Inference

Q.
1 Which of the following values is used as a summary measure for a sample, such as a
sample mean?
(A) Population parameter
(B) Sample parameter
(C) Sample statistic
(D) Population mean
Answer: C
Q.2 Which of the following is a branch of statistics?
(A) Applied statistics
(B) Mathematical statistics
(C) Industry statistics
(D) Both A and B
Answer: D
Q.3 The control charts and procedures of descriptive statistics which are used to enhance a
procedure can be classified into which of these categories?
(A) Behavioural tools
(B) Serial tools
(C) Industry statistics
(D) Statistical tools
Answer: A
Q.4 Which of the following can also be represented as sample statistics?
(A) Lowercase Greek letters
(B) Roman letters
(C) Associated Roman alphabets
(D) Uppercase Greek letters
Answer: B
Q.5 To which of the following options do individual respondents, focus groups, and panels of
respondents belong?
A) Primary data sources
B) Secondary data sources
C) Itemised data sources
D) Pointed data sources
Answer: A
Q.6 What are the variables whose calculation is done according to the weight, height, and
length known as?
(A) Flowchart variables
(B) Discrete variables
(C) Continuous variables
(D) Measuring variables
Answer: C
Q.7 Which method used to examine inflation rate anticipation, unemployment rate, and
capacity utilisation to produce products?
(A) Data exporting technique
(B) Data importing technique
(C) Forecasting technique
(D) Data supplying technique
Answer: C
Q.8 Specialised processes such as graphical and numerical methods are utilised in which of
the following?
(A) Education statistics
(B) Descriptive statistics
(C) Business statistics
(D) Social statistics
Answer: B
Q.9 What is the scale applied in statistics, which imparts a difference of magnitude and
proportions, is considered as?
(A) Exponential scale
(B) Goodness scale
(C) Ratio scale
(D) Satisfactory scale
Answer: C
Q.10 Review of performance appraisal, labour turnover rates, planning of incentives, and
training programs are the examples of which of the following?
(A) Statistics in production
(B) Statistics in marketing
(C) Statistics in finance
(D) Statistics in personnel management
Answer: D
1. Which of the following is the explanatory variable in this study?
a. Exercise
b. Lung capacity
c. Smoking or not
d. Occupation
2. Which of the following is a confounding variable in this study?
a. Exercise
b. Lung capacity
c. Smoking or not
d. Occupation
This scenario applies to Questions 3 to 5: A randomized experiment was done by randomly
assigning each participant either to walk for half an hour three times a week or to sit quietly
reading a book for half an hour three times a week. At the end of a year the change in
participants' blood pressure over the year was measured, and the change was compared for the
two groups.
3. This is a randomized experiment rather than an observational study because:
a. Blood pressure was measured at the beginning and end of the study.
b. The two groups were compared at the end of the study.
c. The participants were randomly assigned to either walk or read, rather than choosing
their own activity.
d. A random sample of participants was used.
4. The two treatments in this study were:
a. Walking for half an hour three times a week and reading a book for half an hour three
times a week.
b. Having blood pressure measured at the beginning of the study and having blood pressure
measured at the end of the study.
c. Walking or reading a book for half an hour three times a week and having blood pressure
measured.
d. Walking or reading a book for half an hour three times a week and doing nothing.
Scenario for Questions 3 to 5, continued
5. If a statistically significant difference in blood pressure change at the end of a year for the
two activities was found, then:
a. It cannot be concluded that the difference in activity caused a difference in the change in
blood pressure because in the course of a year there are lots of possible confounding
variables.
b. Whether or not the difference was caused by the difference in activity depends on what
else the participants did during the year.
c. It cannot be concluded that the difference in activity caused a difference in the change in
blood pressure because it might be the opposite, that people with high blood pressure
were more likely to read a book than to walk.
d. It can be concluded that the difference in activity caused a difference in the change in
blood pressure because of the way the study was done.
6. What is one of the distinctions between a population parameter and a sample statistic?
a. A population parameter is only based on conceptual measurements, but a sample statistic
is based on a combination of real and conceptual measurements.
b. A sample statistic changes each time you try to measure it, but a population parameter
remains fixed.
c. A population parameter changes each time you try to measure it, but a sample statistic
remains fixed across samples.
d. The true value of a sample statistic can never be known but the true value of a population
parameter can be known.
7. A magazine printed a survey in its monthly issue and asked readers to fill it out and send it
in. Over 1000 readers did so. This type of sample is called
a. a cluster sample.
b. a self-selected sample.
c. a stratified sample.
d. a simple random sample.
8. Which of the following would be most likely to produce selection bias in a survey?
a. Using questions with biased wording.
b. Only receiving responses from half of the people in the sample.
c. Conducting interviews by telephone instead of in person.
d. Using a random sample of students at a university to estimate the proportion of people
who think the legal drinking age should be lowered.
9. Which one of the following variables is not categorical?
a. Age of a person.
b. Gender of a person: male or female.
c. Choice on a test item: true or false.
d. Marital status of a person (single, married, divorced, other)
10. A polling agency conducted a survey of 100 doctors on the question “Are you willing to treat
women patients with the recently approved pill RU-486”? The conservative margin of error
associated with the 95% confidence interval for the percent who say 'yes' is
a. 50%
b. 10%
c. 5%
d. 2%
11. Which one of these statistics is unaffected by outliers?
a. Mean
b. Interquartile range
c. Standard deviation
d. Range
12. A list of 5 pulse rates is: 70, 64, 80, 74, 92. What is the median for this list?
a. 74
b. 76
c. 77
d. 80
13. Which of the following would indicate that a dataset is not bell-shaped?
a. The range is equal to 5 standard deviations.

b. The range is larger than the interquartile range.
c. The mean is much smaller than the median.
d. There are no outliers.
14. A scatter plot of number of teachers and number of people with college degrees for cities in
California reveals a positive association. The most likely explanation for this positive
association is:
a. Teachers encourage people to get college degrees, so an increase in the number of
teachers is causing an increase in the number of people with college degrees.
b. Larger cities tend to have both more teachers and more people with college degrees, so
the association is explained by a third variable, the size of the city.
c. Teaching is a common profession for people with college degrees, so an increase in the
number of people with college degrees causes an increase in the number of teachers.
d. Cities with higher incomes tend to have more teachers and more people going to college,
so income is a confounding variable, making causation between number of teachers and
number of people with college degrees difficult to prove.
15. The value of a correlation is reported by a researcher to be r = −0.5. Which of the following
statements is correct?
a. The x-variable explains 25% of the variability in the y-variable.
b. The x-variable explains −25% of the variability in the y-variable.
c. The x-variable explains 50% of the variability in the y-variable.
d. The x-variable explains −50% of the variability in the y-variable.
16. What is the effect of an outlier on the value of a correlation coefficient?
a. An outlier will always decrease a correlation coefficient.
b. An outlier will always increase a correlation coefficient.
c. An outlier might either decrease or increase a correlation coefficient, depending on
where it is in relation to the other points.
d. An outlier will have no effect on a correlation coefficient.
17. One use of a regression line is
a. to determine if any x-values are outliers.

b. to determine if any y-values are outliers.
c. to determine if a change in x causes a change in y.
d. to estimate the change in y for a one-unit change in x.
18. Past data has shown that the regression line relating the final exam score and the midterm
exam score for students who take statistics from a certain professor is:
final exam = 50 + 0.5 × midterm
One interpretation of the slope is
a. a student who scored 0 on the midterm would be predicted to score 50 on the final exam.
b. a student who scored 0 on the final exam would be predicted to score 50 on the midterm
exam.
c. a student who scored 10 points higher than another student on the midterm would be
predicted to score 5 points higher than the other student on the final exam.
d. students only receive half as much credit (.5) for a correct answer on the final exam
compared to a correct answer on the midterm exam.
Questions 19 to 21: A survey asked people how often they exceed speed limits. The data are
then categorized into the following contingency table of counts showing the relationship between
age group and response.
Exceed Limit if Possible?
Age Always Not Always Total
Under 30 100 100 200
Over 30 40 160 200
Total 140 260 400
19. Among people with age over 30, what's the "risk" of always exceeding the speed limit?
a. 0.20
b. 0.40
c. 0.33
d. 0.50
20. Among people with age under 30 what are the odds that they always exceed the speed limit?
a. 1 to 2
b. 2 to 1
c. 1 to 1
d. 50%
21. What is the relative risk of always exceeding the speed limit for people under 30 compared to
people over 30?
a. 2.5
b. 0.4
c. 0.5
d. 30%
Questions 22 and 23: A newspaper article reported that "Children who routinely compete in
vigorous after-school sports on smoggy days are three times more likely to get asthma than their
non-athletic peers." (Sacramento Bee, Feb 1, 2002, p. A1)
22. Of the following, which is the most important additional information that would be useful
before making a decision about participation in school sports?
a. Where was the study conducted?
b. How many students in the study participated in after-school sports?
c. What is the baseline risk for getting asthma?
d. Who funded the study?
23. The newspaper also reported that "The number of children in the study who contracted
asthma was relatively small, 265 of 3,535." Which of the following is represented by
265/3535 = .075?
a. The overall risk of getting asthma for the children in this study.
b. The baseline risk of getting asthma for the “non-athletic peers” in the study.
c. The risk of getting asthma for children in the study who participated in sports.
d. The relative risk of getting asthma for children who routinely participate in vigorous
after-school sports on smoggy days and their non-athletic peers.
Questions 24 to 26: The following histogram shows the distribution of the difference between
the actual and “ideal” weights for 119 female students. Notice that percent is given on the
vertical axis. Ideal weights are responses to the question “What is your ideal weight”? The
difference = actual −ideal. (Source: idealwtwomen dataset on CD.)
24. What is the approximate shape of the distribution?
a. Nearly symmetric.
b. Skewed to the left.
c. Skewed to the right.
d. Bimodal (has more than one peak).
25. The median of the distribution is approximately
a. −10 pounds.
b. 10 pounds.
c. 30 pounds.
d. 50 pounds.
26. Most of the women in this sample felt that their actual weight was
a. about the same as their ideal weight.
b. less than their ideal weight.
c. greater than their ideal weight.
d. no more than 2 pounds different from their ideal weight.
27. A chi-square test of the relationship between personal perception of emotional health and
marital status led to rejection of the null hypothesis, indicating that there is a relationship
between these two variables. One conclusion that can be drawn is:
a. Marriage leads to better emotional health.
b. Better emotional health leads to marriage.
c. The more emotionally healthy someone is, the more likely they are to be married.
d. There are likely to be confounding variables related to both emotional health and
marital status.
28. A chi-square test involves a set of counts called “expected counts.” What are the expected
counts?
a. Hypothetical counts that would occur of the alternative hypothesis were true.
b. Hypothetical counts that would occur if the null hypothesis were true.
c. The actual counts that did occur in the observed data.
d. The long-run counts that would be expected if the observed counts are representative.
29. Pick the choice that best completes the following sentence. If a relationship between two
variables is called statistically significant, it means the investigators think the variables are
a. related in the population represented by the sample.
b. not related in the population represented by the sample.
c. related in the sample due to chance alone.
d. very important.
30. Simpson's Paradox occurs when
a. No baseline risk is given, so it is not know whether or not a high relative risk has
practical importance.
b. A confounding variable rather than the explanatory variable is responsible for a change in
the response variable.
c. The direction of the relationship between two variables changes when the categories of
a confounding variable are taken into account.
d. The results of a test are statistically significant but are really due to chance.
1. Given IQ scores are approximately normally distributed with a mean of 100 and standard
deviation of 15, the proportion of people with IQs above 130 is:
a. 95%
b. 68%
c. 5%
d. 2.5%
2. Randomly assigning treatment to experimental units allows:
a. population inference
b. causal inference
c. both types of inference
d. neither type of inference
3. Failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false is:
a. alpha
b. Type I error
c. beta
d. Type II error
4. A parameter is:
a. a sample characteristic
b. a population characteristic
c. unknown
d. normal normally distributed
5. A statistic is:
c. unknown
d. normally distributed
6. Observational studies allow:
b. causal inference
7. A national random sample of 20 ACT scores from 2010 is listed below. Calculate the sample
mean and standard deviation.
29, 26, 13, 23, 23, 25, 17, 22, 17, 19, 12, 26, 30, 30, 18, 14, 12, 26, 17, 18
a. 20.50, 5.79
b. 20.50, 5.94
c. 20.85, 5.79
d. 20.85, 5.94
8. Provided that the ACT is reasonably normally distributed with a mean of 18 and standard
deviation of 6, determine the proportion of students with a 33 or higher.
a. 0.0062
b. 0.0109
c. 0.0124
d. 0.0217
9. Using the data in question 7, calculate the 95% confidence interval for the mean ACT score based
on the t-distribution.
a. -∞ to 23.05
b. -∞ to 23.15
c. 18.07 to 23.63
d. 18.22 to 23.48
10. Using the data in question 7, calculate number of observations that are two or more sample
standard deviations from the sample mean.
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
11. The data in question 7 appears to be reasonably symmetric.
a. True
b. False
12. When asked questions concerning personal hygiene, people commonly lie. This is an example of:
a. sampling bias
b. confounding
c. non-response bias
d. response bias
13. Select the order of sampling schemes from best to worst.
a. simple random, stratified, convenience
b. simple random, convenience, stratified
c. stratified, simple random, convenience
d. stratified, convenience, simple random
14. The histogram above represents the lifespan of a random sample of a particular type of insect.
Determine the relationship between the mean and median.
a. mean = median
b. mean ≈ median
c. mean < median
d. mean > median
15. When the correlation coefficient, r, is close to one:
a. there is no relationship between the two variables
b. there is a strong linear relationship between the two variables
c. it is impossible to tell if there is a relationship between the two variables
d. the slope of the regression line will be close to one
16. Given the following data pairs (x, y), find the regression equation.
(1, 1.24), (2, 5.23), (3, 7.24), (4, 7.60), (5, 9.97), (6, 14.31), (7, 13.99), (8, 14.88),
(9, 18.04), (10, 20.70)
a. y = 0.490 x - 0.053
b. y = 2.04 x
c. y = 1.98 x + 0.436
d. y = 0.49 x
17. Using the data from 16, calculate the correlation coefficient.
a. r = 0.490
b. r = 0.985
c. r = 0.971
d. r = 0.240
18. The coefficient of determination for 16 is strong.
a. true
b. false
days
Frequency
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
0 10 20 30 40
19. Using the data from 16, obtain a prediction for x = 4.5.
a. 2.15
b. 2.21
c. 9.18
d. 9.34
20. The data in the scatterplot above would have a correlation coefficient that is close to:
a. –1.0
b. –0.5
c. +1.0
d. +0.5
21. The intercept in linear regression represents:
a. the strength of the relationship between x and y
b. the expected x value when y is zero
c. the expected y value when x is zero
d. a population parameter
22. Calculate the mean number of children per family for the sample from the following table.
Number of children Number of families

08
1 16
2 22
3 14
46
54
62
a. 1.91
b. 2.47
c. 3.14
d. 2.19
-1.0 -0.5 0.0 0.5 1.0
-1.0 -0.5 0.0 0.5 1.0
23. Using the table from 22, calculate the standard deviation.
a. 1.46
b. 1.45
c. 2.10
d. 2.17
24. In 1923, Babe Ruth had 522 at bats with 205 hits. Assuming that the binomial distribution can be
appropriately applied, find the expected number of hits in 529 at bats.
a. 321
b. 186
c. 230
d. 208
25. The distribution of heights of American women aged 18 to 24 is approximately normally
distributed with a mean of 65.5 inches and standard deviation of 2.5 inches. Calculate the z-score
for a woman six feet tall.

a. 2.60
b. 4.11
c. 1.04
d. 1.33
1. Let [Math Processing Error] be independently and identically distributed random variables, satisfying
[Math Processing Error]. Let N be an integer-valued random variable whose value n depends only on the
values of the first n [Math Processing Error]s. Suppose [Math Processing Error], then [Math Processing
Error] is called
1. Independence Equation
2. Neyman Pearson Lemma
3. Sequential Probability Likelihood Equation
4. Wald’s Equation
2. [Math Processing Error], where [Math Processing Error] is an unbiased estimator of [Math Processing
Error]. Then above inequality is called
Cauchy Schwarz Inequality
Bool’s Inequality
Chebyshev’s Inequality
Cramer Rao Inequality
3. Which of the following assumptions are required to show the consistency, unbiasedness, and
efficiency of the OLS estimator?
i. $E(\mu_t)=0$
ii. $Var(\mu_t)=\sigma^2$
iii. $Cov(\mu_t,\mu_{t-j})=0;t\neq t-j$
iv. $\mu_t \sim N(0,\sigma^2)$
(ii) and (iv) only
(i) and (iii) only
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
4. A set of jointly sufficient statistics is defined to be minimal sufficient if and only if
It is a function of every other set of sufficient statistics
It is not a function of every other set of sufficient statistics
It is a function of some other set of sufficient statistics

It is a function of any sufficient statistics in the set
5. A test is said to be the most powerful test of size [Math Processing Error], if
Among all other tests of size [Math Processing Error] or greater it has the largest [Math Processing
Error]
Among all other tests of size [Math Processing Error] or less, it has the largest power
Among all other tests of size [Math Processing Error] or greater it has the larger 1-[Math Processing
Error]
Among all other tests of size [Math Processing Error] or greater, it has the smallest power
6. In statistical inference, the best asymptotically normal estimator is denoted by
BAN
CANE
BANE
A) and B)
7. For a biased estimator $\hat{\theta}$ of $\theta$, which one is correct
 $ MSE(\hat{\theta})=SD(\hat{\theta}) + Bias $
 $ MSE(\hat{\theta})=Var(\hat{\theta}) + Bias^2 $
 $ MSE(\hat{\theta})=Var(\hat{\theta}) + Bias $
 $ MSE(\hat{\theta})=SD(\hat{\theta}) + Bias^2 $
8. If $f(x_1,x_2,\cdots,x_n;\theta)=g(\hat{\theta};\theta)h(x_1,x_2,\cdots,x_n)$, then
$\hat{\theta}$ is
Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
Consistent
9. For two estimators [Math Processing Error] and [Math Processing Error] then estimator [Math
Processing Error] is defined to be [Math Processing Error] for all [Math Processing Error] in [Math
Processing Error]
Admissible Estimator
Sufficient Estimator
Consistent Estimator
Minimax Estimator
10. Let [Math Processing Error] be a random sample from the density [Math Processing Error], where
[Math Processing Error] may be vector. If the conditional distribution of [Math Processing Error] given
[Math Processing Error] does not depend on [Math Processing Error] for any value of [Math Processing
Error] of [Math Processing Error], then statistic is called.
Minimax Statistics
Efficient
Sufficient Statistic
Minimal Sufficient Statistic
11. If the conditional distribution of [Math Processing Error] given [Math Processing Error], does not
depend on [Math Processing Error], for any value of [Math Processing Error], the statistics [Math
Processing Error] is called
Unbiased
Consistent
Sufficient
Efficient
12. If [Math Processing Error], then [Math Processing Error] is said to be
Unbiased
Sufficient
Efficient
Consistent
13. If [Math Processing Error], then [Math Processing Error] is
Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
Consistent
14. If [Math Processing Error] as [Math Processing Error], then [Math Processing Error] is said to be
Unbiased
Sufficient
Efficient
Consistent
15. Let [Math Processing Error] be a random sample from a density [Math Processing Error], where
[Math Processing Error] is a value of the random variable [Math Processing Error] with known density
[Math Processing Error]. Then the estimator [Math Processing Error] with respect to the prior [Math
Processing Error] is defined as [Math Processing Error] is called
Minimax Estimator
Posterior Bay’s Estimator
Bay’s Estimator
16. Let [Math Processing Error] be the likelihood function for a sample [Math Processing Error] having
joint density [Math Processing Error] where ? belong to parameter space. Then a test defined as [Math
Processing Error]
Generalized Likelihood Ratio test
Most Powerful Uniformly Test
Monotone Likelihood Ratio Test
Unbiased Test
17. If [Math Processing Error] is the joint density of n random variables, say, [Math Processing Error]
which is considered to be a function of [Math Processing Error]. Then [Math Processing Error] is called
Maximum Likelihood function
Likelihood Function
Log Function
Marginal Function
1. To test the randomness of a sample, the appropriate test is:
Run Test
Sign Test
Median Test
Page’s Test
2. By the method of moments one can estimate:
All Constants of a Population

Only Mean and Variance of a Distribution
All Moments of a Population Distribution
All of the Above
3. Most of the Non-Parametric methods utilize measurements on:
Interval Scale
Ratio Scale
Ordinal Scale
Nominal Scale
4. Homogeneity of several variances can be tested by:
Bartlett’s Test
Fisher’s Exact Test
F-test
t-test
5. Parameters are those constants which occur in:
Samples
Probability Density Functions
A Formula
None of these
6. The set of equations obtained in the process of least square estimation are called:
Normal Equations
Intrinsic Equations
Simultaneous Equations
All of the Above
7. If the sample average x¯¯¯x¯ is an estimate of the population mean μμ,
then x¯¯¯x¯ is:
Unbiased and Efficient
Unbiased and Inefficient
Biased and Efficient
Biased and Inefficient
8. Equality of several normal population means can be tested by:
Bartlett’s Test
F-test
χ2χ2-test
t-test
9. Power of test is related to:
Type-I Error
Type-II Error
Type-I and Type-II Error Both
None of the Above
10. Roa-Blackwell Theorem enables us to obtain minimum variance unbiased estimator
through:
Unbiased Estimators
Complete Statistics
Efficient Statistics
Sufficient Statistics
11. For a particular hypothesis test, α=0.05α=0.05, and β=0.10β=0.10. The power of
this test is:
0.15
0.90
0.85
0.95
12. For an estimator to be consistent, the unbiasedness of the estimator is:
Necessary
Sufficient
Neither Necessary nor Sufficient
None of these
13. When the null hypothesis is accepted, it is possible that:
A correct Decision has been Made

A Type-II Error has been Made
Both (A) and (B) have Occurred
Neither (A) nor (B) has Occurred
14. Sample median as an estimator of the population mean is always
Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
None of These
15. An estimator TnTn is said to be a sufficient statistic for a parameter
function τ(θ)τ(θ) if it contained all the information which is contained in the
Population
Parametric Function τ(θ)τ(θ)
Sample
None of these
16. The sign test assumes that the:
Samples are Independent
Samples are Dependent

Samples have the Same Mean
None of These
17. Crammer-Rao inequality is valid in case of:
Upper Bound on the Variance

Lower Bound on the Variance
The Asymptotic Variance of an Estimator
None of these
18. With a lower significance level, the probability of rejecting a null hypothesis that is
actually true:
Decreases
Remains the Same
Increases
All of the Above
1. If Var(θ^)→0Var(θ^)→0 as n→0n→0, then θ^θ^ is said to be

Unbiased
Sufficient
Efficient
Consistent
2. If X1,X2,⋯,XnX1,X2,⋯,Xn is the joint density of n random variables,
say, f(X1,X2,⋯,Xn;θ)f(X1,X2,⋯,Xn;θ) which is considered to be a function of θθ.
Then L(θ;X1,X2,⋯,Xn)L(θ;X1,X2,⋯,Xn) is called
Likelihood Function
Log Function
Marginal Function
3. If the conditional distribution of X1,X2,⋯,XnX1,X2,⋯,Xn given S=sS=s, does not
depend on θθ, for any value of S=sS=s, the
statistics S=s(X1,X2,⋯,Xn)S=s(X1,X2,⋯,Xn) is called
Unbiased
Consistent
Sufficient
Efficient
4. Varθ(T)≥[τ′(θ)]2nE[∂∂θlogf((X;θ)2]Varθ(T)≥[τ′(θ)]2nE[∂∂θlogf((X;θ)2],
where T=t(X1,X2,⋯,Xn)T=t(X1,X2,⋯,Xn) is an unbiased estimator of τ(θ)τ(θ). Then
above inequality is called
Bool’s Inequality
5. Let X1,X2,⋯,XnX1,X2,⋯,Xn be a random sample from the density f(x;θ)f(x;θ),
where θθ may be vector. If the conditional distribution
of X1,X2,⋯,XnX1,X2,⋯,Xn given S=sS=s does not depend on θθ for any value
of ss of SS, then statistic is called.
Minimax Statistics
Efficient
6. For a biased estimator θ^θ^ of θθ, which one is correct
MSE(θ^)=SD(θ^)+BiasMSE(θ^)=SD(θ^)+Bias
MSE(θ^)=Var(θ^)+Bias2MSE(θ^)=Var(θ^)+Bias2
MSE(θ^)=Var(θ^)+BiasMSE(θ^)=Var(θ^)+Bias
MSE(θ^)=SD(θ^)+Bias2MSE(θ^)=SD(θ^)+Bias2
BAN
CANE
BANE
A) and B)
8. If f(x1,x2,⋯,xn;θ)=g(θ^;θ)h(x1,x2,⋯,xn)f(x1,x2,⋯,xn;θ)=g(θ^;θ)h(x1,x2,⋯,xn),
then θ^θ^ is
Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
Consistent
9. Let X1,X2,⋯,XnX1,X2,⋯,Xn be a random sample from a density f(x|θ)f(x|θ),
where θθ is a value of the random variable ΘΘ with known density gΘ(θ)gΘ(θ). Then
the estimator τ(θ)τ(θ) with respect to the prior gΘ(θ)gΘ(θ) is defined
as E[τ(θ)|X1,X2,⋯,Xn]E[τ(θ)|X1,X2,⋯,Xn] is called
Minimax Estimator
Bay’s Estimator

11. A test is said to be the most powerful test of size αα, if
Among all other tests of size αα or greater it has the largest ββ
Among all other tests of size αα or less, it has the largest power
Among all other tests of size αα or greater it has the larger 1-αα
Among all other tests of size αα or greater, it has the smallest power
12. Let L(θ;X1,X2,⋯,Xn)L(θ;X1,X2,⋯,Xn) be the likelihood function for a
sample X1,X2,⋯,XnX1,X2,⋯,Xn having joint
density f(x1,x2,⋯,xn;θ)f(x1,x2,⋯,xn;θ) where ? belong to parameter space. Then a
test defined
as λ=λn=λ(x1,x2,⋯,xn)=SupθεΘ0 L(θ;x1,x2,⋯,xn)SupθεΘL(θ;x1,x2,⋯,xn)λ=λn=λ(x1,x2,⋯,xn)=Sup
θεΘ0L(θ;x1,x2,⋯,xn)SupθεΘL(θ;x1,x2,⋯,xn)
Unbiased Test
13. For two
estimators T1=t1(X1,X2,⋯,Xn)T1=t1(X1,X2,⋯,Xn) and T2=t2(X1,X2,⋯,Xn)T2=t2(X1
,X2,⋯,Xn) then estimator t1t1 is defined to be Rt1(θ)≤Rt2(θ)Rt1(θ)≤Rt2(θ) for
all θθ in ΘΘ
Minimax Estimator
14. If Var(T2)<Var(T1)Var(T2)<Var(T1), then T2T2 is
Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
Consistent
15. If E(θ^)=θE(θ^)=θ, then θ^θ^ is said to be
Unbiased
Sufficient
Efficient
Consistent
16. Let Z1,Z2,⋯,ZnZ1,Z2,⋯,Zn be independently and identically distributed random
variables, satisfying E[|Zt|]<∞E[|Zt|]<∞. Let N be an integer-valued random variable
whose value n depends only on the values of the first n ZiZis.
Suppose E(N)<∞E(N)<∞,
then E(Z1+Z2+⋯+Zn)=E(N)E(Zi)E(Z1+Z2+⋯+Zn)=E(N)E(Zi) is called
Independence Equation
Neyman Pearson Lemma
Sequential Probability Likelihood Equation
Wald’s Equation
17. Which of the following assumptions are required to show the consistency,
unbiasedness, and efficiency of the OLS estimator?
i. E(μt)=0E(μt)=0
ii. Var(μt)=σ2Var(μt)=σ2
iii. Cov(μt,μt−j)=0;t≠t−jCov(μt,μt−j)=0;t≠t−j
iv. μt∼N(0,σ2)μt∼N(0,σ2)
(ii) and (iv) only

(i) and (iii) only
Error] is called
Bool’s Inequality
i. $E(\mu_t)=0$
(ii) and (iv) only
(i) and (iii) only

Error]
Error]
BAN
CANE
BANE
A) and B)
$\hat{\theta}$ is
Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
Consistent
Processing Error]
Minimax Estimator
Minimax Statistics
Efficient
Unbiased
Consistent
Sufficient
Efficient
Unbiased
Sufficient
Efficient
Consistent
Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
Consistent
Unbiased
Sufficient
Efficient
Consistent
Minimax Estimator
Bay’s Estimator
Processing Error]
Unbiased Test
Likelihood Function
Log Function
Marginal Function
Run Test
Sign Test
Median Test
Page’s Test

All of the Above
Interval Scale
Ratio Scale
Ordinal Scale
Nominal Scale
Bartlett’s Test
F-test
t-test
Samples
A Formula
None of these
Normal Equations
Intrinsic Equations
All of the Above
then x¯¯¯x¯ is:
Bartlett’s Test
F-test
χ2χ2-test
t-test
Type-I Error
Type-II Error
None of the Above
through:
Unbiased Estimators
Complete Statistics
this test is:
0.15
0.90
0.85
0.95
Necessary
Sufficient
None of these

Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
None of These
Population
Sample
None of these

None of These

None of these
actually true:
Decreases
Remains the Same
Increases
All of the Above

Unbiased
Sufficient
Efficient
Consistent
Likelihood Function
Log Function
Marginal Function
Unbiased
Consistent
Sufficient
Efficient
Bool’s Inequality
Minimax Statistics
Efficient
BAN
CANE
BANE
A) and B)
then θ^θ^ is
Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
Consistent
Minimax Estimator
Bay’s Estimator

test defined
Unbiased Test
13. For two
all θθ in ΘΘ
Minimax Estimator
Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
Consistent
Unbiased
Sufficient
Efficient
Consistent
Wald’s Equation
i. E(μt)=0E(μt)=0
(ii) and (iv) only

(i) and (iii) only
1. A numerical value used as a summary measure for a sample, such as a sample mean, is known
as a
A) Population Parameter
B) Sample Parameter
C) Sample Statistic
D) Population Mean
Answer: C
2. Statistics branches include
A) Applied Statistics
B) Mathematical Statistics
C) Industry Statistics
D) Both A and B
Answer: D
3. To enhance a procedure the control charts and procedures of descriptive statistics are classified
into
A) Behavioural Tools
B) Serial Tools
D) Statistical Tools
Answer: A
4. Sample statistics are also represented as
A) Lower Case Greek Letter
B) Roman Letters
C) Associated Roman Alphabets
D) Upper Case Greek Letter
Answer: B
5. Individual respondents, focus groups, and panels of respondents are categorised as
A) Primary Data Sources
B) Secondary Data Sources
C) Itemised Data Sources
D) Pointed Data Sources
Answer: A
6. The variables whose calculation is done according to the weight, height and length and weight are
known as:
A) Flowchart Variables
B) Discrete Variables
C) Continuous Variables
D) Measuring Variables
Answer: C
7. A method used to examine inflation rate anticipation, unemployment rate and capacity utilisation
to produce products is classified as
A) Data Exporting Technique
B) Data Importing Technique
C) Forecasting Technique
D) Data Supplying Technique
Answer: C
8. Graphical and numerical methods are specialized processes utilised in
A) Education Statistics
B) Descriptive Statistics
C) Business Statistics
D) Social Statistics
Answer: B
9. The scale applied in statistics which imparts a difference of magnitude and proportions is
considered as
A) Exponential Scale
B) Goodness Scale
C) Ratio Scale
D) Satisfactory Scale
Answer: C
10. Review of performance appraisal, labour turnover rates, planning of incentives and training
programs and are examples of
A) Statistics in Production
B) Statistics in Marketing
C) Statistics in Finance
D) Statistics in Personnel Management
Answer: D
Which of the following is the probability calculus of beliefs, given that beliefs follow certain rules?
a) Bayesian probability
b) Frequency probability
c) Frequency inference
d) Bayesian inference
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Data scientists tend to fall within shades of gray of these and various other schools of
inference.
2. Point out the correct statement.
a) Bayesian inference is the use of Bayesian probability representation of beliefs to perform inference
b) NULL is the standard missing data marker used in S
c) Frequency inference is the use of Bayesian probability representation of beliefs to perform inference
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Frequency probability is the long run proportion of times an event occurs in independent,
identically distributed repetitions.
3. Which of the following can be considered as random variable?
a) The outcome from the roll of a die
b) The outcome of flip of a coin
c) The outcome of exam
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The probability distribution of a discrete random variable is a list of probabilities associated
with each of its possible values.
4. Which of the following random variable that take on only a countable number of possibilities?
a) Discrete
b) Non Discrete
c) Continuous
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Continuous random variable can take any value on some subset of the real line.
5. Point out the wrong statement.
a) A random variable is a numerical outcome of an experiment
b) There are three types of random variable
c) Continuous random variable can take any value on the real line
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two types of random variable-continuous and discrete.
6. Which of the following is also referred to as random variable?
a) stochast
b) aleatory
c) eliette
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Random variable is also known as stochastic variable.
7. Bayesian inference uses frequency interpretations of probabilities to control error rates.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Frequency inference uses frequency interpretations of probabilities to control error rates.
8. Which of the following condition should be satisfied by function for pmf?
a) The sum of all of the possible values is 1
b) The sum of all of the possible values is 0
c) The sum of all of the possible values is infinite
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A probability mass function evaluated at a value corresponds to the probability that a
random variable takes that value.
9. Which of the following function is associated with a continuous random variable?
a) pdf
b) pmv
c) pmf
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: pdf stands for probability density function.
10. Statistical inference is the process of drawing formal conclusions from data.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Statistical inference requires navigating the set of assumptions and tools
A sample from the population does not have to share the same characteristics as the
population
a) True
b) False
Question 2
Probability sampling is based on various random selection principles
a) True
b) False
Question 3
With the non-probability sampling methods you do not know the likelihood that any element
of a population will be selected in a sample
a) True
b) False
Question 4
A method of using samples to estimate population parameters is known as

a) Statistical interference
b) Statistical inference
c) Statistical appliance
Question 5
The mean of the sample means is
a) A biased estimator of the population

b) An unbiased estimator of the population mean
c) Neither biased nor unbiased
A sampling frame is:
a) A summary of the various stages involved in designing a survey

b) An outline view of all the main clusters of units in a sample
c) A list of all the units in the population from which a sample will be
selected
d) A wooden frame used to display tables of random numbers
Question 2
A simple random sample is one in which:
a) From a random starting point, every nth unit from the sampling frame is
selected
b) A non-probability strategy is used, making the results difficult to
generalize
c) The researcher has a certain quota of respondents to fill for various social
groups
d) Every unit of the population has an equal chance of being selected
Question 3
It is helpful to use a multi-stage cluster sample when:

a) The population is widely dispersed geographically
b) You have limited time and money available for travelling
c) You want to use a probability sample in order to generalise the results
d) All of the above
Question 4
The standard error is a statistical measure of:
a) The normal distribution of scores around the sample mean

b) The extent to which a sample mean is likely to differ from the population
mean
c) The clustering of scores at each end of a survey scale
d) The degree to which a sample has been accurately stratified
Question 5
What effect does increasing the sample size have upon the sampling error?
a) It reduces the sampling error

b) It increases the sampling error
c) It has no effect on the sampling error
d) None of the above
Question 6
Which of the following is not a type of non-probability sampling?

a) Snowball sampling
b) Stratified random sampling
c) Quota sampling
d) Convenience sampling
Question 7
Snowball sampling can help the researcher to:

a) Access deviant or hidden populations
b) Theorise inductively in a qualitative study
c) Overcome the problem of not having an accessible sampling frame
d) All of the above
Question 8
Which of the following is not a characteristic of quota sampling?

a) The researcher chooses who to approach and so might bias the sample
b) Those who are available to be surveyed in public places are unlikely to
constitute a representative sample
c) The random selection of units makes it possible to calculate the standard
error
1. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. When an interval estimate is associated with a degree of confidence that it actually includes the
population parameter of interest, it is referred to as a confidence interval
b. If the population mean and population standard deviation are both known, one can make
probability statements about individual x values taken from the population
c. If the population mean and population standard deviation are both known, one can use the central
limit theorem and make probability statements about the means of samples taken from the
population
d. If the population mean is unknown, one can use sample data as the basis from which to make
probability statements about the true (but unknown) value of the population mean
e. when sample data are used for estimating a population mean, sampling error will not be present
since the observed sample statistic will not differ from the actual value of the population parameter
Answer: E
2. Inferential statistics is the:
a. process of using a population parameter to estimate the values for sample statistics
b. process of using sample statistics to estimate population parameters
c. process which allows the researcher to determine the exact values for population parameters
d. process that eliminates the problem of sampling error
e. branch of statistics involving using population parameters to estimate sampling distributions
Answer: B
12/15/2020 Statistics MCQs – Estimation Part 1- Examrace
https://www.examrace.com/Sample-Objective-Questions/Statistics-Questions/Estimation-Part-1.html
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3. Which of the following statements are correct?
a. a point estimate is an estimate of the range of a population parameter
b. a point estimate is an unbiased estimator if its standard deviation is the same as the actual value of
the population standard deviation
c. a point estimate is a single value estimate of the value of a population parameter
d. all of the above statements are correct
e. none of the above statements are correct
Answer: C
4. A point estimator is defined as:
a. the average of the sample values
b. the average of the population values
c. a single value that is the best estimate of an unknown population parameter
d. a single value that is the best estimate of an unknown sample statistic
e. a number which can be used to estimate a point in time which is unknown
Answer: C
5. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a. an interval estimate is an estimate of the range of possible values for a population parameter
b. an interval estimate describes a range of values that is likely not to include the actual population
parameter
c. an interval estimate is an estimate of the range for a sample statistic
d. all of the statements above are correct
e. none of the statements above are correct
Answer: A
6. A confidence interval is defined as:
a. a point estimate plus or minus a specific level of confidence
b. a lower and upper confidence limit associated with a specific level of confidence
c. an interval that has a 95% probability of containing the population parameter
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d. a lower and upper confidence limit that has a 95% probability of containing the population
parameter
e. an interval used to infer something about an unknown sample statistic value
Answer: B
7. The term 1 – α refers to the:
a. probability that a confidence interval does not contain the population parameter
b. the level of confidence minus one
c. the level of confidence
d. the level of confidence plus one
e. the level of significance
Answer: C
8. A 95% confidence interval for the population mean is calculated to be 75.29 to 81.45. If the
confidence level is reduced to 90%, the confidence interval will:
a. become narrower
b. remain the same
c. become wider
d. double in size
e. most likely no longer include the true value of the population mean
Answer: A
confidence level is increased to 98%, the confidence interval will:
a. become narrower
b. remain the same
c. become wider
d. double in size
e. most likely no longer include the true value of the population mean
Answer: C
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10. In the formula for the confidence interval, zα/2 is part of the formula. What does the subscript α/2
refer to?
a. the level of confidence
b. the level of significance
c. the probability that the confidence interval will contain the population mean
d. the probability that the confidence interval will not contain the population mean
e. the area in the lower tail or upper tail of the sampling distribution of the sample mean
Answer: E
11. Which of the statements below completes the following statement correctly? The larger the level of
confidence used in constructing a confidence interval estimate of the population mean, the:
a. smaller the probability that the confidence interval will contain the population mean
b. the smaller the value of zα/2
c. the narrower the confidence interval
d. the wider the confidence interval
e. the more the width of the confidence interval remains the same
Answer: D
12. Which one of the statements below is correct?
a. If n, the sample size, increases, the confidence interval becomes wider
b. A 90% confidence interval for the population mean is narrower than a 95% confidence interval for
the population mean
c. As the population standard deviation increases, the confidence interval becomes narrower
d. If α = 0.01, it implies that we are 1% confident that the population mean will lie between the
confidence limits
e. none of the above statements is correct
Answer: B
13. The boundaries of a confidence interval are called:
a. Confidence levels
b. The test statistics
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c. The degrees of confidence
d. The confidence limits
e. Significance levels
Answer: D
14. What value of z would you use to calculate the 80% confidence interval for a population mean,
given that you know the population standard deviation, the sample size and the sample mean of your
sample?
a. z = 1.96
b. z = 2.58
c. z = 0.84
d. z = 1.28
e. z = 1.645
Answer: D
15. Which of the following statements is false with regards to the width of a confidence interval?
a. The sample mean from which the interval is constructed is located half way between the
boundaries of the confidence interval
b. The width of the interval increases when the sample size is decreased
c. The width of the interval decreases when the significance level is increased
d. The width of the interval decreases when the sample mean is decreased
e. The width of the interval increases when the confidence level is increased
Answer: D
16. After constructing a confidence interval estimate for a population mean, you believe that the
interval is useless because it is too wide. In order to correct this problem, you need to:
a. Increase the population standard deviation
b. Increase the sample size
c. Increase the level of confidence
d. Increase the sample mean
e. Decrease the sample size

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Answer: B
17. The problem with relying on a point estimate of a population parameter is that the point estimate
a. has no variance
b. might be unbiased
c. might not be relatively efficient
d. does not tell us how close or far the point estimate might be from the parameter
e. may not be consistent
Answer: D
18. A federal auditor for nationally chartered banks from a random sample of 100 accounts found
that the average demand deposit balance at the First National Bank of a small town was R549.82. If
the auditor needed a point estimate for the population mean for all accounts at this bank, what would
she use?
a. The average of R549.82 for this sample.
b. The average of R54.98 for this sample.
c. There is no acceptable value available.
d. She would survey the total of all accounts and determine the mean.
e. The mean would be impossible to calculate without further information
Answer: A
a. If the significance level is equal to 0.1, it implies that we are 10% confident that the population
mean will lie between the confidence limits
b. If the sample size increases the confidence interval becomes wider
d. A 90% confidence interval for the population mean is narrower than a 95% confidence interval for
the population mean
e. Increasing the significance level increases the width of the confidence interval
Answer: D
20. Sand is packed into bags which are then weighed on scales. It is known that if full bags of sand are
intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a
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mean μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.36kg. A particular bag of sand was weighed four times and
the weight recorded each time was different. The sample mean weight was recorded as 34.7kg. What
is a 95% confidence interval for the true weight of the full bag of sand?
a. 34.35 to 35.05kg
b. 35.85 to 36.55kg
c. 34.21 to 35.19kg
d. 34.48 to 34.92kg
e. 37.75 to 38.45kg
Answer: A
If X is a r.v. having a binomial distribution, then we have that P(1 ≤ X < 3) is equal to:
(A) F(3) − F(1)
(B) P(X ≤ 2) + P(X ≤ 1)
(C) All false
(D) P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)
(E) F(2) − F(0)
Questions 3 to 5 refer to the following exercise:
In a specific Civil Service examination, the probability that a candidate passes the exam is equal to
0.2.
We assume independence between candidates.
3. If 15 of those examinations are graded, the probability that more than 2 candidates pass the exam
is:
(A) 0.6020 (B) 0.3980 (C) 0.2309 (D) 0.8647 (E) 1
4. In the same set of 15 of those examinations, what will be the mean passing number of
examinations?
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 5 (E) 3
5. If we have a total of 300 of those examinations, what will be the approximate probability that as
much
as 53 candidates pass it?
(A) 0.8264 (B) 0.1587 (C) 0.8413 (D) 0.1736 (E) 1
Let X1, X2 and X3 be three independent random variables variables having normal distributions with
means equal to −2, 2 and 0, and variances equal to 4, 9 and 1, respectively.
6. The probability that the random variable W =
(X1 + 2)2
+ (X3)
takes on values smaller than 2.77 is:
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.90 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.75 (E) 0.10
7. The probability that the random variable Y =
√
2(X2 − 2)
(A) 0.20 (B) 0.90 (C) 0.05 (D) 0.95 (E) 0.10
8. The probability that the random variable Y
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.95 (C) 0.99 (D) 0.90 (E) 0.01
9. If we have a Poisson distribution with parameter λ, where we know that P(1) = 0.334695 and that
P(2) = 0.251021, then the value of the parameter λ is:
(A) 1.5 (B) 2 (C) 2.5 (D) 1 (E) 0.5
– 0.2 –
10. Let X and Y be independent r.v. having each an exponential distribution with parameter λ =
. The
distribution of the r.v. Z = X + Y is:
(A) γ(1, 1) (B) exp(λ = 1) (C) All false (D) exp(λ =
) (E) χ
Questions 11 and 12 refer to the following exercise:
Let X be a r.v. with probability mass function given by:
P(X = −2) = 3θ
P(X = 0) = 3θ
2
P(X = 2) = 1 − 3θ
In order to estimate the parameter θ, a r.s. of size n, X1, . . . , Xn has been taken.
11. The method of moments estimator of θ is:
(A) X (B) 1 − X
(C) 2 − X
(D) 9
2−X
(E) 1
12. In order to be able to obtain an estimate of the parameter θ, a r.s. of size n = 8 has been taken
providing
the following results: -2, -2, -2, -2, 0, 0, 2, 2. The maximum likelihood estimate of θ is equal to:
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.42 (C) 0.28 (D) 2.40 (E) 2.00
Let X be a r.v. with probability density function given by:
f(x) = (θ + 2) x
−(θ+3), x > 1, θ > 0,
and X1, . . . , Xn be a r.s. of size n from this distribution. We know that the mean of this r.v. is m =
θ+2
θ+1 .
13. The method of moments estimator of the parameter θ is:
(A) ¡
X−2
(B) ¡
2−X
(C) ³
X−2
1−X
(D) ³
X−2
1+X
(E) All false
14. The maximum likelihood estimator of the parameter θ is:
(A) n−1
ln(
QXi)
(B) n
ln(
QkXi)
(C) All false
(D) −n
ln(
QXi)
(E) n
ln(
QXi)
−2
Let X1, . . . , Xn (n > 3) be a r.s. from a population having a Poisson distribution with parameter λ. In
order to estimate the parameter λ, we consider the two estimators:
λb1 =
X1 + X2 + . . . + Xn
= X and λb2 =
3X1 + X2 + . . . + Xn
n+2
15. Are they unbiased estimators of λ?
(A) Only λˆ
2 (B) Both of them (C) Only λˆ
1 (D) None of them (E) -
16. Are they consistent estimators of λ?
(A) Only λˆ
1 (B) Both of them (C) - (D) None of them (E) Only λˆ
– 0.3 –
17. If we know that the Cramer-Rao lower bound for a regular and unbiased estimator of λ is Lc =
, is any
of the aforementioned estimators an efficient one?
(A) Only λˆ
18. Which one of them has smaller variance?
(A) λˆ
1 (B) Both of them have the same variance (C) -
(D) It depends on the sample values (E) λˆ
Let X be a random variable having a normal distribution with variance equal to 49. To test the null
hypothesis that the mean is equal to 5, a r.s. of 16 observaciones has been taken. In order to be able
to
carry out the test, we consider the following critical region for the sample mean, CR = (1.29, 8.71)C
19. The significance level for this test is:
(A) 0.068 (B) 0.017 (C) 0.034 (D) 0.966 (E) 0.983
20. The power of the test for a mean value m1 = 5.315 is:
(A) 0.9631 (B) 0.0262 (C) 0.9893 (D) 0.0369 (E) 0.9738
21. If we wish to have a larger significance level for the test, the width of the critical region will have
to be:
(A) Smaller (B) The same (C) Larger (D) More information is required (E) All false
A publicist claims that the mean sales of a given product in a supermarket can be increased if its
location
is changed. In order to verify his/her claim, a r.s. of the sales of that product that occurred during a
31-day period was recorded, providing sample mean and standard deviation sales values of 3480
and 482
euros, respectively. Once the location of the product was changed, a second r.s. of the sales of the
product
that occurred during a 41-day period was recorded, providing sample mean and standard deviation
sales
values of 3300 and 504 euros, respectively.
We assume normality and independence for the sales occurring in different days.
22. A 90% confidence interval for the ratio of the “variance before the change of location” over the
“variance
after the change of location” is:
(A) (0.554, 1.726) (B) (0.515, 1.604) (C) (0.626, 1.485)
(D) (0.530, 1.650) (E) (0.344, 1.420)
23. At the 10% significance level, the decision about the increase of the mean sales will be:
(A) They have increased (B) - (C) They have not increased
(D) - (E) More information is required
A firm wished to test if the probability of buying a new product is equal to 0.2, p = 0.2, against the
alternative hypothesis that it is greater than 0.2, p > 0.2. In order to do so, a r.s. of 20 possible
consumers
is selected, obtaining that 6 of them would eventually buy the product.
– 0.4 –
24. If Z =
Pn
i=1 Xi
is used as test statistic, and at the α = 0.05 significance level, the most powerful critical
region for this test will be:
(A) [7, ∞) (B) [0, 7] (C) [0, 1] (D) [0, 8] (E) [8, 20]
25. At the α = 0.05 significance level, the decision of the test will be
(A) More information is required (B) - (C) Reject H0 (D) Do not reject H0 (E) -
We wish to test the null hypothesis that the distribution of the clients, stratified by age, five large
phone
firms have is the same. In order to do so, five r.s. of 500, 600, 350, 800 and 700 clients from those
phone firms were taken. These clients were accordingly classified as a function of their age in four
classes:
younger than 30, between 30 and 44, between 45 and 60, and older than 60.
26. The test to be carried out will be:
(A) Homogeneity
(B) Independence
(C) Ratio of Variances
(D) Goodness-of-fit to a completely specified distribution
(E) All false
27. The distribution of the test statistic to be used for this test is, under H0:
(A) χ
20 (B) F5,4 (C) χ
12 (D) t20 (E) N(0,1)
The major of a location with 10000 inhabitants decides to take a poll to be able to estimate the
proportion
p of people in favor of eliminating bullfights from the local festivities program. We wish to estimate
p so
that the 95% confidence interval has an estimation error equal to 0.01.
28. What is the required sample size if the sampling is taken with replacement?
(A) 9604 (B) 49 (C) 6724 (D) 960 (E) 4900
29. What is the required sample size if the sampling is taken without replacement?
(A) 4900 (B) 49 (C) 9604 (D) 960 (E) 6724
30. The same poll is taken in 10 different locations of the same province, using the same sample size
in each
of them. If the sampling is taken without replacement and the true probability in favor of eliminating
bullfights is the same for all of the sampled locations, in which one of these locations the estimate of
p
will be more precise?
(A) In the location with the smallest number of inhabitants
(B) More information is required
(C) It will have the same precision in all locations
(D) In the location with the largest number of inhabitants
(E) All false
Let $L(\theta;X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n)$ be the likelihood function for a sample

$X_1,X_2,\cdots, X_n$ having joint density $f(x_1,x_2,\cdots,x_n;\theta)$ where ?
belong to parameter space. Then a test defined as
$\lambda=\lambda_n=\lambda(x_1,x_2,\cdots,x_n)=\frac{Sup_{\theta\varepsilon
\Theta_0}L(\theta;x_1,x_2,\cdots,x_n)}{Sup_{\theta\varepsilon
\Theta}L(\theta;x_1,x_2,\cdots,x_n)}$
 Generalized Likelihood Ratio test

 Most Powerful Uniformly Test
 Monotone Likelihood Ratio Test
 Unbiased Test
Question was not answered
2. Let $X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n$ be a random sample from a density $f(x|\theta)$, where

$\theta$ is a value of the random variable $\Theta$ with known density
$g_\Theta(\theta)$. Then the estimator $\tau(\theta)$ with respect to the prior
$g_\Theta(\theta)$ is defined as $E[\tau(\theta)|X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n]$ is called
 Minimax Estimator
 Posterior Bay’s Estimator
 Bay’s Estimator
 Sufficient Estimator
3. If the conditional distribution of $X_1, X_2,\cdots,X_n$ given $S=s$, does not

depend on $\theta$, for any value of $S=s$, the statistics
$S=s(X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n)$ is called
 Unbiased
 Consistent
 Sufficient
 Efficient
4. If $E(\hat{\theta})=\theta$, then $\hat{\theta}$ is said to be
 Unbiased
 Sufficient
 Efficient
 Consistent
$\hat{\theta}$ is
 Unbiased
 Efficient
 Sufficient
 Consistent
6. If $X_1,X_2,\cdots, X_n$ is the joint density of n random variables, say, $f(X_1,

X_2,\cdots, X_n;\theta)$ which is considered to be a function of $\theta$. Then
$L(\theta; X_1,X_2,\cdots, X_n)$ is called
 Maximum Likelihood function

 Likelihood Function
 Log Function
 Marginal Function
 It is a function of every other set of sufficient statistics

 It is not a function of every other set of sufficient statistics
 It is a function of some other set of sufficient statistics
 It is a function of any sufficient statistics in the set

9. If $Var(\hat{\theta})\rightarrow 0$ as $n \rightarrow 0$, then $\hat{\theta}$ is said
to be
 Unbiased
 Sufficient
 Efficient
 Consistent
10. Let $X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n$ be a random sample from the density $f(x;\theta)$,

where $\theta$ may be vector. If the conditional distribution of $X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n$
given $S=s$ does not depend on $\theta$ for any value of $s$ of $S$, then statistic
is called.
 Minimax Statistics
 Efficient
 Sufficient Statistic
 Minimal Sufficient Statistic
11. $Var_\theta (T) \geq \frac{[\tau'(\theta)]^2}{nE[{\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}log

f((X;\theta)}^2]}$, where $T=t(X_1,X_2,\cdots, X_n)$ is an unbiased estimator of
$\tau(\theta)$. Then above inequality is called
 Cauchy Schwarz Inequality

 Bool’s Inequality
 Chebyshev’s Inequality
 Cramer Rao Inequality
12. If $Var(T_2) < Var(T_1)$, then $T_2$ is
 Unbiased
 Efficient
 Sufficient
 Consistent
13. A test is said to be the most powerful test of size $\alpha$, if
 Among all other tests of size $\alpha$ or greater it has the largest $\beta$
 Among all other tests of size $\alpha$ or less, it has the largest power
 Among all other tests of size $\alpha$ or greater it has the larger 1-$\alpha$
 Among all other tests of size $\alpha$ or greater, it has the smallest power

14. For two estimators $T_1=t_1(X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n)$ and
$T_2=t_2(X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n)$ then estimator $t_1$ is defined to be
$R_{{t_1}(\theta)}\leq R_{{t_2}(\theta)}$ for all $\theta$ in $\Theta$
 Admissible Estimator
 Consistent Estimator
 BAN
 CANE
 BANE
 A) and B)
i. $E(\mu_t)=0$
 (ii) and (iv) only

 (i) and (iii) only
 (i), (ii) and (iii) only
 (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
17. Let $Z_1,Z_2,\cdots,Z_n$ be independently and identically distributed random

variables, satisfying $E[|Z_t|]<\infty$. Let N be an integer-valued random variable
whose value n depends only on the values of the first n $Z_i$s. Suppose
$E(N)<\infty$, then $E(Z_1+Z_2+\cdots+Z_n)=E( N)E(Z_i)$ is called
 Independence Equation
 Neyman Pearson Lemma
 Sequential Probability Likelihood Equation
 Wald’s Equation
Error] is called
Bool’s Inequality
i. $E(\mu_t)=0$
(ii) and (iv) only
(i) and (iii) only

Error]
Error]
BAN
CANE
BANE
A) and B)
$\hat{\theta}$ is
Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
Consistent
Processing Error]
Minimax Estimator
Minimax Statistics
Efficient
Unbiased
Consistent
Sufficient
Efficient
Unbiased
Sufficient
Efficient
Consistent
Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
Consistent
Unbiased
Sufficient
Efficient
Consistent
Minimax Estimator
Bay’s Estimator
Processing Error]
Unbiased Test
Likelihood Function
Log Function
Marginal Function
Run Test
Sign Test
Median Test
Page’s Test

All of the Above
Interval Scale
Ratio Scale
Ordinal Scale
Nominal Scale
Bartlett’s Test
F-test
t-test
Samples
A Formula
None of these
Normal Equations
Intrinsic Equations
All of the Above
then x¯¯¯x¯ is:
Bartlett’s Test
F-test
χ2χ2-test
t-test
Type-I Error
Type-II Error
None of the Above
through:
Unbiased Estimators
Complete Statistics
this test is:
0.15
0.90
0.85
0.95
Necessary
Sufficient
None of these

Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
None of These
Population
Sample
None of these

None of These

None of these
actually true:
Decreases
Remains the Same
Increases
All of the Above

Unbiased
Sufficient
Efficient
Consistent
Likelihood Function
Log Function
Marginal Function
Unbiased
Consistent
Sufficient
Efficient
Bool’s Inequality
Minimax Statistics
Efficient
BAN
CANE
BANE
A) and B)
then θ^θ^ is
Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
Consistent
Minimax Estimator
Bay’s Estimator

test defined
Unbiased Test
13. For two
all θθ in ΘΘ
Minimax Estimator
Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
Consistent
Unbiased
Sufficient
Efficient
Consistent
Wald’s Equation
i. E(μt)=0E(μt)=0
(ii) and (iv) only

(i) and (iii) only
1. If we reject the null hypothesis, we might be making
 Type-I Error true

 Type-II Error
 A Correct Decision
 Unpredictable
2. Condition for applying the Central Limit Theorem (CLT) which approximates the
sampling distribution of the mean with a normal distribution is?
 $ N<30 $
 $ n/N > 5 $
 $ N(1-P)>5 $
 $ N>30 $ true
 $ 2n<="" span="" style="box-sizing: inherit;">
3. $1 – \alpha$ is the probability of
 Type-I Error
 Rejection Region
 Acceptance Region true
 Type-II Error
4. What is the probability of a type II error when $\alpha=0.05$ ?
 0.025
 0.05
 0.95
 Cannot be determined without more information true
5. Consistency of an estimator can be checked by comparing
 Mean
 Mean Square
 Variance true
 Standard Deviation
6. Criteria to check a point estimator to be good are
 Consistency
 Unbiasedness
 Efficiency
 All Above true
7. Herbicide A has been used for years in order to kill a particular type of weed. An
experiment is to be conducted in order to see whether a new herbicide, Herbicide B, is
more effective than Herbicide A. Herbicide A will continue to be used unless there is
sufficient evidence that Herbicide B is more effective. The alternative hypothesis in this
problem is
 Herbicide A is more effective than Herbicide B

 Herbicide B is more effective than Herbicide A true
 Herbicide A is not more effective than Herbicide B
 Herbicide B is not more effective than Herbicide A
8. A quantity obtained by applying a certain rule or formula is known as
 Sample
 Test Statistics
 Estimate true
 Estimator
 Estimation
9. Which of the following is a true statement, for comparing the t distributions with
standard normal,
 The Normal Curve is symmetrical whereas the t-distributions are slightly skewed
 The proportion of area beyond a specific value of “t” is less than the proportion of normal curve
 Greater the degree of freedom, the more the t-distribution resembles the standard normal
distribution true
 None of the Above
10. The t distributions are
 Same as Normal Curve

 Skewed
 Symmetrical true
 None of these
11. For t distribution, increasing the sample size, the effect will be on
 Degrees of Freedom
 The t-ratio
 Standard Error of the Means
 All of the Above true
12. The critical value of a test statistic is determined from
 Calculations from the data

 Calculations based on many actual repetitions of the same experiment
 The sampling distribution of the statistic assuming Alternative Hypothesis
 The sampling distribution of the statistics assuming Null Hypothesis true
13. A parameter is a ————- quantity
 Constant true
 Zero
 Variable
 None of the above
14. Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) is a test for equality of
 Variances
 Means true
 Proportions
 Only two Parameters
ANOVA tests the equality of means on the bases of variation among groups
15. Which of the following is an assumption underlying the use of the t-distributions?
 The variance of the population is known

 The samples are drawn from a normally distributed population true
 s (sample standard deviation) is an unbiased estimate of the population variance.
 All Above
If $E(\hat{\theta})=\theta$, then $\hat{\theta}$ is said to be
 Unbiased true
 Sufficient
 Efficient
 Consistent

 Admissible Estimator true

 BAN
 CANE
 BANE
 A) and B) true


 Cramer Rao Inequality true
5. If $Var(\hat{\theta})\rightarrow 0$ as $n \rightarrow 0$, then $\hat{\theta}$ is said to

be
 Unbiased
 Sufficient
 Efficient
 Consistent true
6. Let $X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n$ be a random sample from the density $f(x;\theta)$, where

$\theta$ may be vector. If the conditional distribution of $X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n$ given
$S=s$ does not depend on $\theta$ for any value of $s$ of $S$, then statistic is called.
 Efficient
 Minimal Sufficient Statistic true
 It is a function of every other set of sufficient statistics true


variables, satisfying $E[|Z_t|]<\infty$. Let N be an integer-valued random variable whose
value n depends only on the values of the first n $Z_i$s. Suppose $E(N)<\infty$, then
$E(Z_1+Z_2+\cdots+Z_n)=E( N)E(Z_i)$ is called
 Wald’s Equation true


 Likelihood Function true
 Log Function

 Posterior Bay’s Estimator true

 $ MSE(\hat{\theta})=Var(\hat{\theta}) + Bias^2 $ true
 Among all other tests of size $\alpha$ or less, it has the largest power true
depend on $\theta$, for any value of $S=s$, the statistics $S=s(X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n)$ is
called
 Unbiased
 Consistent
 Sufficient true
 Efficient
14. Let $L(\theta;X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n)$ be the likelihood function for a sample

 Generalized Likelihood Ratio test true

 Unbiased Test
i. $E(\mu_t)=0$

 (i), (ii) and (iii) only true
 Unbiased
 Efficient true
 Sufficient
 Consistent

$\hat{\theta}$ is
 Unbiased
 Efficient
 Sufficient true
 Consistent
. In statistical hypothesis test of equality of means, such as $H_0:\mu=10$, if

$\alpha=5\%$
 95% of the time we will make an incorrect inference

 5% of the time we will say that there is a real difference when there is no difference (Type I error)true
 5% of the time we will say that there is no real difference when there is a difference (Type II error)
 95% of the time the null hypothesis will be correct
 5% of the time we will make a correct inference
2. Which of the following statements is correct
 An extremely small p-value indicates that the actual data differs significantly from the expected if the
null hypothesis is true)true
 The p-value measures the probability that the hypothesis is true
 The p-value measures the probability of making a Type II error
 The larger the p-value, the stronger the evidence against the null hypothesis
 A large p-value indicates that the data is consistent with the alternative hypothesis
3. Which of the following is NOT correct?

 The probability of a type I error is controlled by the selection of the level of significance $\alpha$
 The probability of a type II error is controlled by the sample size $(n)$
 The power of a test depends upon the sample size and the distance between the null hypothesis
and the alternative hypothesis
 The $p$-value measures the probability that the null hypothesis is true)true
 The rejection region is controlled by the $\alpha$ and the alternative hypothesis
4. In statistical testing of the hypothesis, what happens to the region of rejection when
the level of significance $\alpha$ is reduced?
 The answer depends on the value of $\beta$

 The rejection region is reduced in size)true
 The rejection region is increased in size
 The rejection region is unaltered
 The answer depends on the form of the alternative hypothesis
5. In testing the statistical hypothesis, which of the following statement(s) is false?
 The critical region is the values of the test statistic for which we reject the null hypothesis
 The level of significance is the probability of type I error
 For testing $H_0:\mu=\mu_0$, $H_1:\mu>\mu_0$, we reject $H_0$ for high values of the sample
mean $\overline{X}$
 In testing $H_0:\mu=\mu_0$, $H_1:\mu \ne \mu_0$, the critical region is two-sided.
6. The following are percentages of fat found in 5 samples of each of two brands of
baby food: A: 5.7, 4.5, 6.2, 6.3, 7.3 B: 6.3, 5.7, 5.9, 6.4, 5.1 Which of the following
procedures is appropriate to test the hypothesis of equal average fat content in the two
types of ice cream?
 Paired $t$-test with 5 d.f

 Two samples $t$-test with 8 d.f)true
 Two samples $t$-test with 9 d.f
 Sign test
7. In hypothesis testing, type II error is represented by $\beta$ and the power of the test
is $1-\beta$ then
 The probability of rejecting $H_0$ when $H_1$ is true)true

 The probability of failing to reject $H_0$ when $H_1$ is true
 The probability of rejecting $H_0$ when $H_0$ is true
 The probability of failing to reject $H_0$
8. The average growth of a certain variety of pine trees is 10.1 inches in three years. A
biologist claims that a new variety will have greater three-year growth. A random sample
of 25 of the new variety has an average three-year growth of 10.8 inches and a
standard deviation of 2.1 inches. The appropriate null and alternative hypotheses to test
the biologist’s claim are:
 $H: \mu = 10.8$ against $H_a: \mu > 10.8$

 $H: \mu = 10.8$ against $H_a: \mu \ne 10.8$
 $H: \mu = 10.1$ against $H_a: \mu > 10.1$)true
 $H: \mu = 10.1$ against $H_a: \mu < 10.1$
 $H: \mu = 10.1$ against $H_a: \mu \ne 10.1$)
mean $\overline{X}$
10. Since $\alpha$= probability of Type I error, then $1 -\alpha$
 Probability of rejecting $H_0$ when $H_0$ is true)

 Probability of not rejecting $H_0$ when $H_0$ is true) )true
 Probability of not rejecting $H_0$ when $H_a$ is true
 Probability of rejecting $H_0$ when $H_a$ is true
 $1 – \beta$
. Equality of several normal population means can be tested by:
 Bartlett’s Test
 F-test
 $\chi^2$-test
 t-test
 Unbiased
 Efficient
 Sufficient
 None of These
 Run Test
 Sign Test
 Median Test
 Page’s Test

through:
 Unbiased Estimators
 Complete Statistics
 Efficient Statistics
 Sufficient Statistics
5. If the sample average $\overline{x}$ is an estimate of the population mean $\mu$,

then $\overline{x}$ is:
 Unbiased and Efficient

 Unbiased and Inefficient
 Biased and Efficient
 Biased and Inefficient
 Fisher’s Exact Test
 F-test
 t-test
 Samples are Independent
 Samples are Dependent

 Samples have the Same Mean
 None of These
8. For a particular hypothesis test, $\alpha=0.05$, and $\beta=0.10$. The power of this
test is:
 0.15
 0.90
 0.85
 0.95
 Interval Scale
 Ratio Scale
 Ordinal Scale
 Nominal Scale
10. An estimator $T_n$ is said to be a sufficient statistic for a parameter function

$\tau(\theta)$ if it contained all the information which is contained in the
 Population
 Parametric Function $\tau(\theta)$
 Sample
 None of these
 Normal Equations
 Intrinsic Equations
 Simultaneous Equations
 All of the Above
 Type-I Error
 Type-II Error
 Type-I and Type-II Error Both

 A correct Decision has been Made

 A Type-II Error has been Made
 Both (A) and (B) have Occurred
 Neither (A) nor (B) has Occurred
 Samples
 Probability Density Functions
 A Formula
 None of these
 Necessary
 Sufficient
 Neither Necessary nor Sufficient
 None of these
 Upper Bound on the Variance

 Lower Bound on the Variance
 The Asymptotic Variance of an Estimator
 None of these
 All Constants of a Population

 Only Mean and Variance of a Distribution
 All Moments of a Population Distribution
actually true:
 Decreases
 Remains the Same
 Increases
1. Which one is an example of two-tailed test
 $ H_1:\mu <0 $
 $ H_1:\mu >0 $
 $H_1:\mu \ge 0 $
 $H_1:\mu \ne 0 $
2. A ________ error is made if $H_1$ is true but $H_0$ is accepted
 Type-I
 Type-II
 Sampling error
 The standard error of the mean
3. The level of significance is the risk of
 Rejecting $H_0$ when $H_0$ is true

 Rejecting $H_0$ when $H_1$ is correct
 Accepting $H_0$ when $H_0$ is correct
4. If population standard deviation is known and $n>30$ then appropriate test statistics
mean comparison is
 t-test
 F-test
 Z-test
 $ \chi^2 $-test
5. The region of acceptance of $H_0$ is called
 Critical region
 Test statistics
 Type-I error
 Acceptance region
6. The probability of rejecting a true hypothesis is called

 Critical region
 Level of significance
 Test statistics
 Statement of hypothesis
7. The probability of rejecting a false $H_0$ is
 Level of confidence
 Critical region
 Power of test
8. The region of rejection of $H_0$ is called
 Critical region
 Test statistics
 Type-I error
9. Type-I error will occur if an innocent person is
 Arrested by police
 Not arrested
 Police care for him
 None ot these
10. The choice of one-tailed test and two-tailed test depends upon
 Null hypothesis
 Alternative hypothesis
 Composite hypothesis
 None of these
11. When critical region is located on both side of the curve, it is called
 One tail test

 Two-tailed test
 Left tailed test
 Right tailed teset
12. In a Z-test, the number of degrees of freedom is
 $ n-2 $
 $ n-1 $
 1
 None of these
13. A deserving player is not selected in national team, it is an example of
 Type-II error
 Type-I error
 Correct decision
 Sampling error
14. If $\alpha=0.05%, the value of one-tailed $Z$ test will be
 1.96
 1.64
 2.33
 2.58
15. A statistic on the basis of which a decision is made about the hypothesis of interest
is called
 Test statistics
 Significance level
 Critical region
: The efficiency of a solar cell is

A. 0.8
B. 0.35
C. 0.55
D. 0.03
Answer
MCQ: (a required form of output/total input energy)×100 is equal to
A. % power
B. % efficiency
C. % stress
D. % strain
Answer
MCQ: The efficiency of the cyclist when he does 12 J of useful work from every 100
J of food energy he takes is
A. 0.13
B. 0.14
C. 0.12
D. 0.15
Answer
MCQ: An body builder does 15 Joules of useful work from every 60 Joules of food
energy which he takes. His efficiency will be
A. 0.15
B. 0.25
C. 0.3
D. 0.35
Answer
MCQ: If some energy given to a system, then energy in the required form obtained
is always
A. less than the given energy
B. equal to the given energy
C. greater than the given energy
D. none of above
Answer
1. If we reject the null hypothesis, we might be making
 Type-I Error true

 Type-II Error
 A Correct Decision
 Unpredictable
2. Condition for applying the Central Limit Theorem (CLT) which approximates the
sampling distribution of the mean with a normal distribution is?
 $ N<30 $
 $ n/N > 5 $
 $ N(1-P)>5 $
 $ N>30 $ true
 $ 2n<="" span="" style="box-sizing: inherit;">
3. $1 – \alpha$ is the probability of
 Type-I Error
 Rejection Region
 Acceptance Region true
 Type-II Error
4. What is the probability of a type II error when $\alpha=0.05$ ?
 0.025
 0.05
 0.95
 Cannot be determined without more information true
5. Consistency of an estimator can be checked by comparing
 Mean
 Mean Square
 Variance true
 Standard Deviation
6. Criteria to check a point estimator to be good are
 Consistency
 Unbiasedness
 Efficiency
 All Above true
7. Herbicide A has been used for years in order to kill a particular type of weed. An
problem is
 Herbicide A is more effective than Herbicide B

 Herbicide B is more effective than Herbicide A true
 Herbicide A is not more effective than Herbicide B
 Herbicide B is not more effective than Herbicide A
8. A quantity obtained by applying a certain rule or formula is known as
 Sample
 Test Statistics
 Estimate true
 Estimator
 Estimation
9. Which of the following is a true statement, for comparing the t distributions with
standard normal,
 The Normal Curve is symmetrical whereas the t-distributions are slightly skewed
 The proportion of area beyond a specific value of “t” is less than the proportion of normal curve
 Greater the degree of freedom, the more the t-distribution resembles the standard normal
distribution true
10. The t distributions are
 Same as Normal Curve

 Skewed
 Symmetrical true
 None of these
11. For t distribution, increasing the sample size, the effect will be on
 Degrees of Freedom
 The t-ratio
 Standard Error of the Means
 All of the Above true
12. The critical value of a test statistic is determined from
 Calculations from the data

 Calculations based on many actual repetitions of the same experiment
 The sampling distribution of the statistic assuming Alternative Hypothesis
 The sampling distribution of the statistics assuming Null Hypothesis true
13. A parameter is a ————- quantity
 Constant true
 Zero
 Variable
 None of the above
14. Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) is a test for equality of
 Variances
 Means true
 Proportions
 Only two Parameters
ANOVA tests the equality of means on the bases of variation among groups
15. Which of the following is an assumption underlying the use of the t-distributions?
 The variance of the population is known

 The samples are drawn from a normally distributed population true
 s (sample standard deviation) is an unbiased estimate of the population variance.
 All Above
If $E(\hat{\theta})=\theta$, then $\hat{\theta}$ is said to be
 Unbiased true
 Sufficient
 Efficient
 Consistent

 Admissible Estimator true

 BAN
 CANE
 BANE
 A) and B) true


 Cramer Rao Inequality true

be
 Unbiased
 Sufficient
 Efficient
 Consistent true

 Efficient
 Minimal Sufficient Statistic true
 It is a function of every other set of sufficient statistics true


 Wald’s Equation true


 Likelihood Function true
 Log Function

 Posterior Bay’s Estimator true

 $ MSE(\hat{\theta})=Var(\hat{\theta}) + Bias^2 $ true
 Among all other tests of size $\alpha$ or less, it has the largest power true
depend on $\theta$, for any value of $S=s$, the statistics $S=s(X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n)$ is
called
 Unbiased
 Consistent
 Sufficient true
 Efficient

 Generalized Likelihood Ratio test true

 Unbiased Test
i. $E(\mu_t)=0$

 (i), (ii) and (iii) only true
 Unbiased
 Efficient true
 Sufficient
 Consistent

$\hat{\theta}$ is
 Unbiased
 Efficient
 Sufficient true
 Consistent
. In statistical hypothesis test of equality of means, such as $H_0:\mu=10$, if

$\alpha=5\%$
 95% of the time we will make an incorrect inference

 5% of the time we will say that there is a real difference when there is no difference (Type I error)true
 5% of the time we will say that there is no real difference when there is a difference (Type II error)
 95% of the time the null hypothesis will be correct
 5% of the time we will make a correct inference
2. Which of the following statements is correct
 An extremely small p-value indicates that the actual data differs significantly from the expected if the
null hypothesis is true)true
 The p-value measures the probability that the hypothesis is true
 The p-value measures the probability of making a Type II error
 The larger the p-value, the stronger the evidence against the null hypothesis
 A large p-value indicates that the data is consistent with the alternative hypothesis
3. Which of the following is NOT correct?

 The probability of a type I error is controlled by the selection of the level of significance $\alpha$
 The probability of a type II error is controlled by the sample size $(n)$
 The power of a test depends upon the sample size and the distance between the null hypothesis
and the alternative hypothesis
 The rejection region is controlled by the $\alpha$ and the alternative hypothesis
4. In statistical testing of the hypothesis, what happens to the region of rejection when
the level of significance $\alpha$ is reduced?
 The answer depends on the value of $\beta$

 The rejection region is reduced in size)true
 The rejection region is increased in size
 The rejection region is unaltered
 The answer depends on the form of the alternative hypothesis
mean $\overline{X}$
6. The following are percentages of fat found in 5 samples of each of two brands of
baby food: A: 5.7, 4.5, 6.2, 6.3, 7.3 B: 6.3, 5.7, 5.9, 6.4, 5.1 Which of the following
procedures is appropriate to test the hypothesis of equal average fat content in the two
types of ice cream?

 Two samples $t$-test with 8 d.f)true
 Two samples $t$-test with 9 d.f
 Sign test
7. In hypothesis testing, type II error is represented by $\beta$ and the power of the test
is $1-\beta$ then
 The probability of rejecting $H_0$ when $H_1$ is true)true

 The probability of rejecting $H_0$ when $H_0$ is true
 The probability of failing to reject $H_0$
8. The average growth of a certain variety of pine trees is 10.1 inches in three years. A
biologist claims that a new variety will have greater three-year growth. A random sample
of 25 of the new variety has an average three-year growth of 10.8 inches and a
standard deviation of 2.1 inches. The appropriate null and alternative hypotheses to test
the biologist’s claim are:
 $H: \mu = 10.8$ against $H_a: \mu > 10.8$

 $H: \mu = 10.8$ against $H_a: \mu \ne 10.8$
 $H: \mu = 10.1$ against $H_a: \mu > 10.1$)true
 $H: \mu = 10.1$ against $H_a: \mu < 10.1$
 $H: \mu = 10.1$ against $H_a: \mu \ne 10.1$)
mean $\overline{X}$
10. Since $\alpha$= probability of Type I error, then $1 -\alpha$
 Probability of rejecting $H_0$ when $H_0$ is true)

 Probability of not rejecting $H_0$ when $H_0$ is true) )true
 Probability of not rejecting $H_0$ when $H_a$ is true
 Probability of rejecting $H_0$ when $H_a$ is true
 $1 – \beta$
. Equality of several normal population means can be tested by:
 F-test
 $\chi^2$-test
 t-test
 Unbiased
 Efficient
 Sufficient
 None of These
 Run Test
 Sign Test
 Median Test
 Page’s Test

through:
 Sufficient Statistics
5. If the sample average $\overline{x}$ is an estimate of the population mean $\mu$,

then $\overline{x}$ is:
 Unbiased and Efficient

 F-test
 t-test
 Samples are Dependent

 None of These
8. For a particular hypothesis test, $\alpha=0.05$, and $\beta=0.10$. The power of this
test is:
 0.15
 0.90
 0.85
 0.95
 Interval Scale
 Ratio Scale
 Ordinal Scale
 Nominal Scale
10. An estimator $T_n$ is said to be a sufficient statistic for a parameter function

$\tau(\theta)$ if it contained all the information which is contained in the
 Population
 Sample
 None of these
 Normal Equations
 Type-I Error
 Type-II Error
 Type-I and Type-II Error Both


 Both (A) and (B) have Occurred
 Samples
 Probability Density Functions
 A Formula
 None of these
 Necessary
 Sufficient
 None of these

 Lower Bound on the Variance
 None of these

 All Moments of a Population Distribution
actually true:
 Decreases
 Increases
1. Which one is an example of two-tailed test
 $ H_1:\mu <0 $
 $ H_1:\mu >0 $
 $H_1:\mu \ge 0 $
 $H_1:\mu \ne 0 $
2. A ________ error is made if $H_1$ is true but $H_0$ is accepted
 Type-I
 Type-II
 Sampling error
 The standard error of the mean
3. The level of significance is the risk of
 Rejecting $H_0$ when $H_0$ is true

 Accepting $H_0$ when $H_0$ is correct
4. If population standard deviation is known and $n>30$ then appropriate test statistics
mean comparison is
 t-test
 F-test
 Z-test
 $ \chi^2 $-test
5. The region of acceptance of $H_0$ is called
 Critical region
 Test statistics
 Type-I error
6. The probability of rejecting a true hypothesis is called

 Critical region
 Test statistics
7. The probability of rejecting a false $H_0$ is
 Level of confidence
 Critical region
 Power of test
8. The region of rejection of $H_0$ is called
 Critical region
 Test statistics
 Type-I error
9. Type-I error will occur if an innocent person is
 Arrested by police
 Not arrested
 Police care for him
 None ot these
10. The choice of one-tailed test and two-tailed test depends upon
 Null hypothesis
 Alternative hypothesis
 Composite hypothesis
 None of these
11. When critical region is located on both side of the curve, it is called
 One tail test

 Two-tailed test
 Left tailed test
 Right tailed teset
12. In a Z-test, the number of degrees of freedom is
 $ n-2 $
 $ n-1 $
 1
 None of these
13. A deserving player is not selected in national team, it is an example of
 Type-II error
 Type-I error
 Correct decision
 Sampling error
14. If $\alpha=0.05%, the value of one-tailed $Z$ test will be
 1.96
 1.64
 2.33
 2.58
15. A statistic on the basis of which a decision is made about the hypothesis of interest
is called
 Test statistics
 Significance level
 Critical region
: The efficiency of a solar cell is

A. 0.8
B. 0.35
C. 0.55
D. 0.03
Answer
MCQ: (a required form of output/total input energy)×100 is equal to
A. % power
B. % efficiency
C. % stress
D. % strain
Answer
MCQ: The efficiency of the cyclist when he does 12 J of useful work from every 100
J of food energy he takes is
A. 0.13
B. 0.14
C. 0.12
D. 0.15
Answer
MCQ: An body builder does 15 Joules of useful work from every 60 Joules of food
energy which he takes. His efficiency will be
A. 0.15
B. 0.25
C. 0.3
D. 0.35
Answer
MCQ: If some energy given to a system, then energy in the required form obtained
is always
A. less than the given energy
B. equal to the given energy
C. greater than the given energy
D. none of above
Answer
If X is a r.v. having a binomial distribution, then we have that P(1 ≤ X < 3) is equal to:
(A) F(3) − F(1)
(B) P(X ≤ 2) + P(X ≤ 1)
(C) All false
(D) P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)
(E) F(2) − F(0)
In a specific Civil Service examination, the probability that a candidate passes the exam is equal to
0.2.
We assume independence between candidates.
3. If 15 of those examinations are graded, the probability that more than 2 candidates pass the exam
is:
(A) 0.6020 (B) 0.3980 (C) 0.2309 (D) 0.8647 (E) 1
4. In the same set of 15 of those examinations, what will be the mean passing number of
examinations?
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 5 (E) 3
5. If we have a total of 300 of those examinations, what will be the approximate probability that as
much
as 53 candidates pass it?
(A) 0.8264 (B) 0.1587 (C) 0.8413 (D) 0.1736 (E) 1
Let X1, X2 and X3 be three independent random variables variables having normal distributions with
means equal to −2, 2 and 0, and variances equal to 4, 9 and 1, respectively.
6. The probability that the random variable W =
(X1 + 2)2
+ (X3)
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.90 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.75 (E) 0.10
7. The probability that the random variable Y =
√
2(X2 − 2)
(A) 0.20 (B) 0.90 (C) 0.05 (D) 0.95 (E) 0.10
8. The probability that the random variable Y
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.95 (C) 0.99 (D) 0.90 (E) 0.01
9. If we have a Poisson distribution with parameter λ, where we know that P(1) = 0.334695 and that
P(2) = 0.251021, then the value of the parameter λ is:
(A) 1.5 (B) 2 (C) 2.5 (D) 1 (E) 0.5
– 0.2 –
10. Let X and Y be independent r.v. having each an exponential distribution with parameter λ =
. The
distribution of the r.v. Z = X + Y is:
(A) γ(1, 1) (B) exp(λ = 1) (C) All false (D) exp(λ =
) (E) χ
Let X be a r.v. with probability mass function given by:
P(X = −2) = 3θ
P(X = 0) = 3θ
2
P(X = 2) = 1 − 3θ
In order to estimate the parameter θ, a r.s. of size n, X1, . . . , Xn has been taken.
11. The method of moments estimator of θ is:
(A) X (B) 1 − X
(C) 2 − X
(D) 9
2−X
(E) 1
12. In order to be able to obtain an estimate of the parameter θ, a r.s. of size n = 8 has been taken
providing
the following results: -2, -2, -2, -2, 0, 0, 2, 2. The maximum likelihood estimate of θ is equal to:
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.42 (C) 0.28 (D) 2.40 (E) 2.00
Let X be a r.v. with probability density function given by:
f(x) = (θ + 2) x
−(θ+3), x > 1, θ > 0,
and X1, . . . , Xn be a r.s. of size n from this distribution. We know that the mean of this r.v. is m =
θ+2
θ+1 .
13. The method of moments estimator of the parameter θ is:
(A) ¡
X−2
(B) ¡
2−X
(C) ³
X−2
1−X
(D) ³
X−2
1+X
(E) All false
14. The maximum likelihood estimator of the parameter θ is:
(A) n−1
ln(
QXi)
(B) n
ln(
QkXi)
(C) All false
(D) −n
ln(
QXi)
(E) n
ln(
QXi)
−2
Let X1, . . . , Xn (n > 3) be a r.s. from a population having a Poisson distribution with parameter λ. In
order to estimate the parameter λ, we consider the two estimators:
λb1 =
X1 + X2 + . . . + Xn
= X and λb2 =
3X1 + X2 + . . . + Xn
n+2
15. Are they unbiased estimators of λ?
(A) Only λˆ
16. Are they consistent estimators of λ?
(A) Only λˆ
1 (B) Both of them (C) - (D) None of them (E) Only λˆ
– 0.3 –
17. If we know that the Cramer-Rao lower bound for a regular and unbiased estimator of λ is Lc =
, is any
of the aforementioned estimators an efficient one?
(A) Only λˆ
18. Which one of them has smaller variance?
(A) λˆ
1 (B) Both of them have the same variance (C) -
(D) It depends on the sample values (E) λˆ
Let X be a random variable having a normal distribution with variance equal to 49. To test the null
hypothesis that the mean is equal to 5, a r.s. of 16 observaciones has been taken. In order to be able
to
carry out the test, we consider the following critical region for the sample mean, CR = (1.29, 8.71)C
19. The significance level for this test is:
(A) 0.068 (B) 0.017 (C) 0.034 (D) 0.966 (E) 0.983
20. The power of the test for a mean value m1 = 5.315 is:
(A) 0.9631 (B) 0.0262 (C) 0.9893 (D) 0.0369 (E) 0.9738
21. If we wish to have a larger significance level for the test, the width of the critical region will have
to be:
(A) Smaller (B) The same (C) Larger (D) More information is required (E) All false
A publicist claims that the mean sales of a given product in a supermarket can be increased if its
location
is changed. In order to verify his/her claim, a r.s. of the sales of that product that occurred during a
31-day period was recorded, providing sample mean and standard deviation sales values of 3480
and 482
euros, respectively. Once the location of the product was changed, a second r.s. of the sales of the
product
that occurred during a 41-day period was recorded, providing sample mean and standard deviation
sales
values of 3300 and 504 euros, respectively.
We assume normality and independence for the sales occurring in different days.
22. A 90% confidence interval for the ratio of the “variance before the change of location” over the
“variance
after the change of location” is:
(A) (0.554, 1.726) (B) (0.515, 1.604) (C) (0.626, 1.485)
(D) (0.530, 1.650) (E) (0.344, 1.420)
23. At the 10% significance level, the decision about the increase of the mean sales will be:
(A) They have increased (B) - (C) They have not increased
(D) - (E) More information is required
A firm wished to test if the probability of buying a new product is equal to 0.2, p = 0.2, against the
alternative hypothesis that it is greater than 0.2, p > 0.2. In order to do so, a r.s. of 20 possible
consumers
is selected, obtaining that 6 of them would eventually buy the product.
– 0.4 –
24. If Z =
Pn
i=1 Xi
is used as test statistic, and at the α = 0.05 significance level, the most powerful critical
region for this test will be:
(A) [7, ∞) (B) [0, 7] (C) [0, 1] (D) [0, 8] (E) [8, 20]
25. At the α = 0.05 significance level, the decision of the test will be
(A) More information is required (B) - (C) Reject H0 (D) Do not reject H0 (E) -
We wish to test the null hypothesis that the distribution of the clients, stratified by age, five large
phone
firms have is the same. In order to do so, five r.s. of 500, 600, 350, 800 and 700 clients from those
phone firms were taken. These clients were accordingly classified as a function of their age in four
classes:
younger than 30, between 30 and 44, between 45 and 60, and older than 60.
26. The test to be carried out will be:
(A) Homogeneity
(B) Independence
(C) Ratio of Variances
(D) Goodness-of-fit to a completely specified distribution
(E) All false
27. The distribution of the test statistic to be used for this test is, under H0:
(A) χ
20 (B) F5,4 (C) χ
12 (D) t20 (E) N(0,1)
The major of a location with 10000 inhabitants decides to take a poll to be able to estimate the
proportion
p of people in favor of eliminating bullfights from the local festivities program. We wish to estimate
p so
that the 95% confidence interval has an estimation error equal to 0.01.
28. What is the required sample size if the sampling is taken with replacement?
(A) 9604 (B) 49 (C) 6724 (D) 960 (E) 4900
29. What is the required sample size if the sampling is taken without replacement?
(A) 4900 (B) 49 (C) 9604 (D) 960 (E) 6724
30. The same poll is taken in 10 different locations of the same province, using the same sample size
in each
of them. If the sampling is taken without replacement and the true probability in favor of eliminating
bullfights is the same for all of the sampled locations, in which one of these locations the estimate of
p
will be more precise?
(A) In the location with the smallest number of inhabitants
(B) More information is required
(C) It will have the same precision in all locations
(D) In the location with the largest number of inhabitants
(E) All false
Let $L(\theta;X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n)$ be the likelihood function for a sample


 Unbiased Test


depend on $\theta$, for any value of $S=s$, the statistics
$S=s(X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n)$ is called
 Unbiased
 Consistent
 Sufficient
 Efficient
 Unbiased
 Sufficient
 Efficient
 Consistent
$\hat{\theta}$ is
 Unbiased
 Efficient
 Sufficient
 Consistent


 Log Function


9. If $Var(\hat{\theta})\rightarrow 0$ as $n \rightarrow 0$, then $\hat{\theta}$ is said
to be
 Unbiased
 Sufficient
 Efficient
 Consistent
10. Let $X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n$ be a random sample from the density $f(x;\theta)$,

where $\theta$ may be vector. If the conditional distribution of $X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n$
given $S=s$ does not depend on $\theta$ for any value of $s$ of $S$, then statistic
is called.
 Efficient


 Unbiased
 Efficient
 Sufficient
 Consistent

 BAN
 CANE
 BANE
 A) and B)
i. $E(\mu_t)=0$


variables, satisfying $E[|Z_t|]<\infty$. Let N be an integer-valued random variable
whose value n depends only on the values of the first n $Z_i$s. Suppose
$E(N)<\infty$, then $E(Z_1+Z_2+\cdots+Z_n)=E( N)E(Z_i)$ is called
 Necessary
 Sufficient ans
 None of these
 Run Test ans

 Sign Test
 Median Test
 Page’s Test
3. An estimator $T_n$ is said to be a sufficient statistic for a parameter function $\tau(\theta)$ if it

contained all the information which is contained in the
 Population
 Sample ans
 None of these
 Type-I Error
 Type-II Error
 Type-I and Type-II Error Both ans

 Lower Bound on the Variance ans
 None of these

 All Moments of a Population Distribution ans
7. With a lower significance level, the probability of rejecting a null hypothesis that is actually true:
 Decreases ans
 Increases
8. Roa-Blackwell Theorem enables us to obtain minimum variance unbiased estimator through:
 Sufficient Statistics ans
 Normal Equations ans

 Interval Scale
 Ratio Scale
 Ordinal Scale ans
 Nominal Scale
 Bartlett’s Test ans

 F-test
 t-test
 Samples are Dependent ans

 None of These
 Samples
 Probability Density Functions ans
 A Formula
 None of these
14. If the sample average $\overline{x}$ is an estimate of the population mean $\mu$, then
$\overline{x}$ is:
 Unbiased and Efficient ans


 Both (A) and (B) have Occurred ans
 Unbiased
 Efficient
 Sufficient
 None of These ans
 F-test ans
 $\chi^2$-test
 t-test
18. For a particular hypothesis test, $\alpha=0.05$, and $\beta=0.10$. The power of this test is:
 0.15
 0.90 ans
 0.85
 0.95
 Necessary
 Sufficient ans
 None of these
 Run Test ans

 Sign Test
 Median Test
 Page’s Test
3. An estimator $T_n$ is said to be a sufficient statistic for a parameter function $\tau(\theta)$ if it

contained all the information which is contained in the
 Population
 Sample ans
 None of these
 Type-I Error
 Type-II Error
 Type-I and Type-II Error Both ans

 Lower Bound on the Variance ans
 None of these

 All Moments of a Population Distribution ans
 Decreases ans
 Increases
 Sufficient Statistics ans
 Normal Equations ans

 Interval Scale
 Ratio Scale
 Ordinal Scale ans
 Nominal Scale
 Bartlett’s Test ans

 F-test
 t-test
 Samples are Dependent ans

 None of These
 Samples
 Probability Density Functions ans
 A Formula
 None of these
14. If the sample average $\overline{x}$ is an estimate of the population mean $\mu$, then
$\overline{x}$ is:
 Unbiased and Efficient ans


 Both (A) and (B) have Occurred ans
 Unbiased
 Efficient
 Sufficient
 None of These ans
 F-test ans
 $\chi^2$-test
 t-test
18. For a particular hypothesis test, $\alpha=0.05$, and $\beta=0.10$. The power of this test is:
 0.15
 0.90 ans
 0.85
 0.95
501
Sentence Completion Questions
501
Sentence Completion
Questions
N E W YO R K
Copyright © 2004 LearningExpress, LLC.
All rights reserved under International and Pan-American Copyright Conventions.

Published in the United States by LearningExpress, LLC, New York.
Library of Congress Cataliging-in-Publication Data:

501 sentence completion questions.—1st ed.
p.m.
ISBN 1–57685–511–2 (pbk.: alk. paper)
1. English language—Examinations—Study guides. 2. English language—Sentences—
Problems, exercises, etc. I. Title: Five hundred one sentence completion questions. II.
Title: Five hundred and one sentence completion questions. III. Series: LearningExpress
(Organization)
LB1631.5.A17 2004
428.1’076—dc22 2003027067
Printed in the United States of America
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
First Edition
ISBN 1-57685-511-2
For more information or to place an order, contact LearningExpress at:

55 Broadway
8th floor
New York, NY 10006
Or visit us at:
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The LearningExpress Skill Builder in Focus Writing Team is com-
prised of experts in test preparation, as well as educators and teachers who
specialize in language arts and math.
LearningExpress Skill Builder in Focus Writing Team
Lara Bohlke
Middle School Math Teacher, Grade 8
Dodd Middle School
Cheshire, Connecticut
Elizabeth Chesla
English Instructor
Coordinator of Technical and Professional Communication Program
Polytechnic University, Brooklyn
South Orange, New Jersey
Brigit Dermott
Freelance Writer
English Tutor, New York Cares
New York, New York
Darren Dunn
English Teacher
Riverhead School District
Riverhead, New York
Barbara Fine
English Instructor
Secondary Reading Specialist
Setauket, New York
Sandy Gade
Project Editor
LearningExpress
New York, New York
Melinda Grove
Adjunct Professor
Quinnipiac University and Naugatuck Valley Community College
Math Consultant
Karen Hunter
Project Editor
Elkview, West Virginia
Diane Kampf
Middle School English Teacher, Grade 7
Robert Moss Middle School
North Babylon School District
North Babylon, New York
Adjunct Assistant Professor
Suffolk Community College
Suffolk, New York
Noah Kravitz
Curriculum and Technology Specialist
New York, New York
Kerry McLean
Project Editor
Math Tutor
Shirley, New York
Kimberly Moroz
English Instructor
Wilmington College
New Castle, Delaware
William Recco
New York Shoreham/Wading River School District
Math Tutor
St. James, New York
Colleen Schultz
Vestal Central School District
Math Tutor and Teacher Mentor
Vestal, New York
Contents
Introduction ix
Chapter 1 1
Chapter 2 9
Chapter 3 17
Chapter 4 27
Chapter 5 37
Chapter 6 47
Chapter 7 55
Chapter 8 65
Chapter 9 73
Chapter 10 83
Chapter 11 91
Chapter 12 101
Chapter 13 109
Chapter 14 117
Chapter 15 127
vii
501 Sentence Completion Questions
Chapter 16 135
Chapter 17 143
Chapter 18 151
Chapter 19 159
Chapter 20 169
viii
Introduction
Welcome to 501 Sentence Completion Questions! This book

is designed to help you prepare for the verbal and reading sections of
many assessment and entrance exams. By completing the 501 sample
items offered here and by studying their answer explanations, you will
develop the skills necessary to tackle each type of sentence completion
question. You will also improve your vocabulary and your process of
elimination skills.
Sentence completions test your ability to use the information
found in complex, but incomplete, sentences in order to correctly
complete the sentences. Sentence completions test two separate
aspects of your verbal skills: your vocabulary and your ability to fol-
low the internal logic of sentences. These sentences are often quite
complex. Fortunately, there are some strategies that will greatly
increase your score on these questions. Each of these questions has
one blank (or, on some tests, two blanks) within a single sentence.
Often the sentences are long and difficult to follow, but with practice
you can learn to master them.
ix
Many standardized tests—including high school and college

entrance exams and civil service exams—use sentence completion
questions to test vocabulary and logic. Some of the “alphabet soup”
of exams that contain sentence completions are the:
■ SAT I exam
■ PSAT/NMSQT exam
■ GRE General test
■ TOEFL/TOEIC exams
■ ISEE
■ GRT
You might wonder what kinds of strategies you can use to master
sentence completions. When it comes to sentence completions, the
word that does not appear is the key to the meaning of the sentence.
The words that do appear offer clues to the missing word. If you can
find out how the words that appear are connected, you can find the
correct answer. This means that you must know more than just the
meaning of the words involved. You must also understand the logic
of the sentence. Here is a sampling of strategies:
■ Read the entire sentence saying “blank” for the blank(s).

This gives you an overall sense of the meaning of the
sentence and helps you figure out how the parts of the
sentence relate to each other. If an answer occurs to you
before you even look at the choices, you may have a
synonym for the answer or the answer itself.
■ Pay special attention to introductory and transitional
words—but, although, however, yet, even though—because
they are key to forming the logical structure of the
sentence.
■ Be sure your choice is both logical and grammatically
correct.
■ If you don’t know some words, use elimination and
educated guessing, which means you are able to eliminate
x
one or more of the choices as definitely wrong; or

guessing from context when you know a related word.
There are several types of sentence completions:
■ restatement
■ comparison
■ contrast
■ cause and effect
Here is an example of a cause-and-effect sentence completion

question:
After a brief and violent ______ that ousted the president, General
Monsanto declared himself the dictator of the country.
a. nuance
b. coup
c. solicitation
d. upbraiding
e. lament
The answer is choice b. A coup (n.) is a sudden and decisive change

of leadership illegally or by force, a takeover. What (the cause) led the
general to declare himself dictator (the result)? Something brief and
violent, that ousted the president, a coup.
Here is an example of a restatement question:
The city council formed a committee to simplify several dozen

______ city ordinances that were unnecessarily complicated and
out-of-date.
a. feckless
b. empirical
c. byzantine
d. slovenly
e. pedantic
xi
The answer is choice c, byzantine, an adjective that means “highly

complicated and intricate.” Here, you are looking for a restatement
of the clue words complicated and out-of-date, and for something that
needs simplifying.
As you practice sentence completions, you may discover signal words
and phrases—clues that help you choose the correct answer. Here are
common signal words and an example for each kind of question:
Restatement: namely, in other words, in fact, that is

Example: The pickpocket was a trickster, in other words, a ______.
(The answer, which restates “trickster,” might be knave or
scoundrel.)
Comparison: likewise, similarly, and, just as, as ______ as, for exam-
ple, as shown, as illustrated by
Example: Anna was cleared of all charges; similarly, Sam was
______.
(The answer compares to being “cleared of all charges,” so perhaps
Sam was vindicated.)
Contrast: though, although, however, despite, but, yet; on the other

hand, but, however, despite, or on the contrary
Example: Although the tiger is a solitary beast, its cousin the lion is
a ______ animal.
(The answer is something that contrasts with “solitary,” such as
gregarious or sociable.)
Cause and effect: thus, therefore, consequently, and because and

phrases such as due to, as a result, leads to
Example: A truck stole her parking spot; consequently, Sally’s ______
look showed her displeasure.
(The answer would be a look caused by someone stealing Sally’s
parking spot, maybe scowling or sullen.)
xii
The sentence completion question sets in this book increase in dif-

ficulty as you practice your way through them—from easy to inter-
mediate to advanced. These divisions may reflect how challenging
the vocabulary is or how complex the sentence structure is or how
challenging the logic of the sentence is.
The 501 Skill Builder in Focus exercises will help you prepare for
an exam in several ways. First, you will become familiar with the
question format. You will get used to identifying the relationships of
words within a sentence. The more comfortable you are with the
question format and the more familiar you are with the range of sen-
tence completion types, the easier the verbal or reading section of
your test will be.
Second, your performance on these questions will help you assess
your vocabulary strengths and weaknesses. For example, you may
find that you do very well with words that are cognates (words from
a common original form, such as asteroid and astronomy), but not so
well on foreign words, such as ennui or angst.
Third, you will learn, through practice, to spot and disregard
wrong answer choices. You may also discover a pattern to your wrong
answers. (Are you weak on cause-and-effect questions?)
In addition to this book, look for other sources of vocabulary
growth: software, audio and online courses, and books. One helpful
resource is LearningExpress’s Vocabulary and Spelling Success in 20
Minutes a Day, which helps boost your vocabulary and your verbal
test scores.
You have already taken an important step toward improving your
score. You have shown your commitment by purchasing this book.
Now what you need to do is complete each exercise, study the
answers, and watch your ability to solve sentence completions
increase. Good luck!
xiii
Chapter 1
1. She hadn’t eaten all day, and by the time she got home she was
______.
a. blighted
b. confutative
c. ravenous
d. ostentatious
e. blissful
2. The movie offended many of the parents of its younger viewers by

including unnecessary ______ in the dialogue.
a. vulgarity
b. verbosity
c. vocalizations
d. garishness
e. tonality
1
3. His neighbors found his ______ manner bossy and irritating, and
they stopped inviting him to backyard barbeques.
a. insentient
b. magisterial
c. reparatory
d. restorative
e. modest
4. Steven is always ______ about showing up for work because he

feels that tardiness is a sign of irresponsibility.
a. legible
b. tolerable
c. punctual
d. literal
e. belligerent
5. Candace would ______ her little sister into an argument by teasing

her and calling her names.
a. advocate
b. provoke
c. perforate
d. lamente
e. expunge
6. The dress Ariel wore ______ with small, glassy beads, creating a
shimmering effect.
a. titillated
b. reiterated
c. scintillated
d. enthralled
e. striated
7. Being able to afford this luxury car will ______ getting a better-
paying job.
a. maximize
b. recombinant
c. reiterate
d. necessitate
e. reciprocate
2
8. Levina unknowingly ______ the thief by holding open the elevator

doors and ensuring his escape.
a. coerced
b. proclaimed
c. abetted
d. sanctioned
e. solicited
9. Shakespeare, a(n) ______ writer, entertained audiences by writing

many tragic and comic plays.
a. numeric
b. obstinate
c. dutiful
d. prolific
e. generic
10. I had the ______ experience of sitting next to an over-talkative

passenger on my flight home from Brussels.
a. satisfactory
b. commendable
c. galling
d. acceptable
e. acute
11. Prince Phillip had to choose: marry the woman he loved and ______
his right to the throne, or marry Lady Fiona and inherit the crown.
a. reprimand
b. upbraid
c. abdicate
d. winnow
e. extol
12. If you will not do your work of your own ______, I have no choice
but to penalize you if it is not done on time.
a. predilection
b. coercion
c. excursion
d. volition
e. infusion
3
13. After sitting in the sink for several days, the dirty, food-encrusted
dishes became ______.
a. malodorous
b. prevalent
c. imposing
d. perforated
e. emphatic
14. Giulia soon discovered the source of the ______ smell in the room:
a week-old tuna sandwich that one of the children had hidden in
the closet.
a. quaint
b. fastidious
c. clandestine
d. laconic
e. fetid
15. After making ______ remarks to the President, the reporter was
not invited to return to the White House pressroom.
a. hospitable
b. itinerant
c. enterprising
d. chivalrous
e. irreverent
16. With her ______ eyesight, Krystyna spotted a trio of deer on the
hillside and she reduced the speed of her car.
a. inferior
b. keen
c. impressionable
d. ductile
e. conspiratorial
4
17. With a(n) ______ grin, the boy quickly slipped the candy into his
pocket without his mother’s knowledge.
a. jaundiced
b. nefarious
c. stereotypical
d. sentimental
e. impartial
18. Her ______ display of tears at work did not impress her new boss,
who felt she should try to control her emotions.
a. maudlin
b. meritorious
c. precarious
d. plausible
e. schematic
19. Johan argued, “If you know about a crime but don’t report it, you
are ______ in that crime because you allowed it to happen.”
a. acquitted
b. steadfast
c. tenuous
d. complicit
e. nullified
20. The authorities, fearing a ______ of their power, called for a

military state in the hopes of restoring order.
a. subversion
b. premonition
c. predilection
d. infusion
e. inversion
21. The story’s bitter antagonist felt such great ______ for all of the other
characters that as a result, his life was very lonely and he died alone.
a. insurgence
b. malevolence
c. reciprocation
d. declamation
e. preference
5
22. It is difficult to believe that charging 20% on an outstanding credit

card balance isn’t ______!
a. bankruptcy
b. usury
c. novice
d. kleptomania
e. flagrancy
23. The ______ weather patterns of the tropical island meant tourists
had to carry both umbrellas and sunglasses.
a. impertinent
b. supplicant
c. preeminent
d. illustrative
e. kaleidoscopic
24. Wedding ceremonies often include the exchange of ______ rings

to symbolize the couple’s promises to each other.
a. hirsute
b. acrimonious
c. plaintive
d. deciduous
e. votive
25. Kym was ______ in choosing her friends, so her parties were
attended by vastly different and sometimes bizarre personalities.
a. indispensable
b. indiscriminate
c. commensurate
d. propulsive
e. indisputable
6
Answers
1. c. Ravenous (adj.) means extremely hungry.
2. a. Vulgarity (n.) means offensive speech or conduct.
3. b. Magisterial (adj.) means overbearing or offensively self-assured.
4. c. Punctual (adj.) means arriving exactly on time.
5. b. To provoke (v.) is to incite anger or resentment; to call forth a

feeling or action.
6. c. To scintillate (v.) means to emit or send forth sparks or little

flashes of light, creating a shimmering effect; to sparkle.
7. d. To necessitate (v.) means to make necessary, especially as a result.
8. c. To abet (v.) means to assist, encourage, urge, or aid, usually an

act of wrongdoing.
9. d. Prolific (adj.) means abundantly creative.
10. c. Galling (adj.) means irritating, annoying, or exasperating.
11. c. To abdicate (v.) means to formally relinquish or surrender power,

office, or responsibility.
12. d. Volition (n.) means accord; an act or exercise of will.
13. a. Malodorous (adj.) means having a foul-smelling odor.
14. e. Fetid (adj.) means having a foul or offensive odor, putrid.
15. e. Irreverent (adj.) means lacking respect or seriousness; not

reverent.
16. b. Keen (adj.) means being extremely sensitive or responsive;

having strength of perception.
7
17. b. Nefarious (adj.) means wicked, vicious, or evil.
18. a. Maudlin (adj.) means excessively and weakly sentimental or

tearfully emotional.
19. d. Complicit (adj.) means participating in or associated with a

questionable act or a crime.
20. a. Subversion (n.) means an overthrow, as from the foundation.
21. b. Malevolence (n.) means ill will or malice toward others; hate.
22. b. Usury (n.) is the lending of money at exorbitant interest rates.
23. e. Kaleidoscopic (adj.) means continually changing or quickly

shifting.
24. e. Votive (adj.) means dedicated by a vow.
25. b. Indiscriminate (adj.) means not discriminating or choosing

randomly; haphazard; without distinction.
8
Chapter 2
26. Phillip’s ______ tone endeared him to his comical friends, but
irritated his serious father.
a. aloof
b. jesting
c. grave
d. earnest
e. conservative
27. Brian’s pale Irish skin was ______ to burn if he spent too much
time in the sun.
a. prone
b. urbane
c. eminent
d. erect
e. daunted
9
28. A fan of historical fiction, Joline is now reading a novel about

slavery in the ______ South.
a. decorous
b. rogue
c. droll
d. antebellum
e. onerous
29. Over the years the Wilsons slowly ______ upon the Jacksons’
property, moving the stone markers that divided their lots farther
and farther onto the Jacksons’ land.
a. encroached
b. jettisoned
c. conjoined
d. repudiated
e. teemed
30. Mary became ______ at typing because she practiced every day for
six months.
a. proficient
b. reflective
c. dormant
d. redundant
e. valiant
31. To find out what her husband bought for her birthday, Susan
attempted to ______ his family members about his recent shopping
excursions.
a. prescribe
b. probe
c. alienate
d. converge
e. revere
10
32. Juan’s friends found him in a ______ mood after he learned he

would be homecoming king.
a. jovial
b. stealthy
c. paltry
d. gullible
e. depleted
33. His suit of armor made the knight ______ to his enemy’s attack,
and he was able to escape safely to his castle.
a. vulnerable
b. churlish
c. invulnerable
d. static
e. imprudent
34. Choosing a small, fuel-efficient car is a ______ purchase for a

recent college graduate.
a. corrupt
b. tedious
c. unhallowed
d. sardonic
e. judicious
35. Such a ______ violation of school policy should be punished by

nothing less than expulsion.
a. copious
b. flagrant
c. raucous
d. nominal
e. morose
36. With all of the recent negative events in her life, she felt ______
forces must be at work.
a. resurgent
b. premature
c. malignant
d. punctilious
e. antecedent
11
37. The ______ rumors did a great deal of damage even though they
turned out to be false.
a. bemused
b. prosaic
c. apocryphal
d. ebullient
e. tantamount
38. When her schoolwork got to be too much, Pam had a tendency to
______, which always put her further behind.
a. dedicate
b. rejuvenate
c. ponder
d. excel
e. procrastinate
39. Racha’s glance was a ______ invitation to speak later in private

about events of the meeting.
a. trecherous
b. scintillating
c. tactful
d. tacit
e. taboo
40. She reached the ______ of her career with her fourth novel, which
won the Pulitzer Prize.
a. harbinger
b. apogee
c. metamorphosis
d. dictum
e. synthesis
41. The ______ townspeople celebrated the soldier’s return to his

home by adorning trees with yellow ribbons and balloons.
a. somber
b. jubilant
c. pitiless
d. cunning
e. unsullied
12
42. The governor-elect was hounded by a group of ______ lobbyists

and others hoping to gain favor with her administration.
a. facetious
b. abstruse
c. magnanimous
d. fawning
e. saccharine
43. The mock graduation ceremony—with a trained skunk posing as

the college president—was a complete ______ that offended many
college officials.
a. tempest
b. epitome
c. quintessence
d. travesty
e. recitative
44. The busy, ______ fabric of the clown’s tie matched his oversized
jacket, which was equally atrocious.
a. mottled
b. bleak
c. credible
d. malleable
e. communicable
45. Kendrick’s talent ______ under the tutelage of Anya Kowalonek,

who as a young woman had been the most accomplished pianist in
her native Lithuania.
a. bantered
b. touted
c. flourished
d. embellished
e. colluded
13
46. The children were ______ by the seemingly nonsensical clues until
Kinan pointed out that the messages were in code.
a. censured
b. striated
c. feigned
d. prevaricated
e. flummoxed
47. As the ______ in Romeo and Juliet, Romeo is a hero able to

capture the audience’s sympathy by continually professing his love
for Juliet.
a. protagonist
b. enigma
c. facade
d. activist
e. catechist
48. The chess master promised to ______ havoc upon his opponent’s
pawns for taking his bishop.
a. wreak
b. warrant
c. ensue
d. placate
e. endow
49. I have always admired Seymour’s ______; I’ve never seen him
rattled by anything.
a. aplomb
b. confluence
c. propriety
d. compunction
e. nostalgia
50. The soldiers received a military ______ to inspect all their vehicles
before traveling.
a. allotment
b. dominion
c. affectation
d. calculation
e. mandate
14
Answers
26. b. Jesting (adj.) means characterized by making jests; joking;

playful.
27. a. Prone (adj.) means a tendency or inclination to something.
28. d. Antebellum (adj.) means belonging to the period before a war,

especially the American Civil War.
29. a. To encroach (v.) means to gradually or stealthily take the rights

or possessions of another; to advance beyond proper or formal
limits; trespass.
30. a. Proficient (adj.) means well versed in any business or branch of

learning; adept.
31. b. To probe (v.) is to examine thoroughly; tentatively survey.
32. a. Jovial (adj.) means showing hearty good cheer; marked with the
spirit of jolly merriment.
33. c. Invulnerable (adj.) means incapable of being damaged or

wounded; unassailable or invincible.
34. e. Judicious (adj.) means being wise or prudent; showing good

judgment; sensible.
35. b. Flagrant (adj.) means conspicuously and outrageously bad,

offensive, or reprehensible.
36. c. Malignant (adj.) means disposed to cause distress or inflict

suffering intentionally; inclining to produce death; an injurious
infiltration.
37. c. Apocryphal (adj.) means of questionable authenticity or doubtful

authority; fictitious, false.
38. e. To procrastinate (v.) is to put off from day to day.
15
39. c. Tacit (adj.) means unspoken yet understood.
40. b. Apogee (n.) means the highest or farthest point, culmination; the
point in its orbit where a satellite is at the greatest distance from
the body it is orbiting.
41. b. Jubilant (adj.) means rejoicing; expressing joyfulness; exulting.
42. d. Fawning (adj.) means attempting to win favor or attention by

excessive flattery, ingratiating displays of affection, or servile
compliance; obsequious.
43. d. Travesty (n.) means a parody; a grotesque imitation with the

intent to ridicule.
44. a. Mottled (adj.) means blotched or spotted with different colors or

shades.
45. c. To flourish (v.) is (of artists) to be in a state of high productivity,

excellence, or influence; to grow luxuriously, thrive; to fare well,
prosper, increase in wealth, honor, comfort or whatever is
desirable; to make bold, sweeping movements.
46. e. To flummox (v.) is to confuse, perplex, bewilder.
47. a. A protagonist (n.) is the main character in a drama.
48. a. To wreak (v.) means to inflict, as a revenge or punishment.
49. a. Aplomb (n.) is self-assurance, composure, poise, especially under

strain.
50. e. Mandate (n.) is a command or authoritative instruction.
16
Chapter 3
51. As ______ beings we live each day conscious of our shortcomings

and victories.
a. sensational
b. sentient
c. sentimental
d. static
e. senile
52. The curious crowd gathered to watch the irate customer ______
about the poor service he received in the restaurant.
a. antiquate
b. trivialize
c. rant
d. placate
e. fetter
17
53. The man’s ______ driving resulted in a four-car pile-up on the

freeway.
a. burdensome
b. charismatic
c. exceptional
d. boastful
e. negligent
54. Ron didn’t know the rules of rugby, but he could tell by the
crowd’s reaction that it was a critical ______ in the game.
a. acclamation
b. conviction
c. juncture
d. enigma
e. revelation
55. My ancestor who lost his life in the Revolutionary War was a
______ for American independence.
a. knave
b. reactionary
c. compatriot
d. nonconformist
e. martyr
56. The ______ sound of the radiator as it released steam became an

increasingly annoying distraction.
a. sibilant
b. scintillating
c. diverting
d. sinuous
e. scurrilous
57. It is helpful for salesmen to develop a good ______ with their

customers in order to gain their trust.
a. platitude
b. rapport
c. ire
d. tribute
e. disinclination
18
58. In such a small office setting, the office manager found he had
______ responsibilities that required knowledge in a variety of
different topics.
a. heedless
b. complementary
c. mutual
d. manifold
e. correlative
59. David’s ______ entrance on stage disrupted the scene and caused
the actors to flub their lines.
a. untimely
b. precise
c. lithe
d. fortuitous
e. tensile
60. The settlers found an ideal location with plenty of ______ land for
farming and a mountain stream for fresh water and irrigation.
a. candid
b. provincial
c. arable
d. timid
e. quaint
61. The ______ seventh-grader towered over the other players on his
basketball team.
a. gangling
b. studious
c. mimetic
d. abject
e. reserved
19
62. Carson was at first flattered by the ______ of his new colleagues,
but he soon realized that their admiration rested chiefly on his
connections, not his accomplishments.
a. reprisal
b. adulation
c. bulwark
d. rapport
e. retinue
63. For a(n) ______ fee, it is possible to upgrade from regular gasoline
to premium.
a. nominal
b. judgmental
c. existential
d. bountiful
e. jovial
64. Searching frantically to find the hidden jewels, the thieves

proceeded to ______ the entire house.
a. justify
b. darken
c. amplify
d. ransack
e. glorify
65. The ______ deer stuck close to its mother when venturing out into
the open field.
a. starling
b. foundling
c. yearling
d. begrudging
e. hatchling
20
66. The police officer ______ the crowd to step back from the fire so
that no one would get hurt.
a. undulated
b. enjoined
c. stagnated
d. permeated
e. delineated
67. Jackson’s poor typing skills were a ______ to finding employment

at the nearby office complex.
a. benefit
b. hindrance
c. partiality
d. temptation
e. canon
68. Through ______, the chef created a creamy sauce by combining

brown sugar, butter, and cinnamon in a pan and cooking them over
medium-high heat.
a. impasse
b. obscurity
c. decadence
d. diversion
e. liquefaction
69. The defendant claimed that he was innocent and that his
confession was ______.
a. coerced
b. flagrant
c. terse
d. benign
e. futile
21
70. Harvey was discouraged that his visa application was ______ due to
his six convictions.
a. lethargic
b. immeasurable
c. nullified
d. segregated
e. aggravated
71. The rebel spies were charged with ______ and put on trial.
a. sedition
b. attrition
c. interaction
d. reiteration
e. perdition
72. Keith was ______ in his giving to friends and charities throughout
the year, not just during the holidays.
a. munificent
b. portly
c. amphibious
d. guileful
e. forensic
73. Calvin reached the ______ of his career in his early thirties when
he became president and CEO of a software company.
a. zephyr
b. plethora
c. vale
d. nocturne
e. zenith
74. Although I’d asked a simple “yes” or “no” question, Irfan’s reply
was ______, and I didn’t know how to interpret it.
a. prodigal
b. irate
c. equivocal
d. voracious
e. harrowing
22
75. The high-profile company CEO was given an ______ for speaking
at the monthly meeting of the area business leaders’ society.
a. expiation
b. honorarium
c. inoculation
d. interpretation
e. inquisition
23
Answers
51. b. Sentient (adj.) means possessing the power of sense or sense-

perception; conscious.
52. c. To rant (v.) means to speak loudly or violently.
53. e. Negligent (adj.) means to habitually lack in giving proper care or

attention; having a careless manner.
54. c. Juncture (n.) is a point of time, especially one that is at a critical

point.
55. e. A martyr (n.) is one who sacrifices something of supreme value,

such as a life, for a cause or principle; a victim; one who suffers
constantly.
56. a. Sibilant (adj.) means characterized by a hissing sound.
57. b. A rapport (n.) is a relationship that is useful and harmonious.
58. d. Manifold (adj.) means many and varied; of many kinds; multiple.
59. a. Untimely (adj.) means happening before the proper time.
60. c. Arable (adj.) means suitable for cultivation, fit for plowing and
farming productively.
61. a. Gangling (adj.) means awkward, lanky, or unusually tall and thin.
62. b. Adulation (n.) means strong or excessive admiration or praise;

fawning flattery.
63. a. Nominal (adj.) means small, virtually nothing, or much below

the actual value of a thing.
64. d. To ransack (v.) means to thoroughly search, to plunder, pillage.
24
65. c. A yearling (n.) is a young animal past its first year but not yet
two years old.
66. b. To enjoin (v.) means to issue an order or command; to direct or

impose with authority.
67. b. Hindrance (n.) is an impediment or obstruction; a state of being

hindered; a cause of being prevented or impeded.
68. e. Liquefaction (n.) is the process of liquefying a solid or making a

liquid.
69. a. To coerce (v.) is to force to do through pressure, threats, or

intimidation; to compel.
70. c. To nullify (v.) means to make invalid or nonexistent.
71. a. Sedition (n.) means resistance, insurrection; conduct directed

against public order and the tranquility of the state.
72. a. Munificent (adj.) means extremely generous or liberal in giving;

lavish.
73. e. Zenith (n.) means the highest point of any path or course.
74. c. Equivocal (adj.) means open to two or more interpretations,

ambiguous and often intended to mislead; open to question,
uncertain.
75. b. Honorarium (n.) is payment or reward for services for which

payment is not usually required.
25
Chapter 4
76. Zachary was doomed to a miserable life, for no matter how much
he had, he always ______ the possessions of others.
a. protracted
b. exalted
c. engendered
d. coveted
e. filibustered
77. Sheila’s grueling hike included passing through numerous ______.

a. terrariums
b. neoprene
c. jurisdictions
d. ravines
e. belfries
27
78. The college professor was known on campus as a ______

character—bland but harmless and noble in his ideals.
a. staid
b. stagnant
c. auspicious
d. sterile
e. dogmatic
79. Because he was so ______, the athlete was able to complete the
obstacle course in record time.
a. belligerent
b. nimble
c. demure
d. volatile
e. speculative
80. The toy store’s extensive inventory offered a ______ of toys from
baby items to video games for teenagers.
a. manifold
b. lexicon
c. burrow
d. gamut
e. motif
81. With sunscreen and a good book, April ______ by the pool in her
lounge chair while the children swam.
a. ensconced
b. sustained
c. expelled
d. transcended
e. lolled
28
82. NaQuan had a terrible habit of boasting so much about his

smallest accomplishments that his ______ became renowned
throughout the small college campus.
a. vainglory
b. timidity
c. diffidence
d. tempestuousness
e. mockery
83. Only a small number of people in the audience laughed at the

comic’s ______ sense of humor, while the rest found him to be too
sarcastic.
a. consequential
b. avaricious
c. venturous
d. dauntless
e. mordant
84. He has long been a(n) ______ of year-round school, believing it

would significantly improve learning and ease the burden on
working parents.
a. advocate
b. levity
c. detractor
d. epiphany
e. connoisseur
85. Tired of hearing the child whine for more candy, the babysitter
finally ______ and offered him a piece of chocolate.
a. relented
b. abated
c. rendered
d. placated
e. enumerated
29
86. Dogs growl and show their teeth in an attempt to ______ the
animal or person they perceive as a threat.
a. bolster
b. waylay
c. cow
d. exacerbate
e. appease
87. In biology class, Sabine observed the slug’s ______, its barely
discernible movement in the tank.
a. parody
b. prescience
c. torpor
d. insight
e. vigor
88. The ______ instinct of a watchdog is to attack strangers who enter

its home.
a. judicious
b. intimate
c. pragmatic
d. melancholy
e. primal
89. The battalion’s ______ was a well-fortified structure near the

enemy lines.
a. labyrinth
b. summary
c. villa
d. vinculum
e. garrison
90. Much to my surprise, my teenage daughter was ______ to the idea

of going out with me on Friday night instead of with her friends.
a. contrite
b. impartial
c. partisan
d. deferential
e. amenable
30
91. The enormous waves forced the lobster boat to ______ heavily to
the starboard side, causing crates of lobsters to topple and fall into
the ocean.
a. trifle
b. degenerate
c. list
d. expedite
e. disseminate
92. Walking through the ______ forest in spring was a welcome escape
from the cold, gray winter we had spent in the city.
a. pliant
b. verdant
c. factious
d. bland
e. innocuous
93. Nina called the humane society when she saw her neighbor ______
his dog.
a. mandate
b. forebode
c. maltreat
d. stipulate
e. peruse
94. Meredith used the ______ to steer the horse and keep him in line.
a. jolt
b. bristle
c. chine
d. quirt
e. hearth
95. Oliver was unable to ______ himself from the difficulties he had
caused by forging the documents.
a. reprove
b. pique
c. oust
d. extricate
e. broach
31
96. The ______ of our expedition was still so far away that I felt we
would never get there.
a. nadir
b. terminus
c. speculation
d. apex
e. dungeon
97. If he expected to ______ as a doctor, Lou knew he would have to

study hard in medical school and work long hours to gain
experience and skill.
a. perpetrate
b. palliate
c. palpitate
d. prosper
e. mediate
98. Doc Wilson grew up in Florida and was not prepared to face the
______ climate of the Alaskan winter.
a. freshwater
b. gelid
c. compendious
d. subsidiary
e. improvident
99. Marvin’s ______ prevented him from finishing his work and was
evidenced in his large phone bills.
a. loquacity
b. heroism
c. decadence
d. depreciation
e. rescission
32
100. The graph clearly showed the company reaching the ______ in
profits during the 1980s when the economy was in a boom period.
a. narthex
b. gullet
c. gamut
d. quiescence
e. vertex
33
Answers
76. d. To covet (v.) is to wish or long for; to feel immoderate desire for
that which belongs to another.
77. d. A ravine (n.) is a deep narrow canyon.
78. a. Staid (adj.) means of a steady and sober character; prudently

reserved and colorless.
79. b. Nimble (adj.) is quick and light in movement, to be agile.
80. d. A gamut (n.) is an entire range or a whole series.
81. e. To loll (v.) is to lean, recline, or act lazily or indolently; lounge.
82. a. Vainglory (n.) means excessive, pretentious, and demonstrative

vanity.
83. e. Mordant (adj.) means bitingly sarcastic or harshly caustic.
84. a. An advocate (n.) is one who argues for a cause, a supporter or

defender; one who pleads on another’s behalf.
85. a. To relent (v.) means to yield or comply.
86. c. To cow (v.) is to intimidate, frighten with threats or show of

force.
87. c. Torpor (n.) means extreme sluggishness; lethargy or apathy;

dullness.
88. e. Primal (adj.) means primary, the first in order or the original;
primitive.
89. e. A garrison (n.) is a fort or outpost where troops are stationed;

any military post.
34
90. e. Amenable (adj.) means disposed or willing to comply; responsive,

willing; responsible to a higher authority, accountable.
91. c. To list (v.) (related to a vessel) is to incline or to cause to lean to

one side.
92. b. Verdant (adj.) means green with vegetation.
93. c. To maltreat (v.) means to treat poorly; abuse.
94. d. A quirt (n.) is a riding whip with a short handle and braided
rawhide leash.
95. d. To extricate (v.) is to release from an entanglement or difficulty,

disengage.
96. b. The terminus (n) is the final point or goal; the final stop on a
transportation line.
97. d. To prosper (v.) means to be successful.
98. b. Gelid (adj.) means icy or extremely cold; possessing a cold or

unfriendly manner.
99. a. Loquacity (n.) is talkativeness; the state of continual talking.
100. e. Vertex (n.) means the highest point of anything; the apex or
summit.
35
Chapter 5
101. Amie agrees with the ______ that the grass is always greener on
the other side of the fence.
a. perpetuity
b. penchant
c. maxim
d. conformation
e. fortitude
102. Victor Frankenstein’s creature was a(n) ______, detested by

everyone he met.
a. itinerant
b. anathema
c. cosmopolitan
d. mercenary
e. anomaly
37
103. Jack Nicholson was at the ______ of his career when he received
the Oscar for Best Actor.
a. detriment
b. pinnacle
c. oligarchy
d. rogue
e. repose
104. Ariana was outstanding as the moderator; she handled the

intensely heated debate with great ______, diplomatically and
tactfully keeping the conversation fair and on track.
a. finesse
b. pretentiousness
c. prowess
d. succor
e. aversion
105. The class endured a loud and lengthy ______ by the teacher on the
subject of submitting written work on time.
a. guile
b. polemic
c. bravado
d. tirade
e. heresy
106. Lauren’s ______ features, what you first noticed about her, were
her stunning black hair and large, dark eyes.
a. savvy
b. affluent
c. predominant
d. universal
e. malicious
38
107. Whenever Tom and I would argue he would ______ with his hands
and body to accentuate his point.
a. interject
b. infuse
c. gesticulate
d. conjure
e. encumber
108. Must we be subjected to your ______ complaints all day long?

a. tiresome
b. fearsome
c. awesome
d. gleesome
e. wholesome
109. The new political candidate refused to print ______ about her
aggressive opponent, but that did not stop him from printing lies
about her.
a. dispensation
b. assignation
c. rendition
d. libel
e. compunction
110. Awkwardly tall and prone to tripping over her own feet, Grace felt
her name was truly a ______.
a. misnomer
b. preoccupation
c. universality
d. garrulity
e. benevolence
39
111. Although the villagers’ lives were profoundly different from her
own, Jing-Mae felt a deep ______ for the people when she served
in the Peace Corps.
a. reparation
b. affinity
c. injunction
d. exigency
e. analogy
112. Sometimes late at night Sharon would gaze joyfully at her children
as they slept and ______ in their innocence.
a. sneer
b. ostracize
c. revel
d. repudiate
e. antiquate
113. In the famous balcony scene, Romeo ______ Juliet’s beauty in one
of the most romantic soliloquies ever written.
a. sanctions
b. extols
c. peruses
d. beguiles
e. fetters
114. It was ______ to think that it could possibly snow in the middle of
the desert.
a. advantageous
b. philosophical
c. eroding
d. preventative
e. preposterous
40
115. Every evening at the restaurant, the reporter would eavesdrop on

the Mayor’s conversations in order to ______ any information that
could make headlines.
a. ignore
b. glean
c. extol
d. extend
e. narrate
116. The surgeon placed a ______ on the femoral artery to bind it

during the long and exhausting surgery.
a. ligature
b. doctrine
c. premise
d. synopsis
e. degeneration
117. By sheer ______ force, the men pushed the truck to the side of the
road and out of danger.
a. virile
b. persnickety
c. meticulous
d. suave
e. contentious
118. Based on his recent poor decisions, it was obvious that Seth lacked
even a ______ of good sense.
a. debasement
b. diversion
c. disapprobation
d. submission
e. modicum
41
119. To settle the dispute, the students elected a faculty member to

serve as a(n) ______.
a. maverick
b. dystopia
c. arbiter
d. fiduciary
e. martyr
120. The ______ newspaper accounts of the city scandal caused some
readers to question the truth of the stories.
a. lurid
b. vivacious
c. blithesome
d. prolific
e. amicable
121. The ______ man with amnesia was unable to recognize where
he was.
a. endogenous
b. euphoric
c. nonplussed
d. amicable
e. pliable
122. Justin’s ______ solution to the problem revealed that he did not
spend much time considering the consequences.
a. facile
b. obsolete
c. resilient
d. pristine
e. ardent
123. The events of the evening ______ without difficulty despite the
lack of planning on the part of the host.
a. expired
b. transpired
c. retired
d. ensured
e. extorted
42
124. It is every American person’s ______ to live the life he or she

chooses.
a. composite
b. eloquence
c. prerogative
d. allusion
e. demise
125. After the boisterous customers left the café without tipping, Carlos
______ at them through the restaurant’s front window.
a. interjected
b. jostled
c. glowered
d. emulated
e. skulked
43
Answers
101. c. Maxim (n.) is an established principle or a general truth, often a

condensed version of a practical truth.
102. b. An anathema (n.) is one who is detested or shunned; one who is

cursed or damned; a curse or vehement denunciation; a formal
ban, curse, or excommunication.
103. b. A pinnacle (n.) is the highest level or degree available.
104. a. Finesse (n.) is the subtle, skillful handling of a situation,

diplomacy, tact; refined or delicate performance or execution.
105. d. A tirade (n.) is a long and blusterous speech given especially

when the speaker is denouncing someone or something.
106. c. Predominant (adj.) means most dominant, common, or frequent;

to have surpassing power, influence, or authority.
107. c. To gesticulate (v.) means to use gestures or make motions;

express through motion, especially while speaking.
108. a. Tiresome (adj.) means causing to be weary.
109. d. Libel (n.) is defamatory writing; misrepresentative publication

(writing, pictures, signs) that damages a person’s reputation.
110. a. Misnomer (n.) is a misnaming of a person or place; a wrong or

unsuitable name.
111. b. An affinity (n.) is a natural attraction or liking; a feeling of

kinship, connection or closeness, similarity; relationship by
marriage.
112. c. To revel (v.) is to take great pleasure or delight.
113. b. To extol (v.) means to praise highly, exalt, glorify.
44
114. e. Preposterous (adj.) means contrary to common sense or utterly

absurd.
115. b. To glean (v.) means to gather or collect slowly; to learn or

discover bit by bit.
116. a. A ligature (n.) is something that ties or binds up, such as a

bandage, wire, or cord.
117. a. Virile (adj.) means having masculine strength; vigorous or

energetic.
118. e. Modicum (n.) is a small or token amount.
119. c. An arbiter (n.) is one selected or appointed to judge or decide a

disputed issue, an arbitrator; someone with the power to settle
matters at will.
120. a. Lurid (adj.) means glaringly sensational or vivid; shocking.
121. c. Nonplussed (adj.) means greatly perplexed, filled with

bewilderment.
122. a. Facile (adj.) means arrived at or achieved with little difficulty or

effort, thus lacking depth, superficial; performing or speaking
effectively with effortless ease and fluency, adroit, eloquent.
123. b. To transpire (v.) means to come to pass, to occur.
124. c. Prerogative (n.) means an exclusive or special right or privilege.
125. c. To glower (v.) means to stare angrily or sullenly, to look intently

with anger or dislike.
45
Chapter 6
126. People often referred to Noelle as ______ because she trusted

everyone and even slept with her doors unlocked.
a. naïve
b. elevated
c. boastful
d. panoramic
e. elated
127. Kinnel’s re-election is being threatened by a growing ______ of

disgruntled union members.
a. rogue
b. faction
c. pariah
d. guise
e. anathema
47
128. The peasants passed their weary days in much ______ and little
comfort.
a. pertinence
b. renown
c. travail
d. exile
e. repose
129. Lyasia is a ______ of the clarinet; she has performed solos with
many orchestras and bands around the world.
a. neophyte
b. novice
c. virtuoso
d. termagant
e. plethora
130. The children knew that once their father made his decision, the
new rule would be ______ because he would never change his mind.
a. irrevocable
b. articulate
c. premeditated
d. serried
e. discourteous
131. The haunted house displayed ______ scenes in every room,

causing squeamish visitors to scream.
a. preparatory
b. archaic
c. macabre
d. precocious
e. impetuous
132. The concert audience was frustrated by the poor ______ of the
sounds coming from the speakers.
a. modulation
b. recrimination
c. terminus
d. dissidence
e. assertion
48
133. Please don’t ______ me my success—I’ve worked hard to earn this

promotion!
a. renege
b. begrudge
c. excise
d. staunch
e. vaunt
134. With an ______ blow of the whistle, the meddling parent

interrupted the game to reiterate the rules of the tournament.
a. industrious
b. illustrious
c. eloquent
d. officious
e. enviable
135. The candidate’s inappropriately sexist remark was met with a

______ of denunciations from the angry crowd.
a. bastion
b. fusillade
c. mélange
d. dichotomy
e. solecism
136. The ______ employee decided to complain publicly about the

unacceptable working conditions.
a. discreet
b. prudent
c. precarious
d. malcontent
e. stupendous
137. The medicine man applied a sweet smelling ______ to the young
brave’s wounds.
a. triad
b. corrosive
c. parcel
d. unguent
e. pungent
49
138. The judge dismissed the extraneous evidence because it was not
______ to the trial.
a. pertinent
b. pretentious
c. synonymous
d. abject
e. inalienable
139. The ______ nature of the song is supposed to be reminiscent of

shepherds calling to their flocks at night.
a. vocative
b. endemic
c. surreptitious
d. preternatural
e. inane
140. The ______ child caused great difficulties for her parents and
teachers because she refused to correct her bad behavior even in
the face of punishment.
a. adorable
b. sincere
c. incorrigible
d. lamentable
e. demure
141. The internist decided to treat the ______ with medication, but also
recommended rest and proper nutrition.
a. malady
b. nonentity
c. missive
d. repository
e. nonchalance
50
142. It was such a beautiful day that I decided to go for a ______ on my

bike down to the local park.
a. expedition
b. jaunt
c. pilgrimage
d. repast
e. intimation
143. The castaway’s hut was ______ by the natives curious to see who
the intruder was upon their island.
a. beset
b. surmised
c. precluded
d. garnered
e. lauded
144. Sometimes my grandmother would ______ all different types of

thread so she could include more colors in the clothes she sewed.
a. daunt
b. raddle
c. scrabble
d. thrush
e. empower
145. The defense attorney’s choice of words ______ that there were
other possible versions of the crime, but the jury was unconvinced.
a. pervaded
b. insinuated
c. discounted
d. imposed
e. ensconced
146. Ted’s enthusiasm for becoming a professional drum player ______

when he realized he would have to practice several hours a day.
a. waxed
b. waned
c. deranged
d. flouted
e. preempted
51
147. Some would say Muzak is a(n) ______ form of music, a kind of
background noise designed to be heard but not listened to.
a. arable
b. degenerate
c. volatile
d. pivotal
e. exemplary
148. The teacher was dismissed for the ______ act of helping his
students cheat on the exam.
a. steadfast
b. meritorious
c. unconscionable
d. pristine
e. fortuitous
149. The reformed criminal could not forget his guilty past; he was in a
living state of ______.
a. perdition
b. tact
c. composure
d. principle
e. veracity
150. The ______ yoga instructor waited patiently for her students to
find the proper pose, which she performed with ease.
a. unabashed
b. lissome
c. cosmopolitan
d. sneering
e. disparaging
52
Answers
126. a. Naïve (adj.) means lacking worldly experience; possessing a

childlike innocence or simplicity.
127. b. A faction (n.) is a group or clique within a larger group, usually a

minority, acting in unison in opposition to the larger group;
internal dissension, conflict within an organization, nation, or
other group.
128. c. Travail (n.) means hard or agonizing labor.
129. c. Virtuoso (n.) means a master in the technique of some particular

fine art.
130. a. Irrevocable (adj.) means irreversible; not able to be revoked or

recalled.
131. c. Macabre (adj.) means ghastly, horrible, or gruesome.
132. a. Modulation (n.) a regulation by or adjustment to a certain

measure, such as in music or radio waves.
133. b. To begrudge (v.) means to envy the possession or enjoyment of;

to give or allow with reluctance.
134. d. Officious (adj.) means marked by excessive eagerness in offering

unwanted services or advice to others; unofficial.
135. b. A fusillade (n.) is a barrage; a rapid discharge of firearms,

simultaneously or in rapid succession.
136. d. Malcontent (adj.) means dissatisfied, uneasy or discontent; a

rebel.
137. d. An unguent (n.) is any soothing or healing ointment or lubricant

for local application.
53
138. a. Pertinent (adj.) means applicable, related to the subject matter at

hand.
139. a. Vocative (adj.) means pertaining to the act of calling.
140. c. Incorrigible (adj.) means bad to the point of being beyond

correction; uncontrollable; impervious to change.
141. a. Malady (n.) is a disease or disorder.
142. b. A jaunt (n.) is usually a short journey taken for pleasure.
143. a. To beset (v.) means to surround on all sides; to annoy or harass

persistently; to decorate with jewels.
144. b. To raddle (v.) means to twist together, to intertwine.
145. b. To insinuate (v.) is to hint or suggest; to intimate.
146. b. To wane (v.) means to diminish in intensity or size.
147. b. Degenerate (adj.) means having declined in quality or value,

reduced from a former or original state, to degrade.
148. c. Unconscionable (adj.) means not restrained by conscience;

unscrupulous.
149. a. Perdition (n.) the most modern use of the word means eternal
damnation, or a hell.
150. b. Lissome (adj.) means lithe or lithesome, usually related to the

body; moving or bending easily or limber.
54
Chapter 7
151. When we first meet Romeo, he is ______ over his unrequited love
for Rosaline.
a. brooding
b. ogling
c. meandering
d. embellishing
e. groveling
152. Because it had been worn and washed so often, Linus’s favorite t-
shirt was tattered and ______ with holes.
a. salvaged
b. circulated
c. riddled
d. emulated
e. congregated
55
153. Henley’s ______ remarks about my presentation did not bother me

because I knew I’d done a good job.
a. derogatory
b. voracious
c. tactile
d. capricious
e. amiable
154. Eels swim using a rapid ______ motion that propels them through
the water.
a. dissipating
b. undulating
c. eradicating
d. objurgating
e. irritating
155. Sick and tired of her boring job, Cecilia began to ______ what it
would be like to quit.
a. ponder
b. disengage
c. negate
d. relinquish
e. alleviate
156. The way my father likes to ______with any salesperson to see if he

can bargain for a lower price is embarrassing.
a. striate
b. variegate
c. capitulate
d. teem
e. wrangle
157. The ______ construction crew built large new buildings all over the
East Coast, wherever the demand for qualified workers took them.
a. laconic
b. irresolute
c. itinerant
d. parietal
e. peremptory
56
158. The CEO’s large expense accounts proved she was a ______
spender with the company’s money.
a. injurious
b. ineffectual
c. liberal
d. malignant
e. insolvent
159. Daniela found the unchanging rhythm of the musical piece to be

annoyingly ______.
a. recusant
b. monotonous
c. irreverent
d. coherent
e. redolent
160. The young, thin boy surprised his wrestling opponent with his
______ strength.
a. fraudulent
b. wiry
c. frolicsome
d. pretentious
e. endemic
161. The new actress’s talents were severely ______ by the local critics;
she went on to be a distinguished member of a well-respected
acting company.
a. underrated
b. berated
c. placated
d. dissuaded
e. interred
57
162. To hide his insecurity, Barton often acted like a ______ so that he
could make people laugh.
a. buffoon
b. martyr
c. neophyte
d. plebian
e. wraith
163. When Arnold’s grandmother began to complain about the

excruciating pain in her knees and legs, she was referred to an
______ specialist for a diagnosis.
a. optical
b. oral
c. archeological
d. osteopathic
e. psychological
164. Charlie’s ______ behavior made it clear that he had been highly
educated in matters of etiquette.
a. decorous
b. surreptitious
c. erratic
d. caustic
e. irksome
165. Staring at the ______ crystal blue water of the sea, Eileen thought
she had never seen anything so beautiful.
a. flamboyant
b. appalling
c. devious
d. pristine
e. fiery
58
166. Wearing the designer’s latest fashions, the ______ clothing model
sashayed down the runway.
a. jaunty
b. tranquil
c. fanatical
d. recessive
e. contemplative
167. Given his ______ nature, it was appropriate that he decided to be a

trial lawyer after law school.
a. lackluster
b. engrossed
c. penitent
d. litigious
e. obsolete
168. After her relationship ended, Patty, feeling ______, insisted on

playing sad love songs repeatedly.
a. infallible
b. plausible
c. formative
d. mawkish
e. persuasive
169. Sanji went abroad as a ______ young man; when he returned two
years later, he seemed like an experienced man of the world.
a. sardonic
b. egalitarian
c. reticent
d. callow
e. loquacious
59
170. Normally distinguished and reserved, Robert would act ______

when he joined his friends to cheer for their old high school team
at annual the homecoming game.
a. indignant
b. oafish
c. poignant
d. reputable
e. obdurate
171. The protesters were concerned that the proposed legislation would
have a(n) ______ effect on the state’s nature preserves.
a. scintillating
b. deleterious
c. insipid
d. punctilious
e. parsimonious
172. Not swayed by his student’s ______ flattery, the professor told him
that his grade would not be changed.
a. forlorn
b. striated
c. undulating
d. unctuous
e. frowsy
173. Tonya found Isaac’s public declarations of his love for her ______
and embarrassing.
a. necrotic
b. intriguing
c. witless
d. malodorous
e. pliant
60
174. The young kitten had a ______ look on its face when it noticed the
menacing dog entering the yard.
a. servile
b. diligent
c. scornful
d. pavid
e. optimistic
175. According to pirate lore, a terrible ______ would follow whoever

opened the treasure chest.
a. precursor
b. precession
c. rendition
d. insurgence
e. malediction
61
Answers
151. a. To brood (v.) is to be in deep thought, to think moodily or

anxiously about something; to cover over, as with wings, in
order to protect; to hang over, as of something threatening,
dark, or menacing, to loom; to be silent or sullen, sulk; to sit on
or hatch eggs.
152. c. To riddle (v.) means to pierce with many holes.
153. a. Derogatory (adj.) means tending to lessen in value, to detract or

diminish; disparaging, belittling, injurious.
154. b. Undulating (adj.) means characterized by a wavelike motion.
155. a. To ponder (v.) is to weigh carefully in the mind.
156. e. To wrangle (v.) means to bicker, dispute, create a noisy

argument.
157. c. Itinerant (adj.) means traveling from one place to another,

usually on a planned course; working in one place for a short
while before moving onto another place to work; wandering.
158. c. Liberal (adj.) means characterized by generosity or a willingness

to give freely in large amounts; untraditional or broad-minded
in beliefs.
159. b. Monotonous (adj.) means tediously lacking in variety; unvarying;

repetitious.
160. b. Wiry (adj.) means thin, but tough and sinewy.
161. a. Underrated (adj.) means undervalued.
162. a. A buffoon (n.) is a ludicrous or bumbling person, a fool; someone

given to clowning and amusing others through ridiculous
behavior; a clown or jester.
62
163. d. Osteopathic (adj.) means a system of medicine pertaining to the

bone and skeletal system.
164. a. Decorous (adj.) means characterized by good taste in manners

and conduct, exhibiting propriety or decorum, proper.
165. d. Pristine (adj.) means pure, fresh and clean, as if new; original or
primitive.
166. a. Jaunty (adj.) means sprightly in manner; stylish or smart in

dress.
167. d. Litigious (adj.) means inclined to disagree or dispute, especially

in lawsuits; argumentative.
168. d. Mawkish (adj.) means characterized by excessive sentimentality;

overly emotional.
169. d. Callow (adj.) means lacking maturity or experience; immature,

naïve.
170. b. Oafish (adj.) means acting stupid, goofy, or clumsy.
171. b. Deleterious (adj.) means having a harmful or adverse effect;

destructive, hurtful, noxious.
172. d. Unctuous (adj.) means characterized by insincere earnestness;

oily or fatty in appearance.
173. c. Witless (adj.) means foolish, indiscreet, or silly.
174. d. Pavid (adj.) means timid or fearful.
175. e. Malediction (n.) is a curse or a proclaiming of a curse against

someone; an imprecation.
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Chapter 8
176. A(n) ______ spirit only causes more stress and strife; it is better to
forgive and forget.
a. apathetic
b. restorative
c. flaccid
d. vindictive
e. fortuitous
177. When we were renovating the old house, we found a(n) ______ of
$10 and $20 bills hidden inside the old laundry chute.
a. odyssey
b. matrix
c. lament
d. fodder
e. cache
65
178. Even though the pilot promised it was safe, Neil was ______ to fly
during a snowstorm.
a. habitual
b. overzealous
c. pavid
d. reluctant
e. salacious
179. Ron has few friends because he is ______ and cares only about
himself.
a. mundane
b. intrepid
c. garrulous
d. voracious
e. egocentric
180. The workers attempted to ______ the supervisor’s authority by

negotiating terms with the clients themselves.
a. contradict
b. instigate
c. resonate
d. placate
e. undermine
181. The student failed his research paper because he chose to ______
material from a another author’s work.
a. authorize
b. stimulate
c. overrule
d. plagiarize
e. meditate
182. The ______ old cowboy had a complexion that spoke of many
years in the desert sun, rounding up wild horses.
a. secular
b. suave
c. turgid
d. wizened
e. truant
66
183. The swimmer’s back injury ______ his prospects for a gold medal
at the world championship competition.
a. compelled
b. advanced
c. jeopardized
d. maintained
e. expounded
184. As Ramiro strolled through his old neighborhood, he noticed

sounds and smells that were ______ of his childhood.
a. belligerent
b. malleable
c. reminiscent
d. recondite
e. incessant
185. Lynette had to learn the ______ of the insurance profession before
she felt comfortable describing products to her clients.
a. lexicon
b. classicism
c. juncture
d. cessation
e. asperity
186. Marta had to pay off her ______ to the credit card company before
she could get a mortgage.
a. stipend
b. liability
c. remuneration
d. concession
e. consolidation
187. The local high school issued a ______ on field trips until the bus
was repaired; then traveling could begin again.
a. indispensability
b. divergence
c. moratorium
d. subjection
e. compulsion
67
188. With Justine’s ______ nature and passion for art, she would make
an excellent tour guide for the museum.
a. volatile
b. congenial
c. servile
d. fledgling
e. trite
189. Patrice was a(n) ______ girl when she was teenager—long-limbed
and constantly tripping over her own feet.
a. blithe
b. resolute
c. ungainly
d. preternatural
e. conducive
190. The employee’s claim of being out with the flu did not seem very
______ because he returned from sick leave with a deep tan.
a. inattentive
b. inarticulate
c. tactful
d. plausible
e. vulnerable
191. The con man used his ______ to convince the elderly woman to
sign over her life savings to him.
a. estuary
b. melee
c. flagrancy
d. malleability
e. wile
192. Mike proved to be ______ throw after throw, hitting the carnival
dart game’s bull’s eye every time.
a. sedentary
b. temporal
c. mediocre
d. infallible
e. infeasible
68
193. Patrick, who was always joking, added ______ to the formal dinner,
which his sedate employer did not appreciate.
a. contemplation
b. ordinance
c. tutelage
d. levity
e. sincerity
194. Sunlight shining through a window was an obvious ______ in the

nearly every one of the artist’s works.
a. disjunction
b. hindrance
c. repugnance
d. motif
e. variance
195. I like listening to Wesley go on about politics and social issues; his
opinions are ______ with my own beliefs.
a. latent
b. explicit
c. consonant
d. ensconced
e. rife
196. Most people will find the film silly and childish in its humor; the
most ______ viewers will find it downright crass and offensive.
a. servile
b. petulant
c. fastidious
d. arcane
e. boisterous
197. Even though he wanted to win the game, the coach felt that he
would be ______ if he let the injured quarterback continue to play.
a. contentious
b. remiss
c. erudite
d. stringent
e. reputable
69
198. The goal of any company is to have its product name become
______—constantly at the forefront of the consumer’s mind.
a. garrulous
b. unctuous
c. tremulous
d. ubiquitous
e. portentous
199. During the holiday season, the ______ theme is “Peace on Earth,
Goodwill Toward All.”
a. mitigated
b. arrogant
c. controversial
d. prevalent
e. prestigious
200. Our cottage by the sea offers many days of relaxation with warm
sunshine and soothing ______.
a. zephyrs
b. dervishes
c. stanchions
d. ebbs
e. torques
70
Answers
176. d. Vindictive (adj.) means revengeful, hateful.
177. e. A cache (n.) is a hiding place for storing or concealing provisions

or valuables; a secret store of valuables or money, a stash.
178. d. Reluctant (adj.) means unwilling to do what one is being called

to do.
179. e. Egocentric (adj.) means caring only about or interested only in

oneself or one’s needs.
180. e. To undermine (v.) means to subvert in an underhanded way.
181. d. To plagiarize (v.) is to steal thoughts or words in literary

composition.
182. d. Wizened (adj.) means withered or dry, especially with age.
183. c. Jeopardize (v.) means to put in jeopardy or at risk; a hazard or

danger.
184. c. Reminiscent (adj.) means calling to mind or remembering.
185. a. Lexicon (n.) is the vocabulary used in a language, profession,

class, or subject.
186. b. Liability (n.) is a debt or obligation; something for which one is

liable.
187. c. Moratorium (n.) is a temporary suspension or postponement of a

planned activity.
188. b. Congenial (adj.) means having a friendly or pleasant disposition,

sociable; having similar tastes, habits, or temperament; suitable
to one’s needs or nature.
189. c. Ungainly (adj.) means clumsy or awkward.
71
190. d. Plausible (adj.) means apparently worthy of belief or praise.
191. e. Wile (n.) means an act or a means of cunning deception.
192. d. Infallible (adj.) means not fallible; completely trustworthy;

certain.
193. d. Levity (n.) is an inappropriate lack of seriousness or lightness of

manner; frivolity.
194. d. Motif (n.) is a recurrent theme or form in an artistic or literary

work.
195. c. Consonant (adj.) means in agreement or accord, harmonious;

having similar sounds.
196. c. Fastidious (adj.) means paying careful attention to detail,

meticulous; difficult to please, exacting; extremely sensitive,
squeamish, especially in regard to matters of cleanliness or
propriety.
197. b. Remiss (adj.) means careless in performing duties.
198. d. Ubiquitous (adj.) means being present everywhere.
199. d. Prevalent (adj.) means widespread or widely accepted;

predominant or extensive.
200. a. A zephyr is a soft, gentle breeze; a breeze that blows from the
west.
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Chapter 9
201. When Melinda arrived in the impoverished city, she was

immediately ______ by bands of children begging for food.
a. bedraggled
b. accosted
c. infiltrated
d. rebuked
e. exacerbated
202. According to the terms of the agreement, if Nicole defaulted on

her loan, she would have to ______ her house and car, both which
would become property of the bank.
a. usurp
b. evince
c. debut
d. forfeit
e. stigmatize
73
203. Tony was tired of roommate’s petty ______ about his personal life,
so he moved out.
a. appeasements
b. quips
c. quotas
d. rallies
e. iniquities
204. The food at the buffet table was a ______ array of delights that
even the most disciplined dieter would find difficult to resist.
a. tempestuous
b. tantamount
c. truculent
d. temporal
e. tantalizing
205. After fighting the five-alarm fire, the ______ firefighter could not
relax enough to unwind and get some rest.
a. amicable
b. treacherous
c. pliable
d. durable
e. overwrought
206. For years Henry bore the ______ of being the only man in five
generations of his family not to make the varsity baseball team.
a. stigma
b. brunt
c. treatise
d. scintillation
e. punctiliousness
74
207. Tabitha found an overpriced dining table at the antique shop and
tried to ______ with the shopkeeper, but he refused to lower the
price.
a. haggle
b. stipulate
c. annunciate
d. ruminate
e. confer
208. The firefighter was ______ in the news for his heroic rescue of a
child from a burning house.
a. mandated
b. inferred
c. reconstituted
d. augmented
e. lauded
209. Although she was on a diet, Hannah intended to ______ in the

feast of Thanksgiving.
a. dilate
b. enervate
c. expunge
d. nullify
e. partake
210. The villagers locked their doors when they heard about the pirates
who were ______ unprotected villages along the island’s coastline.
a. reforming
b. marauding
c. reclaiming
d. conceding
e. recapitulating
75
211. I could tell by Angelica’s ______ tone that she was still very angry
with me.
a. ingratiating
b. adjacent
c. oblique
d. acerbic
e. eloquent
212. After years of living at a(n) ______ pace, Paola decided it was time
to slow down and learn how to relax.
a. frenetic
b. pedestrian
c. pretentious
d. colloquial
e. insipid
213. The hospital had an outbreak of chicken pox and was forced to
______ all patients and staff to prevent more infected victims.
a. clandestine
b. saturate
c. germinate
d. quarantine
e. aggregate
214. Living on several acres of land dotted with oak and maple trees
makes autumn leaf-raking a ______ task.
a. fatuous
b. toilsome
c. tardy
d. obsequious
e. fawning
215. Acting in the high school play served to ______ Ander’s appetite
for professional acting.
a. satiate
b. whet
c. purport
d. incriminate
e. corral
76
216. It would take many hours of cleaning and repairing for the young
family to transform the ______ into a clean and comfortable little
cottage.
a. territory
b. manor
c. hovel
d. demesne
e. hacienda
217. Ms. Lu allowed her son a great deal of ______ in spending his
birthday money, because she believed it should be his decision.
a. injunction
b. assimilation
c. latitude
d. declamation
e. stimulus
218. It was once believed that alchemists could ______ common metals
to gold.
a. transmute
b. commute
c. execute
d. repute
e. denote
219. The close-up of the actor drinking the popular brand of cola in the
movie was a ______ display of commercialism.
a. dispassionate
b. languid
c. apathetic
d. gratuitous
e. unpunctual
77
220. Juneod was ______ after his alibi proved that he could not have
committed the crime.
a. acquitted
b. protracted
c. derided
d. denounced
e. acquainted
221. This summer’s movies are ______ for audiences of escape-the-heat

mindless entertainment—not one film offers a substantive or even
plausible plot.
a. privation
b. dulcet
c. jargon
d. fodder
e. germane
222. The dictator used propaganda and intimidation to ______ the

revolution.
a. prelude
b. intimate
c. congregate
d. irradiate
e. quell
223. Standing on the ______, the preacher greeted the parishioners

every Sunday morning.
a. steeple
b. pillar
c. parvis
d. manifestation
e. sensor
78
224. Simona’s ______ with her money caught up with her when she
didn’t have the resources to buy a badly needed new car.
a. miserliness
b. thriftiness
c. wantonness
d. intuition
e. predilection
225. The architect designed the ceiling using wood ______ that would
remain uncovered, creating a rustic ambience in the living room.
a. pediments
b. joists
c. mullions
d. banisters
e. abutments
79
Answers
201. b. To accost (v.) means to approach and speak to someone, usually

in a bold and aggressive manner as with a demand.
202. d. To forfeit (v.) means to be deprived of or lose the right to by the

act of a crime, offense, fault, breach, or error.
203. b. A quip (n.) is a sarcastic or cutting jest; a witty remark.
204. e. Tantalizing (adj.) means tempting, attractive, often via the

senses.
205. e. Overwrought (adj.) means labored to excess; anxious, agitated.
206. a. Stigma means a mark of infamy or token of disgrace.
207. a. To haggle (v.) means to bargain, such as over a price, or dispute

in a petty way; to wrangle.
208. e. To laud (v.) is to praise, honor, or glorify.
209. e. To partake (v.) is to have a share or take part.
210. b. To maraud (v.) is to rove and raid in quest of plunder.
211. d. Acerbic (adj.) means sour or bitter in taste; sharp or biting in

tone, character, or expression.
212. a. Frenetic (adj.) means wildly excited or agitated, frenzied, frantic.
213. d. To quarantine (v.) means to restrict the entrance to and exit from
any place under observation for infectious disease.
214. b. Toilsome (adj.) means laborious or hard work.
215. b. To whet (v.) means to make more keen or eager.
80
216. c. A hovel (n.) is a small crude house; a filthy or disorganized hut

or shed.
217. c. Latitude (n.) is freedom from normal limitations or restraints in

conduct; an angular distance from a plane of reference.
218. a. To transmute (v.) means to change in nature, substance, or form.
219. d. Gratuitous (adj.) means unjustified or unnecessary; of no cost.
220. a. To acquit (v.) means to free or clear from an accusation or

charge; to release or discharge from a duty, obligation, or debt;
to behave oneself in a certain manner.
221. d. Fodder (n.) is a consumable, often inferior resource or item, high

in demand and usually abundant in supply.
222. e. To quell (v.) means to cease or suppress.
223. c. A parvis (n.) is the porch or area before a building (as a church).
224. c. Wantonness (n.) means recklessness; bawdy; merciless.
225. b. Joist (n.) is a small, horizontal beam that supports a ceiling or

floor, usually made of wood, reinforced concrete, or steel.
81
Chapter 10
226. When the house on the corner burned down, the entire
neighborhood ______ together to help to the victims re-establish
their lives.
a. rallied
b. recited
c. skulked
d. disintegrated
e. expedited
227. The massage therapist’s ______ fingers quickly eased the tension in
Blanche’s back.
a. deft
b. furtive
c. listless
d. tentative
e. blithe
83
228. Jade’s parents were in ______ about the decision not to allow her
to drive the family car to the prom; they both agreed that it would
be unsafe.
a. affluence
b. redress
c. refraction
d. discord
e. unison
229. As she walked through the halls of her old grade school, Madeline
became ______, remembering her old friends and teachers.
a. prolific
b. nostalgic
c. credulous
d. precocious
e. ambitious
230. After being cleared of all charges for slander, the attorney was able
to go back to work and ______ his role as a prosecutor.
a. inhibit
b. reprimand
c. remand
d. resume
e. dissipate
231. Ignacio’s pain was so ______ that he called 911.

a. remiss
b. rapacious
c. genteel
d. resolute
e. acute
232. The captain ______ the cargo to keep his ship afloat.
a. rebuked
b. listed
c. disunited
d. flanked
e. jettisoned
84
233. The teacher tried to ______ her class of their dependence on the
number lines pasted to the tops of their desks.
a. wane
b. wax
c. whet
d. wean
e. wield
234. The young girl was so full of enthusiasm and ______ that she
infected the room with energy.
a. languidness
b. apathy
c. vivacity
d. blandness
e. tenacity
235. Ricky is a ______ of the local coffee shop; you can find him there
just about every morning.
a. diva
b. relic
c. denizen
d. maverick
e. pariah
236. The child danced with ______ joy at hearing the news that her
father had arrived home from his lengthy business trip.
a. staid
b. unbridled
c. stealthy
d. beneficial
e. restrained
237. Having never left the landlocked Midwest his entire life, Albert
found that swimming in the ocean was quite a(n) ______.
a. familiarity
b. extrovert
c. instinct
d. novelty
e. tabernacle
85
238. The rowdy crowd at the music concert ______ Herve, and he
spilled his soda on his pants.
a. jettisoned
b. harrowed
c. jostled
d. lauded
e. superceded
239. Known for his strong command of the courtroom, it was common
knowledge that Judge Disantis considered outbursts from
defendants to be ______.
a. questionable
b. objectionable
c. antisocial
d. pliable
e. visionary
240. Blinded by ______, Nicholas accepted the job offer with the
highest pay but the least possibility of making him happy.
a. ennui
b. heresy
c. infamy
d. avarice
e. temperance
241. It was very unprofessional of you to ______ your assistant in front

of everyone at the meeting; she deserves more respect, and any
criticism of her performance should be done in private.
a. placate
b. augment
c. usurp
d. preclude
e. deride
86
242. The log cabin had a(n) ______ feel, so it was often enjoyed by
vacationers from the city throughout the year.
a. abstract
b. ersatz
c. rustic
d. raucous
e. repellent
243. We knew Jana had ______ motives for running for class president:
She wanted the nearby parking space that came with the office.
a. anterior
b. interior
c. inferior
d. posterior
e. ulterior
244. The town board heard many outraged and ______ arguments from
the citizens against the destruction of some wooded areas in order
to build a new mall.
a. tenuous
b. vociferous
c. vacuous
d. satisfied
e. egregious
245. The villainous gang’s hideout was a den of ______ that no one
would dare to enter.
a. innocence
b. habitants
c. iniquity
d. accolades
e. innovation
87
246. Indigestion is a common ______ of participating in a hot-dog

eating contest.
a. euphemism
b. penchant
c. corollary
d. juxtaposition
e. itinerary
247. Although it was so ridiculous that no one believed it to be true, the

reporter’s ______ still cost the governor his re-election.
a. hegemony
b. sedition
c. malaise
d. compendium
e. calumny
248. People on the street stopped to ______ over the artist’s rendition
of the Eiffel Tower, amazed by his ability to capture the detail.
a. bedazzle
b. innovate
c. gratify
d. counteract
e. objectify
249. The veteran lieutenant was not happy with his ______ rank behind
the two inexperienced men.
a. tertiary
b. silly
c. unctuous
d. superior
e. fastened
250. The prime minister was admired by all, a(n) ______ even in an
environment of corruption and disdain.
a. admonishment
b. alleviation
c. nonpareil
d. prototype
e. profanation
88
Answers
226. a. To rally (v.) means to come together for a common purpose or

as a means of support; to recover or rebound.
227. a. Deft (adj.) means quick and skillful in movement, adroit.
228. e. Unison (n.) means a condition of perfect agreement and accord.
229. b. Nostalgic (adj.) is sentimentally yearning for a point in the past.
230. d. To resume (v.) means to take up again after interruption.
231. e. Acute (adj.) means extremely sharp or intense; keenly perceptive

or discerning; of great importance or consequence, crucial; also,
having a sharp tip or point.
232. e. To jettison (v.) is to toss goods overboard to lighten the load of a

ship or aircraft to improve stability; to toss off (a burden).
233. d. To wean (v.) means to detach someone from that to which he is

accustomed or devoted.
234. c. Vivacity (n.) means liveliness, to be fill of life.
235. c. A denizen (n.) is one who frequents a particular place; one who
lives in a particular place, an inhabitant.
236. b. Unbridled (adj.) means without restraint.
237. d. A novelty (n.) is a new or unusual thing or occurrence.
238. c. To jostle (v.) is to push or shove roughly against; to drive with

pushing; to disturb or bump.
239. b. Objectionable (adj.) means unpleasant or offensive.
240. d. Avarice (n.) means an excessive or insatiable desire for material

wealth; inordinate greed.
89
241. e. To deride (v.) is to speak of or treat with contempt; to ridicule

scornfully.
242. c. Rustic (adj.) means rural; rough; made from rough limbs or
trees.
243. e. Ulterior (adj.) means lying beyond or outside what is openly

shown or said.
244. b. Vociferous (adj.) means making a loud outcry.
245. c. Iniquity (n.) is wickedness or overwhelming injustice.
246. c. Corollary (n.) means a natural consequence or result; a

deduction or inference that follows from the proof of another
proposition.
247. e. Calumny (n.) means a false statement or accusation uttered

maliciously to harm another’s reputation, slander.
248. e. To objectify (v.) means to stare at amorously.
249. a. Tertiary (adj.) ranking third in order of importance, position, or

value.
250. c. A nonpareil (n.) is a person or thing of peerless excellence.
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Chapter 11
251. The queen’s ______ fell ill during his journey and was unable to
negotiate on her behalf when he arrived at the economic summit.
a. penury
b. miscreant
c. emissary
d. denizen
e. zealot
252. Tai was ______ by a series of setbacks that nearly made him miss
his deadline.
a. ensconced
b. relegated
c. beleaguered
d. solicited
e. winnowed
91
253. New York boasts many ______ restaurants—places that are elegant
and frequented by famous movie stars, political figures, and other
elite members of society.
a. pungent
b. posh
c. diminutive
d. mediocre
e. middling
254. Patsy was shocked to discover how much higher her IQ was than
the ______.
a. norm
b. stimulation
c. prudence
d. solitude
e. derivative
255. Although she appeared confident, once she began her speech, the
valedictorian’s ______ voice indicated her nervousness.
a. supercilious
b. resonant
c. tenuous
d. placating
e. tremulous
256. Danielle cannot seem to find her niche in life; she has changed her
______ at least three times in the past ten years.
a. automation
b. vocation
c. plethora
d. pliancy
e. combustion
92
257. The discovery of the new element was ______; the scientist was
looking for something else.
a. insignificant
b. intrepid
c. eloquent
d. inadvertent
e. emollient
258. A charming painting of a pleasant ______ landscape hung above

Vitaly’s fireplace, in marked contrast to the noise and lights of the
bustling city outside his window.
a. nascent
b. histrionic
c. bucolic
d. indigenous
e. ersatz
259. Aidan, who has always been painfully shy, was very ______ by the
news that he would have to do a presentation in front of his
classmates.
a. discomfited
b. circumvented
c. relegated
d. promulgated
e. castigated
260. Since his parents had little money, Peter was ______ to his uncle
for paying for his college education.
a. alleged
b. provided
c. obliged
d. demented
e. fortified
93
261. With great ______, we stepped gingerly onto the planks of the
dilapidated bridge that spanned a rocky stream twenty feet below.
a. trepidation
b. instigation
c. perdition
d. refraction
e. endowment
262. At the risk of sounding like an ______, the teacher assigned extra
homework for the weekend.
a. oaf
b. ogre
c. impost
d. alcove
e. anathema
263. Felix felt that his mother’s request to run her errands was a huge
______ since he would have rather watched a soccer match with his
friends that afternoon.
a. justification
b. imposition
c. preponderance
d. deviation
e. recourse
264. The paper was ______ so that it could be easily removed from the
bound notebook.
a. voracious
b. infectious
c. fickle
d. perforated
e. fluent
94
265. The mad scientist ______ the potion with acid, making it not only
useless, but also dangerous.
a. corrugated
b. vitiated
c. implemented
d. instigated
e. titillated
266. Jayne’s paintings were not minimalist, but they were ______, using
only the most elemental and essential elements.
a. elliptical
b. truculent
c. pernicious
d. perfunctory
e. abstemious
267. Wendell’s prolonged illness was the ______ that ignited his interest
in science and led to his illustrious career in medical research.
a. hyperbole
b. catalyst
c. penchant
d. insolence
e. caveat
268. Stopping to admire the ______ in the front yard, the young woman
continued on with her gardening duties.
a. paradigm
b. compost
c. clutter
d. oleander
e. patagium
269. The river, ______ with new-fallen rain, overflowed its banks and
flooded the tiny village in a matter of hours.
a. placated
b. turgid
c. redundant
d. equivalent
e. quarantined
95
270. In a(n) ______ expression of pleasure, the infant clapped her hands
and squealed with joy.
a. overt
b. obligatory
c. illusive
d. peremptory
e. turbulent
271. Paula’s ______ humor does not amuse many people; rather many
find it offensive and hurtful.
a. nebulous
b. truncated
c. stoic
d. vitriolic
e. flirtatious
272. The play’s ______ debut was not a good sign for the struggling
producer.
a. unsubstantial
b. inauspicious
c. copious
d. disembodied
e. immaterial
273. At one time it was in ______ for women to wear gloves and hats
whenever they were out in public.
a. gore
b. gauge
c. vogue
d. brawn
e. vain
274. To ensure that Brenda wouldn’t know where we were going for her
birthday, I took the most ______ route I could think of.
a. ardent
b. craven
c. enigmatic
d. circuitous
e. mercurial
96
275. The editorial was essentially a(n) ______ to the governor, praising
her for her enactment of a series of environmental laws and for
balancing the state budget for the first time in 20 years.
a. juggernaut
b. imprecation
c. cabal
d. oeuvre
e. encomium
97
Answers
251. c. An emissary (n.) is an agent sent on a mission to represent the

interests of someone else.
252. c. To beleaguer (v.) is to harass, beset, besiege.
253. b. Posh (adj.) means elegant and fashionable.
254. a. A norm (n.) is an average standard, pattern, or type.
255. e. Tremulous (adj.) means characterized by quivering or

unsteadiness.
256. b. Vocation (n.) means a regular occupation or profession.
257. d. Inadvertent (adj.) means not attentive or heedless; acting

carelessly; unintentional.
258. c. Bucolic (adj.) means of or characteristic of country life or people,

rustic, especially in an idealized sense; of or characteristic of
shepherds or herdsmen, pastoral.
259. a. To discomfit (v.) means to make uneasy, disconcert; to cause to

lose one’s composure; to break up or thwart the plans of,
frustrate.
260. c. Obliged (v.) means to be indebted.
261. a. Trepidation (n.) means nervous uncertainty of feeling.
262. b. An ogre (n.) is, in popular usage, a cruel person, or a monster.
263. b. Imposition (n.) is the act of imposing something such as a burden

or duty; an unfair demand.
264. d. Perforated (adj.) means with a line of holes to facilitate

separation; pierced with a pointed instrument.
98
265. b. To vitiate (v.) means to spoil; to make faulty or impure; to

corrupt morally.
266. a. Elliptical (adj.) means characterized by extreme economy of

words or style; of, relating to, or having the shape of an ellipsis.
267. b. A catalyst (n.) is something that precipitates or causes a process

or event; (in chemistry) a substance that initiates or accelerates a
chemical reaction without itself being affected in the process.
268. d. An oleander (n.) is a beautiful but poisonous evergreen shrub.
269. b. Turgid (adj.) means swollen.
270. a. Overt (adj.) means apparent, obvious.
271. d. Vitriolic (adj.) means bitterly scathing; caustic.
272. b. Inauspicious (adj.) means not favorable or unfortunate; not

promising success.
273. c. Vogue (n.) means the prevalent way or fashion.
274. d. Circuitous (adj.) means having or taking a roundabout, lengthy,

or indirect course.
275. e. Encomium (n.) means a formal expression of praise, a glowing

tribute.
99
Chapter 12
276. Claude felt particularly ______ as he carried the large satchel filled
with cash through the dark streets to the bank.
a. inclusive
b. vulnerable
c. reclusive
d. unwieldy
e. torrential
277. Niall’s ______ attitude toward the boss is embarrassing; he does

nearly everything for him except scratch his nose!
a. subservient
b. subversive
c. subtle
d. sundry
e. surly
101
278. Although she was a successful professional, Debra’s inability to

accurately complete her taxes made her feel a bit ______.
a. endowed
b. rapturous
c. ravenous
d. obtuse
e. elated
279. Jeremy didn’t want to appear ______, but his brothers simply could
not convince him to change his mind.
a. pitiful
b. scrupulous
c. harmonious
d. obstinate
e. unabated
280. Buying homeowner’s insurance is a wise decision because it

provides ______ if your house should be damaged in a fire.
a. chastisement
b. indemnity
c. clarification
d. resolution
e. annulment
281. Although it was supposed to be written for the general public, the
report was so ______ that only those with inside knowledge of
government workings could understand it.
a. indigenous
b. ebullient
c. truculent
d. pugnacious
e. esoteric
102
282. Todd set up a rope to ______ the part of the exhibit that was off-
limits.
a. circumscribe
b. laud
c. efface
d. undulate
e. beguile
283. The loud clap of thunder caused the little dog to ______ all over.
a. slather
b. quake
c. enunciate
d. binge
e. infuse
284. Francois fell into a groggy ______ after having suffered a high
fever for several days.
a. profundity
b. sluggard
c. verve
d. stupor
e. grovel
285. Blaine had a tendency to ______ certain details of his evenings out
when he didn’t want his parents to know where he had been.
a. excel
b. oscillate
c. corroborate
d. juxtapose
e. omit
286. We took pity on the young ______ and brought him to a shelter
where he could find food and warmth.
a. waif
b. perfidy
c. ionic
d. plaintiff
e. troubadour
103
287. The fire caused ______ damage to the warehouse, which forced the
owner to demolish the building.
a. sanctified
b. equitable
c. preliminary
d. irreparable
e. pretentious
288. When people are in love, they may find their beloved’s ______—
often annoying to or disparaged by others—to be charming and
endearing.
a. foibles
b. mendacity
c. ennui
d. aplomb
e. penchants
289. Terreh was able to ______ the traffic jam by taking a series of one-
way streets that led to the bridge.
a. staunch
b. diffuse
c. corroborate
d. circumvent
e. juxtapose
290. The risk of cheating on the test was not worth the possible ______
of failing the class.
a. specification
b. gratification
c. ramification
d. narcissism
e. renegade
104
291. We found that the gallons of water we had brought on our hike
were ______, and we had to carry the extra bottles home.
a. superannuated
b. extraordinary
c. derivative
d. superfluous
e. untenable
292. Moving all the heavy cinder blocks by hand from the driveway to
the backyard seemed like a(n) ______ task.
a. precipitous
b. poignant
c. onerous
d. salient
e. gallant
293. Claudia’s ______ face gave no clue to her hard, cold heart.
a. winsome
b. gruesome
c. fatuous
d. ironic
e. flaccid
294. Keeping hot peppers in the olive oil ______ it with a spicy kick.
a. contemplates
b. stigmatizes
c. scrutinizes
d. infuses
e. defames
295. She realized mortgage rates had declined and decided it was
______ to continue paying rent when she could now afford a
monthly payment for her own home.
a. referable
b. relative
c. subsequent
d. episodic
e. inexpedient
105
296. The deadline has been moved to this Friday, so we must ______
our efforts and complete the project earlier than we had planned.
a. wane
b. ruminate
c. burnish
d. pilfer
e. expedite
297. As the city grew and stretched its borders, it began to feel the
______ problems of urban sprawl and overpopulation.
a. improvident
b. mendacious
c. ersatz
d. concomitant
e. surreptitious
298. Terrance, a dentist, ______ to be with the media, so he could see

the concert for free.
a. facilitated
b. conjugated
c. purported
d. tended
e. placated
299. ______ on a lounge chair by the pool was the very tan owner of the
estate, relaxing in the midday sunshine.
a. Trident
b. Renegade
c. Fraught
d. Renowned
e. Supine
300. Observing his sister’s ______ behavior of riding without a helmet,

Jorge ran to get his mother.
a. contemptuous
b. contented
c. fictitious
d. parlous
e. pensive
106
Answers
276. b. Vulnerable (adj.) means assailable; capable of receiving injuries;

open to attack.
277. a. Subservient (adj.) means following another’s requests in a

servantlike manner far below that which is called for.
278. d. Obtuse (adj.) means lacking quickness of perception or intellect.
279. d. Obstinate (adj.) means stubborn.
280. b. Indemnity (n.) is protection from loss or damage; immunity from

punishment; compensation for loss or damage.
281. e. Esoteric (adj.) means designed for, confined to, or

understandable only by a restricted number of people, an
enlightened inner circle.
282. a. To circumscribe (v.) is to draw a line around, encircle; to restrict

or confine; to determine the limits of, define.
283. b. To quake (v.) means to shiver or tremble, as from fear or cold; to

shake or vibrate violently.
284. d. Stupor (n.) means profound lethargy, such as one might

experience after being very ill.
285. e. To omit (v.) is to leave out; to neglect, disregard.
286. a. A waif (n.) is a stray; a homeless, neglected wanderer, especially

a homeless child.
287. d. Irreparable (adj.) means not capable of being remedied or

corrected; not reparable.
288. a. A foible (n.) is a minor weakness or character flaw; a distinctive

behavior or attribute peculiar to an individual.
107
289. d. To circumvent (v.) is to go around, bypass; to get around or avoid

through cleverness or artful maneuvering; to surround, enclose,
entrap.
290. c. A ramification (n.) is a consequence for an action.
291. d. Superfluous (adj.) means extra; more than is needed, unnecessary.
292. c. Onerous (adj.) is burdensome or troublesome.
293. a. Winsome (adj.) means attractive.
294. d. To infuse (v.) is to instill or cause to penetrate; to inspire.
295. e. Inexpedient (adj.) means not expedient; not suitable or fit for the
purpose; not tending to promote a proposed object.
296. e. To expedite (v.) means to speed up the progress of, accelerate; to

process or execute quickly and efficiently.
297. d. Concomitant (adj.) means occurring or existing concurrently;

accompanying, attendant.
298. c. To purport (v.) means to give false appearance of being.
299. e. Supine (adj.) means lying on the back.
300. d. Parlous (adj.) means dangerous, risky, or extreme.
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Chapter 13
301. In an attempt to ______ the enemy, Braveheart rallied hundreds of

fierce warriors.
a. alienate
b. scoff
c. obliterate
d. ostracize
e. minimize
302. The film was completed on schedule despite the ______

circumstances regarding the location and extreme weather
conditions.
a. tenuous
b. imperial
c. cryptic
d. contrived
e. adverse
109
303. The postcard advertised a free cruise to anyone who bought a

magazine subscription, but after reading the fine print Sasha found
the cruise was just a ______.
a. petition
b. gimmick
c. compromise
d. reference
e. motif
304. Many employers like to visit college campuses and ______ college
seniors to work for their companies.
a. daunt
b. recruit
c. illuminate
d. dither
e. flout
305. I could tell by Konrad’s ______ manner that he was really sorry for
how he had treated Annette.
a. callous
b. erratic
c. zealous
d. nonchalant
e. contrite
306. The company officials felt the rising cost of health coverage was
______ enough to raise their employees’ insurance premiums.
a. moratorium
b. justification
c. symbolism
d. disposition
e. habitude
307. The ______ of the sheriff’s department ended at the county line.
a. prerequisite
b. emendation
c. alliteration
d. jurisdiction
e. respite
110
308. Ralph plays golf every chance he gets; even a weeklong golfing
vacation could not ______ his appetite for the game.
a. initiate
b. satiate
c. relinquish
d. revive
e. employ
309. We could not describe the scene before us; it was filled with such
______ beauty.
a. inexorable
b. unutterable
c. uproarious
d. mnemonic
e. fretful
310. The subject matter was ______ because the mumbling professor
spoke too quickly.
a. obscure
b. magnanimous
c. treacherous
d. vital
e. maximized
311. Arnie becomes so ______ when he talks about painting that it is

hard not to be infected by his enthusiasm.
a. laconic
b. circuitous
c. impertinent
d. ardent
e. recalcitrant
312. The cruise ship’s deliciously appetizing dinner buffets encouraged

______ among the vacationing passengers.
a. gluttony
b. squabbling
c. equivocation
d. restraint
e. queries
111
313. As the pressures of her business became overwhelming, Charlotte

chose to ______ her role as PTA president.
a. expedite
b. transgress
c. propagate
d. relinquish
e. retaliate
314. Don’t let Julie’s enthusiasm fool you; she’s just a ______, not a
professional dancer.
a. maverick
b. denizen
c. mercenary
d. maven
e. dilettante
315. Normally, Maya would not have made so many spelling mistakes in
her essay; she is usually ______ about her spelling.
a. sumptuous
b. scurrilous
c. ridiculous
d. scrupulous
e. fatuous
316. It took four men two hours to move the ______ sofa up three
flights of stairs into our apartment.
a. suave
b. garrulous
c. unwieldy
d. pivotal
e. quixotic
317. In the Roman myth, Artemis made a pilgrimage to the ______,

hoping to learn the answer to her dilemma.
a. denouement
b. decorum
c. oracle
d. vizier
e. pillar
112
318. Orson was truly a(n) ______: towering over others at six feet nine
inches, he was also one of the most influential and successful
producers in the feature film industry.
a. behemoth
b. anathema
c. demagogue
d. viceroy
e. charlatan
319. Brian was an ______ child, he was sent to the principal’s office on
numerous occasions for his rude classroom behavior.
a. impeccable
b. impertinent
c. observant
d. obscure
e. adjuvant
320. The defendant waited anxiously for the jury to ______ the decision
that would seal his fate.
a. render
b. deprecate
c. rejuvenate
d. disparage
e. prohibit
321. We must ______ the information about the agenda changes

immediately so that the conference attendees have time to adjust
their schedules.
a. burnish
b. disseminate
c. galvanize
d. placate
e. admonish
113
322. During the time of the plague in the little village, the forlorn
______ of the church bells was an almost daily sound.
a. prepossession
b. premise
c. delectation
d. knell
e. credence
323. If you can adhere to the ______ rules of a military society, the
Marines may be an excellent career choice.
a. strident
b. raucous
c. stringent
d. pedantic
e. lurid
324. The natural ______ of the canyon cause it to be an everlasting

source of new adventures and beauty.
a. blandishments
b. vicissitudes
c. mores
d. platitudes
e. nebulas
325. A life-long vegetarian, Xiomara ______ when she learned that the
sauce she’d just eaten was made with chicken broth.
a. wavered
b. blanched
c. coalesced
d. stagnated
e. thwarted
114
Answers
301. c. To obliterate (v.) means to blot out or destroy.
302. e. Adverse (adj.) means acting against or contrary to; unfavorable;

or opposed or opposing.
303. b. A gimmick (n.) is a tricky scheme or gadget.
304. b. To recruit (v.) means to seek to induct or enroll; to enlist.
305. e. Contrite (adj.) means feeling or expressing sorrow or regret for

one’s sins or offenses; penitent.
306. b. Justification (n.) is an explanation or reason that justifies or

shows something to be necessary.
307. d. Jurisdiction (n.) is authority or power; sphere of power or

authority.
308. b. To satiate (v.) means to satisfy fully the appetite or desire of.
309. b. Unutterable (adj.) means inexpressible.
310. a. Obscure (adj.) means not clearly expressed or easily understood;

not easily seen or distinguished.
311. d. Ardent (adj.) means characterized by intense emotion or

enthusiasm, passionate, fervent; glowing or burning like fire.
312. a. Gluttony (n.) is drinking or eating to excess; excessive

indulgence.
313. d. To relinquish (v.) means to give up (something), renounce claim

to.
314. e. A dilettante (n.) is an amateur, one who dabbles in an art or field

of knowledge for amusement; a lover of fine arts, a connoisseur.
115
315. d. Scrupulous (adj.) means extremely careful, cautious in action for

fear of doing wrong.
316. c. Unwieldy (adj.) means moved or managed with difficulty, as

from great size or awkward shape.
317. c. An oracle (n.) is a person of great knowledge; the place where

answers are given, as in a sanctuary.
318. a. A behemoth (n.) is a giant; something or someone who is

enormous in size, power, or importance.
319. b. Impertinent (adj.) means improperly bold; rude; lacking good

manners.
320. a. To render (v.) means to give in return in compliance with a duty;

to make or depict.
321. b. To disseminate (v.) means to scatter widely, diffuse, spread

abroad.
322. d. Knell (n.) is the sound of a bell ringing slowly for a funeral or
death.
323. c. Stringent (adj.) means rigid, strict, or exacting.
324. b. Vicissitudes (n.) means a change, especially a complete change, of

condition or circumstances.
325. b. To blanch (v.) means to turn pale, as if in fear; to take the color
from, whiten.
116
Chapter 14
326. At the beginning of the ceremony, the high school band ______
the arrival of the graduates by playing the alma mater loudly and
with enthusiasm.
a. decried
b. heralded
c. permeated
d. conjured
e. thwarted
327. Although Sophie was afraid of heights, she seemed to have no

______ about driving over bridges.
a. enormity
b. qualms
c. imminence
d. resurrection
e. severity
117
328. I will write a rough draft of the proposal, and then you can edit it
for any ______ material so that it is as convincing and concise as
possible.
a. grandiose
b. incontrovertible
c. extraneous
d. abysmal
e. pensive
329. I had to call the repairman because the washing machine was off
______—it began making terrible sounds and failed to clean the
clothes thoroughly.
a. detriment
b. preferment
c. prevision
d. kilter
e. quandary
330. Minnie finally ______ to her sister’s constant barrage of questions

and revealed the identity of her new boyfriend.
a. reiterated
b. succumbed
c. seceded
d. reneged
e. retaliated
331. The meeting is ______; everyone must attend.

a. palatable
b. compulsory
c. reciprocal
d. resilient
e. ancillary
118
332. Through the ______ act of volunteering, it is possible to make a

difference in the lives of the less fortunate.
a. dilatory
b. insurmountable
c. diligent
d. rapacious
e. noble
333. The proposed design includes many ______ features that are not
functional and can be eliminated to cut costs.
a. jovial
b. germane
c. kinetic
d. nonchalant
e. extrinsic
334. Carly’s ______ spending on shoes and clothing caused her parents
a great deal of concern because she was no longer saving money
for college.
a. monotypic
b. inconsistent
c. perfunctory
d. immoderate
e. specious
335. The cop was in a ______: Should he chase the criminal or help the
victim?
a. quandary
b. litany
c. tatter
d. discord
e. plethora
119
336. The professor studied the ______ physics of ballet dancers and
even published a study on the topic of dancers and movement.
a. creditable
b. kinetic
c. symbolic
d. prevalent
e. monotonous
337. Kyle was able to ______ the difficulties of an uncooperative staff,

an impossible deadline, and a complicated project in order to
present the report to the client.
a. surmount
b. dismount
c. retract
d. expel
e. intercede
338. Philbert’s ______ manner fit in well with the atmosphere of the

posh country club.
a. untoward
b. riotous
c. mundane
d. salacious
e. urbane
339. Elian tried his ______ on the wrong person, and it has finally
landed him in jail.
a. clemency
b. jocularity
c. calamity
d. obsolescence
e. chicanery
120
340. There were several ______ buildings on the street, making it

difficult for Margaret to determine which one was the dentist’s
office.
a. nondescript
b. transient
c. impervious
d. zealous
e. impressionable
341. Inflated by his fans’ ______, Evan lost sense of his small-town
roots and began traveling with an entourage.
a. inconstancy
b. insolence
c. haughtiness
d. sufferance
e. idolatry
342. To ______ a congressional bill, the president must use his official
seal on all documents.
a. nullify
b. patronize
c. victimize
d. ratify
e. mollify
343. The drama workshop’s efforts ______ in the final production of a

play written, directed, and acted by the students for the entire
school.
a. finalized
b. languished
c. teemed
d. discerned
e. culminated
121
344. There is no way around it: plagiarism is ______ to thievery.

a. tantamount
b. apathetic
c. fatuous
d. unscrupulous
e. indecisive
345. For ______ deeds during her mission overseas, Tyesha was
awarded the Congressional Medal of Honor.
a. inept
b. valorous
c. erroneous
d. malodorous
e. benign
346. Adam read the employee manual so that he might ______ himself
with his new responsibilities at the company.
a. relinquish
b. synthesize
c. orient
d. validate
e. motivate
347. I am ______ of the problems that this solution will cause, but I still
believe that this is the best possible solution.
a. innocuous
b. cognizant
c. precipitous
d. reminiscent
e. belligerent
348. The spectacular presentation by a rainforest adventurer ______

Simon with the desire to travel to South America to see the jungles
for himself.
a. disheartened
b. inhibited
c. imbued
d. reconstituted
e. abhorred
122
349. When the senator’s popularity suffered in the polls, he ______ his
decision to raise taxes.
a. recanted
b. pulverized
c. enveloped
d. detracted
e. extenuated
350. Because of the ______ of reliable information, Quentin’s report

was comprised mostly of speculation.
a. dearth
b. diatribe
c. myriad
d. juxtaposition
e. tirade
123
Answers
326. b. To herald (v.) is to proclaim or announce; to foreshadow.
327. b. A qualm (n.) is a sudden or disturbing feeling.
328. c. Extraneous (adj.) means not vital or essential; not pertinent or

relevant; coming from the outside or an outside source.
329. d. Kilter (n.) is order or good condition.
330. b. To succumb (v.) means to give in, cease to resist.
331. b. Compulsory (adj.) means obligatory, mandatory, required.
332. e. Noble (adj.) means having high, selfless moral standards; of

excellent character.
333. e. Extrinsic (adj.) means not forming an essential part of a thing,

extraneous; originating from the outside, external.
334. d. Immoderate (adj.) means excessive or extreme; exceeding

reasonable limits.
335. a. A quandary (n.) is a difficult situation.
336. b. Kinetic (adj.) means pertaining to motion or caused by motion.
337. a. To surmount (v.) means to overcome by force of will.
338. e. Urbane (adj.) means characterized by refined manners; elegant

or sophisticated.
339. e. Chicanery (n.) is trickery or sophistry used to deceive someone

(especially to extract money).
340. a. Nondescript (adj.) means lacking any distinctive characteristics.
124
341. e. Idolatry (n.) is excessive reverence or adoration; the worship of

idols.
342. d. To ratify (v.) means to make valid.
343. e. To culminate (v.) is to come to completion, end; to reach the

highest point or degree, climax.
344. a. Tantamount (adj.) means equal to; having equal or equivalent

value in terms of seriousness.
345. b. Valorous (adj.) means courageous, valiant.
346. c. To orient (v.) means to acquaint (oneself) with the existing

situation or environment; determine one’s position with
reference to new ideas.
347. b. Cognizant (adj.) means fully knowledgeable or informed,

conscious, aware.
348. c. To imbue (v.) is to inspire or pervade with ideas or feelings; to

saturate with color; to permeate.
349. a. To recant (v.) means to renounce formally; to withdraw a former

belief as erroneous.
350. a. Dearth (n.) means a severe shortage or scarce supply, especially

of food; a lack of, insufficient quantity.
125
Chapter 15
351. Teachers should not only be knowledgeable but also ______;

students should feel comfortable approaching them with questions
or problems.
a. wheedling
b. patronizing
c. laconic
d. affable
e. frugal
352. The pain medication Kristy received after surgery offered relief;
however, the overwhelming feeling of ______ was an unexpected
side effect, and she didn’t like being groggy.
a. extortion
b. compellation
c. acquisition
d. affirmation
e. lethargy
127
353. The ski lodge had a window that looked out upon a beautiful
mountain ______.
a. vista
b. melee
c. fray
d. foray
e. frieze
354. The palace’s great hall was rich in history and splendor, the walls
hung with ______ tapestries.
a. mellifluous
b. malleable
c. prudent
d. illusive
e. ornate
355. After weeks of heavy rains, the earth gave way; mud and trees
______ down the mountain swallowing cars and houses in their path.
a. ascended
b. inculcated
c. aspersed
d. hurtled
e. entreated
356. The ______ butter had been left in the refrigerator for years.
a. complacent
b. scandalous
c. riveting
d. dire
e. rancid
357. Several weeks of extremely hot, dry weather ______ the land, so
instead of rowing across a river, we walked across a cracked,
parched riverbed.
a. oscillated
b. desiccated
c. subverted
d. coalesced
e. thwarted
128
358. The pitcher’s ______ workout regimen was the most grueling of all
his teammates, and he never took a day off.
a. Spartan
b. spasmodic
c. exclusive
d. turgid
e. truculent
359. Ethan’s responses when he spoke on the telephone were ______

and he nearly always made his customers think he was rude.
a. receptive
b. laconic
c. uncanny
d. suave
e. ponderous
360. I was bored with the ______ conversation of my roommates and

longed for some intellectual stimulation.
a. egregious
b. pronounced
c. vapid
d. intriguing
e. exonerating
361. Ned’s fear was ______ as he watched the 60-foot waves approach
his little boat.
a. futile
b. genteel
c. innovative
d. palpable
e. detrimental
362. Moving swiftly and gracefully through the backyard, the cat
suddenly ______ when she hit the thorny bush.
a. recoiled
b. recuperated
c. invigorated
d. fabricated
e. throttled
129
363. Although others were fooled by “Doctor” Winston’s speech, Lily

knew him for what he was: a(n) ______.
a. panacea
b. charlatan
c. prevarication
d. accolade
e. primadonna
364. The task of building the cabin was a ______ one, but Rob was up
to the challenge.
a. laborious
b. venerable
c. archaic
d. cynical
e. unbiased
365. After the neighbor’s stereo woke her up for the fifth night in a row,
Brenda felt ______ to complain.
a. impelled
b. rebuked
c. augmented
d. implicated
e. destined
366. Carter is writing a letter of recommendation that I can include in

my ______ for prospective employers.
a. denunciation
b. panacea
c. dossier
d. incantation
e. restitution
367. ______ laughter came from the upstairs apartment where Trang
was having a graduation party.
a. Scurrilous
b. Deleterious
c. Fatuous
d. Uproarious
e. Malicious
130
368. In the middle of his eloquent ______, the audience suddenly broke
into applause.
a. ovation
b. oration
c. inclination
d. provocation
e. illusion
369. I like the ______ style of these essays; they make complex issues
accessible by presenting them in everyday language.
a. colloquial
b. obsolete
c. pristine
d. exacting
e. furtive
370. A diamond ring is the ______ symbol of love and affection.

a. precocious
b. fugacious
c. supplemental
d. quintessential
e. barbarous
371. Allen’s ______ distanced him from his family, but he was still
unwilling to apologize.
a. regeneration
b. contingency
c. equivalence
d. impenitence
e. innovation
372. Nothing will ______ my memory of the night we first met; the
images are forever burned in my mind.
a. appease
b. undulate
c. inculcate
d. efface
e. truncate
131
373. With the curtains drawn back, the room was ______ with warm
sunlight.
a. recessed
b. intruded
c. suffused
d. belied
e. taut
374. The devastating drought forced the ______ tribes of the rainforest
to leave their homes and venture into the modern world.
a. indigenous
b. puritanical
c. indigent
d. imminent
e. munificent
375. Jason’s ______ approach to management included narrowing the

salary gap between the CEOs and office workers.
a. stoic
b. apathetic
c. utilitarian
d. endemic
e. proactive
132
Answers
351. d. Affable (adj.) means easy and pleasant to speak to, approachable;
friendly, warm, gracious.
352. e. Lethargy (n.) is the state of drowsiness or sluggish inactivity.
353. a. Vista (n.) means a view or prospect.
354. e. Ornate (adj.) means richly and artistically finished or stylized.
355. d. To hurtle (v.) is to rush with great speed; to move violently with
great noise; to fling forcefully.
356. e. Rancid (adj.) means rotten or putrid.
357. b. To desiccate (v.) means to dry out thoroughly, become dry; to

make dry, dull, or lifeless.
358. a. Spartan (adj.) means rigorously severe (from the Greek city-
state Sparta known for its austere and rigid lifestyle); marked by
strict self-discipline; characteristically simple or frugal.
359. b. Laconic (adj.) means curt, concise, but expressing much in a few
words; brief and to the point.
360. c. Vapid (adj.) means dull, lacking life, sprit or substance; tedious.
361. d. Palpable (adj.) means tangible, noticeable; easily perceived and

detected.
362. a. To recoil (v.) means to jump back suddenly.
363. b. A charlatan (n.) is someone who makes elaborate, fraudulent

claims to having certain skills or knowledge; a quack, imposter,
fraud.
364. a. Laborious (adj.) means characterized by hard work, exertion, or

perseverance.
133
365. a. To impel (v.) is to motivate; push or drive forward; propel.
366. c. A dossier (n.) is a collection of papers giving detailed information

about a particular person or subject.
367. d. Uproarious (adj.) means noisy.
368. b. An oration (n.) is a formal speech for a special occasion.
369. a. Colloquial (adj.) means characteristic of informal spoken

language or conversation; conversational.
370. d. Quintessential (adj.) is the best and purest part of a thing; the
most typical example of a thing.
371. d. Impenitence (n.) is the trait of refusing to repent; unwilling to

show regret for wrongdoing.
372. d. To efface (v.) means to rub out, erase; to cause to dim or make
indistinct; to make or conduct oneself inconspicuously.
373. c. To suffuse (v.) means to cover or fill the surface of, as in to fill
with light.
374. a. Indigenous (adj.) means originating or being native to a specific

region or country; also inherent or natural.
375. c. Utilitarian (adj.) means related to the ethical doctrine that

actions are right because they are useful or beneficial to the
greatest number of people.
134
Chapter 16
376. If people continue to ______ the rainforests, soon they will

disappear from the earth.
a. dominate
b. frolic
c. laminate
d. neglect
e. provoke
377. My parents always seem to worry and ______ more about money
when tax season is approaching.
a. proximate
b. quibble
c. supplicate
d. dabble
e. alienate
135
378. While the king and the members of his court lived in the most
opulent luxury, the peasants in his kingdom lived in the most
______ poverty.
a. abject
b. incessant
c. relinquished
d. erratic
e. lugubrious
379. Samantha had an ______ trust in her grandfather, who was an

honorable man and kind to everyone he met.
a. implicit
b. insecure
c. irreverent
d. irresolute
e. astringent
380. Antonello searched the forest around his campsite for small
branches to ______ the fire, so he could eventually cook his dinner.
a. stifle
b. kindle
c. suppress
d. dissipate
e. prohibit
381. Although I meant it as a compliment, Zander ______ my remark as

an insult.
a. construed
b. eradicated
c. truncated
d. permeated
e. redacted
136
382. The sailor’s ______ complexion bespoke his many sunny days at
the lookout post.
a. swarthy
b. syncopated
c. pallid
d. wan
e. pasty
383. Tanya is a ______ person, trusted by all who know her.

a. porous
b. voracious
c. spurious
d. specious
e. veracious
384. After the third relative was hired to an upper-level position, several
people quit the company, claiming that ______ caused a decline in
employee morale.
a. carrion
b. explicitness
c. skepticism
d. devotion
e. nepotism
385. Genevieve’s stunning debut performance at the city opera has

earned her ______ from some of the city’s toughest critics.
a. antipathy
b. insinuations
c. destitution
d. lamentations
e. accolades
386. The shaggy neon couch was a(n) ______ in the conservative room
decorated with earth tones.
a. incongruity
b. insinuation
c. temerity
d. reiteration
e. intonation
137
387. Harris tried to ______ his fear of flying when he boarded the
plane, but he could not curb his anxiety.
a. accelerate
b. expound
c. maximize
d. employ
e. repress
388. Gabi found that whenever she was confused about an idea or issue,
writing about it would help ______ her true feelings.
a. vacillate
b. elucidate
c. wheedle
d. deprecate
e. indoctrinate
389. After the powerful windstorm, Marie discovered a splintered and

fallen tree limb had ______ the vinyl lining of her swimming pool.
a. extenuated
b. calculated
c. retaliated
d. lacerated
e. curtailed
390. Johnny’s good behavior in class yesterday was ______ by his

disruptive outbursts in Math this morning.
a. abated
b. negated
c. reiterated
d. mandated
e. nominated
391. Jason and Joshua made ______ plans to meet in the cafeteria to
study for the test, provided Jason’s class ended on time.
a. beguiling
b. tenuous
c. assured
d. tentative
e. promotional
138
392. The professor’s lectures were filled with excessive ______, lasting
much longer than was necessary to convey his ideas.
a. verbiage
b. herbage
c. maliciousness
d. portent
e. intrigue
393. Ming’s blatant lie revealed that he suffered no ______ about being
dishonest to his parents.
a. compunction
b. repudiation
c. vindication
d. evanescence
e. veracity
394. Diane, always teasing, was known for her ______ , but as a result,
nobody knew when to take her seriously.
a. jocularity
b. servitude
c. logic
d. austerity
e. inclemency
395. “Absolute power corrupts absolutely,” said Haines. “There is no

such thing as a(n) ______ who is not a corrupt and cruel ruler.”
a. imbroglio
b. pedant
c. despot
d. agnostic
e. archetype
396. During his ______ in office the mayor made several controversial
decisions about city planning.
a. treatise
b. integration
c. teem
d. flout
e. tenure
139
397. Recovering from the tragedy, Helena found the ______ sunrise
reassuring, as it gave her something to rely on each and every
morning.
a. hidden
b. clairvoyant
c. cognizant
d. deft
e. quotidian
398. Flaws in Claire’s opponent’s chess game showed him to be ______,

and Claire knew her victory was assured.
a. predatory
b. indistinguishable
c. ornery
d. vincible
e. resolute
399. The ad didn’t mention a specific salary; it just said “compensation

______ with experience.”
a. compulsory
b. manifest
c. prolific
d. commensurate
e. precluded
400. The ______ she felt for shopping made it impossible for her to
walk by a sale window without stopping.
a. providence
b. blunder
c. omission
d. repulsion
e. estrus
140
Answers
376. d. To neglect (v.) means to be careless about; to fail to care for or to

do; to be remiss about.
377. b. To quibble (v.) means to find fault or criticize for petty reasons.
378. a. Abject (adj.) means wretched, degraded, debased; of the most

contemptible or miserable kind; showing utter resignation or
humiliation, groveling, servile.
379. a. Implicit (adj.) means unquestioning or trusting without doubt;

understood rather than directly stated; implied.
380. b. Kindle (v.) means to cause to burn with flames; to ignite; to set
on fire.
381. a. To construe (v.) is to interpret or understand; to make sense of,

explain the meaning of.
382. a. Swarthy (adj.) means having a dark hue, especially a dark or

sunburned complexion.
383. e. Veracious (adj.) means truthful, honest; habitually disposed to

speak the truth.
384. e. Nepotism (n.) is favoritism for kin when conferring jobs, offices,
or privileges.
385. e. An accolade (n.) is an award or special acknowledgement

signifying approval or distinction.
386. a. Incongruity (n.) is the quality of being inappropriate or

unbecoming; not consistent in character.
387. e. To repress (v.) means to keep under or restrain; to curb or

subdue.
141
388. b. To elucidate (v.) means to make clear or manifest; to free from

confusion or ambiguity.
389. d. To lacerate (v.) is to rip, tear, or mangle.
390. b. To negate (v.) means to nullify, invalidate, or deny.
391. d. Tentative (adj.) means provisional or uncertain; not fixed or set.
392. a. Verbiage (n.) means the use of many words without necessity.
393. a. Compunction (n.) means a feeling of uneasiness or regret caused

by a sense of guilt, remorse; a pang of conscience at the thought
or act of committing a misdeed.
394. a. Jocularity (n.) is the state of being jocular, which is characterized

by joking or jesting.
395. c. A despot (n.) is someone who rules with absolute power; a

dictator or tyrant.
396. e. Tenure (n.) means the term during which a thing is held; often
used in connection with career positions.
397. e. Quotidian (adj.) means occurring or returning daily.
398. d. Vincible (adj.) means conquerable, capable of being defeated or

subdued.
399. d. Commensurate (adj.) means corresponding in size, degree, or

extent; proportionate.
400. e. An estrus (n.) is an irresistible impulse or passion.
142
Chapter 17
401. The owners of the bed-and-breakfast were extremely ______ to

their guests, who enjoyed elegant meals, prompt service, and
beautifully decorated rooms.
a. hospitable
b. hostile
c. remiss
d. gallant
e. indomitable
402. Homeless people often lead a(n) ______ lifestyle because they
repeatedly get uprooted from the streets and alleys where they live.
a. aristocratic
b. platonic
c. analytic
d. nomadic
e. ballistic
143
403. Linda’s ______ for picking the right stocks made her a very
wealthy woman.
a. knack
b. reception
c. rendition
d. impropriety
e. concourse
404. Computers and word processing software have made the art of
hand-writing letters virtually ______.
a. barren
b. boisterous
c. obsolete
d. dignified
e. relevant
405. Marco has an irresistibly ______ manner that many young women
find charming and attractive.
a. obstinate
b. staid
c. bland
d. supple
e. suave
406. Chantel kept the ______ of her beloved foremost in her mind as
she traveled to countries far and wide in her quest to find him.
a. prelude
b. armistice
c. hirsute
d. presage
e. visage
407. The cozy beach cottage was only ______ for summer tenants
because it lacked the insulation to make a winter stay comfortable.
a. stagnant
b. erroneous
c. resilient
d. habitable
e. ineffective
144
408. The settlers decided to build their town at the ______ of two
rivers; that settlement became the city of Pittsburgh.
a. veneer
b. lexicon
c. hiatus
d. tirade
e. confluence
409. Furious that Lou had lied about his references, Noi ______ her
decision to promote him to assistant manager.
a. elevated
b. incriminated
c. complied
d. rescinded
e. fortified
410. To prove your theory, you need to design an experiment that will
provide ______ evidence.
a. perfunctory
b. elusive
c. noxious
d. empirical
e. lamentable
411. Rachel’s mother was appalled by the amount of ______ humor on

television during hours when young children were still awake.
a. fraudulent
b. senile
c. proportional
d. lascivious
e. laborious
412. The scared boy on the roller coaster made sure his seatbelt was
______ across his body.
a. slack
b. taut
c. trite
d. striated
e. curt
145
413. The female fox’s ______ over her burrow indicates that she has just
birthed her young.
a. vendetta
b. preening
c. vigilance
d. sepulcher
e. rendezvous
414. After Ginger banged her head, she noticed that a large lump began
to ______ from her forehead.
a. invade
b. provoke
c. sustain
d. obtrude
e. elevate
415. The devoted fans paid ______ to the late singer by placing flowers
on his memorial and by holding burning votive candles.
a. tariffs
b. accouterment
c. retrospection
d. appraisement
e. homage
416. Losing his entire business to the flood, Bill’s only ______ was to
file bankruptcy.
a. dross
b. enigma
c. fervor
d. imprecation
e. recourse
417. The new evidence convinced the District Attorney to overturn

Martin’s conviction and ______ him.
a. appropriate
b. truncate
c. elucidate
d. exonerate
e. protract
146
418. Christopher hired a tree-trimming crew to cut the ______

branches of the pine tree that were scraping the side of his house.
a. fastidious
b. lateral
c. nebulous
d. abject
e. recessive
419. We both knew our summer romance was ______ , and we would
just be memories in each other’s minds by the winter.
a. restorative
b. tempting
c. temporal
d. understated
e. indecisive
420. The dissatisfied workers spread their ______ attitudes among

themselves until there was a danger of a full-scale rebellion against
the owners of the factory.
a. paradoxical
b. monochromatic
c. benign
d. virulent
e. portentous
421. The junkyard was littered with ______ objects, making it unsightly
to the neighborhood behind it.
a. otiose
b. obtuse
c. jovial
d. decorative
e. buoyant
147
422. Although Maya’s ______ sensibilities are quite different from mine,
I think she is a remarkable interior decorator and I recommend her
highly.
a. aesthetic
b. dialectical
c. reclusive
d. synthetic
e. mercurial
423. The meticulous art student arranged her paint colors by a

darkening ______ on her palette.
a. limitation
b. gradation
c. moratorium
d. juncture
e. tincture
424. J.P. recalled running through the ______ of tall rows of corn stalks
that dominated his grandfather’s summer garden.
a. terminals
b. temperament
c. labyrinth
d. basin
e. deference
425. Peter displayed an air of ______ when the officer asked him if he
knew the speed limit.
a. omniscience
b. obstinacy
c. nescience
d. obstetrics
e. platitude
148
Answers
401. a. Hospitable (adj.) means treating guests kindly and generously;

being agreeable, receptive or of an open mind.
402. d. Nomadic (adj.) means roaming from place to place or wandering.
403. a. Knack (n.) is a natural talent; a clever way of doing something.
404. c. Obsolete (adj.) means antiquated, disused; discarded.
405. e. Suave (adj.) means having a smooth and pleasant manner.
406. e. Visage (n.) means the face, countenance, or look of a person.
407. d. Habitable (adj.) means acceptable for inhabiting.
408. e. Confluence (n.) means a flowing or coming together; a gathering

or meeting together at a point or juncture; a place where two
things come together, the point of juncture.
409. d. Rescinded (v.) means revoked.
410. d. Empirical (adj.) means relying on, derived from, or verifiable by;
experimental or observational rather than theory.
411. d. Lascivious (adj.) means lewd, lustful, or wanton.
412. b. Taut (adj.) means stretched tight.
413. c. Vigilance (n.) means alert and intent mental watchfulness in

guarding against danger.
414. d. To obtrude (v.) means to stick out, push forward.
415. e. Homage (n.) is respect paid publicly; reverence rendered;

deference.
416. e. Recourse (n.) means a last option or way out.
149
417. d. To exonerate (v.) means to free from blame or guilt, absolve; to

release from a responsibility or obligation, discharge.
418. b. Lateral (adj.) means pertaining to or extending from the side.
419. c. Temporal (adj.) means enduring for a short time; transitory.
420. d. Virulent (adj.) means exceedingly noxious, deleterious, or

hateful.
421. a. Otiose (adj.) means needless, functionless; unemployed or

useless.
422. a. Aesthetic (adj.) means concerning or characterized by an

appreciation of beauty or good taste; characterized by a
heightened sensitivity to beauty, artistic.
423. b. Gradation (n.) is the changing of a color, shade, or tint to

another by gradual degrees; the process of bringing to another
grade in a series; a stage or degree in such a series.
424. c. Labyrinth (n.) is a maze of paths or a complicated system of

pathways in which it is challenging to find the exit; something
extremely complex in structure or character.
425. c. Nescience (n.) is ignorance, or the absence of knowledge.
150
Chapter 18
426. I have tried for years to get close to my brother Rae, but he has
always remained ______.
a. cognizant
b. assiduous
c. vociferous
d. aloof
e. accommodating
427. In his later years, the once wildly successful gambler lost his
fortune, and became a homeless ______ on the streets of Las
Vegas.
a. granger
b. miser
c. strategist
d. vagabond
e. speculator
151
428. ______ animals are able to survive easily in the wilderness because,
for example, they can live on berries or insects.
a. Omnipotent
b. Omnivorous
c. Luminous
d. Lavish
e. Precarious
429. Sally had planted the seeds in the greenhouse three weeks ago;
they would begin to ______ any day now.
a. germinate
b. revolve
c. tint
d. ratify
e. modulate
430. Julia’s parents gave her one ______ regarding her new job: It could
not interfere with her schoolwork.
a. procession
b. consensus
c. manifestation
d. provision
e. reprieve
431. Despite enthusiastic efforts from the supporting cast, the critics
agreed the star of the play gave a ______ performance, ruining the
chance of lucrative box office sales.
a. infallible
b. vigorous
c. victorious
d. felicitous
e. lackluster
432. The tenor’s ______ voice filled the concert hall.

a. sinuous
b. timid
c. tenuous
d. sonorous
e. striated
152
433. After the fire, there were ashes in every ______ of the old
farmhouse.
a. belfry
b. reprieve
c. tangent
d. orifice
e. tribunal
434. Luanne experiences serious ______ whenever she climbs several

flights of steep stairs.
a. vertigo
b. inebriation
c. exoneration
d. fallacy
e. plethora
435. The ______ of the successful product idea was attributed to the
extraordinarily creative company president.
a. demise
b. genesis
c. symmetry
d. repletion
e. dominion
436. When the company reached it’s ______ of hiring one hundred
college graduates, they proceeded to recruit older, more
experienced candidates.
a. quota
b. hybrid
c. detriment
d. fiasco
e. malady
153
437. After her extended illness, Delia experienced a long period of

______ when she did not want to work, exercise, or clean.
a. languor
b. arrogance
c. insolence
d. forethought
e. recompense
438. Floyd has a distinctive ______ to his voice—easily recognizable

over the phone.
a. viscosity
b. brawn
c. timbre
d. diadem
e. ingenuity
439. The house was consumed in flames and not a ______ of it

remained after the fire.
a. vestige
b. visage
c. vestibule
d. vicissitude
e. viceroy
440. David felt as if the family picnic would be a(n) ______ time to talk
with his grandmother about her plans for the holidays.
a. opportune
b. disastrous
c. unctuous
d. trite
e. surly
441. The children were ______ for eating the whole batch of cookies
before dinner.
a. indignant
b. belittled
c. chagrined
d. eluded
e. admonished
154
442. During his routine, the stand-up comic refused to be shaken by the
heckler who ______ him every few minutes.
a. ignored
b. abetted
c. enforced
d. gibed
e. cited
443. Going away for spring break was not in the ______ of possibility,
since neither Helga nor Olga had any money.
a. fascism
b. fulcrum
c. introversion
d. realm
e. nadir
444. Oscar ______ his sister not to tell their mother what he had done,
for he knew his punishment would be severe.
a. beguiled
b. vied
c. exhorted
d. maligned
e. corroborated
445. ______ were in order as James performed brilliantly on stage in his

first role as an understudy.
a. Pathos
b. Ignominies
c. Kudos
d. Subsidies
e. Statutes
446. The Boston Tea Party happened because the Americans believed
the British tea taxes were ______ the rights of the colonists.
a. trespassing
b. reviling
c. sublimating
d. transgressing
e. entreating
155
447. The old bridge’s steel ______ were rusty and in need of repair.
a. piers
b. campaniles
c. manacles
d. girders
e. spindles
448. The budding flowers, warm breezes, and birth of young animals
suggest the much-welcomed ______ atmosphere in the country
after a long, hard winter.
a. venial
b. menial
c. venal
d. vernal
e. verbal
449. Since she had not exercised in five years, Margarita attempt to jog
five miles on her first day of cardio-training was a little ______.
a. pessimistic
b. irrelevant
c. trivial
d. quixotic
e. relieved
450. The legal internship program was developed under the ______ of
the district attorney’s office.
a. bastion
b. propensity
c. aegis
d. faction
e. cacophony
156
Answers
426. d. Aloof (adj.) means physically or emotionally distant; reserved,

remote.
427. d. A vagabond (n.) is a wanderer; a person who does not have a

permanent home.
428. b. Omnivorous (adj.) means feeding on both animal and vegetable

substances; having an insatiable appetite for anything.
429. a. To germinate (v.) means to begin to grow or sprout; to cause to

come into existence or develop.
430. d. A provision (n.) is a stipulation or qualification; a stock of

supplies.
431. e. Lackluster (adj.) means lacking liveliness or brightness; dull.
432. d. Sonorous (adj.) means producing sound; impressive or grand in

effect.
433. d. An orifice (n.) is an opening, a hole; a perforation; a mouth or

hole through which something may pass.
434. a. Vertigo (n.) is dizziness often caused by experiencing heights.
435. b. Genesis (n.) is the origin, beginning, or foundation; the act of

forming something new; the first event in a series of events.
436. a. A quota (n.) is a proportional share.
437. a. Languor (n.) is a lack of energy or interest; a feeling of being

without spirit; sluggishness.
438. c. Timbre (n.) is the quality of a tone, as distinguished from

intensity and pitch.
157
439. a. Vestige (n.) means a visible trace, mark, or impression, of

something absent, lost, or gone.
440. a. Opportune (adj.) means well-timed or convenient.
441. e. To admonish (v.) means to reprove kindly but seriously; to warn

or counsel; to instruct or remind, as of a forgotten
responsibility.
442. d. To gibe (v.) means to taunt or jeer; to utter a taunting or

sarcastic remark.
443. d. A realm (n.) is a knowledge domain that you are interested in; a
kingdom or domain.
444. c. To exhort (v.) means to urge strongly with a stirring argument,

appeal, or advice; to make an urgent appeal.
445. c. Kudos (n.) are complimentary remarks; expressions of praise.
446. d. To transgress (v.) means to go beyond the limit or bounds of;

usually in connection with a law.
447. d. A girder (n.) is a large horizontal beam, made of wood, steel, or

concrete, to support weight or span an opening.
448. d. Vernal (adj.) means belonging to or suggestive of the spring.
449. d. Quixotic (adj.) means idealistic without regard for practicality.
450. c. Aegis (n.) means sponsorship or patronage; guidance or

direction; or protection.
158
Chapter 19
451. Frank feels such ______ towards his ex-business partner that he
cannot stand to be in the same room with him.
a. iniquity
b. collusion
c. avarice
d. pallor
e. animosity
452. Ronaldo celebrated the gathering of his ______ on Thanksgiving

Day and spoke with relatives he had not seen in a long time.
a. commonwealth
b. surrogates
c. representatives
d. kindred
e. infidels
159
453. After sitting in the contentious board meeting for two hours,
Allen’s necktie began to feel like a ______ around his neck.
a. decorum
b. garland
c. noose
d. renegade
e. monstrosity
454. Even though he hated to work holidays and weekends, Trevor

hoped that his paycheck would serve as ______ for the time spent
away from his family.
a. metamorphism
b. restitution
c. enunciation
d. proclamation
e. kismet
455. Amanda’s parents were shocked by her ______ decision to quit her
job without notice and move to Hollywood.
a. conscientious
b. affable
c. placid
d. languid
e. impetuous
456. The catlike movements of the sneaky ______ served him well when
he picked pockets among the tourists on the crowded boardwalk.
a. forerunner
b. knave
c. vigilante
d. dignitary
e. bureaucrat
457. The student’s ______ language offended many others in the class.
a. obsequious
b. studious
c. scanty
d. surreptitious
e. scurrilous
160
458. In winter, the frost on a car’s windshield can be ______ to the

driver.
a. lurid
b. obstructive
c. cynical
d. purified
e. salvageable
459. The prom was a ______ royal ball with so many handsome young
men and beautiful young ladies dressed to the ultimate formality.
a. affable
b. virtual
c. corrosive
d. deleterious
e. inevitable
460. As the roller coaster inched to the top of the hill, Helena could feel
her heart begin to ______.
a. exfoliate
b. dominate
c. reattribute
d. palpitate
e. ventilate
461. Paul’s ______ humor is sometimes lost on those who take his
comments too literally.
a. piquant
b. wry
c. florid
d. placid
e. negligible
462. Hearing her sister approach, Marie-Helene attempted to appear

______ as she quickly hid the birthday gift behind her back.
a. flamboyant
b. stoic
c. pivotal
d. crass
e. nonchalant
161
463. The knight sought to ______ his broadsword in such a menacing

fashion as to frighten his attacker away.
a. warrant
b. procure
c. placate
d. wield
e. ensue
464. At the banquet, the disappearance of the woman’s jeweled bracelet

from her wrist appeared to be the ______ of an accomplished thief.
a. attrition
b. sledge
c. sleight
d. dismastment
e. regalia
465. Something went ______ in our experiment, and instead of creating

a green odorless vapor, we ended up with a noxious red liquid that
stunk up the laboratory for days.
a. hoary
b. awry
c. listless
d. derogatory
e. dilatory
466. When the movie star slipped out the back door of the hotel, the
paparazzi adroitly gathered their ______ and raced around the
building to catch her.
a. pandemonium
b. tenor
c. paraphernalia
d. venue
e. propaganda
162
467. Since Shane won the lottery, he has been living a life of ______
luxury, buying whatever he desires and traveling around the world
in his 100-foot yacht as he is waited on hand and foot by a bevy of
butlers, cooks, and maids.
a. arrant
b. vitriolic
c. ribald
d. seditious
e. fatuous
468. Confronted by his mother, the ______ four-year-old could not lie
about scribbling on his bedroom walls with purple and blue
markers.
a. guileless
b. inauspicious
c. untarnished
d. indiscriminate
e. vexed
469. The artist attempted to ______ the painting by adding people

dressed in bright colors in the foreground.
a. excoriate
b. amplify
c. eradicate
d. vivify
e. inculcate
470. The artist drew the picture with such ______ that it was possible to
count every blade of grass that he painted.
a. blasphemy
b. philosophy
c. nicety
d. consensus
e. purveyance
163
471. The highly publicized nature of the trial caused the judge to
______ the jury in order to shield members from evidence that
might sway their verdict.
a. quarantine
b. retract
c. sequester
d. integrate
e. assimilate
472. Jillian was ______ by the contradictory diagnoses she received and
decided she needed a third opinion.
a. intimidated
b. effaced
c. girded
d. usurped
e. bemused
473. Because he was antsy from having eaten too much candy, little
William was unable to ______ himself in a respectable manner
during the ceremony.
a. garner
b. quell
c. surmise
d. comport
e. subjugate
474. The chemistry professor believed her students could do better on

their exams by searching for their own answers, and encouraged
the class to apply the ______ method to prepare.
a. punctilious
b. nonconformist
c. salubrious
d. heuristic
e. determinate
164
475. Bea was known for her loud and domineering personality and was
considered a ______ by many who knew her.
a. banality
b. debutante
c. scapegoat
d. trifle
e. virago
165
Answers
451. e. Animosity (n.) means bitter, open hostility or enmity; energetic

dislike.
452. d. Kindred (n.) is a group of people related to each other by birth

or marriage.
453. c. A noose (n.) is a loop with slipknot, tightening when pulled.
454. b. Restitution (n.) is a restoration of what is lost or taken away,

especially unjustly.
455. e. Impetuous (adj.) means impulsive or passionate; characterized by

sudden emotion or energy.
456. b. Knave (n.) is a dishonest, deceitful, or unreliable person.
457. e. Scurrilous (adj.) means grossly indecent or vulgar; offensive.
458. b. Obstructive (adj.) means blocking, hindering; obscuring.
459. b. Virtual (adj.) means being in essence or effect, but not in actual
fact.
460. d. To palpitate (v.) is to flutter or move with slight throbs.
461. b. Wry (adj.) means ironic, cynical, or sardonic.
462. e. Nonchalant (adj.) means casual, indifferent.
463. d. To wield (v.) means to use, control, or manage, as a weapon, or

instrument, especially with full command.
464. c. A sleight (n.) means a trick or feat so deftly done that the
manner of performance escapes observation.
465. b. Awry (adj.) means off-course, amiss; turned or twisted toward

one side, askew; not functioning properly.
166
466. c. Paraphernalia (n.) are miscellaneous articles needed for

particular professions, information, or operation.
467. a. Arrant (adj.) means complete, absolute, utter.
468. a. Guileless (adj.) means to be without guile; straightforward;

honest; frank.
469. d. To vivify (v.) means to give or bring life to; to animate.
470. c. Nicety (n.) means precision, accuracy; a subtle distinction or

detail; the state of being nice.
471. c. To sequester (v.) means to separate, segregate, seclude; cause to

withdraw or retire, as with juries.
472. e. Bemused (adj.) means deeply absorbed in thought; bewildered or

perplexed by many conflicting situations or statements.
473. d. To comport (v.) means to conduct or behave (oneself) in a certain

manner; to agree, accord, or harmonize.
474. d. Heuristic (adj.) means stimulating further investigation;

encouraging learning through discoveries made by a student.
475. e. Virago (n.) means a bold, impudent, turbulent woman.
167
Chapter 20
476. Even though he was only in kindergarten, Joel was very ______
and could intuit when his teacher was not pleased with his
behavior.
a. obtuse
b. oblivious
c. inept
d. perceptive
e. indolent
477. During his many years of hard work, Paul was promoted several
times and began to rise through the bank’s ______ of employees.
a. declassification
b. surplus
c. hierarchy
d. principality
e. dominion
169
478. The heat was absolutely ______, making everyone irritable, sweaty,
and uncomfortable.
a. taciturn
b. salient
c. replete
d. prosaic
e. oppressive
479. The biology students were assigned the task of testing the ______ ,
but did not have enough time to prove its validity.
a. lexicon
b. hypothesis
c. motif
d. platitude
e. genesis
480. It had rained all afternoon, but the fans were still ______ that the
baseball game would still be played.
a. pessimistic
b. sadistic
c. optimistic
d. domineering
e. truant
481. If you have any special needs or requests, speak to Val; she’s the
one with the most ______ around here.
a. synergy
b. clout
c. affinity
d. guile
e. infamy
482. Because Virgil had been so ______ as a child, he had an extremely

difficult time adjusting when he enrolled in the military academy.
a. fettered
b. intrepid
c. coddled
d. pallid
e. odious
170
483. Far from being a ______, Bob gets up at dawn every morning to
prepare for a long day at work after which he attends classes in
evening.
a. moderator
b. drone
c. replica
d. sycophant
e. sluggard
484. The vulgarity used by the football fans at the stadium was ______
and eventually lead to a penalty for the team.
a. rakish
b. quiescent
c. sagacious
d. reproachable
e. mundane
485. After the debate, Karim ______ upon many of the campaign issues
in a series of detailed editorials.
a. expounded
b. ebbed
c. doffed
d. temporized
e. wrought
486. Since the judge hearing the case was related to one of the
defendants, she felt she could not offer a truly ______ opinion.
a. unbiased
b. indifferent
c. unilateral
d. uninterested
e. understated
171
487. Abdul found his ten-hour shifts at the paper clip factory repetitive
and ______.
a. fatuous
b. nebulous
c. malleable
d. indelible
e. wearisome
488. Jonelle is a(n) ______ of the kind of student we seek: someone who
is both academically strong and actively involved in the
community.
a. paradox
b. exemplar
c. catalyst
d. mandate
e. harbinger
489. Tomas is a(n) ______ businessman who knows a good opportunity

when he sees it.
a. insolent
b. astute
c. mercurial
d. indifferent
e. volatile
490. Sean would ______ whenever it became his turn to do the dishes.
a. premeditate
b. palter
c. reform
d. distend
e. ponder
491. The barnyard scene outside the 4-H tent made a charming ______
for visitors to the state fair.
a. melee
b. tabloid
c. tableau
d. rant
e. tangent
172
492. The jellyfish, known for its shimmering ______, is one of nature’s
most intriguing creatures.
a. resonance
b. opulence
c. didactics
d. omniscience
e. translucence
493. A decade after the ______, the members of the tribe began to drift
home again, hoping to rebuild the community they had fled during
the war.
a. kowtow
b. redaction
c. cloister
d. diaspora
e. chimera
494. After performing a ______ of the cow, scientists determined that it

did not have mad cow disease, and there was no need to notify the
board of health.
a. extrapolation
b. interrogation
c. interment
d. elongation
e. vivisection
495. Charged with moral ______, the judge was called off the case even
though he denied receiving bribes from the plaintiff’s counsel.
a. lassitude
b. restitution
c. turpitude
d. torpor
e. vicissitude
173
496. I knew from Inga’s ______ reply that she was offended by my
question.
a. sinuous
b. vivacious
c. sinister
d. garrulous
e. brusque
497. The cult leader’s ______ obeyed his every instruction.

a. predecessors
b. sycophants
c. narcissists
d. panderers
e. elocutionists
498. The ______wallpaper in his living room makes it difficult to find

curtains and furniture that will match it.
a. blunt
b. fatuous
c. verbose
d. variegated
e. meticulous
499. Homer’s Odyssey was not translated into many people’s ______ until
after the invention of the printing press.
a. caste
b. epicure
c. vernacular
d. debutant
e. nomenclature
500. Don Quixote describes the adventures of a(n) ______ knight who
believes that windmills are giants and the barmaid Dulcinea is a
princess.
a. gregarious
b. eloquent
c. fickle
d. errant
e. steadfast
174
501. The ______ espionage plot was so sophisticated it was impossible

to believe it was the work of teenage computer hackers.
a. simple
b. vaporized
c. byzantine
d. mystical
e. fusty
175
Answers
476. d. Perceptive (adj.) means having the ability to understand and be

sensitive to.
477. c. Hierarchy (n.) is a series or system of people or things that are

graded or ranked; a group of persons in authority.
478. e. Oppressive (adj.) means unreasonably burdensome; heavy.
479. b. Hypothesis (n.) is a proposition, believed to be probable, which is

adopted to explain certain facts and which can be further tested.
480. c. Optimistic (adj.) means taking the most hopeful view; feeling
that everything in nature is for the best.
481. b. Clout (n.) means influence, pull, or sway; power or muscle; a

strike or blow, especially with the fist.
482. c. To coddle (v.) means to treat with excessive indulgence or

tenderness, to baby or pamper. It also means to cook in water
just below the boiling point.
483. e. A sluggard (n.) is a person who is habitually lazy or idle.
484. a. Reproachable (adj.) means needing rebuke or censure; in a

manner that is severe or cutting.
485. a. To expound (v.) means to explain in detail, elaborate; to give a

detailed statement or account of.
486. a. Unbiased (adj.) means completely impartial to, as in judgment.
487. e. Wearisome (adj.) means fatiguing or tiresome.
488. b. An exemplar (n.) is one who is worthy of imitation, a model or

ideal; a typical or representative example.
176
489. b. Astute (adj.) means having or showing intelligence and

shrewdness; keen, discerning.
490. b. To palter (v.) is to act insincerely; to haggle; to play tricks;

equivocate.
491. c. A tableau (n.) is an arrangement of inanimate figures

representing a scene from real life.
492. e. Translucence (n.) means the property or state of allowing the

passage of light.
493. d. A diaspora (n.) is a dispersion of people from their original

homeland, or the community formed by such a people; the
dispersion of an originally homogeneous group or entity, such
as a language or culture.
494. e. Vivisection (n.) means the dissection of an animal, particularly

for scientific research.
495. c. Turpitude (n.) means depravity; any action that violates accepted
standards.
496. e. Brusque (adj.) means abrupt, curt, or blunt in a discourteous

manner.
497. b. A sycophant (n.) is a servile flatterer, especially of those in

authority or influence.
498. d. Variegated (adj.) means marked with different shades or colors.
499. c. Vernacular (n.) means the language of one’s country.
500. d. Errant (adj.) means wandering, roving, especially in search of

adventure; straying beyond the established course or limits.
177
501. c. Byzantine (adj.) means highly complicated, intricate or involved;

characterized by elaborate scheming and intrigue, devious; of or
relating to or characteristic of the Byzantine Empire or ancient
Byzantium, especially its architectural style; of or relating to the
Eastern Orthodox Church.
178

be
 Unbiased
 Sufficient
 Efficient
 Consistent


4. If the conditional distribution of $X_1, X_2,\cdots,X_n$ given $S=s$, does not depend
on $\theta$, for any value of $S=s$, the statistics $S=s(X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n)$ is called
 Unbiased
 Consistent
 Sufficient
 Efficient

 Unbiased
 Sufficient
 Efficient
 Consistent
 Unbiased
 Efficient
 Sufficient
 Consistent
 BAN
 CANE
 BANE
 A) and B)


 Log Function
i. $E(\mu_t)=0$

 Efficient


$\hat{\theta}$ is
 Unbiased
 Efficient
 Sufficient
 Consistent


 Unbiased Test
1. The _________ of the Chi-squared distribution is twice the degrees of freedom.
a) variance
b) standard deviation
c) mode
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The mean of the Chi-squared is its degrees of freedom.

a) Asymptotics are incredibly useful for simple statistical inference and approximations
b) Asymptotics often lead to nice understanding of procedures
c) An estimator is consistent if it converges to what you want to estimate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Consistency is neither necessary nor sufficient for one estimator to be better than another.
3. Gosset’s distribution is invented by which of the following scientist?
a) William Gosset
b) William Gosling
c) Gosling Gosset
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gosset’s distribution is indexed by a degrees of freedom.
4. The _________ of a collection of data is the joint density evaluated as a function of the parameters with
the data fixed.
a) probability
b) likelihood
c) poisson distribution
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Likelihood analysis of data uses the likelihood to perform inference regarding the unknown
parameter.
a) Asymptotics generally give assurances about finite sample performance
b) The sample variance and the sample standard deviation are consistent as well
c) The sample mean and the sample variance are unbiased as well
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The kinds of asymptotics that do are orders of magnitude more difficult to work with.
6. Which of the following is a property of likelihood?
a) Ratios of likelihood values measure the relative evidence of one value of the unknown parameter to
another
b) Given a statistical model and observed data, all of the relevant information contained in the data regarding
the unknown parameter is contained in the likelihood
c) The Resultant likelihood is multiplication of individual likelihood
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Likelihood is the hypothetical probability that an event that has already occurred would yield a
specific outcome.
advertisement
7. CLT is mostly useful as an approximation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The CLT applies in an endless variety of settings.

8. The beta distribution is the default prior for parameters between ____________
a) 0 and 10
b) 1 and 2
c) 0 and 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bayesian statistics posits a prior on the parameter of interest.
9. Which of the following mean is a mixture of the MLE and the prior mean?
a) interior
b) exterior
c) posterior
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: MLE stands for maximum likelihood.
10. Usually replacing the standard error by its estimated value does change the CLT.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
ARKANSAS COUNCIL OF TEACHERS OF MATHEMATICS
2017 STATISTICS REGIONAL EXAM NAME: __________________
-Directions-
This exam includes 25 multiple-choice questions and three open-response questions that might
be used as tie breakers. For questions 1 through 25 (the multiple-choice questions), mark your
answer choice in the appropriate location on the sheet provided. After completing questions 1
through 25, answer each tie breaker question in sequential order (i.e. complete Question #1 first,
then Question #2, and then Question #3 last). Be sure that your name is printed on each of the tie
break questions. When time is called, you will be asked to turn in your multiple-choice question
answer sheet and your written responses to the tie breaker questions.
1. All of the following increase the width of a confidence interval except:
a. Increased confidence level

b. Increased variability
c. Increased sample size
d. Decreased sample size
2. The statement that “𝑃(𝐴|𝐵) = 𝑃(𝐵|𝐴) whenever 𝐴 and 𝐵 are independent events” is:
Please select the best answer of those provided below.
a. Always True
b. Never True
c. Not Enough Information; we would need to know if 𝐴 and 𝐵 are disjoint events
d. Not Enough Information; we would need to know if the events are equally likely
3. The p-value in hypothesis testing represents which of the following:

a. The probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis, given the observed results
b. The probability that the null hypothesis is true, given the observed results
c. The probability that the observed results are statistically significant, given that the
null hypothesis is true
d. The probability of observing results as extreme or more extreme than currently
observed, given that the null hypothesis is true
-1-|Page ACTM-Statistics
4. Assume that the difference between the observed, paired sample values is defined in the
same manner and that the specified significance level is the same for both hypothesis tests.
Using the same data, the statement that “a paired/dependent two sample t-test is equivalent to
a one sample t-test on the paired differences, resulting in the same test statistic, same p-value,
and same conclusion” is:
a. Always True
b. Never True
c. Sometimes True
d. Not Enough Information
𝑃(𝐴)
5. Note for this question that the odds in favor of an event 𝐴 are defined as follows: 1−𝑃(𝐴)
1
For fraternal twins, the odds in favor of having children that are twins are 16. Based upon this
information, what is the probability of a fraternal twin not having children that are twins?
1
a. 16
15
b. 16
1
c.
17
16
d. 17
6. Refer to the back-to-back stemplot at the right.

Which of the following are true statements regarding the data
summarized?
I. The distributions have the same mean

II. The distributions have the same range
III. The distributions have the same variance
IV. The distributions have the same coefficient of variation
a. II only
b. II and III
c. I, III, and IV
d. II, III, and IV
For Questions 7–10, refer to the table, which relates to the possible epilepsy-depression link.
Depressive Disorder
Diagnosed Epilepsy Present (Yes) Absent (No)
Epilepsy 37 51
No Epilepsy 24 78
7. What is the probability of one randomly selected individual presenting with a depressive
disorder given the individual has diagnosed epilepsy? Round to 3 decimal places.
a. 0.421
b. 0.420
c. 0.195
d. 0.607
8. Assume simple random sampling for the data summarized in the table above.
Let 𝑝𝐸 represent the proportion of individuals with diagnosed epilepsy (‘Epilepsy’) that
present with a depressive disorder. Let 𝑝𝑁𝐸 represent the proportion of individuals without
diagnosed epilepsy (‘No Epilepsy’) that present with a depressive disorder.
What is the 95% confidence interval to estimate 𝑝𝐸 − 𝑝𝑁𝐸 , the difference between the
population proportions of individuals presenting with a depressive disorder among those with
diagnosed epilepsy and among those without diagnosed epilepsy? Round to 3 decimal places.
a. (0.040, 0.386)
b. (0.258, 0.577)
c. (-0.005, 0.142)
d. (0.053, 0.317)
9. A researcher believes that the proportion of individuals with diagnosed epilepsy that present
with a depressive disorder, 𝑝𝐸 , is higher than the proportion of individuals without diagnosed
epilepsy that present with a depressive disorder, 𝑝𝑁𝐸 . Testing this claim, what would the
resulting p-value be? Round to 3 decimal places.
a. 0.006
b. 0.069
c. 0.003
d. 0.035
10. Refer to Question 9. Using a 0.10 significance level, which of the following is the most
appropriate conclusion given the results?
a. Reject the null hypothesis; there is sufficient evidence to support the researcher’s
claim.
b. Fail to reject the null hypothesis; there is sufficient evidence to support the
researcher’s claim.
c. Accept the null hypothesis; there is not sufficient evidence to support the researcher’s
claim.
d. Accept the null hypothesis; there is sufficient evidence to support the researcher’s
claim.
11. A sociologist focusing on popular culture and media believes that the average number of
hours per week (hrs/week) spent using social media is greater for women than for men.
Examining two independent simple random samples of 100 individuals each, the researcher
calculates sample standard deviations of 2.3 hrs/week and 2.5 hrs/week for women and men
respectively. If the average number of hrs/week spent using social media for the sample of
women is 1 hour greater than that for the sample of men, what conclusion can be made from
a hypothesis test where:
𝐻0 : 𝜇𝑊 − 𝜇𝑀 = 0
{
𝐻1 : 𝜇𝑊 − 𝜇𝑀 > 0
a. The observed difference in average number of hrs/week spent using social media is
not significant
b. The observed difference in average number of hrs/week spent using social media is
significant
c. A conclusion is not possible without knowing the average number of hrs/week spent
using social media in each sample
d. A conclusion is not possible without knowing the population sizes
12. A 99% t-based confidence interval for the mean price for a gallon of gasoline (dollars) is
calculated using a simple random sample of gallon gasoline prices for 50 gas stations. Given
that the 99% confidence interval is $3.32 < 𝜇 < $3.98, what is the sample mean price for a
gallon of gasoline (dollars)?
a. $0.33
b. $3.65
c. Not Enough Information; we would need to know the variation in the sample of
gallon gasoline prices
d. Not Enough Information; we would need to know the variation in the population of
13. A quiz consists of 9 True/False questions. Assume that the questions are independent. In
addition, assume that (T) and (F) are equally likely outcomes when guessing on any one of
the questions. What is the probability of guessing on each of the 9 quiz questions and getting
more than one of the True/False questions wrong? Round to 3 decimal places.
a. 0.998
b. 0.018
c. 0.020
d. 0.980
14. Five students take AP Calculus AB one year and AP Calculus BC the next year. Their overall
course grades (%) are listed below for both courses. Which of the following statistical
procedures would be most appropriate to test the claim that student overall course grades are
the same in both courses? Assume that any necessary normality requirements hold.
Student 1 2 3 4 5
AP Cal AB 80.0% 72.6% 99.0% 91.3% 68.9%
AP Cal BC 85.5% 71.0% 93.2% 93.0% 74.8%
a. Two-tailed two-sample paired/dependent t-test of means

b. Two-tailed two-sample independent t-test of means
c. Two-tailed two-sample independent z-test of means
d. One-tailed two-sample z-test of proportions
15. Referring to the setting and data provided in Question 14 above, what is the test statistic for
testing the claim that student overall course grades are the same in both courses? Round to 3
decimal places.
a. -0.516
b. -0.157
c. 4.306
d. Not Enough Information; we would need to know the variation in the population
16. The histogram to the right represents the hospital
length of stay (in days) for patients at a nearby medical
facility. How many patients are included in the
histogram?
a. 5
b. 21
c. 17
d. 9
17. Using the histogram to the right that represents the

hospital lengths of stay (in days) for patients at a
nearby medical facility, determine the relationship
between the mean and the median.
a. Mean = Median
b. Mean ≈ Median
c. Mean < Median
d. Mean > Median
18. Refer to the discrete probability distribution provided in the table below.
X=x 0 1 2 3 4
P(X=x) 0.040 0.110 0.450 0.230 ?
Find the probability that x is equal to 0 or 4. Round to 3 decimal places.
a. 0.040
b. 0.210
c. 0.007
d. 1.000
19. Green sea turtles have normally distributed weights, measured in kilograms, with a mean of
134.5 and a variance of 49.0. A particular green sea turtle’s weight has a z-score of -2.4.
What is the weight of this green sea turtle? Round to the nearest whole number.
a. 17 kg
b. 151 kg
c. 118 kg
d. 252 kg
20. What percentage of measurements in a dataset fall above the median?

a. 49%
b. 50%
c. 51%
d. Cannot Be Determined
21. Which of the following exam scores is better relative to other students enrolled in the course?
 A psychology exam grade of 85; the mean grade for the psychology exam is 92 with a
standard deviation of 3.5
 An economics exam grade of 67; the mean grade for the economics exam is 79 with a
standard deviation of 8
 A chemistry exam grade of 62; the mean grade for the chemistry exam is 62 with a
a. The psychology exam score is relatively better

b. The economics exam score is relatively better
c. The chemistry exam score is relatively better
d. All of the exam scores are relatively equivalent
22. The statement “If there is sufficient evidence to reject a null hypothesis at the 10%
significance level, then there is sufficient evidence to reject it at the 5% significance level” is:
a. Always True
b. Never True
c. Sometimes True; the p-value for the statistical test needs to be provided for a conclusion
d. Not Enough Information; this would depend on the type of statistical test used
23. Assuming weights of female athletes are normally distributed with a mean of 140 lbs and a
standard deviation of 15 lbs, what is the probability that a randomly selected female athlete
weighs more than 170 lbs? Round to 3 decimal places.
Also, is the probability above the same as the probability that a randomly selected sample of
size 𝑛 (where 𝑛 > 1) has a mean weight more than 170 lbs?
a. 0.023; yes, these two probabilities would be the same

b. 0.023; no, these two probabilities would not be the same
c. 0.977; yes, these two probabilities would be the same
d. 0.977; no these two probabilities would not be the same
For Questions 24–25, refer to the relevant results from a regression analysis provided below.
A simple random sample of 5k race times for 32 competitive male runners aged 15-24 years
old resulted in a mean 5k race time of 16.79 minutes. The simple linear regression equation
that fit the sample data was obtained and found to be 𝑦̂ = 21.506 − 0.276𝑥 where 𝑥
represents the age of the runner in years and 𝑦 represents the 5k race time for a competitive
male runner in minutes. When testing the claim that there is a linear correlation between age
and 5k race times of competitive male runners, an observed test statistic of (𝑡 = −7.87)
resulted in an approximate p-value of 0.0001.
24. The proportion of variation in 5k race times that can be explained by the variation in the age
of competitive male runners was approximately 0.663. What is the value of the sample linear
correlation coefficient? Round to 3 decimal places.
a. 0.663
b. 0.814
c. -0.814
d. 0.440
25. Using all of the results provided, is it reasonable to predict the 5k race time (minutes) of a
competitive male runner 73 years of age?
a. Yes; linear correlation between age and 5k race times is statistically significant
b. Yes; both the sample linear regression equation and an age in years is provided
c. No; linear correlation between age and 5k race times is not statistically significant
d. No; the age provided is beyond the scope of our available sample data
-Tie Breaker Question 1-
Assume the following probabilities for two events, 𝐴 and 𝐵:
𝑃(𝐴) = 0.50, 𝑃(𝐵) = 0.70, 𝑃(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = 0.85
Are the events, 𝐴 and 𝐵, independent in this situation?

You must provide reasoning for your answer.
The table below relates to a study where infants listened to three types of ‘music’ in utero and
their advancement to crawling/walking was then observed and categorized as either early, on
time, or late. The goal of the study was to determine if there was a statistically significant
association between music in utero and time of advancement to crawling/walking in infants.
Advancement to Crawling/Walking Row Sample Sizes

Music In Utero Early On Time Late N
Mozart (Piano Sonata) 50.8% 30.2% 19.0% 63
Philip Glass (minimalist music) 40.0% 38.3% 21.7% 60
White Noise and Silence 17.9% 21.1% 61.0% 44
The table above provides row percentages and sample sizes. For example, 50.8% of ‘Mozart’
infants have ‘Early’ advancement to crawling/walking and there are 63 total ‘Mozart’ infants.
a. Based upon the row percentages provided, fill in the contingency table below with the
approximate cell counts, rounding to the nearest whole number.
Advancement to Crawling/Walking
Music In Utero Early On Time Late
Mozart (Piano Sonata)
Philip Glass (minimalist music)
White Noise and Silence
b. Do the data indicate an association between music in utero and time of advancement to
crawling/walking in infants? Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test to answer this
question using a 0.05 significance level. Provide the hypotheses, test statistic(s), p-
value(s), and a formal conclusion.
- 10 - | P a g e ACTM-Statistics
For 𝑘, 𝑚, 𝑛 ∈ ℕ such that 0 ≤ 𝑘 ≤ 𝑚 ≤ 𝑛, is the following combinatorial statement true?

𝑛 𝑚 𝑛 𝑛−𝑘
( )( ) = ( )( )
𝑚 𝑘 𝑘 𝑚−𝑘
- 11 - | P a g e ACTM-Statistics
ACTM STATISTICS MULTIPLE CHOICE & TIE BREAKER KEY
2017 REGIONAL EXAM
Multiple Choice Key
1. c
2. d
3. d
4. a
5. d
6. b
7. b
8. d
9. c
10. a
11. b
12. b
13. d
14. a
15. a
16. b
17. d
18. b
19. c
20. d
21. c
22. c
23. b
24. c
25. d
2017 REGIONAL EXAM
Assume the following probabilities for two events, 𝐴 and 𝐵:
𝑃(𝐴) = 0.50, 𝑃(𝐵) = 0.70, 𝑃(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = 0.85
Are the events, 𝐴 and 𝐵, independent in this situation?

Solution:
Yes. 𝐴 and 𝐵 are independent.
Reasoning (One Possible Answer):

Notice that 𝑃(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = 𝑃(𝐴) + 𝑃(𝐵) − 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵)
So, 0.85 = 0.50 + 0.70 − 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵)
Solving for 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵), we find that 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) = 0.35
If 𝐴 and 𝐵 are independent, 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) = 𝑃(𝐴) ∗ 𝑃(𝐵)
𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) = 0.35 = 0.50 ∗ 0.70 = 𝑃(𝐴) ∗ 𝑃(𝐵)
Thus, 𝐴 and 𝐵 are independent
Rubric:
0 pts – Answer that 𝐴 and 𝐵 are NOT independent
1 pts – Answer that 𝐴 and 𝐵 are independent but with no reasoning or improper reasoning
2 pts – Answer that 𝐴 and 𝐵 are NOT independent but with an arithmetic error in proper reasoning
3 pts – Answer that 𝐴 and 𝐵 are independent with proper reasoning

*Note that ‘proper reasoning’ implies that the response includes a valid probabilistic definition of
independent events such as 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) = 𝑃(𝐴) ∗ 𝑃(𝐵) or 𝑃(𝐴|𝐵) = 𝑃(𝐴) or 𝑃(𝐵|𝐴) = 𝑃(𝐵) etc.
2017 REGIONAL EXAM
Advancement to Crawling/Walking Row Sample Sizes

Music In Utero Early On Time Late N
Mozart (Piano Sonata) 50.8% 30.2% 19.0% 63
Philip Glass (minimalist music) 40.0% 38.3% 21.7% 60
White Noise and Silence 17.9% 21.1% 61.0% 44
Solution Provided in Red:

a. Based upon the row percentages provided, fill in the contingency table below with the
approximate cell counts, rounding to the nearest whole number.
Advancement to Crawling/Walking
Music In Utero Early On Time Late
Mozart (Piano Sonata) 32 19 12
Philip Glass (minimalist music) 24 23 13
White Noise and Silence 8 9 27
b. Do the data indicate an association between music in utero and time of advancement to
crawling/walking in infants? Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test to answer this
question using a 0.05 significance level. Provide the hypotheses, test statistic(s), p-
value(s), and a formal conclusion.
 Hypotheses
H0 : Music in Utero and Advancement are Independent (there is no association)
{
H1 : Music in Utero and Advancement are Dependent (there is association)
 Test Statistic
𝜒 2 = 27.516, 𝑑𝑓 = 4
 P-Value
𝑝 − 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 < 0.0001 ≈ 0
 Formal Conclusion at 𝜶 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟓 (in terms of 𝑯𝟎 )
Reject the null hypothesis at the 5% significance level. There is sufficient evidence to
support the claim that Music in Utero and advancement to crawling/walking are
associated/dependent.
Rubric: 0 pts to 5 pts Possible
1 point for each completely correct answer and 0 points for each incorrect answer of the
following tie breaker components: (1) approximate cell counts, (2) hypotheses, (3) test statistic,
(4) p-value, and (5) formal conclusion
2017 REGIONAL EXAM
For 𝑘, 𝑚, 𝑛 ∈ ℕ such that 0 ≤ 𝑘 ≤ 𝑚 ≤ 𝑛, is the following combinatorial statement true?

𝑛 𝑚 𝑛 𝑛−𝑘
( )( ) = ( )( )
𝑚 𝑘 𝑘 𝑚−𝑘
Solution: Yes. The statement is true.
Reasoning (One Possible Arithmetic Based Proof):

Starting with the left hand side (LHS), we will work to get the right hand side (RHS)
𝑛 𝑚 𝑛! 𝑚!
( )( ) = ∗
𝑚 𝑘 𝑚! (𝑛 − 𝑚)! 𝑘! (𝑚 − 𝑘)!
Notice that an 𝑚! can be canceled
𝑛!
=
𝑘! (𝑛 − 𝑚)! (𝑚 − 𝑘)!
𝑛! (𝑛 − 𝑘)!
= ∗
𝑘! (𝑛 − 𝑚)! (𝑚 − 𝑘)! (𝑛 − 𝑘)!
Multiply both numerator and denominator by (𝑛 − 𝑘)!
𝑛! (𝑛 − 𝑘)!
= ∗
𝑘! (𝑛 − 𝑘)! (𝑛 − 𝑚)! (𝑚 − 𝑘)!
Notice that this is the RHS
𝑛 𝑛−𝑘
= ( )( )
𝑘 𝑚−𝑘
Thus, the statement is true.
Rubric:
0 pts – Answer the statement is NOT true with no reasoning
1 pts – Answer the statement is true with no reasoning

2 pts – Answer the statement is NOT true but with error in an attempt at proper reasoning
3 pts – Answer the statement is true with proper reasoning
MCQ INTERVAL ESTIMATION
MCQ 12.1
Estimation is possible only in case of a:
(a) Parameter (b) Sample (c) Random sample (d) Population
MCQ 12.2
Estimation is of two types:
(a) One sided and two sided (b) Type I and type II
(c) Point estimation and interval estimation (d) Biased and unbiased
MCQ 12.3
A formula or rule used for estimating the parameter is called:
(a) Estimation (b) Estimate (c) Estimator (d) Interval estimate
MCQ 12.4
A value of an estimator is called:
(a) Estimation (b) Estimate (c) Variable (d) Constant
MCQ 12.5
Estimate and estimator are:
(a) Same (b) Different (c) Maximum (d) Minimum
MCQ 12.6
The type of estimates are:
(a) Point estimate (b) Interval estimates (c) Estimation of confidence region (d) All of the above
MCQ 12.7
Estimate is the observed value of an:
(a) Unbiased estimator (b) Estimator (c) Estimation (d) Interval estimation
MCQ 12.8
The process of using sample data to estimate the values of unknown population parameter is called:
(a) Estimate (b) Estimator (c) Estimation (d) Interval estimation
MCQ 12.9
The process of making estimates about the population parameter from a sample is called:
(a) Statistical independence (b) Statistical inference
(c) Statistical hypothesis (d) Statistical decision
MCQ 12.10
Statistical inference has two branches namely:
(a) Level of confidence and degrees of freedom
(b) Biased estimator and unbiased estimator
(c) Point estimator and unbiased estimator
(d) Estimation of parameter and testing of hypothesis
MCQ 12.11
A specific value calculated from sample is called:
(a) Estimator (b) Estimate (c) Estimation (d) Bias
MCQ 12.12
An estimator is a random variable because it varies from:
(a) Population to sample (b) Population to population (c) Sample to sample (d) Sample to
population
MCQ 12.13
Statistic is an estimator and its calculated value is called:
(a) Biased estimate (b) Estimation (c) Estimator (d) Interval estimate
MCQ 12.14
The numerical value which we determine from the sample for population parameter is called:
(a) Estimation (b) Estimate (c) Estimator (d) Confidence coefficient
MCQ 12.15
A single value used to estimate a population values is called:
(a) Interval estimate (b) Point estimate (c) Level of confidence (d) Degrees of freedom
MCQ 12.16
An interval calculated from the sample data and it is likely to contain the value of parameter with some
probability is called:
(a) Interval estimate (b) Point estimate (c) Confidence interval (d) Level of confidence
MCQ 12.17
A range of values within which the population parameter is expected to occur is called:
(a) Confidence coefficient (b) Confidence interval (c) Confidence limits (d) Level of significance
MCQ 12.18
Interval estimate is determined in terms of:
(a) Sampling error (b) Error of estimation (c) Confidence coefficient (d) Degrees of freedom
MCQ 12.19
The level of confidence is denoted by:
(a) α (b) β (c) 1 - α (d) 1 - β
MCQ 12.20
The end points of a confidence interval are called:
(a) Confidence coefficient (b) Confidence limits (c) Error of estimation (d) Parameters
MCQ 12.21
The probability associated with confidence interval is called:
(a) Level of confidence (b) Confidence coefficient (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Confidence limits
MCQ 12.22
If the mean of the estimator is not equal to the population parameter, the estimator is said to be:
(a) Unbiased (b) Biased (c) Positively biased (d) Negatively biased
MCQ 12.23
The difference between the expected value of an estimator and the value of the corresponding parameter is
called:
(a) Bias (b) Sampling error (c) Error of estimation (d) Standard error
MCQ 12.24
Bias of an estimator can be:
(a) Negative (b) Positive (c) Zero (d) Both (a) or (b)
MCQ 12.25
If is the estimator of the parameter , then is called unbiased if:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
MCQ 12.26
Estimates given in the form of confidence intervals are called:
(a) Point estimates (b) Interval estimates (c) Confidence limits (d) Degree of freedom
MCQ 12.27
Interval estimate is associated with:
(a) Probability (b) Non-probability (c) Range of values (d) Number of parameters
MCQ 12.28
The point estimator of population mean µ is:
(a) Sample mean (b) Sample variance (c) Sample standard deviation (d) Sample size
MCQ 12.29
(1 – α) is called:
(a) Critical value (b) Level of significance (c) Level of confidence (d) Interval estimate
MCQ 12.30
If (1 – α) is increased, the width of a confidence interval is:
(a) Decreased (b) Increased (c) Constant (d) Same
MCQ 12.31
By decreasing the sample size, the confidence interval becomes:
(a) Narrower (b) Wider (c) Fixed (d) All of the above
MCQ 12.32
Confidence interval become narrow by increasing the:
(a) Sample size (b) Population size (c) Level of confidence (d) Degrees of freedom
MCQ 12.33
By increasing the sample size, the precision of confidence interval is:
(a) Increased (b) Decreased (c) Same (d) Unchanged
MCQ 12.34
A function for estimating a parameter is called as:
(a) Estimator (b) Estimate (c) Estimation (d) Level of confidence
MCQ 12.35
A sample constant representing a population parameter is known as:
(a) Estimation (b) Estimator (c) Estimate (d) Bias
MCQ 12.36
The distance between an estimate and the estimated parameter is called:
(a) Sampling error (b) Error of estimation (c) Bias (d) Standard error
MCQ 12.37
Standard error is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of an:
(a) Estimate (b) Estimation (c) Estimator (d) Error of estimation
MCQ 12.38
∑Xi / n for i=1,2,3,….,n is called:
(a) Estimation (b) Estimate (c) Estimator (d) Interval estimate
MCQ 12.39
A statistic is an unbiased estimator of a parameter if:
(a) E(statistic)=parameter (b) E(mean)=variance
(c) E(variance)=mean (d) E(sample mean)=proportion
MCQ 12.40
The following statistics are unbiased estimators:
(a) The sample mean (b) The sample variance
(c) The sample proportion (d) All the above
MCQ 12.41
Which of the following is biased estimator?
MCQ 12.42
The number of values that are free to vary after we have placed certain restrictions upon the data is called:
(a) Degrees of freedom (b) Confidence coefficient (c) Number of parameters (d) Number of samples
MCQ 12.43
If the observations are paired and the number of pairs is n, then degree of freedom is equal to:
(a) n (b) n – 1 (c) n1 + n2 – 2 (d) n/2
MCQ 12.44
In t-distribution for two independent samples n1 = n2 = n, then the degrees of freedom is equal to:
(a) 2n – 1 (b) 2n – 2 (c) 2n + 1 (d) n – 1
MCQ 12.45
If the population standard deviation σ is unknown, and the sample size is small i.e.; n≤30, the confidence
interval for the population mean µ is based on
(a) The t-distribution (b) The normal distribution
(c) The binomial distribution (d) The hypergeometric distribution
MCQ 12.46
The shape of the t-distribution depends upon the:
(a) Sample size (b) Population size (c) Parameters (d) Degrees of freedom
MCQ 12.47
If the population standard deviation σ is known, the confidence interval for the population mean µ is based on:
(a) The Poisson distribution (b) The t-distribution
(c) The X2-distribution (d) The normal distribution
MCQ 12.48
A statistician calculates a 95% confidence interval for µ when σ is known. The confidence interval is Rs. 18000
to Rs. 22000, the amount of the sample mean is:
(a) Rs. 18000 (b) Rs. 20000 (c) Rs. 22000 (d) Rs. 40000
MCQ 12.49
A student calculates a 90% confidence interval for population mean when population standard deviation σ is
unknown and n = 9. The confidence interval is -24.3 cents to 64.3 cents, the sample mean is:
(a) 40 (b) -24.3 (c) 64.3 (d) 20
MCQ 12.50
A 95% confidence interval for population proportion p is 32.4% to 47.6%, the value of sample proportion is:
(a) 40% (b) 32.4% (c) 47.6% (d) 80%
MCQ 12.51
A confidence interval will be widened if:
(a) The confidence level is increased and the sample size is reduced
(b) The confidence level is increased and the sample size is increased
(c) The confidence level is decreased and the sample size is increased
(d) The confidence level is decreased and the sample size is decreased
MCQ 12.52
A 95% confidence interval for the mean of a population is such that:
(a) It contains 95% of the values in the population
(b) There is a 95% chance that it contains all the values in the population.
(c) There is a 95% chance that it contains the mean of the population
(d) There is a 95% chance that it contains the standard deviation of the population
MCQ 12.53
If the population standard deviation σ is doubles, the width of the confidence interval for the population mean µ
(i.e.; the upper limit of the confidence interval – lower limit of the confidence interval) will be:
(a) Divided by 2 (b) Multiplied by (c) Doubled (d) Decrease
MCQ 12.54
If α = 0.10 and n = 15; equals:
(a) 1.761 (b) 1.753 (c) 1.771 (d) 2.145
MCQ 12.55
If n1 = 16, n2 = 9 and α = 0.01; equals:
(a) 2.787 (b) 2.807 (c) 2.797 (d) 3.767
MCQ 12.56
If 1 – α = 0.90, then value of is:
(a) 1.96 (b) 2.575 (c) 1.645 (d) 2.326
MCQ 12.57
If the population standard deviation σ is known and the sample size n is less than or equal to or more than 30,
the confidence interval for the population mean µ is:
MCQ 12.58
If the population standard deviation σ is unknown and the sample size n is greater than 30, the confidence
interval for the population mean µ is:
MCQ 12.59
If the population standard deviation σ is unknown and the sample size n is less than or equal to 30, the
confidence interval for the population mean is:
MCQ 12.60
If we have normal populations with known population standard deviations σ1 and σ2, the confidence interval
estimate for the difference between two population means is:
MCQ 12.61
If the population standard deviations σ1 and σ2 are unknown and sample sizes
n1, n2 ≥ 30, the100 (1 – α)% confidence interval for is:
MCQ 12.62
If the sample size is large, the confidence interval estimate of a population proportion p is:
MCQ 12.63
If n1, n2 ≤ 30, the confidence interval estimate for the difference of two population means when
population standard deviation σ1, σ2 are unknown but equal in case of pooled variates is:
MCQ 12.64
The confidence interval estimate for the difference of two population means in case of paired
observations small sample (n ≤ 30) is:
MCQ 12.65
If the sample size is large, the confidence interval estimate for the difference between two population
proportions p1 – p2 is:
Sample Multiple Choice Questions for the material since Midterm 2. Sample questions from
Midterms 1 and 2 are also representative of questions that may appear on the final exam.
1. A randomly selected sample of 1,000 college students was asked whether they had ever used the drug
Ecstasy. Sixteen percent (16% or 0.16) of the 1,000 students surveyed said they had. Which one of
the following statements about the number 0.16 is correct?
A. It is a sample proportion.
B. It is a population proportion.
C. It is a margin of error.
D. It is a randomly chosen number.
2. In a random sample of 1000 students, p̂ = 0.80 (or 80%) were in favor of longer hours at the school
library. The standard error of p̂ (the sample proportion) is
A. .013
B. .160
C. .640
D. .800
3. For a random sample of 9 women, the average resting pulse rate is x = 76 beats per minute, and the
sample standard deviation is s = 5. The standard error of the sample mean is
A. 0.557
B. 0.745
C. 1.667
D. 2.778
4. Assume the cholesterol levels in a certain population have mean µ= 200 and standard deviation σ =
24. The cholesterol levels for a random sample of n = 9 individuals are measured and the sample
mean x is determined. What is the z-score for a sample mean x = 180?
A. –3.75
B. –2.50
C. −0.83
D. 2.50
5. In a past General Social Survey, a random sample of men and women answered the question “Are you
a member of any sports clubs?” Based on the sample data, 95% confidence intervals for the
population proportion who would answer “yes” are .13 to .19 for women and .247 to .33 for men.
Based on these results, you can reasonably conclude that
A. At least 25% of American men and American women belong to sports clubs.
B. At least 16% of American women belong to sports clubs.
C. There is a difference between the proportions of American men and American women who
belong to sports clubs.
D. There is no conclusive evidence of a gender difference in the proportion belonging to sports
clubs.
6. Suppose a 95% confidence interval for the proportion of Americans who exercise regularly is 0.29 to
0.37. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
A. It is reasonable to say that more than 25% of Americans exercise regularly.
B. It is reasonable to say that more than 40% of Americans exercise regularly.
C. The hypothesis that 33% of Americans exercise regularly cannot be rejected.
D. It is reasonable to say that fewer than 40% of Americans exercise regularly.
7. In hypothesis testing, a Type 2 error occurs when
A. The null hypothesis is not rejected when the null hypothesis is true.
B. The null hypothesis is rejected when the null hypothesis is true.
C. The null hypothesis is not rejected when the alternative hypothesis is true.
D. The null hypothesis is rejected when the alternative hypothesis is true.
8. Null and alternative hypotheses are statements about:

A. population parameters.
B. sample parameters.
C. sample statistics.
D. it depends - sometimes population parameters and sometimes sample statistics.
9. A hypothesis test is done in which the alternative hypothesis is that more than 10% of a population is
left-handed. The p-value for the test is calculated to be 0.25. Which statement is correct?
A. We can conclude that more than 10% of the population is left-handed.
B. We can conclude that more than 25% of the population is left-handed.
C. We can conclude that exactly 25% of the population is left-handed.
D. We cannot conclude that more than 10% of the population is left-handed.
10. Which of the following is NOT true about the standard error of a statistic?
A. The standard error measures, roughly, the average difference between the statistic and the
population parameter.
B. The standard error is the estimated standard deviation of the sampling distribution for the statistic.
C. The standard error can never be a negative number.
D. The standard error increases as the sample size(s) increases.
11. A prospective observational study on the relationship between sleep deprivation and heart disease was
done by Ayas, et. al. (Arch Intern Med 2003). Women who slept at most 5 hours a night were
compared to women who slept for 8 hours a night (reference group). After adjusting for potential
confounding variables like smoking, a 95% confidence interval for the relative risk of heart disease
was (1.10, 1.92). Based on this confidence interval, a consistent conclusion would be
A. Sleep deprivation is associated with a modestly increased risk of heart disease.
B. Sleep deprivation is associated with a modestly decreased risk of heart disease.
C. There was no evidence of an association between sleep deprivation and heart disease.
D. Lack of sleep causes the risk of heart disease to increase by 10% to 92%.
12. Consider a random sample of 100 females and 100 males. Suppose 15 of the females are left-handed
and 12 of the males are left-handed. What is the estimated difference between population proportions
of females and males who are left-handed (females − males)? Select the choice with the correct
notation and numerical value.
A. p1 − p2 = 3
B. p1 − p2 = 0.03
C. pˆ 1 − pˆ 2 = 3
D. pˆ 1 − pˆ 2 = 0.03
13. A result is called “statistically significant” whenever

A. The null hypothesis is true.
B. The alternative hypothesis is true.
C. The p-value is less or equal to the significance level.
D. The p-value is larger than the significance level.
14. The confidence level for a confidence interval for a mean is
A. the probability the procedure provides an interval that covers the sample mean.
B. the probability of making a Type 1 error if the interval is used to test a null hypothesis about the
population mean.
C. the probability that individuals in the population have values that fall into the interval.
D. the probability the procedure provides an interval that covers the population mean.
For the next two questions: It is known that for right-handed people, the dominant (right) hand tends to
be stronger. For left-handed people who live in a world designed for right-handed people, the same may
not be true. To test this, muscle strength was measured on the right and left hands of a random sample of
15 left-handed men and the difference (left - right) was found. The alternative hypothesis is one-sided
(left hand stronger). The resulting t-statistic was 1.80.
15. This is an example of:

A. A two-sample t-test.
B. A paired t-test.
C. A pooled t-test.
D. An unpooled t-test.
16. Assuming the conditions are met, based on the t-statistic of 1.80 the appropriate conclusion for this
test using α = .05 is: (Table would be provided with exam.)
A. Df = 14, so p-value < .05 and the null hypothesis can be rejected.
B. Df = 14, so p-value > .05 and the null hypothesis cannot be rejected.
C. Df = 28, so p-value < .05 and the null hypothesis can be rejected.
D. Df = 28, so p-value > .05 and the null hypothesis cannot be rejected.
17. A test of H0: µ = 0 versus Ha: µ > 0 is conducted on the same population independently by two
different researchers. They both use the same sample size and the same value of α = 0.05. Which of
the following will be the same for both researchers?
A. The p-value of the test.
B. The power of the test if the true µ = 6.
C. The value of the test statistic.
D. The decision about whether or not to reject the null hypothesis.
18. Which of the following is not a correct way to state a null hypothesis?
A. H0: pˆ 1 − pˆ 2 = 0 (Sample statistics do not go into hypotheses)
B. H0: µd = 10
C. H0: µ1 − µ2 = 0
D. H0: p = .5
19. A test to screen for a serious but curable disease is similar to hypothesis testing, with a null hypothesis
of no disease, and an alternative hypothesis of disease. If the null hypothesis is rejected treatment will
be given. Otherwise, it will not. Assuming the treatment does not have serious side effects, in this
scenario it is better to increase the probability of:
A. making a Type 1 error, providing treatment when it is not needed.
B. making a Type 1 error, not providing treatment when it is needed.
C. making a Type 2 error, providing treatment when it is not needed.
D. making a Type 2 error, not providing treatment when it is needed.
20. A random sample of 25 college males was obtained and each was asked to report their actual height
and what they wished as their ideal height. A 95% confidence interval for µd = average difference
between their ideal and actual heights was 0.8" to 2.2". Based on this interval, which one of the null
hypotheses below (versus a two-sided alternative) can be rejected?
A. H0: µd = 0.5
B. H0: µd = 1.0
C. H0: µd = 1.5
D. H0: µd = 2.0
21. The average time in years to get an undergraduate degree in computer science was compared for men
and women. Random samples of 100 male computer science majors and 100 female computer science
majors were taken. Choose the appropriate parameter(s) for this situation.
A. One population proportion p.
B. Difference between two population proportions p1 − p2.
C. One population mean µ1
D. Difference between two population means µ1 − µ2
22. If the word significant is used to describe a result in a news article reporting on a study,
A. the p-value for the test must have been very large.
B. the effect size must have been very large.
C. the sample size must have been very small.
D. it may be significant in the statistical sense, but not in the everyday sense.
23. A random sample of 5000 students were asked whether they prefer a 10 week quarter system or a 15
week semester system. Of the 5000 students asked, 500 students responded. The results of this
survey ________
A. can be generalized to the entire student body because the sampling was random.
B. can be generalized to the entire student body because the margin of error was 4.5%.
C. should not be generalized to the entire student body because the non-response rate was 90%.
D. should not be generalized to the entire student body because the margin of error was 4.5%.
24. In a report by ABC News, the headlines read “City Living Increases Men’s Death Risk” The headlines
were based on a study of 3,617 adults who lived in the United States and were more than 25 years old.
One researcher said, “Elevated levels of tumor deaths suggest the influence of physical, chemical and
biological exposures in urban areas… Living in cities also involves potentially stressful levels of
noise, sensory stimulation and overload, interpersonal relations and conflict, and vigilance against
hazards ranging from crime to accidents.” Is a conclusion that living in an urban environment causes
an increased risk of death justified?
A. Yes, because the study was a randomized study.
B. Yes, because many of the men in the study were under stress.
C. No, because the study was a retrospective study.
D. No, because the study was an observational study.
25. A significance test based on a small sample may not produce a statistically significant result even if
the true value differs substantially from the null value. This type of result is known as
A. the significance level of the test.
B. the power of the study.
C. a Type 1 error.
D. a Type 2 error.
For the next two questions: An observational study found a statistically significant relationship between
regular consumption of tomato products (yes, no) and development of prostate cancer (yes, no), with
lower risk for those consuming tomato products.
26. Which of the following is not a possible explanation for this finding?
A. Something in tomato products causes lower risk of prostate cancer.
B. There is a confounding variable that causes lower risk of prostate cancer, such as eating vegetables
in general, that is also related to eating tomato products.
C. A large number of food products were measured to test for a relationship, and tomato products
happened to show a relationship just by chance.
D. A large sample size was used, so even if there were no relationship, one would almost certainly
be detected.
27. Which of the following is a valid conclusion from this finding?

B. Based on this study, the relative risk of prostate cancer, for those who do not consume tomato
products regularly compared with those who do, is greater than one.
C. If a new observational study were to be done using the same sample size and measuring the same
variables, it would find the same relationship.
D. Prostate cancer can be prevented by eating the right diet.
28. The best way to determine whether a statistically significant difference in two means is of practical
importance is to
A. find a 95% confidence interval and notice the magnitude of the difference.
B. repeat the study with the same sample size and see if the difference is statistically significant
again.
C. see if the p-value is extremely small.
D. see if the p-value is extremely large.
29. A large company examines the annual salaries for all of the men and women performing a certain job
and finds that the means and standard deviations are $32,120 and $3,240, respectively, for the men
and $34,093 and $3521, respectively, for the women. The best way to determine if there is a
difference in mean salaries for the population of men and women performing this job in this company
is
A. to compute a 95% confidence interval for the difference.
B. to subtract the two sample means.
C. to test the hypothesis that the population means are the same versus that they are different.
D. to test the hypothesis that the population means are the same versus that the mean for men is
higher.
30. One problem with hypothesis testing is that a real effect may not be detected. This problem is most
likely to occur when
A. the effect is small and the sample size is small.
B. the effect is large and the sample size is small.
C. the effect is small and the sample size is large.
D. the effect is large and the sample size is large.
STATISTICS 8: CHAPTERS 7 TO 10, SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. If two events (both with probability greater than 0) are mutually exclusive, then:
A. They also must be independent.
B. They also could be independent.
C. They cannot be independent.
A. They also must be complements.
B. They also could be complements.
C. They cannot be complements.
3. Suppose that the probability of event A is 0.2 and the probability of event B is 0.4. Also, suppose that
the two events are independent. Then P(A|B) is:
A. P(A) = 0.2
B. P(A)/P(B) = 0.2/0.4 = ½
C. P(A) × P(B) = (0.2)(0.4) = 0.08
D. None of the above.
4. Which of the following is an example of a relative frequency probability based on measuring a

representative sample and observing relative frequencies of possible outcomes?
A. According to the late Carl Sagan, the probability that the earth will be hit by a civilization-
threatening asteroid in the next century is about 0.001.
B. If you flip a fair coin, the probability that it lands with heads up is ½.
C. Based on a recent Newsweek poll, the probability that a randomly selected adult in the US
would say they oppose federal funding for stem cell research is about 0.37.
D. A new airline boasts that the probability that its flights will be on time is 0.92, because 92% of all
flights it has ever flown did arrive on time.
5. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between a parameter and a statistic?
A. A parameter has a sampling distribution with the statistic as its mean.
B. A parameter has a sampling distribution that can be used to determine what values the statistic is
likely to have in repeated samples.
C. A parameter is used to estimate a statistic.
D. A statistic is used to estimate a parameter.
6. A sampling distribution is the probability distribution for which one of the following:
A. A sample
B. A sample statistic
C. A population
D. A population parameter
7. Which of the following is the most common example of a situation for which the main parameter of
interest is a population proportion?
A. A binomial experiment
B. A normal experiment
C. A randomized experiment
D. An observational study
8. Which statement is not true about confidence intervals?
A. A confidence interval is an interval of values computed from sample data that is likely to include
the true population value.
B. An approximate formula for a 95% confidence interval is sample estimate ± margin of error.
C. A confidence interval between 20% and 40% means that the population proportion lies between
20% and 40%.
D. A 99% confidence interval procedure has a higher probability of producing intervals that will
include the population parameter than a 95% confidence interval procedure.
9. Which statement is not true about the 95% confidence level?

A. Confidence intervals computed by using the same procedure will include the true population value
for 95% of all possible random samples taken from the population.
B. The procedure that is used to determine the confidence interval will provide an interval that
includes the population parameter with probability of 0.95.
C. The probability that the true value of the population parameter falls between the bounds of an
already computed confidence interval is roughly 95%.
D. If we consider all possible randomly selected samples of the same size from a population, the 95%
is the percentage of those samples for which the confidence interval includes the population
parameter.
10. In a random sample of 50 men, 40% said they preferred to walk up stairs rather than take the elevator.
In a random sample of 40 women, 50% said they preferred the stairs. The difference between the two
sample proportions (men – women) is to be calculated. Which of the following choices correctly
denotes the difference between the two sample proportions that is desired?
A. p1 − p 2 = 0.10
B. pˆ 1 − pˆ 2 = 0.10
C. p1 − p 2 = −0.10
D. pˆ 1 − pˆ 2 = −0.10 <-Correct answer
11. Which of the following statements is correct about a parameter and a statistic associated with repeated
random samples of the same size from the same population?
A. Values of a parameter will vary from sample to sample but values of a statistic will not.
B. Values of both a parameter and a statistic may vary from sample to sample.
C. Values of a parameter will vary according to the sampling distribution for that parameter.
D. Values of a statistic will vary according to the sampling distribution for that statistic.
12. Five hundred (500) random samples of size n=900 are taken from a large population in which 10% are
left-handed. The proportion of the sample that is left-handed is found for each sample and a histogram
of these 500 proportions is drawn. Which interval covers the range into which about 68% of the
values in the histogram will fall?
A. .1 ± .010
B. .1 ± .0134
C. .1 ± .0167
D. .1 ± .020
13. A randomly selected sample of 400 students at a university with 15-week semesters was asked
whether or not they think the semester should be shortened to 14 weeks (with longer classes). Forty-
six percent (46%) of the 400 students surveyed answered "yes." Which one of the following
statements about the number 46% is correct?
A. It is a sample statistic.
B. It is a population parameter.
D. It is a standard error.
14. Which of the following examples involves paired data?

A. A study compared the average number of courses taken by a random sample of 100 freshmen at a
university with the average number of courses taken by a separate random sample of 100
freshmen at a community college.
B. A group of 100 students were randomly assigned to receive vitamin C (50 students) or a placebo
(50 students). The groups were followed for 2 weeks and the proportions with colds were
compared.
C. A group of 50 students had their blood pressures measured before and after watching a movie
containing violence. The mean blood pressure before the movie was compared with the mean
pressure after the movie.
15. A poll is done to estimate the proportion of adult Americans who like their jobs. The poll is based on a
random sample of 400 individuals. What is the “conservative” margin of error of this poll?
A. 0.10
B. 0.05
C. 0.04
D. 0.025
16. The expected value of a random variable is the

A. value that has the highest probability of occurring.
B. mean value over an infinite number of observations of the variable.
C. largest value that will ever occur.
D. most common value over an infinite number of observations of the variable.
17. The payoff (X) for a lottery game has the following probability distribution.
X = payoff $0 $5
probability 0.8 0.2
A. What is the expected value of X= payoff?

B. $0
C. $0.50
D. $1.00
E. $2.50
18. Which one of these variables is a continuous random variable?

A. The time it takes a randomly selected student to complete an exam.
B. The number of tattoos a randomly selected person has.
C. The number of women taller than 68 inches in a random sample of 5 women.
D. The number of correct guesses on a multiple choice test.
19. Heights of college women have a distribution that can be approximated by a normal curve with a
mean of 65 inches and a standard deviation equal to 3 inches. About what proportion of college
women are between 65 and 67 inches tall?
A. 0.75
B. 0.50
C. 0.25
D. 0.17
20. Which one of these variables is a binomial random variable?

A. time it takes a randomly selected student to complete a multiple choice exam
B. number of textbooks a randomly selected student bought this term
C. number of women taller than 68 inches in a random sample of 5 women
D. number of CDs a randomly selected person owns
21. Suppose that vehicle speeds at an interstate location have a normal distribution with a mean equal to
70 mph and standard deviation equal to 8 mph. What is the z-score for a speed of 64 mph?
A. −0.75
B. +0.75
C. −6
D. +6
22. Pulse rates of adult men are approximately normal with a mean of 70 and a standard deviation of 8.
Which choice correctly describes how to find the proportion of men that have a pulse rate greater than
78?
A. Find the area to the left of z = 1 under a standard normal curve.
B. Find the area between z = −1 and z = 1 under a standard normal curve.
C. Find the area to the right of z =1 under a standard normal curve.
D. Find the area to the right of z = −1 under a standard normal curve.
23. The probability is p = 0.80 that a patient with a certain disease will be successfully treated with a new
medical treatment. Suppose that the treatment is used on 40 patients. What is the "expected value" of
the number of patients who are successfully treated?
A. 40
B. 20
C. 8
D. 32
24. Suppose that a quiz consists of 20 True-False questions. A student hasn't studied for the exam and will
just randomly guesses at all answers (with True and False equally likely). How would you find the
probability that the student will get 8 or fewer answers correct?
A. Find the probability that X=8 in a binomial distribution with n = 20 and p=0.5.
B. Find the area between 0 and 8 in a uniform distribution that goes from 0 to 20.
C. Find the probability that X=8 for a normal distribution with mean of 10 and standard deviation of
5.
D. Find the cumulative probability for 8 in a binomial distribution with n = 20 and p = 0.5.
25. The normal approximation to the binomial distribution is most useful for finding which of the
following?
A. The probability P(X = k) when X is a binomial random variable with large n.
B. The probability P(X ≤ k) when X is a binomial random variable with large n.
C. The probability P(X = k) when X is a normal random variable with small n.
D. The probability P(X ≤ k) when X is a normal random variable with small n.
26. A lottery ticket displays the probabilities of winning various prizes on the back of the ticket. These
probabilities are examples of:
A. Relative frequency probabilities based on long-run observation.
B. Relative frequency probabilities based on physical assumptions.
C. Personal probabilities.
D. Random probabilities.
27. A climate expert was asked to assess the probability that global warming will make some cities
uninhabitable in the next 100 years. The answer to this question for the expert is an example of:
A. A relative frequency probability based on long-run observation.
B. A relative frequency probability based on physical assumptions.
C. A random probability.
D. A personal probability.
28. Imagine a test for a certain disease. Suppose the probability of a positive test result is .95 if someone
has the disease, but the probability is only .08 that someone has the disease if his or her test result was
positive. A patient receives a positive test, and the doctor tells him that he is very likely to have the
disease. The doctor's response is:
A. An example of "Confusion of the inverse."
B. An example of the "Law of small numbers."
C. An example of "The gambler's fallacy."
D. Correct, because the test is 95% accurate when someone has the disease.
29. Which one of the following probabilities is a "cumulative" probability?

A. The probability that there are exactly 4 people with Type O+ blood in a sample of 10 people.
B. The probability of exactly 3 heads in 6 flips of a coin.
C. The probability that the accumulated annual rainfall in a certain city next year, rounded to the
nearest inch, will be 18 inches.
D. The probability that a randomly selected woman's height is 67 inches or less.
30. A medical treatment has a success rate of .8. Two patients will be treated with this treatment.
Assuming the results are independent for the two patients, what is the probability that neither one of
them will be successfully cured?
A. .5
B. .36
C. .2
D. .04 (this is (1 – .8)(1 – .8) = (.2)(.2) = .04)
Inference
Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
None of These
Type-I Error
Type-II Error
None of the Above
Unbiased Estimators
Complete Statistics
Run Test
Sign Test
Median Test
Page’s Test
Bartlett’s Test
F-test
χ2χ2-test
t-test
Decreases
Remains the Same
Increases
All of the Above
Samples
A Formula
None of these
None of these
9. An estimator TnTn is said to be a sufficient statistic for a parameter function τ(θ)τ(θ) if it contained
all the information which is contained in the
Population
Sample
None of these
None of These
Necessary
Sufficient
None of these
Bartlett’s Test
F-test
t-test
Normal Equations
Intrinsic Equations
All of the Above

a) All Constants of a Population

b) Only Mean and Variance of a Distribution
c) All Moments of a Population Distribution
d) All of the Above
a) Interval Scale
b) Ratio Scale
c) Ordinal Scale
d) Nominal Scale
17. If the sample average x¯¯¯x¯ is an estimate of the population mean μμ, then x¯¯¯x¯ is:
18. For a particular hypothesis test, α=0.05α=0.05, and β=0.10β=0.10. The power of this test is:
0.15
0.90
0.85
0.95

b. If the population mean and population standard deviation are both known, one can make probability
statements about individual x values taken from the population
limit theorem and make probability statements about the means of samples taken from the population
Answer: E
e. none of the above statements are correct Answer: C
e. a number which can be used to estimate a point in time which is unknown Answer: C
parameter
e. none of the statements above are correct Answer: A
stimate plus or minus a specific level of confidence
parameter
e. an interval used to infer something about an unknown sample statistic value Answer: B
e. the level of significance Answer: C
a. become narrower
b. remain the same
c. become wider
d. double in size
e. most likely no longer include the true value of the population mean Answer: A
a. become narrower
b. remain the same
c. become wider
d. double in size
e. most likely no longer include the true value of the population mean Answer: C
refer to?
e. the area in the lower tail or upper tail of the sampling distribution of the sample mean Answer: E
e. the more the width of the confidence interval remains the same Answer: D
b. A 90% confidence interval for the population mean is narrower than a 95% confidence interval for the
population mean
e. Significance levels Answer: D
14. What value of z would you use to calculate the 80% confidence interval for a population mean, given
that you know the population standard deviation, the sample size and the sample mean of your sample?
a. z = 1.96
b. z = 2.58
c. z = 0.84
d. z = 1.28
e. z = 1.645 Answer: D
a. The sample mean from which the interval is constructed is located half way between the boundaries
of the confidence interval
e. The width of the interval increases when the confidence level is increased Answer:D
e. Decrease the sample size Answer: B
a. has no variance
e. may not be consistent Answer: D
18. A federal auditor for nationally chartered banks from a random sample of 100 accounts found that
the average demand deposit balance at the First National Bank of a small town was R549.82. If the
auditor needed a point estimate for the population mean for all accounts at this bank, what would she
use?

e. The mean would be impossible to calculate without further information Answer: A
19. which one of the statements below is correct?
a. If the significance level is equal to 0.1, it implies that we are 10% confident that the population mean
will lie between the confidence limits
d. A 90% confidence interval for the population mean is narrower than a 95% confidence interval for the
population mean
e. Increasing the significance level increases the width of the confidence interval Answer: D
intended to weigh μ kg, then the weight recorded by the scales will be normally distributed with a mean
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.36kg. A particular bag of sand was weighed four times and the weight
recorded each time was different. The sample mean weight was recorded as 34.7kg. What is a 95%
confidence interval for the true weight of the full bag of sand?
a. 34.35 to 35.05kg
b. 35.85 to 36.55kg
c. 34.21 to 35.19kg
d. 34.48 to 34.92kg
e. 37.75 to 38.45kg Answer: A
a. 34.35 to 35.05kg
b. 35.85 to 36.55kg
c. 34.21 to 35.19kg
d. 34.48 to 34.92kg
e. 37.75 to 38.45kg Answer: B

a. 34.35 to 35.05kg
b. 35.85 to 36.55kg
c. 34.21 to 35.19kg Answer:C
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.36kg. A particular bag of sand was weighed ten times and the weight
a. 34.35 to 35.05kg
b. 35.85 to 36.55kg
c. 34.21 to 35.19kg
d. 34.48 to 34.92kg
e. 37.75 to 38.45kg Answer: D
a. 34.35 to 35.05kg
b. 35.85 to 36.55kg
c. 34.21 to 35.19kg
d. 34.48 to 34.92kg
e. 37.75 to 38.45kg Answer: E
25. An analyst is conducting a hypothesis test to determine if the mean time spent on investment
research by portfolio managers is different from 3 hours per day. The test uses a random sample of 64
portfolio managers, where the sample mean time spent on research is found to be 2.5 hours.
n standard deviation is 1.5 hours. What is the 99% confidence interval for the population mean time
spent on investment research by portfolio managers?
a. (2.02, 2.98)
b. (2.22, 3.18)
c. (1.86, 3.14)
d. (2.11, 2.89)
e. (1.82, 2.78) Answer: A
portfolio managers, where the sample mean time spent on research is found to be 2.7 hours. The
population standard deviation is 1.5 hours. What is the 99% confidence interval for the population mean
time spent on investment research by portfolio managers?
a. (2.02, 2.98)
b. (2.22, 3.18)
c. (1.86, 3.14)
d. (2.11, 2.89)
e. (1.82, 2.78) Answer: B
population standard deviation is 2 hours. What is the 99% confidence interval for the population mean
a. (2.02, 2.98)
b. (2.22, 3.18)
c. (1.86, 3.14)
d. (2.11, 2.89)
a. (2.02, 2.98)
b. (2.22, 3.18)
c. (1.86, 3.14)
d. (2.11, 2.89)
e. (1.82, 2.78) Answer: D

a. (2.02, 2.98)
b. (2.22, 3.18)
c. (1.86, 3.14)
d. (2.11, 2.89)
e. (1.82, 2.78) Answer: E
30. A researcher wants to investigate the amount of lead per litre of waste water produced by her
company. She plans to use statistical methods to estimate the population mean of lead content per litre
of water. Based on previous recordings she assumes that the lead content is normally distributed with a
standard deviation of 20mg per litre. She decides that she can afford a sample size of 500, but not
larger, and with this sample finds a sample mean of 632mg of lead per litre. e interval for the mean lead
content per litre of waste water produced by her company then is:
a. (630.25, 633.75)
b. (639.25, 642.75)
c. (629.81, 634.19)
d. (630.04, 633.96)
e. (630.69, 633.31) Answer: A
larger, and with this sample finds a sample mean of 641mg of lead per litre. The 95% confidence interval
for the mean lead content per litre of waste water produced by her company then is:
a. (630.25, 633.75)
b. (639.25, 642.75)
c. (629.81, 634.19)
d. (630.04, 633.96)
e. (630.69, 633.31) Answer: B
a. (630.25, 633.75)
b. (639.25, 642.75)
c. (629.81, 634.19)
d. (630.04, 633.96)
e. (630.69, 633.31) Answer: C
a. (630.25, 633.75)
b. (639.25, 642.75)
c. (629.81, 634.19)
d. (630.04, 633.96)
e. (630.69, 633.31) Answer: D
a. (630.25, 633.75)
b. (639.25, 642.75)
c. (629.81, 634.19)
d. (630.04, 633.96)
e. (630.69, 633.31)
35. Suppose that a random sample of 50 bottles of a particular brand of cough medicine is selected and
the alcohol content of each bottle measured. The sample mean alcohol content is 8.6 ml with a
population standard deviation of 2.88ml. Calculate a 99% confidence interval for the true mean alcohol
content for the population of all bottles of the brand under study.
a. (7.55, 9.65)
b. (8.15, 10.25)
c. (7.49, 9.71)
d. (7.43, 9.77)
e. (7.68, 9.52) Answer: A
a. (7.55, 9.65)
b. (8.15, 10.25)
c. (7.49, 9.71)
d. (7.43, 9.77)
e. (7.68, 9.52) Answer: B
a. (7.55, 9.65)
b. (8.15, 10.25)
c. (7.49, 9.71)
d. (7.43, 9.77)
e. (7.68, 9.52) Answer: C
a. (7.55, 9.65)
b. (8.15, 10.25)
c. (7.49, 9.71)
d. (7.43, 9.77)
e. (7.68, 9.52) Answer: D
a. (7.55, 9.65)
b. (8.15, 10.25)
c. (7.49, 9.71)
d. (7.43, 9.77)
e. (7.68, 9.52) Answer: E
40. Your statistics lecturer wants you to determine a confidence interval estimate for the mean test
mark for the next test. In the past, the test marks have been normally distributed with a population
standard deviation of 30.9. A 95% confidence interval estimate if your class has 30 students and a
sample mean mark of 74.2 is:
a. 63.14 to 85.26
b. 65.18 to 83.22
c. 65.63 to 82.77
d. 64.14 to 84.26
e. 68.14 to 80.26 Answer: A
a. 63.14 to 85.26
b. 65.18 to 83.22
c. 65.63 to 82.77
d. 64.14 to 84.26
e. 68.14 to 80.26 Answer: B
a. 63.14 to 85.26
b. 65.18 to 83.22
c. 65.63 to 82.77
d. 64.14 to 84.26
e. 68.14 to 80.26 Answer: C
a. 63.14 to 85.26
b. 65.18 to 83.22
c. 65.63 to 82.77
d. 64.14 to 84.26
e. 68.14 to 80.26 Answer: D
standard deviation of 30.9. A 95% confidence interval estimate if your class has 100 students is and a
sample mean mark of 74.2:
a. 63.14 to 85.26
b. 65.18 to 83.22
c. 65.63 to 82.77
d. 64.14 to 84.26
e. 68.14 to 80.26 Answer: E
45. An economist is interested in studying the monthly incomes of consumers in a particular region. The
population standard deviation of monthly income is known to be R1000. A random sample of 50
individuals resulted in an average monthly income of R15000. What is the upper end point in a 99%
confidence interval for the average monthly income in this region?
a. R15364
b. R15328
c. R15347
d. R15382
e. R15332 Answer: A
a. R15364
b. R15328
c. R15347
d. R15382
e. R15332 Answer: B
a. R15364
b. R15328
c. R15347
d. R15382
e. R15332 Answer: C
a. R15364
b. R15328
c. R15347
d. R15382
e. R15332 Answer: D
a. R15364
b. R15328
c. R15347
d. R15382
e. R15332 Answer: E
50. On the basis of a random sample of 100 men from a particular province in South Africa, a 95%
confidence interval for the mean height of men in the province is found to be (177.22 cm ; 179.18 cm).
What is the value of the sample mean for this sample?
a. 178.20cm
b. 179.24cm
c. 177.38cm
d. 178.42cm
e. 176.58cm Answer: A
a. 178.20cm
b. 179.24cm
c. 177.38cm
d. 178.42cm
e. 176.58cm Answer: B
a. 178.20cm
b. 179.24cm
c. 177.38cm
d. 178.42cm
e. 176.58cm Answer: C
a. 178.20cm
b. 179.24cm
c. 177.38cm
d. 178.42cm
e. 176.58cm Answer: D
a. 178.20cm
b. 179.24cm
c. 177.38cm
d. 178.42cm
e. 176.58cm Answer: E
What is the value of the standard deviation of the population from which this sample was drawn?
a. 5.0
b. 3.6
c. 4.5
d. 2.7
e. 3.4 Answer: A
a. 5.0
b. 3.6
c. 4.5
d. 2.7
e. 3.4 Answer: B
confidence interval for the mean height of men in the province is found to be (176.50 cm ; 178.26cm).
a. 5.0
b. 3.6
c. 4.5
d. 2.7
e. 3.4 Answer: C
a. 5.0
b. 3.6
c. 4.5
d. 2.7
e. 3.4 Answer: D
a. 5.0
b. 3.6
c. 4.5
d. 2.7
e. 3.4 Answer: E
60. In developing a 95% confidence interval estimate for a population mean, the interval estimate was
(62.84; 69.46). What was the sample mean?
a. 66.15
b. 65.83
c. 65.35
d. 67.01
e. 66.87 Answer: A
a. 66.15
b. 65.83
c. 65.35
d. 67.01
e. 66.87 Answer: B
a. 66.15
b. 65.83
c. 65.35
d. 67.01
e. 66.87 Answer: C
a. 66.15
b. 65.83
c. 65.35
d. 67.01
e. 66.87 Answer: D
a. 66.15
b. 65.83
c. 65.35
d. 67.01
e. 66.87 Answer: E
(62.84; 69.46). Given a sample size of 100, what was the population standard deviation?
a. 16.89
b. 11.68
c. 16.33
d. 11.35
e. 7.86 Answer: A
a. 16.89
b. 11.68
c. 16.33
d. 11.35
e. 7.86 Answer: B
a. 16.89
b. 11.68
c. 16.33
d. 11.35
e. 7.86 Answer: C
a. 16.89
b. 11.68
c. 16.33
d. 11.35
e. 7.86 Answer: D
a. 16.89
b. 11.68
c. 16.33
d. 11.35
e. 7.86 Answer: E
70. In developing an interval estimate for a population mean, the population standard deviation was
assumed to be 10. The interval estimate was 50.92 ± 2.14. Had the population standard deviation been
20, what would the interval estimate be?
a. 60.92 ± 2.14
b. 50.92 ± 12.14
c. 101.84 ± 4.28
d. 101.94 ± 12.14
e. 50.92 ± 4.28 Answer: E
a. 60.92 ± 2.14
b. 50.92 ± 5.60
c. 101.84 ± 4.28
d. 101.94 ± 12.14
e. 50.92 ± 4.28 Answer: B
72. In developing a confidence interval for a population mean, a sample of 50 observations was used.
The confidence interval was 19.76 ± 1.32. Had the sample size been 200 instead of 50, what would the
interval estimate have been?
a. 19.76 ± 0.66
b. 19.76 ± 0.33
c. 19.76 ± 2.64
d. 19.76 ± 5.28
e. 39.52 ± 1.32 Answer: A
73. A student conducted a study and reported that the 95% confidence interval for the population mean
was (46; 54). He was sure that the population standard deviation was 16. What was the sample size
(rounded up to the nearest whole number) used to calculate this confidence interval?
a. 62
b. 97
c. 110
d. 30
e. 40 Answer: A
a. 62
b. 97
c. 110
d. 30
e. 40 Answer: B
a. 62
b. 97
c. 110
d. 30
e. 40 Answer: C
a. 62
b. 97
c. 110
d. 30
e. 40 Answer: D
a. 62
b. 97
c. 110
d. 30
e. 40 Answer: E
recorded each time was different. The sample mean weight was recorded as 34.7kg. What is the total
width of a 95% confidence interval for the true weight of the full bag of sand?
a. 0.71kg
b. 0.36kg
c. 0.98kg
d. 0.45kg
e. 0.90kg Answer: A
a. 0.71kg
b. 0.36kg
c. 0.98kg
d. 0.45kg
e. 0.90kg Answer: A
a. 0.71kg
b. 0.36kg
c. 0.98kg
d. 0.45kg
e. 0.90kg Answer: C
a. 0.71kg
b. 0.36kg
c. 0.98kg
d. 0.45kg
e. 0.90kg Answer: D
a. 0.71kg
b. 0.36kg
c. 0.98kg
d. 0.45kg
e. 0.90kg Answer: A
population standard deviation is 1.5 hours. What is the half-width (from the middle of the confidence
interval to either of the confidence limits) of the 99% confidence interval for the population mean time
a. 0.48
b. 0.96
c. 0.64
d. 0.39
e. 0.78 Answer: A
a. 0.48
b. 0.96
c. 0.64
d. 0.39
e. 0.78 Answer: A
population standard deviation is 2 hours. What is the half-width (from the middle of the confidence
a. 0.48
b. 0.96
c. 0.64
d. 0.39
e. 0.78 Answer: C
a. 0.48
b. 0.96
c. 0.64
d. 0.39
e. 0.78 Answer: D
a. 0.48
b. 0.96
c. 0.64
d. 0.39
e. 0.78 Answer: A
88. A random variable, X, follows a normal distribution with a population standard deviation of 12. A
sample of size 64 is selected from this population and the sample mean calculated as 45.23. What is the
total width of a 90% confidence interval for the true population mean in this case?
a. 4.9
b. 6.6
c. 3.9
d. 3.3
e. 5.6 Answer: A
a. 4.9
b. 6.6
c. 3.9
d. 3.3
e. 5.6 Answer: B
sample of size 100 is selected from this population and the sample mean calculated as 45.23. What is
the total width of a 90% confidence interval for the true population mean in this case?
a. 4.9
b. 6.6
c. 3.9
d. 3.3
e. 5.6 Answer: C
a. 4.9
b. 6.6
c. 3.9
d. 3.3
e. 5.6 Answer: D
a. 4.9
b. 6.6
c. 3.9
d. 3.3
e. 5.6 Answer: E
individuals resulted in an average monthly income of R15000. What is the total width of the 90%
confidence interval?
a. 465
b. 419
c. 444
d. 489
e. 425 Answer: A
a. 465
b. 419
c. 444
d. 489
e. 425 Answer: B
a. 465
b. 419
c. 444
d. 489
e. 425 Answer: C
a. 465
b. 419
c. 444
d. 489
e. 425 Answer: D
a. 465
b. 419
c. 444
d. 489
e. 42 Answer: E
μ kg and a standard deviation of 0.36kg. How many times would a full sack have to be weighed so that
the estimate of the weight would be within 0.15 kg of the true weight with 95% confidence?
a. 23
b. 43
c. 13
d. 28
e. 18 Answer: A
a. 23
b. 43
c. 13
d. 28
e. 18 Answer: B
a. 23
b. 43
c. 13
d. 28
e. 18 Answer: C
a. 23
b. 43
c. 13
d. 28
e. 18 Answer: D
a. 23
b. 43
c. 13
d. 28
e. 18 Answer: E
standard deviation of 20mg per litre. How large a sample should she take to estimate the mean lead
content per litre of water to within 1mg with 95% confidence?
a. 1537
b. 865
c. 385
d. 2401
e. 97 Answer: A
a. 1537
b. 865
c. 385
d. 2401
e. 97 Answer: B
a. 1537
b. 865
c. 385
d. 2401
e. 97 Answer: C
a. 1537
b. 865
c. 385
d. 2401
e. 97 Answer: D
a. 1537
b. 865
c. 385
d. 2401
e. 97 Answer: E
108. The financial aid officer at a certain South African university wishes to estimate the mean cost of
textbooks per semester for students. For the estimate to be useful it should be within R30 of the true
population mean. How large a sample should be used in order to be 95% confident of achieving this
level of accuracy if we know the population standard deviation is R100.
a. 43
b. 35
c. 97
d. 52
e. 25 Answer: A
a. 43
b. 35
c. 97
d. 52
e. 25 Answer: B
a. 43
b. 35
c. 97
d. 52
e. 25 Answer: C
a. 43
b. 35
c. 97
d. 52
e. 25 Answer: D
a. 43
b. 35
c. 97
d. 52
e. 25 Answer: E
113. If a random variable, X, follows a normal distribution with a variance of 25, what sample size should
be selected if a 95% confidence interval for the mean is to be calculated to within 2 units of the true
population mean?
a. 25
b. 62
c. 11
d. 35
e. 97 Answer: A
114. If a random variable, X, follows a normal distribution with a variance of 64, what sample size
should be selected if a 95% confidence interval for the mean is to be calculated to within 2 units of the
true population mean?
a. 25
b. 62
c. 11
d. 35
e. 97 Answer: B
a. 25
b. 62
c. 11
d. 35
e. 97 Answer: C
population mean?
a. 25
b. 62
c. 11
d. 35
e. 97 Answer: D
should be selected if a 95% confidence interval for the mean is to be calculated to within 1 unit of the
a. 25
b. 62
c. 11
d. 35
e. 97 Answer: E
118. A retail banker working at Nedbank wishes to estimate the mean monthly credit card expenditure
of all Nedbank credit card holders. For the estimate to be useful it should be within R100 of the true
a. 9
b. 14
c. 6
d. 35
e. 25 Answer: A
a. 9
b. 14
c. 6
d. 35
e. 25 Answer: B
a. 9
b. 14
c. 6
d. 35
e. 25 Answer: C
a. 9
b. 14
c. 6
d. 35
e. 25 Answer: D
a. 9
b. 14
c. 6
d. 35
e. 25 Answer: E
Question 1
A sample from the population does not have to share the same characteristics as the population
a) True
b) False
Question 2
a) True
b) False
Question 3
With the non-probability sampling methods you do not know the likelihood that any element of a
population will be selected in a sample
a) True
b) False
Question 4
Question 5
MCQ: The range or set of values which have chances to contain value of population parameter with
particular condence level is considered as
A. secondary interval estimation
B. condence interval estimate
C. population interval estimate
D. sample interval estimate Answer
MCQ: The upper and lower boundaries of interval of condence are classied as
A. error biased limits
B. marginal limits
C. estimate limits
D. condence limits Answer
MCQ: For a parameter whose value is unknown, the belief or claim for that parameter is classied as
A. parameter claim testing
B. expected belief testing
C. hypothesis testing
D. primary limit testing

MCQ: If the standard deviation of population 1 is 3 with sample size is 8 and the population 2 standard
deviation is 5 with sample size is 7 then the standard deviation of sampling distribution is
A. 4.044
B. 3.044
C. 1.044
D. 2.044
MCQ: Considering the sample statistic, if the mean of sampling distribution is equal to population mean
then the sample statistic is classied as
A. unbiased estimator
B. biased estimator
C. interval estimator
D. hypothesis estimator
MCQ: The parameters of population are denoted by the
A. roman letters
B. lower case Greek letter
C. upper case Greek letter
D. associated roman alphabets Answer
MCQ: The unknown or exact value that represents the whole population is classied as
A. parameters
B. estimators
C. absolute statistics
D. coverage estimator Answer
MCQ: The methods in statistics that uses sample statistics to estimate the parameters of the population
are considered as
A. inferential statistics
B. absolute statistics
C. coverage statistics
D. random sample statistics Answer
MCQ: The measures in sampling that are results of sample analyses are called
A. absolute statistics parameter

B. coverage estimators
C. population statistics
D. sample statistic Answer
MCQ: In sampling, the measures such as variance, mean, standard deviation are considered as
A. absolute statistics
B. coverage estimator
C. parameters
D. estimators Answer
What is the best description of a point estimate?
 any value from the sample used to estimate a parameter

 a sample statistic used to estimate a parameter
 the margin of error used to estimate a parameter
Which best describes the lower endpoint of a confidence interval?
 point estimate
 point estimate minus margin of error
 point estimate plus margin of error
Which best describes the upper endpoint of a confidence interval?
 point estimate
Which value will be at the center of a confidence interval?
 population parameter
 point estimate
 margin of error
What is the relationship between a 95 confidence interval and a 99 confidence interval

from the same sample
 the 95% interval will be wider

 both intervals have the same width
as a
B) Sample Parameter
C) Sample Statistic
D) Population Mean
Answer: C
D) Both A and B
Answer: D
into
B) Serial Tools
Answer: A
B) Roman Letters
Answer: B
Answer: A
known as:
Answer: C
Answer: C
Answer: B
considered as
B) Goodness Scale
C) Ratio Scale
Answer: C
Answer: D
To test the hypothesis H 0: μ 1 = μ 2, the sampling distribution is the set of values for


 μ1‐μ2
If the hypothesis H 0: μ 1 = μ 2 is true , the center of the sampling distribution is
 –1
 0
 1
To construct a confidence interval for μ 1 – μ 2, the best point estimate is
 0


If Z1 and Z2 are 2 independent standard normal random variables, then the characteristic function of
(Z1+Z2) is:
A. ? Exp(-t)
B. ? Exp(-2t)
C. ? Exp(-t/2)
D. ? None of the above
E. The "Risk" associated with any decision rule is:
A. ? The expected loss, where the expectation is taken with respect to the uncertainty
associated with the parameters
B. ? The risk of a scalar estimator is gnerally less than its variance
C. ? The risk of a vector estimator is the trace of its matrix mean squared error
D. ? The risk of a vector estimator is just its matrix mean squared error
F. If the loss function is quadratic, then:
A. ? The risk of a scalar estimator is just its variance
G. If an estimator is "inadmissible", then:
A. ? There is at least one other estimator whose loss is less than or equal to the loss of
this estimator everywhere in the parameter space, and strictly less somewhere in the
parameter space
B. ? There is at least one other estimator whose risk is less than or equal to the risk of
parameter space.
C. ? There is at least one other estimator whose risk is strictly less than the risk of this
estimator everywhere in the parameter space
D. ? It cannot be weakly consistent
H. If an estimator is "Mini-Max", then:
A. ? It must be admissible
B. ? It cannot be admissible
C. ? It may be admissible or inadmissible
D. ? Its risk function must "cross" the risk function of at least one other estimatar
I. If an scalar statistic is "sufficient", then:
A. ? It will be an admissible estimator of the population parameter
B. ? It will be an efficient estimator of the population parameter
C. ? It will be an unbiased estimator of the population parameter
D. ? It contains all of the sample information that is needed to estimate the population
parameter
J. The Newton-Raphson algorithm:

A. ? May yield multiple solutions, all of which will be local maxima, and one of which will
be the global maximum
B. ? May yield multiple solutions. some of which relate to local maxima and some of
which relate to local minima
C. ? Will always converge to a global extremum in a finite number of iterations
D. ? Will converge in 3 steps if the underlying function is a cubic polynomial
K. The "Invariance" property of MLE's implies that:
A. ? Their variance approaches zero as the sample size increases without limit
B. ? Their variance achieves the Cramer-Rao lower bound
C. ? Any monotonic function of an MLE is the MLE for that function of the parameter(s)
D. ? Any continuous function of an MLE is the MLE for that function of the parameter(s)
L. If X follows a uniform distribution on [0 , 1], and Y = 5X, then:
A. ? The Jacobian for the mapping from X to Y is 0.2, and Y is uniform on [0 , 5]
B. ? The Jacobian for the mapping from X to Y is 5, and Y is uniform on [0 , 0.2]
C. ? The Jacobian for the mapping from X to Y is 0.2, and Y is uniform on [0 , 0.2]
D. ? The Jacobian for the mapping from X to Y is 5, and Y is uniform on [0 , 5]
M. When we evaluate the Jacobian associated with a transformation from one probability distribution
to another:
A. ? We use the absolute value because a density function cannot take negative values
B. ? We must be dealing with scalar random variables, not random vectors
C. ? The intention is make sure that the support of the new random variable is the full
real line
D. ? The intention is make sure that the support of the new random variable is the
positive half of the real line
N. If our random data are statistically independent, then:
A. ? The likelihood function is just the sum of the marginal data densities, viewed as a
function of the parameter(s)
B. ? The log-likelihood function is just the product of the logarithms of the marginal data
densities, viewed as a function of the parameter(s)
C. ? The log-likelihood function is just the sum of the logarithms of the marginal data
D. ? The likelihood function will have a unique turning point, and this will be a maximum
(not a minimum) if the sample size is large enough
O. The "Likelihood Equations" are:
A. ? The same as the "normal equations" associated with least squares estimation of the
multiple linear regression model
B. ? Guaranteed to have a unique solution if the sample data are independent
C. ? Obtained by getting the second derivatives of the log-likelihood function with respect
to each of the parameters, and setting these equal to zero
D. ? The first-order conditions that we have to solve in order to maximize the likelihood
function
P. When we "concentrate" the likelihood function, the objective is to:
A. ? Focus attention on just the important parameters by conditioning on the 'nuisance

parameters' in the problem
B. ? Reduce the dimension of that part of the optimization problem that has to be solved
numerically
C. ? Take a monotonic transformation of the likelihood function so that it is easier to find

the global maximum
D. ? Convert what would be a non-linear optimization problem into one that is

approximately linear
Q. Suppose that Y follows a Binomial distribution with parameter 'p' equal to the probability of a
'success', and 'n' repetitions. Then the MLE of the standard deviation of Y is:
a) ? The square root of np(1-p)
b) ? The square root of y(n-y)/n, where y is the observed number of 'successes' in the
sample
c) ? The square root of n(y-n)/y, where y is the observed number of 'successes' in the
sample
d) ? The square root of ny, where y is the observed number of 'successes' in the sample
R. The connection between a sufficient statistic and an MLE is:
a) ? A sufficient statistic is always an MLE
b) ? There is no connection in general
c) ? All MLE's are linear combinations of sufficient statistics
d) ? If an MLE is unique, then it must be a function of a sufficient statistic
1) Which of the following assumptions are required to show the consistency, unbiasedness and
i) E(ut) = 0
ii) Var(ut) = σ2
iii) Cov(ut, ut-j) = 0 ∀ j
iv) ut~N(0, σ2)
a) (ii) and (iv) only
b) (i) and (iii) only
c) (i), (ii), and (iii) only
d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
2) Which of the following may be consequences of one or more of the CLRM assumptions being
violated?
i) The coefficient estimates are not optimal

ii) The standard error estimates are not optimal
iii) The distributions assumed for the test statistics are inappropriate
iv) Conclusions regarding the strength of relationships between the dependent and independent
variables may be invalid.
3) What is the meaning of the term "heteroscedasticity"?
a) The variance of the errors is not constant
b) The variance of the dependent variable is not constant
c) The errors are not linearly independent of one another
d) The errors have non-zero mean
For questions 4 and 5, consider the following regression model
4) Suppose that a researcher is interested in conducting White's heteroscedasticity test using the
residuals from an estimation of (2). What would be the most appropriate form for the auxiliary
regression?
a)
b)
c)
d)
5) Suppose that model (2) is estimated using 100 quarterly observations, and that a test of the type
described in question 4 is conducted. What would be the appropriate χ2 critical value with which to
compare the test statistic, assuming a 10% size of test?
a) 2.71
b) 118.50
c) 11.07
d) 9.24
6) What would be then consequences for the OLS estimator if heteroscedasticity is present in a
regression model but ignored?
a) It will be biased
b) It will be inconsistent
c) It will be inefficient
d) All of (a), (b) and (c) will be true.
7) Which of the following are plausible approaches to dealing with a model that exhibits
heteroscedasticity?
i) Take logarithms of each of the variables
ii) Use suitably modified standard errors
iii) Use a generalised least squares procedure
iv) Add lagged values of the variables to the regression equation.
8) Negative residual autocorrelation is indicated by which one of the following?
a) A cyclical pattern in the residuals
b) An alternating pattern in the residuals
c) A complete randomness in the residuals
d) Residuals that are all close to zero
9) Which of the following could be used as a test for autocorrelation up to third order?
a) The Durbin Watson test
b) White's test
c) The RESET test
d) The Breusch-Godfrey test
10) If a Durbin Watson statistic takes a value close to zero, what will be the value of the first order
autocorrelation coefficient?
a) Close to zero
b) Close to plus one

c) Close to minus one
d) Close to either minus one or plus one
11) Suppose that the Durbin Watson test is applied to a regression containing two explanatory variables
plus a constant (e.g. equation 2 above) with 50 data points. The test statistic takes a value of 1.53. What
is the appropriate conclusion?
a) Residuals appear to be positively autocorrelated
b) Residuals appear to be negatively autocorrelated
c) Residuals appear not to be autocorrelated
d) The test result is inconclusive
12) Suppose that a researcher wishes to test for autocorrelation using an approach based on an auxiliary
regression. Which one of the following auxiliary regressions would be most appropriate?
a)
b)
c)
d)
13) If OLS is used in the presence of autocorrelation, which of the following will be likely consequences?
i) Coefficient estimates may be misleading
ii) Hypothesis tests could reach the wrong conclusions
iii) Forecasts made from the model could be biased
iv) Standard errors may inappropriate
14) Which of the following are plausible approaches to dealing with residual autocorrelation?
ii) Add lagged values of the variables to the regression equation

iii) Use dummy variables to remove outlying observations
iv) Try a model in first differenced form rather than in levels.
15) Which of the following could result in autocorrelated residuals?
i) Slowness of response of the dependent variable to changes in the values of the independent variables
ii) Over-reactions of the dependent variable to changes in the independent variables
iii) Omission of relevant explanatory variables that are autocorrelated
iv) Outliers in the data
16) Including relevant lagged values of the dependent variable on the right hand side of a regression
equation could lead to which one of the following?
a) Biased but consistent coefficient estimates
b) Biased and inconsistent coefficient estimates
c) Unbiased but inconsistent coefficient estimates
d) Unbiased and consistent but inefficient coefficient estimates.
17) Near multicollinearity occurs when
a) Two or more explanatory variables are perfectly correlated with one another
b) The explanatory variables are highly correlated with the error term
c) The explanatory variables are highly correlated with the dependent variable
d) Two or more explanatory variables are highly correlated with one another
18) Which one of the following is NOT a plausible remedy for near multicollinearity?
a) Use principal components analysis

b) Drop one of the collinear variables
c) Use a longer run of data
d) Take logarithms of each of the variables
19) What will be the properties of the OLS estimator in the presence of multicollinearity?
a) It will be consistent, unbiased and efficient
b) It will be consistent and unbiased but not efficient
c) It will be consistent but not unbiased
d) It will not be consistent
20) Which one of the following is NOT an example of mis-specification of functional form?
a) Using a linear specification when y scales as a function of the squares of x
b) Using a linear specification when a double-logarithmic model would be more

appropriate
c) Modelling y as a function of x when in fact it scales as a function of 1/x
d) Excluding a relevant variable from a linear regression model
21) If the residuals from a regression estimated using a small sample of data are not normally
distributed, which one of the following consequences may arise?
a) The coefficient estimates will be unbiased but inconsistent
b) The coefficient estimates will be biased but consistent
c) The coefficient estimates will be biased and inconsistent
d) Test statistics concerning the parameters will not follow their assumed distributions.
22) A leptokurtic distribution is one which
a) Has fatter tails and a smaller mean than a normal distribution with the same mean and
variance
b) Has fatter tails and is more peaked at the mean than a normal distribution with the
same mean and variance
c) Has thinner tails and is more peaked at the mean than a normal distribution with the
d) Has thinner tails than a normal distribution and is skewed.
23) Under the null hypothesis of a Bera-Jarque test, the distribution has
a) Zero skewness and zero kurtosis
b) Zero skewness and a kurtosis of three
c) Skewness of one and zero kurtosis
d) Skewness of one and kurtosis of three.
24) Which one of the following would be a plausible response to a finding of residual non-normality?
a) Use a logarithmic functional form instead of a linear one
b) Add lags of the variables on the right hand side of the regression model
c) Estimate the model in first differenced form
d) Remove any large outliers from the data.
25) A researcher tests for structural stability in the following regression model:
(3)
The total sample of 200 observations is split exactly in half for the sub-sample regressions. Which would
be the unrestricted residual sum of squares?
a) The RSS for the whole sample
b) The RSS for the first sub-sample
c) The RSS for the second sub-sample
d) The sum of the RSS for the first and second sub-samples
26) Suppose that the residual sum of squares for the three regressions corresponding to the Chow test
described in question 35 are 156.4, 76.2 and 61.9. What is the value of the Chow F-test statistic?
a) 4.3
b) 7.6
c) 5.3
d) 8.6
27) What would be the appropriate 5% critical value for the test described in questions 25 and 26?
a) 2.6
b) 8.5
c) 1.3
d) 9.2
28) Suppose now that a researcher wants to run a forward predictive failure test on the last 5
observations using the same model and data as in question 25. Which would now be the unrestricted
residual sum of squares?
a) The RSS for the whole sample regression
b) The RSS for the long sub-sample regression
c) The RSS for the short sub-sample regression
d) The sum of the RSS for the long and short sub-sample regressions.
29) If the two RSS for the test described in question 28 are 156.4 and 128.5, what is the value of the test
statistic?
a) 13.8
b) 14.3
c) 8.3
d) 8.6
30) If a relevant variable is omitted from a regression equation, the consequences would be that:
i) The standard errors would be biased
ii) If the excluded variable is uncorrelated with all of the included variables, all of the slope coefficients
will be inconsistent.
iii) If the excluded variable is uncorrelated with all of the included variables, the intercept coefficient will
be inconsistent.
iv) If the excluded variable is uncorrelated with all of the included variables, all of the slope and
intercept coefficients will be consistent and unbiased but inefficient.
31) A parsimonious model is one that
a) Includes too many variables
b) Includes as few variables as possible to explain the data
c) Is a well-specified model
d) Is a mis-specified model
32 ) Which one of the following is a disadvantage of the general to specific or "LSE" ("Hendry") approach
to building econometric models, relative to the specific to general approach?
a) Some variables may be excluded at the first stage leading to coefficient biases
b) The final model may lack theoretical interpretation
c) The final model may be statistically inadequate
d) If the initial model is mis-specified, all subsequent steps will be invalid.
a. Exercise
b. Lung capacity
c. Smoking or not
d. Occupation
a. Exercise
b. Lung capacity
c. Smoking or not
d. Occupation
two groups.
their own activity.

times a week.
measured.
variables.
remains fixed.

a. Age of a person.
a. 50% b. 10% c. 5% d. 2%
a. Mean
d. Range
a. 74 b. 76 c. 77 d. 80
association is:

exam.
Under 30 100 100 200
Over 30 40 160 200
Total 140 260 400
a. 0.20
b. 0.40
c. 0.33
d. 0.50
a. 1 to 2
b. 2 to 1
c. 1 to 1
d. 50%
people over 30?
a. 2.5
b. 0.4
c. 0.5
d. 30%
265/3535 = .075?
a. −10 pounds.
b. 10 pounds.
c. 30 pounds.
d. 50 pounds.

marital status.
counts?
d. very important.
Questions 1 – 25 are multiple-choice items. Record your answer on the answer sheet provided. When
you have completed the
multiple choice items, then answer each of the three tie-breaker items in order. Record your answer and
your work on the tiebreaker pages provided as part of the test booklet. When you finish, detach the tie
breaker items from the booklet, be sure your
name is on each page. When time is called, turn in the answer sheet and the tie-breaker items. You may
keep the question part
of the test booklet.
a. 95%
b. 68%
c. 5%
d. 2.5%
b. causal inference
a. alpha
b. Type I error
c. beta
d. Type II error
4. A parameter is:
c. unknown
5. A statistic is:
c. unknown
b. causal inference
29, 26, 13, 23, 23, 25, 17, 22, 17, 19, 12, 26, 30, 30, 18, 14, 12, 26, 17, 18
a. 20.50, 5.79
b. 20.50, 5.94
c. 20.85, 5.79
d. 20.85, 5.94
a. 0.0062
b. 0.0109
c. 0.0124
d. 0.0217
a. -∞ to 23.05
b. -∞ to 23.15
c. 18.07 to 23.63
d. 18.22 to 23.48
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
a. True
b. False
a. sampling bias
b. confounding
d. response bias
a. mean = median
b. mean ≈ median
c. mean < median
d. mean > median
(1, 1.24), (2, 5.23), (3, 7.24), (4, 7.60), (5, 9.97), (6, 14.31), (7, 13.99), (8, 14.88),
(9, 18.04), (10, 20.70)
a. y = 0.490 x - 0.053
b. y = 2.04 x
c. y = 1.98 x + 0.436
d. y = 0.49 x
a. r = 0.490
b. r = 0.985
c. r = 0.971
d. r = 0.240
a. true
b. false
days
Frequency
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
0 10 20 30 40
a. 2.15
b. 2.21
c. 9.18
d. 9.34
a. –1.0
b. –0.5
c. +1.0
d. +0.5
0 8
1 16
2 22
3 14
4 6
5 4
6 2
a. 1.91
b. 2.47
c. 3.14
d. 2.19
-1.0 -0.5 0.0 0.5 1.0
-1.0 -0.5 0.0 0.5 1.0
a. 1.46
b. 1.45
c. 2.10
d. 2.17
a. 321
b. 186
c. 230
d. 208
a. 2.60
b. 4.11
c. 1.04
d. 1.33
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

81. Which of the following statements applies to a point estimate?
a. The point estimate is a parameter.

b. The point estimate will tend to be accurate if the sample size exceeds 30 for non-
normal populations.
c. The point estimate is subject to sampling error and will almost always be different
than the population value.
d. The point estimate is needed to determine the required sample size when estimating
the population mean.
82. Sampling error occurs when:
a. a non-statistical sample is used.

b. the statistic computed from the sample is not equal to the parameter for the
population.
c. a random sample is used rather than a convenience sample.
d. a confidence interval is used to estimate a population value rather than a point
estimate.
83. The general format for a confidence interval is:
a. point estimate + z (Standard Deviation).

b. point estimate + (critical value)(standard error).
c. margin of error + (confidence coefficient) (standard error).
d. point estimate + (critical value)(standard deviation)
84. In an application to estimate the mean number of miles that downtown employees commute to work
roundtrip each day, the following information is given:
n = 20
x  4.33
s  3.50
If the desired confidence level is 95 percent, the appropriate critical value is:
a. z = 1.96.
b. t = 2.093.
c. t = 2.086.
d. .7826.
n = 20
x  4.33
s  3.50
The point estimate for the true population mean is:
a. 1.638.
b. 4.33 + 1.638.
c. 4.33.
d. 3.50
n = 20
x  4.33
s  3.50
Based on this information, the upper limit for a 95 percent confidence interval estimate for the true
population mean is:
a. about 5.97 miles.

b. about 7.83 miles.
c. nearly 12.0 miles.
d. about 5.86 miles
87. In developing a confidence interval estimate for the population mean, which of the following is true?
a. The larger the sample standard deviation, the wider will be the interval estimate, all ---
----other things being equal.
b. If the population standard deviation is unknown, the appropriate critical value should -
----be obtained from the t-distribution.
c. The confidence interval developed from a smaller sample size will have a larger -------
----margin of error than one obtained using a larger sample size, all other things being ----
---equal.
d. All of the above are true.
88. Which of the following will increase the width of a confidence interval (assuming that everything
else remains constant)?
a. decreasing the confidence level

b. increasing the sample size
c. a decrease in the standard deviation
d. decreasing the sample size
89. In an effort to estimate the mean dollars spent per visit by customers of a food store, the manager has
selected a random sample of 100 cash register receipts. The mean of these was $45.67 with a sample
standard deviation equal to $12.30. Assuming that he wants to develop a 90 percent confidence interval
estimate, which of the following is the margin of error that will be reported?
a. About + $2.02
b. Nearly $50.20
c. $1.645
d. About $1.43
estimate, the upper limit of the confidence interval estimate is:
a. about $2.02.
b. approximately $65.90.
c. about $47.69.
d. None of the above.
91. The margin of error is:
a. the largest possible sampling error at a specified level of confidence.

b. the critical value times the standard error of the sampling distribution.
c. Both a and b
d. the difference between the point estimate and the parameter.
92. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the confidence level associated with an
estimation application?
a. The confidence level is a percentage value between 50 and 100 that corresponds to
the percentage of all possible confidence intervals, based on a given sample size, that will
contain the true population value.
b. The probability that the confidence interval estimate will contain the true population
value.
c. The degree of accuracy associated with the confidence interval estimate.
93. In a situation where the population standard deviation is known and we wish to estimate the
population mean with 90 percent confidence, what is the appropriate critical value to use?
a. z = 1.96
b. z = 2.33
c. z = 1.645
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the degrees of freedom
94. In developing a confidence interval estimate for the population mean, the t-distribution is used to
obtain the critical value when:
a. the sample contains some extreme values that skew the results.
b. the population standard deviation is unknown.
c. the sampling that is being used is not a statistical sample.
d. the confidence level is low
95. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the t-distribution?
a. The t-distribution is symmetrical.

b. The exact shape of the t-distribution depends on the number of degrees of freedom.
c. The t-distribution is more spread out than the standard normal distribution.
96. A popular restaurant takes a random sample n=25 customers and records how long each occupied a
table. The found a sample mean of 1.2 hours and a sample standard deviation of 0.3 hours. Find the 95%
confidence interval for the mean.
a. 1.2 .118
b. 1.2 .124
c. 1.2 .588
d. 1.2 .609
97. If a decision maker wishes to reduce the margin of error associated with a confidence interval
estimate for a population mean, she can:
a. decrease the sample size.

b. increase the confidence level.
c. increase the sample size
d. use the t-distribution
98. When small samples are used to estimate a population mean, in cases where the population standard
deviation is unknown:
a. the t-distribution must be used to obtain the critical value.

b. the resulting margin of error for a confidence interval estimate will tend to be fairly
small.
c. there will be a large amount of sampling error.
99. An educational organization in California is interested in estimating the mean number of minutes per
day that children between the age of 6 and 18 spend watching television per day. A previous study
showed that the population standard deviation was 21.5 minutes. The organization selected a random
sample of n = 200 children between the ages of 6 and 18 and recorded the number of minutes of TV that
each person watched on a particular day. The mean time was 191.3 minutes. If the leaders of the
organization wish to develop an interval estimate with 98 percent confidence, what critical value should
be used?
a. z = 1.645
b. t = 2.38
c. Approximately z = 2.33
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the margin of error.
100. An educational organization in California is interested in estimating the mean number of minutes
per day that children between the age of 6 and 18 spend watching television per day. A previous study
sample of n = 200 children between the age of 6 and 18 and recorded the number of minutes of TV that
organization wish to develop an interval estimate with 98 percent confidence, what would be the upper
and lower limits of the interval estimate?
a. Approximately 187.76 minutes ----- 194.84 minutes

b. About 141.21 minutes ------- 241.40 minutes
c. Approximately 188.3 minutes -------- 194.3 minutes
organization wish to develop an interval estimate with 95 percent confidence, what will the margin of
error be?
a. Approximately + 1.52 minutes

b. About + 2.98 minutes
c. z = 1.96
d. Approximately + 42.14 minutes
102. The Wisconsin Dairy Association is interested in estimating the mean weekly consumption of milk
for adults over the age of 18 in that state. To do this, they have selected a random sample of 300 people
from the designated population. The following results were recorded:
x = 34.5 ounces s = 7.9 ounces
Given this information, if the leaders wish to estimate the mean milk consumption with 90 percent
confidence, what is the approximate margin of error in the estimate?
a. z = 1.645
b. + 12.996 ounces
c. + 0.456 ounces
d. + 0.75 ounces
103. The Internal Revenue Service (IRS) is interested in estimating the mean amount of money spent on
outside tax service by income tax filers filing as single on their individual form. To do this, they have
selected a random sample of n = 16 people from this population and surveyed them to determine the
sample mean and sample standard deviation. The following information was observed: x = $88.60
s = $30.79
Given this information, what is the 95 percent confidence interval for the mean dollars spent on outside
tax assistance by taxpayers who file as single?
a. Approximately $72.19 –––– $105.01

b. About $22.97 –––– $154.23
c. Approximately $80.90 –––– $96.30
d. About $ 28.25 –––– $148.95
104. A study was recently conducted to estimate the mean cholesterol for adult males over the age of 55
years. The following random sample data were observed:
Given this information, what is the point estimate for the population mean?
a. About 73.35
b. + 102
c. About 242.6
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the confidence level.
years. From a random sample of n = 10 men, the sample mean was found to be 242.6 and the sample
standard deviation was 73.33. To find the 95% confidence interval estimate for the mean, the correct
critical value to use is:
a. 1.96
b. 2.2281
c. 2.33
d. 2.2622
106. The following data represent a random sample of bank balances for a population of checking
account customers at a large eastern bank. Based on these data, what is the critical value for a 95 percent
confidence interval estimate for the true population mean?
a. 1.96
b. 2.1009
c. 2.1098
account customers at a large eastern bank. Based on these data, what is the 95 percent confidence
interval estimate for the true population mean?
a. Approximately $1,069 + $484.41

b. About $839.40 to $1,298.60
c. Approximately $1,069 + 2.1098
108. The Hilbert Drug Store owner plans to survey a random sample of his customers with the objective
of estimating the mean dollars spent on pharmaceutical products during the past three months. He has
assumed that the population standard deviation is known to be $15.50. Given this information, what
would be the required sample size to estimate the population mean with 95 percent confidence and a
margin of error of + $2.00?
a. 231
b. 163
c. 16
d. 15
109. A major tire manufacturer wishes to estimate the mean tread life in miles for one of their tires.
They wish to develop a confidence interval estimate that would have a maximum sampling error of 500
miles with 90 percent confidence. A pilot sample of n = 50 tires showed a sample standard deviation
equal to 4,000 miles. Based on this information, the required sample size is:
a. 124.
b. 246.
c. 174.
d. 196.
110. The purpose of a pilot sample is:
a. to provide a better idea of what the population mean will be.

b. to help clarify how the sampling process will be performed.
c. to provide an idea of what the population standard deviation might be.
d. to save time and money instead of having to carry out a full sampling plan.
111. Past experience indicates that the variance in the time it takes for a “fast lube” operation to actually
complete the lube and oil change for customers is 9.00 minutes. The manager wishes to estimate the
mean time with 99% confidence and a margin of error of + 0.50 minutes. Given this, what must the
sample size be?
a. n = 239
b. n = 2149
c. n = 139
d. n = 1245
112. A traffic engineer plans to estimate the average number of cars that pass through an intersection
each day. Based on previous studies the standard deviation is believed to be 52 cars. She wants to
estimate the mean to within + 10 cars with 90% confidence. The needed sample size for n is:
a. n = 104 days
b. n = 74 days
c. n = 10 days
d. n = 9 days
113. If a manager believes that the required sample size is too large for a situation in which she desires
to estimate the mean income of blue collar workers in a state, which of the following would lead to a
reduction in sample size?
a. Reduce the level of confidence

b. Allow a higher margin of error
c. Somehow reduce the variation in the population
d. All of the above.
114. A large midwestern university is interested in estimating the mean time that students spend at the
student recreation center per week. A previous study indicated that the standard deviation in time is
about 40 minutes per week. If the officials wish to estimate the mean time within + 10 minutes with a 90
percent confidence, what should the sample size be?
a. 44
b. 62
c. 302
d. Can’t be determined without knowing how many students there are at the university.
115. A hospital emergency room has collected a sample of n = 40 to estimate the mean number of visits
per day. The have found the standard deviation is 32. Using a 90% confidence level, what is their margin
of error?
a. Approximately + 1.5 visits

b. About + 9.9 visits
c. Approximately + 8.3 visits
d. About + 1.3 visits
116. A study has indicated that the sample size necessary to estimate the average electricity use by
residential customers of a large western utility company is 900 customers. Assuming that the margin of
error associated with the estimate will be + 30 watts and the confidence level is stated to be 90 percent,
what was the value for the population standard deviation?
a. 265 watts
b. Approximately 547.1 watts
c. About 490 watts
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the size of the population.
117. The U.S. Post Office is interested in estimating the mean weight of packages shipped using the
overnight service. They plan to sample 300 packages. A pilot sample taken last year showed that the
standard deviation in weight was about 0.15 pounds. If they are interested in an estimate that has 95
percent confidence, what margin of error can they expect?
a. Approximately 0.017 pounds

b. About 0.0003 pounds
c. About 1.96
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the population mean.
118. A cell phone service provider has selected a random sample of 20 of its customers in an effort to
estimate the mean number of minutes used per day. The results of the sample included a sample mean of
34.5 minutes and a sample standard deviation equal to 11.5 minutes. Based on this information, and
using a 95 percent confidence level:
a. The critical value is z = 1.96.

b. The critical value is z = 1.645.
c. The critical value is t = 2.093.
d. The critical value can’t be determined without knowing the margin of error.
119. An animal shelter wants to estimate the mean number of animals housed daily and they know the
standard deviation. If they want to find a 98% confidence interval the critical value to use is:
a. 1.645
b. 1.98
c. 2.33
d. 2.575
120. Which of the following will result in a larger margin of error in an application involving the
estimation of a population mean?
a. Increasing the sample size

b Decreasing the confidence level
c. Increasing the sample standard deviation
8-3 Estimating a Population Proportion
121. The administrator at Sacred Heart Hospital is interested in estimating the proportion of patients who
are satisfied with the meals at the hospital. A random sample of 250 patients was selected and the
patients were surveyed. Of these, 203 indicated that they were satisfied. Based on this, what is the
estimate of the standard error of the sampling distribution?
a. 0.8120
b. 0.0247
c. 0.0006
d. Can’t be determined without knowing  .
122. The produce manager for a large retail food chain is interested in estimating the percentage of
potatoes that arrive on a shipment with bruises. A random sample of 150 potatoes showed 14 with
bruises. Based on this information, what is the margin of error for a 95 percent confidence interval
estimate?
a. 0.0933
b. 0.0466
c. 0.0006
123. A random sample of 340 people in Chicago showed that 66 listened to WJKT – 1450, a radio
station in South Chicago Heights. Based on this sample information, what is the point estimate for the
proportion of people in Chicago that listen to WJKT – 1450?
a. 340
b. About 0.194
c. 1450
d. 66
station in South Chicago Heights. Based on this information, what is the upper limit for the 95 percent
confidence interval estimate for the proportion of people in Chicago that listen to WJKT – 1450?
a. 1.96
b. Approximately 0.0009
c. About 0.2361
d. About 0.2298
125. The chamber of commerce in a beach resort town wants to estimate the proportion of
visitors who are repeat visitors. From previous experience they believe the portion is in the
vicinity of 0.5 and they want to estimate the proportion to within + 0.03 percentage points with
95% confidence. The sample size they should use is:
a. n = 1068
b. n = 545
c. n = 33
d. n = 95
126. The chamber of commerce in a beach resort town wants to estimate the proportion of visitors
who are repeat visitors. From previous experience they believe the portion is not larger than 20%. They
want to estimate the proportion to within + 0.04 percentage points with 95% confidence. The sample
size they should use is:
a. n = 601
b. n = 97
c. n = 10
d. n = 385
127. A regional hardware chain is interested in estimating the proportion of their customers who own
their own homes. There is some evidence to suggest that the proportion might be around 0.70. Given
this, what sample size is required if they wish a 90 percent confidence level with a margin of error of ±
.025?
a. About 355
b. Approximately 910
c. Almost 1,300
d. 100
128. Suppose that an internal report submitted to the managers at a bank in Boston showed that with 95
percent confidence, the proportion of the bank’s customers who also have accounts at one or more other
banks is between .45 and .51. Given this information, what sample size was used to arrive at this
estimate?
a. About 344
b. Approximately 1,066
c. Just under 700
d. Can’t be determined without more information.
129. A sample of 250 people resulted in a confidence interval estimate for the proportion of people who
believe that the Federal Government’s proposed tax increase is justified is between 0.14 and 0.20. Based
on this information, what was the confidence level used in this estimation?
a. Approximately 1.59
b. 95 percent
c. Approximately 79 percent
130. The chamber of commerce in a beach resort town wants to estimate the proportion of visitors who
are repeat visitors. Suppose that they have estimated that they need a sample size of n=16,577 people
to achieve a margin of error of + .01 percentage points with 99% confidence, but this is too large a
sample size to be practical. How can they reduce the sample size?
a. use a higher level of confidence

b. use a smaller margin or error
c. use a lower level of confidence
d. conduct a census
9-1 Hypothesis Tests for Means
71. When someone is on trial for suspicion of committing a crime, the hypotheses are:
Ho : innocent
HA : guilty
Which of the following is correct?
a. Type I error is acquitting a guilty person

b. Type I error is convicting an innocent person
c. Type II error is acquitting an innocent person
d. Type II error is convicting an innocent person
72. Which of the following statements is true?
a. The decision maker controls the probability of making a Type I statistical error.
b. Alpha represents the probability of making a Type II error.
c. Alpha and beta are directly related such that when one is increased the other will
increase also.
d. The alternative hypothesis should contain the equality.
73. In a hypothesis test involving a population mean, which of the following would be an acceptable
formulation?
H o : x  $1,700
a.
H a : x  $1,700
H o :   $1,700
b.
H a :   $1,700
H o :   $1,700
c.
H a :   $1,700
d. None of the above is a correct formulation.

74. Which of the following would be an appropriate null hypothesis?
a. The mean of a population is equal to 55.
b. The mean of a sample is equal to 55.
c. The mean of a population is greater than 55.
d. The mean of a sample is equal to 55

75. If we are performing a two-tailed test of whether  = 100, the probability of detecting a shift of the
mean to 105 will be ________ the probability of detecting a shift of the mean to 110.
a. less than
b. greater than
c. equal to
d. not comparable to
76. If an economist wishes to determine whether there is evidence that average family income in a
community exceeds $25,000. The best null hypothesis is:
a. μ = 25,000
b. μ > 25,000
c. μ < 25,000
d. μ > 25,000
77. If the p value is less than  in a two-tailed test,
a. the null hypothesis should not be rejected.
b. the null hypothesis should be rejected.
c. a one-tailed test should be used.
d. more information is needed to reach a conclusion about the null hypothesis.

78. A hypothesis test is to be conducted using an alpha = .05 level. This means:
a. there is a 5 percent chance that the null hypothesis is true.

b. there is a 5 percent chance that the alternative hypothesis is true.
c. there is a maximum 5 percent chance that a true null hypothesis will be rejected.
d. there is a 5 percent chance that a Type II error has been committed.
79. In a two-tailed hypothesis test for a population mean, an increase in the sample size will:
a. have no affect on whether the null hypothesis is true or false.

b. have no affect on the significance level for the test.
c. result in a sampling distribution that has less variability.
80. The reason for using the t-distribution in a hypothesis test about the population mean is:
a. the population standard deviation is unknown

b. it results in a lower probability of a Type I error occurring.
c. it provides a smaller critical value than the standard normal distribution for a given
sample size.
d. the population is not normally distributed
81. A company that makes shampoo wants to test whether the average amount of shampoo per bottle is
16 ounces. The standard deviation is known to be 0.20 ounces. Assuming that the hypothesis test is to be
performed using 0.10 level of significance and a random sample of n = 64 bottles, which of the following
would be the upper tail critical value?
a. 1.28
b. 1.645
c. 1.96
d. 2.575
would be the correct formulation of the null and alternative hypotheses?
a. Ho : x = 16
HA : x ≠ 16
b. Ho : μ = 16
HA : μ ≠ 16
c. Ho : μ >16
HA : μ < 16
d. Ho : x > 16
HA : x < 16
performed using 0.10 level of significance and a random sample of n = 64 bottles, how large could the
sample mean be before they would reject the null hypothesis?
a. 16.2 ounces
b. 16.049 ounces
c. 15.8 ounces
d. 16.041 ounces
84. The cost of a college education has increased at a much faster rate than costs in general over the past
twenty years. In order to compensate for this, many students work part- or full- time in addition to
attending classes. At one university, it is believed that the average hours students work per week exceeds
20. To test this at a significance level of 0.05, a random sample of n = 20 students was selected and the
following values were observed:
Based on these sample data, which of the following statements is true?
a. The standard error of the sampling distribution is approximately 3.04.

b. The test statistic is approximately t = 0.13.
c. The research hypothesis that the mean hours worked exceeds 20 is not supported by
these sample data.
twenty years. In order to compensate for this, many students work part- or full-time in addition to
Based on these sample data, the critical value expressed in hours:

a. is approximately equal to 25.26 hours.
b. is approximately equal to 25.0 hours.
c. cannot be determined without knowing the population standard deviation.
d. is approximately 22 hours
86. The R.D. Wilson Company makes a soft drink dispensing machine that allows customers to get soft
drinks from the machine in a cup with ice. When the machine is running properly, the average number of
fluid ounces in the cup should be 14. Periodically the machines need to be tested to make sure that they
have not gone out of adjustment. To do this, six cups are filled by the machine and a technician carefully
measures the volume in each cup. In one such test, the following data were observed:
Which of the following would be the correct null hypothesis if the company wishes to test the machine?
a. H o : x  14 ounces
b. H o :   14 ounces
c. H o :   14 ounces
d. H o : x  14 ounces
Based on these sample data, which of the following is true if the significance level is .05?
a. No conclusion can be reached about the status of the machine based on a sample size
of only six cups.
b. The null hypothesis cannot be rejected since the test statistic is approximately t = .29 ,
which is not in the rejection region.
c. The null hypothesis can be rejected since the sample mean is greater than 14
d. The null can be rejected because the majority of the sample values exceed 14
88. A concern of Major League Baseball is that games last too long. Some executives in the league’s
headquarters believe that the mean length of games this past year exceeded 3 hours (180 minutes). To
test this, the league selected a random sample of 80 games and found the following results: x  193
minutes and s = 16 minutes.
Based on these results, if the null hypothesis is tested using an alpha level equal to 0.10, which of the
following is true?
a. The null hypothesis should be rejected if x  182.31.

b. The test statistic is t = 1.2924.
c. Based on the sample data, the null hypothesis cannot be rejected.
d. It is possible that when the hypothesis test is completed that a Type II statistical
error has been made.
89. When testing a two-tailed hypothesis using a significance level of 0.05, a sample size of n = 16, and
with the population standard deviation unknown, which of the following is true?
a. The null hypothesis can be rejected if the sample mean gets too large or too small
compared with the hypothesized mean.
b. The alpha probability must be split in half and a rejection region must be formed on
both sides of the sampling distribution.
c. The test statistic will be a t-value.
90. A major airline is concerned that the waiting time for customers at their ticket counter may be
exceeding their target average of 190 seconds. To test this, the company has selected a random sample
of 100 customers and times them from when the customer first arrives at the checkout line until he or she
is at the counter being served by the ticket agent. The mean time for this sample was 202 seconds with a
standard deviation of 28 seconds. Given this information and the desire to conduct the test using an alpha
level of 0.02, which of the following statements is true?
a. The chance of a Type II error is 1 - 0.02 = 0.98.

b. The test to be conducted will be structured as a two-tailed test.
c. The test statistic will be approximately t = 4.286, so the null hypothesis should be
rejected.
d. The sample data indicate that the difference between the sample mean and the
hypothesized population mean should be attributed only to sampling error.
91. A house cleaning service claims that they can clean a four bedroom house in less than 2 hours. A
sample of n = 16 houses is taken and the sample mean is found to be 1.97 hours and the sample standard
deviation is found to be 0.1 hours. Using a 0.05 level of significance the correct conclusion is
a. Reject the null because the test statistic (-1.2) is < the critical value (1.7531)
b. Do not reject the null because the test statistic (1.2) is > the critical value (-1.7531)
c. Reject the null because the test statistic (-1.7531) is < the critical value (-1.2)
d. Do not reject the null because the test statistic (-1.2) is > the critical value (-1.7531)
9-2 Hypothesis Tests for Proportions
92. Woof Chow Dog Food Company believes that it has a market share of 25%. They survey n = 100
dog owners and ask whether or not Woof Chow is their regular brand of dog food. The appropriate null
and alternate hypotheses are:
H o : p  .25
a.
H a : p  .25
H o :   .25
b.
H a :   .25
H o :   .25
c.
H a :   .25
H o :   .25
d.
H a :   .25
dog owners and ask whether or not Woof Chow is their regular brand of dog food, and 23 people say yes.
Based upon this information, what is the critical value if the hypothesis is to be tested at the 0.05 level of
significance?
a. 1.28
b. 1.645
c. 1.96
d. 2.575
94. Woof Chow Dog Food Company believes that it has a market share of 25%. They survey n = 100 dog
owners and ask whether or not Woof Chow is their regular brand of dog food, and 23 people say yes.
Based upon this information, what is the value of the test statistic?
a. -0.462
b. -0.475
c. 0.462
d. 0.475
95. After completing sales training for a large company, it is expected that the salesperson will generate
a sale on at least 15 percent of the calls he or she makes. To make sure that the sales training process is
working, a random sample of n = 400 sales calls made by sales representatives who have completed the
training have been selected and the null hypothesis is to be tested at 0.05 alpha level. Suppose that a sale
is made on 36 of the calls. Based on this information, what is the test statistic for this test?
b. About z = -3.35
c. z = -1.645
d. t = -4.567
96. After completing sales training for a large company, it is expected that the salesperson will generate a
sale on at least 15 percent of the calls he or she makes. To make sure that the sales training process is
is made on 36 of the calls. Based on these sample data, which of the following is true?
a. The null hypothesis should be rejected since the test statistic falls in the lower tail
rejection region.
b. The null hypothesis is supported since the sample results do not fall in the rejection
region.
c. There is insufficient evidence to reject the null hypothesis and the sample proportion
is different from the hypothesized proportion due to sampling error.
d. It is possible that a Type II statistical error has been committed.
9-3 Type II Errors
97. Which of the following is not a required step in finding Beta?
a. Assuming a true value of the population parameter where the null is false
b. Finding the critical value based on the null hypothesis
c. Converting the critical value from the standard normal distribution to the units of the
data
d. Finding the power of the test
98. If the Type I error (  ) for a given test is to be decreased, then for a fixed sample size n:
a. the Type II error (  ) will also decrease.
b. the Type II error (  ) will increase.
c. the power of the test will increase.

d. a one-tailed test must be utilized.
99. For a given sample size n, if the level of significance (  ) is decreased, the power of the test:
a. will increase.
b. will decrease.
c. will remain the same.

d. cannot be determined.
100.The power of a test is measured by its capability of:
a. rejecting a null hypothesis that is true.
b. not rejecting a null hypothesis that is true.
c. rejecting a null hypothesis that is false.

d. not rejecting a null hypothesis that is false.
101. Which of the following will be helpful if the decision maker wishes to reduce the chance of making
a Type II error?
a. Increase the level of significance at which the hypothesis test is conducted.

b. Increase the sample size.
c. Both a and b will work.
d. Neither a nor b will be effective.
102. A consumer group plans to test whether a new passenger car that is advertised to have a mean
highway miles per gallon of at least 33 actually meets this level. They plan to test the hypothesis using a
significance level of 0.05 and a sample size of n = 100 cars. It is believed that the population standard
deviation is 3 mpg. Based upon this information, if the “true” population mean is 32.0 mpg, what is the
probability that the test will lead the consumer group to “accept” the claimed mileage for this car?
a. About 0.45
c. About 0.9545
deviation is 3 mpg. Based upon this information, what is the critical value in terms of miles per gallon
that would be needed prior to finding Beta?
a. 32.5065
b. 33.4935
c. 33.588
d. 32.412
104. Suppose we want to test H0 :   30 versus H1 :   30. Which of the following possible
sample results based on a sample of size 36 gives the strongest evidence to reject H0 in favor of H1?
a. X = 28, s = 6
b. X = 27, s = 4
c. X = 32, s = 2
d. X = 26, s = 9
105. A contract calls for the mean diameter of a cylinder to be 1.50 inches. As a quality check, each
day a random sample of n = 36 cylinders is selected and the diameters are measured. Assuming that the
population standard deviation is thought to be 0.10 inch and that the test will be conducted using an alpha
equal to 0.025, what would the probability of a Type II error be?
b. About 0.6789
c. 0.975
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the “true” population mean.
106. A company that sells an online course aimed at helping high-school students improve their SAT
scores has claimed that SAT scores will improve by more than 90 points on average if students
successfully complete the course. To test this, a national school counseling organization plans to select a
random sample of n = 100 students who have previously taken the SAT test. These students will take the
company’s course and then retake the SAT test. Assuming that the population standard deviation for
improvement in test scores is thought to be 30 points, and the level of significance for the hypothesis test
is 0.05, what is the probability that the counseling organization will incorrectly “accept” the null
hypothesis when, in fact, the true mean increase is actually 95 points?
b. About 0.492
c. Approximately 0.008
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the sample results.
is 0.05, find the critical value in terms of improvement in SAT points which would be needed prior to
finding a Beta.
a. reject the null if SAT improvement is > 95 points
b. reject the null if SAT improvement is < 85.065 points
c reject the null if SAT improvement is > 95.88 points
d. reject the null if SAT improvement is >94.935 points
108. A recent report in which a major pharmaceutical company released the results of testing that had
been done on the cholesterol reduction that people could expect if they use the company’s new drug
indicated that the Type II error probability for a given “true” mean was 0.1250 based on the sample size
of n = 64 subjects. Given this, what was the power of the test under these same conditions? The alpha
level used in the test was 0.05.
a. 0.95
b. 0.875
c. Essentially zero
d. Power would be undefined in this case since the hypothesis would be rejected.
109. If the hypothesis test you are conducting is a two-tailed test, which of the following is a possible
step that you could take to increase the power of the test?
a. Reduce the sample size

b. Increase alpha
c. Increase beta
probability that the test will lead the consumer group to reject the claimed mileage for this car?
a. About 0.075
c. 0.05
10-1 Estimation for Two Population Means Using Independent Samples
34. If a manager wishes to develop a confidence interval estimate for estimating the difference between
two population means, an increase in the size of the samples used will result in:
a. an increase in the size of the critical value.

b. a wider confidence interval.
c. a more precise confidence interval.
d. a less precise confidence interval
Answer: C (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, population, confidence interval
35. If the population variances are assumed to be known in an application where a manager wishes to
estimate the difference between two population means, the 95% confidence interval estimate can be
developed using which of the following critical values:
a. z = 1.645.
b. z = 1.96.
c. t value that depends on the sample sizes from the two populations.
d. z = 2.575
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, population, variance, critical value
36. A company in Maryland has developed a device that can be attached to car engines which they
believe will increase the miles per gallon that cars will get. The owners are interested in estimating
the difference between mean mpg for cars using the device versus those that are not using the device.
The following data represent the mpg for independent random samples of cars from each population.
The variances are assumed equal and the populations normally distributed.
Given this data, what is the critical value if the owners wish to have a 90 percent confidence interval
estimate?
a. t = 2.015
b. t = 1.7823
c. z = 1.645
d. z = 1.96
Answer: B (Moderate)
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, critical value
37. A company in Maryland has developed a device that can be attached to car engines, which they
The following data represent the mpg for random independent samples of cars from each population.
Given this data, what is the upper limit for a 95 percent confidence interval estimate for the difference in
mean mpg?
a. Approximately 3.88 mpg

b. About 5.44 mpg
c. Just under 25.0
Answer: B (Difficult)
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, population
38. When estimating a confidence interval for the difference between 2 means using the method where
sample variances are pooled, which of the following assumptions is not needed?
a. the populations are normally distributed.

b. the populations have equal variance
c. the samples are independent.
d. the sample sizes are equal
Answer: D (Moderate)
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, independent, variances unknown
39. A major retail clothing store is interested in estimating the difference in mean monthly purchases by
customers who use the store’s in-house credit card versus using a Visa, Mastercard, or one of the
other major credit cards. To do this, they have randomly selected a sample of customers who have
made one or more purchases with each of the types of credit cards. The following represents the
results of the sampling:
In-House Credit Card National Credit Card
Sample Size: 86 113
Mean Monthly Purchases: $45.67 $39.87
Standard Deviation: $10.90 $12.47
Based on these sample data, what is the lower limit for the 95 percent confidence interval estimate for the
difference between population means?
a. About $5.28
b. Approximately $4.85
c. Approximately $2.54
d. Approximately $3.41
Answer: C (Moderate)
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, population, lower limit
Sample Size: 86 113
Given this information, which of the following statements is true?
a. If either of the sample sizes is increased, the resulting confidence interval will have a
smaller margin of error.
b. If the confidence level were changed from 95 percent to 90 percent, the margin of
error in the estimate would be reduced.
c. Neither a nor b are true.
d. Both a and b are true.
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, population, margin of error
10-2 Hypothesis Tests for Two Population Means Using Independent Samples
Sample Size: 86 113
Sample Mean: $45.67 $39.87
Standard Deviation (σ): $10.90 $12.47
Suppose that the managers wished to test whether there is a statistical difference in the mean monthly
purchases by customers using the two types of credit cards, using a significance level of .05, what is the
value of the test statistic assuming the standard deviations are known?
a. t = 3.49
b. z = 11.91
c. z = 2.86
d. z = 3.49
Keywords: mean difference, known standard deviations, test statistic
42. If we are testing for the difference between the means of two independent populations with samples
of n1 = 20 and n2 = 20, the number of degrees of freedom is equal to:
a. 39.
b. 38.
c. 19.
d. 18.
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, independent, degrees of freedom
43. Given the following information, calculate the degrees of freedom that should be used in the pooled-
standard deviation t-test.
s1 2 = 4 s2 2 = 6
n1 = 16 n2 = 25
a. df = 41
b. df = 39
c. df = 16
d. df = 25
Keywords: degrees of freedom, pooled, standard deviation, t-test
44. A recent study posed the question about whether Japanese managers are more motivated than
American managers. A randomly selected sample of each was administered the Sarnoff Survey of
Attitudes Toward Life (SSATL), which measures motivation for upward mobility. The SSATL scores
are summarized below.
American Japanese
Sample Size 211 100
Mean SSATL Score 65.75 79.83
Population Std. Dev. 11.07 6.41
Judging from the way the data were collected, which test would likely be most appropriate?
a. Related samples t-test for mean difference
b. Pooled-variance t-test for the difference in means
c. Independent samples Z-test for the difference in means
d. Related samples Z-test for mean difference
Answer: C (Easy)
Keywords: independent, samples, z-test, mean difference
45. A recent study posed the question about whether Japanese are managers more motivated than
Attitudes Toward Life (SSATL), which measures motivation for upward mobility. The SSATL scores are
summarized below.
American Japanese
Sample Size 211 100
Which of the following is the correct the null and alternative hypotheses to determine if the average
SSATL score of Japanese managers differs from the average SSATL score of American managers?
a. H0 :  A –  J  0 versus H1 :  A –  J  0
b. H0 :  A –  J  0 versus H1 :  A –  J  0
c. H0 :  A –  J  0 versus H1 :  A –  J  0
d. H0 : XA – XJ  0 versus H1 : X A – XJ  0
Answer: C (Easy)
Keywords: null, alternative, hypothesis, mean difference
46. A commuter has two different routes available to drive to work. She wants to test whether route A is
faster than route B. The best hypotheses are:
a. Ho : μA - μB > 0
HA : μA - μB < 0
b. Ho : μA - μB < 0
HA : μA - μB > 0
c. Ho : μA - μB = 0
HA : μA - μB ≠ 0
d. Ho : μA - μB < 0
HA : μA - μB > 0
Answer: A (Moderate)
Keywords: independent, sample, hypotheses
47. In conducting a hypothesis test for the difference in two population means where the standard
deviations are known and the null hypothesis is:
Ho : μA - μB = 0
What is the p-value assuming that the test statistic has been found to be z = 2.52?
a. 0.0059
b. 0.9882
c. 0.0118
d. 0.4941
Keywords: mean difference, independent, sample, p-value
48. Under what conditions can the t-distribution be correctly employed to test the difference between two
population means?
a. When the samples from the two populations are small and the population variances
are unknown.
b. When the two populations of interest are assumed to be normally distributed.
c. When the population variances are assumed to be equal.
Keywords: variance, small sample, normal, t-distribution
49. A hypothesis test for the difference between two means is considered a two-tailed test when:
a. the population variances are equal.

b. the null hypothesis states that the population means are equal.
c. the alpha level is 0.10 or higher.
d. the standard deviations are unknown
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, hypothesis, two-tailed, null
50. There have been complaints recently from homeowners in the north end claiming that their homes
have been assessed at values that are too high compared with other parts of town. They say that the
mean increase from last year to this year has been higher in their part of town than elsewhere. To test
this, the assessor’s office staff plans to select a random sample of north end properties (group 1) and a
random sample of properties from other areas within the city (group 2) and perform a hypothesis test.
Based on the information provided, the research (or alternate) hypothesis is:
a. 1   2 .
b. 1   2 .
c. 1   2 .
d. μ1 < μ2.
Keywords: independent, mean, research, alternate, hypothesis
have been assessed at values that are too high compare with other parts of town. They say that the
The following sample information is available:
North End Other

Sample Size 20 10
Sample Mean Increase $4,010 $3,845
Sample St. Deviation $1,800 $1,750
Assuming that the null hypothesis will be tested using an alpha level equal to 0.05, what is the value of
the test statistic?
a. z = 1.578
b. t = 1.7011
c. t = 0.2388
d. t = 0.3944
Keywords: test statistic, hypothesis, null, independent, mean
North End Other
Sample Size 20 Sample Size 10
Mean Increase $4,010 Mean Increase $3,845
St. Deviation $1,800 St. Deviation $1,750
Assuming that the null hypothesis will be tested using an alpha level equal to 0.05, what is the critical
value?
a. z = 1.578
b. t = 1.7011
c. t = 0.2388
d. t = 2.0484
Keywords: critical value, hypothesis, mean, independent
53. Assume that you are testing the difference in the means of two independent populations at the 0.05
level of significance. The null hypothesis is: Ho : μA - μB > 0 and you have found the test statistic is z
= -1.92. What should you conclude?
a. The mean of pop. A is greater than the mean of pop. B because p < α
b. The mean of pop. A is greater than the mean of pop. B because p > α
c. There is no significant difference in the two means because p > α
d. The mean of pop. B is greater than the mean of pop. A because p < α
Keywords: hypothesis, one tailed, mean, independent, p-value
54. The U.S. Golf Association provides a number of services for its members. One of these is the
evaluation of golf equipment to make sure that the equipment satisfies the rules of golf. For
example, they regularly test the golf balls made by the various companies that sell balls in the United
States. Recently they undertook a study of two brands of golf balls with the objective to see whether
there is a difference in the mean distance that the two golf ball brands will fly off the tee. To conduct
the test, the U.S.G.A. uses a robot named “Iron Byron,” which swings the club at the same speed and
with the same swing pattern each time it is used. The following data reflect sample data for a
random sample of balls of each brand.
Brand A: 234 236 230 227 234 233 228 229 230 238
Brand B: 240 236 241 236 239 243 230 239 243 240
Given this information, what is the test statistic for testing whether the two population means are equal?
a. F = 1.115
b. t = 1.96
c. t = -4.04
d. t = -2.58
Answer: C (Difficult)
Keywords: test statistic, mean, independent
10-3 Interval Estimation and Hypothesis Tests for Paired Samples
55. Most companies that make golf balls and golf clubs use a one-armed robot named “Iron Byron” to
test their balls for length and accuracy, but because of swing variations by real golfers, these test
robots don’t always indicate how the clubs will perform in actual use. One company in the golfing
industry is interested in testing its new driver to see how it compares with the best-selling driver. To
do this, they have selected a group of golfers of differing abilities and ages. Their plan is to have
each player use each of the two clubs and hit five balls. They will record the average length of the
drives with each club for each player. Given this description of the planned test, which of the
following statements is true?
a. The test won’t be meaningful if only five balls are hit by each player with each club.
b. The samples in this case are called paired samples since the same players are hitting
both golf clubs.
c. The test will be invalid unless different players are used to hit each club so that the
samples will be independent.
d. The samples are independent because each player is independent of the other players.
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, paired
industry is interested in testing its new driver to see if has greater length off the tee than the best-
selling driver. To do this, they have selected a group of golfers of differing abilities and ages. Their
plan is to have each player use each of the two clubs and hit five balls. They will record the average
length of the drives with each club for each player. The resulting data for a sample of 10 players is:
Based on these sample data, what is the point estimate for the difference between the mean distance for
the new driver versus the leading driver?
a. 2.81
b. 1.55
c. – 3.45
d. 233.4
Keywords: mean difference, point estimate, paired
57. Suppose that a group of 10 people join a weight loss program for 3 months. Each person’s weight is
recorded at the beginning and at the end of the 3 month program. To test whether the weight loss
program is effective, the data should be treated as:
a. Independent samples using the normal distribution
b. paired samples using the t-distribution
c. independent samples using the t-distribution.
d. independent proportions
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, population, independent, paired
58. The t-test for the mean difference between 2 related populations assumes that the respective:
a. sample sizes are equal.

b. sample variances are equal.
c. populations are approximately normal or sample sizes are large.
Keywords: mean difference, sample size, normal
59. If we are testing for the difference between the means of two paired populations with samples of n1
= 20 and n2 = 20, the number of degrees of freedom is equal to:
a. 39.
b. 38.
c. 19.
d. 18.
Answer: C (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, population, paired, degrees of freedom
60. In testing for differences between the means of two paired populations, the null hypothesis is:
a. H 0 :  D  2 .
b. H 0 :  D  0 .
c. H 0 :  D  0 .
d. H 0 :  D  0 .
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: paired, mean difference, null, hypothesis
test their balls for length and accuracy, but because of swing variations by real golfers, these test robots
don’t always indicate how the clubs will perform in actual use. One company in the golfing industry is
interested in testing its new driver to see if it has greater length off the tee than the best-selling driver. To
do this, they have selected a group of golfers of differing abilities and ages. Their plan is to have each
player use each of the two clubs and hit five balls. They will record the average length of the drives with
each club for each player. The resulting data for a sample of 10 players are:
What is an appropriate null hypothesis to be tested?
a. H o : 1   2
b. H o : 1   2
c. H o :  d  0
d. Ho : μD = 0
Keywords: null, hypothesis, mean, paired
72. Most companies that make golf balls and golf clubs use a one-armed robot named “Iron Mike” to test
their balls for length and accuracy, but because of swing variations by real golfers, these test robots
don’t always indicate how the clubs will perform in actual use. One company in the golfing industry
is interested in testing its new driver to see if it has greater length off the tee than the best-selling
driver. To do this, they have selected a group of golfers of differing abilities and ages. Their plan is
to have each player use each of the two clubs and hit five balls. They will record the average length
of the drives with each club for each player. The resulting data for a sample of 10 players are:
What is the critical value for the appropriate hypothesis test if the test is conducted using a 0.05 level of
significance?
a. z = 1.645
b. t = 1.7341
c. t = 1.8331
d. t = 2.2622
Keywords: critical value, hypothesis, t-test, means, paired
11-1 Hypothesis Tests and Estimation for a Single Population Variance
42. An analyst plans to test whether the standard deviation for the time it takes bank tellers to provide
service to customers exceeds the standard of 1.5 minutes. The correct null and alternative hypotheses for
this test are:
H o :   1.5
a.
H A :   1.5
H o :   1.5
b.
H A :   1.5
H o :  2  2.25
c.
H A :  2  2.25
H o :  2  2.25
d.
H A :  2  2.25
Answer: C (Easy)
Keywords: null, alternative, hypothesis, chi-square, population variance
43. When a hypothesis test is to be conducted regarding a population variance, the test statistic will be:
a. a t-value from the t-distribution.

b. a  2 value from the chi-square distribution.
c. a z-value from the standard normal distribution.
d. a binomial distribution p value.
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: hypothesis, population, variance, test statistic, chi-square
44. If a hypothesis test for a single population variance is to be conducted using a significance level of
to 0.10, a sample size of n = 16, and the test is a one-tailed upper-tail test, the critical value is:
a. z = 1.28.
b. t = 1.345.
c.  2 = 22.3071.
d.  2 = 24.9958.
Keywords: hypothesis test, critical value, chi-square
45. When conducting a one-tailed hypothesis test of a population variance using a sample size of n = 24
and a 0.10 level of significance, the critical value is:
a. 32.0069
b. 35.1725
c. 33.1962
d. 36.4150
Keywords: hypothesis, variance, critical value
46. A potato chip manufacturer has found that in the past the standard deviation of bag weight has been
0.2 ounces. They want to test whether the standard deviation has changed. The null hypothesis is:
a. Ho : σ2 = 0.2
b. Ho : σ = 0.2
c. Ho : σ = 0.04
d. Ho : σ2 = 0.04
Keywords: test statistic, chi-square, null, variance, two-tailed
47. A fast food restaurant that sells burritos is concerned about the variability in the amount of filling
that different employees place in the burritos. To achieve product consistency they need this variability to
be no more than 1.7 ounces. A sample of n = 18 burritos showed a sample variance of 2.89 ounces.
Using a 0.10 level of significance, what can you conclude?
a. The standards are being met since (test statistic) < (critical value)
b. The standards are not being met since (test statistic) > (critical value)
c. The standards are being met since (test statistic) > (critical value)
d. The standards are not being met since (test statistic) < (critical value)
48. If a hypothesis test for a single population variance is to be conducted, which of the following
statements is true?
a. The null hypothesis must be stated in terms of the population variance.

b. The chi-square distribution is used.
c. If the sample size is increased, the critical value is also increased for a given level of
statistical significance.
49. A manufacturer of industrial plywood has a contract to supply a boat maker with a large amount of
plywood. One of the specifications calls for the standard deviation in thickness to not exceed .03 inches.
A sample of n = 30 sheets was sampled randomly from a recent production run. The mean thickness was
right at the ¾ inch target thickness and the sample standard deviation was .05 inches. Testing at the 0.05
level of significance, which of the following is true?
a. The test statistic is approximately 80.56.

b. The critical value is approximately  2 = 43.773.
c. The test statistic is approximately 48.333.
d. Based on the sample data, there is no evidence to suggest that the plywood is not meeting
the specifications.
50. To test the following hypotheses at the 0.05 level of significance, using a sample size of n = 15
Ho : σ2 = 0.05
HA : σ2 ≠ 0.05
What is the upper tail critical value?
a. 23.685
b. 24.996
c. 27.488
d. 26.119
51. A consulting report that was recently submitted to a company indicated that a hypothesis test for a
single population variance was conducted. The report indicated that the test statistic was 34.79, the
hypothesized variance was 345 and the sample variance 600. However, the report did not indicate what
the sample size was. What was it?
a. n = 100
b. Approximately n = 18
c. Approximately 21
d. Can’t be determined without knowing what alpha is.
52. Which of the following is the appropriate null hypothesis when testing whether two population
variances are equal?
a. H 0 :  12   22 .
b. H 0 :  12   22
c. H 0 :  12   22
d. H 0 :  12   22
53. Which distribution is used in testing the hypotheses about the equality of two population variances?
a. z-distribution
b. F-distribution
c.  2 distribution
d. t-distribution
54. It is believed that the SAT scores for students entering two state universities may have different
standard deviations. Specifically, it is believed that the standard deviation at University A is greater than
the standard deviation at University B. If a statistical test is to be conducted, which of the following
would be the proper way to formulate the null hypothesis?
a. H 0 :  A2   B2  0
b. H 0 :  A2   B2
c. H 0 :  A   B
d. H 0 :  A2   B2
the standard deviation at University B. To test this using an alpha = 0.05 level, a sample of 14 student
SAT scores from University A was selected and a sample of 8 SAT scores from University B was
selected. The following sample results were observed:
University A University B
x  1104 x  1254
s  134 s  108
Based on this information, what is the critical value that will be used to test the hypothesis?
a. F = 3.55
b. F = 2.832
c. z = 1.645
d. F = 3.237
x  1104 x  1254
s  134 s  108
Based on this information, what is the value of the test statistic?
a. 1.2407
b. 0.6496
c. 1.5394
57. The Russet Potato Company has been working on the development of a new potato seed that is
hoped to be an improvement over the existing seed that is being used. Specifically, the company hopes
that the new seed will result in less variability in individual potato length than the existing seed without
reducing the mean length. To test whether this is the case, a sample of each seed is used to grow potatoes
to maturity. The following information is given:
Old Seed New Seed
Number of Seeds = 11 Number of Seeds = 16
Average length = 6.25 inches Average length = 5.95 inches
Standard Deviation = 1.0 inches Standard Deviation = 0.80 inches
The correct null hypothesis for testing whether the variability of the new seed is less than the old seed is:
a. H 0 :  O2   N2 .
b. H 0 :  O2   N2 .
c. H 0 :  O   N .
d. H 0 :  O2   N2
58. The Russet Potato Company has been working on the development of a new potato seed that is hoped
to be an improvement over the existing seed that is being used. Specifically, the company hopes that the
new seed will result in less variability in individual potato length than the existing seed without reducing
the mean length. To test whether this is the case, a sample of each seed is used to grow potatoes to
maturity. The following information is given:
Old Seed New Seed
Standard Deviation = 1.0 inches Standard Deviation = .80 inches
Based on these data, if the hypothesis test is conducted using a 0.05 level of significance, the calculated
test statistic is:
a. F = 1.25.
b. F = 0.80.
c. F = 0.64.
d. F = 1.56.
59. In performing a one-tailed test for the difference between two population variances, which of the
a. The level of alpha needs to be doubled before finding the F-critical value in the table.
b. The sample variance that is predicted to be larger in the alternative hypothesis goes
in the numerator when forming the F-test statistic.
c. You always place the larger of the two sample variances in the numerator.
d. The alternative hypothesis must contain the equality.
60. Two airlines are being compared with respect to the time it takes them to turn a plane around from
the time it lands until it takes off again. The study is interested in determining whether there is a
difference in the variability between the two airlines. They wish to conduct the hypothesis test using an
alpha = 0.02. If random samples of 20 flights are selected from each airline, what is the appropriate F
critical value?
a. 3.027
b. 2.938
c. 2.168
d. 2.124
61. A small business owner has two fast food restaurants. The owner wants to determine if there is any
difference in the variability of service times at the drive-thru window of each restaurant. A sample of size
n = 9 is taken from each restaurant’s drive-thru window. To perform a hypothesis test using the 0.05
level of significance the critical value is:
a. 3.438
b. 3.197
c. 4.026
d. 4.433
evaluation of golf equipment to make sure that the equipment satisfies the rules of golf. For example,
they regularly test the golf balls made by the various companies that sell balls in the United States.
Recently, they undertook a study of two brands of golf balls with the objective to see whether there is a
difference in the mean distance that the two golf ball brands will fly off the tee. To conduct the test, the
U.S.G.A. uses a robot named “Iron Byron,” which swings the club at the same speed and with the same
swing pattern each time it is used. The following data reflect sample data for a random sample of balls of
each brand.
Brand A: 234 236 230 227 234 233 228 229 230 238
Brand B: 240 236 241 236 239 243 230 239 243 240
Given this information, what is the test statistic for testing whether the two population variances are
equal?
a. Approximately F = 1.145
b. t = 1.96
c. t = -4.04
71. Which of the following is an assumption for the one-way analysis of variance experimental
design?
a. All populations are normally distributed.

b. The populations have equal variances.
c. The observations are independent.
72. A hotel chain has four hotels in Oregon. The general manager is interested in determining whether
the mean length of stay is the same or different for the four hotels. She selects a random sample of n = 20
guests at each hotel and determines the number of nights they stayed. Assuming that she plans to test this
using an alpha level equal to 0.05, which of the following is the correct critical value?
a. F = 3.04
b. F = 2.76
c. t = 1.9917
d. F = 2.56
using an alpha level equal to 0.05, which of the following is the appropriate alternative hypothesis?
a. H o : 1   2   3   4
b. H o : 1   2   3   4
c. Not all population means are equal.
d. σ1 = σ2 = σ3 = σ4
74. The State Transportation Department is thinking of changing its speed limit signs. They are
considering two new options in addition to the existing sign design. At question is whether the three sign
designs will produce the same mean speed. To test this, the department has conducted a limited test in
which a stretch of roadway was selected. With the original signs up, a random sample of 30 cars was
selected and the speeds were measured. Then, on different days, the two new designs were installed, 30
cars each day were sampled, and their speeds were recorded. Suppose that the following summary
statistics were computed based on the data:
x1  62.1 x 2  58.94 x3  71.2
Based on these sample results and significance level equal to 0.05, what is the critical value for this
hypothesis test?
a. F = approximately 3.15
b. F = approximately 4.90
c. F = approximately 29.47
d. F = approximately 2.70
x1  62.1 x 2  58.94 x3  71.2
The appropriate test to conduct to determine if the population means are equal is:
a. Hartley’s F-max test.

b. one-way analysis of variance
c. three sample t-test.
b. randomized complete block analysis of variance.
x1  62.1 x 2  58.94 x3  71.2

SST = 6016
Based on these sample results and significance level equal to 0.05, the sum of squares between is:
a. approximately 3,586.
b. approximately 2,430.
c. approximately 1,215.
77. In conducting a one-way analysis of variance where the test statistic is less than the critical value,
which of the following is correct.
a. Conclude that the means are not all the same and that that the Tukey-Kramer
procedure should be conducted
b. Conclude that the means are not all the same and that that the Tukey-Kramer
procedure is not needed
c. Conclude that all means are the same and that the Tukey-Kramer procedure should
be conducted
d. Conclude that all means are the same and there is no need to conduct the Tukey-
Kramer procedure.
78. In comparing the average price of gasoline in 4 different cities, it is desired to check the assumption
of equal variances using the Hartley test.
s1 = 0.12 s2 = 0.07 s3 = 0.15 s4 = 0.09
The value of the test statistic for the Hartley test is:
a. 1.25
b. 1.56
c. 2.14
d. 4.59
x1  62.1 x 2  58.94 x3  71.2

SST = 6016
Based on these sample results and a significance level equal to 0.05, assuming that the null hypothesis of
equal means has been rejected, the Tukey-Kramer critical range is:
a. 1.96.
b. approximately 4.0.
c. Can’t be determined without more information.
80. Prior to conducting a one-way analysis of variance test, it is a good idea to test to see whether the
population variances are equal. One method for doing this is to use:

b. an F-test for variances.
c. a chi-square test.
d. the Tukey-Kramer procedure.
81. In a one-way analysis of variance test in which the levels of the factor being analyzed are randomly
selected from a large set of possible factors, the design is referred to as:
a. a fixed-effects design.
b. a random-effects design.
c. an undetermined results design.
d. a balanced design
82. An Internet service provider is interested in testing to see if there is a difference in the mean weekly
connect time for users who come into the service through a dial-up line, DSL, or Cable Internet. To test
this, the ISP has selected random samples from each category of user and recorded the connect time
during a week period. The following data were collected:
Which of the following would be the correct alternative hypotheses for the test to be conducted?
a. H o :1   2   3
b. H o : 1   2   3
d. σ1 = σ2 = σ3 = σ4
Assuming that the test is to be conducted at a 0.01 level of significance, what would the critical value be
for this test?
a. F = 1.93
b. F = 3.555
c. t = 2.8784
d. F = 6.013
84. Assume you are conducting a one-way analysis of variance using a 0.05 level of significance and have
found that the p-value = 0.02. Which of the follow is correct regarding what you can conclude?
a. Do not reject the null hypothesis; the means are all the same
b. Reject the null hypothesis; the means are not all the same
c. Do not reject the null hypothesis; the means are not all the same
d. Reject the null hypothesis; the mean are all the same
Based upon these data and a significance level of 0.05, which of the following statements is true?
a. The F-critical value for the test is 3.555.

b. The test statistic is approximately 43.9.
c. The null hypothesis should be rejected and the mean connect times for the three
user categories are not equal.
86. A fast food chain operation is interested in determining whether the mean per customer purchase
differs by day of the week. To test this, they have selected random samples of customers for each day of
the week. The analysts then ran a one-way analysis of variance generating the following output:
Based upon this output, which of the following statements is true if the test is conducted at the 0.05 level
of significance?
a. The null hypothesis that population means are equal should be rejected.
b. Based upon Hartley’s F-test, we can reject the hypothesis that the population
variances are equal.
c. There is justification for applying the Tukey-Kramer method for multiple
comparisons.
d. The experiment is a balanced design.
the week. The analysts then ran a one-way analysis of variance generating the following output.
of significance?
a. There is no basis for concluding that mean sales is different for the different days of
the week.
b. Based on the p-value, the null hypothesis should be rejected since the p-value
exceeds the alpha level.
c. The experiment is conducted as an imbalanced design.
d. Based on the critical value, the null should be rejected
88. In order for a one-way analysis of variance to be considered a balanced design, which of the
following must hold?
a. The population variances must be equal.

b. The sample sizes selected from each population must be equal.
c. The study must have the same number of rows as it does columns.
89. In a one-way design, which of the following is true?
a. The populations must have equal means.

b. The sample sizes must be equal.
c. The mean squares between will be larger than the mean squares within if the null
hypothesis is rejected.
d. The sample sizes must all differ
90. In a one-way ANOVA, which of the following is true?
a. The degrees of freedom associated with the between sum of squares is equal to one
less than the number of populations.
b. The critical value will be an F-value from the F distribution.
c. If the null hypothesis is rejected, it may still be possible that two or more of the
population means are equal.
91. Which of the following describes a treatment in a randomized complete block analysis of variance?
a. A treatment is a combination of one level of each factor.

b. A treatment is a level associated with each factor of the experiment.
c. A treatment is another term for the data that are collected in the experiment.
d. A treatment is considered to be the analysis that is performed on the sample data.
92. In a randomized complete block design analysis of variance, how many factors are there to be
analyzed?
a. Depends on the sample size in each treatment

b. One factor, but multiple levels
c. Two factors
d. Can’t be determined without additional information.
93. In a randomized complete block design analysis of variance, which of the following correctly
describes the number of degrees of freedom associated with the between sum of squares?
a. One less than the number of populations involved

b. One less than the number of blocks
c. One less than the combined sample size in the experiment
d. One less than the total number of observations
94. A test is conducted to compare three difference income tax software packages, to determine whether
there is any difference in the average time it takes to prepare income tax returns using the three different
software packages. Ten different people’s income tax returns are done by each of the three software
packages and the time is recorded for each. Which of the following is true?
a. The total degrees of freedom is 30.

b. The between blocks degrees of freedom is 2.
c. The between samples degrees of freedom is 2.
d. The three software packages are the blocks.
packages and the time is recorded for each. Assuming that results show that blocking was effective, this
means that:
a. There are significant differences in the average times needed by the 3 different
software packages
b. There are significant differences in the average times needed for the 10 different
people’s tax returns
c. The analysis should be redone using a one-way analysis of variance
d. the randomized complete block was the wrong method to use
96. Recently, a department store chain was interested in determining if there was a difference in the mean
number of customers who enter the three stores in Seattle. The analysts set up a study in which the
number of people entering the stores was counted depending on whether the day of the week was
Saturday, Sunday, or a weekday. The following data were collected:
Given this format, which of the following is true?
a. The day of the week would be considered the blocking factor in the study.
b. There are six treatments.
c. This is a balanced design since the number of rows and columns is equal.
97. Recently, a department store chain was interested in determining if there was a difference in the
mean number of customers who enter the three stores in Seattle. The analysts set up a study in which the
Given this format, what is the null hypothesis for testing whether blocking is effective?
a. H o :  A   B  C
b. H o :  Sat   Sun  Week
c. Not all means are equal.
d. Ho : σ1 = σ2 = σ3
Given this format and testing using an alpha level equal to 0.05, which of the following statements is
true?
a. The total degrees of freedom is 9

b. The between blocks degrees of freedom equals 8
c. The between samples degrees of freedom equals 3
d. The within sample degrees of freedom equals 4
packages and the time is recorded for each. Given this format and testing using an alpha level equal to
0.05, the critical value associated with the primary hypothesis test is:
a. 3.555
b. 2.456
c. 19.385
d. 4.256
100. A major consumer group recently undertook a study to determine whether automobile customers
would rate the quality of cars differently that were manufactured in the U.S., Europe, or Japan. To
conduct this test, a sample of 20 individuals was asked to look at mid-range model cars made in each of
the three countries. The individuals in the sample were then asked to provide a rating for each car on a
scale of 1 to 1000. The following computer output resulted, and the tests were conducted using a
significance level equal to 0.05.
Based upon the data, which of the following statements is true?
a. Blocking was effective.

b. Blocking was not effective.
c. The primary null hypothesis should not be rejected.
d. The averages for the 20 people are not all the same
101. The golf ball manufacturer has three dimple patterns it is interested in analyzing to see whether one
results in longer driving distances. However, they also wish to control for the material the ball is made
from since they believe that it might affect driving distance. Four materials can be used. The following
data represent the results of tests in which each combination of dimple pattern and cover material were
used and the length of the ball hit by a robot has been recorded. The test will be conducted using an alpha
= 0.05 level.
Given these data, which of the following statements is true?
a. There is no basis for concluding that mean driving distance is different for the
different dimple patterns.
b. There is no basis for concluding that mean driving distance is different for the
different cover materials.
c. Both a and b are true.
d. Neither a nor b are true.
= 0.05 level.
Given these data, what is the value of Fisher’s Least Significant Difference critical value?
b. 2.4469
c. About 7.65
103. A large orchard owner in the state of Washington is interested in determining whether the mean
number of bushels of peaches per acre is the same or different depending on the type of tree that is used.
He also thinks that production may be affected by the type of fertilizer that is used. To test, he has set up a
test in which a one-acre plot of peach trees with a combination each of 5 varieties and three fertilizer
types are studied. In this case, the number of treatments is:
a. 5.
b. 3.
c. 15.
d. Can’t be determined without knowing how many trees are planted on each acre.
types are studied. The following data reflect the number of bushels of peaches on each acre plot.
Assuming that the hypothesis tests will be conducted using an alpha equal 0.05 level, which of the
following is true?
a. The total sum of squares is approximately 4,570,900.

b. The grower was justified in controlling for the fertilizer type since the test shows that
blocking was effective.
c. Based on the data, the grower can conclude that there is a difference in mean
production of peaches across the different types of tree.
d. A, b and c are all true.
Assuming that the hypothesis tests will be conducted using an alpha equal 0.05 level, what is the value of
the Fisher’s LSD critical value for doing the multiple comparisons?
b. About 11.30
d. Need to know the number of trees planted on each acre
106. A car company is interested in testing to see whether the mean miles that a car engine will last
without changing oil is the same or different depending on which brand of oil is used. The engineers also
wish to control for the type of transmission (manual or automatic) that is used. To conduct this test, the
car company obtains enough engines so that all four oil brands can be tested in a design that involves no
replication. Based on this information, how many engines will be needed to conduct the test?
a. 4
b. 8
c. One for each oil type
d. One for each factor in the study
packages and the time is recorded for each. The computer results are shown below.
SUMMARY Count Sum Average Variance
1 3 9 3 1
2 3 30 10 1
3 3 12 4 0
4 3 6.5 2.166667 0.583333
5 3 25 8.333333 2.333333
6 3 7 2.333333 1.083333
7 3 10 3.333333 0.333333
8 3 18 6 1
9 3 33.5 11.16667 0.583333
10 3 4.5 1.5 0.25
Software A 10 47.5 4.75 12.95833

Software B 10 47.5 4.75 10.79167
Software C 10 60.5 6.05 13.46944
ANOVA
Source of
Variation SS df MS F P-value F crit
Rows 329.9083 9 36.65648 130.227 1.6E-14 2.456281

Columns 11.26667 2 5.633333 20.01316 2.66E-05 3.554557
Error 5.066667 18 0.281481
Total 346.2417 29
Based on these results and using a 0.05 level of significance which is correct regarding blocking?
a. Blocking was not effective because p = 2.66 is greater than 0.05

b. Blocking was effective because p = 2.66E-5 is less than 0.05
c. Blocking was not effective because p = 1.6 is greater than 0.05
d. Blocking was effective because p = 1.6E-14 is less than 0.05
108. A test is conducted to compare three difference income tax software packages, to determine
whether there is any difference in the average time it takes to prepare income tax returns using the three
different software packages. Ten different people’s income tax returns are done by each of the three
software packages and the time is recorded for each. The computer results are shown below.
1 3 9 3 1
2 3 30 10 1
3 3 12 4 0
4 3 6.5 2.166667 0.583333
5 3 25 8.333333 2.333333
6 3 7 2.333333 1.083333
7 3 10 3.333333 0.333333
8 3 18 6 1
9 3 33.5 11.16667 0.583333
10 3 4.5 1.5 0.25
Software A 10 47.5 4.75 12.95833

Software B 10 47.5 4.75 10.79167
Software C 10 60.5 6.05 13.46944
ANOVA
Source of
Rows 329.9083 9 36.65648 130.227 1.6E-14 2.456281

Columns 11.26667 2 5.633333 20.01316 2.66E-05 3.554557
Error 5.066667 18 0.281481
Total 346.2417 29
Based on these results and using a 0.05 level of significance which is correct regarding the primary
hypothesis?
a. The three software packages are not all the same because p = 1.6E-14 is less than 0.05
b. The three software packages are all the same because p = 1.6 is greater than 0.05
c. The three software packages are not all the same because p = 2.66E-5 is less than 0.05
d. The three software packages are all the same because p = 2.66 is greater than 0.05
1 3 9 3 1
2 3 30 10 1
3 3 12 4 0
4 3 6.5 2.166667 0.583333
5 3 25 8.333333 2.333333
6 3 7 2.333333 1.083333
7 3 10 3.333333 0.333333
8 3 18 6 1
9 3 33.5 11.16667 0.583333
10 3 4.5 1.5 0.25
Software A 10 47.5 4.75 12.95833

Software B 10 47.5 4.75 10.79167
Software C 10 60.5 6.05 13.46944
ANOVA
Source of
Rows 329.9083 9 36.65648 130.227 1.6E-14 2.456281

Columns 11.26667 2 5.633333 20.01316 2.66E-05 3.554557
Error 5.066667 18 0.281481
Total 346.2417 29
Assuming that the hypothesis tests are conducted using a significance level equal to 0.05, the Fisher’s
LSD value for multiple comparisons is:
a. approximately 0.4985
b. about 0.91
c. approximately 1.91
d. about 0.5387
replication. The following data reflect the miles the engine lasted until problems were encountered.
Data are in thousands of miles.
Assuming that the hypothesis tests are conducted using a significance level equal to 0.05, which of the
a. Based on the data, Oil 1 and Oil 3 give statistically more miles on average than do
the other two oils.
b. The type of transmission does seem to have an impact on the mean miles that an
engine will last.
c. The F-critical value for testing whether blocking is effective is 10.128.
111. Which type of ANOVA can include interaction?
a. one-way
b. randomized complete block
c. two-factor
d. all types of ANOVA
112. Which of the following is the minimum number of required replications per cell for a two-factor
ANOVA design if you plan to test for interactive effects between factors A and B?
a. 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 5
113. Considering the following printout from a two-factor ANOVA design, how many levels of factor A
(Sample) were there in this study?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 6
114. Considering the following printout for a two-factor ANOVA design, which of the following is a
proper conclusion to reach?
a. There is no significant interaction between the two factors.

b. The levels of factor A (Sample) have significantly different means.
c. The levels of factor B (Columns) have significantly different means.
d. The total number of observations is 47
115. Considering the following printout for a two-factor ANOVA study, which of the following is the
number of replications used?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 4
116. A national car rental company recently conducted a study recently in which cars with automatic and
standard transmissions (factor A – Sample) were rented to male and female customers (factor B –
Columns). Three customers in each category were randomly selected and the miles driven per day was
recorded as follows:
Based on the design of this study, how many degrees of freedom will be associated with the mean square
for factor A?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 8
Based on these sample data, and alpha = .05, which of the following statements is true?
a. The means for factor A are significantly different.

b. There is no significant interaction between factors A and B.
c. The means for factor B are significantly different.
d. All of the above statements are true.
118. A two factor analysis of variance is conducted to test the effect the price and advertising have on
sales of a particular brand of bottled water. Each week a combination of particular levels of price and
advertising are used and the sales level is recorded. The computer results are shown below.
ANOVA
Source of Variation SS df MS F P-value F crit
Sample
(advertising) 99.73324 1 99.73324 5.251652 0.034201 4.413873
Columns (price) 1150.432 2 575.2161 30.28914 1.74E-06 3.554557
Interaction 1577.526 2 788.7629 41.53387 1.8E-07 3.554557
Within 341.835 18 18.99083
Total 3169.526 23
How many replications were used in this study?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
ANOVA
Sample
(advertising) 99.73324 1 99.73324 5.251652 0.034201 4.413873
Columns (price) 1150.432 2 575.2161 30.28914 1.74E-06 3.554557
Interaction 1577.526 2 788.7629 41.53387 1.8E-07 3.554557
Within 341.835 18 18.99083
Total 3169.526 23
Based on the results above, which of the following is correct?
a. 1 level of advertising and 2 levels of price were used

b. 3 levels of adverting and 2 levels of price were used
c. 2 levels of advertising and 3 levels of price were used
d. There was a total of 6 different treatments
120. A two factor analysis of variance is conducted to test the effect that price and advertising have on
advertising are used and the sales amount is recorded. The computer results are shown below.
ANOVA
Sample
(advertising) 99.73324 1 99.73324 5.251652 0.034201 4.413873
Columns (price) 1150.432 2 575.2161 30.28914 1.74E-06 3.554557
Interaction 1577.526 2 788.7629 41.53387 1.8E-07 3.554557
Within 341.835 18 18.99083
Total 3169.526 23
Based on the results above and a 0.05 level of significance, which of the following is correct?
a. There is no interaction between price and advertising, so results for individual

factors may be misleading
b. There is interaction between price and advertising, so the above results for
individual factors may be misleading
c. There is no interaction between price and advertising, and both factors
significantly affect sales
d. There is interaction between price and advertising, so the above results
conclusively show that both factors affect price
57. If you are interested in testing whether the median of a population is equal to a specific
value, an appropriate test to use is:
a. the Mann-Whitney U test.

b. the t-test.
c. the Wilcoxon signed rank test.
d. the Wilcoxon Matched-Pairs Signed Rank test.
58. Nonparametric statistical tests are used when:
a. the sample sizes are small.

b. we are unwilling to make the assumptions of parametric tests.
c. the standard normal distribution can not be computed.
d. the population parameters are unknown
59. Which of the following is not a step involved in the Wilcoxon signed rank test?
a. Find the deviations from the hypothesized median

b. Rank the deviations
c. Convert the deviations to absolute values
d. Find the deviations from the sample median
60. The Wilcoxon signed rank test is used to test which of the following type of hypotheses?
a. Tests about a single population median

b. Tests involving three or more population medians
c. Tests about the variances of two or more populations
d. Tests about two or more population proportions
61. The General Electric service department believes that the median time for a service call
should be 30 or fewer minutes. To test this, the following random sample of service times was
collected:
Given that the managers do not wish to make the assumption that the population is normally
distributed, the appropriate statistical test for testing about service times is:
a. the t-test.
b. the Kruskal-Wallis test.
c. the Wilcoxon signed rank sum test.
d. the F-test.
collected:
distributed, the critical value for the test about median service times, using a .05 level of
significance, is:
a. 5
b. 40
c. 8
d. 37
collected:
distributed, the test statistic for the Wilcoxon signed rank sum test is:
a. W = 43.0.
b. W = 27.0.
c. W = 18.0.
64. In the finding the critical value for the Wilcoxon signed rank test, what does “n” represent?
a. The number of observations in the sample

b. The number of pairs
c. The number of nonzero deviations
d. The number of positive ranks
65. When the Mann-Whitney U test is performed, which of the following is true?
a. We assume that the populations are normally distributed.
b. We are interested in testing whether the medians from two populations are equal.
c. The data are nominal level.
d. The samples are paired
66. Which of the following is not an assumption of the Mann-Whitney U test?
a. The sample sizes are equal
b. The samples are independent
c. The value measured is continuous
d. The population distributions are the same for shape and spread
67. Consider the situation in which a study was recently conducted to determine whether the
median price of houses is the same in Seattle and Phoenix. The following data were collected.
Given these data, if a Mann-Whitney U test is to be used, the sum of the ranks for Seattle is:
a. 43
b. 35
c. 25.5
d. 40
Given these data, if a Mann-Whitney U test is to be used, the U statistic for Phoenix is:
a. 14
b. 22
c. 35
d. 27
Given these data, if a Mann-Whitney U test is to be used, the U statistic for Seattle is:
a. 45
b. 35
c. 22
d. 14
Given these data, if a Mann-Whitney U test is to be used, the test statistic is:
a. 22
b. 14
c. approximately 1.96.
d. 34
71. Under what circumstances should the standard normal distribution be used when employing
the Mann-Whitney U test?
a. When the sample sizes are equal from the two populations.
b. When the sample sizes are greater than 20.
c. When the populations are normally distributed.
d. You would never use the standard normal distribution.
72. Consider the situation in which a human resources manager wishes to determine whether the
median number of days of sick leave per year is the same for female employees as for male
employees. The following data represent random samples of males and females:
If the manager is unwilling to assume that the populations are normally distributed, which of the
following would be the appropriate null hypothesis to be tested?
a. H o :   0
b. H o : ~  0
c. H o :  1   2
d. H o : ~1  ~ 2
73. Assume you are conducting a two-tailed Mann Whitney U test for a small sample and have
found that U1 = 58 and U2 = 86. What is the value of the test statistic?
a. 58
b. 86
c. 72
d. 144
median number of days of sick leave per year is greater for female employees than for male
following is the correct conclusion to reach if the test is conducted using a .05 level of
significance?
a. Reject the null hypothesis.

b. Conclude that females do have a higher median than males.
c. Do not reject the null hypothesis.
d. Conclude that males have a higher median than females.
75. In a large sample Mann-Whitney U test in which the sample size from the first population is
30 and the sample size from the second population is 40, which of the following is the expected
U value if the null hypothesis of equal median values is true?
a. 1,200
b. 70
c. 35
d. 600
76. Recently, a legislative committee commissioned a study of incomes in a western state. At
issue was whether the ratings of the legislature’s performance differed between rural citizens
and city residents. A random sample of 25 city residents and 35 rural residents was asked to rate
the performance of the legislature on a scale of 1 to 100. The analysts believe that the population
distribution of ratings would be highly skewed so they decided to use the Mann-Whiney U test to
test whether there is a difference in median ratings by the two groups. Given this information,
which of the following is the correct critical value if the test is to be conducted at the .10 level of
significance?
a. z = 1.96
b. t = 2.0357
c. U = 437.5
d. z = 1.645
77. Assume that you are conducting a small sample Mann-Whitney U test where n1 = 14 and n2
= 16 and that U1 = 98. Assuming that U1 has been found correctly, what is the value of U2?
a. 112
b. 126
c. 224
d. Insufficient information to determine U2
78. If we wish to test whether two related populations have equal medians, an appropriate
nonparametric test to use is:

d. the Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed rank test.
79. If a two-tailed Wilcoxon Matched-Pairs Signed Rank test is conducted for a sample of n = 8
and an alpha level equal to .05, the critical value is:
a. 4.
b. 1.96.
c. 30.
d. 2
80. The Mann-Whitney U test assumes that the 2 samples are:
a. equal in size.
b. independent and random.
c. matched or paired.
81. The Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed rank test assumes that the two samples are:
a. equal in size
b. independent and random
c. paired
d. both a and c
82. When employing a small sample Mann-Whitney U test for a two-tailed test, which of the following is
true?
a. The sample sizes need to be equal.
b. Select as the test statistic the smaller of the two U values.
c. Select either of the U values to be the test statistic.
d. The alpha level should be doubled.
83. If a Mann-Whitney U test was performed and U1 = 50 and U2 = 40, if the sample from population 1
was 10, the sample size from population 2 was:
a. 10.
b. 15.
c. 9.
84. In conducting a Kruskal-Wallis one-way analysis of variance, the test statistic is assumed have
approximately which distribution when the null hypothesis is true?
a. A t-distribution
b. An F-distribution
c. A normal distribution
d. A chi-square distribution
85. Which of the following is not an assumption of the Kruskal-Wallis one-way analysis of variance?
a. Variables have a continuous distribution
b. Samples are independent
c. Sample sizes are equal for all populations
d. Population distributions are identical except for possible differences in center
86. The Kruskal-Wallis test is usually limited to comparing sample values from _________ or more
populations.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
87. In a Kruskal-Wallis test when ties occur, each observation is given the _____________ for which it is
tied.
a. highest rank
b. lowest rank
c. mean rank
d. median rank
88. Assume that 4 populations are to be compared using a Kruskal-Wallis one-way analysis of variance.
What is the critical value using a 0.05 level of significance?
a. 5.9915
b. 6.2514
c. 7.8147
d. 9.4877
89. Assume that a Kruskal-Wallis test is being conducted to determine whether or not the
medians of three populations are equal. The sum of rankings and the sample size for each group
are below.
Group 1 Group 2 Group 3
R1 = 60 R2 = 36 R3 = 24
n1 = 6 n2 = 5 n3 = 4
What is the value of the test statistic?
a. 7.8147
b. 2.16
c. 48.68
d. 12.59
are below.
R1 = 60 R2 = 36 R3 = 24
n1 = 6 n2 = 5 n3 = 4
What is the critical value for this test using a 0.10 level of significance ?
a. 6.2514
b. 5.9915
c. 7.8147
d. 4.6052
91. If we are interested in testing to determine whether the center of three or more populations is equal
when the data in the samples are ordinal, what is the appropriate test to conduct?
a. A t-test
b. An ANOVA
c. A Kruskal-Wallis
d. A Wilcoxon Matched-Pairs Sign Rank test

92. A survey was recently conducted in which random samples of car owners of Chrysler, GM,
and Ford cars were surveyed to determine their satisfaction. Each owner was asked to rate
overall satisfaction on a scale of 1 (poor) to 1000 (excellent). The following data were recorded:
If the analysts are not willing to assume that the population ratings are normally distributed and
will use the Kruskal-Wallis test to determine if the three companies have different median
ratings, which company has the smallest sum of ranks?
a. Chrysler
b. GM
c. Ford
d. All three are equal.
ratings, what is the appropriate critical value if the test is to be conducted using an alpha = .05
level?
a. F = 5.05
b.  2 = 5.99
c.  2 = 24.99
d. F = 3.67
ratings, what is correct test statistic for these data?
a. H = 1.965
b. t = 1.96
c. H = 3.34
d. H = .65
ratings, what is the correct conclusion if the test is to be conducted using an alpha = .05 level?
a. H0 should be rejected and we conclude that there is no significant difference between

the 3 companies.
b. H0 should not be rejected and we conclude that there is no significant difference

between the 3 companies.
c. H0 should be rejected and we conclude that there is a significant difference between

the 3 companies.
d. H0 should not be rejected and we conclude that there is a significant difference

Inference
Unbiased
Efficient
Sufficient
None of These
Type-I Error
Type-II Error
None of the Above
Unbiased Estimators
Complete Statistics
Run Test
Sign Test
Median Test
Page’s Test
Bartlett’s Test
F-test
χ2χ2-test
t-test
Decreases
Remains the Same
Increases
All of the Above
Samples
A Formula
None of these
None of these
9. An estimator TnTn is said to be a sufficient statistic for a parameter function τ(θ)τ(θ) if it contained
all the information which is contained in the
Population
Sample
None of these
None of These
Necessary
Sufficient
None of these
Bartlett’s Test
F-test
t-test
Normal Equations
Intrinsic Equations
All of the Above

a) All Constants of a Population

b) Only Mean and Variance of a Distribution
c) All Moments of a Population Distribution
d) All of the Above
a) Interval Scale
b) Ratio Scale
c) Ordinal Scale
d) Nominal Scale
17. If the sample average x¯¯¯x¯ is an estimate of the population mean μμ, then x¯¯¯x¯ is:
18. For a particular hypothesis test, α=0.05α=0.05, and β=0.10β=0.10. The power of this test is:
0.15
0.90
0.85
0.95

b. If the population mean and population standard deviation are both known, one can make probability
statements about individual x values taken from the population
limit theorem and make probability statements about the means of samples taken from the population
Answer: E
e. none of the above statements are correct Answer: C
e. a number which can be used to estimate a point in time which is unknown Answer: C
parameter
e. none of the statements above are correct Answer: A
stimate plus or minus a specific level of confidence
parameter
e. an interval used to infer something about an unknown sample statistic value Answer: B
e. the level of significance Answer: C
a. become narrower
b. remain the same
c. become wider
d. double in size
e. most likely no longer include the true value of the population mean Answer: A
a. become narrower
b. remain the same
c. become wider
d. double in size
e. most likely no longer include the true value of the population mean Answer: C
refer to?
e. the area in the lower tail or upper tail of the sampling distribution of the sample mean Answer: E
e. the more the width of the confidence interval remains the same Answer: D
b. A 90% confidence interval for the population mean is narrower than a 95% confidence interval for the
population mean
e. Significance levels Answer: D
14. What value of z would you use to calculate the 80% confidence interval for a population mean, given
that you know the population standard deviation, the sample size and the sample mean of your sample?
a. z = 1.96
b. z = 2.58
c. z = 0.84
d. z = 1.28
e. z = 1.645 Answer: D
a. The sample mean from which the interval is constructed is located half way between the boundaries
of the confidence interval
e. The width of the interval increases when the confidence level is increased Answer:D
e. Decrease the sample size Answer: B
a. has no variance
e. may not be consistent Answer: D
18. A federal auditor for nationally chartered banks from a random sample of 100 accounts found that
the average demand deposit balance at the First National Bank of a small town was R549.82. If the
auditor needed a point estimate for the population mean for all accounts at this bank, what would she
use?

e. The mean would be impossible to calculate without further information Answer: A
19. which one of the statements below is correct?
a. If the significance level is equal to 0.1, it implies that we are 10% confident that the population mean
will lie between the confidence limits
d. A 90% confidence interval for the population mean is narrower than a 95% confidence interval for the
population mean
e. Increasing the significance level increases the width of the confidence interval Answer: D
a. 34.35 to 35.05kg
b. 35.85 to 36.55kg
c. 34.21 to 35.19kg
d. 34.48 to 34.92kg
e. 37.75 to 38.45kg Answer: A
a. 34.35 to 35.05kg
b. 35.85 to 36.55kg
c. 34.21 to 35.19kg
d. 34.48 to 34.92kg
e. 37.75 to 38.45kg Answer: B

a. 34.35 to 35.05kg
b. 35.85 to 36.55kg
c. 34.21 to 35.19kg Answer:C
a. 34.35 to 35.05kg
b. 35.85 to 36.55kg
c. 34.21 to 35.19kg
d. 34.48 to 34.92kg
e. 37.75 to 38.45kg Answer: D
a. 34.35 to 35.05kg
b. 35.85 to 36.55kg
c. 34.21 to 35.19kg
d. 34.48 to 34.92kg
e. 37.75 to 38.45kg Answer: E
portfolio managers, where the sample mean time spent on research is found to be 2.5 hours.
n standard deviation is 1.5 hours. What is the 99% confidence interval for the population mean time
a. (2.02, 2.98)
b. (2.22, 3.18)
c. (1.86, 3.14)
d. (2.11, 2.89)
e. (1.82, 2.78) Answer: A
a. (2.02, 2.98)
b. (2.22, 3.18)
c. (1.86, 3.14)
d. (2.11, 2.89)
e. (1.82, 2.78) Answer: B
population standard deviation is 2 hours. What is the 99% confidence interval for the population mean
a. (2.02, 2.98)
b. (2.22, 3.18)
c. (1.86, 3.14)
d. (2.11, 2.89)
a. (2.02, 2.98)
b. (2.22, 3.18)
c. (1.86, 3.14)
d. (2.11, 2.89)
e. (1.82, 2.78) Answer: D

a. (2.02, 2.98)
b. (2.22, 3.18)
c. (1.86, 3.14)
d. (2.11, 2.89)
e. (1.82, 2.78) Answer: E
larger, and with this sample finds a sample mean of 632mg of lead per litre. e interval for the mean lead
content per litre of waste water produced by her company then is:
a. (630.25, 633.75)
b. (639.25, 642.75)
c. (629.81, 634.19)
d. (630.04, 633.96)
e. (630.69, 633.31) Answer: A
a. (630.25, 633.75)
b. (639.25, 642.75)
c. (629.81, 634.19)
d. (630.04, 633.96)
e. (630.69, 633.31) Answer: B
a. (630.25, 633.75)
b. (639.25, 642.75)
c. (629.81, 634.19)
d. (630.04, 633.96)
e. (630.69, 633.31) Answer: C
a. (630.25, 633.75)
b. (639.25, 642.75)
c. (629.81, 634.19)
d. (630.04, 633.96)
e. (630.69, 633.31) Answer: D
a. (630.25, 633.75)
b. (639.25, 642.75)
c. (629.81, 634.19)
d. (630.04, 633.96)
e. (630.69, 633.31)
a. (7.55, 9.65)
b. (8.15, 10.25)
c. (7.49, 9.71)
d. (7.43, 9.77)
e. (7.68, 9.52) Answer: A
a. (7.55, 9.65)
b. (8.15, 10.25)
c. (7.49, 9.71)
d. (7.43, 9.77)
e. (7.68, 9.52) Answer: B
a. (7.55, 9.65)
b. (8.15, 10.25)
c. (7.49, 9.71)
d. (7.43, 9.77)
e. (7.68, 9.52) Answer: C
a. (7.55, 9.65)
b. (8.15, 10.25)
c. (7.49, 9.71)
d. (7.43, 9.77)
e. (7.68, 9.52) Answer: D
a. (7.55, 9.65)
b. (8.15, 10.25)
c. (7.49, 9.71)
d. (7.43, 9.77)
e. (7.68, 9.52) Answer: E
a. 63.14 to 85.26
b. 65.18 to 83.22
c. 65.63 to 82.77
d. 64.14 to 84.26
e. 68.14 to 80.26 Answer: A
a. 63.14 to 85.26
b. 65.18 to 83.22
c. 65.63 to 82.77
d. 64.14 to 84.26
e. 68.14 to 80.26 Answer: B
a. 63.14 to 85.26
b. 65.18 to 83.22
c. 65.63 to 82.77
d. 64.14 to 84.26
e. 68.14 to 80.26 Answer: C
a. 63.14 to 85.26
b. 65.18 to 83.22
c. 65.63 to 82.77
d. 64.14 to 84.26
e. 68.14 to 80.26 Answer: D
standard deviation of 30.9. A 95% confidence interval estimate if your class has 100 students is and a
sample mean mark of 74.2:
a. 63.14 to 85.26
b. 65.18 to 83.22
c. 65.63 to 82.77
d. 64.14 to 84.26
e. 68.14 to 80.26 Answer: E
a. R15364
b. R15328
c. R15347
d. R15382
e. R15332 Answer: A
a. R15364
b. R15328
c. R15347
d. R15382
e. R15332 Answer: B
a. R15364
b. R15328
c. R15347
d. R15382
e. R15332 Answer: C
a. R15364
b. R15328
c. R15347
d. R15382
e. R15332 Answer: D
a. R15364
b. R15328
c. R15347
d. R15382
e. R15332 Answer: E
a. 178.20cm
b. 179.24cm
c. 177.38cm
d. 178.42cm
e. 176.58cm Answer: A
a. 178.20cm
b. 179.24cm
c. 177.38cm
d. 178.42cm
e. 176.58cm Answer: B
a. 178.20cm
b. 179.24cm
c. 177.38cm
d. 178.42cm
e. 176.58cm Answer: C
a. 178.20cm
b. 179.24cm
c. 177.38cm
d. 178.42cm
e. 176.58cm Answer: D
a. 178.20cm
b. 179.24cm
c. 177.38cm
d. 178.42cm
e. 176.58cm Answer: E
a. 5.0
b. 3.6
c. 4.5
d. 2.7
e. 3.4 Answer: A
a. 5.0
b. 3.6
c. 4.5
d. 2.7
e. 3.4 Answer: B
confidence interval for the mean height of men in the province is found to be (176.50 cm ; 178.26cm).
a. 5.0
b. 3.6
c. 4.5
d. 2.7
e. 3.4 Answer: C
a. 5.0
b. 3.6
c. 4.5
d. 2.7
e. 3.4 Answer: D
a. 5.0
b. 3.6
c. 4.5
d. 2.7
e. 3.4 Answer: E
a. 66.15
b. 65.83
c. 65.35
d. 67.01
e. 66.87 Answer: A
a. 66.15
b. 65.83
c. 65.35
d. 67.01
e. 66.87 Answer: B
a. 66.15
b. 65.83
c. 65.35
d. 67.01
e. 66.87 Answer: C
a. 66.15
b. 65.83
c. 65.35
d. 67.01
e. 66.87 Answer: D
a. 66.15
b. 65.83
c. 65.35
d. 67.01
e. 66.87 Answer: E
a. 16.89
b. 11.68
c. 16.33
d. 11.35
e. 7.86 Answer: A
a. 16.89
b. 11.68
c. 16.33
d. 11.35
e. 7.86 Answer: B
a. 16.89
b. 11.68
c. 16.33
d. 11.35
e. 7.86 Answer: C
a. 16.89
b. 11.68
c. 16.33
d. 11.35
e. 7.86 Answer: D
a. 16.89
b. 11.68
c. 16.33
d. 11.35
e. 7.86 Answer: E
a. 60.92 ± 2.14
b. 50.92 ± 12.14
c. 101.84 ± 4.28
d. 101.94 ± 12.14
e. 50.92 ± 4.28 Answer: E
a. 60.92 ± 2.14
b. 50.92 ± 5.60
c. 101.84 ± 4.28
d. 101.94 ± 12.14
e. 50.92 ± 4.28 Answer: B
72. In developing a confidence interval for a population mean, a sample of 50 observations was used.
The confidence interval was 19.76 ± 1.32. Had the sample size been 200 instead of 50, what would the
interval estimate have been?
a. 19.76 ± 0.66
b. 19.76 ± 0.33
c. 19.76 ± 2.64
d. 19.76 ± 5.28
e. 39.52 ± 1.32 Answer: A
a. 62
b. 97
c. 110
d. 30
e. 40 Answer: A
a. 62
b. 97
c. 110
d. 30
e. 40 Answer: B
a. 62
b. 97
c. 110
d. 30
e. 40 Answer: C
a. 62
b. 97
c. 110
d. 30
e. 40 Answer: D
a. 62
b. 97
c. 110
d. 30
e. 40 Answer: E
a. 0.71kg
b. 0.36kg
c. 0.98kg
d. 0.45kg
e. 0.90kg Answer: A
a. 0.71kg
b. 0.36kg
c. 0.98kg
d. 0.45kg
e. 0.90kg Answer: A
a. 0.71kg
b. 0.36kg
c. 0.98kg
d. 0.45kg
e. 0.90kg Answer: C
a. 0.71kg
b. 0.36kg
c. 0.98kg
d. 0.45kg
e. 0.90kg Answer: D
a. 0.71kg
b. 0.36kg
c. 0.98kg
d. 0.45kg
e. 0.90kg Answer: A
a. 0.48
b. 0.96
c. 0.64
d. 0.39
e. 0.78 Answer: A
a. 0.48
b. 0.96
c. 0.64
d. 0.39
e. 0.78 Answer: A
population standard deviation is 2 hours. What is the half-width (from the middle of the confidence
a. 0.48
b. 0.96
c. 0.64
d. 0.39
e. 0.78 Answer: C
a. 0.48
b. 0.96
c. 0.64
d. 0.39
e. 0.78 Answer: D
a. 0.48
b. 0.96
c. 0.64
d. 0.39
e. 0.78 Answer: A
a. 4.9
b. 6.6
c. 3.9
d. 3.3
e. 5.6 Answer: A
a. 4.9
b. 6.6
c. 3.9
d. 3.3
e. 5.6 Answer: B
sample of size 100 is selected from this population and the sample mean calculated as 45.23. What is
the total width of a 90% confidence interval for the true population mean in this case?
a. 4.9
b. 6.6
c. 3.9
d. 3.3
e. 5.6 Answer: C
a. 4.9
b. 6.6
c. 3.9
d. 3.3
e. 5.6 Answer: D
a. 4.9
b. 6.6
c. 3.9
d. 3.3
e. 5.6 Answer: E
a. 465
b. 419
c. 444
d. 489
e. 425 Answer: A
a. 465
b. 419
c. 444
d. 489
e. 425 Answer: B
a. 465
b. 419
c. 444
d. 489
e. 425 Answer: C
a. 465
b. 419
c. 444
d. 489
e. 425 Answer: D
a. 465
b. 419
c. 444
d. 489
e. 42 Answer: E
a. 23
b. 43
c. 13
d. 28
e. 18 Answer: A
a. 23
b. 43
c. 13
d. 28
e. 18 Answer: B
a. 23
b. 43
c. 13
d. 28
e. 18 Answer: C
a. 23
b. 43
c. 13
d. 28
e. 18 Answer: D
a. 23
b. 43
c. 13
d. 28
e. 18 Answer: E
a. 1537
b. 865
c. 385
d. 2401
e. 97 Answer: A
a. 1537
b. 865
c. 385
d. 2401
e. 97 Answer: B
a. 1537
b. 865
c. 385
d. 2401
e. 97 Answer: C
a. 1537
b. 865
c. 385
d. 2401
e. 97 Answer: D
a. 1537
b. 865
c. 385
d. 2401
e. 97 Answer: E
a. 43
b. 35
c. 97
d. 52
e. 25 Answer: A
a. 43
b. 35
c. 97
d. 52
e. 25 Answer: B
a. 43
b. 35
c. 97
d. 52
e. 25 Answer: C
a. 43
b. 35
c. 97
d. 52
e. 25 Answer: D
a. 43
b. 35
c. 97
d. 52
e. 25 Answer: E
population mean?
a. 25
b. 62
c. 11
d. 35
e. 97 Answer: A
a. 25
b. 62
c. 11
d. 35
e. 97 Answer: B
a. 25
b. 62
c. 11
d. 35
e. 97 Answer: C
population mean?
a. 25
b. 62
c. 11
d. 35
e. 97 Answer: D
should be selected if a 95% confidence interval for the mean is to be calculated to within 1 unit of the
a. 25
b. 62
c. 11
d. 35
e. 97 Answer: E
a. 9
b. 14
c. 6
d. 35
e. 25 Answer: A
a. 9
b. 14
c. 6
d. 35
e. 25 Answer: B
a. 9
b. 14
c. 6
d. 35
e. 25 Answer: C
a. 9
b. 14
c. 6
d. 35
e. 25 Answer: D
a. 9
b. 14
c. 6
d. 35
e. 25 Answer: E
Question 1
A sample from the population does not have to share the same characteristics as the population
a) True
b) False
Question 2
a) True
b) False
Question 3
With the non-probability sampling methods you do not know the likelihood that any element of a
population will be selected in a sample
a) True
b) False
Question 4
Question 5
MCQ: The range or set of values which have chances to contain value of population parameter with
particular condence level is considered as
A. secondary interval estimation
B. condence interval estimate
C. population interval estimate
D. sample interval estimate Answer
MCQ: The upper and lower boundaries of interval of condence are classied as
A. error biased limits
B. marginal limits
C. estimate limits
D. condence limits Answer
MCQ: For a parameter whose value is unknown, the belief or claim for that parameter is classied as
A. parameter claim testing
B. expected belief testing
C. hypothesis testing
D. primary limit testing

MCQ: If the standard deviation of population 1 is 3 with sample size is 8 and the population 2 standard
deviation is 5 with sample size is 7 then the standard deviation of sampling distribution is
A. 4.044
B. 3.044
C. 1.044
D. 2.044
MCQ: Considering the sample statistic, if the mean of sampling distribution is equal to population mean
then the sample statistic is classied as
A. unbiased estimator
B. biased estimator
C. interval estimator
D. hypothesis estimator
MCQ: The parameters of population are denoted by the
A. roman letters
B. lower case Greek letter
C. upper case Greek letter
D. associated roman alphabets Answer
MCQ: The unknown or exact value that represents the whole population is classied as
A. parameters
B. estimators
C. absolute statistics
D. coverage estimator Answer
MCQ: The methods in statistics that uses sample statistics to estimate the parameters of the population
are considered as
A. inferential statistics
B. absolute statistics
C. coverage statistics
D. random sample statistics Answer
MCQ: The measures in sampling that are results of sample analyses are called
A. absolute statistics parameter

B. coverage estimators
C. population statistics
D. sample statistic Answer
MCQ: In sampling, the measures such as variance, mean, standard deviation are considered as
A. absolute statistics
B. coverage estimator
C. parameters
D. estimators Answer
What is the best description of a point estimate?
 any value from the sample used to estimate a parameter

 a sample statistic used to estimate a parameter
 the margin of error used to estimate a parameter
Which best describes the lower endpoint of a confidence interval?
 point estimate
Which best describes the upper endpoint of a confidence interval?
 point estimate
Which value will be at the center of a confidence interval?
 population parameter
 point estimate
 margin of error
What is the relationship between a 95 confidence interval and a 99 confidence interval

from the same sample

 both intervals have the same width
as a
B) Sample Parameter
C) Sample Statistic
D) Population Mean
Answer: C
D) Both A and B
Answer: D
into
B) Serial Tools
Answer: A
B) Roman Letters
Answer: B
Answer: A
known as:
Answer: C
Answer: C
Answer: B
considered as
B) Goodness Scale
C) Ratio Scale
Answer: C
Answer: D
To test the hypothesis H 0: μ 1 = μ 2, the sampling distribution is the set of values for


 μ1‐μ2
If the hypothesis H 0: μ 1 = μ 2 is true , the center of the sampling distribution is
 –1
 0
 1
To construct a confidence interval for μ 1 – μ 2, the best point estimate is
 0


If Z1 and Z2 are 2 independent standard normal random variables, then the characteristic function of
(Z1+Z2) is:
A. ? Exp(-t)
B. ? Exp(-2t)
C. ? Exp(-t/2)
D. ? None of the above
E. The "Risk" associated with any decision rule is:
A. ? The expected loss, where the expectation is taken with respect to the uncertainty
associated with the parameters
F. If the loss function is quadratic, then:
A. ? The risk of a scalar estimator is just its variance
G. If an estimator is "inadmissible", then:
A. ? There is at least one other estimator whose loss is less than or equal to the loss of
parameter space
B. ? There is at least one other estimator whose risk is less than or equal to the risk of
parameter space.
C. ? There is at least one other estimator whose risk is strictly less than the risk of this
estimator everywhere in the parameter space
D. ? It cannot be weakly consistent
H. If an estimator is "Mini-Max", then:
A. ? It must be admissible
B. ? It cannot be admissible
C. ? It may be admissible or inadmissible
D. ? Its risk function must "cross" the risk function of at least one other estimatar
I. If an scalar statistic is "sufficient", then:
A. ? It will be an admissible estimator of the population parameter
B. ? It will be an efficient estimator of the population parameter
C. ? It will be an unbiased estimator of the population parameter
D. ? It contains all of the sample information that is needed to estimate the population
parameter
J. The Newton-Raphson algorithm:

A. ? May yield multiple solutions, all of which will be local maxima, and one of which will
be the global maximum
B. ? May yield multiple solutions. some of which relate to local maxima and some of
which relate to local minima
C. ? Will always converge to a global extremum in a finite number of iterations
D. ? Will converge in 3 steps if the underlying function is a cubic polynomial
K. The "Invariance" property of MLE's implies that:
A. ? Their variance approaches zero as the sample size increases without limit
B. ? Their variance achieves the Cramer-Rao lower bound
C. ? Any monotonic function of an MLE is the MLE for that function of the parameter(s)
D. ? Any continuous function of an MLE is the MLE for that function of the parameter(s)
L. If X follows a uniform distribution on [0 , 1], and Y = 5X, then:
A. ? The Jacobian for the mapping from X to Y is 0.2, and Y is uniform on [0 , 5]
B. ? The Jacobian for the mapping from X to Y is 5, and Y is uniform on [0 , 0.2]
C. ? The Jacobian for the mapping from X to Y is 0.2, and Y is uniform on [0 , 0.2]
D. ? The Jacobian for the mapping from X to Y is 5, and Y is uniform on [0 , 5]
M. When we evaluate the Jacobian associated with a transformation from one probability distribution
to another:
A. ? We use the absolute value because a density function cannot take negative values
B. ? We must be dealing with scalar random variables, not random vectors
C. ? The intention is make sure that the support of the new random variable is the full
real line
D. ? The intention is make sure that the support of the new random variable is the
positive half of the real line
N. If our random data are statistically independent, then:
A. ? The likelihood function is just the sum of the marginal data densities, viewed as a
function of the parameter(s)
B. ? The log-likelihood function is just the product of the logarithms of the marginal data
C. ? The log-likelihood function is just the sum of the logarithms of the marginal data
D. ? The likelihood function will have a unique turning point, and this will be a maximum
(not a minimum) if the sample size is large enough
O. The "Likelihood Equations" are:
A. ? The same as the "normal equations" associated with least squares estimation of the
multiple linear regression model
B. ? Guaranteed to have a unique solution if the sample data are independent
C. ? Obtained by getting the second derivatives of the log-likelihood function with respect
to each of the parameters, and setting these equal to zero
D. ? The first-order conditions that we have to solve in order to maximize the likelihood
function
P. When we "concentrate" the likelihood function, the objective is to:
A. ? Focus attention on just the important parameters by conditioning on the 'nuisance

parameters' in the problem
B. ? Reduce the dimension of that part of the optimization problem that has to be solved
numerically
C. ? Take a monotonic transformation of the likelihood function so that it is easier to find

the global maximum
D. ? Convert what would be a non-linear optimization problem into one that is

approximately linear
Q. Suppose that Y follows a Binomial distribution with parameter 'p' equal to the probability of a
'success', and 'n' repetitions. Then the MLE of the standard deviation of Y is:
a) ? The square root of np(1-p)
b) ? The square root of y(n-y)/n, where y is the observed number of 'successes' in the
sample
c) ? The square root of n(y-n)/y, where y is the observed number of 'successes' in the
sample
d) ? The square root of ny, where y is the observed number of 'successes' in the sample
R. The connection between a sufficient statistic and an MLE is:
a) ? A sufficient statistic is always an MLE
b) ? There is no connection in general
c) ? All MLE's are linear combinations of sufficient statistics
d) ? If an MLE is unique, then it must be a function of a sufficient statistic
1) Which of the following assumptions are required to show the consistency, unbiasedness and
i) E(ut) = 0
ii) Var(ut) = σ2
iii) Cov(ut, ut-j) = 0 ∀ j
iv) ut~N(0, σ2)
2) Which of the following may be consequences of one or more of the CLRM assumptions being
violated?
i) The coefficient estimates are not optimal

ii) The standard error estimates are not optimal
iii) The distributions assumed for the test statistics are inappropriate
iv) Conclusions regarding the strength of relationships between the dependent and independent
variables may be invalid.
3) What is the meaning of the term "heteroscedasticity"?
a) The variance of the errors is not constant
b) The variance of the dependent variable is not constant
c) The errors are not linearly independent of one another
d) The errors have non-zero mean
For questions 4 and 5, consider the following regression model
4) Suppose that a researcher is interested in conducting White's heteroscedasticity test using the
residuals from an estimation of (2). What would be the most appropriate form for the auxiliary
regression?
a)
b)
c)
d)
5) Suppose that model (2) is estimated using 100 quarterly observations, and that a test of the type
described in question 4 is conducted. What would be the appropriate χ2 critical value with which to
compare the test statistic, assuming a 10% size of test?
a) 2.71
b) 118.50
c) 11.07
d) 9.24
6) What would be then consequences for the OLS estimator if heteroscedasticity is present in a
regression model but ignored?
a) It will be biased
b) It will be inconsistent
c) It will be inefficient
d) All of (a), (b) and (c) will be true.
7) Which of the following are plausible approaches to dealing with a model that exhibits
heteroscedasticity?
ii) Use suitably modified standard errors
iii) Use a generalised least squares procedure
iv) Add lagged values of the variables to the regression equation.
8) Negative residual autocorrelation is indicated by which one of the following?
a) A cyclical pattern in the residuals
b) An alternating pattern in the residuals
c) A complete randomness in the residuals
d) Residuals that are all close to zero
9) Which of the following could be used as a test for autocorrelation up to third order?
a) The Durbin Watson test
b) White's test
c) The RESET test
d) The Breusch-Godfrey test
10) If a Durbin Watson statistic takes a value close to zero, what will be the value of the first order
autocorrelation coefficient?
a) Close to zero
b) Close to plus one

c) Close to minus one
d) Close to either minus one or plus one
11) Suppose that the Durbin Watson test is applied to a regression containing two explanatory variables
plus a constant (e.g. equation 2 above) with 50 data points. The test statistic takes a value of 1.53. What
is the appropriate conclusion?
a) Residuals appear to be positively autocorrelated
b) Residuals appear to be negatively autocorrelated
c) Residuals appear not to be autocorrelated
d) The test result is inconclusive
12) Suppose that a researcher wishes to test for autocorrelation using an approach based on an auxiliary
regression. Which one of the following auxiliary regressions would be most appropriate?
a)
b)
c)
d)
13) If OLS is used in the presence of autocorrelation, which of the following will be likely consequences?
i) Coefficient estimates may be misleading
ii) Hypothesis tests could reach the wrong conclusions
iii) Forecasts made from the model could be biased
iv) Standard errors may inappropriate
14) Which of the following are plausible approaches to dealing with residual autocorrelation?
ii) Add lagged values of the variables to the regression equation

iii) Use dummy variables to remove outlying observations
iv) Try a model in first differenced form rather than in levels.
15) Which of the following could result in autocorrelated residuals?
i) Slowness of response of the dependent variable to changes in the values of the independent variables
ii) Over-reactions of the dependent variable to changes in the independent variables
iii) Omission of relevant explanatory variables that are autocorrelated
iv) Outliers in the data
16) Including relevant lagged values of the dependent variable on the right hand side of a regression
equation could lead to which one of the following?
a) Biased but consistent coefficient estimates
b) Biased and inconsistent coefficient estimates
c) Unbiased but inconsistent coefficient estimates
d) Unbiased and consistent but inefficient coefficient estimates.
17) Near multicollinearity occurs when
a) Two or more explanatory variables are perfectly correlated with one another
b) The explanatory variables are highly correlated with the error term
c) The explanatory variables are highly correlated with the dependent variable
d) Two or more explanatory variables are highly correlated with one another
18) Which one of the following is NOT a plausible remedy for near multicollinearity?
a) Use principal components analysis

b) Drop one of the collinear variables
c) Use a longer run of data
d) Take logarithms of each of the variables
19) What will be the properties of the OLS estimator in the presence of multicollinearity?
a) It will be consistent, unbiased and efficient
b) It will be consistent and unbiased but not efficient
c) It will be consistent but not unbiased
d) It will not be consistent
20) Which one of the following is NOT an example of mis-specification of functional form?
a) Using a linear specification when y scales as a function of the squares of x
b) Using a linear specification when a double-logarithmic model would be more

appropriate
c) Modelling y as a function of x when in fact it scales as a function of 1/x
d) Excluding a relevant variable from a linear regression model
21) If the residuals from a regression estimated using a small sample of data are not normally
distributed, which one of the following consequences may arise?
a) The coefficient estimates will be unbiased but inconsistent
b) The coefficient estimates will be biased but consistent
c) The coefficient estimates will be biased and inconsistent
d) Test statistics concerning the parameters will not follow their assumed distributions.
22) A leptokurtic distribution is one which
a) Has fatter tails and a smaller mean than a normal distribution with the same mean and
variance
b) Has fatter tails and is more peaked at the mean than a normal distribution with the
c) Has thinner tails and is more peaked at the mean than a normal distribution with the
d) Has thinner tails than a normal distribution and is skewed.
23) Under the null hypothesis of a Bera-Jarque test, the distribution has
a) Zero skewness and zero kurtosis
b) Zero skewness and a kurtosis of three
c) Skewness of one and zero kurtosis
d) Skewness of one and kurtosis of three.
24) Which one of the following would be a plausible response to a finding of residual non-normality?
a) Use a logarithmic functional form instead of a linear one
b) Add lags of the variables on the right hand side of the regression model
c) Estimate the model in first differenced form
d) Remove any large outliers from the data.
25) A researcher tests for structural stability in the following regression model:
(3)
The total sample of 200 observations is split exactly in half for the sub-sample regressions. Which would
be the unrestricted residual sum of squares?
a) The RSS for the whole sample
b) The RSS for the first sub-sample
c) The RSS for the second sub-sample
d) The sum of the RSS for the first and second sub-samples
26) Suppose that the residual sum of squares for the three regressions corresponding to the Chow test
described in question 35 are 156.4, 76.2 and 61.9. What is the value of the Chow F-test statistic?
a) 4.3
b) 7.6
c) 5.3
d) 8.6
27) What would be the appropriate 5% critical value for the test described in questions 25 and 26?
a) 2.6
b) 8.5
c) 1.3
d) 9.2
28) Suppose now that a researcher wants to run a forward predictive failure test on the last 5
observations using the same model and data as in question 25. Which would now be the unrestricted
residual sum of squares?
a) The RSS for the whole sample regression
b) The RSS for the long sub-sample regression
c) The RSS for the short sub-sample regression
d) The sum of the RSS for the long and short sub-sample regressions.
29) If the two RSS for the test described in question 28 are 156.4 and 128.5, what is the value of the test
statistic?
a) 13.8
b) 14.3
c) 8.3
d) 8.6
30) If a relevant variable is omitted from a regression equation, the consequences would be that:
i) The standard errors would be biased
ii) If the excluded variable is uncorrelated with all of the included variables, all of the slope coefficients
will be inconsistent.
iii) If the excluded variable is uncorrelated with all of the included variables, the intercept coefficient will
be inconsistent.
iv) If the excluded variable is uncorrelated with all of the included variables, all of the slope and
intercept coefficients will be consistent and unbiased but inefficient.
31) A parsimonious model is one that
a) Includes too many variables
b) Includes as few variables as possible to explain the data
c) Is a well-specified model
d) Is a mis-specified model
32 ) Which one of the following is a disadvantage of the general to specific or "LSE" ("Hendry") approach
to building econometric models, relative to the specific to general approach?
a) Some variables may be excluded at the first stage leading to coefficient biases
b) The final model may lack theoretical interpretation
c) The final model may be statistically inadequate
d) If the initial model is mis-specified, all subsequent steps will be invalid.
a. Exercise
b. Lung capacity
c. Smoking or not
d. Occupation
a. Exercise
b. Lung capacity
c. Smoking or not
d. Occupation
two groups.
their own activity.

times a week.
measured.
variables.
remains fixed.

a. Age of a person.
a. 50% b. 10% c. 5% d. 2%
a. Mean
d. Range
a. 74 b. 76 c. 77 d. 80
association is:

exam.
Under 30 100 100 200
Over 30 40 160 200
Total 140 260 400
a. 0.20
b. 0.40
c. 0.33
d. 0.50
a. 1 to 2
b. 2 to 1
c. 1 to 1
d. 50%
people over 30?
a. 2.5
b. 0.4
c. 0.5
d. 30%
265/3535 = .075?
a. −10 pounds.
b. 10 pounds.
c. 30 pounds.
d. 50 pounds.

marital status.
counts?
d. very important.
Questions 1 – 25 are multiple-choice items. Record your answer on the answer sheet provided. When
you have completed the
multiple choice items, then answer each of the three tie-breaker items in order. Record your answer and
your work on the tiebreaker pages provided as part of the test booklet. When you finish, detach the tie
breaker items from the booklet, be sure your
name is on each page. When time is called, turn in the answer sheet and the tie-breaker items. You may
keep the question part
of the test booklet.
a. 95%
b. 68%
c. 5%
d. 2.5%
b. causal inference
a. alpha
b. Type I error
c. beta
d. Type II error
4. A parameter is:
c. unknown
5. A statistic is:
c. unknown
b. causal inference
29, 26, 13, 23, 23, 25, 17, 22, 17, 19, 12, 26, 30, 30, 18, 14, 12, 26, 17, 18
a. 20.50, 5.79
b. 20.50, 5.94
c. 20.85, 5.79
d. 20.85, 5.94
a. 0.0062
b. 0.0109
c. 0.0124
d. 0.0217
a. -∞ to 23.05
b. -∞ to 23.15
c. 18.07 to 23.63
d. 18.22 to 23.48
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
a. True
b. False
a. sampling bias
b. confounding
d. response bias
a. mean = median
b. mean ≈ median
c. mean < median
d. mean > median
(1, 1.24), (2, 5.23), (3, 7.24), (4, 7.60), (5, 9.97), (6, 14.31), (7, 13.99), (8, 14.88),
(9, 18.04), (10, 20.70)
a. y = 0.490 x - 0.053
b. y = 2.04 x
c. y = 1.98 x + 0.436
d. y = 0.49 x
a. r = 0.490
b. r = 0.985
c. r = 0.971
d. r = 0.240
a. true
b. false
days
Frequency
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
0 10 20 30 40
a. 2.15
b. 2.21
c. 9.18
d. 9.34
a. –1.0
b. –0.5
c. +1.0
d. +0.5
0 8
1 16
2 22
3 14
4 6
5 4
6 2
a. 1.91
b. 2.47
c. 3.14
d. 2.19
-1.0 -0.5 0.0 0.5 1.0
-1.0 -0.5 0.0 0.5 1.0
a. 1.46
b. 1.45
c. 2.10
d. 2.17
a. 321
b. 186
c. 230
d. 208
a. 2.60
b. 4.11
c. 1.04
d. 1.33

81. Which of the following statements applies to a point estimate?
a. The point estimate is a parameter.

b. The point estimate will tend to be accurate if the sample size exceeds 30 for non-
normal populations.
c. The point estimate is subject to sampling error and will almost always be different
than the population value.
d. The point estimate is needed to determine the required sample size when estimating
the population mean.
82. Sampling error occurs when:
a. a non-statistical sample is used.

b. the statistic computed from the sample is not equal to the parameter for the
population.
c. a random sample is used rather than a convenience sample.
d. a confidence interval is used to estimate a population value rather than a point
estimate.
83. The general format for a confidence interval is:
a. point estimate + z (Standard Deviation).

b. point estimate + (critical value)(standard error).
c. margin of error + (confidence coefficient) (standard error).
d. point estimate + (critical value)(standard deviation)
n = 20
x  4.33
s  3.50
If the desired confidence level is 95 percent, the appropriate critical value is:
a. z = 1.96.
b. t = 2.093.
c. t = 2.086.
d. .7826.
n = 20
x  4.33
s  3.50
The point estimate for the true population mean is:
a. 1.638.
b. 4.33 + 1.638.
c. 4.33.
d. 3.50
n = 20
x  4.33
s  3.50
Based on this information, the upper limit for a 95 percent confidence interval estimate for the true
population mean is:
a. about 5.97 miles.

b. about 7.83 miles.
c. nearly 12.0 miles.
d. about 5.86 miles
87. In developing a confidence interval estimate for the population mean, which of the following is true?
a. The larger the sample standard deviation, the wider will be the interval estimate, all ---
----other things being equal.
b. If the population standard deviation is unknown, the appropriate critical value should -
----be obtained from the t-distribution.
c. The confidence interval developed from a smaller sample size will have a larger -------
----margin of error than one obtained using a larger sample size, all other things being ----
---equal.
88. Which of the following will increase the width of a confidence interval (assuming that everything
else remains constant)?
a. decreasing the confidence level

b. increasing the sample size
c. a decrease in the standard deviation
d. decreasing the sample size
estimate, which of the following is the margin of error that will be reported?
a. About + $2.02
b. Nearly $50.20
c. $1.645
d. About $1.43
estimate, the upper limit of the confidence interval estimate is:
a. about $2.02.
b. approximately $65.90.
c. about $47.69.
91. The margin of error is:
a. the largest possible sampling error at a specified level of confidence.

b. the critical value times the standard error of the sampling distribution.
c. Both a and b
d. the difference between the point estimate and the parameter.
92. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the confidence level associated with an
estimation application?
a. The confidence level is a percentage value between 50 and 100 that corresponds to
the percentage of all possible confidence intervals, based on a given sample size, that will
contain the true population value.
b. The probability that the confidence interval estimate will contain the true population
value.
c. The degree of accuracy associated with the confidence interval estimate.
93. In a situation where the population standard deviation is known and we wish to estimate the
population mean with 90 percent confidence, what is the appropriate critical value to use?
a. z = 1.96
b. z = 2.33
c. z = 1.645
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the degrees of freedom
94. In developing a confidence interval estimate for the population mean, the t-distribution is used to
obtain the critical value when:
a. the sample contains some extreme values that skew the results.
b. the population standard deviation is unknown.
c. the sampling that is being used is not a statistical sample.
d. the confidence level is low
95. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the t-distribution?
a. The t-distribution is symmetrical.

b. The exact shape of the t-distribution depends on the number of degrees of freedom.
c. The t-distribution is more spread out than the standard normal distribution.
96. A popular restaurant takes a random sample n=25 customers and records how long each occupied a
table. The found a sample mean of 1.2 hours and a sample standard deviation of 0.3 hours. Find the 95%
confidence interval for the mean.
a. 1.2 .118
b. 1.2 .124
c. 1.2 .588
d. 1.2 .609
97. If a decision maker wishes to reduce the margin of error associated with a confidence interval
estimate for a population mean, she can:
a. decrease the sample size.

b. increase the confidence level.
c. increase the sample size
98. When small samples are used to estimate a population mean, in cases where the population standard
deviation is unknown:
a. the t-distribution must be used to obtain the critical value.

b. the resulting margin of error for a confidence interval estimate will tend to be fairly
small.
c. there will be a large amount of sampling error.
99. An educational organization in California is interested in estimating the mean number of minutes per
day that children between the age of 6 and 18 spend watching television per day. A previous study
sample of n = 200 children between the ages of 6 and 18 and recorded the number of minutes of TV that
organization wish to develop an interval estimate with 98 percent confidence, what critical value should
be used?
a. z = 1.645
b. t = 2.38
c. Approximately z = 2.33
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the margin of error.
organization wish to develop an interval estimate with 98 percent confidence, what would be the upper
and lower limits of the interval estimate?
a. Approximately 187.76 minutes ----- 194.84 minutes

b. About 141.21 minutes ------- 241.40 minutes
c. Approximately 188.3 minutes -------- 194.3 minutes
organization wish to develop an interval estimate with 95 percent confidence, what will the margin of
error be?
a. Approximately + 1.52 minutes

b. About + 2.98 minutes
c. z = 1.96
d. Approximately + 42.14 minutes
102. The Wisconsin Dairy Association is interested in estimating the mean weekly consumption of milk
for adults over the age of 18 in that state. To do this, they have selected a random sample of 300 people
from the designated population. The following results were recorded:
x = 34.5 ounces s = 7.9 ounces
Given this information, if the leaders wish to estimate the mean milk consumption with 90 percent
confidence, what is the approximate margin of error in the estimate?
a. z = 1.645
b. + 12.996 ounces
c. + 0.456 ounces
d. + 0.75 ounces
103. The Internal Revenue Service (IRS) is interested in estimating the mean amount of money spent on
outside tax service by income tax filers filing as single on their individual form. To do this, they have
selected a random sample of n = 16 people from this population and surveyed them to determine the
sample mean and sample standard deviation. The following information was observed: x = $88.60
s = $30.79
Given this information, what is the 95 percent confidence interval for the mean dollars spent on outside
tax assistance by taxpayers who file as single?
a. Approximately $72.19 –––– $105.01

b. About $22.97 –––– $154.23
c. Approximately $80.90 –––– $96.30
d. About $ 28.25 –––– $148.95
years. The following random sample data were observed:
Given this information, what is the point estimate for the population mean?
a. About 73.35
b. + 102
c. About 242.6
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the confidence level.
years. From a random sample of n = 10 men, the sample mean was found to be 242.6 and the sample
standard deviation was 73.33. To find the 95% confidence interval estimate for the mean, the correct
critical value to use is:
a. 1.96
b. 2.2281
c. 2.33
d. 2.2622
account customers at a large eastern bank. Based on these data, what is the critical value for a 95 percent
confidence interval estimate for the true population mean?
a. 1.96
b. 2.1009
c. 2.1098
account customers at a large eastern bank. Based on these data, what is the 95 percent confidence
interval estimate for the true population mean?
a. Approximately $1,069 + $484.41

b. About $839.40 to $1,298.60
c. Approximately $1,069 + 2.1098
108. The Hilbert Drug Store owner plans to survey a random sample of his customers with the objective
of estimating the mean dollars spent on pharmaceutical products during the past three months. He has
assumed that the population standard deviation is known to be $15.50. Given this information, what
would be the required sample size to estimate the population mean with 95 percent confidence and a
margin of error of + $2.00?
a. 231
b. 163
c. 16
d. 15
109. A major tire manufacturer wishes to estimate the mean tread life in miles for one of their tires.
They wish to develop a confidence interval estimate that would have a maximum sampling error of 500
miles with 90 percent confidence. A pilot sample of n = 50 tires showed a sample standard deviation
equal to 4,000 miles. Based on this information, the required sample size is:
a. 124.
b. 246.
c. 174.
d. 196.
110. The purpose of a pilot sample is:
a. to provide a better idea of what the population mean will be.

b. to help clarify how the sampling process will be performed.
c. to provide an idea of what the population standard deviation might be.
d. to save time and money instead of having to carry out a full sampling plan.
111. Past experience indicates that the variance in the time it takes for a “fast lube” operation to actually
complete the lube and oil change for customers is 9.00 minutes. The manager wishes to estimate the
mean time with 99% confidence and a margin of error of + 0.50 minutes. Given this, what must the
sample size be?
a. n = 239
b. n = 2149
c. n = 139
d. n = 1245
112. A traffic engineer plans to estimate the average number of cars that pass through an intersection
each day. Based on previous studies the standard deviation is believed to be 52 cars. She wants to
estimate the mean to within + 10 cars with 90% confidence. The needed sample size for n is:
a. n = 104 days
b. n = 74 days
c. n = 10 days
d. n = 9 days
113. If a manager believes that the required sample size is too large for a situation in which she desires
to estimate the mean income of blue collar workers in a state, which of the following would lead to a
reduction in sample size?
a. Reduce the level of confidence

b. Allow a higher margin of error
c. Somehow reduce the variation in the population
114. A large midwestern university is interested in estimating the mean time that students spend at the
student recreation center per week. A previous study indicated that the standard deviation in time is
about 40 minutes per week. If the officials wish to estimate the mean time within + 10 minutes with a 90
percent confidence, what should the sample size be?
a. 44
b. 62
c. 302
d. Can’t be determined without knowing how many students there are at the university.
115. A hospital emergency room has collected a sample of n = 40 to estimate the mean number of visits
per day. The have found the standard deviation is 32. Using a 90% confidence level, what is their margin
of error?
a. Approximately + 1.5 visits

b. About + 9.9 visits
c. Approximately + 8.3 visits
d. About + 1.3 visits
116. A study has indicated that the sample size necessary to estimate the average electricity use by
residential customers of a large western utility company is 900 customers. Assuming that the margin of
error associated with the estimate will be + 30 watts and the confidence level is stated to be 90 percent,
what was the value for the population standard deviation?
a. 265 watts
b. Approximately 547.1 watts
c. About 490 watts
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the size of the population.
117. The U.S. Post Office is interested in estimating the mean weight of packages shipped using the
overnight service. They plan to sample 300 packages. A pilot sample taken last year showed that the
standard deviation in weight was about 0.15 pounds. If they are interested in an estimate that has 95
percent confidence, what margin of error can they expect?
a. Approximately 0.017 pounds

b. About 0.0003 pounds
c. About 1.96
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the population mean.
118. A cell phone service provider has selected a random sample of 20 of its customers in an effort to
estimate the mean number of minutes used per day. The results of the sample included a sample mean of
34.5 minutes and a sample standard deviation equal to 11.5 minutes. Based on this information, and
using a 95 percent confidence level:
a. The critical value is z = 1.96.

b. The critical value is z = 1.645.
c. The critical value is t = 2.093.
d. The critical value can’t be determined without knowing the margin of error.
119. An animal shelter wants to estimate the mean number of animals housed daily and they know the
standard deviation. If they want to find a 98% confidence interval the critical value to use is:
a. 1.645
b. 1.98
c. 2.33
d. 2.575
120. Which of the following will result in a larger margin of error in an application involving the
estimation of a population mean?
a. Increasing the sample size

b Decreasing the confidence level
c. Increasing the sample standard deviation
8-3 Estimating a Population Proportion
121. The administrator at Sacred Heart Hospital is interested in estimating the proportion of patients who
are satisfied with the meals at the hospital. A random sample of 250 patients was selected and the
patients were surveyed. Of these, 203 indicated that they were satisfied. Based on this, what is the
estimate of the standard error of the sampling distribution?
a. 0.8120
b. 0.0247
c. 0.0006
122. The produce manager for a large retail food chain is interested in estimating the percentage of
potatoes that arrive on a shipment with bruises. A random sample of 150 potatoes showed 14 with
bruises. Based on this information, what is the margin of error for a 95 percent confidence interval
estimate?
a. 0.0933
b. 0.0466
c. 0.0006
station in South Chicago Heights. Based on this sample information, what is the point estimate for the
proportion of people in Chicago that listen to WJKT – 1450?
a. 340
b. About 0.194
c. 1450
d. 66
station in South Chicago Heights. Based on this information, what is the upper limit for the 95 percent
confidence interval estimate for the proportion of people in Chicago that listen to WJKT – 1450?
a. 1.96
c. About 0.2361
d. About 0.2298
125. The chamber of commerce in a beach resort town wants to estimate the proportion of
visitors who are repeat visitors. From previous experience they believe the portion is in the
vicinity of 0.5 and they want to estimate the proportion to within + 0.03 percentage points with
95% confidence. The sample size they should use is:
a. n = 1068
b. n = 545
c. n = 33
d. n = 95
126. The chamber of commerce in a beach resort town wants to estimate the proportion of visitors
who are repeat visitors. From previous experience they believe the portion is not larger than 20%. They
want to estimate the proportion to within + 0.04 percentage points with 95% confidence. The sample
size they should use is:
a. n = 601
b. n = 97
c. n = 10
d. n = 385
127. A regional hardware chain is interested in estimating the proportion of their customers who own
their own homes. There is some evidence to suggest that the proportion might be around 0.70. Given
this, what sample size is required if they wish a 90 percent confidence level with a margin of error of ±
.025?
a. About 355
b. Approximately 910
c. Almost 1,300
d. 100
128. Suppose that an internal report submitted to the managers at a bank in Boston showed that with 95
percent confidence, the proportion of the bank’s customers who also have accounts at one or more other
banks is between .45 and .51. Given this information, what sample size was used to arrive at this
estimate?
a. About 344
b. Approximately 1,066
c. Just under 700
129. A sample of 250 people resulted in a confidence interval estimate for the proportion of people who
believe that the Federal Government’s proposed tax increase is justified is between 0.14 and 0.20. Based
on this information, what was the confidence level used in this estimation?
b. 95 percent
c. Approximately 79 percent
130. The chamber of commerce in a beach resort town wants to estimate the proportion of visitors who
are repeat visitors. Suppose that they have estimated that they need a sample size of n=16,577 people
to achieve a margin of error of + .01 percentage points with 99% confidence, but this is too large a
sample size to be practical. How can they reduce the sample size?
a. use a higher level of confidence

b. use a smaller margin or error
c. use a lower level of confidence
d. conduct a census
9-1 Hypothesis Tests for Means
71. When someone is on trial for suspicion of committing a crime, the hypotheses are:
Ho : innocent
HA : guilty
Which of the following is correct?
a. Type I error is acquitting a guilty person

b. Type I error is convicting an innocent person
c. Type II error is acquitting an innocent person
d. Type II error is convicting an innocent person
72. Which of the following statements is true?
a. The decision maker controls the probability of making a Type I statistical error.
b. Alpha represents the probability of making a Type II error.
c. Alpha and beta are directly related such that when one is increased the other will
increase also.
d. The alternative hypothesis should contain the equality.
73. In a hypothesis test involving a population mean, which of the following would be an acceptable
formulation?
H o : x  $1,700
a.
H a : x  $1,700
H o :   $1,700
b.
H a :   $1,700
H o :   $1,700
c.
H a :   $1,700
d. None of the above is a correct formulation.

74. Which of the following would be an appropriate null hypothesis?
a. The mean of a population is equal to 55.
b. The mean of a sample is equal to 55.
c. The mean of a population is greater than 55.
d. The mean of a sample is equal to 55

75. If we are performing a two-tailed test of whether  = 100, the probability of detecting a shift of the
mean to 105 will be ________ the probability of detecting a shift of the mean to 110.
a. less than
b. greater than
c. equal to
d. not comparable to
76. If an economist wishes to determine whether there is evidence that average family income in a
community exceeds $25,000. The best null hypothesis is:
a. μ = 25,000
b. μ > 25,000
c. μ < 25,000
d. μ > 25,000
77. If the p value is less than  in a two-tailed test,
a. the null hypothesis should not be rejected.
b. the null hypothesis should be rejected.
c. a one-tailed test should be used.
d. more information is needed to reach a conclusion about the null hypothesis.

78. A hypothesis test is to be conducted using an alpha = .05 level. This means:
a. there is a 5 percent chance that the null hypothesis is true.

b. there is a 5 percent chance that the alternative hypothesis is true.
c. there is a maximum 5 percent chance that a true null hypothesis will be rejected.
d. there is a 5 percent chance that a Type II error has been committed.
79. In a two-tailed hypothesis test for a population mean, an increase in the sample size will:
a. have no affect on whether the null hypothesis is true or false.

b. have no affect on the significance level for the test.
c. result in a sampling distribution that has less variability.
80. The reason for using the t-distribution in a hypothesis test about the population mean is:
a. the population standard deviation is unknown

b. it results in a lower probability of a Type I error occurring.
c. it provides a smaller critical value than the standard normal distribution for a given
sample size.
d. the population is not normally distributed
would be the upper tail critical value?
a. 1.28
b. 1.645
c. 1.96
d. 2.575
would be the correct formulation of the null and alternative hypotheses?
a. Ho : x = 16
HA : x ≠ 16
b. Ho : μ = 16
HA : μ ≠ 16
c. Ho : μ >16
HA : μ < 16
d. Ho : x > 16
HA : x < 16
performed using 0.10 level of significance and a random sample of n = 64 bottles, how large could the
sample mean be before they would reject the null hypothesis?
a. 16.2 ounces
b. 16.049 ounces
c. 15.8 ounces
d. 16.041 ounces
twenty years. In order to compensate for this, many students work part- or full- time in addition to
Based on these sample data, which of the following statements is true?
a. The standard error of the sampling distribution is approximately 3.04.

b. The test statistic is approximately t = 0.13.
c. The research hypothesis that the mean hours worked exceeds 20 is not supported by
these sample data.
twenty years. In order to compensate for this, many students work part- or full-time in addition to
Based on these sample data, the critical value expressed in hours:

a. is approximately equal to 25.26 hours.
b. is approximately equal to 25.0 hours.
c. cannot be determined without knowing the population standard deviation.
d. is approximately 22 hours
Which of the following would be the correct null hypothesis if the company wishes to test the machine?
a. H o : x  14 ounces
b. H o :   14 ounces
c. H o :   14 ounces
d. H o : x  14 ounces
Based on these sample data, which of the following is true if the significance level is .05?
a. No conclusion can be reached about the status of the machine based on a sample size
of only six cups.
b. The null hypothesis cannot be rejected since the test statistic is approximately t = .29 ,
which is not in the rejection region.
c. The null hypothesis can be rejected since the sample mean is greater than 14
d. The null can be rejected because the majority of the sample values exceed 14
88. A concern of Major League Baseball is that games last too long. Some executives in the league’s
headquarters believe that the mean length of games this past year exceeded 3 hours (180 minutes). To
test this, the league selected a random sample of 80 games and found the following results: x  193
minutes and s = 16 minutes.
Based on these results, if the null hypothesis is tested using an alpha level equal to 0.10, which of the
following is true?
a. The null hypothesis should be rejected if x  182.31.

b. The test statistic is t = 1.2924.
c. Based on the sample data, the null hypothesis cannot be rejected.
d. It is possible that when the hypothesis test is completed that a Type II statistical
error has been made.
89. When testing a two-tailed hypothesis using a significance level of 0.05, a sample size of n = 16, and
with the population standard deviation unknown, which of the following is true?
a. The null hypothesis can be rejected if the sample mean gets too large or too small
compared with the hypothesized mean.
b. The alpha probability must be split in half and a rejection region must be formed on
both sides of the sampling distribution.
c. The test statistic will be a t-value.
90. A major airline is concerned that the waiting time for customers at their ticket counter may be
exceeding their target average of 190 seconds. To test this, the company has selected a random sample
of 100 customers and times them from when the customer first arrives at the checkout line until he or she
is at the counter being served by the ticket agent. The mean time for this sample was 202 seconds with a
standard deviation of 28 seconds. Given this information and the desire to conduct the test using an alpha
level of 0.02, which of the following statements is true?
a. The chance of a Type II error is 1 - 0.02 = 0.98.

b. The test to be conducted will be structured as a two-tailed test.
c. The test statistic will be approximately t = 4.286, so the null hypothesis should be
rejected.
d. The sample data indicate that the difference between the sample mean and the
hypothesized population mean should be attributed only to sampling error.
91. A house cleaning service claims that they can clean a four bedroom house in less than 2 hours. A
sample of n = 16 houses is taken and the sample mean is found to be 1.97 hours and the sample standard
deviation is found to be 0.1 hours. Using a 0.05 level of significance the correct conclusion is
a. Reject the null because the test statistic (-1.2) is < the critical value (1.7531)
b. Do not reject the null because the test statistic (1.2) is > the critical value (-1.7531)
c. Reject the null because the test statistic (-1.7531) is < the critical value (-1.2)
d. Do not reject the null because the test statistic (-1.2) is > the critical value (-1.7531)
9-2 Hypothesis Tests for Proportions
dog owners and ask whether or not Woof Chow is their regular brand of dog food. The appropriate null
and alternate hypotheses are:
H o : p  .25
a.
H a : p  .25
H o :   .25
b.
H a :   .25
H o :   .25
c.
H a :   .25
H o :   .25
d.
H a :   .25
dog owners and ask whether or not Woof Chow is their regular brand of dog food, and 23 people say yes.
Based upon this information, what is the critical value if the hypothesis is to be tested at the 0.05 level of
significance?
a. 1.28
b. 1.645
c. 1.96
d. 2.575
94. Woof Chow Dog Food Company believes that it has a market share of 25%. They survey n = 100 dog
owners and ask whether or not Woof Chow is their regular brand of dog food, and 23 people say yes.
Based upon this information, what is the value of the test statistic?
a. -0.462
b. -0.475
c. 0.462
d. 0.475
95. After completing sales training for a large company, it is expected that the salesperson will generate
a sale on at least 15 percent of the calls he or she makes. To make sure that the sales training process is
is made on 36 of the calls. Based on this information, what is the test statistic for this test?
b. About z = -3.35
c. z = -1.645
d. t = -4.567
96. After completing sales training for a large company, it is expected that the salesperson will generate a
sale on at least 15 percent of the calls he or she makes. To make sure that the sales training process is
is made on 36 of the calls. Based on these sample data, which of the following is true?
a. The null hypothesis should be rejected since the test statistic falls in the lower tail
rejection region.
b. The null hypothesis is supported since the sample results do not fall in the rejection
region.
c. There is insufficient evidence to reject the null hypothesis and the sample proportion
is different from the hypothesized proportion due to sampling error.
d. It is possible that a Type II statistical error has been committed.
9-3 Type II Errors
97. Which of the following is not a required step in finding Beta?
a. Assuming a true value of the population parameter where the null is false
b. Finding the critical value based on the null hypothesis
c. Converting the critical value from the standard normal distribution to the units of the
data
d. Finding the power of the test
98. If the Type I error (  ) for a given test is to be decreased, then for a fixed sample size n:
a. the Type II error (  ) will also decrease.
b. the Type II error (  ) will increase.
c. the power of the test will increase.

d. a one-tailed test must be utilized.
99. For a given sample size n, if the level of significance (  ) is decreased, the power of the test:
a. will increase.
b. will decrease.
c. will remain the same.

d. cannot be determined.
100.The power of a test is measured by its capability of:
a. rejecting a null hypothesis that is true.
b. not rejecting a null hypothesis that is true.
c. rejecting a null hypothesis that is false.

d. not rejecting a null hypothesis that is false.
101. Which of the following will be helpful if the decision maker wishes to reduce the chance of making
a Type II error?
a. Increase the level of significance at which the hypothesis test is conducted.

b. Increase the sample size.
c. Both a and b will work.
d. Neither a nor b will be effective.
probability that the test will lead the consumer group to “accept” the claimed mileage for this car?
a. About 0.45
c. About 0.9545
deviation is 3 mpg. Based upon this information, what is the critical value in terms of miles per gallon
that would be needed prior to finding Beta?
a. 32.5065
b. 33.4935
c. 33.588
d. 32.412
104. Suppose we want to test H0 :   30 versus H1 :   30. Which of the following possible
sample results based on a sample of size 36 gives the strongest evidence to reject H0 in favor of H1?
a. X = 28, s = 6
b. X = 27, s = 4
c. X = 32, s = 2
d. X = 26, s = 9
105. A contract calls for the mean diameter of a cylinder to be 1.50 inches. As a quality check, each
day a random sample of n = 36 cylinders is selected and the diameters are measured. Assuming that the
population standard deviation is thought to be 0.10 inch and that the test will be conducted using an alpha
equal to 0.025, what would the probability of a Type II error be?
b. About 0.6789
c. 0.975
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the “true” population mean.
is 0.05, what is the probability that the counseling organization will incorrectly “accept” the null
hypothesis when, in fact, the true mean increase is actually 95 points?
b. About 0.492
d. Can’t be determined without knowing the sample results.
is 0.05, find the critical value in terms of improvement in SAT points which would be needed prior to
finding a Beta.
a. reject the null if SAT improvement is > 95 points
b. reject the null if SAT improvement is < 85.065 points
c reject the null if SAT improvement is > 95.88 points
d. reject the null if SAT improvement is >94.935 points
108. A recent report in which a major pharmaceutical company released the results of testing that had
been done on the cholesterol reduction that people could expect if they use the company’s new drug
indicated that the Type II error probability for a given “true” mean was 0.1250 based on the sample size
of n = 64 subjects. Given this, what was the power of the test under these same conditions? The alpha
level used in the test was 0.05.
a. 0.95
b. 0.875
c. Essentially zero
d. Power would be undefined in this case since the hypothesis would be rejected.
109. If the hypothesis test you are conducting is a two-tailed test, which of the following is a possible
step that you could take to increase the power of the test?
a. Reduce the sample size

b. Increase alpha
c. Increase beta
probability that the test will lead the consumer group to reject the claimed mileage for this car?
a. About 0.075
c. 0.05
10-1 Estimation for Two Population Means Using Independent Samples
34. If a manager wishes to develop a confidence interval estimate for estimating the difference between
two population means, an increase in the size of the samples used will result in:
a. an increase in the size of the critical value.

b. a wider confidence interval.
c. a more precise confidence interval.
d. a less precise confidence interval
Answer: C (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, population, confidence interval
35. If the population variances are assumed to be known in an application where a manager wishes to
estimate the difference between two population means, the 95% confidence interval estimate can be
developed using which of the following critical values:
a. z = 1.645.
b. z = 1.96.
c. t value that depends on the sample sizes from the two populations.
d. z = 2.575
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, population, variance, critical value
36. A company in Maryland has developed a device that can be attached to car engines which they
The following data represent the mpg for independent random samples of cars from each population.
Given this data, what is the critical value if the owners wish to have a 90 percent confidence interval
estimate?
a. t = 2.015
b. t = 1.7823
c. z = 1.645
d. z = 1.96
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, critical value
37. A company in Maryland has developed a device that can be attached to car engines, which they
The following data represent the mpg for random independent samples of cars from each population.
Given this data, what is the upper limit for a 95 percent confidence interval estimate for the difference in
mean mpg?
a. Approximately 3.88 mpg

b. About 5.44 mpg
c. Just under 25.0
Answer: B (Difficult)
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, population
38. When estimating a confidence interval for the difference between 2 means using the method where
sample variances are pooled, which of the following assumptions is not needed?
a. the populations are normally distributed.

b. the populations have equal variance
c. the samples are independent.
d. the sample sizes are equal
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, independent, variances unknown
Sample Size: 86 113
Based on these sample data, what is the lower limit for the 95 percent confidence interval estimate for the
difference between population means?
a. About $5.28
b. Approximately $4.85
c. Approximately $2.54
d. Approximately $3.41
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, population, lower limit
Sample Size: 86 113
Given this information, which of the following statements is true?
a. If either of the sample sizes is increased, the resulting confidence interval will have a
smaller margin of error.
b. If the confidence level were changed from 95 percent to 90 percent, the margin of
error in the estimate would be reduced.
c. Neither a nor b are true.
d. Both a and b are true.
Keywords: mean difference, confidence interval, population, margin of error
10-2 Hypothesis Tests for Two Population Means Using Independent Samples
Sample Size: 86 113
Sample Mean: $45.67 $39.87
Standard Deviation (σ): $10.90 $12.47
Suppose that the managers wished to test whether there is a statistical difference in the mean monthly
purchases by customers using the two types of credit cards, using a significance level of .05, what is the
value of the test statistic assuming the standard deviations are known?
a. t = 3.49
b. z = 11.91
c. z = 2.86
d. z = 3.49
Keywords: mean difference, known standard deviations, test statistic
42. If we are testing for the difference between the means of two independent populations with samples
of n1 = 20 and n2 = 20, the number of degrees of freedom is equal to:
a. 39.
b. 38.
c. 19.
d. 18.
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, independent, degrees of freedom
43. Given the following information, calculate the degrees of freedom that should be used in the pooled-
standard deviation t-test.
s1 2 = 4 s2 2 = 6
n1 = 16 n2 = 25
a. df = 41
b. df = 39
c. df = 16
d. df = 25
Keywords: degrees of freedom, pooled, standard deviation, t-test
44. A recent study posed the question about whether Japanese managers are more motivated than
Attitudes Toward Life (SSATL), which measures motivation for upward mobility. The SSATL scores
are summarized below.
American Japanese
Sample Size 211 100
Judging from the way the data were collected, which test would likely be most appropriate?
a. Related samples t-test for mean difference
b. Pooled-variance t-test for the difference in means
c. Independent samples Z-test for the difference in means
d. Related samples Z-test for mean difference
Answer: C (Easy)
Keywords: independent, samples, z-test, mean difference
45. A recent study posed the question about whether Japanese are managers more motivated than
Attitudes Toward Life (SSATL), which measures motivation for upward mobility. The SSATL scores are
summarized below.
American Japanese
Sample Size 211 100
Which of the following is the correct the null and alternative hypotheses to determine if the average
SSATL score of Japanese managers differs from the average SSATL score of American managers?
a. H0 :  A –  J  0 versus H1 :  A –  J  0
b. H0 :  A –  J  0 versus H1 :  A –  J  0
c. H0 :  A –  J  0 versus H1 :  A –  J  0
d. H0 : XA – XJ  0 versus H1 : X A – XJ  0
Answer: C (Easy)
Keywords: null, alternative, hypothesis, mean difference
46. A commuter has two different routes available to drive to work. She wants to test whether route A is
faster than route B. The best hypotheses are:
a. Ho : μA - μB > 0
HA : μA - μB < 0
b. Ho : μA - μB < 0
HA : μA - μB > 0
c. Ho : μA - μB = 0
HA : μA - μB ≠ 0
d. Ho : μA - μB < 0
HA : μA - μB > 0
Keywords: independent, sample, hypotheses
47. In conducting a hypothesis test for the difference in two population means where the standard
deviations are known and the null hypothesis is:
Ho : μA - μB = 0
What is the p-value assuming that the test statistic has been found to be z = 2.52?
a. 0.0059
b. 0.9882
c. 0.0118
d. 0.4941
Keywords: mean difference, independent, sample, p-value
48. Under what conditions can the t-distribution be correctly employed to test the difference between two
population means?
a. When the samples from the two populations are small and the population variances
are unknown.
b. When the two populations of interest are assumed to be normally distributed.
c. When the population variances are assumed to be equal.
Keywords: variance, small sample, normal, t-distribution
49. A hypothesis test for the difference between two means is considered a two-tailed test when:
a. the population variances are equal.

b. the null hypothesis states that the population means are equal.
c. the alpha level is 0.10 or higher.
d. the standard deviations are unknown
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, hypothesis, two-tailed, null
have been assessed at values that are too high compared with other parts of town. They say that the
Based on the information provided, the research (or alternate) hypothesis is:
a. 1   2 .
b. 1   2 .
c. 1   2 .
d. μ1 < μ2.
Keywords: independent, mean, research, alternate, hypothesis
North End Other

Sample Size 20 10
Sample Mean Increase $4,010 $3,845
Sample St. Deviation $1,800 $1,750
Assuming that the null hypothesis will be tested using an alpha level equal to 0.05, what is the value of
the test statistic?
a. z = 1.578
b. t = 1.7011
c. t = 0.2388
d. t = 0.3944
Keywords: test statistic, hypothesis, null, independent, mean
North End Other
Sample Size 20 Sample Size 10
Mean Increase $4,010 Mean Increase $3,845
St. Deviation $1,800 St. Deviation $1,750
Assuming that the null hypothesis will be tested using an alpha level equal to 0.05, what is the critical
value?
a. z = 1.578
b. t = 1.7011
c. t = 0.2388
d. t = 2.0484
Keywords: critical value, hypothesis, mean, independent
53. Assume that you are testing the difference in the means of two independent populations at the 0.05
level of significance. The null hypothesis is: Ho : μA - μB > 0 and you have found the test statistic is z
= -1.92. What should you conclude?
a. The mean of pop. A is greater than the mean of pop. B because p < α
b. The mean of pop. A is greater than the mean of pop. B because p > α
c. There is no significant difference in the two means because p > α
d. The mean of pop. B is greater than the mean of pop. A because p < α
Keywords: hypothesis, one tailed, mean, independent, p-value
evaluation of golf equipment to make sure that the equipment satisfies the rules of golf. For
example, they regularly test the golf balls made by the various companies that sell balls in the United
States. Recently they undertook a study of two brands of golf balls with the objective to see whether
there is a difference in the mean distance that the two golf ball brands will fly off the tee. To conduct
the test, the U.S.G.A. uses a robot named “Iron Byron,” which swings the club at the same speed and
with the same swing pattern each time it is used. The following data reflect sample data for a
random sample of balls of each brand.
Brand A: 234 236 230 227 234 233 228 229 230 238
Brand B: 240 236 241 236 239 243 230 239 243 240
Given this information, what is the test statistic for testing whether the two population means are equal?
a. F = 1.115
b. t = 1.96
c. t = -4.04
d. t = -2.58
Answer: C (Difficult)
Keywords: test statistic, mean, independent
10-3 Interval Estimation and Hypothesis Tests for Paired Samples
industry is interested in testing its new driver to see how it compares with the best-selling driver. To
do this, they have selected a group of golfers of differing abilities and ages. Their plan is to have
each player use each of the two clubs and hit five balls. They will record the average length of the
drives with each club for each player. Given this description of the planned test, which of the
a. The test won’t be meaningful if only five balls are hit by each player with each club.
b. The samples in this case are called paired samples since the same players are hitting
both golf clubs.
c. The test will be invalid unless different players are used to hit each club so that the
samples will be independent.
d. The samples are independent because each player is independent of the other players.
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, paired
industry is interested in testing its new driver to see if has greater length off the tee than the best-
selling driver. To do this, they have selected a group of golfers of differing abilities and ages. Their
plan is to have each player use each of the two clubs and hit five balls. They will record the average
length of the drives with each club for each player. The resulting data for a sample of 10 players is:
Based on these sample data, what is the point estimate for the difference between the mean distance for
the new driver versus the leading driver?
a. 2.81
b. 1.55
c. – 3.45
d. 233.4
Keywords: mean difference, point estimate, paired
57. Suppose that a group of 10 people join a weight loss program for 3 months. Each person’s weight is
recorded at the beginning and at the end of the 3 month program. To test whether the weight loss
program is effective, the data should be treated as:
a. Independent samples using the normal distribution
b. paired samples using the t-distribution
c. independent samples using the t-distribution.
d. independent proportions
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, population, independent, paired
58. The t-test for the mean difference between 2 related populations assumes that the respective:
a. sample sizes are equal.

b. sample variances are equal.
c. populations are approximately normal or sample sizes are large.
Keywords: mean difference, sample size, normal
59. If we are testing for the difference between the means of two paired populations with samples of n1
= 20 and n2 = 20, the number of degrees of freedom is equal to:
a. 39.
b. 38.
c. 19.
d. 18.
Answer: C (Easy)
Keywords: mean difference, population, paired, degrees of freedom
60. In testing for differences between the means of two paired populations, the null hypothesis is:
a. H 0 :  D  2 .
b. H 0 :  D  0 .
c. H 0 :  D  0 .
d. H 0 :  D  0 .
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: paired, mean difference, null, hypothesis
test their balls for length and accuracy, but because of swing variations by real golfers, these test robots
don’t always indicate how the clubs will perform in actual use. One company in the golfing industry is
interested in testing its new driver to see if it has greater length off the tee than the best-selling driver. To
do this, they have selected a group of golfers of differing abilities and ages. Their plan is to have each
player use each of the two clubs and hit five balls. They will record the average length of the drives with
each club for each player. The resulting data for a sample of 10 players are:
What is an appropriate null hypothesis to be tested?
a. H o : 1   2
b. H o : 1   2
c. H o :  d  0
d. Ho : μD = 0
Keywords: null, hypothesis, mean, paired
72. Most companies that make golf balls and golf clubs use a one-armed robot named “Iron Mike” to test
their balls for length and accuracy, but because of swing variations by real golfers, these test robots
don’t always indicate how the clubs will perform in actual use. One company in the golfing industry
is interested in testing its new driver to see if it has greater length off the tee than the best-selling
driver. To do this, they have selected a group of golfers of differing abilities and ages. Their plan is
to have each player use each of the two clubs and hit five balls. They will record the average length
of the drives with each club for each player. The resulting data for a sample of 10 players are:
What is the critical value for the appropriate hypothesis test if the test is conducted using a 0.05 level of
significance?
a. z = 1.645
b. t = 1.7341
c. t = 1.8331
d. t = 2.2622
Keywords: critical value, hypothesis, t-test, means, paired
11-1 Hypothesis Tests and Estimation for a Single Population Variance
42. An analyst plans to test whether the standard deviation for the time it takes bank tellers to provide
service to customers exceeds the standard of 1.5 minutes. The correct null and alternative hypotheses for
this test are:
H o :   1.5
a.
H A :   1.5
H o :   1.5
b.
H A :   1.5
H o :  2  2.25
c.
H A :  2  2.25
H o :  2  2.25
d.
H A :  2  2.25
Answer: C (Easy)
Keywords: null, alternative, hypothesis, chi-square, population variance
43. When a hypothesis test is to be conducted regarding a population variance, the test statistic will be:
a. a t-value from the t-distribution.

b. a  2 value from the chi-square distribution.
c. a z-value from the standard normal distribution.
d. a binomial distribution p value.
Answer: B (Easy)
Keywords: hypothesis, population, variance, test statistic, chi-square
44. If a hypothesis test for a single population variance is to be conducted using a significance level of
to 0.10, a sample size of n = 16, and the test is a one-tailed upper-tail test, the critical value is:
a. z = 1.28.
b. t = 1.345.
c.  2 = 22.3071.
d.  2 = 24.9958.
Keywords: hypothesis test, critical value, chi-square
45. When conducting a one-tailed hypothesis test of a population variance using a sample size of n = 24
and a 0.10 level of significance, the critical value is:
a. 32.0069
b. 35.1725
c. 33.1962
d. 36.4150
Keywords: hypothesis, variance, critical value
46. A potato chip manufacturer has found that in the past the standard deviation of bag weight has been
0.2 ounces. They want to test whether the standard deviation has changed. The null hypothesis is:
a. Ho : σ2 = 0.2
b. Ho : σ = 0.2
c. Ho : σ = 0.04
d. Ho : σ2 = 0.04
Keywords: test statistic, chi-square, null, variance, two-tailed
47. A fast food restaurant that sells burritos is concerned about the variability in the amount of filling
that different employees place in the burritos. To achieve product consistency they need this variability to
be no more than 1.7 ounces. A sample of n = 18 burritos showed a sample variance of 2.89 ounces.
Using a 0.10 level of significance, what can you conclude?
a. The standards are being met since (test statistic) < (critical value)
b. The standards are not being met since (test statistic) > (critical value)
c. The standards are being met since (test statistic) > (critical value)
d. The standards are not being met since (test statistic) < (critical value)
48. If a hypothesis test for a single population variance is to be conducted, which of the following
statements is true?
a. The null hypothesis must be stated in terms of the population variance.

b. The chi-square distribution is used.
c. If the sample size is increased, the critical value is also increased for a given level of
statistical significance.
49. A manufacturer of industrial plywood has a contract to supply a boat maker with a large amount of
plywood. One of the specifications calls for the standard deviation in thickness to not exceed .03 inches.
A sample of n = 30 sheets was sampled randomly from a recent production run. The mean thickness was
right at the ¾ inch target thickness and the sample standard deviation was .05 inches. Testing at the 0.05
level of significance, which of the following is true?
a. The test statistic is approximately 80.56.

b. The critical value is approximately  2 = 43.773.
c. The test statistic is approximately 48.333.
d. Based on the sample data, there is no evidence to suggest that the plywood is not meeting
the specifications.
50. To test the following hypotheses at the 0.05 level of significance, using a sample size of n = 15
Ho : σ2 = 0.05
HA : σ2 ≠ 0.05
What is the upper tail critical value?
a. 23.685
b. 24.996
c. 27.488
d. 26.119
51. A consulting report that was recently submitted to a company indicated that a hypothesis test for a
single population variance was conducted. The report indicated that the test statistic was 34.79, the
hypothesized variance was 345 and the sample variance 600. However, the report did not indicate what
the sample size was. What was it?
a. n = 100
b. Approximately n = 18
c. Approximately 21
d. Can’t be determined without knowing what alpha is.
52. Which of the following is the appropriate null hypothesis when testing whether two population
variances are equal?
a. H 0 :  12   22 .
b. H 0 :  12   22
c. H 0 :  12   22
d. H 0 :  12   22
53. Which distribution is used in testing the hypotheses about the equality of two population variances?
a. z-distribution
b. F-distribution
c.  2 distribution
d. t-distribution
the standard deviation at University B. If a statistical test is to be conducted, which of the following
would be the proper way to formulate the null hypothesis?
a. H 0 :  A2   B2  0
b. H 0 :  A2   B2
c. H 0 :  A   B
d. H 0 :  A2   B2
x  1104 x  1254
s  134 s  108
Based on this information, what is the critical value that will be used to test the hypothesis?
a. F = 3.55
b. F = 2.832
c. z = 1.645
d. F = 3.237
x  1104 x  1254
s  134 s  108
Based on this information, what is the value of the test statistic?
a. 1.2407
b. 0.6496
c. 1.5394
57. The Russet Potato Company has been working on the development of a new potato seed that is
hoped to be an improvement over the existing seed that is being used. Specifically, the company hopes
that the new seed will result in less variability in individual potato length than the existing seed without
reducing the mean length. To test whether this is the case, a sample of each seed is used to grow potatoes
to maturity. The following information is given:
Old Seed New Seed
Standard Deviation = 1.0 inches Standard Deviation = 0.80 inches
The correct null hypothesis for testing whether the variability of the new seed is less than the old seed is:
a. H 0 :  O2   N2 .
b. H 0 :  O2   N2 .
c. H 0 :  O   N .
d. H 0 :  O2   N2
58. The Russet Potato Company has been working on the development of a new potato seed that is hoped
to be an improvement over the existing seed that is being used. Specifically, the company hopes that the
new seed will result in less variability in individual potato length than the existing seed without reducing
the mean length. To test whether this is the case, a sample of each seed is used to grow potatoes to
maturity. The following information is given:
Old Seed New Seed
Standard Deviation = 1.0 inches Standard Deviation = .80 inches
Based on these data, if the hypothesis test is conducted using a 0.05 level of significance, the calculated
test statistic is:
a. F = 1.25.
b. F = 0.80.
c. F = 0.64.
d. F = 1.56.
59. In performing a one-tailed test for the difference between two population variances, which of the
a. The level of alpha needs to be doubled before finding the F-critical value in the table.
b. The sample variance that is predicted to be larger in the alternative hypothesis goes
in the numerator when forming the F-test statistic.
c. You always place the larger of the two sample variances in the numerator.
d. The alternative hypothesis must contain the equality.
60. Two airlines are being compared with respect to the time it takes them to turn a plane around from
the time it lands until it takes off again. The study is interested in determining whether there is a
difference in the variability between the two airlines. They wish to conduct the hypothesis test using an
alpha = 0.02. If random samples of 20 flights are selected from each airline, what is the appropriate F
critical value?
a. 3.027
b. 2.938
c. 2.168
d. 2.124
61. A small business owner has two fast food restaurants. The owner wants to determine if there is any
difference in the variability of service times at the drive-thru window of each restaurant. A sample of size
n = 9 is taken from each restaurant’s drive-thru window. To perform a hypothesis test using the 0.05
level of significance the critical value is:
a. 3.438
b. 3.197
c. 4.026
d. 4.433
evaluation of golf equipment to make sure that the equipment satisfies the rules of golf. For example,
they regularly test the golf balls made by the various companies that sell balls in the United States.
Recently, they undertook a study of two brands of golf balls with the objective to see whether there is a
difference in the mean distance that the two golf ball brands will fly off the tee. To conduct the test, the
U.S.G.A. uses a robot named “Iron Byron,” which swings the club at the same speed and with the same
swing pattern each time it is used. The following data reflect sample data for a random sample of balls of
each brand.
Brand A: 234 236 230 227 234 233 228 229 230 238
Brand B: 240 236 241 236 239 243 230 239 243 240
Given this information, what is the test statistic for testing whether the two population variances are
equal?
a. Approximately F = 1.145
b. t = 1.96
c. t = -4.04
71. Which of the following is an assumption for the one-way analysis of variance experimental
design?
a. All populations are normally distributed.

b. The populations have equal variances.
c. The observations are independent.
using an alpha level equal to 0.05, which of the following is the correct critical value?
a. F = 3.04
b. F = 2.76
c. t = 1.9917
d. F = 2.56
using an alpha level equal to 0.05, which of the following is the appropriate alternative hypothesis?
a. H o : 1   2   3   4
b. H o : 1   2   3   4
d. σ1 = σ2 = σ3 = σ4
x1  62.1 x 2  58.94 x3  71.2
Based on these sample results and significance level equal to 0.05, what is the critical value for this
hypothesis test?
a. F = approximately 3.15
b. F = approximately 4.90
c. F = approximately 29.47
d. F = approximately 2.70
x1  62.1 x 2  58.94 x3  71.2
The appropriate test to conduct to determine if the population means are equal is:

b. one-way analysis of variance
c. three sample t-test.
b. randomized complete block analysis of variance.
x1  62.1 x 2  58.94 x3  71.2

SST = 6016
Based on these sample results and significance level equal to 0.05, the sum of squares between is:
a. approximately 3,586.
b. approximately 2,430.
c. approximately 1,215.
77. In conducting a one-way analysis of variance where the test statistic is less than the critical value,
which of the following is correct.
a. Conclude that the means are not all the same and that that the Tukey-Kramer
procedure should be conducted
b. Conclude that the means are not all the same and that that the Tukey-Kramer
procedure is not needed
c. Conclude that all means are the same and that the Tukey-Kramer procedure should
be conducted
d. Conclude that all means are the same and there is no need to conduct the Tukey-
Kramer procedure.
78. In comparing the average price of gasoline in 4 different cities, it is desired to check the assumption
of equal variances using the Hartley test.
s1 = 0.12 s2 = 0.07 s3 = 0.15 s4 = 0.09
The value of the test statistic for the Hartley test is:
a. 1.25
b. 1.56
c. 2.14
d. 4.59
x1  62.1 x 2  58.94 x3  71.2

SST = 6016
Based on these sample results and a significance level equal to 0.05, assuming that the null hypothesis of
equal means has been rejected, the Tukey-Kramer critical range is:
a. 1.96.
b. approximately 4.0.
c. Can’t be determined without more information.
80. Prior to conducting a one-way analysis of variance test, it is a good idea to test to see whether the
population variances are equal. One method for doing this is to use:

b. an F-test for variances.
c. a chi-square test.
d. the Tukey-Kramer procedure.
81. In a one-way analysis of variance test in which the levels of the factor being analyzed are randomly
selected from a large set of possible factors, the design is referred to as:
a. a fixed-effects design.
b. a random-effects design.
c. an undetermined results design.
d. a balanced design
Which of the following would be the correct alternative hypotheses for the test to be conducted?
a. H o :1   2   3
b. H o : 1   2   3
d. σ1 = σ2 = σ3 = σ4
Assuming that the test is to be conducted at a 0.01 level of significance, what would the critical value be
for this test?
a. F = 1.93
b. F = 3.555
c. t = 2.8784
d. F = 6.013
84. Assume you are conducting a one-way analysis of variance using a 0.05 level of significance and have
found that the p-value = 0.02. Which of the follow is correct regarding what you can conclude?
a. Do not reject the null hypothesis; the means are all the same
b. Reject the null hypothesis; the means are not all the same
c. Do not reject the null hypothesis; the means are not all the same
d. Reject the null hypothesis; the mean are all the same
Based upon these data and a significance level of 0.05, which of the following statements is true?
a. The F-critical value for the test is 3.555.

b. The test statistic is approximately 43.9.
c. The null hypothesis should be rejected and the mean connect times for the three
user categories are not equal.
the week. The analysts then ran a one-way analysis of variance generating the following output:
of significance?
a. The null hypothesis that population means are equal should be rejected.
b. Based upon Hartley’s F-test, we can reject the hypothesis that the population
variances are equal.
c. There is justification for applying the Tukey-Kramer method for multiple
comparisons.
d. The experiment is a balanced design.
the week. The analysts then ran a one-way analysis of variance generating the following output.
of significance?
a. There is no basis for concluding that mean sales is different for the different days of
the week.
b. Based on the p-value, the null hypothesis should be rejected since the p-value
exceeds the alpha level.
c. The experiment is conducted as an imbalanced design.
d. Based on the critical value, the null should be rejected
88. In order for a one-way analysis of variance to be considered a balanced design, which of the
following must hold?
a. The population variances must be equal.

b. The sample sizes selected from each population must be equal.
c. The study must have the same number of rows as it does columns.
89. In a one-way design, which of the following is true?
a. The populations must have equal means.

b. The sample sizes must be equal.
c. The mean squares between will be larger than the mean squares within if the null
hypothesis is rejected.
d. The sample sizes must all differ
90. In a one-way ANOVA, which of the following is true?
a. The degrees of freedom associated with the between sum of squares is equal to one
less than the number of populations.
b. The critical value will be an F-value from the F distribution.
c. If the null hypothesis is rejected, it may still be possible that two or more of the
population means are equal.
91. Which of the following describes a treatment in a randomized complete block analysis of variance?
a. A treatment is a combination of one level of each factor.

b. A treatment is a level associated with each factor of the experiment.
c. A treatment is another term for the data that are collected in the experiment.
d. A treatment is considered to be the analysis that is performed on the sample data.
92. In a randomized complete block design analysis of variance, how many factors are there to be
analyzed?
a. Depends on the sample size in each treatment

b. One factor, but multiple levels
c. Two factors
d. Can’t be determined without additional information.
93. In a randomized complete block design analysis of variance, which of the following correctly
describes the number of degrees of freedom associated with the between sum of squares?
a. One less than the number of populations involved

b. One less than the number of blocks
c. One less than the combined sample size in the experiment
d. One less than the total number of observations
packages and the time is recorded for each. Which of the following is true?
a. The total degrees of freedom is 30.

b. The between blocks degrees of freedom is 2.
c. The between samples degrees of freedom is 2.
d. The three software packages are the blocks.
packages and the time is recorded for each. Assuming that results show that blocking was effective, this
means that:
a. There are significant differences in the average times needed by the 3 different
software packages
b. There are significant differences in the average times needed for the 10 different
people’s tax returns
c. The analysis should be redone using a one-way analysis of variance
d. the randomized complete block was the wrong method to use
96. Recently, a department store chain was interested in determining if there was a difference in the mean
number of customers who enter the three stores in Seattle. The analysts set up a study in which the
Given this format, which of the following is true?
a. The day of the week would be considered the blocking factor in the study.
b. There are six treatments.
c. This is a balanced design since the number of rows and columns is equal.
Given this format, what is the null hypothesis for testing whether blocking is effective?
a. H o :  A   B  C
b. H o :  Sat   Sun  Week
c. Not all means are equal.
d. Ho : σ1 = σ2 = σ3
Given this format and testing using an alpha level equal to 0.05, which of the following statements is
true?
a. The total degrees of freedom is 9

b. The between blocks degrees of freedom equals 8
c. The between samples degrees of freedom equals 3
d. The within sample degrees of freedom equals 4
packages and the time is recorded for each. Given this format and testing using an alpha level equal to
0.05, the critical value associated with the primary hypothesis test is:
a. 3.555
b. 2.456
c. 19.385
d. 4.256
100. A major consumer group recently undertook a study to determine whether automobile customers
would rate the quality of cars differently that were manufactured in the U.S., Europe, or Japan. To
conduct this test, a sample of 20 individuals was asked to look at mid-range model cars made in each of
the three countries. The individuals in the sample were then asked to provide a rating for each car on a
scale of 1 to 1000. The following computer output resulted, and the tests were conducted using a
significance level equal to 0.05.
Based upon the data, which of the following statements is true?
a. Blocking was effective.

b. Blocking was not effective.
c. The primary null hypothesis should not be rejected.
d. The averages for the 20 people are not all the same
= 0.05 level.
Given these data, which of the following statements is true?
a. There is no basis for concluding that mean driving distance is different for the
different dimple patterns.
b. There is no basis for concluding that mean driving distance is different for the
different cover materials.
c. Both a and b are true.
d. Neither a nor b are true.
= 0.05 level.
Given these data, what is the value of Fisher’s Least Significant Difference critical value?
b. 2.4469
c. About 7.65
types are studied. In this case, the number of treatments is:
a. 5.
b. 3.
c. 15.
d. Can’t be determined without knowing how many trees are planted on each acre.
Assuming that the hypothesis tests will be conducted using an alpha equal 0.05 level, which of the
following is true?
a. The total sum of squares is approximately 4,570,900.

b. The grower was justified in controlling for the fertilizer type since the test shows that
blocking was effective.
c. Based on the data, the grower can conclude that there is a difference in mean
production of peaches across the different types of tree.
d. A, b and c are all true.
Assuming that the hypothesis tests will be conducted using an alpha equal 0.05 level, what is the value of
the Fisher’s LSD critical value for doing the multiple comparisons?
b. About 11.30
d. Need to know the number of trees planted on each acre
replication. Based on this information, how many engines will be needed to conduct the test?
a. 4
b. 8
c. One for each oil type
d. One for each factor in the study
packages and the time is recorded for each. The computer results are shown below.
1 3 9 3 1
2 3 30 10 1
3 3 12 4 0
4 3 6.5 2.166667 0.583333
5 3 25 8.333333 2.333333
6 3 7 2.333333 1.083333
7 3 10 3.333333 0.333333
8 3 18 6 1
9 3 33.5 11.16667 0.583333
10 3 4.5 1.5 0.25
Software A 10 47.5 4.75 12.95833

Software B 10 47.5 4.75 10.79167
Software C 10 60.5 6.05 13.46944
ANOVA
Source of
Rows 329.9083 9 36.65648 130.227 1.6E-14 2.456281

Columns 11.26667 2 5.633333 20.01316 2.66E-05 3.554557
Error 5.066667 18 0.281481
Total 346.2417 29
Based on these results and using a 0.05 level of significance which is correct regarding blocking?
a. Blocking was not effective because p = 2.66 is greater than 0.05

b. Blocking was effective because p = 2.66E-5 is less than 0.05
c. Blocking was not effective because p = 1.6 is greater than 0.05
d. Blocking was effective because p = 1.6E-14 is less than 0.05
1 3 9 3 1
2 3 30 10 1
3 3 12 4 0
4 3 6.5 2.166667 0.583333
5 3 25 8.333333 2.333333
6 3 7 2.333333 1.083333
7 3 10 3.333333 0.333333
8 3 18 6 1
9 3 33.5 11.16667 0.583333
10 3 4.5 1.5 0.25
Software A 10 47.5 4.75 12.95833

Software B 10 47.5 4.75 10.79167
Software C 10 60.5 6.05 13.46944
ANOVA
Source of
Rows 329.9083 9 36.65648 130.227 1.6E-14 2.456281

Columns 11.26667 2 5.633333 20.01316 2.66E-05 3.554557
Error 5.066667 18 0.281481
Total 346.2417 29
Based on these results and using a 0.05 level of significance which is correct regarding the primary
hypothesis?
a. The three software packages are not all the same because p = 1.6E-14 is less than 0.05
b. The three software packages are all the same because p = 1.6 is greater than 0.05
c. The three software packages are not all the same because p = 2.66E-5 is less than 0.05
d. The three software packages are all the same because p = 2.66 is greater than 0.05
1 3 9 3 1
2 3 30 10 1
3 3 12 4 0
4 3 6.5 2.166667 0.583333
5 3 25 8.333333 2.333333
6 3 7 2.333333 1.083333
7 3 10 3.333333 0.333333
8 3 18 6 1
9 3 33.5 11.16667 0.583333
10 3 4.5 1.5 0.25
Software A 10 47.5 4.75 12.95833

Software B 10 47.5 4.75 10.79167
Software C 10 60.5 6.05 13.46944
ANOVA
Source of
Rows 329.9083 9 36.65648 130.227 1.6E-14 2.456281

Columns 11.26667 2 5.633333 20.01316 2.66E-05 3.554557
Error 5.066667 18 0.281481
Total 346.2417 29
Assuming that the hypothesis tests are conducted using a significance level equal to 0.05, the Fisher’s
LSD value for multiple comparisons is:
a. approximately 0.4985
b. about 0.91
c. approximately 1.91
d. about 0.5387
replication. The following data reflect the miles the engine lasted until problems were encountered.
Data are in thousands of miles.
Assuming that the hypothesis tests are conducted using a significance level equal to 0.05, which of the
a. Based on the data, Oil 1 and Oil 3 give statistically more miles on average than do
the other two oils.
b. The type of transmission does seem to have an impact on the mean miles that an
engine will last.
c. The F-critical value for testing whether blocking is effective is 10.128.
111. Which type of ANOVA can include interaction?
a. one-way
b. randomized complete block
c. two-factor
d. all types of ANOVA
112. Which of the following is the minimum number of required replications per cell for a two-factor
ANOVA design if you plan to test for interactive effects between factors A and B?
a. 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 5
113. Considering the following printout from a two-factor ANOVA design, how many levels of factor A
(Sample) were there in this study?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 6
114. Considering the following printout for a two-factor ANOVA design, which of the following is a
proper conclusion to reach?
a. There is no significant interaction between the two factors.

b. The levels of factor A (Sample) have significantly different means.
c. The levels of factor B (Columns) have significantly different means.
d. The total number of observations is 47
115. Considering the following printout for a two-factor ANOVA study, which of the following is the
number of replications used?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 4
Based on the design of this study, how many degrees of freedom will be associated with the mean square
for factor A?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 8
Based on these sample data, and alpha = .05, which of the following statements is true?
a. The means for factor A are significantly different.

b. There is no significant interaction between factors A and B.
c. The means for factor B are significantly different.
d. All of the above statements are true.
ANOVA
Sample
(advertising) 99.73324 1 99.73324 5.251652 0.034201 4.413873
Columns (price) 1150.432 2 575.2161 30.28914 1.74E-06 3.554557
Interaction 1577.526 2 788.7629 41.53387 1.8E-07 3.554557
Within 341.835 18 18.99083
Total 3169.526 23
How many replications were used in this study?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
ANOVA
Sample
(advertising) 99.73324 1 99.73324 5.251652 0.034201 4.413873
Columns (price) 1150.432 2 575.2161 30.28914 1.74E-06 3.554557
Interaction 1577.526 2 788.7629 41.53387 1.8E-07 3.554557
Within 341.835 18 18.99083
Total 3169.526 23
Based on the results above, which of the following is correct?
a. 1 level of advertising and 2 levels of price were used

b. 3 levels of adverting and 2 levels of price were used
c. 2 levels of advertising and 3 levels of price were used
d. There was a total of 6 different treatments
120. A two factor analysis of variance is conducted to test the effect that price and advertising have on
advertising are used and the sales amount is recorded. The computer results are shown below.
ANOVA
Sample
(advertising) 99.73324 1 99.73324 5.251652 0.034201 4.413873
Columns (price) 1150.432 2 575.2161 30.28914 1.74E-06 3.554557
Interaction 1577.526 2 788.7629 41.53387 1.8E-07 3.554557
Within 341.835 18 18.99083
Total 3169.526 23
Based on the results above and a 0.05 level of significance, which of the following is correct?
a. There is no interaction between price and advertising, so results for individual

factors may be misleading
b. There is interaction between price and advertising, so the above results for
individual factors may be misleading
c. There is no interaction between price and advertising, and both factors
significantly affect sales
d. There is interaction between price and advertising, so the above results
conclusively show that both factors affect price
57. If you are interested in testing whether the median of a population is equal to a specific
value, an appropriate test to use is:

b. the t-test.
d. the Wilcoxon Matched-Pairs Signed Rank test.
58. Nonparametric statistical tests are used when:
a. the sample sizes are small.

b. we are unwilling to make the assumptions of parametric tests.
c. the standard normal distribution can not be computed.
d. the population parameters are unknown
59. Which of the following is not a step involved in the Wilcoxon signed rank test?
a. Find the deviations from the hypothesized median

b. Rank the deviations
c. Convert the deviations to absolute values
d. Find the deviations from the sample median
60. The Wilcoxon signed rank test is used to test which of the following type of hypotheses?
a. Tests about a single population median

b. Tests involving three or more population medians
c. Tests about the variances of two or more populations
d. Tests about two or more population proportions
collected:
distributed, the appropriate statistical test for testing about service times is:
a. the t-test.
c. the Wilcoxon signed rank sum test.
d. the F-test.
collected:
distributed, the critical value for the test about median service times, using a .05 level of
significance, is:
a. 5
b. 40
c. 8
d. 37
collected:
distributed, the test statistic for the Wilcoxon signed rank sum test is:
a. W = 43.0.
b. W = 27.0.
c. W = 18.0.
64. In the finding the critical value for the Wilcoxon signed rank test, what does “n” represent?
a. The number of observations in the sample

b. The number of pairs
c. The number of nonzero deviations
d. The number of positive ranks
65. When the Mann-Whitney U test is performed, which of the following is true?
a. We assume that the populations are normally distributed.
b. We are interested in testing whether the medians from two populations are equal.
c. The data are nominal level.
d. The samples are paired
66. Which of the following is not an assumption of the Mann-Whitney U test?
a. The sample sizes are equal
b. The samples are independent
c. The value measured is continuous
d. The population distributions are the same for shape and spread
Given these data, if a Mann-Whitney U test is to be used, the sum of the ranks for Seattle is:
a. 43
b. 35
c. 25.5
d. 40
Given these data, if a Mann-Whitney U test is to be used, the U statistic for Phoenix is:
a. 14
b. 22
c. 35
d. 27
Given these data, if a Mann-Whitney U test is to be used, the U statistic for Seattle is:
a. 45
b. 35
c. 22
d. 14
Given these data, if a Mann-Whitney U test is to be used, the test statistic is:
a. 22
b. 14
c. approximately 1.96.
d. 34
71. Under what circumstances should the standard normal distribution be used when employing
the Mann-Whitney U test?
a. When the sample sizes are equal from the two populations.
b. When the sample sizes are greater than 20.
c. When the populations are normally distributed.
d. You would never use the standard normal distribution.
median number of days of sick leave per year is the same for female employees as for male
following would be the appropriate null hypothesis to be tested?
a. H o :   0
b. H o : ~  0
c. H o :  1   2
d. H o : ~1  ~ 2
73. Assume you are conducting a two-tailed Mann Whitney U test for a small sample and have
found that U1 = 58 and U2 = 86. What is the value of the test statistic?
a. 58
b. 86
c. 72
d. 144
median number of days of sick leave per year is greater for female employees than for male
following is the correct conclusion to reach if the test is conducted using a .05 level of
significance?
a. Reject the null hypothesis.

b. Conclude that females do have a higher median than males.
c. Do not reject the null hypothesis.
d. Conclude that males have a higher median than females.
75. In a large sample Mann-Whitney U test in which the sample size from the first population is
30 and the sample size from the second population is 40, which of the following is the expected
U value if the null hypothesis of equal median values is true?
a. 1,200
b. 70
c. 35
d. 600
76. Recently, a legislative committee commissioned a study of incomes in a western state. At
issue was whether the ratings of the legislature’s performance differed between rural citizens
and city residents. A random sample of 25 city residents and 35 rural residents was asked to rate
the performance of the legislature on a scale of 1 to 100. The analysts believe that the population
distribution of ratings would be highly skewed so they decided to use the Mann-Whiney U test to
test whether there is a difference in median ratings by the two groups. Given this information,
which of the following is the correct critical value if the test is to be conducted at the .10 level of
significance?
a. z = 1.96
b. t = 2.0357
c. U = 437.5
d. z = 1.645
77. Assume that you are conducting a small sample Mann-Whitney U test where n1 = 14 and n2
= 16 and that U1 = 98. Assuming that U1 has been found correctly, what is the value of U2?
a. 112
b. 126
c. 224
d. Insufficient information to determine U2
78. If we wish to test whether two related populations have equal medians, an appropriate
nonparametric test to use is:

d. the Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed rank test.
79. If a two-tailed Wilcoxon Matched-Pairs Signed Rank test is conducted for a sample of n = 8
and an alpha level equal to .05, the critical value is:
a. 4.
b. 1.96.
c. 30.
d. 2
80. The Mann-Whitney U test assumes that the 2 samples are:
a. equal in size.
b. independent and random.
c. matched or paired.
81. The Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed rank test assumes that the two samples are:
a. equal in size
b. independent and random
c. paired
d. both a and c
82. When employing a small sample Mann-Whitney U test for a two-tailed test, which of the following is
true?
a. The sample sizes need to be equal.
b. Select as the test statistic the smaller of the two U values.
c. Select either of the U values to be the test statistic.
d. The alpha level should be doubled.
83. If a Mann-Whitney U test was performed and U1 = 50 and U2 = 40, if the sample from population 1
was 10, the sample size from population 2 was:
a. 10.
b. 15.
c. 9.
84. In conducting a Kruskal-Wallis one-way analysis of variance, the test statistic is assumed have
approximately which distribution when the null hypothesis is true?
a. A t-distribution
b. An F-distribution
c. A normal distribution
d. A chi-square distribution
85. Which of the following is not an assumption of the Kruskal-Wallis one-way analysis of variance?
a. Variables have a continuous distribution
b. Samples are independent
c. Sample sizes are equal for all populations
d. Population distributions are identical except for possible differences in center
86. The Kruskal-Wallis test is usually limited to comparing sample values from _________ or more
populations.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
87. In a Kruskal-Wallis test when ties occur, each observation is given the _____________ for which it is
tied.
a. highest rank
b. lowest rank
c. mean rank
d. median rank
88. Assume that 4 populations are to be compared using a Kruskal-Wallis one-way analysis of variance.
What is the critical value using a 0.05 level of significance?
a. 5.9915
b. 6.2514
c. 7.8147
d. 9.4877
are below.
R1 = 60 R2 = 36 R3 = 24
n1 = 6 n2 = 5 n3 = 4
What is the value of the test statistic?
a. 7.8147
b. 2.16
c. 48.68
d. 12.59
are below.
R1 = 60 R2 = 36 R3 = 24
n1 = 6 n2 = 5 n3 = 4
What is the critical value for this test using a 0.10 level of significance ?
a. 6.2514
b. 5.9915
c. 7.8147
d. 4.6052
91. If we are interested in testing to determine whether the center of three or more populations is equal
when the data in the samples are ordinal, what is the appropriate test to conduct?
a. A t-test
b. An ANOVA
c. A Kruskal-Wallis
d. A Wilcoxon Matched-Pairs Sign Rank test

ratings, which company has the smallest sum of ranks?
a. Chrysler
b. GM
c. Ford
d. All three are equal.
ratings, what is the appropriate critical value if the test is to be conducted using an alpha = .05
level?
a. F = 5.05
b.  2 = 5.99
c.  2 = 24.99
d. F = 3.67
ratings, what is correct test statistic for these data?
a. H = 1.965
b. t = 1.96
c. H = 3.34
d. H = .65
ratings, what is the correct conclusion if the test is to be conducted using an alpha = .05 level?
a. H0 should be rejected and we conclude that there is no significant difference between

the 3 companies.
b. H0 should not be rejected and we conclude that there is no significant difference

c. H0 should be rejected and we conclude that there is a significant difference between

the 3 companies.
d. H0 should not be rejected and we conclude that there is a significant difference

Let X1,X2,……,Xn be a random sample from a density,,,, f(x ι θ) where θ is a value of the
random variable Θwith known density gΘ(θ) Then the estimator ∏(θ) with…/ respect to
the prior gΘ(θ) is define as______________E[∏(θ)ιX1,X2,…..,Xn] is called?
0
A. Posterior Bay’s estimator

B. Minimax estimator
C. Bay’s estimator
D. Sufficient estimator
The non parametric equivalent of an unpaired samples t-test____________?

0
A. Kruskal Wallis Test

B. Mann-Whitney U test
C. Wilcoxon signed rank test
D. Sign test
When testing for randomness, we can use_____________?

0
A. Sign test
B. None of these
C. Runs test
D. D Mann-Whitney U test
Which of the following test is most likely assessing this null hypothesis: Ho The number of
violations per apartment in the population of all city apartments is binomially distributed
with a probability of success in any one trial of P=0.3 dd ?
0
A. The Mann-Whitney test

B. The Kruskal-Wallis test
C. The Wilcoxon Signed Rank test
D. The Kolmogorove-Simirnor test
Which of the following test must be two-sided ?

0
A. Sign test
B. Wilcoxon Signed Rank
C. Kruskal-Wallis
D. Runs test
The Wilcoxon, Rank-Sum test used to compares_______________?

0
A. Any number of populations
B. A sample mean to the population mean
C. Two populations
D. Three populations
Comparing the times to failure of radar transponders made by firms A, B, and C based on
an airline’s sample experience with the three types of instruments one may
use____________?
0
A. Kolmogorov-Smirnor test
B. Wilcoxon Rank-Sum test
C. Spearman Rank Correlation test
D. Kruskal-Wallis test
In testing for the difference between two populations, it is possible to use____________?

0
A. The Wilcoxon Rank-Sum test

B. The Sign test
C. None of the above
D. Either of the above
The Runs test results in rejecting the null hypothesis of randomness when______________?
0
A. There is an unusually large number of runs

B. There is an unusually small number of runs
C. None of these
D. Either of the above
The critical value of a test statistic is determined from_____________?

0
A. The sampling distribution of the statistics assuming Null Hypothesis

B. calculations based on many actual repetitions of the same Experiment
C. The sampling distribution of the statistic assuming Alternative Hypothesis.
D. Non of these
what is the probability of a type II error when α=0.05 ?

0
A. 0.025
B. 0.95
C. 0.05
D. Cannot be determined without more information
condition for applying Central Limit Theorem (CLT) which approximate the sampling
distribution of the mean with a normal distribution is ?
0
A. n > 30
B. N(1 – p) > 5
C. 2 n 5
E. N < 30
For t distribution, increasing the sample size, the affect will be on ?

0
A. Standard Error of the Means

B. The t-ratio
C. Degrees of Freedom
D. All Above
A quantity obtained by applying certain rule or formula is known as ________________?

0
A. Estimate
B. Test Statistics
C. Estimation
D. Sample
E. Estimator
Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) is a test for equally of______________?

0
A. Variances
B. Proportions
C. Only two parameters
D. Means
If we reject the null hypothesis, we might be making____________?

0
A. Unpredictable
B. A correct Decision
C. Type-II Error
D. Type-Error
Parameter is a _________ quantity?

0
A. Constant
B. Variable
C. All of above
D. Non of these
1 – α is the probability of_____________?

0
A. Acceptance Region
B. Type-I error
C. Type-II Error
D. Rejection Region
Power of test is denoted by _______________?

0
A. β
B. α
C. (1 – α )
D. (1 – β)
The values that separate the region of rejection and acceptance region are called
_______________?
0
A. Critical value
B. Confidence limits
C. Confidence boundaries
D. None of these
The level of significance is denoted by _________________?

0
A. 1 – ∞
B. β
C. ∞
D. 1 – β
If n = 400 and P=.69 then 90% C.I for P is _________________?

0
A. 652 and . 728

B. .314 and .652
C. .798 and .745
D. None of these
Which of the following is simple hypothesis___________________?

0
A. u = 20
B. u ≠ 20
C. u 20
E(x1 – x2)= ___________________?

0
A. ux – x2
B. u1 – u2
C. 6x – x2
D. 6×2 – x2
95% confidence limits u are ________________?

0
A. x±1.65 6/√n
B. u±1.95 S/√n
C. x±1.96 6/√n
D. ±1.96 6/√n
The minimum variance unbiased estimator of the population mean is _______________?

0
A. 6/√n
B. S/√n
C. S2/n
D. 6x/√n
__________ is the process of using sample information to reach?

0
A. Population
B. Biased
C. Unbiased
D. Increase
_________ is an estimate expressed by a single value?

0
A. C.I.
B. Point estimator
C. Parameter
D. Point estimate
x=40 is estimator of _________________?
0
A. (U)
B. 6
C. Ux
D. 6/√n
Sample variance S2 is unbiased estimator of population variance 26 because

________________?
0
A. E(S2) = s2
B. E(u) = X
C. E(P) = P
D. Ux = u
Sample proportion P is __________ estimator?

0
A. Biased
B. Parameter
C. Unbiased
D. None of these
An estimator Q is an unbiased estimator of the population parameter Q if

___________________?
0
A. E(x) = µ
B. E(Q) =Q
C. E(Q) =Q
D. E(P) = P
Let X1,X2,……,Xn be a random sample from a density,,,, f(x ι θ) where θ is a value of the
random variable Θwith known density gΘ(θ) Then the estimator ∏(θ) with…/ respect to
the prior gΘ(θ) is define as_________________E[∏(θ)ιX1,X2,…..,Xn] is called?
0
A. Posterior Bay’s estimator

B. Minimax estimator
C. Bay’s estimator
D. Sufficient estimator
If E(θˆ)=θ, then θˆ is said to be_______________?

0
A. Unbiased
B. Consistent
C. Sufficient
D. Efficient
if Var(T2)_______________?
0
A. Efficient
B. Sufficient
C. Unbiased
D. Consistent
for two estimators T1=t1(X1,X2,….Xn) and T1=t1(X1,X2,….Xn) then estimators t1 is

defined to be Rt1(θ)≤Rt2(θ) for all θ in Θ ?
0
A. Consistent estimator
B. Admissible estimator
C. Sufficient estimator
D. Minimax estimator
A test is said to be most powerful test of size α, if_______________?

0
A. Among all other test of size α or less it has the largest power
B. Among all other test of size α or greater it has the largest 1 – α
C. Among all other test of size α or greater it has the smallest power
D. Among all other test of size α or greater it has the largest β
If the conditional distribution of X1,X2,…..Xn given S=s, does not depends on θ, for any
value of S=s the statistics S=s(X1,X2,…..Xn) is called______________?
0
A. Unbiased
B. Sufficient
C. Consistent
D. Efficient
A set of jointly sufficient statistic is defined to be minimal sufficient if and only

if_______________?
0
A. It is a function of some other set of sufficient statistics.

B. It is a function of every other set of sufficient
C. It is a function of any sufficient statistics in the set.
D. It is not a function of every other set of sufficient statistics.
For a biased estimator θˆ of θ, which one is correct_______________?

0
A. MSE(θˆ)=SD(θˆ)+Bias
B. MSE(θˆ)=Var(θˆ)+Bias2
C. MSE(θˆ)=SD(θˆ)+Bias2
D. MSE(θˆ)=Var(θˆ)+Bias
Let Z1,Z2,….Zn be independent and identically distributedrandom variable, satisfying E[ι

Zt ι]<∞. Let N be an integer valued random variable whose value n depends only on the
values of the first n Z¡'s. Suppose E(N)< ∞, then E(Z1,Z2,….Zn)=E(N)E(Z) is called ?
0
A. Independence Equation
B. Sequential Probability Likelihood Equation
C. Neyman Pearson Lemma
D. Wald’s Equation
Let X1,X2,…Xn be a random sample from the density f(x;(θ), where θ may be vector. If the
conditional distribution of X1,X2,…Xn given S=s does not depend on θ for any value of s of
S, then statistic is called?
0
A. Minimal sufficient statistic

B. Sufficient statistic
C. Efficient
D. Minimax statistics
if Var(θˆ)→0 as n → 0, then θˆ is said to be______________?

0
A. Sufficient
B. Efficient
C. Unbiased
D. Consistent
if f(x1,x2,…xn;θ)=g(θˆ;θ)h(x1,x2,….,xn), then θˆ is____________?

0
A. Consistent
B. Sufficient
C. Efficient
D. Unbiased
Which of the following test use Rank Sums____________?

0
A. Kruskal-Wallis and Wilcoxon tests

B. Runs test
C. Chi-Square and sign test
D. F test
Wilcoxon Rank-Sum test can be of_______________?

0
A. Lower tailed
B. Upper tailed
C. Either of the above
D. None of the above
When using the sign test, if two scores are tied, then_____________?
0
A. We count them
B. We discard them
C. We depends upon the scores
D. non of these
In a Wilcoxon Rank-Sum test__________________?

0
A. Ties within one sample may affect the decision

B. Ties always affect the decision
C. Ties never affect the decision
D. Ties between the two sample may affect the decision
The Spearman Rank-Correlation test requires that the______________?

0
A. Data must be measured on the same scale

B. Data should be of ordinal scale at least
C. Data must be distribution at least approximately as a t-distribution
D. Data must be from two independent samples
To perform a Runs test for randomness the data must be_______________?

0
A. Divided into at least two classifications
B. Divided into exactly two classifications
C. Quantitative
D. Qualitative
Three brands of coffee are rated for tasted on a scale of 1 to 10. Six persons are asked to
rate each brand so that there is a total of 18 observations.The appropriate test to tasted
equally good is_____________?
0
A. One way analysis of variance (ANOVA)

B. Spearman Rank difference
C. Wilcoxon Rank-Sum test
D. Kruskal-Wallis test
The sign test assumes that the_______________?

0
A. Samples are independent

B. Samples have same mean
C. Sample are dependent
D. The Wilcoxon Signed Rank test is used
The Mann-Whitney U test is preferred to a t-test when____________?

0
A. Sample are dependent

B. The assumption of normality is not met
C. Sample sizes are small
D. Data are paired
Which of the following is a true statement for comparing the t distribution with standard
normal ?
0
A. Greater the degree of freedom, the more the t-distribution resembles the standard
normal distribution
B. The Normal Curve is symmetrical whereas the t-distribution are slightly skewed.
C. The proportion of area beyond a specific value of “t” is less than the proportion of normal
curve
D. Non of these
The t distribution are_____________?

0
A. Symmetrical
B. None of these
C. Same as Normal Curve
D. Skewed
Which of the following is an assumption underlying the use of the t-distribution ?

0
A. The sample are drawn from a normally distributed population.

B. The variance of the population is known
C. All above
D. s (sample standard deviation) is an unbiased estimate of the population variance.
Herbicide A has been used for years in order to kill a particular type of weed. An
problem is_____________?
0
A. Herbicide A is more effective than Herbicide B

B. Herbicide A is not more effective than Herbicide B
C. Herbicide B is more effective than Herbicide A
D. Herbicide B is not more effective than Herbicide A
Consistency of an estimator can be checked by comparing____________?

0
A. Standard Deviation
B. Mean
C. mean Square Error
D. Variance
Criteria to check a point estimator to be good are_____________?

0
A. Consistency
B. All Above
C. Unbiasedness
D. Efficiency
The first and starting point in test Hypothesis is ______________?

0
A. stating H1
B. stating Ho
C. L of significance
D. Test statistics
If Ho is stated as Q = Qo< the alternate hypothesis in general stated________________?

0
A. Q Qo
C. Q ≠ Qo
D. None of these
Which of the following cannot be Ho_________________?

0
A. Q ≤ Qo
B. Q ≥ Qo
C. Q = Qo
D. Q ≠ Qo
Type II error is committed when the null hypothesis is _________________?

0
A. Rejected when it is true

B. Rejected when it is false
C. Accepted when it is true
D. Accepted when it is false
The hypothesis which is being tested is called ___________________?

0
A. Composite hypothesis
B. Alternative hypothesis
C. Null hypothesis
D. Simple hypothesis
95% confidence limits for P are _________________?

0
A. P±2.18√p2q2/n
B. P±1.65(pq/n)
C. P±1.96 p2q2/√n
D. P±1.96√p2q2/n
The Estimation and testing of hypothesis are main branches of ________________?

0
A. Sampling
B. Probability distribution
C. Regression
D. Statistical Inference
___________ is a value of sample statistics?

0
A. Estimate
B. Estimator
C. Probability
D. Numerical
Sampling Error decrease by _______ the sample size?

0
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Sampling
D. Population
Since E(X) _______X is said to be unbiased estimator of the population mean?

0
A. Q
B. X
C. Ux
D. u
A_______ is the specific value of the statistic used to estimate the population parameter?
0
A. Point estimator
B. C.I.
C. Estimator
D. None of these
1. Which of the following is the probability calculus of beliefs, given that beliefs follow certain
rules?
a) Bayesian probability
b) Frequency probability
c) Frequency inference
d) Bayesian inference
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Data scientists tend to fall within shades of gray of these and various other schools
of inference.
a) Bayesian inference is the use of Bayesian probability representation of beliefs to perform

inference
b) NULL is the standard missing data marker used in S
c) Frequency inference is the use of Bayesian probability representation of beliefs to perform

inference
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Frequency probability is the long run proportion of times an event occurs in
independent, identically distributed repetitions.
3. Which of the following can be considered as random variable?
a) The outcome from the roll of a die
b) The outcome of flip of a coin
c) The outcome of exam
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The probability distribution of a discrete random variable is a list of probabilities

associated with each of its possible values.
4. Which of the following random variable that take on only a countable number of possibilities?
a) Discrete
b) Non Discrete
c) Continuous
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Continuous random variable can take any value on some subset of the real line.
a) A random variable is a numerical outcome of an experiment
b) There are three types of random variable
c) Continuous random variable can take any value on the real line
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two types of random variable-continuous and discrete.
6. Which of the following is also referred to as random variable?
a) stochast
b) aleatory
c) eliette
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Random variable is also known as stochastic variable.
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7. Bayesian inference uses frequency interpretations of probabilities to control error rates.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Frequency inference uses frequency interpretations of probabilities to control error

rates.
8. Which of the following condition should be satisfied by function for pmf?
a) The sum of all of the possible values is 1
b) The sum of all of the possible values is 0
c) The sum of all of the possible values is infinite
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A probability mass function evaluated at a value corresponds to the probability that
a random variable takes that value.
9. Which of the following function is associated with a continuous random variable?
a) pdf
b) pmv
c) pmf
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: pdf stands for probability density function.
10. Statistical inference is the process of drawing formal conclusions from data.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Statistical inference requires navigating the set of assumptions and tools.
A. They also must be independent.
B. They also could be independent.
C. They cannot be independent.
A. They also must be complements.

B. They also could be complements.
C. They cannot be complements.
3. Suppose that the probability of event A is 0.2 and the probability of event B is 0.4. Also,
suppose that
the two events are independent. Then P(A|B) is:
A. P(A) = 0.2
B. P(A)/P(B) = 0.2/0.4 = ½
C. P(A) × P(B) = (0.2)(0.4) = 0.08
4. Which of the following is an example of a relative frequency probability based on measuring a
representative sample and observing relative frequencies of possible outcomes?
A. According to the late Carl Sagan, the probability that the earth will be hit by a
civilizationthreatening asteroid in the next century is about 0.001.
B. If you flip a fair coin, the probability that it lands with heads up is ½.
C. Based on a recent Newsweek poll, the probability that a randomly selected adult in the US
would say they oppose federal funding for stem cell research is about 0.37.
D. A new airline boasts that the probability that its flights will be on time is 0.92, because 92%
of all
flights it has ever flown did arrive on time.
5. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between a parameter and a
statistic?
A. A parameter has a sampling distribution with the statistic as its mean.
B. A parameter has a sampling distribution that can be used to determine what values the statistic
is
likely to have in repeated samples.
C. A parameter is used to estimate a statistic.

D. A statistic is used to estimate a parameter.
6. A sampling distribution is the probability distribution for which one of the following:
A. A sample
B. A sample statistic
C. A population
D. A population parameter
7. Which of the following is the most common example of a situation for which the main
parameter of
interest is a population proportion?
A. A binomial experiment
B. A normal experiment
C. A randomized experiment
D. An observational study
8. Which statement is not true about confidence intervals?
A. A confidence interval is an interval of values computed from sample data that is likely to
include
the true population value.
B. An approximate formula for a 95% confidence interval is sample estimate ± margin of error.
C. A confidence interval between 20% and 40% means that the population proportion lies
between
20% and 40%.
D. A 99% confidence interval procedure has a higher probability of producing intervals that will
include the population parameter than a 95% confidence interval procedure.
9. Which statement is not true about the 95% confidence level?

A. Confidence intervals computed by using the same procedure will include the true population
value
for 95% of all possible random samples taken from the population.
B. The procedure that is used to determine the confidence interval will provide an interval that
includes the population parameter with probability of 0.95.
C. The probability that the true value of the population parameter falls between the bounds of an
already computed confidence interval is roughly 95%.
D. If we consider all possible randomly selected samples of the same size from a population, the
95%
is the percentage of those samples for which the confidence interval includes the population
parameter.
10. In a random sample of 50 men, 40% said they preferred to walk up stairs rather than take the
elevator.
In a random sample of 40 women, 50% said they preferred the stairs. The difference between the
two
sample proportions (men – women) is to be calculated. Which of the following choices correctly
denotes the difference between the two sample proportions that is desired?
A. p1 − p2 = 0.10
B. pˆ1 − pˆ 2 = 0.10
C. p1 − p2 = −0.10
D. pˆ1 − pˆ 2 = −0.10 <-Correct answer
11. Which of the following statements is correct about a parameter and a statistic associated with
repeated
random samples of the same size from the same population?
A. Values of a parameter will vary from sample to sample but values of a statistic will not.
B. Values of both a parameter and a statistic may vary from sample to sample.
C. Values of a parameter will vary according to the sampling distribution for that parameter.
D. Values of a statistic will vary according to the sampling distribution for that statistic.
12. Five hundred (500) random samples of size n=900 are taken from a large population in which
10% are
left-handed. The proportion of the sample that is left-handed is found for each sample and a
histogram
of these 500 proportions is drawn. Which interval covers the range into which about 68% of the
values in the histogram will fall?
A. .1 ± .010
B. .1 ± .0134
C. .1 ± .0167
D. .1 ± .020
13. A randomly selected sample of 400 students at a university with 15-week semesters was
asked
whether or not they think the semester should be shortened to 14 weeks (with longer classes).
Fortysix percent (46%) of the 400 students surveyed answered "yes." Which one of the following
statements about the number 46% is correct?
A. It is a sample statistic.
B. It is a population parameter.
D. It is a standard error.
14. Which of the following examples involves paired data?
A. A study compared the average number of courses taken by a random sample of 100 freshmen
at a
university with the average number of courses taken by a separate random sample of 100
freshmen at a community college.

B. A group of 100 students were randomly assigned to receive vitamin C (50 students) or a
placebo
(50 students). The groups were followed for 2 weeks and the proportions with colds were
compared.
C. A group of 50 students had their blood pressures measured before and after watching a movie
containing violence. The mean blood pressure before the movie was compared with the mean
pressure after the movie.
15. A poll is done to estimate the proportion of adult Americans who like their jobs. The poll is
based on a
random sample of 400 individuals. What is the “conservative” margin of error of this poll?
A. 0.10
B. 0.05
C. 0.04
D. 0.025
16. The expected value of a random variable is the
A. value that has the highest probability of occurring.
B. mean value over an infinite number of observations of the variable.
C. largest value that will ever occur.
D. most common value over an infinite number of observations of the variable.
17. The payoff (X) for a lottery game has the following probability distribution.
X = payoff $0 $5
probability 0.8 0.2
A. What is the expected value of X= payoff?

B. $0
C. $0.50
D. $1.00
E. $2.50
18. Which one of these variables is a continuous random variable?
A. The time it takes a randomly selected student to complete an exam.
B. The number of tattoos a randomly selected person has.
C. The number of women taller than 68 inches in a random sample of 5 women.
D. The number of correct guesses on a multiple choice test.
19. Heights of college women have a distribution that can be approximated by a normal curve
with a
mean of 65 inches and a standard deviation equal to 3 inches. About what proportion of college
women are between 65 and 67 inches tall?
A. 0.75
B. 0.50
C. 0.25
D. 0.17
20. Which one of these variables is a binomial random variable?
A. time it takes a randomly selected student to complete a multiple choice exam
B. number of textbooks a randomly selected student bought this term
C. number of women taller than 68 inches in a random sample of 5 women
D. number of CDs a randomly selected person owns
21. Suppose that vehicle speeds at an interstate location have a normal distribution with a mean
equal to
70 mph and standard deviation equal to 8 mph. What is the z-score for a speed of 64 mph?
A. −0.75
B. +0.75
C. −6
D. +6
22. Pulse rates of adult men are approximately normal with a mean of 70 and a standard
deviation of 8.
Which choice correctly describes how to find the proportion of men that have a pulse rate greater
than
78?
A. Find the area to the left of z = 1 under a standard normal curve.
B. Find the area between z = −1 and z = 1 under a standard normal curve.
C. Find the area to the right of z =1 under a standard normal curve.
D. Find the area to the right of z = −1 under a standard normal curve.
23. The probability is p = 0.80 that a patient with a certain disease will be successfully treated
with a new
medical treatment. Suppose that the treatment is used on 40 patients. What is the "expected
value" of
the number of patients who are successfully treated?
A. 40
B. 20
C. 8
D. 32
24. Suppose that a quiz consists of 20 True-False questions. A student hasn't studied for the
exam and will
just randomly guesses at all answers (with True and False equally likely). How would you find
the
probability that the student will get 8 or fewer answers correct?
A. Find the probability that X=8 in a binomial distribution with n = 20 and p=0.5.
B. Find the area between 0 and 8 in a uniform distribution that goes from 0 to 20.
C. Find the probability that X=8 for a normal distribution with mean of 10 and standard
deviation of
5.
D. Find the cumulative probability for 8 in a binomial distribution with n = 20 and p = 0.5.
25. The normal approximation to the binomial distribution is most useful for finding which of the
following?
A. The probability P(X = k) when X is a binomial random variable with large n.
B. The probability P(X ≤ k) when X is a binomial random variable with large n.
C. The probability P(X = k) when X is a normal random variable with small n.
D. The probability P(X ≤ k) when X is a normal random variable with small n.
26. A lottery ticket displays the probabilities of winning various prizes on the back of the ticket.
These
probabilities are examples of:
A. Relative frequency probabilities based on long-run observation.
B. Relative frequency probabilities based on physical assumptions.
C. Personal probabilities.
D. Random probabilities.
27. A climate expert was asked to assess the probability that global warming will make some
cities
uninhabitable in the next 100 years. The answer to this question for the expert is an example of:
A. A relative frequency probability based on long-run observation.
B. A relative frequency probability based on physical assumptions.
C. A random probability.
D. A personal probability.
28. Imagine a test for a certain disease. Suppose the probability of a positive test result is .95 if
someone
has the disease, but the probability is only .08 that someone has the disease if his or her test
result was
positive. A patient receives a positive test, and the doctor tells him that he is very likely to have
the
disease. The doctor's response is:
A. An example of "Confusion of the inverse."
B. An example of the "Law of small numbers."
C. An example of "The gambler's fallacy."
D. Correct, because the test is 95% accurate when someone has the disease.
29. Which one of the following probabilities is a "cumulative" probability?
A. The probability that there are exactly 4 people with Type O+ blood in a sample of 10 people.
B. The probability of exactly 3 heads in 6 flips of a coin.
C. The probability that the accumulated annual rainfall in a certain city next year, rounded to the
nearest inch, will be 18 inches.
D. The probability that a randomly selected woman's height is 67 inches or less.
30. A medical treatment has a success rate of .8. Two patients will be treated with this treatment.
Assuming the results are independent for the two patients, what is the probability that neither one
of
them will be successfully cured?

A. .5
B. .36
C. .2
D. .04 (this is (1 – .8)(1 – .8) = (.2)(.2) = .04)
1. All of the following increase the width of a confidence interval except:
a. Increased confidence level
b. Increased variability
c. Increased sample size
d. Decreased sample size
2. The statement that “(𝐴|𝐵) = 𝑃(𝐵|𝐴) whenever 𝐴 and 𝐵 are independent events” is:
a. Always True
b. Never True
c. Not Enough Information; we would need to know if 𝐴 and 𝐵 are disjoint events
d. Not Enough Information; we would need to know if the events are equally likely
3. The p-value in hypothesis testing represents which of the following:
a. The probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis, given the observed results
b. The probability that the null hypothesis is true, given the observed results
c. The probability that the observed results are statistically significant, given that the
null hypothesis is true
d. The probability of observing results as extreme or more extreme than currently
observed, given that the null hypothesis is true

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4. Assume that the difference between the observed, paired sample values is defined in the
same manner and that the specified significance level is the same for both hypothesis tests.
Using the same data, the statement that “a paired/dependent two sample t-test is equivalent to
a one sample t-test on the paired differences, resulting in the same test statistic, same p-value,
and same conclusion” is:
a. Always True
b. Never True
c. Sometimes True
d. Not Enough Information
5. Note for this question that the odds in favor of an event 𝐴 are defined as follows: (𝐴)
1−(𝐴)
For fraternal twins, the odds in favor of having children that are twins are 1
16
. Based upon this
information, what is the probability of a fraternal twin not having children that are twins?
a.
16
b. 15
16
c.
17
d. 16
17
6. Refer to the back-to-back stemplot at the right.
Which of the following are true statements regarding the data
summarized?
I. The distributions have the same mean
II. The distributions have the same range
III. The distributions have the same variance
IV. The distributions have the same coefficient of variation
a. II only
b. II and III
c. I, III, and IV
d. II, III, and IV
For Questions 7–10, refer to the table, which relates to the possible epilepsy-depression link.
Depressive Disorder
Diagnosed Epilepsy Present (Yes) Absent (No)
Epilepsy 37 51
No Epilepsy 24 78
7. What is the probability of one randomly selected individual presenting with a depressive
disorder given the individual has diagnosed epilepsy? Round to 3 decimal places.
a. 0.421
b. 0.420
c. 0.195
d. 0.607
8. Assume simple random sampling for the data summarized in the table above.
Let 𝑝𝐸 represent the proportion of individuals with diagnosed epilepsy (‘Epilepsy’) that
present with a depressive disorder. Let 𝑝𝑁𝐸 represent the proportion of individuals without
diagnosed epilepsy (‘No Epilepsy’) that present with a depressive disorder.
What is the 95% confidence interval to estimate 𝑝𝐸 − 𝑝𝑁𝐸, the difference between the
population proportions of individuals presenting with a depressive disorder among those with
diagnosed epilepsy and among those without diagnosed epilepsy? Round to 3 decimal places.
a. (0.040, 0.386)
b. (0.258, 0.577)
c. (-0.005, 0.142)
d. (0.053, 0.317)
9. A researcher believes that the proportion of individuals with diagnosed epilepsy that present
with a depressive disorder, 𝑝𝐸, is higher than the proportion of individuals without diagnosed
epilepsy that present with a depressive disorder, 𝑝𝑁𝐸. Testing this claim, what would the
resulting p-value be? Round to 3 decimal places.
a. 0.006
b. 0.069
c. 0.003
d. 0.035
10. Refer to Question 9. Using a 0.10 significance level, which of the following is the most
appropriate conclusion given the results?
a. Reject the null hypothesis; there is sufficient evidence to support the researcher’s
claim.
b. Fail to reject the null hypothesis; there is sufficient evidence to support the
researcher’s claim.
c. Accept the null hypothesis; there is not sufficient evidence to support the researcher’s
claim.
d. Accept the null hypothesis; there is sufficient evidence to support the researcher’s
claim.
11. A sociologist focusing on popular culture and media believes that the average number of
hours per week (hrs/week) spent using social media is greater for women than for men.
Examining two independent simple random samples of 100 individuals each, the researcher
calculates sample standard deviations of 2.3 hrs/week and 2.5 hrs/week for women and men
respectively. If the average number of hrs/week spent using social media for the sample of
women is 1 hour greater than that for the sample of men, what conclusion can be made from
a hypothesis test where:
𝐻0: 𝜇𝑊 − 𝜇𝑀 = 0
𝐻1: 𝜇𝑊 − 𝜇𝑀 > 0
a. The observed difference in average number of hrs/week spent using social media is
not significant
b. The observed difference in average number of hrs/week spent using social media is
significant
c. A conclusion is not possible without knowing the average number of hrs/week spent
using social media in each sample

d. A conclusion is not possible without knowing the population sizes
12. A 99% t-based confidence interval for the mean price for a gallon of gasoline (dollars) is
calculated using a simple random sample of gallon gasoline prices for 50 gas stations. Given
that the 99% confidence interval is $3.32 < 𝜇 < $3.98, what is the sample mean price for a
gallon of gasoline (dollars)?
a. $0.33
b. $3.65
c. Not Enough Information; we would need to know the variation in the sample of
d. Not Enough Information; we would need to know the variation in the population of
13. A quiz consists of 9 True/False questions. Assume that the questions are independent. In
addition, assume that (T) and (F) are equally likely outcomes when guessing on any one of
the questions. What is the probability of guessing on each of the 9 quiz questions and getting
more than one of the True/False questions wrong? Round to 3 decimal places.
a. 0.998
b. 0.018
c. 0.020
d. 0.980
14. Five students take AP Calculus AB one year and AP Calculus BC the next year. Their overall
course grades (%) are listed below for both courses. Which of the following statistical
procedures would be most appropriate to test the claim that student overall course grades are
the same in both courses? Assume that any necessary normality requirements hold.
Student 1 2 3 4 5
AP Cal AB 80.0% 72.6% 99.0% 91.3% 68.9%
AP Cal BC 85.5% 71.0% 93.2% 93.0% 74.8%
a. Two-tailed two-sample paired/dependent t-test of means
b. Two-tailed two-sample independent t-test of means
c. Two-tailed two-sample independent z-test of means
d. One-tailed two-sample z-test of proportions
15. Referring to the setting and data provided in Question 14 above, what is the test statistic for
testing the claim that student overall course grades are the same in both courses? Round to 3
decimal places.
a. -0.516
b. -0.157
c. 4.306
d. Not Enough Information; we would need to know the variation in the population
17. Using the histogram to the right that represents the
hospital lengths of stay (in days) for patients at a
nearby medical facility, determine the relationship
between the mean and the median.
a. Mean = Median
b. Mean ≈ Median
c. Mean < Median
d. Mean > Median
18. Refer to the discrete probability distribution provided in the table below.
Find the probability that x is equal to 0 or 4. Round to 3 decimal places.
a. 0.040
b. 0.210
c. 0.007
d. 1.000
X=x 0 1 2 3 4
P(X=x) 0.040 0.110 0.450 0.230 ?
19. Green sea turtles have normally distributed weights, measured in kilograms, with a mean of
134.5 and a variance of 49.0. A particular green sea turtle’s weight has a z-score of -2.4.
What is the weight of this green sea turtle? Round to the nearest whole number.
a. 17 kg
b. 151 kg
c. 118 kg
d. 252 kg
20. What percentage of measurements in a dataset fall above the median?
a. 49%
b. 50%
c. 51%
d. Cannot Be Determined
21. Which of the following exam scores is better relative to other students enrolled in the course?
A psychology exam grade of 85; the mean grade for the psychology exam is 92 with a
standard deviation of 3.5
An economics exam grade of 67; the mean grade for the economics exam is 79 with a
A chemistry exam grade of 62; the mean grade for the chemistry exam is 62 with a
a. The psychology exam score is relatively better
b. The economics exam score is relatively better
c. The chemistry exam score is relatively better
d. All of the exam scores are relatively equivalent
22. The statement “If there is sufficient evidence to reject a null hypothesis at the 10%
significance level, then there is sufficient evidence to reject it at the 5% significance level” is:
a. Always True
b. Never True
c. Sometimes True; the p-value for the statistical test needs to be provided for a conclusion
d. Not Enough Information; this would depend on the type of statistical test used
23. Assuming weights of female athletes are normally distributed with a mean of 140 lbs and a
standard deviation of 15 lbs, what is the probability that a randomly selected female athlete
weighs more than 170 lbs? Round to 3 decimal places.
Also, is the probability above the same as the probability that a randomly selected sample of
size 𝑛 (where 𝑛 > 1) has a mean weight more than 170 lbs?
a. 0.023; yes, these two probabilities would be the same
b. 0.023; no, these two probabilities would not be the same
c. 0.977; yes, these two probabilities would be the same
d. 0.977; no these two probabilities would not be the same
For Questions 24–25, refer to the relevant results from a regression analysis provided below.
A simple random sample of 5k race times for 32 competitive male runners aged 15-24 years
old resulted in a mean 5k race time of 16.79 minutes. The simple linear regression equation
that fit the sample data was obtained and found to be 𝑦̂ = 21.506 − 0.276𝑥 where 𝑥
represents the age of the runner in years and 𝑦 represents the 5k race time for a competitive
male runner in minutes. When testing the claim that there is a linear correlation between age
and 5k race times of competitive male runners, an observed test statistic of (𝑡 = −7.87)
resulted in an approximate p-value of 0.0001.
24. The proportion of variation in 5k race times that can be explained by the variation in the age
of competitive male runners was approximately 0.663. What is the value of the sample linear
correlation coefficient? Round to 3 decimal places.
a. 0.663
b. 0.814
c. -0.814
d. 0.440
25. Using all of the results provided, is it reasonable to predict the 5k race time (minutes) of a
competitive male runner 73 years of age?
a. Yes; linear correlation between age and 5k race times is statistically significant
b. Yes; both the sample linear regression equation and an age in years is provided
c. No; linear correlation between age and 5k race times is not statistically significant
d. No; the age provided is beyond the scope of our available sample data
1. A randomly selected sample of 1,000 college students was asked whether they had ever used the
drug
Ecstasy. Sixteen percent (16% or 0.16) of the 1,000 students surveyed said they had. Which one of
the following statements about the number 0.16 is correct?
A. It is a sample proportion.
B. It is a population proportion.
D. It is a randomly chosen number.
2. In a random sample of 1000 students, pˆ = 0.80 (or 80%) were in favor of longer hours at the school
library. The standard error of pˆ (the sample proportion) is
A. .013
B. .160
C. .640
D. .800
3. For a random sample of 9 women, the average resting pulse rate is x = 76 beats per minute, and the
sample standard deviation is s = 5. The standard error of the sample mean is
A. 0.557
B. 0.745
C. 1.667
D. 2.778
4. Assume the cholesterol levels in a certain population have mean µ= 200 and standard deviation σ =
24. The cholesterol levels for a random sample of n = 9 individuals are measured and the sample
mean x is determined. What is the z-score for a sample mean x = 180?
A. –3.75
B. –2.50
C. −0.83
D. 2.50
5. In a past General Social Survey, a random sample of men and women answered the question “Are you
a member of any sports clubs?” Based on the sample data, 95% confidence intervals for the
population proportion who would answer “yes” are .13 to .19 for women and .247 to .33 for men.
Based on these results, you can reasonably conclude that
A. At least 25% of American men and American women belong to sports clubs.
B. At least 16% of American women belong to sports clubs.
C. There is a difference between the proportions of American men and American women who
belong to sports clubs.
D. There is no conclusive evidence of a gender difference in the proportion belonging to sports
clubs.
6. Suppose a 95% confidence interval for the proportion of Americans who exercise regularly is 0.29 to
0.37. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
A. It is reasonable to say that more than 25% of Americans exercise regularly.
B. It is reasonable to say that more than 40% of Americans exercise regularly.
C. The hypothesis that 33% of Americans exercise regularly cannot be rejected.
D. It is reasonable to say that fewer than 40% of Americans exercise regularly.
7. In hypothesis testing, a Type 2 error occurs when
A. The null hypothesis is not rejected when the null hypothesis is true.
B. The null hypothesis is rejected when the null hypothesis is true.
C. The null hypothesis is not rejected when the alternative hypothesis is true.
D. The null hypothesis is rejected when the alternative hypothesis is true.
8. Null and alternative hypotheses are statements about:
A. population parameters.
B. sample parameters.
C. sample statistics.
D. it depends - sometimes population parameters and sometimes sample statistics.
9. A hypothesis test is done in which the alternative hypothesis is that more than 10% of a population is
left-handed. The p-value for the test is calculated to be 0.25. Which statement is correct?
A. We can conclude that more than 10% of the population is left-handed.
B. We can conclude that more than 25% of the population is left-handed.
C. We can conclude that exactly 25% of the population is left-handed.
D. We cannot conclude that more than 10% of the population is left-handed.
10. Which of the following is NOT true about the standard error of a statistic?
A. The standard error measures, roughly, the average difference between the statistic and the
population parameter.
B. The standard error is the estimated standard deviation of the sampling distribution for the statistic.
C. The standard error can never be a negative number.
D. The standard error increases as the sample size(s) increases.
11. A prospective observational study on the relationship between sleep deprivation and heart disease
was
done by Ayas, et. al. (Arch Intern Med 2003). Women who slept at most 5 hours a night were
compared to women who slept for 8 hours a night (reference group). After adjusting for potential
confounding variables like smoking, a 95% confidence interval for the relative risk of heart disease
was (1.10, 1.92). Based on this confidence interval, a consistent conclusion would be
A. Sleep deprivation is associated with a modestly increased risk of heart disease.
B. Sleep deprivation is associated with a modestly decreased risk of heart disease.
C. There was no evidence of an association between sleep deprivation and heart disease.
D. Lack of sleep causes the risk of heart disease to increase by 10% to 92%.
12. Consider a random sample of 100 females and 100 males. Suppose 15 of the females are left-handed
and 12 of the males are left-handed. What is the estimated difference between population proportions
of females and males who are left-handed (females − males)? Select the choice with the correct
notation and numerical value.
A. p1 − p2 = 3
B. p1 − p2 = 0.03
C. 1 2 pˆ − pˆ = 3
D. 1 2 pˆ − pˆ = 0.03
13. A result is called “statistically significant” whenever
A. The null hypothesis is true.
B. The alternative hypothesis is true.
C. The p-value is less or equal to the significance level.
D. The p-value is larger than the significance level.
14. The confidence level for a confidence interval for a mean is
A. the probability the procedure provides an interval that covers the sample mean.
B. the probability of making a Type 1 error if the interval is used to test a null hypothesis about the
population mean.
C. the probability that individuals in the population have values that fall into the interval.
D. the probability the procedure provides an interval that covers the population mean.
For the next two questions: It is known that for right-handed people, the dominant (right) hand tends to
be stronger. For left-handed people who live in a world designed for right-handed people, the same may
not be true. To test this, muscle strength was measured on the right and left hands of a random sample
of
15 left-handed men and the difference (left - right) was found. The alternative hypothesis is one-sided
(left hand stronger). The resulting t-statistic was 1.80.
15. This is an example of:
A. A two-sample t-test.
B. A paired t-test.
C. A pooled t-test.
D. An unpooled t-test.
16. Assuming the conditions are met, based on the t-statistic of 1.80 the appropriate conclusion for this
test using α = .05 is: (Table would be provided with exam.)
A. Df = 14, so p-value < .05 and the null hypothesis can be rejected.
B. Df = 14, so p-value > .05 and the null hypothesis cannot be rejected.
C. Df = 28, so p-value < .05 and the null hypothesis can be rejected.
D. Df = 28, so p-value > .05 and the null hypothesis cannot be rejected.
17. A test of H0: µ = 0 versus Ha: µ > 0 is conducted on the same population independently by two
different researchers. They both use the same sample size and the same value of α = 0.05. Which of
the following will be the same for both researchers?
A. The p-value of the test.
B. The power of the test if the true µ = 6.
C. The value of the test statistic.
D. The decision about whether or not to reject the null hypothesis.
18. Which of the following is not a correct way to state a null hypothesis?
A. H0: ˆ ˆ 0 p1 − p2 = (Sample statistics do not go into hypotheses)
B. H0: µd = 10
C. H0: µ1 − µ2 = 0
D. H0: p = .5
19. A test to screen for a serious but curable disease is similar to hypothesis testing, with a null
hypothesis
of no disease, and an alternative hypothesis of disease. If the null hypothesis is rejected treatment will
be given. Otherwise, it will not. Assuming the treatment does not have serious side effects, in this
scenario it is better to increase the probability of:

A. making a Type 1 error, providing treatment when it is not needed.
B. making a Type 1 error, not providing treatment when it is needed.
C. making a Type 2 error, providing treatment when it is not needed.
D. making a Type 2 error, not providing treatment when it is needed.
20. A random sample of 25 college males was obtained and each was asked to report their actual height
and what they wished as their ideal height. A 95% confidence interval for µd = average difference
between their ideal and actual heights was 0.8" to 2.2". Based on this interval, which one of the null
hypotheses below (versus a two-sided alternative) can be rejected?
A. H0: µd = 0.5
B. H0: µd = 1.0
C. H0: µd = 1.5
D. H0: µd = 2.0
21. The average time in years to get an undergraduate degree in computer science was compared for
men
and women. Random samples of 100 male computer science majors and 100 female computer science
majors were taken. Choose the appropriate parameter(s) for this situation.
A. One population proportion p.
B. Difference between two population proportions p1 − p2.
C. One population mean µ1
D. Difference between two population means µ1 − µ2
22. If the word significant is used to describe a result in a news article reporting on a study,
A. the p-value for the test must have been very large.
B. the effect size must have been very large.
C. the sample size must have been very small.
D. it may be significant in the statistical sense, but not in the everyday sense.
23. A random sample of 5000 students were asked whether they prefer a 10 week quarter system or a
15
week semester system. Of the 5000 students asked, 500 students responded. The results of this
survey ________
A. can be generalized to the entire student body because the sampling was random.
B. can be generalized to the entire student body because the margin of error was 4.5%.
C. should not be generalized to the entire student body because the non-response rate was 90%.
D. should not be generalized to the entire student body because the margin of error was 4.5%.
24. In a report by ABC News, the headlines read “City Living Increases Men’s Death Risk” The headlines
were based on a study of 3,617 adults who lived in the United States and were more than 25 years old.
One researcher said, “Elevated levels of tumor deaths suggest the influence of physical, chemical and
biological exposures in urban areas… Living in cities also involves potentially stressful levels of
noise, sensory stimulation and overload, interpersonal relations and conflict, and vigilance against
hazards ranging from crime to accidents.” Is a conclusion that living in an urban environment causes
an increased risk of death justified?
A. Yes, because the study was a randomized study.
B. Yes, because many of the men in the study were under stress.
C. No, because the study was a retrospective study.
D. No, because the study was an observational study.
25. A significance test based on a small sample may not produce a statistically significant result even if
the true value differs substantially from the null value. This type of result is known as
A. the significance level of the test.
B. the power of the study.
C. a Type 1 error.
D. a Type 2 error.
For the next two questions: An observational study found a statistically significant relationship between
regular consumption of tomato products (yes, no) and development of prostate cancer (yes, no), with
lower risk for those consuming tomato products.
26. Which of the following is not a possible explanation for this finding?
B. There is a confounding variable that causes lower risk of prostate cancer, such as eating vegetables
in general, that is also related to eating tomato products.
C. A large number of food products were measured to test for a relationship, and tomato products
happened to show a relationship just by chance.
D. A large sample size was used, so even if there were no relationship, one would almost certainly
be detected.
27. Which of the following is a valid conclusion from this finding?
B. Based on this study, the relative risk of prostate cancer, for those who do not consume tomato
products regularly compared with those who do, is greater than one.
C. If a new observational study were to be done using the same sample size and measuring the same
variables, it would find the same relationship.
D. Prostate cancer can be prevented by eating the right diet.
28. The best way to determine whether a statistically significant difference in two means is of practical
importance is to
A. find a 95% confidence interval and notice the magnitude of the difference.
B. repeat the study with the same sample size and see if the difference is statistically significant
again.
C. see if the p-value is extremely small.
D. see if the p-value is extremely large.
29. A large company examines the annual salaries for all of the men and women performing a certain
job
and finds that the means and standard deviations are $32,120 and $3,240, respectively, for the men
and $34,093 and $3521, respectively, for the women. The best way to determine if there is a
difference in mean salaries for the population of men and women performing this job in this company
is
A. to compute a 95% confidence interval for the difference.
B. to subtract the two sample means.
C. to test the hypothesis that the population means are the same versus that they are different.
D. to test the hypothesis that the population means are the same versus that the mean for men is
higher.
30. One problem with hypothesis testing is that a real effect may not be detected. This problem is most
likely to occur when
A. the effect is small and the sample size is small.
B. the effect is large and the sample size is small.
C. the effect is small and the sample size is large.
D. the effect is large and the sample size is large.
1. A Type I error occurs when we:
a. reject a false null hypothesis
b. reject a true null hypothesis
c. do not reject a false null hypothesis
d. do not reject a true null hypothesis
e. fail to make a decision regarding whether to reject a hypothesis or not
Answer: B
2. In a criminal trial, a Type I error is made when:
a. a guilty defendant is acquitted (set free)
b. an innocent person is convicted (sent to jail)

c. a guilty defendant is convicted
d. an innocent person is acquitted
e. no decision is made about whether to acquit or convict the defendant
Answer: B
3. A Type II error occurs when we:
a. reject a false null hypothesis
b. reject a true null hypothesis
c. do not reject a false null hypothesis
d. do not reject a true null hypothesis
e. fail to make a decision regarding whether to reject a hypothesis or not
Answer: C
4. If a hypothesis is rejected at the 0.025 level of significance, it:
a. must be rejected at any level
b. must be rejected at the 0.01 level
c. must not be rejected at the 0.01 level
d. must not be rejected at any other level
e. may or may not be rejected at the 0.01 level
Answer: E
5. In a criminal trial, a Type II error is made when:
a. a guilty defendant is acquitted (set free)
b. an innocent person is convicted (sent to jail)
c. a guilty defendant is convicted
d. an innocent person is acquitted
e. no decision is made about whether to acquit or convict the defendant
Answer: A
6. In a two-tail test for the population mean, if the null hypothesis is rejected when the alternative is
true, then:
a. a Type I error is committed
b. a Type II error is committed
c. a correct decision is made
d. a one-tail test should be used instead of a two-tail test
e. it is unclear whether a correct or incorrect decision has been made
Answer: C
7. In a one-tail test for the population mean, if the null hypothesis is not rejected when the alternative
hypothesis is true, then: a. a Type I error is committed
d. a two-tail test should be used instead of a one-tail test
Answer: B
8. In a one-tail test for the population mean, if the null hypothesis is rejected when the alternative
hypothesis is not true, then:
a. a Type I error is committed
d. a two-tail test should be used instead of a one-tail test
Answer: A
9. If we reject the null hypothesis, we conclude that:
a. there is enough statistical evidence to infer that the alternative hypothesis is true
b. there is not enough statistical evidence to infer that the alternative hypothesis is true
c. there is enough statistical evidence to infer that the null hypothesis is true
d. the test is statistically insignificant at whatever level of significance the test was conducted at
e. further tests need to be carried out to determine for sure whether the null hypothesis should be
rejected or not
Answer: A
10. If we do not reject the null hypothesis, we conclude that:
a. there is enough statistical evidence to infer that the alternative hypothesis is true
b. there is not enough statistical evidence to infer that the alternative hypothesis is true
c. there is enough statistical evidence to infer that the null hypothesis is true
d. the test is statistically insignificant at whatever level of significance the test was conducted ate.
further tests need to be carried out to determine for sure whether the null hypothesis should be
rejected or not
Answer: B
11. The p-value of a test is the:
a. smallest significance level at which the null hypothesis cannot be rejected
b. largest significance level at which the null hypothesis cannot be rejected
c. smallest significance level at which the null hypothesis can be rejected
d. largest significance level at which the null hypothesis can be rejected
e. probability that no errors have been made in rejecting or not rejecting the null hypothesis
Answer: C
12. In order to determine the p-value of a hypothesis test, which of the following is not needed?
a. whether the test is one-tail or two-tail
b. the value of the test statistic
c. the form of the null and alternate hypotheses
d. the level of significance
e. all of the above are needed to determine the p-value
Answer: D
13. Which of the following p-values will lead us to reject the null hypothesis if the significance level of
the test if 5%?
a. 0.15
b. 0.10
c. 0.06
d. 0.20
e. 0.025
Answer: E
14. Suppose that we reject a null hypothesis at the 5% level of significance. For which of the following
levels of significance do we also reject the null hypothesis? b. 2.5%
c. 4%
d. 3%
e. 2%
Answer: A
15. Which of the following statements about hypothesis testing is true?
a. If the p-value is greater than the significance level, we fail to reject Ho
b. A Type II error is rejecting the null when it is actually true.
c. If the alternative hypothesis is that the population mean is greater than a specified value, then the
test is a two-tailed test.
d. The significance level equals one minus the probability of a Type I error.
e. None of the above statements are true.
Answer: A
16. The purpose of hypothesis testing is to:
a. test how far the mean of a sample is from zero
b. determine whether a statistical result is significant

c. determine the appropriate value of the significance level
d. derive the standard error of the data
e. determine the appropriate value of the null hypothesis
Answer: B
19. To test a hypothesis involving proportions, both np and n(1-p) should
a. Be at least 30
b. Be greater than 5
c. Lie in the range from 0 to 1
d. Be greater than 50
e. There are no specific conditions surrounding the values of n and p
Answer: B
20. What assumption is being made when we use the t-distribution to perform a hypothesis test?
a. That the underlying distribution has more then one modal class
b. That the underlying population has a constant variance
c. That the underlying population has a non-symmetrical distribution
d. That the underlying population follows an approximately Normal distribution
e. None of the above
Answer: D
A statement about a population developed for the purpose of testing is called:
(a) Hypothesis (b) Hypothesis testing (c) Level of significance (d) Test-statistic
MCQ 13.2
Any hypothesis which is tested for the purpose of rejection under the assumption that it is true is
called:
(a) Null hypothesis (b) Alternative hypothesis (c) Statistical hypothesis (d) Composite hypothesis
MCQ 13.3
A statement about the value of a population parameter is called:
(a) Null hypothesis (b) Alternative hypothesis (c) Simple hypothesis (d) Composite hypothesis
MCQ 13.4
Any statement whose validity is tested on the basis of a sample is called:
(a) Null hypothesis (b) Alternative hypothesis (c) Statistical hypothesis (b) Simple hypothesis
MCQ 13.5
A quantitative statement about a population is called:
(a) Research hypothesis (b) Composite hypothesis (c) Simple hypothesis (d) Statistical hypothesis
MCQ 13.6
A statement that is accepted if the sample data provide sufficient evidence that the null hypothesis is
false is
called:
(a) Simple hypothesis (b) Composite hypothesis (c) Statistical hypothesis (d) Alternative hypothesis
MCQ 13.7
The alternative hypothesis is also called:
(a) Null hypothesis (b) Statistical hypothesis (c) Research hypothesis (d) Simple hypothesis
MCQ 13.8
A hypothesis that specifies all the values of parameter is called:
(a) Simple hypothesis (b) Composite hypothesis (c) Statistical hypothesis (d) None of the above
MCQ 13.9
The hypothesis µ ≤ 10 is a:
(a) Simple hypothesis (b) Composite hypothesis (c) Alternative hypothesis (d) Difficult to tell.
MCQ 13.10
If a hypothesis specifies the population distribution is called:
(a) Simple hypothesis (b) Composite hypothesis (c) Alternative hypothesis (d) None of the above
MCQ 13.11
A hypothesis may be classified as:
(a) Simple (b) Composite (c) Null (d) All of the above
MCQ 13.12
The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true is called:
(a) Level of confidence (b) Level of significance (c) Power of the test (d) Difficult to tell
MCQ 13.13
The dividing point between the region where the null hypothesis is rejected and the region where it is
not
rejected is said to be:
(a) Critical region (b) Critical value (c) Acceptance region (d) Significant region
MCQ 13.14
If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test-statistic, the test
is
called:
(a) One tailed (b) Two tailed (c) Right tailed (d) Left tailed
MCQ 13.15
The choice of one-tailed test and two-tailed test depends upon:
(a) Null hypothesis (b) Alternative hypothesis (c) None of these (d) Composite hypotheses
MCQ 13.16
Test of hypothesis Ho: µ = 50 against H1: µ > 50 leads to:
(a) Left-tailed test (b) Right-tailed test (c) Two-tailed test (d) Difficult to tell
MCQ 13.17
Test of hypothesis Ho: µ = 20 against H1: µ < 20 leads to:
(a) Right one-sided test (b) Left one-sided test (c) Two-sided test (d) All of the above
MCQ 13.18
Testing Ho: µ = 25 against H1: µ ≠ 20 leads to:

(a) Two-tailed test (b) Left-tailed test (c) Right-tailed test (d) Neither (a), (b) and (c)
MCQ 13.19
A rule or formula that provides a basis for testing a null hypothesis is called:
(a) Test-statistic (b) Population statistic (c) Both of these (d) None of the above
MCQ 13.20
The range of test statistic-Z is:
(a) 0 to 1 (b) -1 to +1 (c) 0 to ∞ (d) -∞ to +∞
MCQ 13.21
The range of test statistic-t is:
(a) 0 to ∞ (b) 0 to 1 (c) -∞ to +∞ (d) -1 to +1
MCQ 13.22
If Ho is true and we reject it is called:
(a) Type-I error (b) Type-II error (c) Standard error (d) Sampling error
MCQ 13.23
The probability associated with committing type-I error is:
(a) β (b) α (c) 1 – β (d) 1 – α
MCQ 13.24
A failing student is passed by an examiner, it is an example of:
(a) Type-I error (b) Type-II error (c) Unbiased decision (d) Difficult to tell
MCQ 13.25
A passing student is failed by an examiner, it is an example of:
(a) Type-I error (b) Type-II error (c) Best decision (d) All of the above
MCQ 13.26
1 – α is also called:
(a) Confidence coefficient (b) Power of the test (c) Size of the test (d) Level of significance
MCQ 13.27
1 – α is the probability associated with:
(a) Type-I error (b) Type-II error (c) Level of confidence (d) Level of significance
MCQ 13.28
Area of the rejection region depends on:
(a) Size of α (b) Size of β (c) Test-statistic (d) Number of values
MCQ 13.29
Size of critical region is known as:
(a) β (b) 1 - β (c) Critical value (d) Size of the test
MCQ 13.30
A null hypothesis is rejected if the value of a test statistic lies in the:
(a) Rejection region (b) Acceptance region (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
MCQ 13.32
Level of significance is also called:
(a) Power of the test (b) Size of the test (c) Level of confidence (d) Confidence coefficient
MCQ 13.33
Level of significance α lies between:
(a) -1 and +1 (b) 0 and 1 (c) 0 and n (d) -∞ to +∞
MCQ 13.34
Critical region is also called:
(a) Acceptance region (b) Rejection region (c) Confidence region (d) Statistical region
MCQ 13.35
The probability of rejecting Ho when it is false is called:
(a) Power of the test (b) Size of the test (c) Level of confidence (d) Confidence coefficient
MCQ 13.36
Power of a test is related to:
(a) Type-I error (b) Type-II error (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) and (b)
MCQ 13.37
In testing hypothesis α + β is always equal to:
(a) One (b) Zero (c) Two (d) Difficult to tell
MCQ 13.38
The significance level is the risk of:
(a) Rejecting Ho when Ho is correct (b) Rejecting Ho when H1 is correct
(c) Rejecting H1 when H1 is correct (d) Accepting Ho when Ho is correct.
MCQ 13.39
An example in a two-sided alternative hypothesis is:
(a) H1: µ < 0 (b) H1: µ > 0 (c) H1: µ ≥ 0 (d) H1: µ ≠ 0
MCQ 13.40
If the magnitude of calculated value of t is less than the tabulated value of t and H1 is two-sided, we
should:
(a) Reject Ho (b) Accept H1 (c) Not reject Ho (d) Difficult to tell
MCQ 13.41
Accepting a null hypothesis Ho:
(a) Proves that Ho is true (b) Proves that Ho is false
(c) Implies that Ho is likely to be true (d) Proves that µ ≤ 0
MCQ 13.42
The chance of rejecting a true hypothesis decreases when sample size is:
(a) Decreased (b) Increased (c) Constant (d) Both (a) and (b)
MCQ 13.43
The equality condition always appears in:

(a) Null hypothesis (b) Simple hypothesis (c) Alternative hypothesis (d) Both (a) and (b)
MCQ 13.44
Which hypothesis is always in an inequality form?
(a) Null hypothesis (b) Alternative hypothesis (c) Simple hypothesis (d) Composite hypothesis
MCQ 13.45
Which of the following is composite hypothesis?
(a) µ ≥ µo (b) µ ≤ µo (c) µ = µo (d) µ ≠ µo
MCQ 13.46
P (Type I error) is equal to:
(a) 1 – α (b) 1 – β (c) α (d) β
MCQ 13.47
P (Type II error) is equal to:
(a) α (b) β (c) 1 – α (d) 1 – β
MCQ 13.48
The power of the test is equal to:
(a) α (b) β (c) 1 – α (d) 1 – β
MCQ 13.49
The degree of confidence is equal to:
(a) α (b) β (c) 1 – α (d) 1 – β
MCQ 13.50
α / 2 is called:
(a) One tailed significance level (b) Two tailed significance level
(c) Left tailed significance level (d) Right tailed significance level
MCQ 13.51
Student’s t-test is applicable only when:

(a) n≤30 and σ is known (b) n>30 and σ is unknown (c) n=30 and σ is known (d) All of the above
MCQ 13.52
Student’s t-statistic is applicable in case of:
(a) Equal number of samples (b) Unequal number of samples (c) Small samples (d) All of the above
MCQ 13.53
Paired t-test is applicable when the observations in the two samples are:
(a) Equal in number (b) Paired (c) Correlation (d) All of the above
MCQ 13.54
The degree of freedom for paired t-test based on n pairs of observations is:
(a) 2n - 1 (b) n - 2 (c) 2(n - 1) (d) n - 1
MCQ 13.55
The test-statistic
has d.f = ________:
(a) n (b) n - 1 (c) n - 2 (d) n1 + n2 - 2
MCQ 13.56
In an unpaired samples t-test with sample sizes n1= 11 and n2= 11, the value of tabulated t should be
obtained for:
(a) 10 degrees of freedom (b) 21 degrees of freedom
(c) 22 degrees of freedom (d) 20 degrees of freedom
MCQ 13.57
In analyzing the results of an experiment involving seven paired samples, tabulated t should be
obtained for:
(a) 13 degrees of freedom (b) 6 degrees of freedom

(c) 12 degrees of freedom (d) 14 degrees of freedom
MCQ 13.58
The mean difference between 16 paired observations is 25 and the standard deviation of differences is
10. The value of statistic-t is:
(a) 4 (b) 10 (c) 16 (d) 25
MCQ 13.59
Statistic-t is defined as deviation of sample mean from population mean µ expressed in terms of:
(a) Standard deviation (b) Standard error
(c) Coefficient of standard deviation (d) Coefficient of variation
MCQ 13.60
Student’s t-distribution has (n-1) d.f. when all the n observations in the sample are:
(a) Dependent (b) Independent (c) Maximum (d) Minimum
MCQ 13.61
The number of independent values in a set of values is called:
(a) Test-statistic (b) Degree of freedom (c) Level of significance (d) Level of confidence
MCQ 13.62
The purpose of statistical inference is:
(a) To collect sample data and use them to formulate hypotheses about a population
(b) To draw conclusion about populations and then collect sample data to support the conclusions
(c) To draw conclusions about populations from sample data
(d) To draw conclusions about the known value of population parameter
MCQ 13.63
Suppose that the null hypothesis is true and it is rejected, is known as:
(a) A type-I error, and its probability is β
(b) A type-I error, and its probability is α

(c) A type-II error, and its probability is α
(d) A type-Il error, and its probability is β
MCQ 13.64
An advertising agency wants to test the hypothesis that the proportion of adults in Pakistan who read a
Sunday
Magazine is 25 percent. The null hypothesis is that the proportion reading the Sunday Magazine is:
(a) Different from 25% (b) Equal to 25% (c) Less than 25 % (d) More than 25 %
MCQ 13.65
If the mean of a particular population is µo,
is distributed:
(a) As a standard normal variable, if the population is non-normal
(b) As a standard normal variable, if the sample is large
(c) As a standard normal variable, if the population is normal
(d) As the t-distribution with v = n - 1 degrees of freedom
MCQ 13.66
If µ1 and µ2 are means of two populations,

is distributed:
(a) As a standard normal variable, if both samples are independent and less than 30
(b) As a standard normal variable, if both populations are normal
(c) As both (a) and (b) state
(d) As the t-distribution with n1 + n2 - 2 degrees of freedom
MCQ 13.67
If the population proportion equals po, then
is distributed:
(a) As a standard normal variable, if n > 30
(b) As a Poisson variable
(c) As the t-distribution with v= n 1 degrees of freedom
(d) As a distribution with v degrees of freedom
MCQ 13.68
When σ is known, the hypothesis about population mean is tested by:
(a) t-test (b) Z-test (c) χ
2
-test (d) F-test
MCQ 13.69
Given µo = 130, = 150, σ = 25 and n = 4; what test statistics is appropriate?
(a) t (b) Z (c) χ
(d) F
MCQ 13.70
Given Ho: µ = µo, H1: µ ≠ µo, α = 0.05 and we reject Ho; the absolute value of the Z-statistic must have
equalled
or been beyond what value?
(a) 1.96 (b) 1.65 (c) 2.58 (d) 2.33
1. A statement made about a population for testing purpose is called?

a) Statistic
b) Hypothesis
c) Level of Significance
d) Test-Statistic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hypothesis is a statement made about a population in general. It is then tested and
correspondingly accepted if True and rejected if False.
2. If the assumed hypothesis is tested for rejection considering it to be true is called?
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Statistical Hypothesis
c) Simple Hypothesis
d) Composite Hypothesis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the assumed hypothesis is tested for rejection considering it to be true is called
Null Hypothesis. It gives the value of population parameter.
3. A statement whose validity is tested on the basis of a sample is called?
a) Null Hypothesis
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In testing of Hypothesis a statement whose validity is tested on the basis of a
sample is called as Statistical Hypothesis. Its validity is tested with respect to a sample.
4. A hypothesis which defines the population distribution is called?
a) Null Hypothesis
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A hypothesis which defines the population distribution is called as Simple
hypothesis. It specifies all parameter values.
5. If the null hypothesis is false then which of the following is accepted?
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Positive Hypothesis
c) Negative Hypothesis
d) Alternative Hypothesis.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If the null hypothesis is false then Alternative Hypothesis is accepted. It is also
called as Research Hypothesis.
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6. The rejection probability of Null Hypothesis when it is true is called as?

a) Level of Confidence
b) Level of Significance
c) Level of Margin
d) Level of Rejection
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Level of Significance is defined as the probability of rejection of a True Null
Hypothesis. Below this probability a Null Hypothesis is rejected.
7. The point where the Null Hypothesis gets rejected is called as?
a) Significant Value
b) Rejection Value
c) Acceptance Value
d) Critical Value
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The point where the Null Hypothesis gets rejected is called as Critical Value. It is
also called as dividing point for separation of the regions where hypothesis is accepted and
rejected.
8. If the Critical region is evenly distributed then the test is referred as?
a) Two tailed
b) One tailed
c) Three tailed
d) Zero tailed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In two tailed test the Critical region is evenly distributed. One region contains the
area where Null Hypothesis is accepted and another contains the area where it is rejected.
9. The type of test is defined by which of the following?
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Simple Hypothesis
c) Alternative Hypothesis
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Alternative Hypothesis defines whether the test is one tailed or two tailed. It is also
called as Research Hypothesis.
10. Which of the following is defined as the rule or formula to test a Null Hypothesis?
a) Test statistic
b) Population statistic
c) Variance statistic
d) Null statistic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Test statistic provides a basis for testing a Null Hypothesis. A test statistic is a
random variable that is calculated from sample data and used in a hypothesis test.
11. Consider a hypothesis H0 where ϕ0 = 5 against H1 where ϕ1 > 5. The test is?
a) Right tailed
b) Left tailed
c) Center tailed
d) Cross tailed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the given example since H1 lies to the right of the Ho that is the Null Hypothesis
the test is referred as a Right tailed test.
12. Consider a hypothesis where H0 where ϕ0 = 23 against H1 where ϕ1 < 23. The test is?
a) Right tailed
b) Left tailed
c) Center tailed
d) Cross tailed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the Normal Distribution curve of both the hypothesis the H1 hypothesis lies to
the left of the Null hypothesis hence the test is a Left tailed.
13. Type 1 error occurs when?
a) We reject H0 if it is True
b) We reject H0 if it is False
c) We accept H0 if it is True
d) We accept H0 if it is False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Testing of Hypothesis Type 1 error occurs when we reject H0 if it is True. On the
contrary a Type 2 error occurs when we accept H0 if it is False.
14. The probability of Type 1 error is referred as?
a) 1-α
b) β
c) α
d) 1-β
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In Testing of Hypothesis Type 1 error occurs when we reject H0 if it is True. The
probability of H0 is α then the error probability will be 1- α.
15. Alternative Hypothesis is also called as?
a) Composite hypothesis
b) Research Hypothesis
d) Null Hypothesis
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Alternative Hypothesis is also called as Research Hypothesis. If the Null Hypothesis
is false then Alternative Hypothesis is accepted.

Inference

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Inference

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Q.

2. Which of the following is a confounding variable in this study?

This scenario applies to Questions 3 to 5: A randomized experiment was done by randomly

3. This is a randomized experiment rather than an observational study because:

b. The two groups were compared at the end of the study.

their own activity.

d. A random sample of participants was used.

4. The two treatments in this study were:

measured at the end of the study.

two activities was found, then:

else the participants did during the year.

were more likely to read a book than to walk.

blood pressure because of the way the study was done.

a. A population parameter is only based on conceptual measurements, but a sample statistic

is based on a combination of real and conceptual measurements.

remains fixed across samples.

parameter can be known.

d. a simple random sample.

b. Only receiving responses from half of the people in the sample.

c. Conducting interviews by telephone instead of in person.

d. Using a random sample of students at a university to estimate the proportion of people

who think the legal drinking age should be lowered.

9. Which one of the following variables is not categorical?

b. Gender of a person: male or female.

c. Choice on a test item: true or false.

d. Marital status of a person (single, married, divorced, other)

11. Which one of these statistics is unaffected by outliers?

a. The range is equal to 5 standard deviations.

c. The mean is much smaller than the median.

d. There are no outliers.

a. Teachers encourage people to get college degrees, so an increase in the number of

teachers is causing an increase in the number of people with college degrees.

the association is explained by a third variable, the size of the city.

so income is a confounding variable, making causation between number of teachers and

number of people with college degrees difficult to prove.

a. The x-variable explains 25% of the variability in the y-variable.

b. The x-variable explains −25% of the variability in the y-variable.

c. The x-variable explains 50% of the variability in the y-variable.

d. The x-variable explains −50% of the variability in the y-variable.

16. What is the effect of an outlier on the value of a correlation coefficient?

a. An outlier will always decrease a correlation coefficient.

b. An outlier will always increase a correlation coefficient.

c. An outlier might either decrease or increase a correlation coefficient, depending on

where it is in relation to the other points.

d. An outlier will have no effect on a correlation coefficient.

17. One use of a regression line is

a. to determine if any x-values are outliers.

c. to determine if a change in x causes a change in y.

d. to estimate the change in y for a one-unit change in x.

final exam = 50 + 0.5 × midterm

One interpretation of the slope is

compared to a correct answer on the midterm exam.

age group and response.

Exceed Limit if Possible?

Age Always Not Always Total

Under 30 100 100 200

Over 30 40 160 200

Total 140 260 400

people over 30?

non-athletic peers." (Sacramento Bee, Feb 1, 2002, p. A1)

before making a decision about participation in school sports?

a. Where was the study conducted?

b. How many students in the study participated in after-school sports?