NEET 2019

1. When a block of mass M is suspended by of the first minima, if the entire

a long wire of lenght L, the length of the experimental apparatus is immersed in
wire becomes (L + l). The elastic potential water? (water = 4/3)
energy stored in the extended wire is: a. 0.266° b. 0.15°
a. Mgl b. MgL c. 0.05° d. 0.1°
c. 1Mgl2 d. 1MgL2 6. In which of the following devices, the
2. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and eddy current effect is not used?
whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is a. Induction furnace
most likely to break when: b. Magnetic braking in train
a. The mass is at the highest point c. Electromagnet
b. The wire is horizontal d. Electric heater
c. The mass is at the lowest point 7. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is
d. Inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical blown from a detergent solution having a
3. Ionized hydrogen atoms and -particles surface tension of 2.5 × 10–2 N/m. The
with same momenta enters pressure inside the bubble equals at a
perpendicular to a constant magnetic point Z0 below the free surface of water
field, B. The ratio of their radii of their in a container. Taking g = 10 m/s²,
paths rH : r will be: density of water = 103 kg/m³, the value
a. 2: 1 b. 1: 2 of Z0 is :
c. 4: 1 d. 1: 4 a. 100 cm b. 10 cm
4. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u c. 1 cm d. 0.5 cm
collides with another body B of mass 2m, 8. Which colour of the light has the longest
at rest. The collision is head on and wavelength?
elastic in nature. After the collision the a. Red b. Blue
fraction of energy lost by the colliding c. Green d. Violet
body A is:
9. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls
a. b. on a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass
c. d. has speed of 20 cm/s. How much work is
5. In a double slit experiment, when light of needed to stop it?
wavelength 400 nm was used, the a. 3 J b. 30 kJ
angular width of the first minima formed c. 2 J d. 1 J
on a screen placed 1 m away, was found
10. The displacement of a particle executing
to be 0.2°. What will be the angular width
simple harmonic motion is given by y =
Samiksha’s MBBS Entrance SOLVED QUESTIONS |1|
 A0 + Asint + Bcost. Then the amplitude
of its oscillation is given by :
a. A0 + b.
c. d. A + B
11.Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of
focal length f each, are kept coaxially in
contact with each other such that the
focal length of the combination is F1.
When the space between the two lenses
is filled with glycerin (which has the
same refractive index (= 1.5) as that of
glass) then the equivalent focal length is
F2. The ratio F1: F2 will be:
a. 2: 1 b. 1: 2
c. 2: 3 d. 3: 4
12.Increase in temperature of a gas filled in
a container would lead to:
a. Increase in its mass
b. Increase in its kinetic energy
c. Decrease in its pressure
d. Decrease in intermolecular distance
13.An electron is accelerated through a
potential difference of 10,000 V. Its de
Broglie wavelength is, (nearly): (me = 9 ×
10–31 kg)
a. 12.2 × 10–13 m
b. 12.2 × 10–12 m
c. 12.2 × 10–14 m
d. 12.2 nm
14.A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium
rod of unknown length have their
increase in length independent of
increase in temperature. The length of
aluminium rod is: (Cu = 1.7 × 10–5 K–1 and
Al = 2.2 × 10–5 K–1)
a. 6.8 cm b. 113.9 cm
c. 88 cm d. 68 cm
15.Pick the wrong answer in the context
with rainbow.
|2| Solved Questions Extension Booklet/NEET 2019
a. When the light rays undergo two internal
reflections in a water drop, a secondary
rainbow is formed
b. The order of colours is reversed in the
secondary rainbow
c. An observer can see a rainbow when his
front is towards the sun
d. Rainbow is a combined effect of
dispersion refraction and reflection of
sunlight
16.A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the
earth. How much will it weigh half way
down to the centre of the earth?
a. 150 N b. 200 N
c. 250 N d. 100 N
17.Six similar bulbs are connected as shown
in the figure with a DC source of emf E
and zero internal resistance.
The ratio of power consumption by the
bulbs when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in
the situation when two from section A
and one from section B are glowing, will
be :
a. 4: 9 b. 9: 4
c. 1: 2 d. 2: 1
18.For a p-type semiconductor, which of the
following statements is true ?
a. Electrons are the majority carriers and
trivalent atoms are the dopants.
b. Holes are the majority carriers and
trivalent atoms are the dopants.
c. Holes are the majority carriers and
pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
d. Electrons are the majority carriers and
pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
19.Average velocity of a particle executing c. V1 = V2 and i1 = i2
SHM in one complete vibration is: d. V2 > V1 and i1 > i2
a. b. A 25.A hollow metal sphere of radius R is
c. d. Z ero uniformly charged. The electric field due
20.The unit of thermal conductivity is: to the sphere at a distance r from the
a. J m K–1 b. J m–1 K–1 centre
–1
c. W m K d. W m–1 K–1 a. Increases as r increases for r < R and for r
21.A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 >R
cm rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 b. Zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as
rpm. The torque required to stop after r increases for r > R
2revolutions is c. Zero as r increases for r < R, increases as
a. 2 × 10–6 N m b. 2 × 10–3 N m r increases for r > R
–4
c. 12 × 10 N m d. 2 × 106 N m
22.A force F = 20 + 10 y acts on a particle in d. Decreases as r increases for r < R and for
y-direction where F is in newton and y in r>R
meter. Work done by this force to move 26.At a point A on the earth’s surface the
the particle from y = 0 to y = 1 m is: angle of dip, = +25°. At a point B on the
a. 30 J b. 5 J earth’s surface the angle of dip, = –25°.
c. 25 J d. 20 J We can interpret that:
23.Which of the following acts as a circuit a. A and B are both located in the northern
protects device? hemisphere.
a. Conductor b. Inductor b. A is located in the southern hemisphere
c. Switch d. Fuse and B is located in the northern
24.In the circuits shown below, the readings
hemisphere.
of voltmeters and the ammeters will be:
c. A is located in the northern hemisphere
and B is located in the southern
hemisphere.
d. A and B are both located in the southern
hemisphere.
27.The total energy of an electron in an
atom in an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and
potential energies are, respectively:
a. –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV
b. –3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
c. 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
d. 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV
28.In total internal reflection when the
angle of incidence is equal to the critical
angle for the pair of media in contact,
what will be angle of refraction?
a. V2 > V1 and i1 = i2
a. 180°
b. V1 = V2 and i1 > i2
Samiksha’s MBBS Entrance SOLVED QUESTIONS |3|
 b. 0°
c. Equal to angle of incidence
d. 90°
29.The work done to raise a mass m from
the surface of the earth to a height h,
which is equal to the radius of the earth,
is:
a. mgR b. 2 mgR
c. mgR d. mgR
30.When an object is shot from the bottom
of a long smooth inclined plane kept at an
angle 60° with horizontal, it can travel a
distance x1 along the plane. But when the
inclination is decreased to 30° and the
same object is shot with the same
velocity, it can travel x2 distance.
Then x1: x2 will be:
a. 1: 2 b. 2:1
c. 1: 3 d. 1: 2 3
31. -particle consists of:
a. 2 protons and 2 neutrons only
b. 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons
c. 2 electrons and 4 protons only
d. 2 protons only
32.The speed of a swimmer in still water is
20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10
m/s and is flowing due east. If he is
standing on the south bank and wishes to
cross the river along the shortest path
the angle at which he should make his
strokes w.r.t. north is given by :
a. 30° west b. 0°
c. 60° west d. 45° west
33.A particle moving with velocity V is acted
by three forces shown by the vector
triangle PQR. The velocity of the particle
will:
|4| Solved Questions Extension Booklet/NEET 2019
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain constant
d. Change according to the smallest force
OR
34.Two particles A and B are moving in
uniform circular motion in concentric
circles of radii rA and rB with speed vA and
vB respectively. Their time period of
rotation is the same. The ratio of
angular speed of A to that of B will be:
a. rA: rB b. vA : vB
c. rB : rA d. 1: 1
35.A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against
the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical
drum of radius 1 m. The coefficient of
friction between the block and the inner
wall of the cylinder is 0.1. The minimum
angular velocity needed for the cylinder
to keep the block stationary when the
cylinder is vertical and rotating about its
axis, will be: (g 10m/s ) =2
a. rad/s b. rad/s
c. 10 rad/s d. 10  rad/s
36.Two parallel infinite line charges with
linear charge densities +  C/m and –
C/m are placed at a distance of 2R in
free space. What is the electric field mid-
way between the two line charges?
a. Zero b. N/ C
c. N/ C d. N/ C
37.Two point charges A and B, having
charges +Q and –Q respectively, are
placed at certain distance apart and force
acting between them is F. If 25% charge
 of A is transferred to B, then force projection of the radius vector of rotating
between the charges becomes: particle P is:
a. F b.
c. d.
38. A small hole of area of cross-section 2
mm2 is present near the bottom of a fully
filled open tank of height 2 m. Taking g =
10 m/s2, the rate of flow of water
through the open hole would be nearly
a. y(t) = –3 cos 2t, where y in m
a. 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s
b. y(t) = 4 sin , where y in m
b. 8.9 × 10–6 m3/s
c. y(t) = 3 cos , where y in m
c. 2.23 × 10–6 m3/s
d. y(t) = 3 cos , where y in m
d. 6.4 × 10–6 m3/s
43.A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance
39.The correct Boolean operation
20 F is being charged by a voltage
represented by the circuit diagram source whose potential is changing at the
drawn is: rate of 3 V/s. The conduction current
through the connecting wires, and the
displacement current through the plates
of the capacitor, would be, respectively.
a. Zero, 60 A b. 60 A, 60 A
c. 60 A, zero d. Zero, zero
44.In an experiment, the percentage of error
occurred in the measurement of physical
a. AND b. OR quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3%
c. NAND d. NOR and 4% respectively. Then the maximum
40.In which of the following processes, heat percentage of error in the measurement
X, where X 
is neither absorbed nor released by a
a. % b. 16%
system?
c. – 10% d. 10%
a. Isothermal b. Adiabatic
c. Isobaric d. Isochoric 45.A cylindrical conductor of radius R is
carrying a constant current. The plot of
41.A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m² is
the magnitude of the magnetic field. B
kept perpendicular to a magnetic field 5
with the distance d from the centre of the
× 10–5 T. When the plane of the coil is
conductor, is correctly represented by
rotated by 90° around any of its coplanar
the figure:
axis in 0.1 s, the emf induced in the coil
will be:
a. 2 V b. 0.2 V
–3
c. 2 × 10 V d. 0.02 V
a.
42.The radius of circle, the period of
revolution, initial position and sense of
revolution are indicated in the fig. y-

Samiksha’s MBBS Entrance SOLVED QUESTIONS |5|

 b.
d.
48.The correct structure of
tribromooctaoxide is:
c.

a.
d.
46.The number of sigma () and pi () bonds
in pent-2-en-4-yne is b.
a. 10bonds and 3bonds
b. 8bonds and 5bonds
c.
c. 11bonds and 2bonds
d. 13bonds and no bonds
47.The structure of intermediate A in the
d.
following reaction, is:

49.4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in

the order of decreasing energy. The
correct option is
a. 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
b. 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d
c. 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p
d. 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p
a. 50.Which of the following reactions are
disproportionation reaction?
i. 2Cu+  Cu2+ + Cui0
ii. 3MnO + 4H+  2MnO4¯ + MnO2 +
2H2O
b. iii. 2KMNO4 K2MnO4¯ MnO2 + O2
iv. 2MnO4¯ + 3Mn2+ + 2H2 O  5MnO2 +
4H
Select the correct option from the
c. following
a. (i) and (ii) only
b. (i) and (ii) and (iii)
c. (i), (iii) and (iv)
|6| Solved Questions Extension Booklet/NEET 2019
 d. (i) and (iv) only 56.Which is the correct thermal stability
51.Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 order for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)?
K expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a a. H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
constant external pressure of 2 bar. The b. H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
work done by the gas is (Given that 1 L c. H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
bar = 100 J) d. H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O < H2S
a. –30 J b. 5 kJ 57.Which of the following is incorrect
c. 25 J d. 30 J statement?
52.Among the following, the one that is not a a. PbF4 is covalent in nature
green house gas is b. SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed
a. Nitrous oxide c. GeX4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than
b. Methane GeX2
d. SnF4 is ionic in nature
c. Ozone
58. Match the following:
d. Sulphur dioxide
a. Pure nitrogen (i) Chlorine
53. For the cell reaction
b. Haber process (ii) Sulphuric acid
2Fe3+ (aq) + 2l¯ → 2Fe2+(aq) + l2 (aq) c. Contact process (iii) Ammonia
E°Cell = 0.24 V at 298 K. The standard d. Deacon’s process (iv) Sodium azide or
Gibbs energy ( G ) r o of the cell reaction Barium azide
is: Which of the following is the correct
a. –46.32 kJ mol–1 option?
b. –23.16 kJ mol–1 (b) (c) (d)
c. 46.32 kJ mol –1
a. (ii) (iii) (iv)
d. 23.16 kJ mol–1 b. (iv) (i) (iii)
54.Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate c. (iv) (ii) (i)
transfer require an alkaline earth metal d. (iii) (ii) (i)
(M) as the cofactor. M is: 59.Which of the following diatomic
a. Be b. Mg molecular species has only bonds
c. Ca d. Sr according to Molecular Orbital Theory?
55.The most suitable reagent for the a. O2 b. N2
following conversion, is: c. C2 d. Be2
60.For the second period elements the
correct increasing order of first
ionisation enthalpy is:
a. Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
a. Na/liquid NH3 b. Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
b. H2, Pd/C, quinoline c. Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
c. Zn/HCl d. Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
d. Hg2+/H+, H2O 61. The biodegradable polymer is:
a. Nylon-6, 6

Samiksha’s MBBS Entrance SOLVED QUESTIONS |7|

 b. Nylon 2-Nylon 6 c. Acetone + Carbon disulphide
c. Nylon-6 d. Heptane + Octane
d. Buna-S 67. For the chemical reaction the correct
62.pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is
9. The solubility product (Ksp) of
Ca(OH)2 is:
N2(b) + 3H2(g)
 2NH3(g)option is:

a. 0.5 × 10–15 b. 0.25 × 10–10

a. – = –
c. 0.125 × 10–15 d. 0.5 × 10–10
b. –= 2
63.If the rate constant for a first order
c. –=
reaction is k, the time (t) required for the
d. 3 = 2
completion of 99% of the reaction is
68.The number of moles of hydrogen
given by:
molecules required to produce 20 moles
a. t = 0.693/k b. t = 6.909/k
of ammonia through Haber's process is:
c. t = 4.606/k d. t = 2.303/k
a. 10 b. 20
64.The non-essential amino acid among the
c. 30 d. 40
following is:
69.The compound that is most difficult to
a. Valine b. Leucine protonate is:
c. Alanine d. Lysine O
65.Among the following, the reaction that a. H H
proceeds through an electrophilic O
substitution, is: b. H3C H
O
+ Cu2Cl2 c. H3C CH3
N2Cl¯
O
a.
d. Ph H
AlCl2
Cl + HCl
70. For an ideal solution, the correct option
+ Cl2
is:
b.
a. mix S = 0 at constant T and P
Cl
Cl
b. mix V 0 at constant T and P

+ Cl2
UV light
Cl Cl
c. mix H = 0 at constant T and P
d. mix G = 0 at constant T and P

c.
Cl Cl 71.Conjugate base for Brnsted acids H 2O and
HF are:
heat
CH2OH+HCl a. OH– and H2F+, respectively
CH2Cl +H2O b. H3O+ and F–, respectively
d. c. OH– and F–, respectively
66.The mixture that forms maximum boiling d. H3O+ and H2F+, respectively
azeotrope is: 72.Which mixture of the solutions will lead
a. Water + Nitric acid to the formation of negatively charged
b. Ethanol + Water colloidal [Agl]l– sol. ?

|8| Solved Questions Extension Booklet/NEET 2019

 a. 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI c. 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M
b. 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 2 M KI NH4OH
c. 50 mL of 2 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI d. 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.1 M
d. 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO 3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
KI 78.The major product of the following
reaction is:
73.Among the following, the narrow
spectrum antibiotic is:
a. Penicillin G
b. Ampicillin
c. Amoxycillin
d. Chloramphenicol
74.An alkene "A" on reaction with O
3 and Zn–H2O gives propanone and
a. b.
ethanal in equimolar ratio. Addition of
HCl to alkene "A" gives "B" as the major
product. The structure of product "B" is:
a. Cl – CH2 – CH2– c. d.
b. H3C – CH – 79.Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I
c. H3C – CH2 – with its structure in Column-II and assign
d. H3C –– the correct code: Column-I Column-II
(a) XeF4 (i) pyramidal
75.What is the correct electronic
(b) XeF6 (ii) square planar
configuration of the central atom in
(c) XeOF4 (iii) distorted octahedral
K4[Fe(CN)6] based on crystal field theory? (d) XeO3 (iv) square pyramida
a. te b. te Code:
c. e 3
t d. e4 t (a) (b) (c) (d)
76.Identify the incorrect statement related a. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
to PCl5 from the following: b. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
a. Three equatorial P–Cl bonds make an c. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
angle of 120° with each other d. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
b. Two axial P–Cl bonds make an angle of 80.The manganate and permanganate ions
180° with each other are tetrahedral, due to :
c. Axial P–Cl bonds are longer than a. The -bonding involves overlap of p-
equatorial P–Cl bonds orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
d. PCl5 molecule is non-reactive manganese
77. Which will make basic buffer? b. There is no -bonding
a. 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of 0.1 M c. The -bonding involves overlap of p-
CH3COOH orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of
b. 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL of manganese
0.1
M NaOH
Samiksha’s MBBS Entrance SOLVED QUESTIONS |9|
 d. The -bonding involves overlap of d- 87. Which of the following series of
orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen
manganese atom falls in visible region?
81.Which of the following species is not a. Lyman series
stable? b. Balmer series
a. [SiF6]2– b. [GeCl6]2– c. Paschen series
2– 2–
c. [Sn(OH)6] d. [SiCl6] d. Brackett series
82.For a cell involving one electron E° cell = 88.The method used to remove temporary
0.59 V at 298 K, the equilibrium constant hardness of water is:
for the cell reaction is: a. Calgon's method
Given that = 0.059 V at T = 298 K b. Clark's method
a. 1.0 × 102 b. 1.0 × 105 c. Ion-exchange method
10
c. 1.0 × 10 d. 1.0 × 1030 d. Synthetic resins method
83.Which of the following is an amphoteric 89.Which one is malachite from the
hydroxide?
following?
a. Sr(OH)2 b. Ca(OH)2 a. CuFeS2
c. Mg(OH)2 d. Be(OH)2 b. Cu(OH)2
84.A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar c. Fe3O4
volume 20 percent smaller than that for
d. CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
an ideal gas under the same conditions.
90.The correct order of the basic strength of
The correct option about the gas and its
methyl substituted amines in aqueous
compressibility factor (Z) is:
solution is :
a. Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant
a. (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
b. Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
b. (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
c. Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant
c. (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
d. Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
d. CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
85.A compound is formed by cation C and
91.The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro
anion A. The anions form hexagonal close
in 1992 was called
packed (hcp) lattice and the cations
a. to reduce CO2 emissions and global
occupy 75% of octahedral voids. The
warming
formula of the compound is:
b. for conservation of biodiversity and
a. C2A3 b. C3A2
sustainable utilization of its benefits
c. C3A4 d. C4A3
c. to assess threat posed to native species
86.In which case change in entropy is
by invasive weed species
negative?
d. for immediate steps to discontinue use of
a. Evaporation of water
CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer
b. Expansion of a gas at constant
92.Colostrum the yellowish fluid, secreted
temperature
by mother during the initial days of
c. Sublimation of solid to gas
lactation is very essential to impart
d. 2H(g) H2(g)

|10| Solved Questions Extension Booklet/NEET 2019

 immunity to the new born infants a. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
because it contains: b. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
a. Natural killer cells c. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
b. Monocytes d. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
c. Macrophages 98.Which of the following is the most
d. Immunoglobulin A important cause for animals and plants
93.Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry being driven to extinction?
weather. Select the most appropriate
a. Habitat loss and fragmentation
reason
b. Drought and floods
from the following:
c. Economic exploitation
a. Closure of stomata
b. Flaccidity of bulliform cells d. Alien species invasion
c. Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy 99.Which part of the brain is responsible for
mesophyll thermoregulation?
d. Tyloses in vessels a. Cerebrum
94.The shorter and longer arms of a b. Hypothalamus
submetacentric chromosome are c. Corpus callosum
referred to as d. Medulla oblongata
a. s-arm and l-arm respectively 100. Consider following features
b. p-arm and q-arm respectively (a) Organ system level of organisation
c. q-arm and p-arm respectively (b) Bilateral symmetry
d. m-arm and n-arm respectively (c) True coelomates with segmentation of
95.Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of body
tripalmitin is Select the correct option of animal
a. 0.9 b. 0.7 groups which possess all the above
c. 0.07 d. 0.09 characteristics
96.Which of the following is a commercial a. Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
blood cholesterol lowering agent? b. Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
a. Cyclosporin A b. Statin c. Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
c. Streptokinase d. Lipases d. Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
97.Match the following structures with their 101.Select the correct sequence of organs in
respective location in organs the alimentary canal of cockroach
a. Crypts of Lieberkuhn (i) Pancreas starting from mouth
b. Glisson's Capsule (ii) Duodenum a. Pharynx  Oesophagus  Crop
c. Islets of Langerhans (iii) Small Gizzard
intestine  Ileum  Colon  Rectum
d. Brunner's Glands (iv) Liver b. Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard
Select the correct option from the  Crop
following  Ileum  Colon  Rectum
(a) (b) (c) (d)

Samiksha’s MBBS Entrance SOLVED QUESTIONS |11|

 c. Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard  b. (iv) (i) (ii) (v)
Ileum  Crop  Colon  Rectum c. (ii) (i) (v) (iii)
d. Pharynx  Oesophagus  Ileum  d. (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)
Crop 106 Which one of the following is not a
 Gizzard  Colon  Rectum method in situ conservation of
102.Which of the following pairs of gases is biodiversity?
mainly responsible for green house a. Biosphere Reserve
effect? b. Wildlife Sanctuary
a. Ozone and Ammonia c. Botanical Garden
b. Oxygen and Nitrogen d. Sacred Grove
c. Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide 107.In a species, the weight of newborn
d. Carbon dioxide and Methane ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the
103.Which of the following muscular newborn with an average weight
disorders is inherited? between 3 to 3.3 kg survive
a. Tetany whereas 99% of the infants born with
b. Muscular dystrophy weight from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die.
c. Myasthenia gravis Which type of selection process is taking
place?
d. Botulism
a. Directional Selection
104.The ciliated epithelial cells are required
to move particles or mucus in a specific b. Stabilizing Selection
direction. In humans, these cells are c. Disruptive Selection
mainly present in d. Cyclical Selection
a. Bile duct and Bronchioles 108. The correct sequence of phases of cell
b. Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct cycle is:
c. Eustachian tube and Salivary duct a. M G1 G2 S
d. Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes b. G1 G2 S M
105.Match the Column-I with Column-II c. S G1 G2 M
Column-I Column-II d. G1 S G2 M
a. P - wave (i) Depolarisation of 109.How does steroid hormone influence
ventricles the cellular activities?
b. QRS complex (ii) Repolarisation of a. Changing the permeability of the cell
ventricles membrane
c. T - wave (iii) Coronary b. Binding to DNA and forming a gene
ischemia hormone complex
d. Reduction in the (iv) Depolarisation of c. Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell
size of T-wave atira membrane
(v) Repolarisation of
d. Using aquaporin channels as second
atria
messenger
Select the correct option.
110.Which of the following statements is not
(a) (b) (c) (d)
correct?
a. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
|12| Solved Questions Extension Booklet/NEET 2019
 a. Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic 115. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are
enzymes a. Adenine and thymine
b. The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are b. Adenine and guanine
active under acidic pH c. Guanine and cytosine
c. Lysosomes are membrane bound d. Cytosine and thymine
structures 116. Select the correct sequence for
d. Lysosomes are formed by the process of transport of sperm cells in male
reproductive system.
packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum
a. Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia
111.Which one of the following statements
 Rete testis  Inguinal canal 
regarding post-fertilization development
Urethra
in flowering plants is incorrect?
b. Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis 
a. Ovary develops into fruit
Vasa efferentia  Epididymis  Vas
b. Zygote develops into embryo
deferens  Ejaculatory duct  Urethra
c. Central cell develops into endosperm
 Urethral meatus
d. Ovules develop into embryo sac
c. Seminiferous tubules  Vasa efferentia
112. Concanavalin A is:
 Epididymis  Inguinal canal 
a. An alkaloid
Urethra
b. An essential oil
c. Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia
c. A lectin
 Vas deferens  Ejaculatory duct 
d. A pigment
Inguinal canal  Urethra  Urethral
113.Which one of the following equipments
meatus
is essentially required for growing
117.Match the hominids with their correct
microbes on a large scale, for industrial
brain size:
production of enzymes?
(a) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc
a. BOD incubator
(b) Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1350 cc
b. Sludge digester
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc
c. Industrial oven
(d) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc
d. Bioreactor
Select the correct option.
114. Consider the following statement:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly
bound to enzyme protein is called a. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
prosthetic group. b. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme c. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
with d. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
its bound prosthetic group is called 118. Variations caused by mutation, as
apoenzyme.
proposed by Hugo de Vries are
Select the correct option.
a. Random and directional
a. Both (A) and (B) are true.
b. Random and directionless
b. (A) is true but (B) is false.
c. Small and directional
c. Both (A) and (B) are false.
d. Small and directionless
d. (A) is false but (B) is true.
Samiksha’s MBBS Entrance SOLVED QUESTIONS |13|
119.Which of the following pair of c. Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma
organelles does not contain DNA? d. Nostoc, Azospirillium,
a. Mitochondria and Lysosomes Nucleopolyhedrovirus
b. Chloroplast and Vacuoles 124. Select the incorrect statement.
c. Lysosomes and Vacuoles a. Inbreeding increases homozygosity
d. Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria b. Inbreeding is essential to evolve
120.Due to increasing air-borne allergens purelines in any animal.
and pollutants, many people in urban c. Inbreeding selects harmful recessive
areas are suffering from respiratory genes that reduce fertility and
disorder causing wheezing due to productivity
a. Benign growth on mucous lining of nasal d. Inbreeding helps in accumulation of
cavity superior genes and elimination of
b. Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles undesirable genes
c. Proliferation of fibrous tissues and 125.Match the following organisms with the
damage of the alveolar walls products they produce
d. Reduction in the secretion of surfactants (a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese
by pneumocytes. (b) Saccharomyces (ii) Curd cerevisiae
121. Select the incorrect statement. (c) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric Acid
a. Male fruit fly is heterogametic (d) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread
b. In male grasshoppers 50% of sperms (v) Acetic Acid
have no sex-chromosome Select the correct option.
c. In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny (a) (b) (c) (d)
depends on the type of sperm rather than a. (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
egg b. (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)
d. Human males have one of their sex c. (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
chromosome much shorter than the
d. (ii) (i) (iii) (v)
other
126.What is the direction of movement of
122.DNA precipitation out of a mixture of
sugars in phloem?
biomolecules can be achieved by
a. Non-multidirectional b. Upward
treatment with
c. Downward d. Bi-directional
a. Isopropanol
127.In some plants, the female gamete
b. Chilled ethanol
develops into embryo without
c. Methanol at room temperature
fertilization. This phenomenon is known
d. Chilled chloroform as
123.Select the correct group of biocontrol a. Autogamy
agents.
b. Parthenocarpy
a. Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic
c. Syngamy
virus, Aphids
d. Parthenogenesis
b. Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus
128. Persistent nucellus in the seed is
thuringiensis
known as

|14| Solved Questions Extension Booklet/NEET 2019

 a. Chalaza b. Perisperm
c. Hilum d. Tegmen
129. What map unit (Centimorgan) is
adopted in the construction of genetic
maps?
a. A unit of distance between two
expressed genes representing 10% cross
over.
b. A unit of distance between two
expressed genes representing 100%
cross over.
c. A unit of distance between genes on
chromosomes, representing 1% cross
over.
d. A unit of distance between genes on
chromosomes, representing 50% cross
over.
130. What would be the heart rate of a
person if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood
volume in the ventricles at the end of
diastole is 100 mL and at the end of
ventricular systole is 50 mL?
a. 50 beats per minute
b. 75 beats per minute
c. 100 beats per minute
d. 125 beats per minute
131. Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria
helpful in carrying out
a. Nitrogen fixation
b. Chemoautotrophic fixation
c. Nitrification
d. Denitrification
132. Which of the following factors is
responsible for the formation of
concentrated urine?
a. Low levels of antidiuretic hormone
b. Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards
inner medullary interstitium in the
kidneys.
c. Secretion of erythropoietin by
Juxtaglomerular complex
Samiksha’s MBBS Entrance SOLVED QUESTIONS
d. Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular
filtration
133. Which of the following statements
regarding mitochondria is incorrect?
a. Outer membrane is permeable to
monomers of carbohydrates, fats and
proteins.
b. Enzymes of electron transport are
embedded in outer membrane.
c. Inner membrane is convoluted with
infoldings.
d. Mitochondrial matrix contains single
circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.
134. Xylem translocates.
a. Water only
b. Water and mineral salts only
c. Water, mineral salts and some organic
nitrogen only
d. Water, mineral salts, some organic
nitrogen and hormones
135. Cell in G0 phase:
a. Exit the cell cycle
b. Enter the cell cycle
c. Suspend the cell cycle
d. Terminate the cell cycle
136.Which of the statements given below is
not true about formation of Annual Rings
in trees?
a. Annual ring is a combination of spring
wood and autumn wood produced in a
year
b. Differential activity of cambium causes
light and dark bands of tissue early and
late wood respectively.
c. Activity of cambium depends upon
variation in climate.
d. Annual rings are not prominent in trees
of temperate region.
137. Which of the following ecological
pyramids is generally inverted?
a. Pyramid of numbers in grassland
|15|
 b. Pyramid of energy d. One fuses with the egg and other fuses
c. Pyramid of biomass in a forest with central cell nuclei.
d. Pyramid of biomass in a sea 143.What is the site of perception of
138. Placentation in which ovules develop photoperiod necessary for induction of
flowering in plants?
on the inner wall of the ovary or in
a. Lateral buds b. Pulvinus
peripheral part, is
c. Shoot apex d. Leaves
a. Basal b. Axile
144.Select the correctly written scientific
c. Parietal d. Free central name of Mango which was first described
139.Which of the following protocols did by Carolus Linnaeus:
aim for reducing emission of a. Mangifera indica Car. Linn.
chlorofluorocarbons into the b. Mangifera indica Linn.
atmosphere? c. Mangifera indica
d. Mangifera Indica
a. Montreal Protocol
145.Following statements describe the
b. Kyto Protocol characteristics of the enzyme Restriction
c. Gothenburg Protocol Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect
d. Geneva Protocol statement.
a. The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at
140.Which of the following contraceptive
identified position within the DNA.
methods do involve a role of hormone?
b. The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites
a. Lactational amenorrhea, Pills Emergency
and cuts only one of the two strands.
contraceptives. c. The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate
b. Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, backbone at specific sites on each strand.
Pills. d. The enzyme recognizes a specific
c. CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives. palindromic nucleotide sequence in the
DNA.
d. Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier
146.From evolutionary point of view,
methods.
retention of the female gametophyte with
141. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve developing young embryo on the parent
Volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 sporophyte for some time, is first
mL, respectively. What will be his observed in:
Expiratory Capacity if the Residual
a. Liverworts b. Mosses
Volume is 1200 mL? c. Pteridophytes d. Gymnosperms
a. 1500 mL b. 1700 mL 147.In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red
c. 2200 mL d. 2700 mL flower was crossed with a white flower
142. What is the fate of the male gametes and in F1 generation pink flowers were
discharged in the synergid? obtained. When pink flowers were selfed,
a. One fuses with egg other(s) degenerate the F2 generation showed white, red and
(s) in the synergid. pink flowers. Choose the incorrect
b. All fuse with the egg. statement from the following:
c. One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s) a. This experiment does not follow the
with synergid nucleus. Principle of Dominance.
b. Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete
dominance.
|16| Solved Questions Extension Booklet/NEET 2019
 c. Ratio of F2 is (Red): (Pink): (White) 153. Pinus seed cannot germinate and
d. Law of Segregation does not apply in this established without fungal association.
experiment This is because :
148. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-
a. its embryo is immature.
phosphate, the first irreversible reaction
b. it has obligate association with
of glycolysis, is catalyzed by mycorrhizae.
a. Aldolase c. it has very hard seed coat.
b. Hexokinase d. its seeds contain inhibitors that present
c. Enolase germination.
154.Which of the following features of
d. Phosphofructokinase
genetic code does allow bacteria to
149. Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by
produce human insulin by recombinant
a. methylation of morphine
DNA technology?
b. acetylation of morphine
c. glycosylation of morphine a. Genetic code is not ambiguous
d. nitration of morphines b. Genetic code is redundant
150.Select the hormone-releasing Intra- c. Genetic code is nearly universal
Uterine Devices. d. Genetic code is specific
155. Which of the following sexually
a. Vaults, LNG-20
b. Multiload 375, Progestasert transmitted diseases is not completely
c. Progestasert, LNG-20 curable?
d. Lippes Loop, Multiload 375 a. Gonorrhoea b. Genital warts
151.A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the c. Genital herpes d. Chlamydiasis
frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, 156.Which of the following statements is
then what will be the frequency of incorrect?
homozygous dominant, heterozygous and a. Viroids lack a protein coat.
homozygous recessive individuals in the b. Viruses are obligate parasites.
population? c. Infective constituent in viruses is the
a. 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa) protein coat.
b. 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa) d. Prions consist of abnormally folded
proteins.
c. 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)
157.Match the following organisms with
d. 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa) their respective characteristics:
152.Which of the following is true for Golden (a) Pila (i) Flame cells
rice? (b)Bombyx (ii) Comb plates
a. It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from (c) Pleurobrachia (iii) Radula
daffodil (d) Taenia (iv) Malpighian tubules
b. It is pest resistant, with a gene from Select the correct option from the
Bacillus thuringiensis following:
c. It is drought tolerant, developed using (a) (b) (c) (d)
Agrobacterium vector a. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
d. It has yellow grains, because of a gene b. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
introduced from a primitive variety of c. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
rice d. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

Samiksha’s MBBS Entrance SOLVED QUESTIONS |17|

158. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers b. Humoral immune response
to : c. Inflammatory immune response
a. Genes expressed as RNA d. Cell-mediated immune response
b. Polypeptide expression 163. Use of an artificial kidney during
c. DNA polymorphism hemodialysis may result in:
d. Novel DNA sequences a. Nitrogenous waste build-up in the
159.Which is of the following statements is body
incorrect? b. Non-elimination of excess potassium
ions
a. Morels and truffles are edible delicacies. c. Reduced absorption of calcium ions
b. Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids
and LSD. from gastro intestinal tract
c. Conidia are produced exogenously and d. Reduced RBC production
ascospores endogenously. Which of the following options is the
d. Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long
most appropriate?
thread-like hyphae.
160. Match Column - I Column - II a. (a) and (b) are correct
Column - I Column - II b. (b) and (c) are correct
(a) Saprophyte (i) Symbiotic c. (c) and (d) are correct
association d. (a) and (d) are correct
of fungi with plant 164.Which of the following statements is
roots correct?
(b) Parasite (ii) Decomposition of a. Cornea is an external, transparent and
dead organic protective proteinacious covering of the
materials eye-ball.
(c) Lichens (iii) Living on living b. Cornea consists of dense connective
plants or animals tissue of elastin and can repair itself.
(d) Mycorrhiza (iv) Symbiotic c. Cornea is convex, transparent layer
association of algae which is highly vascularised.
and fungi. d. Cornea consists of dense matrix of
Choose the correct answer from the collagen and is the most sensitive portion
option given below
the eye
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 165.The frequency of recombination
b. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) between gene pairs on the same
c. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) chromosome as a measure of the distance
d. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) between genes was explained by:
161. Which of the following glucose a. T.H. Morgan
transporters is insulin-dependent? b. Gregor J. Mendel
a. GLUT I b. GLUT II c. Alfred Sturtevant
c. GLUT III d. GLUT IV d. Sutton Boveri
162. Which of the following immune 166.Match the following genes of the Lac
responses is responsible for rejection of operon with their respective products:
kidney graft?
(a) i gene (i) -galactosidase
a. Auto-immune response
|18| Solved Questions Extension Booklet/NEET 2019
 (b) z gene (ii) Permease 172.Under which of the following conditions
(c) a gene (iii) Repressor will there be no change in the reading
(d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase frame of following mRNA?
5AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3
Select the correct option.
a. Insertion of G at 5th position
(a) (b) (c) (d)
b. Deletion of G from 5th position
a. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
b. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) c. Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th
positions respectively
c. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
d. Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th
d. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
positions
167. It takes very long time for pineapple
173.The concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula”
plants to produce flowers. Which
regarding cell division was first proposed
combination of hormones can be applied
by
to artificially induce flowering in
a. Rudolf Virchow
pineapple plants throughout the b. Theodor Schwann
year to increase yield? c. Schleiden
a. Auxin and Ethylene d. Aristotle
b. Gibberellin and Cytokinin 174. What triggers activation of protoxin to
c. Gibberellin and Abscisic acid active Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in
d. Cytokinin and Abscisic acid boll worm?
168. Identify the cells whose secretion
a. Body temperature
protects the lining of gastro-intestinal
b. Moist surface of midgut
tract from various enzymes. c. Alkaline pH of gut
a. Chief Cells b. Goblet Cells d. Acidic pH of stomach
c. Oxyntic Cells d. Duodenal Cells 175.Identify the correct pair representing
169.Which of the following can be used as a the causative agent of typhoid fever and
biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant the confirmatory test for typhoid.
disease? a. Plasmodium vivax / UTI test
a. Trichoderma b. Chlorella b. Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test
c. Anabaena d. Lactobacillus c. Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test
170. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks: d. Salmonella typhi / Widal test
176. What is the genetic disorder in which
a. Albuminous cells and sieve cells
an individual has an overall masculine
b. Sieve tubes only
c. Companion cells only development gynaecomastia, and is
d. Both sieve tubes and companion cells sterile?
171.Extrusion of second polar body from egg a. Turner's syndrome
nucleus occurs: b. Klinefelter's syndrome
a. after entry of sperm but before c. Edward syndrome
fertilization d. Down's syndrome
b. after fertilization 177. Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled
c. before entry of sperm into ovum modified plastic, has proved to be a good
d. simultaneously with first cleavage material for
a. Making plastic sacks
Samiksha’s MBBS Entrance SOLVED QUESTIONS |19|
 b. Use as a fertilizer ANSWERS
c. Construction of roads
1.c 2.c 3.a 4.b 5.b
d. Making tubes and pipes
6.d 7.c 8.a 9.a 10.b
178. Which of these following methods is the 11.b 12.b 13.b 14.d 15.c
most suitable for disposal of nuclear 16.d 17.b 18.b 19.d 20.d
waste? 21.a 22.c 23.d 24.c 25.c
a. Shoot the waste into space 26.c 27.c 28.d 29.c 30.c
b. Bury the waste under Antarctic ice-cover 31.a 32.a 33.c 34.d 35.c
36.c 37.b 38.a 39.c 40.b
c. Dump the waste within rocks under deep
41.b 42.d 43.c 44.b 45.c
ocean
46.a 47.b 48.a 49.a 50.a
d. Bury the waste within rocks deep below
51.a 52.d 53.a 54.b 55.b
the Earth's surface
56.c 57.a 58.d 59.c 60.b
179.Match the following hormones with the
61.b 62.c 63.c 64.c 65.b
respective disease
66.a 67.c 68.c 69.d 70.c
(a) Insulin (i) Addison's disease 71.c 72.b 73.a 74.c 75.b
(b) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus 76.d 77.c 78.b 79.b 80.a
(c) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly 81.d 82.c 83.d 84.c 85.c
(d) Growth Hormone (iv) Goitre 86.d 87.b 88.b 89.d 90.a
(v) Diabetes mellitus select the correct 81.b 92.d 93.b 94.b 95.b
option. 96.b 97.c 98.a 99.b 100.a
(a) (b) (c) (d) 101.a 102.d 103.b 104.d 105.a
a. (v) (i) (ii) (iii) 106.c 107.b 108.d 109.b 110.d
b. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) 111.d 112.c 113.d 114.b 115.b
c. (v) (iv) (i) (iii) 116.b 117.c 118.b 119.c 120.b
d. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) 121.c 122.b 123.b 124.c 125.b
180. Select the correct option. 126.d 127.d 128.b 129.c 130.c
131.d 132.b 133.b 134.d 135.a
a. 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate 136.d 137.d 138.c 139.a 140.a
directly with the sternum. 141.a 142.d 143.d 144.b 145.b
b. 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected 146.c 147.d 148.b 149.b 150.c
to the sternum with the help of hyaline 151.c 152.a 153.b 154.c 155.c
cartilage. 156.c 157.b 158.a 159.d 160.d
c. Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs 161.d 162.d 163.c 164.d 165.c
are connected dorsally to the thoracic 166.c 167.a 168.b 169.a 170.d
vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum. 171.a 172.d 173.a 174.c 175.d
d. There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, 176.b 177.c 178.d 179.c 180.d
three pairs of vertebrochondral and two
pairs of vertebral ribs

ef

|20| Solved Questions Extension Booklet/NEET 2019