Professional Documents
Culture Documents
AIPMT
All India Pre-Medical/Pre-Dental Entrance Test
Practice Set
Duration: 3 Hours
1.
The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct
response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The
maximum marks are 720.
2.
The question paper contains three parts A, B and C of Physics, Chemistry and Biology respectively.
3.
Part A contains 45 Questions from Physics section. Part B contains 45 Questions from Chemistry section. Part C contains 90
Questions from Biology.
4.
Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5.
On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the invigilator in the Room/Hall. The
candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
6.
Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the test booklet with blue/black ball point pen. Use of pencil is strictly
prohibited.
7.
Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets are not
allowed.
8.
You are not allowed to go anywhere before the end of the test.
9.
Write your name and roll number in the space provided on the bottom of this page.
Roll Number
in Words
(in Figures)
PART A PHYSICS
1. A full wave rectifier circuit along with the input and output are shown in figure.
V
t (Input)
D1
Input
Output
D2
V
A
t (Output)
b. B, D, F
c. A, C, E
d. A, B, C, D, E, F
2. A moving particle has kinetic energy K and wavelength l then, the correct graph related to the particle is
a.
b.
c. Both a and b
1/ k
5 mH
b. 10 V
c. 15 V
d. 5 V
4. If one of the slit in Youngs double slit experiment is covered with a black opaque paper, then
a.
b.
c.
d.
b. 40 days
c. 60 days
3
of its original mass to disintegrate is
4
d. 80 days
6. If a resistance coil is made by joining in parallel two resistances each of 10 W. An emf of 1.0 V is applied between
two ends of coil for 5 min. The heat produced in calories will be
a. 10.3 cal
b. 14.3 cal
c. 16.3 cal
d. 18.3 cal
PRACTICE SET
5
Question Booklet Code
7. If a parallel plate capacitor has capacity C, on inserting a dielectric slab of relative permittivity K and thickness
equal to one-fourth of the plate separation is placed between the plates, then its capacity becomes C. The value of
C /C will be
a.
K
2 (K + 1)
b.
2K
K+1
c.
5K
4K + 1
d.
4K
3K + 1
8. A body of mass 4 kg is acted upon by a force which causes a displacement in it given by x = t 2 m, where t is time
in second. The work done by force in 4s is
a. 64 J
b. 128 J
c. 200 J
d. 240 J
9. A satellite is a heavily body which revolve around the earth at some height. Suppose a satellite is orbiting around
the earth in a circular orbit of radius R from centre of earth then its period of revolution varies as
a. R 3/ 2
b. R 2
c. R
d.
10. If a thin uniform wire of length X having linear mass density D is bent into a circular loop (as shown in figure).
What will be the moment of inertial of the loop about axis AB ?
O
A
3L2D
a.
16 p
2L2D
b.
3p
c.
3L2D
d.
8p 2
8L2D
13p 2
11 If a sphere rolls down from an inclined plane without slipping, then the ratio of translational energy to its total
energy is
a.
7
2
b.
2
7
c.
5
7
d.
7
5
12. If a wire is suspended vertically from one of its end is stretched by attaching a weight of 200 N to the lower end. It
stretches the wire by 1 mm, then the potential energy stored in the wire is
a. 1 J
b. 0.1 J
c. 0.01 J
d. 0.001 J
13. If E denotes electric field in a uniform conductor, I is corresponding current through it and v d is drift velocity of
e - , then the correct graph is
y
a.
b.
vd
c.
vd
d.
vd
vd
14. Two batteries of emf E 1 and E 2 ( E 2 > E 1 ) and internal resistance r1 and r2 respectively are connected in parallel as
shown in figure.
E1
r1
E2
r2
a.
b.
c.
d.
15. A rod of mass m and length l is lying on a horizontal table. The work done to make it stand on one end will be
a. 2 mgl
b. mgl
c.
mgl
2
d.
mgl
4
16. Three lenses of focal length + 15 cm, + 150 cm and + 250 cm are available, for making an astronomical telescope.
To produced the largest magnification, the focal length of the eye-piece should be
a. + 15 cm
b. + 150 cm
c. + 250 cm
d. None of these
17. Which of the following represent the correct graph between the intensity of incident photons ( I ) and the
photoelectric current i ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
18. Two identical rods MN and OP, each of length L, cross-sectional area A and thermal conductivity K are connected
as shown in figure. Ends M , O and P are maintained at temperatures T1 = 20C, T2 = 30C and T 3 = 40C
respectively. The temperature at N is
L/2
L/2
T2
T3
O
a. 32 C
b. 33 C
T1
c. 34 C
d. 35 C
19. An electromagnetic wave is propagating in medium with relative magnetic permeability 50 and relative dielectric
constant 2. The wave impedance of such medium is
a. 2000 W
b. 1883 W
c. 1550 W
d. 1222 W
PRACTICE SET
7
Question Booklet Code
20. The distance between the sun and the earth is R. The angular momentum of earth around the sun is proportional
to
a. R 2/ 3
c. R 1/ 2
b. R
d. R 3/ 2
1
B
21. A body is acted by a force F such that F , where B is distance covered by the body then work done by the force
in moving body from points x 1 and x 2 is
a. k( x 21 - x 22 )
x 21
x 22
b. k
x2
x1
c. k ln
x 22
x 21
d. k ln
w
:1
k
b.
1
:1
ka
c. ka : 1
d. wa : 1
23. Equal masses of two substances of densities r A and r B are mixed together. The density of the mixture would be
r A rB
a.
b.
r A + rB
2
c.
r A rB
r A + rB
d.
2r A rB
r A + rB
24. Suppose an infinite number of charges equal to q are placed along x-axis at x = 1, x = 2 x = 4, x = 8......so on. The
value of electric field at origin will be
a.
q
2 pe 0
b.
q
3pe 0
c.
q
4pe 0
d.
q
8pe 0
25. Displacement x of a particle moving in one dimension is related to time t by the equation t = x + 2. The
displacement of the particle when its velocity is zero, is
(Here x is in metre and t in second)
a. 4
b. 2
c. 1
d. 0
b. 6 10-6 H
c. 4 10-3 H
d. 2 10-3 H
27. If the dimension of a physical quantity is given by Ma Lb Tc , then the physical quantity will be
a. acceleration, if a = 1, b = - 1, c = - 2
c. pressure, if a = 1, b = - 1, c = - 2
b. velocity, if a = 1, b = 0, c = - 1
d. force, if a = 0, b = - 1, c = - 2
28. A TV tower has a height of 20 m. The maximum distance upto which TV transmission can be received is equal to
(radius of earth = 6.4 10 6 m)
a. 4 103 m
b. 16 103 m
c. 32 106 m
d. 64 106 m
29. In which of the following case of spherical lenses (as shown in figure), the emergent ray is parallel to incident
ray?
a.
R1
R2
b.
c.
R1
R1
R1 > R 2
R2
R1 < R2
d.
R1
R2
R1 = R 2
30. A metallic triangle is placed in a uniform electric field. In figure which path will the lines of force follow?
1
2
3
4
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
31. Two blocks of masses m1 = 1 kg and m2 = 2 kg are connected by massless string and placed on a horizontal
frictionless surface as shown in figure. A force F = 12 N is applied to mass m 1 as shown. The acceleration of the
system is
m2
m1
a. 12 m/s 2
b. 8 m/ s 2
c. 4 m/s 2
d. 2 m/s 2
32. In which case there is no current induced in the coil as shown in figure?
Coil
S
Bar
magnet
a.
b.
c.
d.
33. If a block of mass M is lying on a frictionless surface and an another block of mass m is lying
on this block as shown in figure. If the coefficient of static friction between two blocks is m,
then the minimum horizontal force F that must be applied to block of mass m so that it
moves over block of mass M is
a.
mg
m
b. mg
c. mmg
d. mMg
m
M
PRACTICE SET
9
Question Booklet Code
34. In which of the following figure, the p-n diode is forward biased?
+ 2V
a.
b.
10 V
+ 7V
+ 7V
c.
d.
+ 5V
+ 2V
35. A positively charged particle enters a magnetic field of value B $i with a velocity v $j. The particle will move along
a. z-axis
b. - z-axis
c. - x-axis
d. - y-axis
36. A light is an electromagnetic wave consist of particles called photon, if a photon travelling in air enters into a
glass slab of large thickness then which of the following quantities will remain unchanged?
a. velocity
b. wavelength
c. momentum
d. Energy
37. A vessel whose bottom has round holes with diameter of 1 mm is filled with water. Assuming that surface tension
acts only at holes, then maximum height upto which water can be filled in vessel without leakages (surface
tension of water is 7510 -3 N/m, g = 10 m/s 2 )
a. 0.03 m
b. 0.3 m
c. 0.3 cm
d. 0.03 cm
38. For a streamline flow of water which of the following options is correct
a. Streamlines may be straight or curved
c. Only (a) is correct
39. The radiations emitted from a radioactive material separated into two groups A and B when a magnetic field is
directed into the plane of the paper. According to figure, names of radiation A and B are respectively
B
Radioactive
material
a. g, a
b. a, g
c. b, g
d. a, b
10
40. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 100 : 1 undergoes interference, then the ratio of intensities between
minima and maxima will be
a.
9
11
b.
3
4
c.
81
121
d.
144
212
41. Which one of the energy band diagrams shown in the figure corresponds to that of a semiconductor?
CB
CB
a.
VB
b.
Eg = kT
CB
c.
CB
d.
Eg >> kT
Eg = kT
VB
VB
VB
42. Two springs of spring constant k 1 and k 2 have equal maximum velocities, while executing simple harmonic
motion. The ratio of their amplitudes will be (masses are equal in both cases)
k
a. 1
k2
1/ 2
k
b. 2
k1
1/ 2
c.
k1
k2
d.
k2
k1
43. If bullet of mass m and velocity v is fired into a large block of mass M. The final velocity of the system
a.
Mv
M+m
b.
mv
M+m
c.
m
v
M
d.
M
v
m
44. A plane transparent glass slab is placed over various coloured letters, the letter which appears to be raised the
least is
a. green
b. indigo
c. violet
d. red
45. Two rain drops reach the earth with different terminal velocities having ratio 9 : 4 then the ratio of their volume is
a. 3:2
b. 4:9
c. 9:4
d. 27:8
PART B CHEMISTRY
46. The most acidic species among the following one is
a.
b.
c.
d.
b. I+2
c. H2O
d. SO 2
48. If the mass of electron is 9.11 10 -31 kg, Plancks constant is 6.626 10 -34 J-s and uncertainty in position is 0.1 ,
then uncertainty in velocity is
a. 5.79 108 m/s
49. An electron, a proton and an alpha particle have KE of 16 E, 4E and E respectively. What is the qualitative order
of their de-Broglie wavelengths?
a. le > lp > l a
b. lp = l a > le
c. lp < le < l a
d. l a < le lp
c. N +2
d. O 2
b. B 2
PRACTICE SET
11
Question Booklet Code
51. Normality and molarity changes with temperature because they involve volumes. The normality of 0.3 M
phosphoric acid, H 3 PO 4 is
a. 0.9
b. 0.1
c. 0.3
d. 0.6
52. In a compound, atoms of element Y form CCP lattice and those of element X occupy 2/3 rd of tetrahedral voids.
The formula of compound will be
a. X 3P4
b. X 4Y3
c. X 2Y3
d. X 2Y
53. The solution which maintains its pH constant even upon addition of small amounts of acid or base, is called
buffer solution. Which can act as a buffer?
a. NH4Cl + NH4OH
c. 40 mL of 0.1 M NaCN + 20 mL of 0.1 M HCN
b. CH3COOH + CH3COONa
d. All of the above
a. CaCO 3 CaO + CO 2
b. Na + H2O NaOH + H2
1
2
d. O 2 + 2H2 2H2O
b. Ti3+
c. Fe 2+
d. Cu2+
56. During electrophilic substitution reaction of fullerene, the hybridisation of carbon atom
a. remains sp 2 in reactant as well as product
c. changes from sp 3 to sp 2
b. changes from sp 2 to sp 3
d. cannot be determined
57. Solids are attracted by magnetic field due to the presence of atoms, ions or molecules with unpaired electron,
called paramagnetic. Which among the following is paramagnetic?
a. Cl2O 7
b. Cl2O
c. ClO 2
d. Cl2O 5
58. Count the total number of S O bonds, which are having equal length in bisulphate ion?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
59. Which of the following statement (s) is/are incorrect about aspirin?
A. Aspirin is analgesic
C. Aspirin is tranquilizer
B. Aspirin is antipyretic
D. Aspirin doesnt belong to narcotic analgesic
b. C and D
c. A and C
d. B and D
60. What will be the product when phenol is treated with CO2 at 140-200C?
a. o and p-salicylic acid
d. Benzoic acid
12
61. Which of the following compound produces acetaldehyde on ozonolysis followed by acidic hydrolysis?
A. CH 3 C == CH 2
B. CH 3 C == C CH 3
C. CH 3CH 2CH == CH 2
D. CH 3 C C CH 3
b. A and B
c. A, B and C
d. Only A
b. Carbanion
c. Carbene
d. None of these
a. Propanol
b. Propanal
CH3MgBr (excess)
H3O+
c. Acetaldehyde
d. None of these
64. What will be the product if product ( B ) obtained in following reaction undergo oxidation?
CH3Cl
AlCl3
(B)
(A)
a. Benzyl alcohol
b. Benzoic acid
c. Toluene
d. None of these
a.
b.
c.
d.
66. Maximum oxidation state exhibited by Mn and its makgnetic moment in +2 oxidation state will be
a. + 2, 5.92 BM
b. + 7, 4.83 BM
c. + 6, 3.87 BM
d. + 7, 5.92 BM
c. electrodialysis
d. coagulation
c. 0
d. + 4
b. filtration
b. + 2
3+
b. 33
is
c. 24
d. 30
b. Leucine
c. Glycine
d. Valine
71. Head-to-tail addition takes place in chain growth polymerisation when monomer is
c. CH2 C CH OCH3
CH3
b. CH2 CH CH CH2
a. CH2 CH
d.
CH2 CH C
N
PRACTICE SET
13
Question Booklet Code
72. Histamine is an organic nitrogenous compound involved in local immune responsed as well as regulating
H
physiological function in the gut and acting as a neuro transmitter. The durg
a. Vasodilator
b. Analgesics
c. Antacid
is used as
CH2CH2NH2
d. Antiseptic
73. What is the empirical formula of a compound having 40% carbon, 6.66% hydrogen and 53.34% oxygen?
b. C 2H4O
a. C 2H2O
c. CH2O
d. CHO
75. Molality of aqueous solution of 8.0 M ethanol having density 1.025 g/mL is
a. 12.17
b. 24.34
c. 10.17
d. 14.35
76. Haemoglobin is the iron containing oxygen transport metalloprotein in the red blood cells of all vertebrates as
well as the tissue of some invertebrater. The correct statement in respect of protein haemoglobin is that it
a. acts as an oxygen carrier in the blood.
c. functions as a catalyst for biological reactions.
77. Which of the following is used as an antifreeze in cars for cooling the engine?
a. 10% (V/V) ethanol solution in water
c. 45% (V/V) solution of ethylene lycol
b. F H L F
c. O H L O
d. O H L F
st
79. The unit of 1 and zero order reaction in term of molarity are respectively
a. s -1, Ms -1
b. s -1, M
c. Ms -1
d. M, s -1
80. Carbocations are stablized by three main structural factors. Such factors are neighboring carbon atoms,
neighboring carbon-carbon multiple bonds and neighboring atoms with lone pairs. Most stable among the
following carbocations is
a.
b. C2H5CH2
d. CH3CHCH3
c.
81. Borax, disodium tetraborate is an important boron compound, a mineral, and a salt of boric acid. The number of
terminal B OH present in borax is
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
14
82. The most reactive substrate towards SN 2 reaction among the following is
Cl
Cl
a.
b.
Cl
c.
Cl
d.
83. Which of the following pair of solution is expected to show isotonic at same temperature?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ksp
1/ 3
Ksp
1/ 2
b.
1/ 3
c.
d.
85. Molarity of a solution obtained by mixing 800 mL 0.6 M HCl with 200 mL 1 M HCl will be
a. 0.4 M
b. 1.6 M
c. 0.68 M
d. 1.68 M
Cl
Cl
Cl
a. Cl
c.
b.
d.
2NO
Activation energy of the backward reaction is lower than that of forward reaction. The slope of k versus 1/T graph
will be
a. zero
b. -
H
2.303 R
c.
H
2.303 R
d. -
DH
R
b. 4
c. 6
d. 10
89. Insulin production and its action in human body are responsible for the level of diabetes. This compound belongs
to which of the following categories?
a. A co-enzyme
c. An enzyme
b. A harmone
d. An antibiotic
90. The reaction rate for a reactant or product in a particular reaction is intuitively defined as how fast or slow a
reaction takes place. Effect of temperature on reaction rate is given by
a. Claisen-Clapeyron equation
c. Gibbs Helmholtz equation
b. Arrhenius equation
d. Kirchhoffs equation
PART C BIOLOGY
91. What is not correct about Darwinism?
a.
b.
c.
d.
b. Giemsa
d. Tritiated thymidine
A
a. 1
c. 2
B
2
1
Column II
A.
Isoalleles
1.
B.
Pseudoalleles
2.
C.
Inhibitor gene
3.
Epistatic gene
C
3
3
A
b. 3
d. 1
B
2
3
C
1
2
b. J-shaped
d. Parallel line
96. Two or more species which are inhabiting the same or overlapping areas are known as
a. sympatric species
c. sibling species
b. allopatric species
d. neopatric species
b. I and II only
d. I and IV
16
98. Which one of the following option is correct about the active transport?
a.
b.
c.
d.
99. Suppose evolution on earth had occured in such a way that there are 96 amino acids instead of 20. DNA has 12
different types of bases and DNA synthesis occurs in the same way as today. The minimum number of bases per
DNA codon would be
a. 12
c. 8
b. 2
d. 3
100. Which phytohormone has vital inhibitory property with respect to seed germination?
a. IAA
c. ABA
b. GA 3
d. 2, 4-D
b. Sporopollenin makes the exine of spores and pollen grains of plants providing resistance to biodegradation.
c. Pollen kit material is secreted by tapetum
d. Occurance of more than four spores from a spore mother cell is called polyspory.
102. In the given diagram, parts labelled as A, B, C, D, E and F are respectively identified as
A
B
C
D
E
F
a.
b.
c.
d.
Polar nuclei
Egg
Antipodals
Filiform apparatus
Central cell
Synergids
Synergids
Filiform apparatus
Egg
Central cell
Polar nuclei
Antipodals
Antipodals
Polar nuclei
Central cell
Egg
Synergids
Filiform apparatus
Polar nuclei
Central cell
Egg
Antipodal
Filiform apparatus
Synergids
103. Which of the following is supposed to be the most direct evidence of organic evolution?
a. vestigial organ
c. fossils
b. embryos
d. morphology
PRACTICE SET
17
Question Booklet Code
Codes
A
B
a. 1
2
c. 5
1
C
3
2
Column II
A.
Charles Darwin
1.
Mutation theory
B.
Lamarck
2.
C.
Hugo de Vries
3.
Origin of species
D.
Ernst Haeckel
4.
Philosphie zoologique
5.
Biogenetic law
D
4
3
A
b. 3
d. 2
B
4
3
C
1
4
D
5
5
b. incomplete dominance
d. multiple alleles
b. monocytes
c. lymphocytes
d. leucocytes
107. In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops as a result of free nuclear division into
a. embryo sac
b. ovule
c. endosperm
d. zygote
108. The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is to act as
a. constituents of hormones
c. cofactors of enzymes
b. resource piracy
c. intellectual piracy
d. theft
110. A protoxin is
a. lipid
c. extracellular crystalline protein
b. intracellular lipid
d. a primitive toxin
b. 1972
c. 1969
d. 1981
112. Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO) are developed by rDNA Technology and genetic engineering. They are
useful
a.
b.
c.
d.
113. ADA : Adenosine deaminase enzyme does not function. It occurs as a result of
a. hormonal defect
c. hereditary defect
b. genetic defect
d. None of these
114. Which of the following bond is formed during the condensation of monosaccharides?
a. Covalent bond
c. Peptide bond
b. Glycosidic bond
d. Ionic bond
18
Codes
A B
a. 1
3
c. 3
2
C
2
4
Column II
A.
Rabbit
1.
Panthera tigris
B.
Tiger
2.
Platianista
C.
Ganges Dolphin
3.
Oryctolagus
D.
Dog
4.
D
4
1
A
b. 1
d. 2
B
4
1
C
3
4
D
2
3
b. 16 years
d. 9-15 months
118. There are two portal system in body. One of them Hypophysial portal system is found in
a. brain
b. kidney
c. liver
d. heart
119. Identify wheather the given statements are the characteristic of cleavage or typical mitosis.
I. DNA synthesis occurs at the normal rate.
II. Nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio increases as cleavage progresses.
III. Size of daughter cells decreases.
IV. Interphase is long
a. Cleavage I,II
b. Cleavage I
Typical mitosis III, IV
c. Cleavage II
Typical mitosis I, III, IV
b. damage to kidney
d. damage to lungs
121. In frog, the pharynx communicates with tympanic cavity ventrally through
a. semi-circular canal
c. Eustachian tube
b. Bidders canal
d. horizontal canal
The rate of absorption of water is almost directly proportional to the rate of transpiration.
Soil temperature, soil aeration, relative humidity, amount of soil water and transpiration are factors affect the absorption.
Water is removed in the form of vapours during transpiration.
If the atmosphere is humid, it increases the rate of transpiration.
PRACTICE SET
19
Question Booklet Code
124. Identify the state of glandular tissue of mammary glands during the following conditions.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Non-pregnant woman
Pregnant woman
On the infants birth
After menopause
a. IAtrophy
b. IInfluence of oestrogen
IIInfluence of oxytocin
IIScanty
IIIScanty
IVInfluence of oestrogen
IVAtrophy
c. IScanty
d. IInfluence of progesterone
IIInfluence of prolactin
IIIInfluence of prolactin
IIIInfluence of oxytocin
IVAtrophy
IVAtrophy
b. involuntary muscle
d. smooth muscle
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I, II and III
c. pathetic
d. ophthalmic
b. abducens
Codes
A
B
a. 4
2
c. 4
3
C
3
2
D
1
1
Column II
A.
Iron bacteria
1.
Carboxydomonas, Bacillus
oligocarbophilus
B.
Hydrogen bacteria
2.
Beggiatoa, Thiothrix
C.
Sulphur bacteria
3.
Bacillus pentotrophs
D.
Carbon bacteria
4.
b. 3
d. 2
B
4
3
C
1
4
D
2
1
20
Perienth is the collective name of the non-essential floral organs if there is no distinction between sepals and petals.
The term tepals is used to describe the perianth lobes, which appear like petals.
The corolla of Hibiscus is polypetalous and twisted.
Ovary is superior perigynous flower.
b. I, III and IV
d. All of these
130. Nothing in biology makes sense except in the light of evolution who said this?
a. Hugo de Vries
c. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck
b. Charles Darwin
d. Theodosius Dobzhansky
b. State government
d. Legal system
b. vector
c. plasmid
d. capsid
b. codominant genes
d. polymeric genes
135. Restriction enzyme cuts DNA at palandronic base sequences which happens to be
a. TATAGC
c. GTATATC
b. AAGTTC
d. GAATTC
b. epinephrine
d. thyroxine
Column II
A.
Miscarriage
1.
B.
Pregnancy test
2.
Animal pole
C.
Luteal phase
3.
Progesterone secretion
D.
Polar bodies
4.
hCG
PRACTICE SET
21
Question Booklet Code
Codes
A
B
a. 1
3
c. 3
2
C
2
4
D
4
1
A
b. 1
d. 2
B
4
1
C
3
4
D
2
3
139. How many bones are fused to become the total count of 206?
a. 270
c. 350
b. 250
d. 370
b. RNA polymerase
d. Ligase
b. hybridisation
c. PCR
d. fermentation
b. amoeboid stage
d. sporozoite stage
b. Seeds + R + Fr
d. Seeds + R
148. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option given below.
I Nepenthes khasiana is a green plant but shows heterotrophic nature for nitrogen supply, therefore, is called as
carnivorous.
II Frankia is symbiont in root nodules of several legume plants like Pisum sativum.
a. Statement I is correct, II is incorrect.
c. Both are correct
22
150. Match the item in column I with column II and choose the correct alternatives.
Column I
A.
Codes
A
B
a. 2
4
c. 4
1
C
1
2
Column II
Pneumatophores
1.
Heritiera
B.
Haustoria
2.
Asparagus
C.
Prop roots
3.
Viscum
D.
4.
Screw pine
D
3
3
A
b. 2
d. 3
B
3
2
C
4
4
D
1
1
b. temperature
c. humidity
d. availability of oxygen
b. Pasteurs effect
d. Gibbs effect
Pollen grains are produced in such a large number as to form yellowish cloud.
Each vascular bundle in the long shoot of Pinus consists of xylem facing towards the centre of the shoot.
Pinus is a homosporous gymnosperm.
Microsporophyll of Pinus bears two oblong microsporangia abaxially on the proximal part.
b. Photorespiration
d. Conversion of fat into sugar
157. The original ration 9:3:3:1 ratio become modified into what ratio in dominant epistasis?
a. 9:3:4
b. 12:3:1
c. 13:3
b. Polytene chromosome
d. Lampbrush chromosome
d. 9:7
PRACTICE SET
23
Question Booklet Code
b. connective tissue
d. All of these
160. Epiphytes like vanda develop special layer of absorptive tissue velamen consisting of 4 or 5 layers of long
polygonal cells. Velamen takes part in
a. absorption of water from soil
c. exchange of gases
163. Littles leaf disease of brinjal takes place due to which one of the following reason?
a. Copper
b. Molybdenum
c. Manganese
d. MLO
b. formation of NADPH2
d. excitation of chlorophyll molecule
b. Kerala
d. Tamil Nadu
b. tabes dorsalis
d. neuritis
169. During the DNA replication, the term leading strand is applied to which of the following strand.
a.
b.
c.
d.
24
b. sucker
c. runner
d. stolen
b. espionage
d. bioremediation of oil spills
b. Ribonuclease
c. Haemoglobin
d. Hair keratin
173. Which of the following component of blood does not enter into the nephron?
a. Water
c. Plasma protein
b. Urea
d. Glucose
a. 5 TAATTAG 3
c. 5 TATATTAG 3
176. Which one of the following was observed for the first time by Trenb?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Entry of pollen tube into the ovule through the micropyle in Casuarina.
Entry of pollen tube into ovule through the chalaza in Casuarina.
Entry of pollen tube into the ovule through the integuments in Hibiscus.
Entry of pollen tube into the ovule through the chalaza in Hibiscus.
177. Vector is transmitting agant & organism of a disease. In case of filariasis, it is spread by
a. sandfly
b. tse-tse fly
c. rat flea
b. Homo erectus
d. Sinanthropus pekinensis
b. Opuntia
d. Euphorbia
180. Eye of the molluscan group that resembles vertebrate eyes are
a. pelecypoda
c. cephalopoda
b. scaphopoda
d. gastropoda
d. Culex
1. (b) When the diode will be forward biased, then they will
conduct. In positive half-cycle, diode D1 will be
forward biased and it will conduct. In negative
half-cycle, diode D1 will be reverse biased and it will
be off. But during the negative half-cycle, the diode
D2 will conduct. Hence, the junction diode D2 will
provide output only when it will be forward biased.
This is the case for negative half-cycles at B, D and F.
h
h
(i)
2. (c) As,
=
=
mv p
7. (d) C =
C =
p
1
mv 2 =
2
2m
K =
p = 2mK
4K
4 KC
0A
=
( 3K + 1) d ( 3K + 1)
4K
C
=
C ( 3K + 1)
v =
(ii)
t = 4 s, final velocity vf = 8
at
3
N
N0 = 0
4
4
n
1 1
= n = 2
4 2
= 14.3 cal
dx d 2
=
(t ) = 2t
dt dt
or
0A
4 0A
=
d
1
d
d 1 3d +
K
4
K
and
0A
and C =
d
GM
R
2R
v
2
R 3/ 2
=
GM
MR 2
2
[R is radius, M is mass]
MR 2
3
+ MR 2 = MR 2
2
2
3
2
I AB = MR
2
(i)
Mass of loop M = LD
(ii)
I AB =
3
3L2D
L
(LD ) =
2
2
8 2
L
2
(iii)
26
1 2 1
I =
2
2
1
MR 2 2
5
2
2
2
MR
5
2
2
Q I = MR
1
U = stress strain volume
2
1 F l
1
U=
Al = Fl
l
2 A
2
1
= 200 103 = 0.1 J
2
Q 2 KA (T3 TN )
=
t
L /2
The rate of flow of heat from N towards M is
Q 3 KA (TN T1)
=
t
L
(V = Potential difference)
EL = iR
iR i
E =
=
L
A
(V = EL )
L
R =
ne A vd
A
E = ne vd or vd E
So, graph will be a straight line.
E =
r1 r2
r1 + r2
E eq
1
1
(KE) translation = Mv 2 = MR 2 2
2
2
7
2 2
(KE) Total =
MR
10
(KE )rotation 2
=
(KE ) Total
7
13. (a) V = iR
E r + E 2 r1
E r + E 2 r1
= 1 2
req = 1 2
r1 r2
(r1 + r2 )
f
f
16. (a) As, magnification | m | = o 1 + e
fe
D
So,
1
fe
50
376.6 = 1883
2
r 0
= r 0
r 0
r 0
Now,
T R
2
...(i)
(Keplers law)
T R
2
=
R 3 / 2
T
3/ 2
L R 2 R 3 / 2
L R
...(ii)
PRACTICE SET
27
1
k
F =
B
B
x2
x2
x1
x1
x2
8 103
F. dB = B dB = k ln x1
8 103 = L ( 4)
Wave velocity v =
k
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
dy
: v = a : = ka : 1
dt max
k
As,
...(i)
...(ii)
= 16 103 m
24. (b) As the charges are placed along the same straight
1
E =
4 0
m2
q
4 0
a = 4 m/s 2
32. (c) When coil and magnet both move in same direction
with same velocity, so there will be no change in flux
and due to this, no current will induce.
x =t + 4 4t
...(i)
Now velocity,
dx d 2
v =
=
(t + 4 4t ) = 2 t 4
dt dt
t =2s
x =4+ 48=0
S
Bar
magnet
33. (c) The block of mass m will move over block of mass M,
v = 0 2t 4 = 0
Displacement = 0
Coil
m1
12 = (1 + 2)a
x =t 2
F = (m1 + m2 ) a
25. (d) t = x + 2
Putting t = 2 s in
R1 = R2
q
q
q
q
12 + 22 + 42 + 82 +
x = (t 2)2
R2
R1
1
1
1
1 + 4 + 16 + 64 +
q 1
q
=
=
1
4 0 1 3 0
4
=
a = 1, b = 1, c = 2
= 2 6.4 106 20
mA = mB = m
2m A B
2 A B
=
=
m ( A + B ) A + B
[MLT 2 ]
= [ML1 T 2 ]
[L2 ]
Total mass
m + mB (mA + mB ) A B
= A
=
Total volume mA + mB (mA B + mB A )
A
B
L = 2 103 H
Force
Pressure =
Area
F m a
p= =
A
A
27. (c)
dI
dt
d (4 + 4 t )
=L
dt
| e| = L
...(ii)
28
+7V
+5V
A1 2
k2 k2
=
=
=
A2 1
k1 k1
$
F = q (v$j B $i ) = qvB ( k)
mv + 0 = (M + m ) v
which is z-axis
T ( 2 r ) = h g ( r )
2
h=
2T
2 (75 103 )
= 0.03 m
= 3
gr 10 10 ( 0.5 103 )
As, = A +
1/ 2
I1 100
=
i . e., I1 = 100 k , I 2 = k
I2
1
Real depth
B
2
(Cauchys relation)
2 ( ) 9r 2
9
v r2
v1
=
v2
Now,
r12
r22
r12 9
r
3
= 1 =
r22 4 r2 2
r
27
3
= 1 = =
2
8
r2
(k is proportionality constant)
Intensity at maxima is
Imax = I1 + I 2 + 2 I1 I 2 = 100 + 1 + 2 100 1 = 121
Intensity at minima is
is most
Imin = I1 + I 2 2 I1 I 2
Imin
Imax
= 100 + 1 2 100 1 = 81
81
=
121
k
m
Geometry = linear
Hybridisation = sp 3d
PRACTICE SET
29
x p
x mv
x v
v
h
=
4
h
=
4
h
=
4m
h
=
4m x
=
6.626 1034
4 3.14 9.11 1031 0.1 1010
6.626 1034
4 3.14 0.1 1041
6.626 1034 + 41
6.626
=
10+7
0.4 3.14
0.4 3.14
Ti3+ has n = 0
Cu2+ has n = 1
Molecules
Total number of
electrons
Magnetic
behaviour
Cl2O7
72+76
= 14 + 42 = 56
Diamagnetic
Cl2O
7 2 + 6 = 20
Diamagnetic
ClO2
7 1 + 6 2 = 19
Paramagnetic
Cl2O5
7 2 + 6 5 = 44
Diamagnetic
h
h
=
p mv
1
and m >>> E
mE
S
y
O
OH
+ 2 2
+ 4
O
OH
O
OH
Ob
N = 2 0.3 = 0.6
n = 2 N =M 2
Total Y atoms = 4
Total number of tetrahedral voids = 8
8 2 16
Total X atoms =
=
3
3
substitution
57. (c)
i.e.,
electrophilic
Mg2+ has n = 0
while
O
OH
Resonance hybrid
OH
OH
COOH
CO2
+
o-salicylic acid
COOH
p-salicylic acid
30
O3
61. (b) A.
= 5( 5 + 2) = 5.92 BM
Acetaldehyde
H
CH3
CH3
C == C
B.
O3
2CH3CHO
Acetaldehyde
H
O3
Propanal
= 24 + 12 = 36
CCl 2
Dichlorocarbene
OH
HN
CHO
NH2
NaOH + CHCl3
N
Salicylaldehyde
63. (a)
CH3 MgBr
CH3
CH3MgBr
OH
CH2CHCOOH
OMgBr
73. (c)
CH3
CH3
CH3
64. (b)
CH3
CH3
CH3Cl
AlCl3
Toluene
B
Atomic
Mass (a)
Percentage
(b)
b
=x
a
Ratio
12
40
3.33
6.66
6.66
16
53.34
3.33
Atom
74. (a) Velocities of both K + and NO3 are nearly the same in
COOH
[o]
65. (c)
OHy
O+
OH
x 2 4 = 1
x = 1 + 8 = + 7
31
R = k [ A ]1
mol L1 s 1 = k mol L1
Unit of k = s 1
R = k [ A ]0
1 1
mol L s = k
Unit of k = mol L1 s 1
79. (a)
(first order)
K = Ae E a /RT
OH
B
O
O
O
HOB
O
OH
83. (d) Solutions have same number of ions will exert equal
osmotic pressure and expected to show isotonic.
Ca (NO3 )2 s
Ca 2+ + 2NO3
i =3
Na 2 SO4 s
2 Na + + SO
i =3
4
K sp = s ( 2s )2 = 4s 3
s=
85. (c) M =
K sp
=
4
4
K sp
1/ 3
86. (b)
Cl
1, 2 alkyl
shift
proceeds
through
H
+0
RT
Compare with y = mx + c
Given,
E a (forward) > E a (backward)
In endothermic reaction,
Hence, slope for reaction will be
Time
96. (a) Sympatric species are the species that live in the
H > 0
growth occurs
when resources are abundant,
population passes well beyond
the carrying capacity of the
ecosystem.
This reaction
rearrangement.
through
m1v1 + m2v 2
0.6 800 + 1 200
=
v1 + v 2
1000
480 + 200 680
=
=
= 0.68 M
1000
1000
H+
Ca 2+ + 2Cl
s
caused
BOH
CaCl2 s
are
Population size
PRACTICE SET
H
.
R
carbocation
97. (b) Pancrease and gastric glands are which have both
exercise and endocrine tissue. Excercise secretion
poured into the respective duetseptun where as
endocrine secretion directly goes to blood/target
organ.
32
99. (b) If one base is coding one amino acid, then (12)1 = 12
but there are 96 amino acids.
suppose, two bases form one codon, then (12)2 = 144
This is sufficient to code 96 or 20 amino acids and
hence two, bases form one codon.
102. (c)
Chalazal end
Antipodals
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
Platianista
Panthera tigers
Synergids
Filiform apparatus
Microplylar end
104. (b)
PRACTICE SET
33
124. (c) Breast occur in both males and females, but require
estrogen for growth. It contains connective tissue,
glandular tissue, fatty tissue, milk duct and nipple.
Cladothrix
Hydrogen bacteria Bacillus pentotrophs
Sulphur bacteria
Thiobacillus
Beggiatoa,
Carbon bacteria
oligocarbophilus
Carboxydomonas,
Thiothrix
and
Bacillus
34
in
1882
and
is
largest
160. (b) These roots hang in the air and possess velamen for
161. (c)
~ 49 Protien
18s rRNA
40 s subunit
~ 33 Protien
is
manufacture
of
organic
compounds inside the chlorophyll containing cells
from CO2 and water with the help of sunlight.
165. (b) Silent valley National Park with core zone of 236.7 km
2
174. (d) Prinbow box also called TATA box is rich in 7 bp long
sequence in promoter region of DNA.
It assists directly in RNA polymerase-II to the
promoter region of DNA during transcription because
RNA polymerase II cannot recognise the initiation site
on its own.
176. (b) Trenb observed entry of pollen tube into the ovule
through chalazal end in Casuarina. This is known as
chalazogamy.