Professional Documents
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Surendra Dayal
Petitioner
v.
Respondents
Co-Respondents
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RULING
This is a motion by (i) the respondents and (ii) co-respondent No.6 to amend
their respective pleas to an election petition challenging the election of the respondents
in the last general election held on 7 November 2019. The petitioner is objecting to the
motion. Co-respondents Nos.3 to 5 are abiding by the decision of the Court and have
offered submissions in law.
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(c) they seek to create a new cause of action at a late stage bringing in new
and irrelevant issues;
(d) they are coming late in the day without any justification and therefore
cannot and should not be condoned by the Court, particularly as we are
dealing with an election petition which is matter of public interest
requiring celerity; and
At the hearing, learned Counsel for the petitioner informed the Court that he was
not pressing the grounds that the proposed amendments (a) purport to retract express
and tacit admissions contained in the existing pleas; and (b) amount to an abuse of
process. Learned Counsel otherwise submitted as per the above grounds of objection
and laid emphasis on the fact that the present case is an election petition which is “a
special breed” requiring celerity.
On the other hand, learned Counsel for the respondents and co-respondent No.6
submitted as follows: the Court has a wide discretion in deciding whether or not to grant
a motion for amendment of a pleading. The motion for amendment has been made
before the trial and in due time. The Court’s perspective is to determine the real
question in controversy and is not there to sanction a litigant in the absence of bad faith.
The proposed amended pleas do not seek to raise a new defence and only give more
particulars of the defence already raised. The petitioner will not suffer any prejudice if
the motion for amendment is granted.
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We have duly considered the submissions of all learned Counsel in the light of
the facts and circumstances on record.
With regard to the present motion, it is common ground that the relevant and
applicable provision of the law is rule 17 of the Supreme Court Rules 2000 (“the Rules”).
Rule 17(1) reads as follows:
(1) The Master May grant the amendment of any pleading and
the Court may at the hearing of a case grant an amendment of any
pleadings, in such manner and on such terms as may be just and
reasonable, for the purpose of determining the real question in
controversy between the parties.”
(1) Every pleading shall clearly and distinctly state all matters
of fact that are necessary to sustain the plaint, plea or counterclaim as the
case may be.”
The principles which may be culled from the above authorities are as follows:
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(b) the Court has a wide discretion to grant a motion to amend a pleading;
(c) the Court will exercise such discretion judiciously taking into account,
inter alia, the nature and purpose of the proposed amendment, the
stage of the proceedings, any bad faith of the party moving for the
amendment and any likely prejudice to the other party;
(d) the Court will more readily grant an amendment to a pleading before
the trial has started than at the trial or at a later stage;
(f) the Court is not here to punish a litigant for mistakes in the conduct of
his case which are not fraudulent or intended to overreach but to
decide the rights of the parties and the matters in controversy;
(i) if the proposed amendment is made mala fide, will cause undue delay,
or will unfairly prejudice the other party, is irrelevant or useless, or
would raise a merely technical point, leave to amend will be refused.
Turning to the other proposed amendments, it is averred in the petition that, prior
to and since the dissolution of the National Assembly and the issue of the writ of
election on 6 October 2019, the respondents and their agents and persons acting on
their behalf with their consent and knowledge had indulged in bribery, treating, undue
influence and other illegal practices contrary to sections 45(1)(a)(ii), 64(1)(a)(c)(d)(f)(g),
(2)(a) and/or 65(1) of the Representation of the People Act (“the Act”) in order to
corruptly procure, promote and/or influence the respondents’ election in constituency
No.8.
Paragraph 16 of the petition sets out the particulars of the alleged acts of bribery,
treating and undue influence. Paragraph 7 of the respondents’ original plea was a
general denial of paragraph 16(I)(a) to (o) of the petition. They now seek to replace the
said paragraph 7 by paragraphs 8 (sic) to 23 of the PAP.
Paragraph 16(I)(a) to (o) of the petition comes under the heading “I. Substantial
increase in basic retirement pension”. It avers in essence as follows: there was a
public announcement on 1 October 2019 by respondent No.1, who was the Prime
Minister and also the Minister of Finance, at a very targeted gathering of old-age
pensioners at the Swami Vivekananda International Convention Centre (“the SVICC”)
that there would be an increase in basic retirement pension during his (eventual) next
mandate as Prime Minister, which was substantially more than the increase already
provided for in his 2019-2020 budget speech and in the Appropriation (2019-2020)
Act 2019. The respondents were striking a deal with old-age pensioners in return for
their votes. The proposed increased payment was made deliberately and purposely
engineered with a corrupt motive, designed to procure votes, in order to ensure the
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Moreover, every pleading must clearly and distinctly state all matters of fact
which are necessary to sustain a plaint, plea or counterclaim (rule 13(1) (supra)).
Where a defendant wishes to raise a specific defence or an affirmative case in defence
to a claim, there is a need for the defendant to plead accordingly. This basic principle of
pleading was reiterated in Cassim v United Bus Service Co Ltd [1988 MR 61] where
the Court referred, with approval, to the Supreme Court Practice 1982 Vol. 1,
Order 18, rule 8 which provides as follows:
“This Rule enforces one of the cardinal principles of the present system
of pleading, viz. that every defence or reply must plead specifically any
matter which makes the claim or defence in the preceding pleading not
maintainable or which might take the opposite party by surprise or raises
issues of fact not arising out of the preceding pleading. Put shortly,
wherever a party has a special ground of defence or raises an affirmative
case to destroy a claim or defence, as the case may be, he must
specifically plead the matter he relies on for such purpose.
………
We are of the view that the respondents are, in paragraphs 8 to 23 of the PAP,
pleading a specific defence and setting up an affirmative case with detailed particulars
in reply to the petitioner’s claim that they have bribed old age pensioners in return for
their votes by proposing an increase in basic retirement pension. The other parties
are being informed of the case for the respondents on this issue so that they are not
taken by surprise at the trial. It will be in the interests of justice to allow the
respondents to amend their plea as per paragraphs 8 to 23 of the PAP as it will no
doubt help to identify and narrow down issues and to resolve the real issue in
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controversy.
We are aware that we are dealing with an election petition, where celerity is of
the essence. The chronology of events shows that, in keeping with this requirement for
celerity, the respondents filed their original plea on 29 December 2020, i.e. during the
court vacation. They moved for amendment of their plea by way of letter dated
1 March 2021, i.e. 2 months later. In a letter dated the same day, the petitioner’s
attorney objected to the PAP. On 5 March 2021, the Court fixed the case for arguments
on 16 and 17 March 2021 on the respondents’ motion to amend their plea, whereas the
case had originally been fixed for merits to 16 March 2021 (de die in diem). The case
could not be called on these latter dates due to the national sanitary confinement
imposed on account of the COVID-19 pandemic.
On 6 May 2021, the case was called anew and co-respondent No.6 moved to file
a second amended plea. The case was fixed for arguments on the motion of the
respondents and co-respondent No.6 to amend their respective pleas, to which the
petitioner objected, on 17 and 18 May 2021. On 17 May 2021, learned Counsel for the
petitioner raised a preliminary objection on the procedure adopted by the respondents
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and co-respondent No.6 for amending their respective pleas. The Court heard
arguments on the preliminary objection on the same day and delivered an interlocutory
judgment on the next day. The matter was then fixed for arguments on the motion to
amend the pleas to 31 May and 1 June 2021.
The above preliminary issues have certainly caused some delay, which could
have been dispensed with given that this is an election petition. We, however, note that
the respondents’ motion to amend their plea was made some 2 months after filing their
original plea, which cannot be said to be an unconscionable delay. Nor is there any
allegation that they are acting in bad faith or fraudulently. Moreover, the trial has not yet
started and stands fixed to 28 June 2021 for merits (de die in diem). Evidence has not
yet been adduced and witnesses have not been called. It is well settled that the Court
will more readily grant an amendment to a pleading before trial than at the trial. If need
be, the parties will be able to exchange further pleadings in the meantime.
In the light of the above facts and circumstances, we find that we may exercise
our discretion in favour of allowing the amendments prayed for at paragraphs 8 to 23 of
the respondents’ PAP. We are of the view that the amendments may be granted
without causing any prejudice to the petitioner.
employees to vote for him and the other applicants in constituency No.8. There was no
cogent argument or urgency put forward by respondent No.1 to justify this promise to
disburse additional funds in favour of more than 80,000 public sector employees who
represent over 10% of the whole voting population. This was clearly a deliberate act of
exchanging valuable consideration for the votes of public officers, thereby amounting to
bribery.
The respondents are now seeking to plead a specific defence and set up an
affirmative case with detailed particulars in reply to the petitioner’s claim. It will be in the
interests of justice to allow the respondents to amend their plea as it will no doubt help
to identify and narrow down issues and to resolve the real issue in controversy. The
delay in making the motion for amendment cannot be said to be unconscionable. There
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is no allegation that the respondents are acting in bad faith or fraudulently. Moreover,
as already indicated, the trial has not yet started and stands fixed to 28 June 2021 for
merits (de die in diem). Evidence has not yet been adduced and witnesses have not
been called. If need be, the parties may exchange further pleadings in the meantime.
We are also of the view that the amendments will not cause any prejudice to the
petitioner.
We, accordingly, grant the respondents’ motion to amend their plea as per
paragraphs 24 to 28 of the PAP.
For the same reasons as those given to allow the amendments as per
paragraphs 8 to 23 and 24 to 28 of the respondents’ PAP, we shall allow the
amendments contained in paragraphs 29 to 36 of the respondents’ PAP.
Paragraph 16(IV)(a) and (b) of the petition avers that there was a public
announcement of the payment of a one-off performance bonus to police officers,
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firemen and prison officers. Such payment was neither provided for in the Appropriation
(2019-2020) Act 2019 nor mentioned in the budget speech 2019-2020. The only aim of
such a promise was to induce members of disciplined forces and their families to vote
for l’Alliance Morisien of respondent No.1 by the use of public funds.
Paragraph 16(V)(a) to (d) of the petition avers as follows: there was distribution
of food and refreshments to old-age pensioners at the gathering held at the SVICC on
1 October 2019. The gathering was allegedly sponsored by the Ministry of Social
Security but the whole exercise was in fact engineered to allow respondent No.1, as
Prime Minister, to announce the planned increase in basic retirement pension. The
mass feeding of potential voters was tantamount to treating and contrary to
section 64(2)(a) of the Act.
Paragraphs 40 to 44 of the respondents’ PAP are to the effect that the event was
organised by the Ministry of Social Security and that the respondents were guests and
not involved in its organisation and the distribution of food. The respondents deny
having committed an act of treating.
Nevertheless, on 5 November 2019, i.e. 2 days before the general election, the
MBC allocated prime airtime during its French news bulletin to Mr Dulthumun who
benefitted from the patronage of respondent No.1 and made a direct communal appeal
to the Hindu community in an attempt to create a divide between the Hindu and Muslim
communities, thereby deflecting the votes of the Hindus in favour of l’Alliance Morisien.
On the other hand, the MBC refused airtime to Mr Ramdhean, president of the Mauritius
Sanathan Dharma Temple Federation, to rebut the allegations of Mr Dulthumun.
It is the petitioner’s contention that the misuse of the MBC, with the blessing and
concurrence of respondent No.1, amounted to undue influence, thereby affecting the
integrity of the general election to the detriment of the petitioner.
the MBC by the respondents. The amendments contained in those paragraphs are
allowed for the same reasons pertaining to the other amendments of the respondents’
plea.
The remaining paragraphs of the respondents’ PAP (50 to 54) pose no difficulty
as they are merely a repetition of the averments and denials already contained in the
original plea and a correction of a few typos. They are accordingly allowed.
Co-respondent No.6 (the MBC) had already been granted leave to amend its
plea due to the omission of one of the parties in the heading of the plea. It now seeks
leave to amend its plea for a second time. Its second proposed amended plea dated
6 May 2021 (“the 2nd PAP”) is reproduced at Annex II to this ruling.
As already stated above, paragraph 16(Vl)(a) to (f) of the petition centres on the
role of co-respondent No.6 before and during the general election and its alleged
misuse by the respondents. The essential averments of paragraph 16(Vl)(a) to (f) have
already been set out above.
True it is that co-respondent No.6 left it rather late to move to amend its plea a
second time on 6 May 2021, taking into account that we are here dealing with an
election petition requiring celerity. We, however, note that the motion for amendment
was made on the very day there was a substitution of attorney and appearance of a new
leading Counsel for co-respondent No.6. Moreover, as stated above, the Courts are not
here to punish a litigant for mistakes in the conduct of his case but to decide the rights
of the parties and the matters in controversy. Co-respondent No.6 is in fact seeking to
give further particulars of its defence, which are not inconsistent with its original plea.
There is no allegation that the motion of co-respondent No.6 to amend its plea is
of bad faith or fraudulent. As already stated, the trial has not yet started and stands
fixed to 28 June 2021 for merits (de die in diem). Evidence has not yet been adduced
and witnesses have not yet been heard. The parties will have time to exchange further
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pleadings, if need be. We find that the amendments prayed for by co-respondent No.6
will not cause any prejudice to the petitioner.
With regard to paragraph 16(I)(g) of the petition, co-respondent No.6 takes issue
with the averment that it “trumpeted” the announcement of increase in basic retirement
pension by respondent No.1 at the SVICC. At paragraph 4 of the 2nd PAP,
co-respondent No.6 now avers that the said announcement was a matter of public
interest and was widely broadcast by public and private radios and published in
newspapers and on social media platforms.
For the same reasons applicable to paragraphs 7 to 12 of the 2nd PAP, we have
no difficulty in allowing the amendments contained in paragraph 4 of the 2nd PAP, the
more so that they are in fact only giving further and better particulars of the version of
co-respondent No.6.
Final conclusions
It goes without saying that we are not, at this juncture, making any determination
regarding the merits of the case for the petitioner, the respondents or
co-respondent No.6. It will be incumbent on the parties to establish the averments in
their pleadings and on the Court to determine the real question in controversy in the
light of the evidence adduced by all the parties, the real question being whether the
election of the respondents should be avoided by reason of bribery, treating, undue
influence or illegal practice.
The proposed amendments contained in the 2 PAPs have the merit of pleading a
specific defence or an affirmative case in defence to the petition or giving further and
better particulars, which are not inconsistent with the original pleas. They will help in
narrowing down issues and in determining the real issues in controversy, so that the
parties know the case that they have to meet.
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For the above reasons, we overrule the objection of the petitioner and we shall
exercise our discretion to allow the respondents and co-respondent No.6 to amend their
respective pleas. The matter will be mentioned on 15 June 2021 at 10.00 a.m. for:
(i) the respondents to file an amended plea as per their PAP dated
1 March 2021;
(ii) co-respondent No.6 to file a second amended plea as per its 2nd PAP
dated 6 May 2021; and
(iii) the parties, if need be, to exchange further pleadings, bearing in mind
that there is a need for celerity and that the case stands fixed to
28 June 2021 for merits (de die in diem).
K. D. Gunesh-Balaghee
Judge
8 June 2021
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ANNEX I
7. The Respondents No.1, 2 and 3 deny Paragraph 16 (I) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e),
(f), (g), (h), (i), (j), (k), (l), (m), (n) and (o) and put the Petitioner to the
proof thereof.
9. Save and except that provision was made for payments of Basic
Retirement Pensions with reference to the Government Programme,
the Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 deny sub paragraph 16 (1) (c) of the
Petition and aver that in Law a new expenditure can be provided for
and an expenditure can be increased.
10. The Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 aver that following the advent of the
Covid-19 pandemic upon analysis of its economic consequences,
Government has decided to suspend temporarily the payments to
compensate increase in inflation for relevant beneficiaries, including
pensioners.
11. The Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 deny sub paragraphs 16 (I) (d) and
(e) of the Petition and aver that:
12. Save and except that the Respondent No.1 was invited as the guest
of honour for that event in his capacity as Prime Minister, the
Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 deny sub paragraph 16 (I) (f) of the
Petition, and aver that the Respondent No 1 addressed the general
welfare of the older population, the achievements of the government
of the day and the measures that he would recommend for
implementation upon re-election to sustain the enhancement of the
standard and quality of living of the elderly.
13. The Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 deny : (a) inducing old age
pensioners to vote for them, (b) preying mercilessly and cynically on
the minds of old age pensioners and (c) tainting the electoral
process.
(a) the event did receive wide publicity as is the case every year
for that occasion;
(e) after the 2019 elections, the Alliance Morisien honoured and is
still honouring its commitments made through its electoral
manifesto by implementing the undertakings contained in the
said electoral manifesto concerning payment of pensions and
other social benefits, subject to the imperatives caused by the
Covid 19 pandemic.
15. The Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 deny sub paragraph 16 (I) (h) of the
Petition and put the Petitioner to the proof thereof. The Government
Information Service has the duty of informing the public of matters
and measures of importance.
16. Save and except that the Honourable Deputy Prime Minister
announced an increase in the Basic Retirement Pension to the sum
of Rs. 9,000, the Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 deny that with respect
to sub paragraph 16 (I) (i), there was any act of bribery, treating,
undue influence or illegal practice contrary to Law in the statement
of the Honourable Deputy Prime Minister.
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17. The Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 deny that the averments contained
in sub paragraph 16(I) (j) of the Petition amount to bribery, treating,
undue influence or illegal practice contrary to Law.
(c) the electoral manifesto of the Alliance Morisien for the 2019
elections is an extension of that proposed measure in 2014
and catered for a betterment of other allowances; and
20. Save and except that the Respondent No 1 made a statement in the
National Assembly on the 21st of November 2019 concerning
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21. Save that it is admitted that that Mr Prem Seebaruth was the
President of the Senior Citizens Council and that he gave an
interview to l'express, the Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 deny the
averments of sub paragraph 16 (I) (n) of the Petition. Mr Prem
Seebaruth stated in his interview to l'express amongst others that
"Nous, les personnes âgées, sommes assez intelligentes. Personne
ne peut nous acheter. Je suis triste d'entendre des gens dire que
nous sommes des vendus de la politique. Ce n'est pas vrai. Cela m'a
causé des préjudices quand on m'a dit que je vais voter ainsi. Je ne
peux vendre mon âme ni ma conscience".
23. The Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 aver that the Constitution allows for
the appropriation and or supplementary appropriation for the
expenditure of any economic and or financial measure that the
Government of the Day and or the House regularly adopts and or
approves. There is no limitation in terms of calendar for such
appropriation and or supplementary appropriation.
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PRB REPORT
8. The Respondents No.1, 2 and 3 deny Paragraph 16(II) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e),
(f) and put the Petitioner to the proof thereof.
24. The Respondents No. 1, 2 and 3 admit paragraph 16 (II) (a), (b), (c) of
the Petition.
(b) one of these measures was that the next PRB report "prendra
effet" as from January 2020 instead of January 2021;
(c) this is not the first time that the date of publication and/or the
effective date of the PRB report and/or the date of applicability
of the PRB report is altered;
(d) the delay to publish the PRB report every five years is often
not complied with; and
26. In further answer to the averments of sub paragraph 16 (II) (d) of the
Petition the Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 deny taking any person by
surprise. They further deny any inducement towards more than 80
000 public sector employees in Mauritius and public sector
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9. The Respondents No. 1, 2 and 3 deny Paragraph 16 (III) (a), (b), (c), (d),
(e), (f), (g), (h), (i), (j) and (k) and put the Petitioner to the proof thereof.
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29. In answer to the averments of sub paragraphs 16 (III) (a) and (b) of
the Petition, the Respondents Nos. 1, 2 and 3 aver that policy
holders and investors who had not been refunded in toto held a
hunger strike.
30. Discussions were held with the relevant policy holders and investors
and or their representatives. The National Property Fund Limited
came forward with a reimbursement scheme.
32. Save and except that the Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 are not aware
of the status of the cases in court, the Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3
take note that the Petitioner himself has been informed of the
averments he makes at sub paragraphs 16 (III) (c) of the Petition,
deny the remaining averments of sub paragraph 16 (III) (c) of the
Petition and put the Petitioner to proof thereof.
33. The Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 are not aware of the averments of
sub paragraphs 16 (III) (d) and (e) of the Petition. They did not attend
a meeting which they were not aware of.
35. In answer to the averments of sub paragraphs 16 (III) (i) and (j) of the
Petition the Respondents No. 1, 2 and 3 aver that the press and the
media can publish and broadcast articles for which the latter take
responsibility.
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38. The Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 deny inducing any person to vote
for them and deny that they acted in any way as to cause their
respective election to be invalidated.
39. The Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 aver that any appropriation has
been regularly done.
11. The Respondents No. 1, 2 and 3 deny paragraph 16 (V) (a), (b), (c) and
(d) and put the Petitioner to the proof thereof
40. Save that the Respondents Nos. 1, 2 and 3 are aware and therefore
admit that the Ministry of Social Security organised for the
distribution of food and refreshments to participants of the event,
the Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 make no admission with regard to
the averments contained in sub paragraph 16 (V) (a) of the Petition
and more especially deny that they were involved in that distribution.
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42. The Respondents No. 1, 2 and 3 deny each and every averment
contained in sub paragraph 16 (V) (c) of the Petition and reiterate
that this event was organised by the Ministry of Social Security.
43. The Respondents Nos. 1, 2 and 3 deny each and every averment
contained in sub paragraph 16 (V) (d) of the Petition and more
especially deny : (a) that they were involved in the organisation of
that event, (b) that they committed an act of treating and that (c) they
acted contrary to section 64(2)(a) of the Representation of People
Act.
THE MBC
12. The Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 deny paragraphs 16 (VI) (a), (b), (c), (d),
(e) and (f) and put the Petitioner to proof thereof.
47. Save and except that the Co-Respondent No.4 issued a communiqué,
the Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 make no admission with regard to
the averments contained in sub paragraph 16 (VI) (c) of the Petition
which concern Co-Respondent no. 6. The Respondents Nos 1, 2 and
3 aver that they have no control over the reports or news items
which Co-Respondent no. 6 broadcasts.
13. The Respondent’s No. 1, 2 and 3 deny the content of paragraphs 17, 18
and consequently 19 and put the petitioner to the proof thereof.
49. The Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 deny any act of undue influence.
50. The Respondents Nos. 1, 2 and 3 deny each and every averment and
allegation contained in paragraphs 17 and 18 of the Petition. The
Respondents No. 1, 2 and 3 deny any illegal and corrupt manoeuvres,
bribery, treating, undue influence, illegal practice and irregularity.
The Respondents Nos 1, 2 and 3 deny that their election should be
avoided.
51. The Respondents Nos. 1, 2 and 3 aver that the political party the Alliance
Nationale published a document purporting to be “a programme
governmental” including but not exclusive of the following promises:
52. The Petitioner has failed to show how the alleged act or acts of treating,
distributing of food and drinks did not form part of the usual activities of
the relevant ministry or ministries.
53. The Petitioner has failed to show how each Respondent committed the
alleged prohibited acts.
54. The Respondents Nos. 1, 2 and 3 move that the petition be dismissed as
it is based on unreasonable, baseless, invalid, false, irrelevant and
inadequate grounds.
With costs,
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ANNEX II
(i) Its services had not been abused by any person and especially not
by the Respondent Nos. 1, 2 and 3;
(c) the Petitioner did not join any of the private radio stations,
daily and weekly newspapers and social media users referred
to in Paragraph 16 l (g), which had broadcast and published
the said announcement, as a party to the Petition.
7. Save and except that the Co-Respondent No.6 falls under the aegis
of the Prime Minister's Office, paragraph 16 VI (a) of the Petition is
denied and the Petitioner is put to the proof thereof. The Co-
Respondent No.6 avers that: -
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(b) the Respondent No.1 has, neither by himself nor through his
alleged appointees, interfered in any manner whatsoever with
the contents of its prime-time news bulletins broadcast before
and during the Elections;
(e) the said Secretary did not reply to the Co-Respondent No.6;
[Emphasis added.]
(g) it was not the first time that Mr. Patrick Assirvaden had
publicly adopted a hostile attitude towards the Co-Respondent
No.6. On 1st May 2019, i.e., before the dissolution of the
National Assembly, Mr. Patrick Assirvaden had stated the
following:
[Emphasis added.];
(h) the staff of the Co-Respondent No.6, who were covering the
said meetings, were humiliated by the aforesaid hostile
attitude and feared for their safety whereas their expensive
equipment were at risk;
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(j) the Co-Respondent No.6 did not receive any reply to this letter
as well.
(i) This news item had already been in the public domain by other
parties;
(ii) That the subject-matter was the news item of public interest.
9. Save that there was a communiqué dated 29th October 2019, Co-
Respondent No.6 denies paragraph 16 VI (c) of the Petition and puts
Petitioner to the proof thereof and avers that it did not express personal
opinion but related the fact "au conditonnel". Co-Respondent No. 6
further avers that a reading of the communique also shows that:-
10. Save that the Co-Respondent No. 6 has the duty to broadcast news items
of importance, Co-Respondent No. 6 denies Paragraph 16 VI (d) of the
Petition and puts the Petitioner to the proof thereof.
11. Co-Respondent No. 6 denies paragraph 16 VI (e) of the Petition, puts the
Petitioner to the proof thereof and avers that it is not aware that it has
refused news coverage to one Mr. Ranjendra Ramdhean. The Co-
Respondent No. 6 did not receive any official request from the said Mr.
Rajendra Ramdhean for a news coverage request.
(a) on 6th November 2019, i.e., on the eve of the Elections, the
said Rajendra Ramdhean convened the Co-Respondent No.6
for a press conference at 11.30 hours;
(g) in fact, on the 6th November 2019, the Petitioner's leader was
at the office of the Co-Respondent No.6 from around 09 00
hours to 14 00 hours, for the recording of his last political
party election broadcast. Had he felt aggrieved by the said
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12. Co-Respondent No. 6 denies Paragraph 16 VI (f) of the Petition, puts the
Petitioner to the proof thereof and avers that there was no misuse of Co-
Respondent No. 6 by any person reiterates the above averments.
14. Co-Respondent No. 6 therefore moves that the Petition be set aside with
costs.