ of
greenhouse gasses. To make sure that the cutting down of trees is done in a sustainable way,
good forestry 10.________________ is important.
Your answers:
7. 8. 9. 10.
D. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the one
printed before it. Write your answers in the space provided. (10 points)
1. He was so disgusted at the way she behaved that he refused to speak to her.
→ Such_____________________________________________________________.
2. I’ll have to wait before I know whether he’ll keep his promise or not.
→It remains _____________________________________________________________.
3. It was Walter Raleigh who introduced potatoes and tobacco into England.
→ The English owed ___________________________________________________.
4. The moment I saw the dirty state of the restaurant kitchen, I no longer felt hungry.
→ I lost _____________________________________________________________.
5. He loses his temper at all things, even the slightest one.
→ He flies ____________________________________________________________.
Part 2. Rewrite the sentences below in such a way that their meanings stay the same. You
must use the words in capital without changing their forms. Write your answers in the space
provided (10 points)
1. Yoshi wanted to make sure that everything was as it should be on the big day. LEAVE
→Yoshi didn’t __________________________________________________ on the big day.
2. He always makes everything look so difficult. WEATHER
→He always __________________________________________________ everything.
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3. I found the plot of the book too complicated to follow. HEAD
→I couldn’t __________________________________________________ the book.
4. Don’t tell the boss anything about this. BREATHE
→Don’t ___________________________________________________ the boss.
5. Our attempts to persuade Soji to continue his studies weren’t successful and he left university
early. MET
→Our attempts to persuade Soji not to_________________________ no success and he left
university early.
Part 3. Essay writing. (30 points)

Write an essay of about 250 words to express your opinion on the following topic:
Some people believe that developments in the field of artificial intelligence will have a positive
impact on our life in the near future.
To what extent do you agree with this opinion?
Use your own knowledge and experience to support your arguments with examples and relevant
evidence.
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(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm)
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN QUỐC HỌC
THỪA THIÊN HUẾ NĂM HỌC 2019-2020
Khóa ngày 02 tháng 6 năm 2019
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (CHUYÊN)
(Đề thi có 08 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Điểm Họ tên và chữ ký giám khảo 1: Mã phách

(Bằng số và bằng chữ)
Họ tên và chữ ký giám khảo 2:
*Ghi chú: - Học sinh làm bài trên đề thi và không ghi gì vào phần trên;
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.
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I. LISTENING (20 points)
The listening test has THREE parts. You will hear each part TWICE. At the beginning
of each part, you will have time to read the questions and at the end of each part, you
will have time to complete your answers.
Part 1 (6 points)
Questions 1-6
You will hear a boy called Josh talking to his class about a trip he recently went on.
For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Josh went to the Weather Center with his (1) ___________________.
Josh says the Center first reported strong winds in (2) ___________________.
The Center later put forecast in (3) ___________________ for everyone to see.
Lots of weather information now comes from (4) _________________, according to Josh.
Josh thinks people need to know how much (5) ___________________ there'll be.
Josh says that his local (6) __________________ always needs to know about the weather.
Part 2 (5 points)
Questions 7-11
You will hear part of an interview with a boy called Simon who is helping to protect
the environment. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B or C.
7. Simon enjoys taking his boat onto the River Stanton because
A. he knows many people who go there.
B. the speed of the water makes it exciting.
C. it is the closest river to his hometown.
8. Simon noticed that the river water
A. was going lower and lower.
B. was too dark to let him see the bottom.
C. was having a negative effect on him.
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9. Simon learned more about the problem with the river
A. by looking on the Internet.
B. by asking the people who owned the river.
C. by talking to his school teachers.
10. Why did Simon do a special course?
A. To join an organization that protects the river
B. To learn about the geography of the river
C. To be able to check the water quality of the river
11. Simon is pleased because
A. the company causing the problem closed.
B. he found a way to reduce the problem.
C. he discovered new plants that live in the river.
Part 3 (9 points)
Questions 12-15
Listen to a conversation between a foreign student and the accommodation secretary
of the college at which he has enrolled and complete the accommodation table.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
College Accommodation
Types of rooms Names of shared rooms What is not provided

Example: Example:
single room bathroom 15. ____________________
12. ____________________ 13. ____________________
14. ____________________
Questions 16-20
Listen to a conversation between a foreign student and the accommodation secretary
of the college at which he has enrolled and answer the questions 16-20.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
16. What kind of washing machines is there in the laundrettes?
__________________________________________________________________________
17. How often are the rooms cleaned in the college accommodation?
__________________________________________________________________________
18. Where can the students watch TV?
__________________________________________________________________________
19. What kind of housing arrangement provides breakfast and dinner?
__________________________________________________________________________
20. What kind of accommodation does the student sign up for?
__________________________________________________________________________
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II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (10 points)
Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that best completes each of
the following sentences.
1. Jane has just bought _______.
A. an impressive reddish French wood coffee table.
B. a reddish impressive wood French coffee table.
C. an impressive French wood reddish coffee table.
D. an impressive wood French reddish coffee table.
2. By 1820, there were over sixty steamboats on the Mississippi river, _______ were quite
luxurious.
A. which many B. many of them C. many of which D. many that
3. You should always have a good breakfast, _______ you run the risk of getting an ulcer.
A. in case B. or else C. so that D. unless
4. We _______ to the station because it turned out the train was delayed.
A. needn‟t rush B. needn't have rushed
C. mustn‟t have rushed D. mustn‟t rush
5. I didn‟t want to move abroad but Bill _______ me into it.
A. talked B. told C. said D. urged
6. Facebook is a great way to _______ in touch with your friends.
A. keep B. put C. make D. take
7. If you don‟t have an eye _______ detail, it‟s rather difficult to become an editor.
A. for B. at C. on D. with
8. He always did well at school in spite of having had his early education _______ by
illness.
A. interfered B. disrupted C. intervened D. collapsed
9. They are happily married although, of course, they argue _______.
A. up and about B. now and then
C. to and fro D. by and large
10. Having been asked to speak at the conference, _______.
A. some notes were prepared for Dr. Clark
B. where hundreds of leading experts attended
C. Dr. Clark prepared some notes
D. audiences were pleased to hear Dr. Clark
11. He opened the account with a(n) _______ to running up a healthy overdraft.
A. aim B. view C. purpose D. plan
12. _______ that Kim was getting married, we were sorry she‟d be leaving home.
A. Delighted though we were B. As we were delighted
C. However delighted were we D. So delighted we were
13. Have a piece of chocolate, _______?
A. do you B. won't you C. don‟t you D. haven‟t you
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14. I know you didn‟t want to upset me but I‟d sooner you _______ me the whole truth
yesterday.
A. could have told B. told
C. have told D. had told
15. I suggest the room _______ before Christmas.
A. be decorated B. is decorated
C. was decorated D. will be decorated
16. Researchers warn us that too much _______ to the sun can cause skin cancer.
A. exhibition B. exposure C. sunbath D. subjection
17. Annie: This computer program would be a great way to brush up on my English,
wouldn‟t it?
Tommy: _______ with your pronunciation.
A. What it can‟t do is help B. It was because it can‟t help
C. All it can‟t help is D. The thing that it can‟t help
18. This prestigious university _______ just over $2 million to nanotechnology research
recently.
A. says to allocate B. said to have allocated
C. is said to have allocated D. is said that they allocated
19. He still suffers from a rare tropical disease which he _______ while in Africa.
A. infected B. complained C. gained D. contracted
20. _______ Keith made in his attempt to catch the dog that he strained his back.
A. Such a great effort B. Such was the effort
C. So was the effort that D. So great effort
III. READING (25 points)

Part 1: Read the following passage, circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions. (5 points)
Because the low latitudes of the Earth, the areas near the equator, receive more heat
than the latitudes near the poles, and because the nature of heat is to expand and move, heat
is transported from the tropics to the middle and high latitudes. Some of this heat is moved
by winds and some by ocean currents, and some gets stored in the atmosphere in the form of
latent heat. The term “latent heat” refers to the energy that has to be used to convert liquid
water to water vapor. We know that if we warm a pan of water on a stove, it will evaporate,
or turn into vapor, faster than if it is allowed to sit at room temperature. We also know that
if we hang wet clothes outside in the summertime they will dry faster than in winter, when
temperatures are colder. The energy used in both cases to change liquid water to water
vapor is supplied by heat – supplied by the stove in the first case and by the Sun in the latter
case. This energy is not lost. It is stored in water vapor in the atmosphere as latent heat.
Eventually, the water stored as vapor in the atmosphere will condense to liquid again, and
the energy will be released to the atmosphere.
In the atmosphere, a large portion of the Sun‟s incoming energy is used to evaporate
water, primarily in the tropical oceans. Scientists have tried to quantify this proportion of
the Sun‟s energy. By analyzing temperature, water vapor, and wind data around the globe,
they have estimated the quantity to be about 90 watts per square meter, or nearly 30 percent
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of the Sun‟s energy. Once this latent heat is stored within the atmosphere, it can be
transported, primarily to higher latitudes, by prevailing, large-scale winds. Or it can be
transported vertically to higher levels in the atmosphere, where it forms clouds and
subsequent storms, which then release the energy back to the atmosphere.
1. The passage mainly discusses how heat
A. is transformed and transported in the Earth‟s atmosphere.
B. is transported by ocean currents.
C. can be measured and analyzed by scientists.
D. moves about the Earth‟s equator.
2. According to the passage, in which of the following ways do the tropics differ from the
Earth's polar regions?
A. The height of cloud formation in the atmosphere
B. The amount of heat they receive from the Sun
C. The strength of their large-scale winds
D. The strength of their oceanic currents
3. Why does the author mention “the stove” in paragraph 1?
A. To describe the heat of the Sun
B. To illustrate how water vapor is stored
C. To show how energy is stored
D. To give an example of a heat source
4. According to the passage, most ocean water evaporation occurs especially
A. around the higher latitudes.
B. in the tropics.
C. because of large-scale winds.
D. because of strong ocean currents.
5. According to the passage, 30 percent of the Sun‟s incoming energy
A. is stored in clouds in the lower latitudes.
B. is transported by ocean currents.
C. never leaves the upper atmosphere.
D. gets stored as latent heat.
Part 2: Read the following passage, circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (10 points)
FLORA AND FAUNA AT RISK
(0) ______ many leading zoologists and botanists have expressed their (1) ______ about
the preservation of endangered species, the current (2) ______ are that most of the measures
taken to protect these species against extinction have had only a limited effect.
From the (3) ______ of the sea to mountain slopes, tens of thousands of species have
become extinct in the past 300 years. (4) ______ these species thousands have died out even
before they have been discovered. It is no wonder then that many experts believe that
mankind has reached the (5) ______ of no return.
As well as hunting, the greatest threat to plants and animals is the destruction of
rainforests. On (6) ______, an area of forest the size of Switzerland is destroyed every two
and a half to three years. (7) ______, entire regions are cleared every month, which means
that animals have nothing to eat, birds have nowhere to (8) ______ and plants nowhere to
grow.
Page 5
Now CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species) has (9) ______
the responsibility of getting 800 species of animals and plants banned from international
trade and (10) ______ 23,000 placed under strict control. This is a step in the right direction,
but should CITES and other organisations fail, the howl of wolves and noises made by other
animals may only be heard on tape or CD in future.
0. A. Nevertheless B. However C. Despite D. Although
1. A. concern B. worry C. care D. bother
2. A. recommendations B. indications C. directions D. proposals
3. A. bed B. foot C. base D. bottom
4. A. From B. Between C. Within D. Among
5. A. site B. location C. spot D. point
6. A. average B. normal C. standard D. typical
7. A. In addition B. Consequently C. As a whole D. Even so
8. A. fly B. grow C. nest D. flock
9. A. turned down B. signed up C. taken on D. put off
10. A. other B. others C. another D. the other
Part 3: Read the following passage, think of the word which best fits each space. Use
only ONE word in each gap. There is an example at the beginning (0). (10 points)
The Hi-Tech Home
These days it is not always easy to tell the difference (0) between a piece of everyday
household equipment and a computer. And experts predict that this distinction will become
even harder to (1) ________________ as a whole range of new electronic household
appliances comes (2) ________________ the market.
Imagine, for example, a refrigerator that knows when you are out of eggs and orders
them for you from the supermarket. Or how would you like to have a television that is able
to search the channels for the (3) ________________ of programs you like, and then (4)
________________ them for you to watch at your leisure? And how about a heating system
that listens to the weather forecast and adjusts itself (5) ________________ preparation for
(6) ________________ changes are on the way?
This is (7) ________________ not the first time that you have heard predictions like
these. Futurists have been telling us for decades that technology is (8) ________________
to eliminate all kinds of household chores. But (9) ________________ many improvements
in individual areas, „whole-house control‟, whereby one integrated electronic system
controls all (10) ________________ of domestic life, has not really taken off. Two things
promise to change all that, however. One is the introduction of very powerful microchips
and the other is the spread of information about what is available, thanks to the Internet.
IV. WRITING (25 points)
Part 1: For each question, complete the second sentence in such a way that it is as
SIMILAR in meaning as possible to the original one. (5 points)
1. We couldn‟t relax until all the guests had gone home.
Only __________________________________________________________________.
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2. I did my best to arrive here on time.
I made ________________________________________________________________.
3. They recruited very few young applicants.
Hardly ________________________________________________________________.
4. The collision didn‟t damage my car much.
Not a great _____________________________________________________________.
5. When are the council going to do something about the city‟s traffic problems?
It‟s high time something __________________________________________________.
Part 2: For each question, complete the second sentence in such a way that it has the
CLOSEST meaning to the original one, using the WORD given. DO NOT
change this word. You must use between THREE AND FIVE WORDS,
including the word given. (5 points)
1. What the archaeologists discovered when they opened the tomb was amazing. (MADE)
The _________________________________ when they opened the tomb was amazing.
2. People are more interested in history than you might expect. (LESS)
You might _____________________________________________ interested in history.
3. For me, imagining what life must have been like then is just not possible. (QUITE)
I find it ____________________________________ what life must have been like then.
4. It‟s difficult for a poorly performing company to make a profit. (TURN)
If a company is performing poorly, it‟s difficult to __________________________ one.
5. The failure of the company was incredibly disappointing. (BITTERLY)
I ________________________________________________ the failure of the company.
Part 3: Write a short essay of about 250 words on the following topic. (15 points)
With the development of technology in education, will traditional classrooms
disappear in the future? What’s your opinion?
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OTTO CHANNEL – YOUR FRIEND IN STUDYING ENGLISH

Tổng Hợp 50 Đề Chuyên Anh &amp; HSG

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TỔNG HỢP

50 ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

HỖ TRỢ SELF - STUDY

Đã hướng dẫn giải chi tiết tại

❖ Hướng dẫn bộ giáo trình Destination B1, B2, C1&C2

Tài Liệu sưu tầm & tổng hợp

01 ĐỀ THI CHUYÊN ANH VÀO LỚP 10 Tp. HCM

02 ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC 30/4

03 ĐỀ THI VÀO CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN TẠI HCM & HÀ NỘI

3.1. Đề thi chuyên Anh _ trường Amstedam Hà Nội

04 MỘT SỐ ĐỀ THI NĂM 2019 – 2021

Otto Channel _ Chia sẻ kiến thức nâng bước thành công

06 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI

Otto Channel _ Chia sẻ kiến thức nâng bước thành công

PASS WITH MERIT

TÀI LIỆU KHÓA HỌC LIVE – VIP

7 Chuyên đề Recycling Advanced

Chuyên đề Olympic 30/4 (đề chính thức)

9 Giải đề thi Chuyên Anh chính thức

A. PHONETICS (10 POINTS)

B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 POINTS)

I. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence. (10 points)

1. My friend was (make)_____ (pay)_______ back the book.

1. A lot of toys encourage children’s_________. (imagine)

Otto Channel Trang 2

1. What is a good description for this text?

Otto Channel Trang 3

SAVING THE TIGER.

D. WRITING (25 POINTS)

Otto Channel Trang 5

ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH

OTTO CHANNEL – YOUR FRIENDS IN STUDYING ENGLISH

OTTO CHANNEL – YOUR FRIENDS IN STUDYING ENGLISH

OTTO CHANNEL – YOUR FRIENDS IN STUDYING ENGLISH

OTTO CHANNEL – YOUR FRIENDS IN STUDYING ENGLISH

OTTO CHANNEL – YOUR FRIENDS IN STUDYING ENGLISH

OTTO CHANNEL – YOUR FRIENDS IN STUDYING ENGLISH

OTTO CHANNEL – YOUR FRIENDS IN STUDYING ENGLISH

OTTO CHANNEL – YOUR FRIENDS IN STUDYING ENGLISH

OTTO CHANNEL – YOUR FRIENDS IN STUDYING ENGLISH

PART I: LISTENING - (Time for listening: 2’35 x 2 = 5’10) (15pts)

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

PART II: PRONUNCIATION, VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (35 points)

31. I didn’t think he would so well in that situation.

36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

PART III:READING COMPREHENSION (25 points)

PART IV: WRITING (25 poitns)

Questions 86-100: Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?

01. A. classical B. composer C. answer D. basic

06. A. obscure B. comfort C. reform D. suppose

OTTO CHANNEL – YOUR FRIENDS IN STUDYING ENGLISH

11.What is the main source of information about chimpanzees?

A. the research of Jane Goodail

12.What does the name of the toy chimpanzée refer to?

13. Which of the following is NOT true about Jane?

A. Jane was born in London.

14. What does “there” in Line 9 refer to?

A. Kenya B. Jane‘s hometown C. London D. London Zoo

15. Jane could not go to Africa because

16. After her graduation, Jane

17. Jane had to work as a waitress because she wanted to

OTTO CHANNEL – YOUR FRIENDS IN STUDYING ENGLISH

19.What does “they” in line 15 refer to?

A. Dr. Leakey and his wife

Tổng Hợp 50 Đề Chuyên Anh & HSG

Tổng Hợp 50 Đề Chuyên Anh & HSG

1. My friend was (make)_ (pay)___ back the book.